PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Windows Explorer Textbook Questions and Answers

Choose the Suitable Option and fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
Windows Explorer has two panes. These are …………… and …………….
(a) First, Second
(b) Left, Right
(c) Top, Bottom
(d) File, Folder.
Answer:
(b) Left, Right

Question 2.
……………. type and date of modified of a file.
(a) Details
(b) Tiles
(c) List
(d) Content.
Answer:
(a) Details

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
………………… command is used to move an item from its place.
(a) Copy
(b) Paste
(c) Cut
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Cut

Question 4.
A …………. combination of pictures, colors and sounds on our computer.
(a) Background
(b) Desktop
(c) Screen Saver
(d) Theme.
Answer:
(d) Theme.

Question 5.
A …………. software program that becomes activated after the computer is not in use for a specified duration of time.
(a) Background
(b) Desktop
(c) Screen Saver
(d) Theme.
Answer:
(c) Screen Saver.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which Window application is used for management of flies?
Answer:
Windows Explorer is used to manage files properly.

Question 2.
What do we call a folder inside another folder?
Answer:
Sub-folder.

Question 3.
What is the method of opening Windows Explorer?
Answer:
There are ways to open Windows Explorer.

  • Press Windows key + E.
  • Type Explorer in the Run box.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
Write the name of any default library of Window.
Answer:
By default Windows has four libraries-Documents, Music, Pictures, and Videos.

Question 5.
Which option is used to make a duplicate of an item?
Answer:
The copy/paste option is used to make a duplicate of an item.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many panes are available in Window Explorer? Write their names.
Answer:
Windows Explorer has two panes.

  • Left pane
  • Right pane.

Question 2.
Write the name of different parts of Window Explorer.
Answer:
Windows Explorer has the following components:

  1. Title bar
  2. Back and forward buttons
  3. Address bar
  4. Search box
  5. Menu bar
  6. Tool bar
  7. Status bar.

Question 3.
Define File and Folder.
Answer:
A file is a common storage unit in a computer in which data, programs, software, etc. are stored. Computers have different files that have different functions. The data stored in the file can be “updated, deleted, edited” at any time.
The folder is where the files are stored. We can save more than one file and folder in one folder. For example I have a box containing 10 apples. In this example the box is a folder and the apples are the files saved in it. Another folder inside any folder is called a sub-folder.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Windows Explorer? Give different ways to open Windows Explorer.
Answer:
Windows Explorer is also called File Explorer. It is used to view files and folders on our computer. We can open the data, folder and library of the disk in the computer and also search for an item. We can use it to open, delete, rename, copy, move and create new folders.
We can open window explorer in many ways. Some of these are as follow:

  • Just press Win key +E and File Explorer starts immediately.
    Or
  • Click Windows-Keys > All Programs > Accessories > Windows Explorer.
    Or
  • Press Windows key – the search box will open. Now type file explorer in it.
    Or
  • Press Windows key +R key together. The Run box will open. Now type explorer in it.
    Or
  • By default, Windows 10 includes a File Explorer shortcut on the taskbar. Its icon looks like a folder. Click or tap on it and File Explorer is opened.

Question 2.
Explain different views of Windows Explorer.
Answer:
View means how files and folders appear in a computer system. Explorer has five types of views. These are:
1. Small, Medium, Large and Extra Large Icons View:
Items in this view are in more than one row and each item appears in the shape of an icon. Each item has a name.

2. Tiles Icon View:
Items in this view are in more than one row and each item appears in the shape of an icon. Each item has a name. It contains other information, such as the type of file and its size.

3. List Icon View:
Items in this view are in more than one column. Each item has a name and the icon, is to the left of the name.

4. Content Icon View:
Items in this view appear in the column. Each item is in the shape of an icon. It has a name and type of the file is written below it. Some other properties such as modification date and size below it are also visible. By default this view is used for search.

5. Detail Icon View:
Each item appears as a table row. The first column contains the name of the item in the form of a small icon and the rest of the column lists its properties such as its size and the date and type of modification.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
What are the options to customize the Desktop in Windows Environment?
Answer:
Customizing is the process of changing the settings of a desktop.
1. Themes:
Themes are a combination of pictures, colors, and sounds. It has background, screen saver, border color and sound scheme.
Windows has the following themes:

  • My Themes
  • Arrow Themes
  • Basic and High Contrast The-mes Following are the steps to apply the theme:

Open Settings.

  • Click on Personalization.
  • Click on Themes.
  • Click the Get more themes in the Microsoft Store option.
  • Select the theme you want.
  • Click the Get button.
  • Click the Apply button.
  • Click the newly added theme to apply it from the “Themes” page.

2. Desktop Background:
It is a wallpaper image that appears behind the icons on your computer’s desktop. It can be in JPEG or Gif format. The following are steps to change the desktop background:

  • Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu. The Personalization window appears.
  • Click the Desktop Background link. The Desktop Background dialog box appears.
  • Select a category of desktop background options from the Picture Location list box and then click the image from the background preview list that you want to use.
  • The background is previewed on your desktop. Click Save Changes.

3. Screen Saver:
Screen saver is the graphics that appear on the screen after not working on the computer for some time. It is used for security and protection of the screen. We can set our own screen saver.
Steps to set the screen saver: Here are the steps to set up a screen saver:

  • Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu. The Personalization window appears.
  • Click the Lock Screen option. The lock screen dialog box appears.
  • In the Screen Saver Settings window, choose a screen saver from the drop-down list.
  • Click on the Preview button to preview the screen saver.
  • The screensaver has to be set to run automatically from the desktop. So type the time setting in the Wait option that appears in the picture.
  • Click on Apply button and press Ok button.

Question 4.
How can we Copy items using the ‘send to’ option?
Answer:
The Send to Option is an easy way to copy one or more items or programs to a new location. Following are the steps to use Send to option:

  • Select the item to be copied.
  • Press the right mouse button; select the option “Send To” from the menu.
  • Now select the specified location. By default, the Send To sub menu contains the following locations:
    • Compressed (zipped) folder
    • Desktop (Create Short-cut)
    • Documents Library
    • Fax and mail recipients
    • Removable devices, such as: USB. Memory Sticks
  • Select the option as needed.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 5.
Write about Screen Saver.
Answer:
Screen saver is the graphics that appear on the screen after not working on the computer for some time. It is used for security and protection of the screen. We can set our own screen saver.
Steps to set the Screen Saver:
Here are the steps to set up a screen saver:

  • Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu; The Personalization window appears.
  • Click the Lock Screen option. The lock screen dialog box appears.
  • In the Screen Saver Settings window, choose a screen saver from the drop-down list.
  • Click on the Preview button to-preview the screen saver.
  • The screensaver has to be set to run automatically from the desktop. So type the time setting in the Wait option that appears in the picture.
  • Click on Apply button and press Ok button

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Windows Explorer Important Questions and Answers

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Windows Explorer has ………. views.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(d) Five.

Question 2.
The ………………. command is used to run the program.
(a) Calculator
(b) Window
(c) View
(d) Bun.
Answer:
(d) Bun.

Question 3.
The …………. view displays the files as a list.
(a) Tile
(b) Content
(c) Large
(d) I&t.
Answer:
(d) I&t.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
The ………… option is used to copy files and folders.
(a) Cut
(b) Copy
(c) Paste
(d) Run.
Answer:
(b) Copy

Question 5.
Explorer can be run by typing …………….. in the run box.
(a) Exp
(b) Explorer
(c) Command
(d) GMD.
Answer:
(b) Explorer

Question 6.
The …………… option is used to find files and folders.
(a) Select
(b) File
(c) Search
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Search

Question 7.
The calculator is opened by typing …………….. in the run box.
(a) Calculator
(b) Cal
(c) Calc
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Calc

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 8.
The ………… command is used to remove an item from its place.
(a) Copy
(b) Paste
(c) Cut
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Cut

2. True/False

Question 1.
Explorer is used to manage folders.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A folder can contain many files and folders.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
How to open Explorer
Start> All Programs> Accessories> Windows Explorer
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
Explorer is a system software.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
“Invert Selection” option is used to reverse the selection.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
To select all files in a folder press Ctrl+A keys.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
A single file can contain many files and folders.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Windows Explorer is an operating system.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
The Copy option is used to duplicate an item.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

3. Match the Columns

Column A Column B
1. Views of Explorer (a) List
2. Calculator (b) Deleted files
3. Desktop (c) Picture, Music
4. My Documents (d) Background
5. Recycle Bin (e) Calculations.

Answer:

Column A Column B.
1. Views of Explorer (a) List
2. Calculator (e) Calculations.
3. Desktop (d) Background
4. My Documents (c) Picture, Music
5. Recycle Bin (b) Deleted files

4. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Windows Explorer?
Answer:
Windows Explorer is a very important application of operating system. This manages files and folders. It helps to keep files and folders in the correct order i.e cut, copy, paste and delete them.

Question 2.
How to delete files and folders?
Answer:
Delete command is used to delete a file or folder. Following are the steps to delete file/folder:

  • Select the file or folder you want to delete.
  • Press the Delete key from the keyboard. A message will appear asking for deletion.
  • Click on “Yes”. Item will be deleted.

If you want to delete file permanently then you will need to empty the Recycle Bin.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
Write down steps to create a new folder.
Answer:
Here are some ways to Create a File in Explorer:

  • Select the drive or folder in the left pane where you want to create the place of the cursor where you want to add your folder.
  • In File Explorer, click on the Home menu item.
  • From the Home ribbon, click on the New folder button.
  • Enter the name of your new folder and press enter key.

Question 4.
How is a file or folder restored?
Answer:
Sometimes when we delete a file or folder we feel the need for it later. The Recycle Bin feature can be used to store files and folders again. The steps to restore a file or folder are as follows:

  • Double click on the Recycle Bin. (The Recycle Bin window will open.)
  • Click on the file or folder to be restored.
  • Click on File. Restore menu.

Question 5.
What do you know about calculators?
Answer:
Calculator:
Calculator is like a program with the help of which calculations are done. With its help +, c, z etc. calculations are done. For example, to multiply 2 by 5, first click on 2. Then click on the multiplication sign. Then click on 5. Then click the = sign. 10 will appear as a result.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

5. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a series of locations? Explain in detail.
Answer:
Series of Locations:
The folders and drives in the computer, the computer connected to the network and its shared folders, drives and printers are arranged in a tree shape. This sequence is called a series of locations. It contains the following items:

1. Favorites:
The top most folder in this series is the Desktop folder. It contains desktop, downloads and recent place items.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 1

2. Library Folder:
By default this folder contains four libraries, such as; Documents, music, photos and videos. These folders contain related items; Such as pictures in pictures folder, related videos in video folder, etc.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 2

3. Personal Folder:
Your personal folder is named after the user name to which you have logged in to the computer and by default it contains the following folders; such as Contacts, Downloads, Favorites, Links, My Documents, My Music, My Pictures, My Videos, Saved Games and Search.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 3

4. MY Computer:
Disks in a computer; such as C: drive, D: Drive, E: Drive etc. and other connected devices such as Printer, USB, memory- stick and camera are attached to the computer, they are visible here.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 4

5. Network: If you are connected to a local network, you see other computers and devices in it.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 5

6. Control Panel:
Control Panel is used to configure hardware and software of computer system and to change settings of computer system.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 6

7. Recycle Bin: It contains deleted files/folders or programs.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 7

Question 2.
How are items selected? Write different ways to do this.
Answer:
Selecting the Items:
Usually before doing any work on a file or folder such as opening a file, closing a file, deleting file, copy a file etc. we have to select it. There are different ways to select a single file/folder or multiple files/folders.

1. Selecting a Single Item:
If more than one item is available and you want to select one of the items in it, it can be selected by clicking with the mouse on that file.

2. Selecting More Than One File:
There are a few ways to select more than one file at a time:

(a) If your viewing your files as icons, you can click and drag the mouse to draw a box around the files you want to select. When you’re done, release the mouse; the files will be selected. You can now move, copy, or delete all of these files at the same time.

(b) Selecting All Items:
If you want to select all files in a folder at the same time, open the folder in File Explorer and press Ctrl+A or click “Select all” option from the “Select” group on the Home tab. All of the files in the folder will be selected.

(c) Select items using the Shift key:
To select a group of files from a folder, click the first file, press and hold the Shift key on your keyboard, then click the last file. All of the files between the first and last ones will be selected.

(d) Selecting an item using (Ctrl key):
To select specific files from a folder, press and hold the Control key on your keyboard, then click the files you want to select.

3. Reverse selection: To reverse the selection, select the “Invert Selection” option in the Edit menu.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
Write different ways to create a folder.
Answer:
Creating a Folder
If you want to create a new folder, it is created in the current location. Here are some ways to create a folder:
1. Open the File explorer, click on the “New Folder” button option.
2. The new folder will appear.
Type the desired name for the folder and press Enter.
Or
Press the Ctrl + Shift + N keys together from the keyboard. The new folder will appear. Type the name of the folder and press Enter key.
Or
Right-click on a blank space, click “New” => “Folder” in the context menu. The new folder will appear. Type the name of the folder and press Enter key.
Or

  • Place the cursor where you want to add your folder.
  • In File Explorer, click on the Home menu item.
  • From the Home button, click on the New folder button.
  • Enter the name of your new folder and press

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
Write the steps to rename the item.
Answer:
Re-naming the Item:
You can change the name of any file or folder. Here are the steps to rename an item:
1. Click the file or folder, wait about one second, and click again. An editable text field will Explore appear. open
2. Type the desired name on your keyboard and press Enter. The name will be changed.

Or
1. You can also right-click the Cut folder and select “Rename” copy option from the menu that create shortcut appears. An editable text field will appear.
2. Type the desired name from Properties keyboard and press Enter. The name will be changed.

Question 5.
Write the steps to delete an item.
Answer:
Delete a File or Folder:
If you no longer need to use a file, you can delete it. When you delete a file, it is moved to the Recycle Bin, If you change your mind, you can move the file from the Recycle Bin back to its original location. If you’re sure you want to permanently delete the file, you will need to empty the Recycle Bin. Following are the steps to delete file/folder:

  • Select the file or folder you want to delete.
  • Press the Delete key from the keyboard. A message will appear asking for deletion.
  • Click on “Yes”. Item will be deleted.

Question 6.
Write the steps for copying or pasting items.
Answer:
Copying or Pasting Items:
To copy a file/folder the steps are as follow:
1. Select the item to be copied.


2. Select the “Copy” option from the “Clipboard” group on the “Home” tab.
Or
Press Ctrl + c keys from the keyboard.
Right-click on the file/folder you want to copy. A menu will open. From this menu select the “copy” option. Now your file/folder will be copied. Steps to paste the file/Folder are as follow:
1. Place the cursor where you want to paste the file/folder.
2. Select the “Paste” option from the “Clipboard” group on the “Home” tab.
3. Your copied item will now be pasted.
Or
Press the Ctrl + V key from the keyboard.
Or
Locate and right-click the desired location, then select “Paste” option from the menu appeared.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Motion and Time Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
What is a simple pendulum?
Answer:
Simple pendulum. It consists of a heavy mass (metal sphere) tied to a thread and suspended a fixed point of rigid support.

Question 2.
What is the to and fro motion of a simple pendulum called?
Answer:
The to and fro motion of a simple pendulum is called oscillation.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question 3.
The time taken for one oscillation of the pendulum is called its ……………… .
Answer:
Time Period.

Question 4
………………… is the number of oscillations per unit time.
Answer:
Frequency.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 163)

Question 1.
What do we measure by using a stop clock ?
Answer:
Stop clock is used to measure short-time intervals.

Question 2.
What is the unit of measuring distance ?
Or
Name the S.I. unit of distance.
Answer:
Meter.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Motion and Time Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The motion of an object in a straight line is called ……………… .
Answer:
Linear motion

(ii) A clock is used to measure …………………. .
Answer:
Time

(iii) The distance-time graph for uniform speed is a ………………. line.
Answer:
Straight line

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

(iv) The motion of a simple pendulum is called ………………….. motion.
Answer:
Oscillatory

2. Write True or False:

(i) Speed is the distance travelled by an object per unit time.
Answer:
True

(ii) The S.I. unit of speed is Km/s.
Answer:
False

(iii) The time taken to complete one oscillation of a pendulum is its time period.
Answer:
True

(iv) The instrument used to measure the speed of a vehicle is odometer.
Answer:
True

Match the Column I with Column II:

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 1
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 2
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 3

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is a Distance-Time Graph for an object at rest ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 4
Answer:
(c) A straight line graph parallel to horizontal (x-axis) axis

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question (ii)
Which of the following relation is a correct for finding speed of an object ?
(a) Speed = Distance × Time
(b) Speed = Distance/Time
(c) Speed = Time/Distance
(d) Speed = 1 /Distance × Time.
Answer:
(b) Speed = Distance/Time

Question (iii)
Simple pendulum is an example of ……………….. motion.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 5
(a) Rectilinear motion
(b) Oscillatory motion
(c) Periodic motion
(d) Rotational motion.
Answer:
(c) Periodic motion

Question (iv)
A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 15 minutes and then with speed of 60 km/h for the next 15 minutes. The total distance covered by the car is:
(a) 100 km
(b) 25 km
(c) 15 Km
(d) 10 Km
Answer:
(b) 25 km.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define speed. Give its S.I. units ?
Answer:
Speed. The distance travelled per unit time is called speed of the object.
Speed (v) = Total distance covered (s)/ Total time spent (t)
S.I. unit of speed is m/s.

