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PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

January 29, 2024January 27, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
Who was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Kharak Singh was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. He was not a worthy son of his father. He was a pleasure-loving ruler.

Question 2.
Why were the Sikhs defeated in the battle of Mudki?
Answer:
The Sikhs lost the battle of Mudki because of the following reasons :

Lai Singh escaped from the battle-field when the Sikh army was about to win.
As compared to the English, the Sikhs had very small military resources.

Question 3.
When was the battle of Sabhraon fought and what was its result?
Or
When was the battle of Sabhraon fought?
Answer:
The battle of Sabhraon was fought on February 10, 1846. Because of the treachery of Teja Singh and Lai Singh, the Sikhs lost the battle. As a result, the English army crossed the Sutlej river without any hurdle.

Question 4.
What was the matter of Suchet Singh’s treasury?
Answer:
Dogra Sardar Suchet Singh was in the service of Lahore Darbar. At the time of his death, he was at Ferozepur. He left behind fifteen lakh rupees there. Because he had no issue, the Lahore Darbar claimed its right on this amount. But the English Government wanted to take this matter to the court.

Question 5.
Write about the ‘Cow Row1’.
Answer:
On April 21, 1846 a herd of cows blocked the way of a European gunner at Lahore. The gunner attempted to kill the cows. Hearing this news, the Hindus and the Sikhs rose against the English. .

Question 6.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire? Who was the Governor-General of India at that time?
Answer:
The Punjab was annexed to the British Empire in 1849. Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General at that time.

Question 7.
What steps were taken by Chattar Singh against the Britishers?
Answer:
The British charged Chattar Singh, the governor of Hazara that he was the head of the conspiracy for the expulsion of the British from the Punjab. The British officer Canora refused to obey the orders of Chattar Singh unless backed by Captain Abbot. Canora not only refused to obey Chattar Singh’s order, but also ordered his Havaldars to fire upon Sikh soldiers and shot dead two of them. In retaliation, the Sikh infantry shot dead Canora. Captain Abbot accused Chattar Singh of murder of Canora. This convinced Chattar Singh that Abbot might go to the extent of ruining him. Chattar Singh decided to resign. He had no choice but to rise in revolt against the British.

It was thus mainly due to the intrigues of Captain Abbot that Chattar Singh was forced to rise in revolt against the British on 11th September, 1848. He and his son went over to the side of Dewan Mul Raj against the British. Sher Singh also won the support of the major portion of the Sikh troops.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
According to the Treaty of Lahore, a contingent of British forces was kept at Lahore for the protection of the Maharaja and the citizens of Lahore. But with the passage of time, Lord Hardinge planned to keep the English troops at Lahore. Maharani Jindan agreed to it. So a meeting of the Sardars and the Ministers of the Lahore Darbar was called, In it, only those terms of the Governor-General were announced on the basis of which the ministers of the Darbar agreed to keep the English troops at Lahore even after 1846 A.D. Thus the British entered into another treaty with the Sikhs on December 12, 1846 A.D. This treaty is known as the Treaty of Bhairowal.

Question 2.
Write any four terms of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
Following were the four main provisions of the Treaty of Bhairowal :

The administration of Lahore was entrusted to a body of eight Sikh Sardars who were the supporters of the English. They were to carry on this duty till the maturity of Maharaja Dalip Singh.
The Governor-General appointed a British Resident at Lahore.
The Council of Regency was to work according to the advice of the British Resident.
Rani Jindan was ousted from the Punjab. She was given a pension of one lakh rupees annually.

Question 3.
Write about the importance of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
The Treaty of Bhairowal has great importance in the history of the Punjab and India.

By this treaty, the British became the real masters of Punjab. The British Resident was given unlimited powers. Henry Lawrence was appointed as the first British Resident at Lahore.
According to this treaty, Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was first interned at Sheikhupura and then sent to Benaras.

Question 4.
After the First Anglo-Sikh war, why did the British not annex Punjab to their empire? White any three causes.
Answer:
The English did not occupy the Punjab after the First Anglo-Sikh War for the following reasons.

The Sikh forces lost the battles of Mudki, Ferozeshah and Sabraon but Lahore, Amritsar and Peshawar were still under them. Had the English occupied the Punjab, they would have to face the Sikh forces there.
Had the British occupied the Punjab, they would have to spend much money for the establishment of peace and order in the Punjab,
Lord Hardinge did not annex the Punjab because he was of the new that the state would prove a good buffer state between Afghanistan and British India.
According to Lord Hardinge, Punjab was not economically profitable state at that stage. Hence the Treaty of Bhairowal was then entered into with the Sikhs.

Question 5.
After the Treaty of Bhairowal how did the British treat Queen Jindan?
Answer:
The Treaty of Bhairowal deprived Rani Jindan of her political rights. She was ousted from the Lahore Darbar. She was arrested and sent to Sheikhupura. She was first given a pension of 1,50,000 rupees annually. It was reduced from 1,50,000 to 48,000 rupees annually. Thereafter, she was exiled to Benaras. Thus she was badly treated by the English. As a result, the Sikhs were annoyed and rose against the English.

Question 6.
What do you know about Maharaja Dalip Singh?
Answer:
Maharaja Dalip Singh was the last Sikh ruler of Lahore State. At the time of the First Anglo-Sikh War, he was a minor. According to the Treaty of Bhairowal of 1846, a Council of Regency was formed to run the administration of the Lahore Darbar. It was to run the administration till the maturity of Maharaja Dalip Singh. But the Sikh forces lost the Second Anglo-Sikh War. As a result of it, Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned and given a pension of 50,000 pounds annually and sent to England. Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Answer the following questions in about 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes of the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The First Anglo-Sikh War was fought in 1845-46. Following were its causes :
1. The British policy of Encirclement of the Lahore Kingdom. Ever since the time of Ranjit Singh, the British were making schemes for the conquest of the Punjab. They had built cantonments around the Sikh kindgom. Politically and diplomatically, they had half encircled the Sikh kingdom. They had already occupied Ferozepur and established a military cantonment there. They had brought Sindh and Shikarpur under their sphere of influence. After Ranjit. Singh’s death, their dream of conquering Punjab acquired more clear and definite shape. Naturally, such designs of the British alarmed the Sikh army in particular and the people of the Punjab in general.

2. Anarchy in the Punjab. Soon after the death of Ranjit Singh in 1839 A.D., there prevailed anarchy in the Punjab and within a span of about four years, many of his sons and relatives were put to sword. Now the Khalsa army was all powerful and it became a problem for the Lahore Durbar to keep it under control. With the army being all in all, nobody’s life was safe. All the important chiefs and courtiers were afraid of the Khalsa army. It was in their best interest to engage the army in some war so as to weaken its power.

3. Defeat of the British in the First Afghan War. In the First Afghan War, the English fought with Afghanistan from 1839 to 1842 A.D. The English suffered a defeat. This encouraged the Sikhs to wage a war against the British. They had begun to think that the English were not invincible. If the Afghans could teach them a lesson, why not the Sikhs who had humiliated the Afghans in the times of Ranjit Singh.

4. Annexation of Sindh to the British Empire. The British annexed Sindh to their Empire in 1843 A.D. This incident brought the imperialistic designs of the English in the limelight. It was clear that the English would now try to annex the Punjab. It was difficult for the English to maintain their control over Sindh unless they annexed the Punjab too.

The annexation of Sindh brought their aggressive designs to the forefront and the Sikhs naturally became suspicious of the English.

5. Ellenborough’s plan to capture Punjab. The British, in fact, had been planning to occupy the Punjab much before their war with the Sikhs actually began. After the annexation of Sindh to the British Empire, Lord Ellenborough planned to capture the Punjab. To materialise this plan, the English began to make elaborate military preparations. When the Sikhs came to know about the intentions of the British, the Sikhs also began to make preparations for War.

6. Military Activities of the British. The prevailing anarchy in the Punjab encouraged the English to start making elaborate military preparations. They began to station their army men in large numbers near the Sutlej.

It is said that on the boundaries of the Sutlej in 1836 A.D., there were only 2500 British soldiers. Their number rose to 14,000 in 1843. Besides this, the English had stationed a large number of their troops at Ferozepur, Ludhiana and Ambala. Not only that, the English had begun to collect boats to cross the Sutlej. All these activities of the English made the Sikhs more suspicious and they began to feel that the English wanted to grab the Punjab.

7. The dispute over the treasure of Suchet Singh. Dogra Sardar Suchet Singh was in the service of Lahore Darbar. At the time of his death, he was at Ferozepur. He left behind fifteen lakh rupees there. Because he had no issue, the Lahore Darbar claimed its right on this amount. But the English Government wanted to bring this matter to the court. At this the Sikhs rose in revolt against the English.

8. Dispute over Mauran Village. Dhanna Singh, a native of the village Mauran situated in the Nabha State, was in the service of Maharaja Ranjit Singh; who being pleased with him, wrote to Jaswant Singh the Raja of Nabha to grant him the village Mauran as Jagir. In return, the Maharaja granted him a number of villages for life to Jaswant Singh’s sister. After the death of Dhanna Singh, his son Hukam Singh succeeded him. But Devinder Singh, the new ruler of Nabha, sent his troops to the village and seized Hukam Singh’s property worth about two lakh rupees and occupied the village. The Lahore Darbar demanded the restoration of the village. But the English Government rejected the claim of the Lahore Darbar and said that Jaswant Singh’s grant to Dhanna Singh had been illegal.

9. Provocation of Major Broadfoot. The appointment of Major Broadfoot as the British Resident at Ludhiana in place of Mr. Clark added fuel to the fire. He was hard-headed and hot-tempered. Immediately after taking charge of his post, he declared that Maharaja Dalip Singh’s territories South of the Sutlej would be considered under British rule. This declaration aroused the anger of the Sikh chiefs beyond limit and they began to feel that a war with the British was unavoidable.

10. Plans of Lai Singh and Rani Jindan. Lai Singh and Rani Jindan planned to incite the Sikh army against the British. They made the Sikh army to think that the British were determined to capture Punjab after occupying Sindh.

11. Immediate Cause: Crossing of the Sutlej by the Sikhs. The excited Sikh forces made up their mind to settle their scores with the British. Thus, between December 11 and 14 in 1846 A.D., the Sikh soldiers in large numbers began to cross the Sutlej river. The English were already waiting for the Sikhs to first begin the war. As soon as the Governor-General Lord Hardinge got the information that the Sikh forces had crossed the Sutlej, he also declared a regular war against the Sikhs on December 18, 1845 A.D.

Question 2.
Write about the events related to the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The First Anglo-Sikh war began on December 18,1845 A.D. and ended on February 10, 1846 A.D. Following were the main events of this war:
1. The Battle of Mudki: Immediately after crossing the Sutlej, the Sikh army advanced towards Ferozepur.
It was led by Lai Singh. On the other side, the English forces under Sir Hugh Gough left Ludhiana to defend Ferozepur. On December 18, 1845, both the armies came into collusion with each other at Mudki, a place about twenty miles from Ferozepur.

The Khalsa army had 40,000 soldiers and 150 guns. The English army had 10,000 soldiers and 48 guns. When the victory of the Sikhs was in sight, Lai Singh, the commander of the Sikh army, deserted them and withdrew from the scene leaving the army all alone. Consequently, a victory was changed into a defeat and the Sikhs had to retreat from the battle-field. Although the English came out victorious in this battle, yet the war proved very costly to them also. About 215 of their soldiers were killed and about 657 were wounded. The Sikhs also suffered a heavy loss of life and 17 guns.

2. Battle of Ferozeshah. After the battle of Mudki, the English army advanced towards a place called Ferozeshah which was about 12 miles away from the Sutlej.

At this place the forces of Sir Hugh Gough were joined by another English contingent under Sir Johan Little. A fierce battle was fought between the two sides on December 21,1845 A.D. The Sikhs fought so bravely that the English forces became nervous. But here also the Sikh Commanders like Teja Singh proved traitors and left the Sikh army without a leader, with the result that the English forces advanced forward and occupied the Sikh positions on December 22. Thus because of the treachery on the part of the Sikh military commanders, another victory was converted into a defeat. About 8000 Sikh soldiers were killed in this battle and they lost about 73 guns. The English also suffered a heavy loss. Their 694 men were killed and about 1721 were wounded.

3. Battle of Baddowal. On January 21,1846, the Sikhs under the command of Ranjodh Singh Majithia crossed the river Sutlej and set the English military camp at Ludhiana on fire. In a fierce battle at Baddowal near Ludhiana, the Sikhs under the leadership of S. Ranjodh Singh defeated the British who were under the command of Sir Henry Smith.

4. Battle of Aliwal. Soon after the battle of Badowal, reinforcements reached the English. Ranjodh Singh tried to block the way of the English by attacking Jagraon and Ghungrana. But the English advanced and defeated the Sikhs at Aliwal on January 28, 1846 A.D.

5. Battle of Sabraon. The last and most decisive battle between the Sikhs and the English was fought on February 10, 1846 A.D. at Sabraon. The Sikhs fought the battle bravely and put the English army in trouble for sometime. The Sikh soldiers, unlike their treacherous commander Teja Singh, were prepared to conquer or die for the glory of the Khalsa. But while the soldiers did everything, the Sikh commanders with the honourable exception of Sham Singh Attariwala, remained inactive or proved traitors. In fact, the army commanders were not as much afraid of the Sikh defeat as of their victory. That is why, perhaps, they were hatching conspiracies after conspiracies.

Under such conditions, the Sikh soldiers suffered a great loss and about 8 to 10 thousand of them were killed. Sham Singh Attariwala also met a hero’s death in this battle. The English loss was 320 dead and 2,083 wounded.
The battle of Sabraon was decisive. After this victory, the British army crossed the Sutlej and occupied Lahore on February 20, 1846 A.D.

Question 3.
Discuss the terms of the First Treaty of Lahore.
Answer:
On 9th March, 1846, the Treaty of Lahore was signed between the British and the Lahore Durbar. Its main terms were as under:

All the Sikh territories lying south of the river Sutlej were handed over to the British.
The -Jullundur (Jalandhar) Doab was likewise annexed by the British to their own dominions.
An indemnity of one and a half crore rupees was imposed upon the Lahore Darbar, which it was not able to pay. So it had to hand over to the British in lieu of it all the hill areas between the rivers Sutlej and Beas, and also Kashmir and Hazara.
The Darbar would disband the rebellious forces, keeping only 20,000 infantry and 12,000 cavalry. Thirty four guns which the British had lost to the Sikhs, were restored to them.
The British troops would be allowed a free passage through the Punjab when necessary.
Dalip Singh was recognised as minor king of Lahore, Maharani Jindan was to be his Regent and Lai Singh the Prime Minister of the Lahore kingdom.
An adequate British force would be stationed at Lahore for the protection of the Maharaja. The force would be recalled in December 1846.
The British Government would respect the bonafide rights of the Jagirdars in Lahore Darbar territories.
The British would be at liberty to retain any part of the state property in the forts situated in the ceded territories by paying for it a fair compensation.

Question 4.
Explain the Treaty of Bhairowal.
Answer:
According to the Treaty of Lahore, the English army was to withdraw from the Punjab after December, 1846 A.D., but in view of the troubled conditions of the Punjab and being afraid of the Sikh army, many Sikhs and people of other classes did not want that the English should withdraw from the Punjab. So, another treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs on December 16, 1846 A.D. which is called the Treaty of Bhairowal. This treaty was signed with the English by Maharani Jindan and the ruler of the Lahore Darbar.

Following were its main terms :

The administration of Lahore was entrusted to a council of eight Sikh Sardars who supported the English. They were to carry on this duty till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a minor.
The Governor-General appointed a British Resident as the head of this Council.
The Council of Regency was to work on the advice of the British Resident.
Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was given a pension of 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) lakh rupees annually.
For the protection of the Maharaja, and the establishment of law and order, the British forces would stay in Lahore.
The Lahore Darbar would pay Rs. 22 Lakhs a year to meet the expenses of the British forces which would continue staying in Lahore.
Besides at Lahore, the British troops could be stationed in Sikh fortresses, the occupation of which the Governor-General might feel necessary for the protection of the Maharaja’s interests.
The terms of this treaty would be considered valid till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a minor.