Question (ii)
Which instruments were used for measuring time by the ancient people ?
Answer:
In ancient times, people measured time by natural phenomena. Over time some devices were invented for measuring time. Some of them are given below:
(1) Solar Clock. A change in the position of the sun due to a change in the position of the shadow is used to measure time.
(2) Hour Glass. To measure the time it takes one hour for sand to flow from one bulb to another.
(3) Water Clock. Used to measure the flow of water from one vessel to another at a particular time.
(4) Pendulum. A simple pendulum takes equal time for each oscillation. So Pendulum was used to measure time.

Question (iii)
Name the instruments used for measuring : (a) the speed of a moving vehicle, (b) the distance moved by a vehicles.
Answer:
(a) Instrument for measuring speed of a moving vehicle is Speedometer.
(b) Instrument for measuring distance covered by a vehicle is Odometer.

Question (iv)
What is Graph ? Give its types.
Answer:
Graph. A graph is a pictorial representation of variation of one quantity with respect to the other quantity. When one quantity is changed, the value of the other quantity also changes by itself.

Types of Graph. There are several types of graphs, such as:

  1. Linear graph,
  2. Bar graph,
  3. Pie chart.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Differentiate between slow and fast motion. Give examples.
Answer:
Slow motion. If an object takes too long to cover a short distance, its motion is called slow motion. Example : Motion of tortoise and snail.

Fast motion. If an object takes less time to cover the same distance, its motion is fast motion.
Example : Racing car and leopard is fast motion.

Question (ii)
Differentiate between uniform and non-uniform motion. Give examples.
Answer:
Uniform motion.
If an object travels equal distances in equal interval of time regardless of the however small the interval may be their its motion is called uniform motion.
For example : A bus covers a distance of 10 km in the first 15 minutes and a distance of 10 km in the next 15 minutes, then again in the next 15 minutes it covers the same distance of 10 km. The bus is said to have uniform motion.

Non-uniform motion.
If an object does not cover equal distances in equal interval of time however small the time interval may be, then the motion of that object is called non-uniform motion.
Example : Suppose a car covers a distance of 25 km in 10 minutes on a straight road and travels 30 km in the next 10 minutes and 20 km in the next 10 minutes, then the car is said to have is non-uniform motion.

Question (iii)
Ajay goes to his school 600 meters away from his house. Find the speed in ms-1, with which he must walk to reach his school in 5 minutes.
Solution:
Distance from Ajay’s school from his house = 600 meters
Time taken to cover the distance from school to house = 5 minutes
We know 1 minute = 60 sec.
So, Time taken = 5 × 60 seconds
= 300 seconds
Total distance covered = 600
Now speed of Ajay = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 6
= \(\frac{600 \text { metres }}{300 \text { second }}\)
= 2 m/s

Question (iv)
The distance between two stations is 216 km. In how many hours will a train reach the destination which is moving at a speed of 20 m/s ?
Answer:
Distance between two stations = 216 km
Speed of train = 20 m/s. [∵ 1km/h = \(\frac {5}{18}\) m/s]
= 20 x \(\frac {18}{5}\) km/h
= 72 km/h
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 7

Question (v)
Find the time period of a simple pendulum, which takes 20 s to complete 50 oscillations ?
Solution:
Number of oscillations of a simple pendulum = 50
Time taken to complete 50 oscillations = 20 seconds
We know, Frequency = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 8
= \(\frac {20}{50}\)
= \(\frac {2}{5}\) = 0.4 sec-1

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Describe the method to find the time period of a simple pendulum.
Answer:
Make a simple pendulum by tying a metal sphere with one end of a thread about 1 meter long as shown in the diagram. If there is a fan running around, turn it off. Now let the bob of the pendulum come to rest in the middle position. Mark the middle position with chalk on the floor. Take a stop watch or mobile or wrist watch to measure the time period of the pendulum. Hold the bob and ensure that the thread is stretched and take it one extreme. Now release the sphere slowly. When the sphere is at its starting end, start the stop watch. Count the oscillations.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 9
Note the time taken by the pendulum to complete 20 oscillations. Record your observations in the table below. Time taken by the pendulum to complete one oscillation is called its time period. It is measured in second.

Sr. No. Time taken for 20 oscillations Time period
1.

2.

3.

Repeat this action 3-4 times and note observations in the table above.
You will notice that the time period of pendulum will be almost the same each time.

Question (ii)
A car moves a distance of 60 km in 1st hour, 75 km in 2nd hour, 55 km in 3rd hour and 50 km in 4th hour. Plot a distance-time graph for the motion of the car.
(1) Find the speed of the car for the whole journey.
(2) Find the speed of the car between 1st and 3rd hour.
Answer:
(1) Distance covered in the entire journey = 60 km + 75km + 55 km +50 km
= 240 km
And, Total time spent = 4 hours
The average speed of the car = The total distance covered/Total time spent
= 240 km/4 hr
= 60 km/hr

(2) Speed from the first hour to the third hour
Distance covered = 75 km + 55km
= 130 km
= 2 hours
Car speed between the first hour and the third hour =130 km/2hr = 65 km/hr
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 10

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question (iii)
Figure shown below represents the distance-time graph for the motion of two vehicles A and B. Which one of them is moving faster ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 11
Answer:
Study of the distance-time graph of both the vehicles shows that the ratio of distance and time for vehicle A is higher than that of vehicle B, hence the speed of vehicle A is higher than that of vehicle B.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Motion and Time Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The distance covered by an object in unit time is called …………………
Answer:
Speed

(ii) The time taken by a pendulum to make a swing is called ………………………..
Answer:
Time period

(iii) An instrument used to measure the distance covered by vehicles is called ……………….
Answer:
Odometer

(iv) …………………… is the instrument that measures the speed of moving vehicles.
Answer:
Speedometer

(v) A graph drawn for the distance and time taken for a uniform motion is ………………………
Answer:
Straight line parallel to time axis

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 12
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 13
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 14
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 15

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The basic unit of time is:
(a) Minute
(b) Hour
(c) Second
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Second.

Question (ii)
The Speed of train is expressed in :
(a) m/h
(b) km/h
(c) cm/h
d) mm/h.
Answer:
(b) km/h.

Question (iii)
The S.I. unit of speed is:
(a) m/s
(b) km/s
(c) cm/s
(d) mm/s.
Answer:
(a) m/s.

Question (iv)
Which of the following relation is correct:
(a) Speed = Distance × Time
(b) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}\)
(c) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Time }}{\text { Distance }}\)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}\)

Question (v)
A motion which repeats itself after fixed interval of time is:
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Periodic motion.
(c) Time period
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Periodic motion.

Question (vi)
The device which measures the distance moved by the vehicle is called:
(a) Speedometer
(b) Odometer
(c) Pendulum
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Odometer.

Question (vii)
The time taken by a vibrating body to complete one oscillation is called:
(a) Time period
(b) Oscillation
(c) Uniform motion
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Time period.

Question (viii)
Which of the following Distance-Time Graph shows the object at rest position ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 16
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) (i).

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question (ix)
What is the basic unit of speed ?
(a) km/min.
(b) m/min.
(c) km/hr.
(d) m/s.
Answer:
(d) m/s.

State True or False:

(i) The basic unit of time is second.
Answer:
True

(ii) Every object moves with a constant speed.
Answer:
False

(iii) Distances between two cities is measured in kilometres.
Answer:
True

(iv) The time period of a given pendulum is not constant.
Answer:
False

(v) The speed of a train is expressed in m/h.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The rate at which distance is covered corresponds to which quantity-speed or velocity ?
Answer:
Speed.

Question 2.
The rate at which displacement is covered corresponds to which quantity, speed or velocity ?
Answer:
Velocity.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question 3.
What is formula of average speed ?
Total distance covered
Answer:
Average speed = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 17

Question 4.
Name two types of motions.
Answer:
(i) Uniform motion
(ii) Non-uniform motion.

Question 5.
Working of clock depends on which type of motion ?
Answer:
Periodic motion.

Question 6.
Name any two time measuring devices.
Answer:
(1) Clock,
(2) watch.

Question 7.
What is metallic ball of a pendulum known as ?
Answer:
Bob of the Pendulum.

Question 8.
What type of motion is shown by simple pendulum ?
Answer:
Oscillatory motion / Periodic motion

Question 9.
What is basic unit of time ?
Answer:
Second.

Question 10.
What are larger units of time ?
Answer:
Minute, hour

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question 11.
What is odometer ?
Answer:
Odometer. The device which measures the distance moved by the vehicle, is called odometer.

Question 12.
What is function of speedometer ?
Answer:
It records speed directly in km/h.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which devices were used for measuring time before pendulum clocks ?
Answer:
(i) Sundial.
(ii) Water clock,
(iii) Sand clock.

Question 2.
What important points are to be kept in mind while choosing the most suitable scale for drawing a graph ?
Answer:
Points to be considered while choosing the scale for drawing a graph :
(0 The difference between the highest and the lowest values of each quantity.
(ii) The intermediate values of each quantity.
(iii) To utilize the maximum part of the graph paper.

Question 3.
What is a simple pendulum ?
Answer:
Simple pendulum. It consists of a small metallic ball or a piece of stone suspended from a rigid support by a thread. The metallic ball is called the bob of the pendulum.

Question 4.
Classify the following as Linear, circular or Periodic motion :
(i) Motion of your hands while running.
(ii) Motion of a horse pulling a cart on a straight road.
(iii) Motion of a child in a merry go round.
(iv) Motion of a child over see-saw.
(v) Motion of the hammer of an electric bell.
(vi) Motion of a train on a straight bridge.
Answer:
(i) Periodic motion
(ii) Linear motion
(iii) circular motion
(iv) Periodic motion
(v) Periodic
(vi) Linear Motion.

Question 5.
A simple pendulum takes 32 s to complete 20 oscillations. What is the time period of the pendulum ?
Solution:
Number of oscillations = 20
Time taken to complete 20 oscillations = 32 s
∴ Time period of pendulum = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 18
(i.e. time taken to complete 1 oscillation) = \(\frac {32}{20}\)
= \(\frac {8}{5}\)
= 1.6 s

Question 6.
The distance between two stations is 200 km. A train takes 4 hours to cover this distance. Calculate the speed of the train.
Solution:
Distance covered by train between two stations = 200 km
Time taken t = 4 hr
∴ Speed of the train =PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 19
= \(\frac{200 \mathrm{~km}}{4 \mathrm{hr}}\)
= 50 km/hr

Question 7.
Salma takes 15 minutes from her house to reach her school on a bicycle. If the bicycle has a speed of 2 m/s, calculate the distance between her house and her school.
Time taken = 15 min.
= 15 × 60
= 900 sec
Speed of bicycle = 2 m/s
Distance covered = Speed × Time
= 2 × 900 m
= 1800 m
= \(\frac{1800}{1000}\)
= 1.8 km.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Define
(i) Periodic motion
(ii) Oscillatory motion
(iii) Oscillation
(iv) Time period.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 20
(i) Periodic motion. A motion that repeats itself after a fixed interval of time is periodic motion.
(ii) Oscillatory motion. To and fro motion of an object about a fixed mean position is oscillatory or vibratory motion.
(iii) Oscillation. The motion of the pendulum from one extreme position to another extreme position and back to the first extreme position is one complete oscillation.
(iv) Time period. The time taken by a vibrating particle to complete one oscillation is called the time period of the pendulum.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Typing Tutor Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
To use number pad, ……………. should be kept ON.
(a) Num lock
(b) Caps lock
(c) Scroll lock
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Num lock

Question 2.
In home-row, …………… key is pressed with the little finger of left hand,
(a) A
(b) S
(c) D
(d) F.
Answer:
(a) A

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 3.
In home row, ……………. key is pressed with Middle finger of right hand.
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) ;
Answer:
(b) K

Question 4.
In second row, ………………. key is pressed with ring finger of left hand.
(a) Q
(b) W
(c) E
(d) R.
Answer:
(b) W

Question 5.
In third row, …………….. key is pressed with the index finger of right hand.
(a) B
(b) N
(c) M
(d) M, N.
Answer:
(d) M, N.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
For typing purpose, a keyboard can be divided in how many parts?
Answer:
The keyboard for typing is divided into two parts. The first part is on the left side and the second part is on the right side.

Question 2.
Write the name of the technique for typing with all fingers without looking at the keyboard.
Answer:
Touch typing technology allows us to type without looking.

Question 3.
Write the name of any one font.
Answer:
Anmol Lipi font.

Question 4.
Which finger is used to press spacebar during typing?
Answer:
The thumb of your right hand is used to press the space bar key.

Question 5.
Which key is used to go to new line during typing?
Answer:
Enter key is used to move to new line.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is touch typing?
Answer:
This is a technique by which we learn how to type correctly without looking at the keyboard. The keyboard is divided into two parts, left side and right side. Typing is done by placing the fingers on right position accordingly.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 1

Question 2.
Describe the position of our fingers on Home Row Key.
Answer:
The “home row” is the center row of keys on a keyboard. It starts from the alphabet A. The fingers are always rest on this line. The position of the fingers on this row is as follows:
First of all, the fourth finger (little finger) of our left hand is on the ‘A’ key, then third finger on the ‘S’ key, then second finger on the ‘D’ key and then first finger on the ‘F’ key and alternately on the ‘7’ key. The fourth, third, second and first fingers of the right hand should be on ‘L’, ‘K’, ‘J’ and ‘H’ respectively. Thumbs of both hands should be on space bar.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 2

Left Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger A
Ring Finger S
Middle Finger D
Index Finger F & G
Right Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger ;
Ring Finger L
Middle Finger K
Index Finger J & H

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 3.
What are the tips to improve typing speed?
Answer:
Typing speed can be increased by keeping the following in mind:

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 3

    • Concentrate in consistently, comfortably and correctly typing.
    • The position of our hands I fingers should always be on the home-row We should always start from this position and come back to the saine position. We should move from the home-row position to other keys.
    • As we press each key, we should repeat that letter in our mind.
    • We should focus on pressing the right key rather than speed. Speed will increase automatically with time and practice.
    • Do not look at the keyboard.

Question 4.
While typing numbers from numeric keypad, which hand we should use? Explain the position of your fingers on numeric keypad
Answer:
The numeric keypad is located on the right hand side of the keyboard and has a total of 17 keys. They act as a calculator. While using the numeric keypad Num lock key must be turned on. Use the right hand when typing numbcon the numeric keypad.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 4
The position of the fingers on the numeric keypad is as follows:

      • The thumb of the right hand is on the ‘0’
      • On the first finger of the right hand ‘4’
      • The second finger of the right hand on the ‘5’ The third finger of the right hand on the ‘6’

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the proper posture while typing.
Answer:

      • The computer monitor should be in front of our eyes.
      • Our focus should be on the monitor.
      • Our fingers should be on the home-row keys.
      • We should sit straight and in front of the keyboard.
      • We should quickly press each key and return to the home- row position.
      • Our feet should be straight on the ground.
        PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 5

Question 2.
Explain Following Keys
(a) Enter key
(b) Backspace key
(c) Shift key Answer:
Answer:
(a) Enter Key: This key is used to move to a new line. We use the smallest finger of our right hand to press the Enter
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 6
(b) Backspace key:
This key is used to delete a character to the left of the cursor. We use the little finger of our right hand for this.

(c) Shift Key:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters. If you want to type a capital letter with your left hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand similarly, to write a capital letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 7

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Typing Tutor Important Questions and Answers

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 1.
Type master is used for learning,
(a) Programming
(b) Computer
(c) Printing
(d) Typing.
Answer:
(d) Typing.

Question 2.
Keyboard is divided into sections.
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) Five.
Answer:
(b) Four

Question 3.
The numeric pad is on the side.
(a) Right
(b) Left
(c) Upper
(d) Lower.
Answer:
(a) Right

Question 4.
The key is on both sides of the keyboard.
(a) Function
(b) Special
(c) Arrow
(d) Shift.
Answer:
(d) Shift.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

2. True/False

Question 1.
The typemaster helps to improve the typing speed.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In touch typing we can type without touching the keyboard.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
The numeric pad is on the right side of the keyboard.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Text is typed with a numeric pad.
Answer:
False.

Question 5.
Shift key is only one.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write instructions for keyboard expertise.
Answer:

  • Do not press the keys too quickly.
  • Press the keys evenly and equally.
  • Make it a habit to press the keys lightly.
  • After typing each word, press the space bar with the thumb of your right hand.
  • Your eyes, hands and brain need to be in perfect balance as you type.

Question 2.
What is a type master?
Answer:
Type master is a program that helps you learn to type and improve your speed. It helps us to type without looking at the keyboard.

Question 3.
What is numeric keypad?
Answer:
The numeric keypad is located on the right hand side of the keyboard and has a total of 17 keys. They act as a calculator. While using the numeric keypad Num lock key must be turned on. Use the right hand when typing numbers on the numeric keypad.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 4.
What is a shift key?
Answer:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters. If you want to type a capital letter with your left hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand similarly, to write a capital letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.

Question 5.
State the position of the fingers on the second row.
Answer:
The keys on the above line of the home row are called the keys on the second line. It starts with the letter Q’. Turn the fourth finger (little finger) of your left hand on the ‘Q’ key, the third finger on the ‘W’ key, the second finger on the ‘E’ key and the first finger on the ‘R’ key or the “T” key. Similarly, place the fourth finger of the right hand on the ‘P’ key, the third finger on the ‘O’ key, the second finger on the T key and the first finger on the ‘U ’or‘ Y ’key alternately.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 9

Left Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger Q
Ring Finger W
Middle Finger E
Index Finger R & T
Right Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger P
Ring Finger O
Middle Finger I
Index Finger U & Y

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give some instructions for keyboard mastery.
Answer:
Typing speed can be increased by keeping the following in mind:
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 10

      • Concentrate in consistently, comfortably and correctly typing.
      • The position of our hands I fingers should always be on the home-row We should always start from this position and come back to the saine position. We should move from the home-row position to other keys.
      • As we press each key, we should repeat that letter in our mind.
      • We should focus on pressing the right key rather than speed. Speed will increase automatically with time and practice.
      • Do not look at the keyboard.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 2.
Write a note on shift key.
Answer:
Shift Key:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters, If you want to type a capital letter with your left
hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand. Similarly, to write a capit.al letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.

Question 3.
State the position of the fingers on the fourth row.
Answer:
Fourth Row:
The fourth row corresponds to the numeric keys. Be careful while typing the numbers. Our fingers should be on the home row. To type the numbers 100 correctly, it is recommended to press the numeric key with the corresponding finger and then bring it back to the home row, If all work is related to numbers, keep your fingers on the fourth line.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 11

Left Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger Z
Ring Finger X
Middle Finger C
Index Finger V & B
Right Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger /
Ring Finger .
Middle Finger ,
Index Finger M & N

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 4.
Write in detail about the special keys of the key board.
Answer:
Special Keys on Keyboard:
The special keys of the keyboard are as follows:
1. Enter Key:
This key is used to move to a new line, We use the smallest finger of our right hand to press the Enter key.

2. Space Bar: The space-bar key is used 1.0 leave a space in two words. We use our thumb to press the space key.

3. Shift Key:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters. If you want to type a capital letter with your left hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand. Similarly, to write a capital letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.

4. Backspace:
This key is used to delete a character to the left of the cursor. We use the little finger of our right hand for this.

5. Caps lock Key:
If the whole word, line or paragraph is to be written in capital letters, keep the Caps Lock Key in ON position. We use the little finger of our left hand for this.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 5.
What are some ways to avoid stress and mistakes while typing on the computer?
Answer:
How to Avoid the Stress of Typing:
Stress and mistakes while typing on computer can be avoided as follows.

  • Set your keyboard so that it is straight and slightly raised at the back. Do not keep your keyboard tilted downwards.
  • Sit properly in front of your computer. Our screen should be two feet away from u and our copy should be in front of our eyes.
  • Stretch your arms before starting work and also during intervals and strengthen your arms with exercise.
  • We should re-st our wrists when we are not typing.
  • When typing, keep your wrists straight and bend your elbows at a 90 degree angle. Our wrists should not rest on the table while typing.
  • If sitting on a chair, our knees are bent 90 degrees and our feet are straight on the ground, then the height of our chair is perfect.
  • Exercise daily. This helps our body avoid stress after typing.
  • Rest for a short time instead of a large interval while typing.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Nutrition in Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The process of obtaining and utilization of food by an organism is called ……………..
Answer:
nutrition

(ii) ………………. from the air is taken in through the tiny pores called stomata present on the surface of leaves.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

(iii) ……………… is the initial product of photosynthesis.
Answer:
glucose (Carbohydrate)

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

(iv) The plants which depend on the food produced by other plants are called ………………..
Answer:
heterotrophs

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbohydrates is not an essential component of food.
Answer:
False

(ii) All green plants are autotrophs.
Answer:
True

(iii) Euglena is an organism that has both plant and animal like characters.
Answer:
True

(iv) Sunlight is not necessary for photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus (a) Parasite
2. Rhizobium (b) Feaves
3. Chlorophyll (c) Feguminous plants
4. Cuscuta (d) Saprophyte

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus (d) Saprophyte
2. Rhizobium (c) Leguminous plants
3. Chlorophyll (b) Leaves
4. Cuscuta (a) Parasite

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
An Organism that fixes atmospheric nitrogen in the soil is :
(a) Amarbel
(b) Mushroom
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Chlorophyll
Answer:
(c) Rhizobium.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question (ii)
The Organisms that cannot prepare their own food and depends on others for food are known as :
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Fleterotrophs
(c) Nutrients
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(b) Heterotrophs.

Question (iii)
Food factory of the plants is :
(a) Leaf
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Leaf.

Question (iv)
Which of the following is a saprophyte ?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Agaricus
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Protein
Answer:
(c) Cuscuta.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition. The act of obtaining and using food by the organism is called nutrition. Not all living things have the same food.

Question (ii)
What is photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis. It is a process in which food (carbohydrates) is produced by the plants. During this process, carbon dioxide and water are synthesized into glucose (simple carbohydrates) in the presence of sunlight by plant’s green matter (chlorophyll pigment).
Through this action green plants convert light energy into chemical energy.
Chemical Equation :
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 1

Question (iii)
Name the raw materials required for photosynthesis.
Answer:
Ingredients for photosynthesis :

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Water
  3. Solar Energy

Question (iv)
What are insectivorous plants ?
Answer:
Insectivorous plants. Plants that have a system for catching and digesting organisms are called insectivorous plants, such as pitcher plant. The leaves of these plants are transformed into pot compositions to catch insects.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you mean by parasitic mode of nutrition ?
Answer:
Parasitic Nutrition. Nutrition in which the parasitic organism harms another organism and derives its food from it is called parasitic nutrition.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question (ii)
Explain symbiotic relationship.
Answer:
Symbiotic relationship. Two different organisms co-exist with each other and depend on each other for their nourishment, then it is called symbiotic relationship. In this kind of relationship both the beings get benefit from each other. Like the fungus found on the roots of many plants. The fungus gets nourishment from the roots of the plant and in turn absorbs water and minerals from the soil. Fungus and moss are a good example of symbiotic relationship. Here the fungi absorb water from the earth and in turn the algae provide food through photosynthesis.

Question (iii)
How does the pitcher plant catch insects ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 2
The pitcher plant transforms its leaves into pot-like structures to catch insects. This pot-like creation has curly hair on the face. When an insect sits on it, it slips down and cannpt climb up again and falls to the bottom of the pot. The enzymes present at the bottom digest the insect.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How are nutrients replenished in the soil ?
Answer:
Regain of nutrients by soil. Plants continue to absorb water, minerals and other nutrients from the soil which leads to lack of nutrients in the soil. Time to time nutrition should be provided to the soil so that the fertility of the soil is maintained. Farmers usually recreate these nutrient deficiencies by mixing manure in the soil and Fertilizers (which contain one or more preservatives) to fulfil nutrients.
In forest the forest waste, leaves and animal waste is decomposed by decomposers into nutrients to improve fertility of the soil.

Question (ii)
What do you mean by nutrients ? Explain various modes of nutrition in plants.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals are the main components of food. They help in the formation and function of the body and are called nutrients.

The main methods of nutrition in plants are :
(a) Autotrophic Nutrition. Those who prepare their own food from simple foods are called Autotrophs. This process of preparing food by such plants is called Autotrophic nutrition. All green plants are Autotrophic. In this method, chlorophyll, a green pigment present in plants, takes carbon dioxide and water from the air and makes food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of solar energy. This action is called photosynthesis. Example-all green plants.

(b) Heterotrophic Nutrition. Some plants do not have green pigment (chlorophyll) and cannot make their own food, so they rely on food prepared by other plants for food. Such plants are called Heterotrophic plants and this method of obtaining food is called Heterotrophic nutrition. Example. Amar Bel.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Nutrition in Plants Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Green plants are called …………….. since they synthesise their own food.
Answer:
Autotrophs

(ii) The food synthesised by the plants is stored as ………………..
Answer:
Starch

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

(iii) In photosynthesis solar energy is captured by the pigment called …………….. .
Answer:
Chlorophyll

(iv) During photosynthesis plants take ……………… and produce …………….. .
Answer:
Carbondioxide, Oxygen

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbondioxide is released during photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

(ii) Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs.
Answer:
False

(iii) The product of photosynthesis is not a protein.
Answer:
False

(iv) During photosynthesis solar energy is converted into chemical energy.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column I with Column II :

Column I Column II
(i) Chlorophyll (a) Bacteria
(ii) Nitrogen (b) Pitcher plant
(iii) Amarbel (c) Leaf
(iv) Animals (d) Parasite
(v) Insects (e) Heterotrophs

Answer:

Column I Column II
(i) Chlorophyll (c) Leaf
(ii) Nitrogen (a) Bacteria
(iii) Amarbel (d) Parasite
(iv) Animals (e) Heterotrophs
(v) Insects (b) Pitcher plant

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The organisms which depend upon other organisms for food are called ……………..
(a) Symbionts
(b) Parasites
(c) Autotrophs
(d) Saprophytes.
Answer:
(b) Parasites.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 2.
Which part of the plant usually contains stomata ?
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) Flower.
Answer:
(c) Leaves.

Question 3.
Which gas is released during photosynthesis ?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen.
Answer:
(a) Oxygen.

Question 4.
What is the unit of living beings
(a) Organ
(b) Organ system
(c) Cell
(d) Tissue.
Answer:
(c) Cell.

Question 5.
What is the ultimate source of energy in the living beings ?
(a) Moon
(b) Sun
(c) Stars
(d) Planet.
Answer:
(b) Sun.

Question 6.
Name one eatable fungus.
(a) Alga
(b) Bacteria
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Mushroom.
Answer:
(d) Mushroom.

Question 7.
Plants breathe through:
(a) Epidermis
(b) Buds
(c) Stomata
(d) Root hairs.
Answer:
(c) Stomata.

Question 8.
What are green coloured thread like structures over the pond water called ?
(a) Fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Amoeba
(d) Paramecium.
Answer:
(b) Algae.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, vitamins, fats, proteins, minerals, roughage.

Question 2.
How do plants synthesise food ?
Answer:
Green plants synthesise their food material using carbondioxide, water and solar energy.

Question 3.
Name the various type of nutrition.
Answer:
Types of Nutrients. Autotrophic, Heterotrophic, Saprotrophic and Parasitic.

Question 4.
What are openings / pores in a leaf known as ?
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 5.
What is function of chlorophyll in a leaf ?
Answer:
Chlorophyll capture the energy of sunlight.

Question 6.
Which is ultimate source of energy for all living organisms ?
Answer:
Sun.

Question 7.
What are products of photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and oxygen.

Question 8.
Name the various parts of plants which take part in photosynthesis.
Answer:
Green stems and green leaves.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 9.
Besides green leaves, which other coloured leaves are found in plants ?
Answer:
Deep red, violet or brown.

Question 10.
What is algae ?
Answer:
Algae It is a slimy, green patch found in pond or in stagnant water.

Question 11.
Do algae photosynthesis ? Why ?
Answer:
Yes, algae do photosynthesis as they contain chlorophyll.

Question 12.
From which elements are carbohydrates made up of ?
Answer:
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Question 13.
Name some four human parasites.
Answer:

  1. Mosquitoes
  2. lice
  3. bed bug
  4. leech.

Question 14.
Write one eatable fungus.
Answer:
Mushrooms.

Question 15.
Where does mould grow ?
Answer:
Moist and rainy areas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the definite word for the following:
(i) Weak stem parasitic plant.
(ii) A plant in which both Autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition are found,
(iii) The holes through which gases are exchanged in the leaves.
Answer:
(i) Amar bel (Cuscuta)
(ii) Pitcher plant
(iii) Stomata

Question 2.
Differentiate autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer:
Differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition.

Autotrophic nutrition Heterotrophic nutrition
(1) Organisms prepare their own food by obtaining energy from sun. (1) Organisms obtain ready-made food from other plants or animals.
(2) It occurs in green plants and blue green algae. (2) It occurs in parasitic plants, fungi, most of bacteria and animals.

Question 3.
Why do coloured leaves photosynthesise when they are not green in colour ?
Answer:
Coloured leaves (red, brown etc.) do contain chlorophyll but large amount of red, brown pigment mask the green colour. So, they can photosynthesise.

Question 4.
How do fungus grow on the things ?
Answer:
Spores of fungi are present in air. When they land on wet and warm things, they germinate.

Question 5.
How do lichens show symbiotic relationship ?
Answer:
Lichens, a chlorophyll partner algae and non-green fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to algae while algae provides food which is synthesised by it. So they both show symbiotic relationship.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 6.
Explain the parasitic relationship between Rhizobium and plants.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 3
Rhizobium is a bacterium that lives in nodules on the roots of legumes. It converts the nitrogen in the air into a usable form which is used by the plant and in return provides shelter and food to bacteria.

Question 7.
What do you understand by a parasites, saprophytes and symbiosis ? Give one example for each.
Answer:

  • Parasites. Those plants or animals which obtain their food from a host and also get shelter from it, are known as parasites, e.g. Cuscuta and Viscum etc.
  • Symbiosis. It is a type of relationship which is mutually beneficial for both the parents (host and parasite), e.g. Lichens are combination of algae and fungi. The fungus holds the algal cells in its mat of web-like hyphae and in return supplies water and dissolved minerals.
  • Saprophytes. Those organisms which grow on dead and decaying organic matter and obtain their food from decomposed bodies are known as saprophytes, e.g. Bacteria, mushrooms etc.

Question 8.
Distinguish between a parasite and a saprotroph.
Answer:
Differences between a parasite and saprotroph.

Parasite Saprotroph
(1) These organisms depend upon other living organisms for its food.
Example : Cuscuta, tape- worms, roundworms.
(1) These organisms obtain their food from dead organic matter.
Example : Fungi, bacteria.
(2) They produce special type of organs like suckers, hooks to obtain their food. (2) They secrete some enzymes to decompose complex molecules into simple form.

Question 9.
What are the conditions required for Autotrophic nutrition and its basic and by-products ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is essential for Autotrophic nutrition which requires the following conditions : (1) sunlight (2) chlorophyll (green pigment), (3) carbon dioxide and (4) water.

The by-products of this process are: The basic products of photosynthesis are oxygen gas and glucose. Afterwards glucose is stored in the form of starch.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Symbiosis is beneficial for both the partners, justify.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 4
Symbiosis. The type of association in which both the partner’s benefit is called symbiosis.
In plants like lichens, there is an association between green algae and non-green fungus. The fungus forms a mat of web-like hyphae to hold the algal cells. The fungal hyphae supply water and minerals to the algae. The algae can synthesize food for themselves as well as for the fungus.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Winds, Storms and Cyclones Intext Questions and Answers

Think and answer (Textbook Page No. 85)

Question 1.
The can gets crushed because of the atmospheric pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Air exerts pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Both balloons should be of equal size. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The fast moving wind creates …………………. pressure.
Answer:
More.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 87)

Question 1.
The air ……………. on heating.
Answer:
expands.

Question 2.
On cooling the boiling tube, the balloon expands. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Hot air is ……………………… than cold air.
Answer:
lighter.