Importance: The Treaty of Bhairowal has great importance in the history of the Punjab and India

With this treaty, the English became the real masters of the Punjab. The British Resident was given unlimited powers. Henry Lawrence was appointed as the first British Resident at Lahore.
According to this treaty, Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was first interned at Sheikhupura and then sent to Benaras.

Question 5.
Write the causes of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War was fought in 1848-49. The English came out victorious in it. As a result, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Following were the main causes of this war:
1. Restlessness of the Sikh Soldiers. The Sikh soldiers had to suffer a defeat in the
First Anglo-Sikh War. But they knew it well that their defeat was not because they were in any way weaker than the English soldiers but it was due to the treachery of their commanders. Now they wanted to wipe off that disgrace by fighting another war with the English.

2. British Policy of Speedy Reforms. In order to increase their influence in the Punjab, the English, especially Henry Lawrence, the English Resident at Lahore, tried to bring about some social reforms. Laws were framed one after other to end the practice of Sati, to ban the killing of female children and to effect changes in the Zamindari system. Although these reforms were desirable, yet they were brought about in such a haste that the people took them as an undue interference in their religious and social life.

3. Harsh Treatment with Lai Singh and Rani Jindan. The harsh treatment which the English meted out to Rani Jindan enraged the Sikhs. Their anger further increased when the Queen Mother, Rani Jindan was dubbed as a conspirator. She was first sent to Sheikhupura and then exiled to Benaras. The pension of Rani Jindan was reduced from Rs. 1^ lakhs to 48,000 rupees in the first instance and then to? 12,000 annually. Besides, the English also meted out a harsh treatment to the Prime Minister Lai Singh. Such a treatment with Rani Jindan and Lai Singh was too much for the Sikhs to tolerate. So once again, they were forced to take up arms against the English to safeguard their rights.

4. Appointment of British Officers on High Posts. According to the Treaty of Bhairowal, the real powers of the Lahore Kingdom had come in the hands of the English. So they began to appoint English officers on high posts. The Sikh chiefs took this policy of the English as an insult to them. They wanted to free the Punjab from the English yoke.

5. Reduction in the number of Sikh Soldiers. The number of men in the Sikh army ran into lakhs but according to the Treaty of Lahore, their number was reduced to 20 thousand infantry and 12 thousand horsemen. Thus, thousands of soldiers who were disbanded became opponents of the English. Not only this, those soldiers who were kept in service were to be paid lesser salaries. Thus the entire fchalsa army turned against the British. It was filled with anger and began to prepare for another showdown.

6. Revolt of Diwan Mulraj of Multan. After the death of his father, Mulraj became the Governor of Multan in 1844 A.D. He used to pay a tribute of Rs. 12 lakhs a year to the Lahore Darbar in lieu of this post. But, after the Treaty of Bhairowal in December 1846 A.D., the English took over the administration of Lahore. They increased this tribute to Rs. 18 lakhs and also asked him to surrender l/3rd of his territory. Mulraj could not tolerate all this injustice. So he expressed his desire to resign. The English quickly appointed Sardar Kahan Singh as the Governor of Multan. Diwan Mulraj handed over the charge of Multan to the new Governor. The soldiers of Diwan’Mulraj rose in revolt against the English and Diwan Mulraj recaptured Multan. This event led to the revolt against the English in the whole of the Punjab.

7. Revolt of Bhai Maharaj Singh. Bhai Maharaj Singh was the follower of Sant Bhai Bir Singh of Naurangabad. He rose in revoltragainst the English to protect the Sarkar-e-Khalsa. So Henry Lawrence, the British Resident, ordered to put him behind the bars. But he could not be arrested. At the request of Mulraj, he alongwith his 400 horsemen marched towards Multan. But he left Mulraj and joined hands with Chattar Singh Attariwala and his son Sher Singh.

8. Revolt of Chattar Singh of Hazara. Chattar Singh was the Governor of Hazara under the Lahore Government. The English also forced him to rise in revolt. An English officer, Captain Abott, instigated the Afghans of Hazara to revolt against the Sikh State. This British policy of hatching conspiracies led Chattar Singh to take up arms against them in August, 1848 A.D. and join hands with Mulraj.

9. Revolt of Sher Singh. Sher Singh, the son of Chattar Singh who had been sent by the Lahore Government to suppress the revolt of Multan also joined the forces of his father and Mulraj in September 1848 A.D. Thus the revolt against the English spread all over the Punjab. Sher Singh appealed to all the Sikhs to join the rebels to oust the English from the Punjab.

10. Invasion of Punjab by the English. Lord Dalhousie wanted to wage a war against the Sikhs on one pretext or the other and annex the Punjab to the British Empire. Under this policy, he allowed small upsurges by Mulraj, Chattar Singh and Sher Singh to take the form of a big rebellion so that the English could find an excuse to grab the Punjab. The English forces under the command of Lord Hugh Gough crossed the river Sutlej on November 9, 1848 and reached Lahore on 13 November. These forces were engaged in suppressing the rebellion. Thus the Second Anglo-Sikh War began.

Question 6.
Explain the events of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War began in November 1848 after the English forces had crossed the river Sutlej. Following were the main events of this war :
1. The Battle of Ram Nagar. The first battle of the Second Anglo-Sikh War was fought at Ram Nagar. The Commander of the English forces, Lord Hugh Gough crossed the Ravi with his army on November 16, 1848 A.D. and reached the banks of the Chenab on November 22 and stood face to face with Sardar Sher Singh. A battle followed between the two forces at Ram Nagar but without a decision.

2. The Battle of Chillianwala. The English forces under the command of General Gough reached Chillianwala on January 13, 1849 A.D., where the Sikhs had entrenched themselves strongly. A fierce battle was fought at this place in which both the sides had to suffer heavy losses, yet without any outcome. Many brave Sikh warriors laid down their lives in this battle and they had to lose 12 guns also. But the English losses in this battle were even greater than those of the Sikhs. Their tally was 602 dead and 1,651 wounded.

3. The Battle of Multan. Multan had come under the control of Diwan Mulraj since April 1848 A.D. But in December, 1848 an English General, Whish laid a siege to Multan. Diwan Mulraj gave a tough fight to the English for some time but one day suddenly a shell hit his ammunition store and set it on fire. Because of this terrible loss, Diwan Mulraj could not fight any longer. He surrendered on January 22, 1849 A.D. The victory of Multan wiped out to a great extent the disgrace the English had suffered at Chillianwala.

4. The Battle of Gujrat, February 21, 1849 A.D. (Imp.). After the Battle of Chillianwala, the transfer of Lord Gough and the appointment of Sir Charles Napier had been ordered. But before Napier reached“the place of action, Lord Gough had already attacked the Sikhs. After the victory of Multan, the forces of General Whish joined those of General Gough which raised the strength of the English forces to 25,000 and the number of their guns rose to 100. On the other hand, the Sikh army was 61,500 strong and they had 61 guns with them.

A battle between both the forces took place on February 21,1849 A.D. at Gujrat on the banks of the Chenab. This battle was very fierce. Akram Khan, son of Dost Mohammed, the ruler of Afghanistan also joined hands with the Sikhs. Because both the sides made extensive use of guns in this battle, so many historians call it as the “battle of guns”. Shelling continued for three hours but the Sikhs had to leave their positions. At last, on March 13, 1849 AD. the Sikh chiefs surrendered. Thus the Second Anglo-Sikh War came to an end.

Question 7.
Write the results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War proved destructive for the Sikhs.

Following were its mains results :
1. Annexation of Punjab into the British Empire. The Sikhs were completely defeated in this war. By a proclamation, Lord Dalhousie declared that the Punjab was annexed into the British Empire. Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned and the Punjab became a part of the British Empire.

2. Punishment to Mulraj and Maharaj Singh. Mulraj was held responsible for the murder of the two English officers, Agnew and Anderson. Mulraj was exiled to Andaman Islands (Kala Pani). On December 29, 1849. Maharaj Singh was arrested. He was sentenced to life imprisonment and sent to Singapore prison.

3. Disbanding of the Khalsa Army. The Khalsa Army was disbanded and the lands of many Sikh Chiefs were confiscated. The soldiers of the disbanded army were allowed to join the British army.

4. Appointment of the British officers in the Punjab. After the Second Anglo- Sikh War, the English officials were appointed on high posts in place of the Hindus, the Sikhs and the Muslims. They were given handsome salaries and allowances.

5. Establishment of a Frontier Force. Henry Lawrence, with the help of Edwards and Nicholson, constituted a Board for the administration of the frontier territories. A frontier force was also raised which consisted of infantry, horsemen, artillery and elephants. The English pulled down the old and outdated forts and constructed new ones and cantonments in their place.

6. Establishment of a Board of Administration. Lord Dalhousie constituted a Board of Administrators to administer the Punjab. Henry Lawrence was the Chairman of this Board. This Board consisted of three members. They were collectively responsible for running the administration of the Punjab. The members of the Board were given extensive powers in administrative and judicial matters. Many reforms were introduced by this Board. Roads and canals were constructed and a new postal system was introduced.

7. Cordial relations with the Sikh Chiefs. The rulers of Patiala, Nabha, Jirid, Kapurthala and Faridkot had helped the English in the Second Anglo-Sikh War. The English gave them big rewards for their services. The English also resolved not to annex their states into the British Empire.

Question 8.
How did the Britisher’s annex Punjab?
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh died in 1839 A.D. After him, there was no capable leader of the Sikhs who could lead them. The Sikh army captured power in its hands. Taking advantage of such circumstances, the English fought two wars with the Sikhs. The Sikh forces fought bravely in these wars. But because of the treachery of their commanders, they lost the battles. In 1849, after the Second Anglo-Sikh war, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

The following two wars were fought between the Sikhs and the English.
1. First Anglo-Sikh War. The English had been anxious to annex the Punjab to their empire. After the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the English found an opportunity to fulfil their desire. They started collecting their army on the other side of the river Sutlej. The Sikh leaders were enraged to see the preparations for war being made by the English. The Sikh forces crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and came near Ferozepur. Thus the First Anglo-Sikh War started. Teja Singh, the Commander of the Sikh Army and Wazir Lai Singh joined hands with the English. Because of their treachery, the Sikh forces lost the battles at Mudki and Ferozeshah.

The Sikh forces took courage and crossed the river Sutlej and reached Ludhiana. They attacked the English. Here the English faced a defeat. But because of the treachery of Gulab Singh, the Sikhs had to face defeat at Aliwal and Sabraon. In March, 1846 A.D., a treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs. According to this Treaty of Lahore, the Sikhs had to pay 1 j crore rupees as war indemnity to the British. A British army was stationed at Lahore to maintain law and order in the Punjab during the minority of Maharaja Dalip Singh.

2. Second Anglo-Sikh War and annexation of Punjab into the British Empire. In 1848, the Second Anglo-Sikh War broke out. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan Dewan Mulraj. On 19th April, 1848 Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to two British officials. The people of Multan got excited to see the British officials. So they revolted and murdered the British officials. The whole of Punjab revolted against the British rule. At last, the British declared war against the Lahore kingdom on November 16, 1848. The most important battles of this war were the Battle of Ram Nagar (22 November 1848), Battle of Multan (December 1848), Battle of Chillianwala (January 13, 1849), Battle of Gujrat (February 1849). The Battle of Ram Nagar was not a decisive battle. The Sikhs had to face defeat at Multan, Chillianwala and Gujarat. In 1849, the Sikhs accepted their defeat. After this Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Activity:

Question 1.
1. Show the towns of Mudki, Ferozeshah, Baddowal, Aliwal and Sabraon on the map of Punjab.
2. Show the battlefield of the First Anglo-Sikh war on the map of Punjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
What was the main cause of the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:
Rani Jindan and Lai Singh, being afraid of the Sikh army, wanted to engage it in a war against the British.

Question 2.
Where were the four main battles of the First Anglo-Sikh fought?
Answer:
Mudki, Ferozeshah, Aliwal and Sabraon.

Question 3.
Mention any one clause of the Treaty of Lahore (9 March, 1846 A.D.).
Answer:
The British annexed the plains and the mountain region of Punjab between the Sutlej and the Beas.

Question 4.
Give any one cause of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Treaty of Lahore and Treaty of Bhairowal had given a severe blow to the Sikh prestige.

Question 5.
What were the four main battles of the Second Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

Battle of Ram Nagar,
Battle of Multan,
Battle of Chillianwala and
Battle of Gujrat.

Question 6.
Mention any one consequence of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
Punjab was annexed to the British Indian Empire on 29 March, 1849 A.D.

Question 7.
Give any one reason responsible for the downfall of the Sikh power.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh’s successors were unworthy.

Question 8.
Give any one reason for the annexation of the Punjab by the English.
Answer:
They realised that the Punjab could serve as a very good consumer market for British goods.

Question 9.
How did Lord Dalhousie justify the annexation of the Punjab”? Give any one argument.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie charged the Sikhs of violating the terms of the treaty of Bhairowal.

Question 10.
Give any one argument against the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
The murder of just four British officers in Punjab was given undue importance by Lord Dalhousie.

Question 11.
What treatment was meted out to Maharaja Dalip Singh after the annexation of Punjab by the British?
Answer:
Dalip Singh was given a pension of 50,000 pounds and sent to England.

Question 12.
What arrangement was made for the administration of Punjab after its annexation in 1849?
Answer:
A Board of Administration of three members was established to govern Punjab.

Question 13.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire?
Answer:
On 25 March, 1849.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The last and most decisive battle between the British and the Sikhs was fought on February 10, 1846 A.D. at __________
Answer:
Gujrat

Question 2.
By the Treaty of Bhairowal 16 December 1846, the administration of Lahore was entrusted to a ________ they were to carry on this duty till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a ________.
Answer:
Council of 8 Sardars, minor

Question 3.
The Battle of Gujrat, February 1849 has been called as the ________.
Answer:
“Battle of Guns”

Question 4.
The Second Anglo-Sikh War came to an end on ________.
Answer:
13 March, 1849

Question 5.
Lord Dalhousie constructed a Board of ________ to administer the Punjab after the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
Administration.

True or False :

Question 1.
Kharak Singh was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Because of the treachery of Teja Singh and Lai Singh the Sikhs lost the Battle of Sabraon.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The British did not annex any territory of Punjab by the First Treaty of Lahore (March 1846).
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Henry Lawrence was appointed the Chairman of the Board of Administration.
Answer:
True.

Match the following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Chattar Singh	(a) Last Sikh ruler of Lahore State
2. Dalip Singh	(b) Prime Minister
3. Bhairowal	(c) Treaty
4. Kashmir	(d) Gulab Singh
5. Lai Singh	(e) Governor of Hazara.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (b).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The English had been anxious to annex the Punjab to their empire. After the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the English found an opportunity to fulfil their desire. They stationed their army on the other side of the river Sutlej. The Sikh leaders were enraged to see the preparations for war being made by the English. The Sikh army crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and reached near Ferozepur. Thus the First Anglo-Sikh War started. Teja Singh, the Commander of the Sikh army and Wazir Lai Singh joined hands with the English. Because of their treachery, the Sikh forces lost the battles at Mudki and Ferozeshah, The Sikh forces took courage and crossed the river Sutlej and reached Ludhiana. They attacked the English. Here the English faced a defeat.

But because of the treachery of their commanders, the Sikh army had to face defeat at Aliwal and Sabraon. In March, 1846 A.D., a treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs. According to the Treaty of Lahore, the Sikhs had to pay 1, crore rupees as indemnity to the British. A British army was kept in Lahore to maintain law and order in the Punjab during the minority of Maharaja Dalip Singh.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War broke out in 1848 A.D. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan, Dewan Mulraj . On 19th April, 1848 A.D. Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to two British officials. The people of Multan were excited to see the British officials and they rose in revolt and murdered the British officials. The whole of Punjab revolted against the British rule. At last, the British decided to declare a war against the Lahore Kingdom. The most important battles of this war were Battle of Ram Nagar (22 November, 1848), Battle of Multan (December 1848), Battle of Chillianwala (January 13, 1849), Battle of Gujrat (February, 1849). The Battle of Ram Nagar was not a decisive battle. The Sikhs had to face defeat in the battles of Multan, Chillianwala and Gujrat. In 1849, the Sikhs surrendered completely. After this, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh died in 1839. After this, there was no capable leader who could lead the Sikhs. All the ruling powers came in the hands of the Sikh army. The English took advantage of this opportunity. They conspired with some Sikh military officials. They began to strengthen their fortifications. They also increased the number of their soldiers. Thus they were preparing for the war. They fought two wars with the Sikhs. The Sikhs fought bravely in both the wars but were defeated because of the treachery of their military commanders and the officials. After the first Anglo-Sikh war, the English occupied the territory of Jalandhar Doab of Punjab and stationed their own army in place of the Sikh arm;/. But in 1849, after the second war, Lord Dalhousie annexed the whole of Sikh Kingdom of Punjab to the English empire.