Question 2.
The paper cup over the burning candle comes down as it becomes heavier. (True / False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Air exerts …………………..
Answer:
Pressure

(ii) Moving air is called …………………
Answer:
Wind

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Near earth the …………………. air rises up and ………………………. air comes down.
Answer:
hot, cold

(iv) Winds are generated due to ………………………….. heating of earth.
Answer:
uneven

(v) The centre of a cyclone is called its ………………. .
Answer:
Eye

2. State True or False:

(i) A bicycle tube expands when we fill air in it.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air moves from a region of low pressure to high pressure.
Answer:
False

(iii) The speed of wind can be measured by an instrument called Anemometer.
Answer:
True

(iv) Thunder is a loud sound produced by lightning.
Answer:
True

(v) We should ignore the cyclone warnings.
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is not an example of air exerting pressure ?
(a) Flying a kite
(b) Filling air in bicycle tube
(c) Filling air in balloon
(d) Hot air balloon.
Answer:
(d) Hot air balloon.

Question (ii)
Moving air is called ………………… .
(a) Wind
(b) Cyclones
(c) Lightning
(d) Storm.
Answer:
(a) Wind.

Question (iii)
Which is the property of air ?
(a) Expands on cooling
(b) Contracts of heating
(c) Expands on heating
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Expands on heating

Question (iv)
Winds are produced due to ……………………. .
(a) Heating of air
(b) Cooling of land
(c) Heating of water
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.
Answer:
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.

Question (v)
High speed winds can cause …………………… .
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclones
(c) Tornado
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Cyclones

4. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 1
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 2

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Which property of air is described by the inflated balloon ?
Answer:
Moving air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (ii)
Which is lighter, cold air or hot air ?
Answer:
Hot air is lighter than cold air.

Question (iii)
Which region of earth gets maximum heat from the sun ?
Answer:
Equator and its adjoining areas are exposed to direct sunlight for a long time, resulting in higher temperatures in the vicinity of the equator.

Question (iv)
Which winds bring rain in India ?
Answer:
Rainfall in India is caused by monsoon winds. These winds filled with water vapour come from the sea.

Question (v)
Name the instrument used for measuring the speed of wind.
Answer:
Wind / air speed can be measured with an Anemometer.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why are the holes made in hanging banners and hoardings ?
Answer:
Holes are made on hanging banners and advertisements so that they cannot be blown away due to blowing winds or wind pressure. The air will pass through the holes and there will be no pressure on the banner.

Question (ii)
In which situation does the uneven heating of the earth produces winds ?
Answer:
The sun does not heat different parts of the earth uniformly. So there is a difference in temperature and pressure. The wind that moves from a high pressure area to a low pressure area is called a wind. The higher the pressure, the higher is the wind speed.

Question (iii)
Which winds blow from ocean to land in summer ? What is their significance ?
Answer:
In summer season, the air near the surface of the earth becomes warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea is colder and heavier than the air on the earth. So the wind moves from the ocean to the land. This cool breeze from the ocean is called Sea breeze. Due to this breeze, the weather is very pleasant for the people living near the coastal areas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iv)
What is the difference between a thunderstorm and a cyclone ?
Answer:
Thunder Storm.
Lightning strikes thunderstorms and heat up the air to a higher temperature, causing the air to expand faster and produce a louder sound. This loud sound is called thunder. The wind that blows with rain is called a storm. Sometimes a storm is accompanied by a thunder, which is then called a thunderstorm.

Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Question (v)
State effective measures to be taken in areas vulnerable to cyclones ?
Answer:
Effective safety measures to be adopted in areas prone to post-cyclone :
1. Measures to be taken by the government :

  • Tall and dense trees of native species should be planted on the coastal areas to reduce wind/wind speed.
  • Ponds should be constructed in coastal areas to absorb excess water.
  • Cyclone shelters should be constructed in cyclone sensitive areas.
  • To issue early warning to the people of the affected area by adopting advance information technology.

2. Measures that can be adopted by the people :

  • Do not ignore cyclone warnings.
  • Areas that have frequent cyclones should be evacuated.
  • Make appropriate arrangements to move their livestock, valuables and household members to safer places.

Question (vi)
What is a Tornado ? Give two safety measures.
Answer:
Tornado. It is strong rotating winds in Funnel shaped cloud. Its diameter varies from 1 m to 1 km. On account of very low pressure at the centre of the funnel it pulls the dust, debris and even people and vehicles towards the centre.
Safety measures from Tornado:

  • Take shelter inside a room, having no window. If a room without window is unavailable then closed all doors and windows.
  • If a person is in the vehicle or driving, he should get out of it and sit in low laying area.
  • Whenever you face tornado you can protect yourself by sitting on your knees and
    putting down your head by wrapping arms around your neck.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain why does a tin can get crushed when water is boiled in it and after closing it cold water is poured on it ?
Answer:
When water is boiled in an iron container, all the air in the container heats up and becomes lighter and rises upwards. In this way all the air in the box goes out. On further heating, the boiling water turns into steam and the can is filled with water. Covering the vessel with a lid ensures that the vapours are trapped inside the container. This reduces the air pressure inside the box compared to the outside air. In this way on pouring cold water the outside air pressure causes the box to shrink inwards.

Question (ii)
Explain with an activity that air expands on heating.
Answer:
Air expands by heating. This fact can be proved by the following activity:
Activity.
Take a thick glass test tube. Tightly tie a balloon over its mouth with tape. Take hot water in a beaker. Place the test tube in the water such that balloon stays out of the water. Watch the balloon for 3-4 minutes to look for any change in the size of balloon. Now take out the test tube from water and let it cool down to normal temperature. In another beaker take a small amount of ice cold water and place the test tube carrying balloon in the beaker. Wait for 3-4 minutes. Observe the change in size.

You will notice that the balloon placed in hot water swells (increases in size) after some time and the balloon when on the other placed in cold water shrinks (decreases in size).

Conclusion.
When the test tube is placed in hot water, the air in the balloon heats up and expands causing the balloon to inflate. This indicates that the air expands on healing. When the test tube is placed in ice, the air present in balloon contracts. It shows cooling causes air to contraction.

Question (iii)
How is a cyclone formed ? Describe how a cyclone caused widespread destruction in Odisha in 1999.
Answer:
Formation of Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Destruction caused by cyclone in Odisha. A very strong cyclone strike to Indian state Odisha on 18 October, 1999. The speed of this cyclone was 200 km/h and it destroyed 45000 houses leaving 70,000 people homeless. Again on 29th October 1999 a cyclone hits Odhisa with a speed of 260 km/h accompanied by 9 meter high wave. Many people lost their lives and property worth of crores was destroyed.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Winds, Storms and Cyclones Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Wind is air.
Answer:
moving

(ii) Winds are generated due to heating on the earth.
Answer:
uneven

(iii) Near the earth’s surface air rises up whereas air comes down.
Answer:
warm, cooler

(iv) Air moves from a region of pressure to a region of pressure.
Answer:
high, low

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (b) Sunlight
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (c) Blows away the roof
(iv) High speed air over the roof (d) Winds, storms and cyclones.

Answer:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (b) Sunlight
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (d) Winds, storms and cyclones
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(iv) High speed air over the roof (c) Blows away the roof

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following place is likely to be affected by a cyclone?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question (ii)
An instrument used to measure wind speed is called ………………. .
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Thermometer
(d) Lactometer.
Answer:
(a) Anemometer.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iii)
How many hours in advance cyclone chart is issued of expected storm by satellites and radars ?
(a) 72
(b) 48
(c) 96
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 48

Question (iv)
Which winds carry water and bring rain ?
(a) Unequal
(b) Equal
(c) Monsoon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Monsoon.

Question (v)
A dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from sky to the ground is called ……………….
(a) Wind
(b) Tornado
(c) Cyclone
(d Monsoon.
Answer:
(b) Tornado.

Question (vi)
Hurricane in America, Typhoon in Japan are nothing but ………………. only.
(a) Cyclones
(b) Tornado
(c) Monsoon wind
(d) Thunder storms.
Answer:
(a) Cyclones.

Question (vii)
In which year did Orissa was hit by a cyclone ?
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2004.
Answer:
(a) 1999.

State True or False:

(i) Wind always blows from low pressure area to high pressure area.
Answer:
False

(ii) Wind speed is measured with an anemometer.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Heavy rains accompanied by strong winds are called cyclones.
Answer:
False

(iv) A hurricane is a storm with strong winds blowing through a funnel-shaped cloud.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What disaster fell on 18 October, 1999 in India ?
Answer:
A cyclone hits Orissa.

Question 2.
When did second cyclone hit Orissa ?
Answer:
29 October, 1999.

Question 3.
What was the number of homeless people hit by cyclone ?
Answer:
About 700000 people.

Question 4.
What is wind ?
Answer:
Air in motion.

Question 5.
Give the characteristic of air.
Answer:
Air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 6.
Why do we fill air into bicycle tubes ?
Answer:
To keep the tube tight so that it can run smoothly on a surface.

Question 7.
What happens to air pressure when speed of wind is increased ?
Answer:
Air pressure reduces.

Question 8.
Why does hot air move upwards ?
Answer:
Because it is lighter than cold air.

Question 9.
What are monsoon winds ?
Answer:
Monsoon winds are those winds which come from the oceans and seas and carry water with them and bring rain.

Question 10.
Name few natural disasters caused by wind.
Answer:
Cyclones, thunder storms, tornadoes etc.

Question 11.
In winter what is direction of winds ?
Answer:
From land to oceans.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a cyclone ? On which factors it depends ?
Answer:
Cyclone. A low pressure system with very- high speed winds revolving around it is called cyclone.
Wind speed, wind direction, humidity and temperature are some factors which contribute to the development of a cyclone.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 2.
Give a brief account of formation of thunderstorms.
Answer:
In hot, humid climate, the rising temperature produces strong winds. These rise upwards and carry lot of water droplets. These water droplets freeze at height and fall downwards. The swift falling water droplets along with rising air produce lightning and sound. This phenomenon is called thunderstorm.

Question 3.
How are clouds important to farmers ?
Answer:
Importance of clouds to farmers.

  1. Clouds are important for harvest. If harvest is good, farmers are happy.
  2. Clouds bring rains.
  3. They make the weather pleasant.

Question 4.
How will you help your neighbours in case cyclone approaches your village/town ?
Answer:
Helping neighbours during cyclones:

  1. Moving them to cyclone shelters.
  2. Shifting their household property to safer places.
  3. Providing them medical aid.

Question 5.
What planning is required to deal with situation created by a cyclone ?
Answer:
Plans to deal with situation created by cyclone.

  • Shift essential household good, domestic animals to safer places.
  • Keep handy phone numbers of all emergency services like Police, fire brigade and medicle centres.
  • Avoid driving on roads with standing water.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How will you show air expands on heating ?
Answer:
Experiment to show air expands on heating. Take a boiling tube and fix a balloon tightly over the neck of the tube. Insert the boiling tube carrying balloon into a beaker containing hot water.
Watch the balloon for 2-3 minutes you will notice that the balloon has start inflating. This experiment shows that air expands on heating.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 3

Question 2.
What precautions should be taken when a thunderstorm is accompanied by lightning?
Answer:
Precautions to be taken during lightning in thunderstorms accompanied by lightning:

  1. Never take shelter under an isolated tree.
  2. Do not lie on the ground.
  3. Do not use an umbrella having a metallic rod.
  4. Window, open garages, storage sheds, metal sheds are not safe places.
  5. Never stay in the water.
  6. Inside a car or bus is a safe place to take shelter.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
What role was played by the historical buildings in constructing the history of the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
Historical Monuments. The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate e.g. Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.

Question 2.
How did Balban consolidate the Sultanate?
Answer:Balban became the Sultan of Delhi in 1266 A.D. He was the greatest of the slave kings of Delhi. He was a strong and iron willed ruler who believed that the power of the Sultan was absolute. He commanded absolute obedience from his amirs who had to bow in sajdah in his presence.

Problems faced by Balban. Balban had to face the following problems in order to consolidate the Sultanate :

  • He had to defend his Sultanate from the Mongol invasions on his northern frontiers.
  • He had to fight against the local rulers like the Rajputs who troubled him both within the Sultanate and on its borders.
  • His major problem was to deal with the powerful Turkish nobles who threatened his position as Sultan.
  • He crushed the rebellion of Mawatis near Delhi and the pirates of Doaba region.
  • He crushed the rebellion of Tugril Khan of Bengal.
  • His strong policy towards Mongols is known as “Blood and Iron policy”. In 1286 A.D. Balban died.

Question 3.
Why did Muhainmad-bin-Tughlaq shift the capital from Delhi to Devagiri?
Answer:
Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq had a large empire to rule. He wanted to build his captial at a place which was in the centre of his ruled area. So, in 1327, A.D., he decided to change his capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad).

There were two reasons for it :

  1. He believed that by doing so he could defend himself against the invasions of the Mongols.
  2. He thought that the administrative system will be better administer from Devagiri as compared to Delhi.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 4.
Describe the results of schemes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (1325-1351 A.D.) had high political ambitions. He made many political plans but all these plans were unsuccessful. The description about these plans and their results are as follows :
1. Taxation in Doab. He wanted to extend his empire. For this purpose, he needed money. So he increased the revenue of the land in Doab. But unluckily, the rains failed and the peasants found it hard to pay the increased revenue.

2. Transfer of the Capital. The Sultan transferred his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad because he wanted to have a better control over his Deccan territories. But it was not possible to control north Indian territories from Daulatabad.

3. Token Currency. He issued token coins of brass and copper which had made the same legal value as the coins of gold and silver. The people started minting copper and brass coins at their home which they would exchange with gold and silver from the royal treasury.

4. Plan to win Khurasan. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq wanted to be a great administrator. So, he decided to win Khurasan (Iran). So, he collected a big army. The soldiers were given the salary for one full year. Lot of money was spent on their training and weapons but after one year, he shed the idea of invading Khurasan and the army was disbanded. The unemployed soldiers; became rebels. The Sultan lost his confidence among the public. Many states declared freedom and Sultan lost control over his empire. In 1351 A.D. he died.

Causes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq’s failure.

  • As given above, all his projects were visionary and beyond the people’s comprehension.
  • He lacked patience and people suffered because of his hasty actions.
  • He emptied his treasury as a result of his extravagant schemes and boundless generosity.
  • His empire was too vast to be controlled by one man.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Slave

Question 2.
Razia Sultana was a daughter of _______
Answer:
Iltutmish

Question 3.
Iltutmish became the ruler in _______
Answer:
1211 A.D

Question 4.
Iltutmish nominated _______ as his successor.
Answer:
Razia Sultana

Question 5.
Malik Kafur was the General of _______ Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 6.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq decided to shift his capital from _______ to Devagiri.
Answer:
Delhi

Question 7.
Timur invaded India during the reign of the rulers of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Tughlaq.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
Iltutmish was a slave of Qutab-ud-din Aibak.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Balban was the first ruler of the slave dynasty.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Ala-ud-din Khalji introduced the market control policy.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The Lodhis were overthrown by the Sayyids.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 5.
Sikandar Lodhi and Babar clashed at the first battle of Panipat.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On an outline map of India, mark the important extent of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of monuments of the Sultanate period and paste them in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Delhi Sultanate Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When slave dynasty ruled Delhi?
(a) 1206-1290
(b) 1210-1320
(c) 1220-1315
(d) 1224-1296.
Answer:
(a) 1206-1290.

Question 2.
When Raziyya Sultan became queen of Delhi?
(a) 1246
(b) 1256
(c) 1236
(d) 1226.
Answer:
(c) 1236.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 3.
Which of these was not the Sultan of Delhi?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Akbar
(d) Muhammad Tughlaq.
Answer:
(c) Akbar.

Question 4.
Which of these Sultans implemented to keep control on prices?
(a) Muhammad Tughlaq
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Balban
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 5.
Which of these dynasties was the last dynasty of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Lodi dynasty
(b) Tughlaq dynasty
(c) Khalji dynasty
(d) Mughal dynasty.
Answer:
(a) Lodi dynasty.

Question 6.
Who defeated Mughal emperor Humayun?
(a) Balban
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Akbar
(d) Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
(d) Sher Shah Suri.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 7.
In which century Delhi became an important city?
(a) 12th century
(b) 15th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 17th century.
Answer:
(a) 12th century.

Question 8.
Which of the Delhi ruler is also known for its economic and military reforms?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Babar
(d) Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 9.
Chief Minister and adviser to Sultan was known as
(a) Patwari
(b) Ulama
(c) Wazir
(d) Iqtadar.
Answer:
(c) Wazir.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the time span of Sultanate period in India.
Answer:
It was from 1206 A.D. to 1526 A.D.

Question 2.
Which Kingdoms ruled over Delhi during the Sultanate period?
Answer:
They were Slave dynasty, the Khalji dynasty, Tughlaq dynasty, Sayyids and Lodhis.

Question 3.
Name some great Sultans of Sultanate period.
Answer:
Iltutmish, Balban, Alauddin Khalji, Mohammad Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 4.
How and when did Qutubudin Aibak die?
Answer:
In 1210 A.D., he died by falling from a horse.

Question 5.
Who was Aram Shah?
Answer:
He was a son of Qutub-ud-din Aibak who became the Sultan afterward. He was an incapable ruler, so he was made a prisoner by Iltutmish and later on killed.

Question 6.
What was Chalisa?
Answer:
Iltutmish appointed 40 Amirs to run administrative system. They were called Chalisa.

Question 7.
Wlho was Razia Sultana?
Answer:
She was the daughter of Iltutmish and who succeeded him after his death. She ruled from 1236 A.D. to 1240 A.D. She crushed the rebellion of state governors, but Amirs and army generals did not obey her. She was killed in 1240 A.D.

Question 8.
Describe in brief the ruling period of Qutubdin Aibak.
Answer:
He was the real founder of Turk state. He was the first ruler of Delhi Sultanate. At the time of ascending the throne, he had to face many difficulties. He occupied Punjab to stop the invasion of Yaldoz, who was the ruler of Ghazni. He made Lahore his capital. He was a great art lover. Many mosques in Delhi and Ajmer have been built by him. He started the construction of Qutub Minar, but in 1210 A.D. he fell from a horse and died.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 9.
Describe in brief the successes of Iltutmish.
Answer:
Iltutmish was one of the greatest rulers of the Slave dynasty. He ruled from 1211 to 1236 A.D.

Some of his achievements are the following :

  • He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi which remained the capital of all the Sultan-rulers.
  • For the first ten years, he remained busy in crushing his different rivals who were also claimants to the throne.
  • He organized the ruling elite or the nobles into a strong group of faithful nobles of forty known as ‘Chalisa’.
  • For the promotion of trade and commerce, many new coins like those of ‘Tanka’ and ‘JitaV were introduced.
  • He divided his empire into many big or small pieces of land, known as ‘Iqtas’ and handed them over to his nobles and officers in lieu of salary.
  • In 1221, he defended India against the Mongol invasion under Changez Khan.
  • He occupied the Rajputana castles of Ranthambhor, Gwalior and Ujjain.

Question 10.
Write a brief comment on Jallaludin Khalji.
Answer:
Jallaludin Khalji was the founder of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1290 to 1296 A.D. During his ruling period the Delhi Darbar became a centre of scandals. In 1296, his nephew and son-in-law Alauddin Khalji killed him and ascended the throne.

Question 11.
Write about the victories and reforms of Alauddin Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji was the most famous ruler of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1296 A.D. to.1316 A.D. He was an optimist ruler. He wanted to established an empire in India.

Victories:

  • In 1299, he won Gujarat.
  • In 1301 A.D. he accupied Ranthambhor.
  • In 1303 A.D. Chittor was under his control.
  • He sent his General Malik Kafur to South India, where his army won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai, but Alauddin Khalji did not annex these areas into Delhi Sultanate.

Reforms of Alauddin Khalji:

  1. Economic reforms: He reduced the price of essential commodities. To control the
    prices, he appointed market officers. Anybody who went against his orders and rules was severely punished. .
  2. Military reforms: He started the custom of writing the physical measurements of the soldiers. He started paying cash salary to soldiers. He also appointed spies to control his empire.

Question 12.
Write about the administrative period of Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Answer:

  1. Feroz Shah considered the support of the nobles and the Ulema necessary for success.
  2. He made peace with them and kept them content by giving them grants of revenue.
  3. He was lenient in his dealings with the nobles.
  4. He allowed the orthodox ulema to influence state policy in certain matters.
  5. He improved his relations with the powerful groups at the court but at the same time, the power of the Sultan decreased.
  6. The governors of certain provinces like Bihar and Bengal had rebelled against the Sultanate.
  7. He tried to bring them under his control but he was not very successful.
  8. He established a department called ‘Diwan-i-Khairat’ to help the poor.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 13.
Write about the period of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He ruled from 1517 A.D. to 1526 A.D. He wanted to make his central administration very powerful. But he was not liked by Afghan Chiefs and they created many difficulties for him. Infact, Ibrahim Lodhi was not a farsighted Sultan. He could make friendly relations with his Amirs, but he made them his enemies because of his egoistic behavior. As a result, they started revolts against Delhi Sultanate. In 1526 A.D., Ibrahim Lodhi was killed while fighting against Babar in the first battle of Panipat.

Question 14.
Describe in brief the Timur’s raid on India.
Answer:
Timur was a Turkish chief. He was brave, powerful and ambitious ruler of Central Asia.

Effects of Timur’s raid on India.

  • Timur’s raid on India gave a death blow to the Tughlaq dynasty and it ended in 1413 A.D.
  • Delhi Sultanate met with financial crisis.
  • A local governor occupied Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty.
  • Timur’s raid encouraged the Mughals to establish their empire in India.

Question 15.
Briefly comment on Sayyid Dynasty (1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D.).
Answer:
When Timur left Delhi he appointed Khizar Khan as the governor of Multan, Lahore and Depalpur. In 1414 A.D. Khizar Khan won Delhi and established Sayyid dynasty. This dynasty ruled from 1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D. The last ruler Ala-ud-din Alam Shah was defeated by the Governor of Lahore, Bahlol Lodhi.

Question 16.
Briefly introduce Behlol Lodhi and Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
Bahlol Lodhi. He was the founder of Lodhi dynasty and was its first ruler. He tried to restore the pride of Delhi Sultanate. He established law and order in the country. In 1488 A.D. he died. His son Sikandar Lodhi became his successor.

Sikandar Lodhi. He was (1488 A.D. – 1517 A.D.) the most powerful ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He was a good administrator. He performed many functions for the welfare of public. He brought reforms in agriculture and reduced the prices of essential commodities. In 1503 A.D., he established Agra city and made it his capital. He died in 1517 A.D.

Question 17.
Give a brief account of the Deccan campaigns of Ala-ud-din Khalji.
Answer:
Ala-ud-din Khalji sent a very big army under his army General Malik Kafur. Malik Kafur won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai but Ala- ud-din didn’t annex these areas to his ruling state.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 18.
Describe the development of political institutions during the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The description in brief is as follows :
1. Central Government. Sultan was an autocratic ruler who had unlimited powers. He ran his government with the help of ministers. All the departments were run by the concerned ministers according to the orders of the Sultan. The administrative system of Delhi Sultanate was mainly based on Islamic laws.

The following were the main ministers in-charge of different departments :

  • Wajir: He was the most important minister of the state. He was the chief of finance and land revenue. Many officials were employed for his assistance. Mushrif Mamalik (Accountant General) and ‘Mustafi-i-Mamalik’ (Auditor-General) were the main assistants.
  • Ariz-i-Mamalik: Minister of army.
  • Diwan-i-Insha: Minister of Spy Department.
  • Diwan-i-Risalat: Minister of External Affairs.
  • Sadar-i-Sadur: Minister of Religion & Education Affairs.

2. Provincial Administration. The empire was divided into many states and governors were appointed for these states. They were called Subedars, Muqtis or Walis. The states were further divided into parganas. A combination of. many villages created one Pargana. The chief official of Pargana was named ‘Amil’. The chief of a village was called ‘Muqadam’.

3. Military Arrangement. The army consisted of horses, elephants and soldiers. The military officers were usually granted jagirs but sometimes they were paid their salaries cash. The military power was must for crushing rebels. They could never think of their existence without a powerful army. So the Delhi Sultans used all the means of military arrangements.

Question 19.
Write short notes on the following :
1. The Court
Answer:
The Court: Delhi Sultans established their own Courts. The front seats were given to Princes. Ministers, Department’s Chiefs, other officials and foreign diplomats were given the permanent places. The Departmental Chiefs were always present in the Court to answer the questions posed by the Sultan.

2. The Nobility
Answer:
The Nobility: The Delhi Sultans were complete Autocrates. They ruled with the help of noble class. Most of them were related to Turk or Afghan families. But after the period of Allaudin Khalji, Muslims and Hindus were also employed as high officials. Thus a noble class was also developed among these religions. The central ministers, state governors and army chiefs, all belonged to noble class.

3. Land Control
Answer:
Land Control: Revenue -was the chief source of the income of the state. There were three systems prevalent at that time. These were Batai, Kankut and measurement of land. Revenue was collected either in cash or in some other form. Alauddin Khalji paid special attention towards land reforms. He got the measurement done and to look after the agriculture, he created a department called ‘Diwan-i-Must-Kharaz’. At that time the rate of land revenue was very high. Firoz Shah Tughlaq also developed agriculture. He got canals built for irrigation. The rate of land revenue was lowered and loans were remitted.

4. Resource Mobilization.
Answer:
Resource Mobilization: There were many temporary sources of revenue also namely—Kharaz, Khamas, Jakat and Zazia. Kharaz was taken from non-Muslims. It was 10% to 50% of the total produce. Khamas was the 1/5 part of plundered stock from battles. The Sultan had the right over this portion. The rest 4/5 part was distributed among the army. Jakat was a religious tax, which was charged from Muslims. It was 2.5% of their property. Zazia tax was again charged from non-Muslims. It is said that women, children and poor people were exempted from this tax. This tax was charged from 10 to 40 Takas on the basis of income.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 20.
Write the names of the main historical sources of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The main sources are as follows:
1. Accounts of Foreign Travellers: Iban-batuta and Marco Polo travelled to India during the Sultanate period and wrote accounts about the personality of Sultans and knowledge about different sectors.

2. Royal Description: Tughlaq Nama, Tarikh-i-Alahi, Tarikh-i-Firozshahi, Futuhat-i-Firozshahi, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, and Makhzari-i-Afghan, etc. were the royal descriptions, where we get knowledge about Delhi Sultans and main events.

3. Historical Monuments: The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate include Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which rulers of Cholas dynasty again emerged as Cholas Kingdom?
Answer:
Vijayalaya was the first ruler of the Chola kingdom who won Tanjore from the Pallavas and made it as his capital. Prantaka-I was also a powerful Chola ruler who defeated a Pandya ruler. Rajraja–I was the greatest and the most powerful ruler of the Chola kingdom. Rajendra Chola expanded the Chola kingdom by defeating the rulers of Pandya, Chera and Srilanka and conquered their territories.

Question 2.
Which rulers were defeated by Rajraja-I and he captured their territories?
Answer:
Rajraja-I defeated the rulers of Chera, Pandya and Srilanka and captured their territories.

Question 3.
Write about the important conquests of Rajendra Chola.
Answer:
Rajendra Chola (1014 to 1044 A.D.): Rajendra was an ambitious king. He continued his father’s policy and fought many campaigns in the peninsula. But out of all his campaigns two were very bold and daring. One was when his armies marched up the east coast of India, through Orissa, and up to the Ganga. The second was Rajendra’s daring naval campaign. It took place in South-East Asia. This compaign proved a great help to the traders of his kingdom. It also increased the revenue of the Cholas. In south east Asia he achieved important victory over Andeman Nikobar, Malaya, Sumatra and Jawa.

Question 4.
Which languages were developed during the Chola reign?
Answer:
Under Chola kings, education and literature field were developed greatly. They patronized Grammar, Philosophy, Art, Science and Astronomy. The medium of education was Sanskrit and Tamil.

In this period, the religious literature was written in south India. Kamban wrote Ramayana in Tamil. Many inscriptions were written both in Sanskrit and Tamil language. Many of the poets wrote epic in Tamil language. The poet named Nanniah wrote many basic scriptures. The poets Pampa, Ponna and Ranna are the most famous trinity of poets of this time.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Which religion was very famous during the Chola reign?
Answer:
In the medieval India, Hinduism was the most famous religion during the Chola reign. Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva worshipped by the people. Buddhism and Jainism also existed during this era. Many other religious movements started during this period. Lingayata sect was founded by Basava. Shankracharya preached the advaita philosophy. Madhava and Ramanuja were the other religious teachers of Bhakti movement.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Pallava rulers made _______ their capital.
Answer:
Kanchi

Question 2.
Marco Polo visited the _______ kingdom.
Answer:
Pandya

Question 3.
Rajendra Chola took the title of _______
Answer:
Gangai Koudachola

Question 4.
Women were held great ______ during the Cholas reign.
Answer:
honour

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Nanniah and Tikkana Telugu scholars translated the ______ into Telugu.
Answer:
Mahabharata.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A B
1. Basava (i) Advaita Philosophy
2. Shankracharya (ii) Lingayata Sect
3. Ramanuja (iii) Bhakti Movement
4. Madhava (iv) Bhakti Movement

Answer:

A B
1. Basava (ii) Lingayata Sect
2. Shankracharya (i) Advaita Philosophy
3. Ramanuja (iv) Bhakti Movement
4. Madhava (iii) Bhakti Movement

IV. Write True or False for each statement.

Question 1.
Kamban translated the Ramayana into Tamil Language.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Cholas rulers had a powerful Army.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Mahenderavarman built a new town called Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Chola kingdom was divided into provinces.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 5.
Madurai was the capital of Chola Rulers.
Answer:
True.

V. Activities:

Question 1.
Locate the extent of Pallavs, Pandyas and Cholas kingdoms on the outline map of India.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Paste the pictures of Abu, Khujraho, Mahabalipuram, Kanchi and Tanjore in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200) Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of these was the powerful state of South India?
(a) Pallavas
(b) Pandyas
(c) Cheras
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
______ was the main ruler of Pallava dynasty?
(a) Mahendra Varman I
(b) Prantaka
(c) Raj Raja
(d) Rajendra.
Answer:
(a) Mahendra Varman I.

Question 3.
Chola dynasty was established by ______
(a) Dantidurga
(b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajendra Chola
(d) Raj Raja I.
Answer:
(b) Vijayalaya.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 4.
(a) Sabha
(b) Mahasabha
(c) Ur
(d) Village Assembly.
Answer:
(c) Ur.

Question 5.
(a) Ur
(b) Sabha
(c) Mahasabha
(d) Mandalam.
Answer:
(b) Sabha.

Question 6.
The chola provinces were known as
(a) Mandalams
(b) Sabha
(c) Valanadus
(d) Ur.
Answer:
(a) Mandalams.

Question 7.
Mandalams were divided into
(a) Sabha
(b) Valanadus
(c) Ur
(d) Mahasabha.
Answer:
(b) Valanadus.

Question 8.
Which of these was the function of village assemblies?
(a) To take care of roads
(b) To provide justice
(c) Temple Maintenance
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 9.
______ defeated the rulers of Chera, Pandya and Sri Lanka and captured their territories.
(a) Rajendra I
(b) Raj Raja I
(c) Prantaka
(d) Mahendra Varman I.
Answer:
(b) Raj Raja I.

Question 10.
Who wrote Ramayana in Tamil?
(a) Kamban
(b) Tulsidas
(c) Kanchi
(d) Rajendra I.
Answer:
(a) Kamban.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name three powerful states of South India during the medieval period.
Answer:
Pallavas, Pandyas, Cholas.

Question 2.
Give brief description of Pandyas Kingdom.
Answer:
Pandya Kingdom was established in southern parts of Tamil Nadu. The capital of Pandyas was known as Madurai or Madura. It was an important centre of education. Marco Polo visited this state and gave a detailed description of this state. During 14th century, Pandyas kingdom declined.

Question 3.
When did Pallavas become powerful? Give a brief description of their successes.
Answer:
The Pallavas became powerful rulers during 5th and 6th century after the decline of Satavahanas. Mahendra Varman I and Narasimhavarman I were two main rulers of Pallava dynasty. They greatly expanded their state and made Kanchi their capital.

They patronized art and architecture. They built shore temple and chariot temple of Mahabalipuram. They built Kailashnath Temple in Kanchi. In the 9th century Pallavas were defeated by Cholas.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 4.
Describe in brief the establishment and decline of the state of Cholas.
Answer:
The Cholas were very powerful state in South India. There rulers were as ahead :

  1. Vijayalaya: He established the Chola dynasty. He won Tanjore from Pallavas, and made it its capital. He ruled from 846 A.D. to 871 A.D.
  2. Prantak I: He was a powerful ruler of Chola state. He sat on the throne in 907 A.D. and ruled upto 955 A.D. He defeated Pandya ruler, controlled the capital Madurai and got the designation Madurai Konda. After this, in the battle of Takolam he was defeated by Krishna III, the Rashtrakuta ruler.

Question 5.
After Prantak I which two rulers made the Chola Kingdom powerful again?
Answer:
Raj Raja I and Rajendra Chola again brought Chola Kingdom into existence and made it a great power of South India.