Question 4.
What were the four causes of the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

The main cause of 1st Anglo-Sikh war was that Lai Singh and Rani Jindan had instigated the Sikh army against the British.
Lai Singh and Rani Jindan convinced the Sikh army that the British were determined to occupy the Punjab after capturing Sindh.
The British had gathered more than 35,000 soldiers at Ludhiana.
The British increased their army in Sindh and made a bridge of boats across the river Sutlej to cross it. All these events made the Sikhs to believe that the British wanted to capture Punjab. Under these circumstances, the Sikh army crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and the 1st Anglo-Sikh war began.

Question 5.
What were the results of the First Anglo-Sikh war?
Answer:

The British secured the territory of Jalandhar Doab.
Dalip Singh was appointed as Maharaja and a Council of Regency comprising of eight members was established to run the administration.
Sir Henry Lawrence was appointed as the Resident at Lahore.
The Sikhs had to pay 1~ crore rupees as the war indemnity to the British. The Lahore Darbar had only Rs. 50 lakhs in its treasury. So it sold away the province of Jammu and Kashmir to Raja Gulab Singh.
It was decided to keep the British army in Lahore. The Khalsa Darbar was required to pay Rs. 22 lakhs rupees annually for its maintenance.
The strength of the Sikh army was reduced to only 20,000 foot-soldiers.

Question 6.
Describe any four reasons responsible for the downfall of the Sikh kingdom in Punjab.
Answer:

Ranjit Singh was an arbitrary ruler. All the powers of the state were concentrated in his hands. After his death, his unworthy successors could not control the vast kingdom efficiently.
Ranjit Singh followed a weak policy towards the British. The British took advantage of it and were ultimately successful in annexing the Punjab.
The administration of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was based on strong army. After Ranjit Singh’s death, the Sikh army took all powers in its hands. The Sikh chiefs tried to weaken the Sikh army and incited it to wage war against the British.
In some battles, during the First and the Second Anglo-Sikh War, the Sikh forces were about to win the war. But because of the treachery of their commanders, their victory was converted into a defeat.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What were the causes and results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer;

The treaty of Lahore and that of Bhairowal had crippled the Lahore Kingdom. Now there was nothing to feel proud of. So they were in search of an opportunity to take revenge.
The Sikh soldiers who were disbanded from the army were in search of an opportunity to take revenge.
The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan, Diwan Mulraj. A minor incident resulted in a great revolt. The British demanded ten years’ accounts from Diwan Mulraj which was impossible for him to submit because he had been its governor for about four years only. So he resigned. The British Resident sent Sardar Kalian Singh to take over the control of administration from Diwan Mulraj. Two British officials, Agnew and Anderson went along with him. On 19th April 1848, Diwan Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to them.

The people of Multan got excited to see the British officials and they rose in revolt on April 20, 1848, and murdered the British officials. The British took no step at that time to suppress the rebellion. As a result, the revolt against the British spread throughout the whole of Punjab. At last, the British declared war against the Lahore kingdom on November 16, 1848.

The Results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War:

Punjab was annexed to the British Empire on March 25, 1849, and a Board of Administration of three members was established for the administration of Punjab.
Maharaja Dalip Singh was given a pension of 50,000 pounds annually and sent to England.
Diwan Mulraj was tried for his offence. He was declared to be guilty and then exiled.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Tenses

February 28, 2024January 27, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class English Book Solutions English Grammar Tenses Exercise Questions and Answers, Notes.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Tenses

Supply the correct form (Present Indefinite Tense) of the verbs in brackets.

1. Who (swim) in the pond every day?
2. We (burn) fuel to get heat.
3. Here (come) the bride.
4. The sun (rise) in the east.
5. They (come) to school by bus.
6. I (go) for a walk every day.
7. The Governor (arrive) tomorrow morning.
8. Raindrops (fall) from the clouds.
9. You always (speak) the truth.
10. I (be) the people, the mob, the crowd.
11. Father asked me, “How (be) you ?”
12. I (not object) to this proposal.
13. He (not like) mangoes.
14. When (leave) the train ?
15. The boys (know) the answer.
Answer:
1. swims
2. burn
3. comes
4. rises
5. come
6. go
7. arrives
8. fall
9. speak
10. am
11. are
12. do not object.
13. does not like
14. does (the train) leave
15. know.

Fill in the blanks with the Present Continuous form of the verbs given in brackets.

1. What ………………… you ………………… now ? (do)
2. They ……………… to London next week. (go)
3. Meera ………………… to see me tomorrow. (come)
4. We ………………… football. (play)
5. I ……………….. notes. (not take)
6. Why ……………. he ……………… at me ? (laugh)
7. Rajan ………………… a book. (write)
8. The boys ………………… in the river. (not swim)
9. The workers ……….. (paint)
10. Why ………………. he …………….. his clothes ? (change)
11. She ……………….. the candles. (blow out)
12. The old man …………….. with cold. (shiver)
Answer:
1. are (you) doing
2. are going
3. is coming
4. are playing
5. am not taking
6. is (he) laughing
7. is writing
8. are not swimming
9. are painting
10. is (he) changing
11. is blowing out
12. is shivering.

Rewrite the following sentences using the Present Perfect Tense of the verbs in brackets.

1. We (know) each other for the past ten years.
2. The appointed day (come).
3. Do you know what (happen) to his leg ?
4. I (finish) my work.
5. I (never deceive) you.
6. The train ……………….. just ……………….. . (arrive)
7. I shall go there after he (finish) his homework.
8. Why ………………. they …………….. there ? (go)
9. ………. She …………. her meals ? (have)
10. I (never see) the Taj.
Answer:
1. We have known each other for the past ten years.
2. The appointed day has come.
3. Do you know what has happened to his leg?
4. I have finished my work.
5. I have never deceived you.
6. The train has just arrived.
7. I. shall go there after he has finished his homework.
8. Why have they gone there ?
9. Has she had her meals ?
10. I have never seen the Taj.

Complete the following sentences, using the Present Perfect Continuous Tense of the verbs given in brackets.

1. We ………………. for you for two hours. (wait)
2. It ………………… since morning. (rain)
3. Who ……………… at the door for ten minutes ? (knock)
4. They ………………. here since 1997. (live)
5. The girls …………….. for two hours. (sing)
6. ……………….. he ………………… from fever since Monday ? (not suffer)
7. You ………………… this book since January. (write)
8. ………………… the tap ……………….. for two hours ? (not run)
9. Why ………………… you ………………. since yesterday ? (fight)
10. Why …….. to school for three days ? (not come)
Answer:
1. have been waiting
2. has been raining
3. has been knocking
4. have been living
5. have been singing
6. Has (he) not been suffering
7. have been writing
8. Has (the tap) not been running
9. have (you) been fighting
10. has (he) not been coming.

Fill in the blanks with the Past Indefinite form of the verbs given in brackets.

1. Meera ……………….. (turn) and ………………. (move) to the door.
2. We. ……………. (see) a lion in the jungle.
3. I ………………… (meet) him yesterday.
4. While the girls …………………… (sing), we ………(dance).
5. He…….. (go) out for ten minutes.
6. Who ………. (break) the window yesterday ?
7. She ………………. (send) him a letter last month.
8. They …………….. (know) the answer.
9. We ……….. (copy) from the blackboard.
10. The dog …….. (bite) the postman.
11. The birds ………………… (fly) away.
12. The little girl ………………. (cry) bitterly.
Answer:
1. turned, moved
2. saw
3. met
4. sang, danced
5. went
6. broke
7. sent
8. knew
9. copied
10. bit
11. flew
12. cried.

Rewrite the following sentences, using the Past Indefinite Tense of the verbs.

1. He counts the books.
2. The peon rings the bell.
3. We play cricket.
4. Mohan helps his father.
5. She reads a story.
6. Neetu drinks a glass of milk.
7. Suman shuts the window.
8. He rides a bicycle.
9. A thief steals some money.
10. The policeman holds up his hand.
Answer:
1. He counted the books.
2. The peon rang the bell.
3. We played cricket.
4. Mohan helped his father.
5. She read a story.
6. Neetu drank a glass of milk.
7. Suman shut the window.
8. He rode a bicycle.
9. A thief stole money.
10. The policeman held up his hand.

Fill in the blanks with the Past Continuous Tense of the verbs given in brackets.

1. I ………………. the truth. (speak)
2. A spider ….. over my body. (crawl)
3. When we arrived, they …………….. lunch. (have)
4. When I came, she ………………… (sing)
5. What . ….. when you arrived ? (do)
6. The plane ………………… violently. (shake)
7. My mother ………………. rice. (cook)
8. Why ………………. you ……….. (run)
9. What ………….. you ……. ……. last evening ? (do)
10. We …………….. a film when they came. (watch)
Answer:
1. was speaking
2. was crawling
3. were having
4. was singing
5. was (he) doing
6. was shaking
7. was cooking
8.were (you) running
9. were (you) doing
10. were watching.

Fill in the blanks with the suitable form (Past Perfect Tense) of the verbs given in brackets.

1. He ……………….. just ………….. his breakfast when I arrived. (finish)
2. The Nawab ……………. (die) years before his son took over.
3. The train ……………. (leave) before he reached the station.
4. The patient …………….. (die) before the doctor arrived.
5. The ship ………………. (sink) before help could reach.
6. He ………………… (completed his work when Meera came.
7. Why ……………… you ……………….. home till then ? (not reach)
8. I ……………(never expect) it to come this way.
9. ……… they …………. (buy) the tickets before the train arrived ?
10. Mother ………………. (tell) him not to go there.
11. Mahmood ………………… (be known) well throughout the city.
12. We ………………… often ………………… such messages. (receive)
Answer:
1. had (just) finished
2. had died
3. had left
4. had died
5. had sunk
6. had completed
7. had (you) not reached
8. had never expected
9. Had (they) bought
10. had told
11. had been known
12. had (often) received

Fill in the blanks with the Past Perfect Continuous Tense of the verbs given in brackets.

1. We …….. (wait) for you for ten hours when you came.
2. He said that he ………………… (live) here for ten years before they met him.
3. She told me that she ………………… (work) for four hours before the light went off.
4. Seema ………………. (suffer) from fever for a month before her examinations started.
5. She ………………. (knit) a sweater for a month before she fell ill.
6. It …………….. (rain) for two days.
7. The farmer ………………. (milk) the cow for an hour before the bell rang.
8. She ……………….. (teach) us English since 2001.
9. The police ……………… (look for) this thief for the last five years.
10. The boys ………………… (learn) their lessons for two hours before the test started.
Answer:
1. had been waiting
2. had been living
3. had been working
4. had been suffering
5. had been knitting
6. had been raining
7. had been milking
8. had been teaching
9. had been looking for
10. had been learning.

Rewrite the following sentences, changing the verb in each sentence into the Future Indefinite Tense.

1. Malcom closed his eyes.
2. I am going home.
3. The boys have been playing cricket.
4. She has finished her homework.
5. I had written a letter.
6. They paint pictures.
7. We are locking the door.
8. Madan is listening to the radio.
9. The teacher teaches us a new lesson.
10. Kalpana has been dancing and singing.
11. Did you go there?
12. Why did you break the windowpane?
Answer:
1. Malcom will close his eyes.
2. I will go home.
3. The boys will play cricket.
4. She will finish her homework.
5. I shall write a letter.
6. They will paint pictures.
7. We shall lock the door.
8. Madan will listen to the radio.
9. The teacher will teach us a new lesson.
10. Kalpana will dance and sing.
11. Will you go there ?
12. Why will you break the windowpane ?

Rewrite the following sentences after changing the Tense into the Future Continuous.

1. I boarded a plane.
2. She was playing on the harmonium.
3. The peon rings the bell.
4. Hari bought this watch from this shop.
5. They are reading newspapers.
6. We have been playing football.
7. Mamta has cooked the dinner.
8. She sang a beautiful song.
9. The children have eaten a chocolate ice cream.
10. He had been collecting stamps.
Answer:
1. I shall be boarding a plane.
2. She will be playing on the harmonium,
3. The peon will be ringing the bell.
4. Hari will be buying this watch from this shop.
5. They will be reading newspapers.
6. We shall be playing football.
7. Mamta will be cooking the dinner.
8. She will be singing a beautiful song.
9. The children will be eating a chocolate ice cream.
10. He will be collecting stamps.

Fill in the blanks with the Future Perfect Continuous Tense of the verbs.

1. It ………………. (snow) in Shimla since morning.
2. What ………………… you ………………… ? (write)
3. We ……………….. (play) for three hours when you come here.
4. Anand ……………… (live) in Jaipur for ten years.
5. She ……………… (read) this book for ten days.
6. I ………………… (live) in Chennai for two months.
7. ……………… the tap …………….. (run) for an hour before you turn it off ?
8. The mechanic ………………… (repair) my car for an hour.
9. He ……. (suffer) from fever for six days before you get him admitted to the hospital.
10. Sita ……………….. (knit) my sweater for a month before she leaves for Mumbai.
Answer:
1. will have been snowing
2. will (you) have been writing
3. shall have been playing
4. will have been living
5. will have been reading
6. will have been living
7. Will (the tap) have been running
8. will have been repairing
9. will have been suffering
10. will have been knitting.

Correct the following sentences.

1. She had left yesterday.
2. I had gone to Chennai last week.
3. She is reading the ‘Gitanjali’ for the last six days.
4. She finished her work when I met her.
5. When I finished my dinner, I shall read a book.
6. The train left the station before I reached there.
7. I lived in Chandigarh since 1978.
8. Edison has invented the gramophone.
9. She had been born in 1980.
10. They are working hard since last month.
Answer:
1. She left yesterday.
2. I went to Chennai last week.
3. She has been reading the “Gitanjali’ for the last six days.
4. She had finished her work when I met her.
5. When I have finished my dinner, I shall read a book.
6. The train had left the station before I reached there.
7. I had been living in Chandigarh since 1978.
8. Edison invented the gramophone.
9. She was born in 1980.
10. They have been working hard since last month.

Tense (काल)-Verb के जिस रूप से यह पता चले कि क्रिया कब हुई है, उसे Tense कहा जाता है।

Tense तीन प्रकार के होते हैं
(A) Present Tense (वर्तमान काल)
(B) Past Tense (भूतकाल)
(C) Future Tense (भविष्य काल)

(A) present tense

1. Present Indefinite Tense

प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग निम्नलिखित स्थितियों में किया जाता है-…
1. सदा-सत्य बातों के लिए –
(The sun shines by day, and the moon by night.)

2. चरित्र-सम्बन्धी स्थायी आदतों के लिए –
(He never tells a lie.)

3. वास्तविक वर्तमान और निकट भविष्य के लिए –
1. I understand what you say
2. He leaves for Mumbai tomorrow.

नियम — (1) इस Tense में Verb की पहली फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
(2) यदि subject एकवचन हो, तो verb की पहली फार्म के साथ s या es का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
(3) Negative तथा Interrogative वाक्यों में Helping Verb के रूप में do/does का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
(4) बहुवचन subject के लिए do का, तथा एकवचन subject के लिए does का प्रयोग किया जाता है। Does के साथ प्रयोग की जाने वाली Verb की पहली फार्म के साथ 8 या es नहीं लगाया
जाता है।
(5) I तथा you के लिए प्रयोग की जाने वाली Verb की पहली फार्म के साथ s या es नहीं लगा जाता है। इनके लिए बहुवचन subject की भान्ति केवल Verb की पहली फार्म का’ प्रयोग किया जाता है।

2. Present continuous Tense

प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग निम्नलिखित स्थितियों में किया जाता है.
1. बोलने या लिखने के समय चल रही किसी घटना का वर्णन करने के लिए; जैसे
(He is writing a letter.)