Question 6.
Give two administrative successes of Raj Raja I.
Answer:

  1. He created a modern Navy.
  2. He was a follower of Shaiv religion but was tolerent towards other religions.

Question 7.
How did the Chola Kingdom decline?
Answer:
The inheritors of Rajendra Chola were always fighting with their neighbouring states. So as a result they became powerless and ultimately declined

Question 8.
Comment on south Indian society from 700 A.D. to 1200 A.D.
Answer:
In south Indian society, the aristocratic class, Brahmins and traders had a pride of place. The different classes of society cooperated with each other for the fulfilment of common objectives. Women had a respectable position in society. They were given high education. The farmers and labourers were related to the working class. They were very poor and led a difficult life.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 9.
Give the main features of religion in south India during 700 A.D. to 1200 A.D.?
Answer:

  1. Hinduism: It was very popular: The Hindu gods such as Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva were generally worshipped.
  2. Buddhism and Jainism: These two religions were also in existence.
  3. Religious movements: Many religious movements came in existence :
    (i) Basava established Lingayata Movement.
    (ii) Shankaracharaya propagated advaita Movement.
    (iii) Ramanuja and Madhava were other great preachers of Bhakti movement. They emphasised on the worship of one God. They gave the sermon that the single, most important means of salvation is loving God with a pure heart. They were against the discrimination based on caste and creed. People were greatly impressed by their teachings.

Question 10.
Write the story of rise and fall of Chola Kingdom.
Answer:
The Chola Kingdom was the most famous state of south India. They ruled for about 400 years. Their states included modern Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

The following were the important kings of Chola dynasty :
1. Vijayalya: He established the Chola dynasty. He won Tanjore from Pallavas, and made it its capital. He ruled from 846 A.D. to 871 A.D.

2. Prantak I: He was a powerful ruler of Chola state. He sat on the throne in 907 A.D. and ruled upto 955 A.D. He defeated Pandya ruler, controlled the capital Madurai and got the title of Madurai Konda. After this, in the battle of Takolam he was defeated by Krishna III, who was the Rashtrakuta ruler.

3. Raj Raja I: He was a brilliant general. He campaigned in many directions. He attacked the kingdom of the Pandyas and of the Cheras as well as parts of Mysore. He also campaigned northwards in the Deccan and the region of Vengi. But he was not able to control them for any length of time.

4. Rajendra Chola: Rajendra was an ambitious king. He continued his father’s policy and fought many campaigns in the peninsula. But out of ah his campaigns two were very bold and daring. One was when his armies marched up the east coast of India, through Orissa, and up to the Ganga. The second was Rajendra’s daring naval campaign. It took place in South-East Asia. This compaign proved a great help to the traders of his kingdom. It also increased the revenue of the Cholas. In south-east Asia he achieved important victory over Andeman Nikobar, Malaya, Sumatra and Jawa.

5. Decline of Cholas: The successors of Rajendra I spent much time and effort and money on fighting wars with the other kingdoms of the peninsula. Some of these wars were not successful. By the end of the thirteenth century, the Chola kingdom was declined.

Question 11.
What were the main features of Chola Rulers?
Answer:
The Chola government was headed by a powerful king who acted on the advice of his council of ministers or Purohita. The kingdom was divided into Mandalams and Valanadus, the villages were ruled by elected assemblies called Urs. The revenue of the Chola kingdom came from two sources—taxes on land and taxes on trade.

The main features of the Chola Government and administration were as follows :

  1. The Central Administration: The king was at the head of the central administration. He was the most powerful person.
  2. Provincial Administration: The whole kingdom was divided into six provinces called mandalam. Each mandalam was under the charge of a governor.
  3. The Village Administration: The administration in villages was carried out by villagers themselves. They elected a village council called ‘Ur’ or Sabha.
  4. Taxes: The government revenue came from three sources—taxes on land and the produce of the land and taxes on trade.
  5. Public Works: Chola rulers spent most of their income from taxes on public works such as building of roads and construction of tanks for storing water and for building temples.

Question 12.
What do you know about the Chola art and architecture?
Answer:
The Cholas were great builders. They were great patrons of art and architecture. The Brihadeswara Temple at Tanjore is a fine specimen of the Chola architecture. The Chola temples were known for their unique features. The gateway to the temples is called ‘Gopuram’. It is beautifully carved and the walls are decorated with scenes depicting gods and goddess. The ‘Shikhara’ was built over the central shrine. It is a spiral-like structure. Raj Raja I build the Raj Rajeshwar temple of Tanjore. It is made in Dravidian style.

Rajendra Chola built a city named Gangai Kond Cholapuram and made it his capital. Many life-size sculptures of bronze have been made in Chola art. The Natraja sculpture of Tanjore are the best examples.

Question 13.
Describe the military achievements of Raj Raja I.
Answer:
Raj Raja I (985-1016 A.D.). He was a brilliant general. He campaigned in many directions. He attacked the kingdom of the Pandyas and of the Cheras as well as parts of Mysore. He also campaigned northwards in the Deccan and the region of Vengi. But he was not able to control them for any length of time.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Political Developments in South India (A.D.700-1200)

Question 14.
Briefly describe the architectural and literary achievements of the Cholas.
Answer:
The Chola kings were great lovers of sculpture. There was great development of sculpture art under their administration.

Chola kings took keen interest in building temples; They donated money and land whole-heartedly for the building and maintenance of temples. The royal temples built by Chola kings were very magnificent. Thus we can say that Chola government has a great contribution in the building of the temples. These temples were centres of education. Raj Raja I built the Raj Rajeshwar temple of Tanjor. It is made in Dravadian style. Rajendra Chola built a city named Gangaikonda Cholapuram and made it his capital. Many lifesize sculptures of bronze have been made in Chola art. The Natraja sculpture of Tanjore are the best examples.

Question 15.
What do you know about the Chola administration?
Answer:
The Chola government was headed by a powerful king who acted on the advice of his council of ministers or Purohita. The kingdom was divided into Mandalams and Valanadus, the villages were ruled by elected assemblies called Urs. The revenue of the Chola kingdom came from two sources—taxes on land and taxes on trade.

The main features of the Chola Government and administration were as follows :

  1. The Central Administration: The king was at the head of the central administration. He was the most powerful person.
  2. Provincial Administration: The whole kingdom was divided into six provinces called rriandalam. Each mandalam was under the charge of a governor.
  3. The Village Administration: The administration in villages was carried out by villagers themselves. They elected a village council called ‘Ur’ or Sabha.
  4. Taxes: The government revenue came from three sources-taxes on land and the produce of the land and taxes on trade.
  5. Public Works: Chola rulers spent most of their income from taxes on public works such as building of roads and construction of tanks for storing water and for building temples.

Question 16.
Which type of agrarian was developed in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
1. The Chola kings gave special attention to the development of agriculture. They cleaned the forests with the help of nomadic tribes and created cultivable lands. As a result, there was a great expansion of the Zamindari system.

2. They paid special attention to the irrigation systems. The water from the Kaveri river was especially used. Where it was not possible to transfer river water, there they constructed ponds. They even established a pond committee to distribute water to agriculture farms.

3. They would never charge land revenue if there were floods or droughts in their state. They even gave loans to farmers during emergencies.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 4 Heat Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Heat

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Heat Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 37)

Question 1.
The normal temperature of our body is ……………… .
Answer:
The normal temperature of our body is 37°C.

Question 2.
The clinical thermometer can measure temperature above 45°C. (T/F)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 39)

Question 1.
Thermometer should be held from its bulb.(T/F)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The thermometer should not touch the ………………. of the beaker.
Answer:
The thermometer should not touch the bottom or sides of the beaker.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 40)

Question 1.
The handle of cooking vessels are good conductor of heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The handle of electric iron is good conductor of heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 42)

Question 1.
The ventilators in the rooms are used to expell cold air. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
The liquids are always heated from the bottom. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 44)

Question 1.
We wear light coloured clothes in winter. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Dark coloured clothes absorbs less heat. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Heat Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The hotness of an object is a measured by its …………………….
Answer:
Temperature

(ii) The mode of heat transfer without any medium is called ………………….. .
Answer:
Radiation

(iii) Air is ………………….. conductor of heat.
Answer:
bad

(iv) The normal temperature of the human body is ……………………. °C.
Answer:
37°C

2. Write True or False:

(i) Metals are insulators of heat.
Answer:
False

(ii) Sea breeze arises due to conduction.
Answer:
False

(iii) We get heat from the sun by radiation.
Answer:
True

(iv) Wool is good conductor of heat.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

(v) Range of clinical thermometer is 35° C to 42°C.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Land breeze blows during

2. Sea breeze blows during

3. We prefer light coloured clothes in

4. We prefer dark coloured clothes in

(a) winter

(b) night

(c) daytime

(d) summer

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Land breeze blows during

2. Sea breeze blows during

3. We prefer light coloured clothes in

4. We prefer dark coloured clothes in

(c) daytime

(b) night

(d) summer

(a) winter

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Temperature of human body is:
(a) 100°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 37° C
(d) 98°C.
Answer:
(c) 37° C.

Question (ii)
Which is bad conductor of heat ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Wood.
Answer:
(d) Wood.

Question (iii)
One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. Then temperature of mixture will be :
(a) 80°C
(b) More than 50°C but less than 80°C’
(c) 20°C
(d) Between 30°C and 50°C
Answer:
(d) Between 30°C and 50°C.

Question (iv)
A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end:
(a) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(b) becomes cold by the process of convection.
(c) becomes cold by the process of radiation.
(d) does not become cold.
Answer:
(d) does not become cold.

Question (v)
Land breeze is:
(a) cool air from land to sea
(b) cool air from sea to land
(c) hot air from land to sea
(d) hot air from sea to land.
Answer:
(a) cool air from land to sea.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question (i)
State the condition which determine the direction of flow of heat.
Answer:
When two objects are in contact with each other, the heat is transmitted from the object at higher temperature to the object at a lower temperature.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
What is clinical thermometer ? Write its range.
Answer:
Clinical thermometer. Clinical thermometer is a device by which a human body temperature is measured. It is also called Medical thermometer’s range in from 35°C to 42°C.

Question (iii)
What is the use of kink in a clinical thermometer ?
Answer:
Medical thermometer has a kink (bend) just above the bulb, the function of which is to prevent the mercury level from falling because of its weight. If kink is not present there then the mercury level will drop so that the human temperature will not be measured accurately.

Question (iv)
What is Lab thermometer ? Write its range.
Answer:
Lab Thermometer. An instrument used to measure the temperature of objects other than human beings (or living things) is called Lab thermometer. The range of lab thermometer is usually 10°C to 110°C.

Question (v)
Why do we prefer dark clothes in winters and light one in summers ?
Answer:
Darker fabrics absorb more heat than light coloured fabrics. So in winter we wear dark coloured clothes to keep our body warm by absorbing more heat, whereas light coloured clothes absorb lesser amount of heat and are also good reflector so our body does not get much heat.

Question (vi)
Why do we wear woollen clothes in winters ?
Answer:
Air is trapped in the wool fibres. Since air is a bad conductor of heat, so it does not allow heat to be transmitted to the cold environment outside. That is why we feel warm in winter by wearing woollen clothes.

6. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What are the various modes of heat transfer ? Explain.
Answer:
There are three modes of heat transfer :
1. conduction.
2. convection,
3. radiation.

1. Conduction.
It is that method of heat transfer in which heat is transmitted from the hotter end to the colder end of the object without the actual movement of the heated partilces. Solids are heated by this method.

2. Convection.
It is the process of heat transfer due to the actual movement of the heated particles of liquid or gas. Liquids and gases are heated by this method.

3. Radiation.
It is the process in which heat is transmitted directly from the ource of heat or hot object to a cold object without medium in between them. In other words no medium is required for heat radiation

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
Explain the formation of sea breeze and land breeze in coastal areas ?
Answer:
Sea breeze.
During day time the ground is heated by the heat of the sun, which causes the ground air to heat up, roll and rise. Cold air from the ocean begins to rush towards the ground to take it’s place. The warm air from the land moves towards the sea to complete the cycle. The wind that blows from the ocean to the land is called the sea breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 1
Land breeze.
Due to higher heat absorption capacity the water cools down more slowly than the land, so cool air from the land starts rushing from the land towards the sea at night. This is called land breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 2

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Heat Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The degree of hotness of an object is determined by its …………………
Answer:
temperature

(ii) Temperature of boiling water cannot be measured by a ………………. thermometer.
Answer:
clinical

(iii) Temperature is measured in degree ……………… .
Answer:
Celsius

(iv) A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its other end by
the process of ………………..
Answer:
conduction

(v) Clothes of …………………. colours absorb more heat than light coloured clothes.
Answer:
dark

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Medical thermometer

(ii) Black coloured objects

(iii) Woollen clothes

(iv) Transfer of heat

(v) Light coloured clothes

(a) From high temperature to low temperature

(b) In winter

(c) In summer

(d) Better absorbent and radiator

(e) To measure the temperature of human beings.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Medical thermometer

(ii) Black coloured objects

(iii) Woollen clothes

(iv) Transfer of heat

(v) Light coloured clothes

(e) To measure the temperature of human beings

(d) Better absorbent and radiator

(b) In winter

(a) From high temperature to low temperature

(c) In summer

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
We can measure temperature with clinical thermometer
(a) From 30°C to 42°C
(b) From 35°C to 42°C
(c) From 35°C to 45°C
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) From 35°C to 42°C.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question (ii)
The reliable measure of heat of an object is :
(a) The heat of that object
(b) The degree of hotness or coldness of that object
(c) The physical touch
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) The degree of hotness or coldness of that object.

Question (iii)
The range of laboratory thermometer is :
(a) -10°C to 100°C
(b) 35°C to 42°C
(c) -10°C to 110°C
(d) 94°F to 108°F.
Answer:
(c) ~10°C to 110°C.

Question (iv)
Heat from sun reaches us by the process of :
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) radiation.

Question (v)
Heat is transferred in liquids and gases by :
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) convection.

Question (vi)
Clinical thermometer is filled with :
(a) Water
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Air.
Answer:
(c) Mercury.

Question (vii)
What kind of clothes do we wear in summer ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silky
(d) Wool.
(c) Jute
Answer:
(a) Cotton.

4. State True or False:

(i) We wear both light and dark clothes in summer.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

(ii) In coastal areas, the wind blowing from the sea towards the coast at night is called land breeze.
Answer:
False

(iii) Woollen garments provide warmth in winter as wool fibres traps in air.
Answer:
True

(iv) Heat transfer between liquids and gases is by convection method.
Answer:
True

(v) The thermometer should be washed with lukewarm water before use to measure temperature.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is temperature ?
Answer:
Temperature. The degree of hotness or coolness of an object is its temperature.

Question 2.
What is thermometer ?
Answer:
Thermometer. It is a device used to measure the temperature of an object.

Question 3.
Name two types of thermometers.
Answer:

  1. Clinical thermometer and
  2. Laboratory thermometer.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 4.
Which metal is used in thermometers ?
Answer:
Mercury (Hg).

Question 5.
Which scales are used to measure temperatures ?
Answer:
Two scales are mainly used which are (i) Celsius scale and (ii) Fahemheit scale.

Question 6.
What is range of clinical thermometer ?
Answer:
35°C to 42°C.

Question 7.
Why is a thermometer jerked before taking temperature of a person ?
Answer:
To bring the mercury level below 35°C.

Question 8.
What is normal body temperature of healthy person ?
Answer:
37°C.

Question 9.
Name the thermometer used for noting weather temperature.
Answer:
Maximum-Minimum thermometer.

Question 10.
What is range of laboratory thermometer ?
Answer:
-10°C to 110°C.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 11.
Which solution is used to wash thermometer before and after use ?
Answer:
Antiseptic solution.

Question 12.
How are laboratory thermometers read ?
Answer:
In vertically upright position.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When cold milk is added to hot tea, how does the heat transfer take place ?
Answer:
When cold milk is added to hot tea. the two come in contact with each other. The transfer of heat energy takes place from hot molecules of tea to cold molecules of milk by the process called convection.

Question 2.
What are the main conditions necessary for the flow of heat ?
Answer:
Conditions for the flow of heat. The following are three conditions responsible for the flow of heat from one place to another or from one body to another body :

  1. The two substances should be in contact with each other.
  2. The temperature of both the substances should be different.
  3. The heat flows from hot to cooler substance.