2. किसी आदत अथवा व्यवहार का वर्णन करने के लिए भी कभी-कभी इस Tense का प्रयोग किया जाता है; जैसे
(She is working regularly these days.)
नियम – इस Tense के वाक्यों में is / am / are लगा कर Verb के ing वाले रूप का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
Subject + is / am / are + Verb का ing वाला रूप + …………..

Note : Present Continuous Tense तथा Present Indefinite Tense के अन्तर को अच्छी
प्रकार समझ लेना चाहिए। निम्नलिखित नियम याद रखिए
Present Indefinite Tense – for habitual actions; for universal truths; for actions going to take place in near future.
Present Continuous Tense – for actions in progress at the time of speaking.

3. Present Perfect Tense
प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग अभी-अभी (वर्तमान में) पूरी हुई किसी घटना का वर्णन करने के लिए किया जाता है। नियम – इस Tense के वाक्यों में has / have लगा कर Verb की तीसरी फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है; जैसे
1. She has just finished her work.
2. I have spent all my money on books.

4. Present Perfect Continuous Tense
प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब कोई क्रिया भूतकाल में आरम्भ हुई हो और अब भी ।
चल रही हो; जैसे
1. He has been reading English for two years.
2. They have been reading this book since morning.

नियम –
(1) इस Tense के वाक्यों में has / have + been + V₁-ing + since / for at sem किया जाता है।
(2) For का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब क्रिया के जारी रहने की अवधि (period of time) दी हुई हो; जैसेfor fifteen minutes; for half an hour; for a month; for three years; for a long time.
(3) Since का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब क्रिया के आरम्भ होने का निश्चित समय (point of time) दिया हुआ हो; जैसे since Sunday; since breakfast; since yesterday; since Diwali; since January 1998; since the first of May.

Past Tense

1. Past Indefinite Tense
प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब कोई घटना भूतकाल में आरम्भ होकर भूतकाल में ही समाप्त हो गई हो।
(We learnt English at school.)
नियम –
(1) इस Tense के affirmative वाक्यों में Verb की दूसरी फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
(2) Negative वाक्यों में did not + Verb की पहली फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
(3) Interrogative वाक्यों में Did + subject + Verb की पहली फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
(4) Did का प्रयोग करने के बाद सदा Verb की पहली फार्म का ही प्रयोग किया जाता है।

2. Past continuous Tense
प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब कोई क्रिया भूतकाल में किसी निश्चित समय पर चल रही हो।
(He was writing a letter when I saw him.)
नियम – इस Tense के वाक्यों में was / were लगा कर Verb के ing वाले रूप का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
Note : Past Continuous Tense तथा Past Indefinite Tense के अन्तर को अच्छी प्रकार से समझ लेना चाहिए। निम्नलिखित नियम याद रखिए
Past Indefinite Tense for completed activity.
Past Continuous Tense – for. continuity in past.

3. Past Perfect Tense
प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है यदि कोई क्रिया भूतकाल में किसी निश्चित समय (moment) से पहले या किसी निश्चित समय तक पूरी हो चुकी हो।
1. The patient had died before the doctor came.
2. I had finished my work by evening.
नियम – इस Tense में had लगा कर Verb की तीसरी फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

Note : यदि किसी वाक्य में भूतकाल में घटी हुई दो घटनाओं का वर्णन हो, तो उनमें से जो घटना पहले घटी हो, उसके लिए Past Perfect Tense का प्रयोग किया जाता है, और जो घटन अपेक्षाकृत बाद में घटी हो, उसके लिए Past Indefinite Tense का प्रयोग किया जाता

4. Past Perfect continuous Tense
प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है यदि कोई क्रिया भूतकाल में आरम्भ होकर भूत ही किसी निश्चित समय पर चल रही हो; जैसे
(When I reached there at 2 p.m.he had been waiting for 1:30 p.m.).
नियम- इस Tense के वाक्यों में had + been + V₁-ing + since / for का प्रयोग कि

Future Tense

1. Future Indefinite Tense प्रयोग -इस Tense का प्रयोग साधारण रूप में भविष्य में होने वाली किसी घटना का वर्णन करने के लिए किया जाता है; जैसे
(The post will arrive late. We shall start early.)
नियम- इस Tense के वाक्यों में will / shall लगा कर Verb की पहली फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
Note : Will और Shall सम्बन्धी प्रयोग के लिए निम्नलिखित नियम ध्यान में रखिए

Assertive alert
1. यदि किसी भविष्य की घटना का केवल साधारण रूप से ही वर्णन हो, तो First Person के लिए shall का प्रयोग किया जाता है। Second और Third Persons के लिए will का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
2. यदि वाक्य में किसी भविष्य-सम्बन्धी आदेश (command), प्रण (promise), निश्चय (determination), धमकी (threat), आदि का वर्णन हो, तो First Person के लिए will का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
3. यदि वक्ता अपने किसी भविष्य-सम्बन्धी उद्देश्य (intention) को प्रकट करना चाहता हो तो वह अपने लिए will का प्रयोग करेगा। अर्थात् ऐसे वाक्यों में First Person के साथ will का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

Interrogative वाक्यों में
1. प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों में प्रायः Will I और Shall you का प्रयोग नहीं किया जाता है।
2. Third Person के लिए will अथवा shall, किसी का भी प्रयोग किया जा सकता है।
Shall he – भविष्य-सम्बन्धी आदेश, आदि के लिए।
Will he – भविष्य-सम्बन्धी साधारण क्रिया के लिए।

2. Future Continuous Tense
प्रयोग- इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब भविष्य में किसी विशेष समय का वर्णन हो, और कोई क्रिया उस विशेष समय से पहले आरम्भ होकर उसके बाद में पूरी होनी हो; जैसे (We shall be waiting for you when you get back tomorrow.)
नियम- इस Tense के वाक्यों में will / shall के साथ be लगा कर Verb के ing वाले रूप का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
Note: Future Continuous Tense तथा Future Indefinite Tense के अन्तर को अच्छी तरह से समझ लेना चाहिए।
निम्नलिखित नियम याद रखिए
Future Indefinite Tense – for an action which begins at a certain future moment.
Future Continuous Tense – for an action which begins before and finishes after a certain future moment.

3. Future Perfect Tense प्रयोग – इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब कोई क्रिया भविष्य में किसी समय से पहले पूरी होनी हो; जैसे
(I will have finished my homework by evening.)
नियम- इस Tense में will / shall + have लगा कर Verb की तीसरी फार्म का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

4. Future Perfect Continuous Tense प्रयोग-इस Tense का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है यदि क्रिया भविष्य में किसी निश्चित समय
(point of time) तक अथवा किसी निश्चित अवधि (period of time) के लिए जारी रहनी हो; जैसे
(By six o’clock, I will have been sitting here for ten hours.)
नियम- इस Tense में will / shall + have been लगा कर Verb के ing वाले रूप का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

	Indefinite	Continuous	Perfect	Perfect Continuous
PRESENT PAST FUTURE	write (s) wrote will/shall write	is/am/are writing was/were writing will/shall be writing	has/have written had written will/shall have written	has/have been writing had been writing will/shall have been writing

I. Fill In the blanks with the Present Indefinite form oF the verbs given in the brackets.

1. He ……….. for a walk every day. (go)
2. She ……….. up early in the morning. (get)
3. The peon ……… the bell at 9 o’clock. (ring)
4. I ……….. my parents. (obey)
5. We ……….. our teachers. (respect)
6. We ……….. our prayers in the morning. (set)
7. She ……….. sweetly. (sing)
8. I do not ……….. sweets. (like)
Answer:
1. goes
2. gets
3. rings
4. obey
5. respect
6. say
7. sings
8. like

II. Fill in the blanks with the Present Continuous form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. ………. it ……….. today? (rain)
2. …….. the peon ……….. the bell? (ring)
3. ………. the boys ……….. football? (play)
4. He ………. a picture. (paint)
5. We ………. our lesson. (learn)
6. She ……….. not ……….. food. (cook)
7. I……….. a letter. (write)
8. You ……….. a race. (run)
Answer:
1. Is, raining
2. Is, ringing
3. Are, playing
4. is painting
5. are learning
6. is, cooking
7. am writing
8. are running.

III. Fill in the blanks with the Present Perfect form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. I …… my homework. (finish).
2. He ………………….. first in the class. (stand)
3. ………………………. you ……………. your scooter? (sell)
4. ……… she ……………. a car? (buy)
5. They ……….. their enemy. (defeat)
6. We …………….. the match. (win)
7. The peon ………………….. the bell. (ring)
8. We …………………… our duty. (do)
Answer:
1. have finished
2. has stood
3. Have, sold
4. Has, bought
5. have defeated
6. have won
7. has rung
8. have done.

IV. Fill in the blanks with the Present Perfect Continuous form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. ……………… since morning. (rain)
2. She ………………. from fever for a week. (suffer)
3. I ………………… for you for half an hour. (wait)
4. He ………………… his brother with money for five years. (help)
5. We ……. for a long time. (fight)
6. She ………………… for a job for several months. (look)
7. …………………… he ……………………. books from you since 1991 ? (borrow)
8. ……… she…… in this office since 1987 ? (work)
Answer:
1. has been raining
2. has been suffering
3. have been waiting
4. has been helping
5. have been fighting
6. has been looking
7. Has been borrowing
8. Has been working

V. Fill in the blanks with the Past Indefinite form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. India ……………….. independence in 1947. (get)
2. He ……………………. government service in 1980 (join)
3. It ………………….. heavily last night. (rain)
4. ……………….. he …………………. you money ? (lend)
5. She ……………….. not ………………… to my proposal. (agree)
6. Why …………………. he …………………… angry with you ? (become)
7. The teacher …………………. the student. (punish)
8. He …………………. to go for a walk daily. (use)
Answer:
1. got
2. joined
3. rained
4. Did, lend
5. did, agree
6. did, become
7. punished
8. used.

VI. Fill in the blanks with the Past Continuous form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. It …………….. in the morning. (rain)
2. The peon …………………. the bell. (ring)
3. Why ……………. she (weep)
4. She ……………….. clothes. (wash).
5. …………………… she …………………… food ? (eat)
6. …………. the hunter …………………….. birds ? (kill)
7. It …………………… Since
6. She ……….. not food …………… (cook)
7. I ………………….. a letter. (write)
8. You ……………………. a race. (run)
7. He ………………….. a novel. (read)
8. My grandmother ………. a story. (tell)
Answer:
1. was raining
2. was ringing
3. was, weeping
4. was washing
5. Was, eating
6. Was, killing
7. was reading
8. was telling.

VII. Fill in the blanks with the Past Perfect form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. He ……… a tiger before I reached the forest. (kill)
2. She …………………. a sweater before I bought a new one. (knit)
3. I …………….. money from my friend before I received my salary. (borrow)
4. The river …………………… its banks before the dam was built. (overflow)
5. …………………… she ………………….. a new dress before his father came ? (buy)
6. Why …………….. he ……………. ……. you before everybody ? (abuse)
7. My uncle ……………… a new house before he retired from service. (build)
8. …….. you in the race before you defeated him in boxing ? (beat)
Answer:
1. had killed
2. had knitted
3. had borrowed
4. had overflowed
5. Had,bought
6. had, abused
7. had built
8. Had, beaten.

VIII. Fill in the blanks with the Past Perfect Continuous form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. We ………. in Delhi for ten years. (live)
2. He ……… in this office since 1990. (work)
3. She …………………. in this school for ten years. (teach)
4. ……………………. you ……………………. your brother for five years ? (look after)
5. Who ………………….. you with money all these years? (help)
6. The farmer …………………. the fields for many days. (plough)
7. The teacher …………………… the students for a long time. (guide)
8. They …………………… their country for thirty years. (serve).
Answer:
1. had been living
2. had been working
3. had been teaching
4. Had, been
looking after
5. had been helping
6. had been ploughing
8. had been guiding
8. had been serving.

IX. Fill in the blanks with the Future Indefinite form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. I ……………….. to Delhi.(go)
2. We …….. you with money. (help)
3. The peon ……………….. the bell at 9 o’clock. (ring)
4. …………. she ………………….. in time ? (crime)
5. …………………… he …………………… you his book ? Glend)
6. She ……………………. a rich man. (marry)
7. The train …………………… in time. (arrive)
8. They …………………… a match tomorrow. (play)
Answer:
1. shall go
2. shall help
3. will ring
4. Will, come
5. Wil, lend
6. will marry
7. will arrive
8. will play

X. Fill in the blanks with the Future Continuous form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. She ………………….. a picture. (paint)
2. I ……. a new car. (buy)
3. He ………………….. to Delhi tomorrow.(go)
4. They …………………… their friends. (help)
5. People ……………………. their work. (do)
6. ……………………. she ………………….. food ? (cook)
7. ….. in the river ? (bathe)
8. He …………………. not …………. his friends. (cheat)
Answer:
1. will be painting
2. shall be buying
3. will be going
4. will be helping
5. will be doing
6. Will, be cooking
7. Will, be bathing
8. will, be cheating

XI. Fill in the blanks with the Future Perfect form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. She ……….. her work in time. (finish)
2. He ……………………. you with money. (help)
3. They …………………. their clothes. (wash)
4. I. ……………… the situation. (handle)
5. She ……………….. her promise. (break)
6. He ……………………. you money. (lend)
7. she ………. you English? (teach)
8. ………… bravely? (fight)
Answer:
1. will have finished
2. will have helped
3. will have washed
4. shall have handled
5. will have broken
6. will have lent
7. Will, have taught
8. Will, have fought.

XII. Fill in the blanks with the Future Perfect Continuous form of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. It …………….. for two hours. (rain)
2. They ……………………. here for many years. (live)
3. She …………………. English since 1980. (learn)
4. He ………………… Mathematics for many years. (teach)
5. …………………. she ……………………. in this office since 1985 ? (work)
6. He ………………….. you for a long time. (cheat)
7. They ………………….. the poor since 1982. (help)
8. ……………. she ……………… food for the whole family for several years? (cook)
Answer:
1. will have been raining
2. will have been living
3. will have been learning
4. will have been teaching
5. Will, have been working
6. will have been cheating
7. will have been helping
8. Will, have been cooking.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Microsoft Publishers-I Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose an application used to design and produce attractive advertising and promotional material.
(a) Document
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Publication
(d) Presentation
Answer:
(c) Publication

Question 2
Publisher enables us to produce quick publications by using:
(a) Manual
(b) Wizards
(c) Customize
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Wizards

Question 3
To open the Microsoft publisher by keyboard, what we need to type in search bar?
(a) WordPad
(b) Notepad
(c) Access
(d) Publisher
Answer:
(d) Publisher

Question 4
Each tab is divided into:
(a) Groups
(b) Status Bar
(c) Menus
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Groups

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I

Question 5
After creating publication, save the publication by clicking on save option in:
(a) Groups
(b) Home
(c) Insert
(d) View
Answer:
(a) Groups

Question 6
Close the publication by clicking button in File menu.
(a) Open
(b) New
(c) Print
(d) Close
Answer:
(d) Close

2. Fill In The Blanks

1. We can also add the objects to the blank Layout like ………….. word art, and auto shapes etc.
Answer:
Text, Pictures

2. The handles centered on the lines of the box will stretch the object ………… and …………. .
Answer:
Vertically and Horizontally

3. We can …………. and …………… on the handles to resize our frame.
Answer:
Click and Drag

4. To view additional features within each group, click the dialog box launcher (arrow) at the bottom of each ……………..
Answer:
Right Comer, Group

5. When we click on a small circles appear around the edge of ……………. the frame. These are called
Answer:
Frame , Handles.