Question 3.
If a spoon is held over fire, it becomes hot after sometime. Describe the process of heating up.
Answer:
We know that in a solid the molecules are packed close together. When one end of the spoon is held over the fire, the molecules of material of spoon absorb the heat energy and begin to vibrate rapidly. These molecules handover heat energy to the neighbouring molecules, in turn, cause their neighbouring molecules to vibrate. This process continues along the length of the spoon and energy is transferred from the hotter part to the colder part. After sometime, the other end of the spoon also becomes hot.

Question 4.
Why is it preferred to wear bright clothes in summer and dark clothes in winter ?
Answer:
Dark coloured clothes are good absorbers of heat as compared to white clothes. The dark coloured clothes absorb the heat falling on them and become wanner. So we feel warm in winter by wearing these clothes. On the other hand, white clothes reflect heat coming from the sun. That is why, we prefer to wear bright clothes in summer and dark clothes in winter.

Question 5.
Define conduction. Why the handles of cooking utensils are made of insulators ?
Answer:
Conduction. The mode of transfer of heat in which heat is transferred from one particle to another without the actual motion of the particles, is called conduction.
The handles of cooking utensils are made up of insulating materials because they do not allow heat to flow through them. So heat cannot reach our body and thus our hand is prevented from burning.

Question 6.
Define radiation.
Answer:
Radiation. The process of transfer of heat from one body to another without heating the intervening medium, is called radiation. No medium is needed for the transference of heat by this process.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat

Question 7.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:
Differences between heat and temperature.
TABLE

Question 8.
What is convection ? Give two practical applications of convection of heat.
Answer:
Convection.
The process of transference of heat in which heated gas or a liquid particles actually move from one place to another, is called convection. All the liquids and gases are heated by the method of convection.

Practical applications :

  • When a stove is lighted, the air in contact with the hot stove becomes warm. On being heated, it expands and becomes lighter. As a result, it rises upwards and the cool air from its surrounding comes to take its place.
  • The ventilation of ordinary buildings is due to convection.

Question 9.
As soon as the tube is removed from the source of heat, the level of liquid drops. How is this avoided in the thermometer that doctors use ?
Answer:
It is seen that the level of liquid fails in a narrow-tube (capillary tube) when it is removed from the source of heat. But when the doctor’s thermometer is removed from the source of heat, the level of mercury does not fall by itself. It is because a kink is provided in the tube of clinical thermometer which prevents mercury from falling down due to its own weight.

Question 10.
Discuss why wearing more layers of clothing during winter keeps us warm than wearing just one thick piece of clothing.
Answer:
Different layers of clothing trap air inside them. Air is a poor conductor of heat so it prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold surrounding and keeps us warm.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an experiment to show that black bodies are good absorbers and good raidators.
Answer:
Experiment. Take two tin cans of the same size. Paint one of them black and other white from outside. Pour equal amount of water in each can. Now place them in the sun for about an hour. When we touch water in the tin cans we find that the water in the black tin has become warmer than that in the other tin. Since the size of the tins is the same, this shows that black body has absorbed more heat radiations than the other one.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 3
You can also do the reverse experiment by taking equal amount of hot water in each can. Leave the cans in a shady place for 10 minutes and record the temperature of each can. You would find the water in the dark had cooled down more. Thus, we conclude that black bodies are good absorbers and also good radiators of heat.

Question 2.
Give an experiment to show the transfer of heat by conduction.
Answer:
Experiment. Take a flat aluminium rod. Fix some iron nails on this rod with the help of molten wax. Clamp this rod in a stand as shown in the figure.
Heat one end of the rod with the help of spirit lamp. The iron nails drop one by one, starting from the hot end. It shows that heat is transferred slowly from one end of the rod to the other end by conduction.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Heat 4
Conduction of heat takes place from the hot part of the object to its colder parts; or from one hot object to a colder object, happens only if:

  1. the two parts are in contact, and
  2. their temperatures are different.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which type of caste system was prevalent in society during the medieval period?
Answer:
In the early medieval period, caste system was very strong. The whole society was divided into four castes. These were – Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and Shudras. Brahahmins performed religious ceremonies, so they had a place of respect in the society. Kashtriyas became warriors and administrators and participated in wars. Vaishyas traded and did agricultural tasks but the condition of Shudras in society was not good. Rajputs were proud of their high caste.

Question 2.
Which period is called as ‘Rajput Period’?
Answer:
The period between the eighth century and the thirteenth century is known as the ‘Rajput Period’ because many Rajput states were established in North India during this era.

Question 3.
Why Mahmud Ghaznavi invaded India?
Answer:
Mahmud Ghaznavi wanted to make Ghazni the most powerful kingdom in the region. That is why he wanted a lot of money to organise large army. Therefore, he invaded India to raise money seventeen times from 1001-1025 A.D.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 4.
Why Muhammad Ghori invaded India?
Answer:
Muhammad Ghori was the ruler of Gaur Kingdom in Afghanistan. He wanted to build up an empire in India. So in 1175 A.D. he invaded Multan and captured it.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Mihir Bhoj was a powerful ruler of the ______ dynasty.
Answer:
Pratihara

Question 2.
Devpal built a temple of ______ at Bodh Gaya.
Answer:
Mahabodhi

Question 3.
Rashtrakuta rulers were the patrons of ______
Answer:
art, education.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A B
1. Gurjara Pratiharas rulers (i) Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand
2. Palas rulers (ii) Rajasthan and Gujarat
3. Rashtrakuta rulers (iii) Deccan

Answer:

A B
1. Gurjara Pratiharas rulers (ii) Rajasthan and Gujarat
2. Palas rulers (i) Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand
3. Rashtrakuta rulers (iii) Deccan

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200) Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which Kingdom ruled over Rajasthan and Gujarat?
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas
(b) Palas
(c) Cheras
(d) Rashtrakutas.
Answer:
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 2.
Who was the most famous ruler of Chauhan dynasty?
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan
(b) Jai Chauhan
(c) Malik Raj Chauhan
(d) Harshavardhana
Answer:
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan.

Question 3.
Who founded the Rashtrakuta dynasty?
(a) Harshavardhana
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Jaipal
(d) Gopala.
Answer:
(b) Dantidurga.

Question 4.
Who defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in the second battle of Terain?
(a) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(b)Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(c) Mohammad Ghori
(d) Iltutmish
Answer:
(c) Mohammad Ghori.

Question 5.
Who attacked India 17 times?
(a) Mohammad Ghori
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Qutb-ud-din-Aibak
Answer:
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi

Question 6.
Which of these dynasties fought to gain control of Kanauj?
(a) Gurjara Pratiharas
(b) Palas
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
The period between 8th century and 13th century is known as
(a) Rajput period
(b) Sultnate period
(c) Mughal period
(d) Medieval period.
Answer:
(a) Rajput period.

Question 8.
______ was the most powerful ruler of Gurjana pratihara dynasty.
(a) Mihirbhoj
(b) Gopala
(c) Dantidurga
(d) Dhruva.
Answer:
(a) Mihirbhoj.

Question 9.
Dharampala was a famous ruler of dynasty.
(a) Gurjara Pratihara
(b) Pala
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Chera.
Answer:
(b) Pala.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 10.
Rashtrakutas ruled in ______ region.
(a) North
(b) South
(c) Deccan
(d) Eastern.
Answer:
(c) Deccan.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the names of three north and south Indian states in the early medieval period.
Answer:

  • North Indian states-Gurjara-Pratiharas, Palas and Rajputs.
  • South Indian states- Pallav, Pandaya and Cholas.

Question 2.
Where did Gurjar a Pratiharas rule?
Answer:
In some parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 2A.
Which three dynasties were involved in the triple struggle?
Answer:
Three dynasties involved in the triple struggle for Kanauj were the Rashtrakutas, the Gurjara-Pratiharas and the Palas.

Question 3.
Who was the most powerful ruler of Gurjara/ Pratihara dynasty? Write his ruling period.
Answer:
It was Mihirbhqj who ruled from 836 A.D. to 885 A.D

Question 4.
How did Gurjara/Pratihara dynasty come to an end?
Answer:
The last ruler Rajpal accepted the subordination of Mahmud Ghaznavi in 1018-19 A.D. So he was killed at the hands of Rajputs. In this way, the dynasty came to an end.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 5.
Describe briefly Mahendrapal – the Gurjara/Pratihara ruler.
Answer:
Mahendrapal was the son of Mihirbhoj. He ruled from 885 to 910 A.D. He was a lover of art and literature.

Question 6.
Where did Pala rulers rule? Who established this dynasty?
Answer:
The Pala rulers ruled over modern Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand. This dynasty was established by Gopal in 750 A.D.

Question 7.
Write two successes of Palas rulers.
Answer:

  1. Architecture, painting, education and literature were greatly developed.
  2. They followed Buddhism but were tolerant towards other religions.

Question 8.
Write one education related success of Pala ruler Dharampala.
Answer:
Dharampala established Vikkramshila Vihar, which later on became a great university.

Question 9.
Where did Rashtrakutas rule?
Answer:
Rashtrakutas ruled in Deccan region. It included the northern region between Krishna river and Tungbhadra river.

Question 10.
Name the famous rulers of Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Answer:
Dantidurg, Krishna I, Govind II, Dhruva, Govind III, Amoghvarsha and Krishna III were famous rulers of Rashtrakuta dynasty.

Question 11.
Name some main successes of Rashtrakuta rulers.
Answer:

  • They fought with Chalukayas and Pallavas in south India.
  • King Dhruva of Rashtrakuta dynasty defeated Pratihara ruler Vatsaraj of Kanauj.
  • Rashtrakuta rulers were patrons of art and education.
  • King Amoghvarsha was a good poet.
  • Krishna I built a Kailash Temple in Ellora.
  • Rashtrakutas established trade relationships with other countries.
  • They gave patronage to other religions also along with Hindu religion.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 12.
What do you mean by Rajput period?
Answer:
After the death of Harshvardhana, India was divided into many small states. Most of these states were under the occupation of Rajputs. The Rajputs fought with each other. So these Rajput kingdoms formed, dissolved and formed again. Thus from 8th century till 13th century it was mainly Rajputs who ruled over India. So this “period is called the Rajput period.

Question 13.
Comment briefly on the following :
1. Mihirbhoj
Answer:
Mihirbhoj: Mihirbhoj I (836 – 885 A.D.) was the famous ruler from Gurjara/ Pratihara dynasty. The Arab traveller Suleman has referred him as a brave warrior and efficient administrator. He got back lost areas from Pala dynasty. He was the worshipper of Lord Vishnu. He inherited the designation of ‘Adi Varah’.

2. Dharampala
Answer:
Dharampala: Dharampala (770-810 A.D.) was a famous ruler of Pala dynasty. The Arab trevellor Suleman writes that his military power was far more than his detractors. He fought against Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas. He was also an education lover. He established the famous boddh temple of Vikramshila which later on became a higher learning centre.

3. Devpal
Answer:
Devpal: Devpal was son of Dharampala who ruled from 81V to 850 A.D. He is known as the most powerful of Pala rulers. He won Assam and Orissa. He fought against Pratiharas also and earned a place of pride for Pala state.

4. Amoghvarsha
Answer:
Amoghvarsha: Amoghvarsha (814-878 A.D.) was a ruler of Rashtrakut dynasty. He ruled for 64 years. He is famous for his scholorship. He wrote a scripture called ‘Kavi Raj Marg’. This is the very first epic of Kannad literature.

5. Prithviraj Chauhan.
Answer:
Prithviraj Chauhan: He was the most famous and greatest ruler of Chauhan dynasty. He ruled from 1179 to 1192 A.D. He had Delhi and Ajmer under his control. He defeated the Chandel king Mahoba and also took under his control some other castles. He even fought against Chalukaya king Bhim II. In 1192 he was defeated by Mohammad Ghori.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Tripartite struggle?
Answer:
It refers to the struggle which took place among Rashtrakutas, Pratiharas and Palas to control Kanauj. Kanauj was a famous city of north India. It was strategically very important in north India. It means that the king who controlled Kanauj could control the fertile plain of the Ganges. So many battles were fought for its control. The Rashtrakutas, Pratihars and Palas—all these dynasties controlled Kanauj one by one. Modern historians call this struggle as tripartite struggle.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 15.
Write about two famous Rajput dynasties.
Answer:

  1. Pratihara Dynasty: The kings of this dynasty ruled over Kanauj and its surrounding areas. The first great ruler of this dynasty was ‘Nagabhatta I’.Mihirbhoj I was another famous ruler of this dynasty.
  2. Chauhan Dynasty: This dynasty ruled over Ajmer in Rajasthan. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was a famous king of this dynasty. He fought twice with Mohammad Ghori.

Question 16.
Who was Mahmud Ghaznavi? Why did he invade India?
Answer:
Mahmud Ghaznavi (999 – 1030 A.D.) was the son of Ghazni state ruler Subakatgin. He invaded India 17 times. The main objective of his invasions was to plunder money from India.

Question 17.
Who was Mohammad Ghori? What was his objective of coming to India?
Answer:
Shahabud-din, popularly known in history as Muhammad Ghori, was the younger brother of Ghias-ud-din, the ruler of Gaur, a small principality in Afghanistan.

Mohammad Ghori’s Aims in India

  1. Mohammad Ghori’s aim was not just to plunder the wealth of India but also to establish a Muslim rule over this country.
  2. He was more political and a better statesman than his predecessor. It was he who clearly perceived the rotton condition of India and thought of founding a permanent empire in this land.
  3. His main aim was the conquest of India and he was quite successful in achieving it. He never lost courage and continued his efforts ceaselessly and ultimately all his efforts in founding the Muslim Empire in India were fully rewarded.
  4. Muhammad Ghori’s conquest of India was real and permanent. The territories that he conquered were seldom lost to Islam as was the case with his predecessor, Mahmud Ghaznavi

Question 18.
What was the difference between the invasions of Mahmud Ghaznavi and Mohammad Ghori?
Answer:
The following were the points of difference :

Mahmud Ghaznavi Mohammad Ghori
1. He wanted to plunder the Indian wealth. 1. He wanted to establish Muslim state in north India.
2. He remain victorious in all his invasions. 2. He was once defeated in his invasions.
3. India lost much wealth by his invasions. 3. Muslim state was established by his invasions.

Question 19.
What was the importance of Kanauj? Name the kingdoms which wanted to occupy Kanauj.
Answer:
Many of the campaigns in northern India were fought over the city of Kanauj. This had been the capital of Harasha and remained an important city. It was thought that whoever will capture Kanauj could control the Ganga valley. Three major kingdoms were involved in this struggle. They occupied Kanauj in turn. The three kingdoms were those of the Rashtrakutas, the Gurjara-Pratiharas and the Palas.

Question 20.
Write a note about the origin of Rajputs.
Answer:
The Rajputs have a long and interesting history. Where they came from and who they were, remains something of a mystery. Historians think that some of them belonged to certain Central Asian tribes. The Rajputs always insisted that they were of the Kshatriya caste. Their kings ordered family histories to be written which connected them with either the sun-family (surya-vamsha) or the moon-family (chandra-vamsha) of ancient Indian kings.

According to Colonel Todd, the famous historian, Rajputs are the offspring of middle Asian tribes and came to live in India after the ‘Huna invasion’. Similarly Vedvyas and Gauri Shankar Ojha think that Rajputs are the offspring of ancient Kshatriyas. Another idea is of Chand Bardai, who wrrites in his book ‘Prithivi Raj Raso’, that Rajputs originated from ‘AgnikuF.

Question 21.
Who were the Chauhans? Write a brief note about them.
Answer:
Chauhans are also known as ‘Chahamans’. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was the most powerful king. He ruled from 1179 A.D. to 1192 A.D. He was a brave warrior. He defeated the Chandel king and snatched many areas. He defeated Mohammad Ghori in the first battle of Tarain in 1191 A.D. But in the very next year (1192 A.D. ), he was defeated by Mohammad Ghori in the second battle of Tarain and was killed. Thus the Chauhan dynasty came to an end in Delhi. Chand Bardai has described the successes of Prithvi Raj Chauhan in ‘Prithivi Raj Raso’.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 22.
Write in brief about the main invasions of Mahmud Ghaznavi.
Answer:
Mahmud was the ruler of Ghazni. He wanted to make Ghazni a big and powerful kingdom. India was extremely rich. So he planned to attack India in order to bring back wealth and thus build a larger army to conquer Central Asia.

The description of his main invasions is as follow :
1. Invasion on Jaipal (1001 A.D.). He invaded Jaipal the Hindu royal ruler of Punjab. Jaipal was defeated and imprisoned. It is said that Mahmud got 2.5 lac gold coins from Jaipal and set him free. Jaipal could not tolerate this insult and put himself to fire.

2. Battle with Anandpal (1008 A.D.). Anandpal was the son of Jaipal. He fought Mahmud Ghaznavi by combining the armies of Ujjain, Gwalior, Kalinjar, Delhi and Ajmer. The battle near Peshwar was terrible but Mahmud emerged victoriously and after that he plundered Punjab.

3. Invasion of Nagarkot (1009 A.D.). He invaded Nagarkot (Kangra) and looted gold and silver from Kangra temples.

4. Invasion on Thanesar (1014 A.D.). Again Ghaznavi plundered the big temples of Thanesar by invading this place.

5. Invasion on Mathura and Kanauj (1018-1019 A.D.). In 1018 A.D., Mahmud reached Mathura but before that he plundered the temples on the way to Mathura and set these on fire. When he reached Mathura, he demolished the temples there also. From Mathura he reached Kanauj. The ruler of Kanauj surrendered and Mahmud plundered and demolished the temples there.

6. Invasion on Kalinjar (1021 A.D.). The ruler of Kalinjar Vidyadhar had a big army but still he could not face Mahmud and ran away from the battlefield.

7. Invasion on the temple of Somnath (1025 A.D.)—Mahmud Ghaznavi attacked the temple of Somnath in Kathiawar in Gujarat. This temple was famous for its unlimited resources. Besides it was considered the holiest temple of the Hindus. Mahmud plundered and demolished this temple and took hundreds of tons of gold and silver and diamonds to his country. It was the biggest victory of Mahmud for which he was honoured by the Caliph. In 1030 A.D. Mahmud died.

Question 23.
Give an account of the important invasions of Muhammad Ghori.
Answer:
Mohammad Ghori was ruler of Gaur Kingdom in Afghanistan. He sat oh – the throne in 1173 A.D. He decided to invade India after becoming the king. He attacked’ and occupied Multan in 1175 A.D.

His other main invasions are as follows :
1. Invasion of Gujarat. In 1178 A.D. Ghori attacked Gujarat. The ruler of Gujarat faced Mohammad Ghori and badly defeated him.

2. First war of Tarain. Mohammad Ghori wanted to established a Muslim state iri India, so he attacked Delhi in 1191 A.D. Delhi had Prithvi Raj Chauhan as the king who was brave heart king. The two armies faced each other in terrible battle and Mohammad Ghori was defeated badly.

3. Second battle of Tarain. To take revenge of his defeat Mohammad Ghori again attacked India in 1192 A.D. This time Raja Jaichand, the king of Kanauj also sided with him. Under Prithvi Raj Chauhan’s leadership, Rajputs fought very bravely. But in the end it was victory for Mohammad Ghori and Delhi and Ajmer came under Mohammad Ghori’s possession.

4. Battle with Jai Chand. In 1194 A.D., Ghori defeated Raja Jai Chand and won the state of Kanauj.

5. Other Victories. During this time, Mohammad Ghori’s General Mohammad-bin- Bhakhtiar-Khalji controlled Bengal and Bihar. Another General Qutub-ud-Din Aibak won the state of Gujarat.
Thus in a short time Mohammad Ghori controlled the whole of the north India. He is considered to be the real establisher of Turk Empire in India. He died in 1206 A.D.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 New Kings and Kingdoms (A.D. 700-1200)

Question 24.
Write brief notes on :
1. Economy,
Answer:
Economy: The main profession was agriculture. India indulged in international trade also. From India valuable stones, spices, silk and cotton textiles, Chandan (sandalwood) and coconut, etc. were exported to foreign countries. From central and western Asia, dates, wine, and horses were imported to India.

2. Religion.
Answer:
Religion: Mainly Jainism, Buddhism, and Hinduism were prevalent. But Rajputs were the followers of Hinduism. So during their ruling period, Hinduism developed considerably. In north India, there were two sects of Hindu religion—Shaivs and Vaishnavs. People would worship Lord Vishnu and Shri Shiv and Shri Shakti. They would also worship the ten Avatars of Lord Vishnu. In this period, in North and South India, Bhakti Movement became very popular. Sri Guru Nanak Devji, Ramanuj Ji, and Madhavji emphasized one God’s worship. They gave the sermon that if you want to attain salvation pray to God with a pure heart. They were against the caste system.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 75)

Question 1.
Name the instrument used to measure relative humidity.
Answer:
Wet Bulb and Dry-bulb thermometers.

Question2.
Which instrument is used to measure rainfall?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question3.
Name the source you used to collect weather reports ?
Answer:
Weather data was obtained from the North Meteorological Department’s laboratory.

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) …………………. of a place may change during a day.
Answer:
Temperature

(ii) The areas of Earth near North Pole and the South Pole are called ……………….. .
Answer:
Polar Region

(iii) The amount of water vapours present in air is called ……………… .
Answer:
Humidity

(iv) ……………….. is the coldest desert on earth.
Answer:
Antarctic

(v) Indian hot desert or Thar Desert spread over states of ………………… and ……………….. .
Answer:
Rajasthan and Gujarat.

2. State True or False:

(i) Reindeer is the main animal of tropical forest.
Answer:
False

(ii) Weather and climate both terms have same meaning.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iii) Camel stores fat in its hump which is consumed during the days it does not get food.
Answer:
True

(iv) Whale is the largest animal.
Answer:
True.

3. Match the Columns ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (a) Land breeze
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (b) Hot and dry.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (c) Fat layer under the skin
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (e) Latitude.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) It insulates its body and keeps the polar beer warm (c) Fat layer under the skin
(ii) This instrument is used to measure humidity in air (d) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
(iii) Imaginary lines on the earth parallel to the equator (e) Latitude.
(iv) Cood air that blows during day towards coastal area (a) Land breeze
(v) The climate of Rajasthan is (b) Hot and dry.

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Weather of a place is affected by:
(a) Wind
(b) Temperature
(c) Humidity
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
Climate of coastal areas is:
(a) Hot to dry
(b) Moderate
(c) Cold and dry
(d) Extreme cold
Answer:
(c) Cold and dry.

Question (iii)
The coldest desert on earth is:
(a) Arabian desert
(b) Sahara desert
(c) Thar desert
(d) Ladakh
Answer:
(b) Sahara desert.

Question (iv)
Arctic region lies at:
(a) 23°
(b) 23°
(c) 0°
(d) 85° N to 90°S
Answer:
(d) 85° N to 90°S.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name any two factors that affect the weather of a place.
Answer:
Factors affecting the weather of a place are:

  1. Sun,
  2. Wind,
  3. Water / Rain/ Moisture,
  4. Temperature,
  5. Distance from sea or ocean.

Question (ii)
Define climate.
Answer:
Climate. An average of 25 to 30 years of weather conditions in a place is called climate.

Question (iii)
What is sand dune ?
Answer:
Sand dune. When the wind blows, the sand flies from one place to another. When the wind stops blowing, the sand falls in one place and collects to form low hill structures. These are called sand dunes. They are usually found in desert areas.

Question (iv)
What is a polar region ?
Answer:
Polar Region. The region near the North Pole and the South Pole of the Earth is called the Polar Region. The north snow is centred on these poles. The in the north it is located at Arctic Ocean and in the south it is located at the Antarctic Continent. It is very cold in these areas all the time.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How does sea breeze occur ?
Answer:
The earth heats up faster than water during the day. The air near the bottom of the earth gets warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea compared to the air above the earth is cold and heavy. So the wind blows toward the earth. The cool breeze that blows from the ocean to the earth during the day is called sea breeze.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 1

Question (ii)
Write three adaptations found in aquatic animals.
Answer:
Adaptations found in aquatic organisms:

  1. Streamlined body which helps in swimming.
  2. Gills, they can take oxygen in the water.
  3. The presence of fins helps in swimming.

Question (iii)
What is green house effect ?
Answer:
Green house Effect. Infrared and ultraviolet radiation are present in sunlight. The ozone layer of the atmosphere absorbs the ultraviolet radiation but the infrared radiation reaches the earth. Some of these radiations are reflected and absorbed by carbon dioxide. Because the infrared rays have heat, the absorbed radiations heat up the atmosphere. This effect of carbon dioxide is called the green house effect.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (iv)
Write two effects of climate change.
Answer:
Effects of climate change:
1. Global warming. Deforestation and combustion of fossil fuels increase the percentage of carbon dioxide in the air. Carbon dioxide gas acts like a glass house and absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, which raises the temperature. Due to this the green house effect is increasing.

2. As a result, glaciers are melting. Glacier melting alarm for aquatic life. Melting ice raises sea levels, endangering many coastal cities.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How is camel adapted to survive in hot desert ? Explain.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 2
The adaptation of the camel to live in the desert:
The camel’s physique and habits have made it adaptable to the hot and dry climate of the desert.
The following adjustments are found in the camel:

  1. Its feet are flat to walk on the sand.
  2. Its nose is covered with nasal membranes so that sand does not enter the nose.
  3. It drinks a lot of water when available. This water spreads to the tissues of the body, which helps the camel to stay without water for many days.
  4. It accumulates fat in its mouth. When food is not available to it, it uses this fat.
  5. Very little water immerses through the urine.
  6. Its long legs keep it high above the hot sand.

Question (ii)
Name various factors that affect the climate of a place. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate 3
Factors affecting the climate of a place:

  1. Distance from sea level
  2. Direction of mountains
  3. Distance from the equator
  4. Height from the sea.

1. Distance from the sea level.
The climate of the places near the sea is pleasant. During the day the temperature of the earth is higher while the water of the ocean warms up relatively late. The wind blows from the bottom of the ocean towards the earth, which is called sea breeze. The earth cools faster than water at night. So the air above the oceans is hot and light and the air above is moving towards the ocean. The cold breeze that blows toward the sea at night is called the land breeze.

2. The direction or latitude of the mountains.
The shape of the earth is not completely spherical. It is slightly raised near the equator. As a result, the sun’s rays are directed closer to the equator. The latitude of the equator is 0° and it is higher towards the pole. The longitude of the North Pole is 90° N and the longitude of the South Pole is 90°S. The climate near the equator is hot and humid all year round. As the longitude increases, the climate cools down.

Question (iii)
Write various adaptations found in Polar beer.
Answer:
Adaptations in Polar bear. The following adaptations are found in polar bears:

  1. Its fur is white to camouflage with snow capped areas.
  2. Its long hairs protect it from extreme cold of cold climate.
  3. A thick layer of fat deposit under the skin helps to keep it warm.
  4. Its feet are so shaped that it can run easily on snow.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The average weather taken over a long time in called ……………. .
Answer:
climate

(ii) A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout the year;
the climate of that place will be …………… and …………….. .
Answer:
Hot, dry

(iii) The two regions with extreme climatic conditions are ……………… and ………….. .
Answer:
Polar, Tropical Rain forests

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(iv) The maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in ……………..
Answer:
Afternoon

(v) ………………. is used to measure rain.
Answer:
Rain gauge

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (a) Moisture
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels
(iii) Thar desert (c) Antarctica
(iv) Global warming (d) Rajasthan.

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) The coldest desert on earth (c) Antarctica
(ii) The amount of water vapours in the air (a) Moisture
(iii) Thar desert (d) Rajasthan
(iv) Global warming (b) Deforestation and burning of fossil fuels.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
What is the cause of change in weather?
(a) Moon
(b) Planet
(c) Satellite
(d) Sun.
Answer:
(d) Sun.

Question (ii)
Indicate the type of climate in Jammu and Kashmir.
(a) Hot and wet
(b) Hot and dry
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet
(d) Wet.
Answer:
(c) Moderately hot and moderately wet.

Question (iii)
Indicate the type of climate in Kerala:
(a) Hot and dry
(b) Hot and wet
(c) Wet
(d) Moderately hot and moderately wet.
Answer:
(a) Hot and dry.

Question (iv)
From where do we get daily weather report ?
(a) Television
(b) Radio
(c) Newspaper
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question (v)
When is the minimum temperature likely to occur in a day ?
(a) Evening
(b) Early morning
(c) Noon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Early morning

Question (vi)
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in:
(a) When the sun rises
(b) In mid noon
(e) Afternoon
(d) When the sun sets.
Answer:
(e) Afternoon.

4. State True or False:

(i) All changes in weather are due to the sun.
Answer:
True

(ii) The highest temperature of the day is in the evening.
Answer:
False

(iii) Different places have the same temperature.
Answer:
False

(iv) Polar areas are located near the Poles.
Answer:
True

(v) Penguins live in the plains.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

(vi) Days in winter are shorter in length.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From where do we get daily weather reports ?
Answer:
We get weather report from Television, Radio and Newspapers.

Question 2.
Which factors are responsible for weather ?
Answer:
Temperature, Humidity and Rainfall.

Question 3.
What is humidity ?
Answer:
Humidity. It is the measure of quantity of moistures present in the atmospheric air.

Question 4.
Which department is responsible for preparing weather reports ?
Answer:
Meterological Department of the Government.

Question 5.
Which instrument is used to measure rain fall ?
Answer:
Rain gauge.

Question 6.
Do maximum and minimum temperature remain constant over a week ?
Answer:
No.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 7.
Where from do we get heat and light on the earth ?
Answer:
We get heat and light from sun.

Question 8.
What happens to the energy emitted by sun ?
Answer:
It is absorbed and reflected by the earth’s surface.

Question 9.
Climate is average weather report of a place taken over a long period. How long this period is ?
Answer:
About 25 years.

Question 10.
Which type of climate is found in Kerala ?
Answer:
Hot and wet.

Question 11.
What is typical desert climate ?
Answer:
Hot and dry.

Question 12.
Which part of India is wet ?
Answer:
North-East.

Question 13.
Why is adaptation by animals necessary ?
Answer:
For survival of animals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the elements that determine the weather of a place.
Answer:
Elements of Weather:
Temperature, Humidity, Wind-speed, Rainfall.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Question 2.
When are the maximum and minimum temperature likely to occur during the day?
Answer:
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in the afternoon while the minimum temperature occurs in the early morning.

Question 3.
What is rain gauge ?
Answer:
Rain gauge. It is an instrument used to measure rainfall. It consists of a .measuring cylinder and a funnel on the top to collect rainwater.

Question 4.
Define weather ?
Answer:
Weather. The day-to day condition of atmosphere at a place with respect to temperature, humidity, wind speed etc. is called weather.

Question 5.
The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain, why it is so ?
Answer:
Tropical rainforests have hospitable climatic conditions; so it has a large population of animals. The climate in this region is hot and humid. It lies around the equator and has minimum temperature a little higher than 15°C, length of days and night are generally equal and these places recieve a lot of rainfall. So all these conditions are preferable for a large number of population.

Question 6.
What is cold desert region ? How does polar bear adapt the condition to survive in this region.
Answer:
Those region/area where temperature may fall below-20°C and rocks are stony and have little vegetation are called cold deserts. In India cold desert lies between Ladakh region in north to Lahaul and spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh. To survive in cold desert, Yak has following adapations:

  1. Body is covered by long hair or fur.
  2. The colour of fur is generally black to absorb more and more heat.
  3. Its feet have sharp toes which help it to climb in uneven paths.
  4. A layer of fat is deposited under its skin. It helps yak to survive in extreme cold during winters.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the condition of tropical rainforests ? What type of animals are living in such rain forest ? Write down the main characteristics of these animals.
Answer:
Tropical rainforest. The area near or around the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called the tropical area. The climate in these areas is hot and humid. Here even in winter the temperature is 15°C and in summer the temperature reaches 40°C. The tropical region receives rainfall throughout the year. The most prominent places in the tropical region are the tropical rainforests that form canopies over the area. Elephants, tigers, leopards, snakes, birds, and insects are the animals found in the rain forest.

Main Characteristics of animals found in the rain forest:

  • Creeping, snakes, lizards, monitors can easily crawl in dense forests.
  • Strong body. A strong body is required to pass through dense forests. So Elephants, gorillas, tigers, leopards, etc. have powerful bodies.
  • Special Senses. Many tropical animals have sharp eyesight, sharp hearing and some animals have skin color similar to surroundings for camouflage.
  • Strong tail
  • Loud voice
  • Sharp eyes
  • Fruit diet
  • Long and big beaks.

Question 2.
Discuss the human activities responsible for climate change.
Answer:
Human activities responsible for climate change are as follows:

  • Population Growth. Consumption of fossil fuels is increasing due to population growth and changes in living standards.
  • Deforestation. Large-scale deforestation is done to meet the needs of the growing population such as houses, buildings, industries, roads, etc.
  • Excavation of mines. Excavation of blind mines has increased floods.
  • Global warming. Due to excessive cutting of trees and burning of fossil fuels the percentage of carbon dioxide increases.
  • This carbon dioxide gas absorbs infrared radiation from sunlight, resulting in a rise in temperature. As a result, the greenhouse effect continues to grow, and as a result, glaciers are melting.