3. True or False

1. A Template is a tool used in Publisher to help us easily create basic publication.
Answer:
True

2. Most publications are divided into several different areas called frames.
Answer:
True

3. The comer handles will resize the object proportionally.
Answer:
True

4. Before exiting Publisher, we should not close all the publications.
Answer:
False

5. We cannot add items to the quick access toolbar by click on any item.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Extension used to save a publication is?
Answer:
.pub

Question 2.
To move objects which cursor is used?
Answer:
Crosshairs

Question 3.
Online Templates are available in?
Answer:
Office.com

Question 4.
List of our recently used Publisher files are in?
Answer:
Recent

Question 5.
AZX The text is arranged around the object by using which option?
Answer:
Wrap text

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Publisher?
Answer:
Publisher is an application software which is used to create publication for professional and personal use. It is a product of Microsoft company. It is one of the major software of Desktop Publishing.

Question 2.
Write the steps for Moving Objects in publisher.
Answer:
Following are the steps to Move Object in Publisher:
1. Click on the Object.
2. Place the cursor on solid line so that you see cross hairs.
3. Click and Drag the Object to desired location.

Question 3.
Define Templates?
Answer:
Template is a set of Predefined design styles that can be used to create a publication of document. It can be customized as per our needs.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How to create a publication using blank layout in publisher?
Answer:
We can create new Publication by following methods:

By using blank layout.
By using installed templates.
By using online templates.

Creating a publication using Blank Layout:
Following are there steps to start with a blank publication-

Click the File menu, and then click New.
Under Available Templates, click a blank publication template, and then click Create.
You can create a publication with our own specifications in Publication. You can also add the objects to the blank layout like text,picture, word art, and auto shapes etc.
After creating publication, save the publication by clicking on save option in File menu.
The Save As dialog box appears, type a name for our publication, select the folder in which we want to save it, and then click save button.

Question 2.
How to add text using text box and write the steps for editing text in publisher?
Answer:
Adding Text in Publication. Following steps are used to add text in publication:

From the Home or Insert Tab, select Draw Text Box.
Place the cursor on the page where we want to draw a text box.
Click and drag the cursor across the page to the desired size. The size of the text box can be changed after we have drawn it.
When we let go of the left click on the mouse, we are brought to the format tab which gives us more options for the text box.
Type the text in text box.

Editing Text in MS Publisher:
1. Highlight the text we want to edit.
2. If we are not brought to the Text Box Tools Format Tab, then select it.
3. Text Group Options :

Text Fit. Defines how the text will fit in the text box : Best Fit, Shrink Text on Overflow, Grow Text Box to Fit, Do Not Auto-Fit.
Text Direction. Changes direction to horizontal or vertical.
Hyphenation. Changes hyphenation behavior of selected text.

4. Font Group Options. Style Font Size, Bold, Italics, Underline, Text Spacing, & Color.
5. Alignment Group Options. Text Box Alignment, Columns, Margins.
6. Effects Group Options. Shadow, Outline, Engrave, Emboss.

Question 3.
How to Print your Publication? Write their steps.
Answer:
There are two basic ways to print your publication :
First one is to click on the print icon on toolbar. This will print one copy of our publication with the default print options.

1. Click on the File menu and click Print.
2. When the print window appears, select the desired number of copies.
3.Choose any other print settings:

All Pages, Selection, Current Page, or Custom Range
Manually enter page numbers we want to print
How many pages print per sheet of paper
Paper Size .
1-sided or 2-sided printing.

4. Click Print.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Publishers-I Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A pre defined design is called?
(a) Publication
(b) ClipArt
(c) Design
(d) Template
Answer:
(d) Template

Question 2.
Publications include:
(a) Advertising Material
(b) Promotional Material
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both of these

Fill in the Blanks

1. Publisher is used to ………….. , …………… and ……………. publication.
Answer:
Design, Promotional, Advertising

2. …………. area is the blank area of the publisher window.
Answer:
Publication

3. ………….. is the small window on the left side of Publisher Window.
Answer:
Task Pane

4. Various invitation card types all displayed in ………………… .
Answer:
Preview Gallery

5. The advertising and promotional material is called ……………… .
Answer:
Publications.

Select True/False

1. Publisher is used to print document.
Answer:
True

2. The status bar is present at the bottom of the publisher window.
Answer:
True

3. The personal information is filled in personal information dialog box.
Answer:
True

4. The publications of publisher are saved with extension .ppt.
Answer:
False

5. Before existing publisher, it is not necessary to close all the publications.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1
What is Publisher?
Answer:
Publisher is an application that is used to. design and produce advertisement and promotional materials.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the steps to open the Publisher.
Answer:
The following are the steps to open publisher:
1. Click on start button.
2. Select MS Publisher from the program.
3. Click OK.

Question 2.
Write the name of component of Publisher Window.
Answer:
On the start menu, point to all programs, point to microsoft office, and then click Micro soft office publisher. The Microsoft publisher window will appear.

Question 3.
What are the two ways of creating a Publication?
Answer:
The following are the two ways of creating a publication:
1. By Wizards
2. By Using blank layout.

Question 4.
Write the steps to Save Publication.
Answer:
The following are the steps to save of publication :
(i) On the File Menu, Click Save. The Save As dialog box appears. The default name of the publication is Publication 1.
(ii) Select the folder in which you want to save the application, type name in the File Name box and then click Save.
The publication is save in the selected folder with a pub extension.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the difference between word and publisher.
Answer:

Word	Publisher
1. Word is an example of Word Processing Software	1. Publisher is an example of DTP software
2. Word Document has extension .doc	2. Publisher document has extension of .pub
3. Word is mostly used of common typing purpose	3. Publisher is used for designing professional objects.

Question 2.
Explain the components of Publisher Window.
Answer:
Components of publisher window:
There are three most important components that we should remember as we work within Publisher 2010. These are:
PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 7 Microsoft Publishers-I 1
1. Quick Access Toolbar:
The quick access toolbar is a customizable toolbar that contains commands that we may want to use. We can place the quick access toolbar above or below the ribbon. To change the location of the quick access toolbar, click on the arrow at the end of the toolbar and click Show below the Ribbon. We can also add items to the quick access toolbar, simply click on any item and if will be added to our toolbar.

2. Ribbon:
The ribbon is the panel at the top portion of the document it has six tabs: Home, Insert, Page Design, Mailings, Review, and View. Each tab is divided into groups

3. File Window:
When we click on the File menu, we are brought to the Info screen. It looks like that our document is gone, but it is not. As we click on the options in the File menu, the screen will change accordingly.

Save: Save the file as a 2010 file.
Save As: Allows you to choose a different file type (i.e. PDF, Word).
Open: Browse to a Publisher file.
Close: Closes the file but keeps Publisher running.
Info: Edit Business information, use Design Checker, and set Commercial Print Information.
Recent: List of our recently used Publisher files.
New: New Publication Screen.
Print: Print Options.
Save & Send: Options for saving e mailing the file.
Help: Microsoft Help.
Options: Set default options.
Exit: Closes Publisher (file and program).

Question 3.
How to create a publication using blank layout?
Answer:
Creating a publication using blank layout:
Following are the steps to start with a blank publication:
1. Click the File menu, and then click New.

2. Under Available Templates, click a blank publication template, and then click Create.

3. Now, we can create a publication with our own specifications in publication. We can also add the objects to the blank layout like text, picture, word art, and auto shapes etc.

4. After creating publication, save the publication by clicking on save option in File menu. The Save As dialog box appears, type a name for bur publication, select the folder in which you want to save it, and then click save button. The publication is saved with a .pub extension.

5. Close the publication by clicking close button in File menu. A dialog box appears, if we want to save the changes, then click yes button, otherwise click no. Before exiting Publisher, we should close all the publications, then Click Exit in File menu or click cross button on title bar.

Question 4.
How you can load MS Publishers?
Answer:
Microsoft Publisher:
Microsoft Publisher is differing from Microsoft Word in that the emphasis is placed on page layout and design rather than text composition and proofing. Microsoft Publisher is a business desktop publishing program that enables users to easily create professional-looking marketing materials.

The Microsoft Publisher offers more design options with over 2,000 professionally designed publication templates and hundreds of design elements for users to mix and match within their publications. A flexible wizard model allows users to work the way they want, and automated design expertise helps them achieve professional results without design expertise. Stronger office integration and a complete print-to-web publishing solution enable users to deliver professional looking results.

Question 5.
What are the steps to save Publication in MS Publisher?
Answer:
There are two basic ways to save our publication. First one is to Point and click on the save icon on our toolbar.

Follow these step:

Click on the File menu and Save As.
When the Save As Dialogue Box appears Click Browse and find the location on computer where we want the file saved.
Type the name of our publication in the File Name field.
Click on the Save button.

Question 6.
Write the steps to modify a page design.
Answer:
Page Design:
1. Click the tab Page Design if needed, to change templates, adjust page margins, apply ruler guides, or apply built-in color schemes to the chosen template.

2. We can use the Built-in Ruler Guide templates to help in aligning text boxes, pictures, or other objects. To apply a Built-in Ruler Guide template click on the command Guides in the group Layout, and then choose a template.

3. To add a vertical or horizontal ruler guide repeat the above step, then click on Add Vertical or Horizontal Ruler Guide.

4. To add additional guides, move the mouse pointer over the vertical or horizontal ruler, drag the guide in the desired direction when the pointer changes to a two headed arrow.

Question 7.
Write the steps of Creating a Publication with Templates.
Answer:
Creating a publication with Templates:
We can create a publication in Publisher by using template.
Available Publication Types : Publisher 2010 allows us:
1. To apply built-in templates.
2. To apply our own custom templates.
3. To search from a variety of templates available on Office.com. Office.com provides a wide selection of popular Publisher templates, including newsletters and flyers.

To find and apply a template in Publisher 2010, dp the following:
1. On the File tab, click New.
2. Under Available Templates, do one of the following:

To use a template that we already have installed, click My Templates, click the template that we want, and then click Create
To use one of the pre-built templates installed in Publisher, under Most Popular or More Templates, click the category that we want, click the template that we want, and then click Create.
To find and apply a template on Office.com, under Most Popular or More Templates, click the category that we want, click the template that we want, and then click Download.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be :
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 10.
Answer:
(d) 10.

Question 2.
A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime- water milky. The solution contains:
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl
(c) LiCl
(d) KC1.
Answer:
(b) HCl

Question 3.
10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be :
(a) 4 mL
(b) 8 mL
(c) 12 mL
(d) 16 mL.
Answer:
(d) 16 mL.

Question 4.
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic.
Answer:
(c) Antacid

Question 5.
Write word equations and then balance equations for the reaction taking place when :
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules
Answer:
Zinc granules + Dilute sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen

(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder
Answer:
Aluminium powder + Dilute sulphuric acid → Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen

(d) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with iron filings.
Answer:
Iron filings + Dilute sulphuric acid → Iron (II) sulphate + Hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

Question 6.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect these nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence
do not produce H⁺ ions although they (aq)
contain hydrogen.

Question 7.
Why does not distilled water conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does?
Answer:

Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it contains no ions.
Rainwater contains ions due to dissolved salts, hence it conducts electric current.

Question 8.
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Answer:
This is because in the absence of water, acids do not dissociate to give hydrogen ions > H⁺_(aq)

Question 9.
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is :
(a) neutral?
(b) strongly alkaline?
(c) strongly acidic?
(d) weakly acidic?
(e) weakly alkaline?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration.

Solution	pH	Nature of Solution
A	4	Weakly acidic
B	1	Strongly acidic
C	11	Strongly alkaline
D	7	Neutral
E	9	Weakly alkaline

The increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration is :
11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1 (pH values).

Question 10.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:
Fizzing occurs more vigorous in test tube A as compared to in test tube B. This is because concentration of hydrogen ion, It is more in test tube A than in test tube B, as hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak acid.

Question 11.
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Its pH will decrease due to the production of lactic acid which is acidic in nature.

Question 12.
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Answer:
So that the milk is not spoiled readily and medium remains basic.

(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Answer:
Because the lactic acid produced during curding reacts with baking soda.

Question 13.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Answer:
This is because in presence of moisture, plaster of Paris sets to give a hard mass.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9

Question 14.
What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.
Answer:
The interaction of an acid with a base to form salt and water is called neutralisation reaction.

Examples :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 15.
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Answer:
(a) Uses of washing soda :

It is used in the manufacture of glass and soap.
It is used in the manufacture of borax.

(b) Uses of baking soda :

It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher.
It is used for making baking powder.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Acids, Bases and Salts InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Answer:
Dip red litmus paper in solution repeatedly in each tube.
(a) The tube in which the red litmus paper turns purple contains distilled water.
(b) The tube in which red litmus paper turns blue contains basic solution.
(c) The tube in which red litmus paper remains red contains acidic solution.

Question 2.
Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Answer:
Curd and other sour substances contain acids which react with the metal surface of brass and copper vessels to produce toxic compounds which are unfit for consumption.

Question 3.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Answer:
When an acid reacts with metal, generally hydrogen is produced.
e.g. Mg + 2 HCl(Dil) → MgCl₂ + H₂ ↑

Pass this gas (H₂) through soap solution. The soap bubbles filled with the gas will rise up. If a burning splinter is brought near the gas, the bubble will burn with a ‘pop’ sound.

Question 4.
Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
CO₂ extinguishes a burning candle.

Question 5.
Why do HCl, HNO₃ etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Answer:
HCl, HNO₃ etc undergo dissociation in water to give Hydrogen ions, H⁺_(aq) ions and show acidic characteristics. There are compounds like alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in water to give hydrogen ions, H⁺_(aq) ions. Hence, they don’t show acidic properties.

Question 6.
Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?
Answer:
The aqueous solution of an acid contains ions such as hydrogen ions, H⁺_(aq) and other anions. Hence it conducts electricity.

Question 7.
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour on the dry litmus paper?
Answer:
This is because dry HCl gas is a covalent compound and it does not undergo dissociation to give hydrogen ions, H⁺_(aq) and hence no change in colour of dry litmus paper.

Question 8.
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Answer:
The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is an exothermic process. This is because if water is added to concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

Question 9.
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H₃O⁺) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Answer:
The concentration of hydronium ions decreases when a solution of an acid is diluted.

Question 10.
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH^–] affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
When excess of base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide, the concentration of OH ions increases.

Question 11.
You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Answer:
In solution A, [H⁺_(aq)] = 10^-6 M, pH < 7
In solution B, [H⁺_(aq)] = 10^-8 M. pH > 7

∴ Then the solution A has more hydrogen ion concentration.
Solution A is acidic.
Solution B is basic.

Question 12.
What effect does the concentration of H⁺_(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
Answer:

If [H⁺] < 10^-7 M, it is basic solution.
If [H⁺] >10^-7 M, it is an acidic solution.
If [H⁺] = 10^-7 M, it is a neutral aqueous solution.

Question 13.
Do basic solutions also have H⁺_(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Answer:
Basic solutions also contain H⁺_(aq) ions. But in basic solutions :
[H⁺_(aq)] < 10^-7 M
and [OH^–] > 10^-7 M
Since [OH^–_(aq)] is more than [H⁺_(aq)], hence these are basic solutions.

Question 14.
Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his Helds with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Answer:
If the pH of the soil is less than 7, i.e. it is acidic, the farmer will treat the soil with quick lime, slaked lime, chalk.

Question 15.
What is the common name of the compound CaOCl₂?
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 16.
Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Answer:
Dry slaked lime.

Question 17.
Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 18.
What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.
Answer:
It decomposes to give sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide gas (which is colourless, odourless and turns lime water milky).
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 19.
Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules.

Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write about the history of Yoga.
Answer:
History:
The history of Yoga is indeed very old. Nothing can be said firmly about the origin of Yoga. Only it can be said that Yoga was originated in India. The available evidences show that history of Yoga is related to Indus Valley Civilization. At that time people used to do Yoga. On the basis of secondary sources it can be concluded that Yoga was originated approximately in 3000 B.C. in India. The first book on Yoga was written by Patanjali in 147 B.C. Infact, Yoga is derived from a Sanskriti word “Yuj” which means union of soul.

Nowadays, Yoga has become very popular throughout the world. The present age can be said the age of stress, tension, and anxiety. So, most of the persons have not been leading a happy and fruitful! life. In western countries, Yoga has become a way of life. It has a vital significance in the life of human beings.

Question 2.
Which important points should be kept in mind while doing yogasanas.
Answer:
Latest information about Yoga:

The ground should be even for doing Yogic exercises. Yogic asanas should be performed on a ‘dari’ or blanket on the ground.
The place for Yogic asanas should be peaceful, airy and clean.
Breathing should be normal, and mind should be at peace while doing Yog Asanas.
Yog Asanas should be performed with concentration of mind at least four hours after taking meals.
The exercises should be done slowly and with ease, and the pace of the exercises should be increased slowly.
The Yogic practice should be done under the care of an expert.
One should get relaxed by Shavasana in between two Yogic Asanas.
The body should be covered with minimum clothes such as loin cloth, nickar, banyan etc. and balanced food should be taken.

The following exercises have been included in the syllabus prescribed by the Board. Daily practice of these exercises helps a layman keep good health:

Tarasana
Ardh Chandrasana
Bhujangasana
Shalabhasana
Dhanurasana
Ardhmatseyendrasana
Paschimotanasana
Padmasana
Sawastikasana
Sarvanagasana
Matasyasana
Halasana
Yog Mudra
Mayurasana
Uddiyana
Pamayamanulom vilom
Surya Namaskar
Sharasana.

Some of the important asanas out of the above-mentioned asanas are described ahead in detail, and others have been described in brief:
1. Tar Asana:
In this asana the trunk is pulled upwards while in the standing position. The position of tar asana is like the Tar tree.
Technique of the Tar Asana-
Stand up, join the heels and toes of both the feet and lift the arms straight upward. Let the fingers of one hand cross those of the other hand. The wrists should be upward and the sight in front. Breathe in fully. Raise the heels and put the whole body weight on toes. Pull the body upwards. After sometime, breathe out and lower the body. Repeat this action 10-15 times.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Advantages of Tar Asana:

It reduces obesity of the body.
It raises the stature.
It removes constipation.
It prevents the diseases of the intestines.
It serves to cleanse the bowels if it is done after taking cold water everyday.

2. Ardh-chandra Asana:
It involves the same action as is in Tar Asana. In it, the body is bent to side said, and the other side of the trunk is pulled.

3. Bhujangasana: In this asana, one lies down straight and loosens the trunk.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of Bhujang asana.
Answer:
Technique of Bhujang asana:
It is also called Sarapasana. In it, the position of the body is like that a serpent. In order to perform this asana, lie down on the belly on the ground. Place both hands near the shoulders. Make the legs hard slowly and with the help of wrists raise the chest so much that the body gets completely straightened. Pull in the toes and hang the head slowly backwards. Return gradually to the former position. Repeat this asana 3-5 times.

Advantages:

Bhujangasana stimulates (increases) the digestive power.
It helps in getting rid of the diseases of liver and spleen.
It strengthens the muscles and the vertebral column.
It removes constipation.
It helps in making the bulging- out belly go in.
It strengthens lungs.

1. Shalabh Asana: In this asana, one lies prostrate and the thigh spreads backward.

2. Ardh Masteyendr Asana: In this asana, in sitting position, the trunk is pushed towards the sides.

3. Dhanur Asana: In this asana, one lies prostrate, pulls up the legs and tries to catch dr catches the knee with the help of both hands.

Question 4.
What is the difference between Dhanur Asana and Paschimottan Asana?
Answer:
Technique of Dhanur Asana:
In this asana the position of the body is like that of a bow. In order to perform this Asana, lie over the belly on the ground, keep the knees bent backwards. Hold the feet near the ankles with the help of both the hands. Breathe in deeply and raise the chest upwards as much as possible. Now make the feet hard so that the body acquires the shape of a bow. Try to remain in this position as long as possible. Breathe out, keep the body loose and return to the former position. Repeat this asana 3-4 times.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 3
Dhanur Asana:
Advantages:

It reduces the obesity (fatness) of the body.
It increases the power of digestion.
It helps in getting rid of rheumatism and urinary diseases.
It strengthens the stomach and intestine.
It also strengthens the vertebral column. Muscles become strong and flexible.

1. Paschimottan Asana: In this asana, one holds the thumbs of the feet with fingers and sits in such a way that the trunk goes towards one side.

Position of Paschimottan Asana: In this asana, the whole body is stretched and bent.

Technique of Paschimottan Asana:
Spread both the legs forward and sit on the ground. Hold the thumbs of the feet with both the hands. Breathe out slowly. Try to touch the knees. Breathe in slowly, raise the head upwards and returns to the former position. This asana should be performed 10-15 times.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4
Advantages:

This asana provides strength to the thighs.
It cleanses the blood vessels.
It helps in getting rid of the various types of diseases of the belly.
It lessens the excessive fat of the body.
It removes gas trouble.

2. Padam Asana: In this asana, one sits squatting.
Position of Padam Asana: The position of this asana is that of a lotus.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 5
Technique of Padam Asana:
After having sat in squat position, place your right foot on the left thigh in such a way that the heel of the right foot touches the hip bone of the left thigh. After this, lift up the left foot and in the same way place it on the thigh of the right foot. The vertebral column should be perfectly straight. Stretch the arms on the knees. It becomes very easy to do this asana after a few days practice.

Advantages:

This asana stimulates the digestive system.
It is very useful for increasing the concentration of mind.
Backache disappears.
One does not become a victim of the diseases of heart and belly.
It removes urinary troubles.

3. Svastik Asana: In this asana, one places the loose thighs in between the lower legs.

4. Sarvang Asana: In this asana, one stands on one’s shoulders.
Technique of Sarvang Asana: In this asana, the position of the body is like that of Ardh-hal-asana. In order to do this asana, straighten the body and lie on the ground over the back. Place both the hands along the thighs. Lift the feet once and resting the back with the help of wrists, let the elbows rest on the ground. Keep the whole body straight. Let the body weight fall on the shoulders and the neck.
Let the chin touch the neck.

After having remained in this position for sometime, return gradually to the former position. In the initial stage, do the asana for a minute or two. Then the duration of the asana should be increased from 5 to 7 minutes. The persons who cannot do Sheershasana for some reason should do Sarvang Asana.
Yogic Exercises or Asanas Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 6
5. Halasana:
Position-
In doing this asana one lies in the supine position.
Technique:

Raise both legs and keep head away and lift both feet and bring both legs behind the head.
Touch the thumb of your feet of the ground.
Maintain the position as you can.
Bring your feet at the same place from where you have started to left.

Advantages:

Hal Asana is very useful for every men and women of every age.
It is the best asana for the person of heart disease or a person who is suffering from high or low blood pressure.
It regulates the circulation of blood.
Removes fat of the body slim the waist and belly.
It provides flexibility to the backbone.
It make the body beautiful.
The face starts glittering like the sun.
It prevents skin diseases and removes constipation.

6. Garur Asana:
The position of Garur Asana in standing on both feet.
Techniques:

While standing straight, lift the left leg and encircle the other leg.
Left thigh will come over right thigh. The part of the lower leg will cover right side of the lower leg.
Put the body weight on one foot.
Encircle left arm to the right arm and left. Both palm and come to the position of Namaskar.
Then bend the left leg and bring the body in sitting position. In this way all nerves of the body will get stretched.
Again straighten up the body and come to the position of Attention.
Now change you legs and hands and repeat the same. Garur asana should be performed on each leg from one minute to five minutes.

Advantages of Garur Asana:

It strengthens all parts of the body.
Body becomes healthy.
It prevents the diseases of Hernia.
Legs become strong.
One feels fresh and light.
Circulation of blood increases.
Man remains healthy and away from so many diseases.

7. Searsh Asana:
Position: Bring your head down and keep legs upward.
Technique:

Put blanket or towel on the floor and sit down on your knees.
The fingers of both hands should be tightly interlocked put both hands on blanket.
Put your head between both hands in such a any that thumb of the hand may press back part of your head.
Bring both legs inside and put your thumb and legs straight upward.
Lift the feet gradually. Firstly straight one leg and another.
Try to keep your body in a straight line.
Put your body weight on head and both arms equally.
You can take help of the wall or your team-mates.

Advantages:

Increases appetite.
Make a person slim.
Live and spleen become more active.
It removes all diseases concerning primary track.
Piles are cured.
By doing regular parctice of Searsh Asana, mental diseases are cured.

Precautions:

When eyes become red, Asana should be stopped.
On feeling giddiness don’t do Searsh Asana.
Searsh Asana should sbe stopped while feeling too much air in the ears.
This asana should not be performed when inhalation becomes difficult.
When body do not bear the weight.
On shivering arms and legs.
While feeling uneasiness, Searsh Asana may not be performed.
Searsh Asana should be performed all alone.
Take assistance when you feel necessity.
Searsh Asana can be performed from one minute to five minutes. More time would be harmful.

8. Vajur Asana:
Position Sitting on legs while keeping his feet behind.
Technique:

Put on knees under your hip and sit down while facing the feet upper side.
The thumb of the feet should touch each other.
Both the knees may touch each other back and waist must be in a straight line.
Put both hands on the both thigh.
Breathing may be long.
Vajur Asana may be performed daily from three minutes to twenty minutes.

Advantages:

Body becomes more active.
Removes the fats of the body.
Body becomes healthy.
Muscles get strengthened.
It helps to get rid to Night fall. Vajur Asana
It removes the pain of feet and legs.
Mind becomes cool.
Person becomes care free.
It cures diabetes.
It improves digestion.

9. Yog Mudra:
In Yog Mudra, one sits in the position of Padamasana, bends the trunk and rests the head on the ground.

10. Mayur Asana:
In this asana, the body is balanced on the elbows in the horizontal position. The palms are placed on the ground.

11. Uddiyan:
In this asana, one keeps the feet separate, stands and bends the trunk forward. The hands are placed on things. Then one breathes out and copies breathing in, below the ribs.

12. Pranayam :
Anulom Vilom- In this asana, one sits down breathes in for a fixed time, holds the breath with the help of chin and breathes out.
Advantages: This asana cleanses the blood, nerve and mind.

13. Surya Namaskar:
Surya Namaskar has sixteen components but the sun having sixteen phases appears at the time of total annihilation of the universe. Normally, only twelve components of its are practised.

Advantages:
It is the best Yogic exercise. It yields the benefits of asana, mudra and pranayam. The body of the one who practises Surya Namaskar glitters like the sun. It prevents skin diseases. It removes constipation. The spinal cord and waist become flexible. The pregnant women and patients of hernia should not practice it.

14. Shav Asana.
In this asana, one lies down prostrate and loosens the body. In order to perform this asana, lie down straight on the ground over the back and loosen all the parts of the body completely. Gradually, breathe in deeply. The distance between the feet should be 1.5 ft. Keep the wrists of the hands away from the body, facing the sky. Close your eyes, introspect and think as if the body were getting loose. Feel that the body is in a position of rest. This asana should be performed for 3-5 minutes. It should be performed at the start and end of every asana.

Importance:

Shavasana helps in getting rid of high blood pressure and mental tension.
It keeps the heart and the brain fresh.
It removes the fatigue in the body.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules.

Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Mention the wrestling weight categories of men, Women and junior.
Answer:
AGE GROUP:
Above 20 Years-

Senior Men		Senior Women
First Group	48-54 K.G.	41-46 KG.
Second Group	58 KG.	51 KG.
Third Group	63 K.G.	56 KG.
Fourth Group	69 K.G.	62 KG.
Fifth Group	76 K.G.	68 KG.
Sixth Group	85 K.G.	68-75’KG.
Seventh Group	97 K.G.
Eighth Group	97-130 K.G.

From 17 years to 20 years old:

Junior Boys		Junior Girls
First Group	46-49 KG.	40-43 KG.
Second Group	52 KG.	46 KG.
Third Group	56 KG.	50 KG.
Fourth Group	60 KG.	54 KG.
Fifth Group	65 K.G.	58 KG.
Sixth Group	70 KG.	63 KG.
Seventh Group	76 KG.	68 KG.
Eighth Group	83 KG.	68-75 KG.
Ninth Group	90 KG.
Tenth Group	90-115 KG.

From 15 years to 16 years:

Sub Junior Boys		Sub Junior Girls
First Group	39-42 K.G.	36-38 KG.
Second Group	45 KG.	40 KG.
Third Group	48 K.G.	43 KG.
Fourth Group	52 K.G.	46 KG.
Fifth Group	57 KG.	49 KG.
Sixth Group	63 KG.	52 KG.
Seventh Group	69 KG	56 KG.
Eighth Group	76 KG.	60 KG.
Ninth Group	83 KG.	65 KG.
Tenth Group	83-95 KG.	65-75 KG.

From 13 years to 14 years old:

Sub Junior Boys		Sub Junior Girls
First Group	29-32 KG.	20-30 KG.
Second Group	35 KG.	32 KG.
Third Group	38 KG.	34 KG.
Fourth Group	42 KG.	37 KG.
Fifth Group	48 KG.	40 KG.
Sixth Group	54 KG.	44 KG.
Seventh Group	58 KG.	48 KG.
Eighth Group	66 KG.	52 KG.
Ninth Group	71 KG	57 KG.
Tenth Group	71-85 KG	57-62 KG.

Every participants will take part according to his own body weight.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules of weighing and pairing of competitors.
Answer:
Rules for Weighing and Pairing of Competitors:
Weighing of the Competitors-

Weighing of competitors shall begin two to four hours before the wrestling competition begins.
The competitors shall be weighed without clothes. They shall be medically examined by a doctor before they are weighed. The doctor will remove any player suffering from any contagious disease.

Each contestant can participate in wrestling with a player belonging to his weight-group.
The competitors should be in a perfect physical condition. Their nails should be well pared. They shall be checked at the time of medical examination.
Weighing shall start at least two hours before the competition and must conclude an hour before the first wrestling bout.
Before the completion of weighing, a contestant may stand any time on the weighing machine for recording his weight, but he should not be out of turn.

Pairing-off by drawing lots:
In each bout all the players shall be included by draw of lots. Those contestants whose lots follow one after the other shall wrestle in the first round. If the wrestler bears odd numbers, the wrestler who scores more marks shall enter the bye of the next round without marking the penalty. The “right to bye can be got only by lot. In making pairs for the second round, the topmost name of the list is paired with the second next to him but this is done in case they have not wrestled before. If, while making pairs, two contestants figure together in the same place, they shall wrestle with each other in the first round.

Question 3.
What type of dress should a wrestler wear? Mention the duration of wrestling bout.
Answer:
Costume of wrestlers, Mat, Start and Duration of Wrestling.
Stoppage of Wrestling Bout, End of Bout-
Dress:
The wrestlers shall enter the arena in a one-piece jersey, banian or ‘jangia’ (red or blue) beneath which they shall wear a jock strap. They will wear costumes which fit their body very well, and is not loose. They will wear sports shoes firmly closing the anklets. The use of light knee guards is allowed. A contestant shall be closely shaved or with a beard of many months growth.

The contestants cannot use oil or any other greasy substance on their bodies. Their bodies should not be wet with perspiration. The use of rings, bracelets, shoes with buttons and any other such thing which may harm or hurt a player is prohibited. Every contestant should have his own handkerchief.

Mat:
The mat at all international matches should be 9 metres in circle (with a radius of 4.50 m.), and from its other ring a ring of 50 cms. is drawn. This place is marked with red colour. It should be fixed on a platform, 1.10. metre in height. The ends of the mat should have red or blue comers, and there should be a circle of 1 metre in the middle.

Start Of Wrestling Bout And Its Duration:

The duration of each bout is of 6 minutes. It is divided into two periods of 3 minutes each. A rest of 1 minute is given after the first three minute bout.
The bout shall continue until a player falls down, otherwise it shall continue for 6 minutes.
If a player does not»enter the mat after five minutes of call, he shall be considered defeated and turned out of the competition.
The wrestling bout shall start, interrupt or end on the whistle of the referee.

End of the Bout-
The end of the bout is indicated by the ringing of gong by the time keeper. The referee, too, blows his whittle as a signal for the end of the bout. If the referee does not hear the gong, the Mat chairman interferes immediately and get the bout closed. No act is considered valid in between the sound of gong and the referee’s whistle.

The two contestants stand on either side of referee to receive, the decision. The Mat chairman declares the winner by raising the winner’s colour. Thereafter, the winner’s arm is raised by the referee. If there is a tie, the arms of both players are raised. No contestant shall loosen the straps of his dress before the decision is given.

Question 4.
What are the foul holds in wrestling ?
Answer:
Foul-holds:
The following fouls are taken into consideration-

Pulling of hair, ears, dress, private organs, etc.
Twisting of fingers, grasping of the throat and other holds which may be life-endangering.
Holding in such a manner as may put the opponent’s life in danger, or may hurt any of his body part, or cause him pain so that the opponent helplessly leaves the bout.
Treading on the feet of the rival.
Touching the face of the opponent (from the eye-brows to the chin).
Grasping the opponent by throat.
Lifting the rival when he is in bridge position, and then throwing him on the mat.
Breaking the bridge by giving a push from the head.
Twisting the opponent’s arm at above 90° angle.
Grasping the opponent’s head with both hands.
Thrusting the elbow or knee into the abdomen or stomach of the rival.
Turning the opponent’s arm to the back the pressing it.
Grasping the opponent’s head in any manner.
Applying leg-scissors on the body or head.
Holding on to the mat.
Talking to each other and making dangerous assault.
Cautions:

Precautions may be taken in the following conditions :
(a) Permanent obstacles
(b) Foul holds
(c) Indiscipline at the time of bout
(d) Breach of rules-

These precautions shall be taken into account along with other fouls of the bout.
A player may be declared defeated after he has been warned, thrice.
A player, in case of major offence, may be removed from the bout.

Obstacles:

Lying in abdomen position.
Going out of the mat knowingly.
Holding of both the hands of the opponent so that he may not play.
A player may be given warning if he goes out of the mat.

Stoppage of Bout:
A bout may be suspended for five minutes at the most because of a bleeding nose, headlong fall or any acceptable reason. This obstacle in one or two bouts may be of maximum 5 minutes for each contestant.

Question 5.
Describe the officials for the conduct of wrestling. How is victory or defeat decided in wrestling ?
Answer:
Score:
(a) One Point:

to a player who throws a rival on the mat and maintains control over him,
to that player who rises from beneath and maintains his hold on his opponent,
to a player who makes a good grasp and does not allow his opponent’s head and shoulder to touch the mat,
for one precaution the opponent gets one point.

Two Points:

to that player who keeps good hold on his opponent and maintains his hold on him for some time
to that player whose opponent immediately falls or falteringly falls.

to a player who keeps his opponent in danger (when shoulders make an angle of less than 90° from the mat) for five seconds,
bridge position for three seconds or fall takes five seconds.

Decision.
When there is a difference of less than one point in or the score of the opposite players, the match ends in a draw. Again, if no contestant scores any point, or the points are equal, the match ends in a draw. If the difference is more than one point, a player 1 with more points is declared the winner.

Fall:

For full fall it is sufficient if the shoulder of the wrestler touches that mat.
The fall shall be considered if the referee raises no objection.
For proper fall on the edge of the mat the head and shoulders of the contestant shall touch the limits of mat.

Winning by Points:
If there is no foul within six minutes, the decision is made by points. The player scoring higher points shall be the winner.
Rules for Final-

The final match is played among three wrestlers.
The players who have scored 6 penalty marks cannot take part in the final match.
When the three players with less than 6 penalty marks reach the final, the points scored by them are nullified.
If those players have already competed, the former penalty marks are counted in the final.
The penalty marks of the contestants in the final must be kept in view.
If each of the three contestants has already scored 6 points, they will forfeit their points as mentioned above.
If the three contestants of the final have already scored 6 points each, he shall be awarded the third position and the remaining two shall wrestle for first position.
The player who scores minimum penalty point in the last three bouts shall be the winner.
If the penalty points of the finalists are equal, the decision is made keeping in views the following:
- The victory scored on points.
- The number of points being equal.
- The number of fouls.
- In case of tie, the player with minimum warnings is declared the winner.
- If there is still a tie, both the players are declared equal.

Officials:
There are three officials in all types of wrestling matches:

Mat Chairman
Referee
Judge

No official can be changed during the wrestling.

Important Information about the Wrestling-Free Style And Greeco Roman Game

Shape of the mat of wrestling = Round
Size of mat = 4.50 m Radius
Colour of Round = Red
Height of Mats from platform = 1.10 meter
Colour of the Corner = Red and Blue
Duration of Bout = 6 minutes, 2-2-2 minutes (three half)
Total weight for men = 9
Total weight for women = 7
Total weight for Junior = 10
Officials for wrestling= One mat chairman,Two referees, Three Judges
Rest after bout =30 seconds
Undisturb area around the mat = 1.50 meter
The player who is to play in a wrestling competition should be perfectly healthy. He should not be suffering
from any infectious disease.
The competitors of wrestling should have well-pared nails. They
The duration of this game is 6 minutes.
It is a foul to pull the hair, flesh, ear or private organs of an opposing player in a game of wrestling.
By raising the colour of the winning team the Head of the match declares the winner.
The player who has been warned thrice by the referee is considered defeated.
The competitor cannot wear iron bracelet or ring, etc.
The player who competes in wrestling should have a cut beard or have a fresh shave.
No official conducting the game can be changed during the play.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 6 Operating Systems Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Operating Systems Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
An operating system is a:
(a) Terminal
(b) Software
(c) Storage system
(d) Processor
Answer:
(b) Software

Question 2.
The process of running multiple applications at the same time is known as:
(a) Multi-application
(b) Multi processing
(c) Multi programming
(d) Multi timing
Answer:
(c) Multi programming

Question 3.
It enables us to access internet securely and prevent unauthorized applications and people from accessing our PC:
(a) Anti-Virus
(b) Security
(c) Firewall
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Firewall

Question 4.
The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is:
(a) Response time
(b) Access time
(c) Output time
(d) Total time
Answer:
(a) Response time

Question 5.
Remote access to servers is possible from different locations in:
(a) Batch Processing System
(b) Time Sharing System
(c) Network Operating System
(d) Distributed system
Answer:
(c) Network Operating System

2. Fill In The Blanks

1. A …………………. represents a collection of related
Answer:
Pile, Information.

2. ………….. system use multiple processors to serve ………… multiple real-time applications and multiple users.
Answer:
Distributed, Central

3. …………..is the process of preventing and detecting ……….. use of our computer.
Answer:
Computer Security, Unauthorized

4. …………. provide access to accounts arid enable us to perform various activities linked with account like shopping, emailing, online transactions etc.
Answer:
Passwords, Online

5. …………. are used when there are time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data.
Answer:
Real Time Systems, Rigid.

3. True or False

1. The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is termed as the response time.
Answer:
True

2. Anti-virus software alone is enough to be secure from Internet Security threats.
Answer:
False

3. An Operating System cannot manage the communication between user and device drivers.
Answer:
False

4. Linux source code is freely available and it is community based development project.
Answer:
True

5. The OS manages all kinds of resources using schedulers.
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 6 Operating Systems

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
An interface between computer user and computer hardware is called?
Answer:
Operating System

Question 2.
What hides the peculiarities of specific hardware devices from the users?
Answer:
Drivers

Question 3.
A mechanism or a way to control the access of programs, processes, or users to the resources defined by a computer system is called?
Answer:
Protection

Question 4.
The process of preventing and detecting unauthorized use of our computer is called?
Answer:
Computer Security

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is an operating system?
Answer:
Operating system is an interface between user and computer. It communicates whatever the user says to the hardware of computer.

Question 2.
List type of operating systems.
Answer:
Different types of operating system are:

Batch processing operating system.
Time sharing operating system.
Network operating system.
Real time operating system.
Distributed operating system.

Question 3.
Explain real time operating system.
Answer:
A real-time system is defined as a data processing system in which the time interval required to process and respond to inputs is so small that it controls the environment. In this type of operating system, the response time is very less as compared to online processing.
Real-time systems are used when there are rigid time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data. A real-time operating system must have well-defined, fixed time constraints, otherwise the system will fail.

Question 4.
What are the functions of operating system? Make a list.
Answer:
Following are the functions of operating system:

It provides programs an environment to execute.
It provides users the services to execute the programs in a convenient manner.

Following are a few common services provided by an operating system:

Program execution
I/O operations
File System manipulation
Communication
Error Detection
Resource Allocation
Protection.

Question 5.
What do you mean by computer security?
Answer:
Computer security is the process of preventing and detecting unauthorized use of our computer. Prevention measures help us to stop unauthorized users (hackers) from accessing any part of our computer system. Detection helps us to determine whether or not someone attempted to break into our system, if they were successful, and what they may have done.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain functions of operating system
Answer:
Following are the functions of operating system:
1. Program Execution:
Operating systems handle many kinds of activities from user programs to system programs like printer spooler, name servers, file server, etc. Each of these activities is encapsulated as a process.

2. I/O Operation:
An I/O subsystem comprises of I/O devices and their corresponding driver software. Drivers hide the peculiarities of specific hardware devices from the users. An Operating System manages the communication between user and device drivers.

3. File System Manipulation:
A file system is normally organized into directories for easy navigation and usage. These directories may contain files and other directions. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to file management:

Program needs to read a file or write a file.
The operating system gives the permission to the program for operation on file.
Permission varies from read-only, read-write, denied and so on.
Operating system provides an interface to the user to create/delete files.
Operating system provides an interface to the user to create/delete directories.
Operating system provides an interface to create the backup of file system,

4. Communication:
In case of distributed systems which are a collection of processors that do not share memory, peripheral devices, or a clock, the operating system manages communications between all the processes. Multiple processes communicate with one another through communication lines in the network. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to communication:

Two processes often require data to be transferred between them.
Both the processes can be on one computer or on different computers, but are connected through a computer network.
Communication may be implemented by two methods, either by Shared Memory or by Message Passing.

5. Error Detection:
An error may occur in CPU, in I/O devices or in the memory hardware. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to error detection:
1. The OS constantly checks for possible errors.
2. The OS takes an appropriate action to ensure correct and consistent computing.

6. Resource Management.
In case of multi-user or multi-tasking environment, resources such as main memory, CPU cycles and files storage are to be allocated to each user or job. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to resource management:

It acts like a resource manager. The OS manages all kinds of resources using schedulers.
CPU scheduling algorithms are used for better utilization of CPU.

7. Protection:
Protection refers to a mechanism or a way to control the access of programs, processes, or users to the resources defined by a computer system. Following are the major activities of an operating system with respect to protection:

The OS ensures that all access to system resources is controlled.
The OS ensures that external I/O devices are protected from invalid access attempts.
The OS provides authentication features for each user by means of passwords.

Question 2.
What are the basic features of Linux?
Answer:
The basic features of Linux operating system are:
1. Portable:
Portability means software can works on different types of hardware in same way. Linux kernel and application programs supports their installation on any kind of hardware platform.

2. Open Source:
Linux source code is freely available and it is community based development project. Multiple teams work in collaboration to enhance the capability of Linux operating system and it is continuously evolving.

3. Multi-User:
Linux is a multiuser system means multiple users can access system resources like memory/ram/application programs at same time.

4. Multiprogramming: Linux is a multiprogramming system means multiple applications can run at same time.

5. Hierarchical File System:
Linux provides a standard file structure in which system files/user files are arranged. Files and directories are arranged in tree structure form.

6. Shell:
Linux provides a special interpreter program which can be used to execute commands of the operating system. It can be used to do various types of operations, call application programs, etc.

7. Security:
Linux provides user security using authentication features like password protection/controlled access to specific files/encryption of data.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Operating Systems Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one is function of operating system related to program management?
a) Execution
(b) Controt
(c) Loading
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(d) All of above.

Question 2.
Main function of shared memory is:
(a) to use primary memory efficently
(b) to do intra process communication
(c) to do inter process communication
(d) none of above
Answer:

Question 3.
Memory protection is normally done by:
(a) the processor and the associated hardware
(b) the operating system
(c) the compiler
(d) the user program
Answer:
(a) the processor and the associated hardware

Question 4.
Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking truly?
(a) Windows 98
(b) Windows NT
(c) Windows XP
(d) MS DOS
Answer:
(d) MS DOS

Question 5.
What are the functions of operating system?
(a) Memory management
(b) Process management
(c) Device management
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Fill in the Blanks

1. Operating system is …………. software.
Answer:
System

2. Memory management is function of ……………
Answer:
Operating System

3. File management is function of ……………
Answer:
Operating System.

True or False

1. Operating system in application software.
Answer:
False

2. Windows is uni-tasking operating system.
Answer:
False

3. Unix is not an operating system.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the function which deals with hardware.
Answer:
Device management.

Question 2.
Name the most important system software
Answer:
Operating system.

Question 3.
Name the most famous operating system.
Answer:
MS Windows.

Question 4.
Name the most secured operating system proven.
Answer:
UNIX.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain advantages of time sharing operating system.
Answer:
Following are advantages of time sharing operating system.
1. Immediates response is available.
2. It is best suitable operating system for system who need quick response.

Question 2.
Explain disadvantages of time Sharing Operating System.
Answer:
Following are disadvantages of time sharing operating system.
1. It is not suitbale for long tasks
2. Important job may be completed in long time.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain distributed operating system in detail.
Answer:
Distributed Operating System:
Distributed systems use multiple central processors to serve multiple real-time applications and multiple users. Data processing jobs are distributed among the processors accordingly.The processors communicate with one another through various communication lines (such as high-speed buses or telephone lines). These are referred as loosely coupled systems or distributed systems. Processors in a distributed system may vary in size and function. These processors are referred as sites, nodes, computers, and so on. The advantages of distributed systems are as follows:

With resource sharing facility, a user at one site may be able to use the resources available at another.
Speedup the exchange of data with one another via electronic mail.
If one site fails in a distributed system, the remaining sites can potentially continue operating.
Better service to the customers.
Reduction of the load on the host computer.
Reduction of delays in data processing.

Question 2.
Discuss network operating system along with its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Network Operating System:
A Network Operating System runs on a server arid provides the server the capability to manage data, users, groups, security, applications, and other networking functions. The primary purpose of the network operating system is to allow shared file and printer access among multiple computers in a network, typically a local area network (LAN), a private network or to other networks.
Examples of network operating systems include Microsoft Windows Server 2003, Microsoft Windows Server 2008, UNIX, Linux, Mac OS X, Novell NetWare and BSD.

The advantages of network operating systems are as follows:

Centralized servers are highly stable.
Security is server managed.
Upgrades to new technologies and hardware can be easily integrated into the system.
Remote access to servers is possible from different locations and types of systems

The disadvantages of network operating systems are as follows:

High cost of buying and running a server.
Dependency on a central location(server) for most operations.
Regular maintenance and updates are required.

Multi Programming:
Multi Programming Operating System is the name given to the interleaved execution of two or more different and independent programs by the same computer. Interleaving of programs mean chain of programs that are either in running phase, ready or blocked phase. It is an efficient way to improve the system performance.

Multi programming approach permits more than one job to utilize the CPU time at any moment by applying the scheduling techniques like first come first serve, shortest job first etc . The more the number of programs requesting for system resources, resource utilization would be better. The operating system picks up any of the programs as scheduled and starts execution.

An OS does the following activities related to multiprogramming.

The operating system keeps several jobs in memory at a time.
This set of jobs is a subset of the jobs kept in the job pool.
The operating system picks and begins to execute one of the jobs in the memory.
Multiprogramming operating systems monitor the state of all active programs and system resources using
memory management programs to ensure that the CPU is never idle, unless there are no jobs to process.

Advantages:

High and efficient CPU utilization.
User feels that many programs are allotted CPU almost simultaneously.

Disadvantages:

CPU scheduling is required.
To accommodate many jobs in memory, memory management is required.

Question 3.
Discuss Real Time Operating System in detail.
Answer:
Time Sharing:
A real-time system is defined as a data processing system in which the time interval required to process and respond to inputs is so small that it controls the environment. The time taken by the system to respond to an input and display of required updated information is termed as the response time.

So in this method, the response time is very less as compared to online processing. Real-time systems are used when there are rigid time requirements on the operation of a processor or the flow of data. A real-time operating system must have well-defined, fixed time constraints, otherwise the system will fail.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by democracy?
Answer:
According to Lincoln, “Democracy is the government of the people, for the people and by the people.” In other words, democracy means that form of government in which people rule themselves either directly or indirectly.

Question 2.
Explain Etymological meaning of democracy.
Answer:
The word ‘Democracy’ has been derived from two Greek words, ‘Demos’ and ‘Kratos’. Demo means “The people’ and Kratos means ‘The power’. Democracy, in this way, is a form of government in which the ruling power is vested in the hands of the people.

Question 3.
Describe the one main condition for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Main condition necessary for the success of democracy is :

Educated and good citizens.
Free and impartial press and judiciary.
Well-organised political parties.
Co-operation and toleration among the citizens. (Any. one)

Question 4.
How many types of election systems are there in the world?
Answer:
There are two types of methods of elections: (i) Direct election (ii) Indirect election. In the direct election, the citizens themselves elect the members of the Legislature. In the indirect election, the representatives of the citizens elect the members of the Legislature.

Question 5.
What do you mean by public opinion?
Answer:
Public opinion means the opinion of people on a’particular matter of public interest. People’s voice is the voice of God. A government that ignores the public opinion cannot be stable.

Question 6.
When and under whom the Indian National Congress was formed?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. It was founded by an English officer named Mr. AO. Hume. Its first session was presided over by Mr. Womesh Chandra Banerji (W.C. Banerji).

Question 7.
When and under whom the Shiromani Akali Dal was formed?
Answer:
The Shiromani Akali Dal was established in 1920 A.D. to bring about reforms in the Sikh Gurudwaras. It was formed under the twin leadership of Master Tara Singh and Sardar Kharak Singh.

Question 8.
Why is India a Secular State?
Answer:
India is a Secular State because India has no state religion.

Question 9.
Describe the ideological base of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:

To bring about the reforms in the Gurudwaras and their management.
To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
To end poverty and hunger.
To make economic set-up more just.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on National Political Parties of India.
Answer:
There are seven National Political Parties—Indian National Congress, Bhartiya Janata Party, Communist Party of India, Marxist Communist Party of India, Bahujan Smaj Party, National Congress Party, Trinmool Congress Party.

Question 11.
Explain ideology of Indian National Congress.
Answer:

Promotion of Secularism and Socialism
Non-alignment
Reforms in industrial field
Modernisation of agriculture.

Question 12.
Describe the ideological base of the Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:

The party has pledged itself to defend the unity and integrity of India.
The party stands? for positive Secularism.

Question 13.
Explain the ideology of the Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
This party believes in the ideology of Karl Marx and Lenin. Its aims is to uplift the working class and make it the ruling class.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main features of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main important features of the Indian democracy :

The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar to the principle of democratic equality.
Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of India.
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
The Constitution also provides for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to all Indians without any kind of discrimination.
Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the electoral process in India.
Answer:
In India election procedure is as follows :

Constituencies. The first important task in the process of election is the delimitation of the constituencies.
Election Notification. The process of election begins with the notification of election. For the elections of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, notification is issued by the President.
Filing of the Nomination Papers. The Election Commission fixes a last date for filing the nomination papers.
Scrutiny of Nomination Papers. On the fixed date, nomination papers are scrutinised by the. Returning Officer and the names of the eligible candidates are announced.
Election Campaign. With the announcement of election, political parties and independent candidates start election propaganda and try to influence the voters.
Polling. On the day of the polling, holiday is declared so that each voter can cast his vote.
Counting of votes and declaration of result. On the fixed date, EVMs are opened in the presence of the representatives of the candidates and votes are counted. A candidate getting the highest number of votes is declared elected. Every candidate is expected to submit the details of his expenses in the election, within 45 days after the election is over.

Question 3.
Name the main means of formation and expression of the Public Opinion.
Answer:
The main means of formation and expression of the public opinion are given below :

Public Meetings. Public meetings stimulate and create public interest in great political, social and economic questions through speeches delivered by men in the domain of public life.
Educational Institutions. It is in the schools, colleges and universities that the life of the would be citizens is moulded.
Role of Newspapers. Newspaper is a very important source of formulating public opinion.
Television. Television moulds public opinion by broadcasting news and comments. It makes the people politically conscious.
Press. Public opinion is formed by newspapers, by presenting news and views on matters of public importance of national and international character.
Political Parties. Political parties help to create public interest without which there can be no public opinion.

Question 4.
Describe the role and importance of Public Opinion.
Answer:
The role of the public opinion in democracy is very important. Public welfare is the basis of public opinion. It always reminds the government of its duties. The fact is that public opinion is the soul of democracy. The source of power of a democratic government is public opinion. The public opinion is the foundation which makes a government stable. The Government always tries its best to mould the public opinion in its favour. The Government implements its policies keeping in view the will and directions of the public opinion. The Government, which ignores the public opinion, becomes dictatorial and puts democracy into danger. Such a government loses the confidence of the people. As a result, it faces a defeat in the elections. That is why the Government tries not to go against the public opinion.

Write a short note on the following :

Question 1.
Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:
1. Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal. (Pb. 2016 I) The Shiromani Akali Dal was founded in 1920. A constitution of the party was approved in the meeting of its executive on September 2, 1974. According to it, the following are the objectives of the Akali Dal:

To bring about reforms in the Gurudwaras and look after them properly.
To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
To end poverty and hunger. To make economic set up more just and to reduce economic inequality between the rich and the poor.
To put an end to illiteracy, untouchability and discrimination.
To make arrangements for public health and security.

Question 2.
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
The Bhartiya Janata Party was organised on April 6, 1980. Today, this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of its policies and programmes :

The B.J.P. believes that centre-state relations should be improved and it favours the implementation of the main recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
For free and fair elections, the B.J.P. will update and adopt the Goswami Committee Report.
The B. J.P. will appoint a Lok Pal to entertain complaints of corruption against anybody holding public office including the Prime Minister.
For better Local self-government at the village level, the B. J.P. will make changes in the Constitution and further strengthen the Panchayati Raj system.
The B.J.P. will set up regional councils for Kashmir, Jammu and Laddakh.
The B.J.P. will set up a National Security Council.

Question 3.
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. Even today this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of the policies and programmes of this party :

Firm faith in secularism and democracy.
To promote socialism along with economic liberalism.
To give the status of industry to agriculture. To grant loans to the farmers at low rates of interest.
To exempt the industry from licence system and end “the inspector Raj”. To encourage foreign investment.
To provide jobs to the unemployed. To improve the economic condition of the working class, to give financial aid to the backward and weak classes to raise their standard of living.
To improve the condition of the minorities and the women.
To frame foreign policy based on Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Formation of Communist Party of India.
Answer:
Formation of Communist Party of India. In the beginning of the 20th century, a group of redical youth within Indian National Congress was not satisfied with its policies. Russian Revolution inspired under the leadership of inspired Indian Youth for attaining independence through revolution. These disgruntled youth formed many Marxist organisations and assembled at Kanpur 1924 under the leadership of Manvinder Nath Rai. this led to the formation of the Communist Party of India.

Question 5.
Role of the Opposition.
Answer:
Role of the Opposition. (Pb. 2003 D) In a democratic country like India opposition performs many functions and the most important ones are as follow:

Criticism of the Government. One of the most important functions of the opposition is to criticise the Government. The opposition points out the drawbacks in the laws, policies, plans and programmes of the government.
Suggestions to Government. The opposition not only criticises the policies of the Government but also gives suggestions and proposals to remove its drawbacks.
Alternative Programmes. The opposition provides drafts of alternative laws, policies, plans and programmes to ensure the social, economic and cultural welfare of the people.
The opposition plays an important role in the working of democratic set-up. It makes democracy real and effective. It exposes the lapses of the government before the people.
The opposition parties safeguard the interests and liberties of the people by checking the despotism of the government.
The opposition provides a ready alternative government.

Question 6.
Essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
An essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.

A democratic society is necessary for the success of a democracy or democratic country in which there must be political equality.
There has to be earth presence of equal and open thinking in society and it is very much necessary for the success of democracy.
Economic equality must be provided. It means that everyone should be provided equal opportunities for development. It is a guarantee of the success of democracy.
Educated citizens must be there. Democracy is a system that involves a continues and active movement of the people in the political process. That’s why it is essential that literary should be widespread.

Question 7.
Main Principles of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Main Principles of Indian Democracy;
Following are the main important. features of the Indian democracy:

The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar t.o the principle of democratic equality.
Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of india.
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
The Constitution also provides, for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to nil Indians without any kind of discrimination.
Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

Question 8.
Indian Democracy at work.
Answer:
Indian Democracy at work. Indian democracy is working quite successfully. India is having indirect democracy in which decisions are taken by the elected representatives of the people. Democracy is completely dependent upon elections and free and fair elections are held India by an independent Election Commission. All the political parties are free to work in society to create public opinion in their favour. Many political parties exist in India which give great contribution in making Indian democracy a great success. So, we can say that Indian democracy is successfully working.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Democracy at Work Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Why are modern democracies indirect or representative?
Answer:
Because modern states are large in size, having a large area with huge population.

Question 2.
What is an election manifesto?
Answer:
It is a document which tells the programme, principles, objectives and promises of a party or a candidate.

Question 3.
Why are election symbols allotted to political parties in India?
Answer:
To facilitate uneducated voters to instantly recognise the party of their choice.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Secret Ballot?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot system means the casting of vote by a voter remains a secret process.

Question 5.
How are the representatives of people kept under check in democracy?
Answer:
The representatives who do not work well can be removed through election.

Question 6.
What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?
Answer:
By Rule of Law we mean that the government rules according to the law of the land.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of Communalism?
Answer:
Communalism is an ideology which emphasizes the separate identity of a religious group in relation to other groups.

Question 8.
What is the importance of democracy in the modern age?
Answer:
The people get all opportunities of making progress only in a democracy.

Question 9.
Describe any one obstacle in the way of public opinion.
Answer:
Illiteracy. An illiterate person cannot form a sound.public opinion.

Question 10.
How does cinema express the public opinion?
Answer:
Films throw light on the failures and achievements of the government.

Question 11.
Give any one point showing the importance of political parties.
Answer:
A political party, after winning the elections, comes to power and forms the government.

Question 12.
How are the ideas of democracy and citizenship interlinked with each other?
Answer:
The success of democracy depends on enlightened, honest and vigilant citizens.

Question 13.
Write any one essential condition for the free expression of public opinion.
Answer:
Press and other means of communication should be free and impartial.

Question 14.
Name any one agency through which public opinion is usually expressed.
Answer:
Newspapers or the Press.

Question 15.
After coming to power, the government cannot ignore the public opinion. Why?
Answer:
It is pushed out of power in the next elections.

Question 16.
What is meant by Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The adult franchise means the right of voting is granted to all the adults.

Question 17.
What is the importance of free and impartial elections in democracy?
Answer:
The people elect the representatives of their own choice.

Question 18.
What is an election process?
Answer:
The process by which the citizens cast their votes and elect their representatives.

Question 19.
What do you mean by the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The right of voting granted to ail the adults

Question 20.
Mention one feature of an election manifesto.
Answer:
It tells the voters about the policies, of the political parties.

Question 21.
Describe any one technique of an election campaign.
Answer:
Political parties arrange public meetings and processions to win over the voters in their favour.

Question 22.
Mention three functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

Conducting the elections
Counting of votes
Declaring the results of elections.

Question 23.
What is a political party?
Answer:
It is group of citizens having common views on public questions and is organised as a political unit to obtain control of the government.

Question 24.
What do you understand by single-party system?
Answer:
A single party system is that system where only one party functions in the whole of the state.

Question 25.
What do you understand by two party system?
Answer:
Where there are two major political parties in a country.

Question 26.
What do you understand by Multi-Party system?
Answer:
When there are more than two well-organised political parties in a country.

Question 27.
What is a regional party?
Answer:
A party that is organised in a particular region or a state is called a regional party.

Question 28.
Mention any one difference between a regional party and a national party.
Answer:
A national party has influence all over the country whereas the influence of a regional party is limited to a particular region or a state.

Question 29.
Describe any one function of the opposition party in a democracy.
Answer:
It points out the faults of the government.

Question 30.
What do you mean by proportional representation?
Answer:
It is an electoral device designed to ensure representation of all sections of public opinion in proportion to their voting strength.

Question 31.
What is meant by election symbol?
Answer:
In elections, a special symbol is allotted to every candidate. It is called an election symbol.

Question 32.
What do you mean by simple majority system?
Answer:
A candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

Question 33.
What kind of Democratic Government is in India? (Pb. 2002A)
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Democracy is of two types direct and _________
Answer:
indirect

Question 2.
_________ is a key for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Enlightened citizens

Question 3.
India has a _________ government.
Answer:
democratic

Question 4.
Equality and liberty are the basic principles of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 5.
In India all adult citizens who have attained the age of _________ have been given right to vote.
Answer:
18

Question 6.
An important pillar of Indian democracy is an independent _________
Answer:
judiciary

Question 7.
Political fights are heart and soul of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 8.
Public meetings are important means for formation of _________
Answer:
public opinion

Question 9.
Indian National Congress was established in _________
Answer:
1885

Question 10.
Bhartiya Janata Party was established in _________
Answer:
1980.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India the losing parties accept the verdict.
Answer:
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.

Question 2.
The Communist Party of India was formally founded in the year :
(a) 1924
(b) 1885
(c) 1925
(d) 1906.
Answer:
(a) 1924

Question 3.
Bharatiya Janata Party was founded in :
(a) 1952
(b) 1977
(c) 1980
(d) 1984.
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 4.
Which of the following is a National Party?
(a) Akali Dal
(b) Janata Party
(c) National Conference
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress.

Question 5.
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by :
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor.
Answer:
(b) President

Question 6.
Which of the following is a regional political party?
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal
(b) National Democratic Alliance
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal

Question 7.
Which of the following is responsible for conducting free and fair elections?
(a) Parliament
(b) Election Commission
(c) President
(d) Speaker.
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by democracy in modern times?
Answer:
Modem age is an age of democracy. By democracy we mean the government in which the supreme power of the state is vested in the people. The people directly or indirectly take part in the administrative affairs of the state. The representatives of people make and implement laws keeping in view the welfare of the people. The public can unseat a representative in case he does not work upto their expectations. In fact, democracy is a government of the people, for the people and by the people.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the principle of Political Equality?
Answer:
By political equality, we mean that all the people should enjoy equal democratic rights. According to this principle, we must not classify the citizens under different categories. So it is clear that political equality means equality before law. All the citizens should hold their positions according to their capability and efficiency. There should be no discrimination on the-basis of caste, colour and creed.

Question 3.
Differentiate between direct and indirect democracy.
Answer:
Democracy can be classified into two categories :

Direct Democracy.
Indirect Democracy.

1. Direct Democracy. In direct democracy, all the citizens of the state directly participate in the administrative affairs of the state. Every citizen takes part in the making and implementation of laws and levying taxes, in deciding the policy of the government and all other important affairs of the state. Even the representatives could be asked to resign if they did not work to their satisfaction.

2. Indirect Democracy. Under indirect democracy, the citizens do not take direct part in the state affairs. They, on the other hand, elect their representatives who run the government on their behalf.

Question 4.
How is the public opinion formed? How can it be expressed?
Answer:
It is the age of democracy and public opinion is the backbone of democracy. A strong public opinion is not formed by itself. Political parties, rulers, leaders, press etc. contribute to its formation.

The following means are used in the formation and expression of public opinion :

The political leaders put their views before the. people in public meetings and assemblies. They explain the policy of their party. Thus people come to know about the various problems and their solutions. This helps in the formation and expression of public opinion.
The press is the main instrument of formation and expression of public opinion. Through the press, the people can express their opinions freely.
The radio, television, literature, cinema, educational institutions and religious institutions all help in the formation and expression of public opinion.

Question 5.
Explain the hurdles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy for its successful working demands awakened citizens, high calibers, good character leaders with a sense of responsibility and keen interest in the success of democracy. Social conditions are political and economic equality; co-operative and tolerant citizens, well organised political parties, independent judiciary and free press. Absence of these essential conditions is the main hurdle in the way of democracy.

Question 6.
How can obstacles in the way of democracy be removed? Give any two remedies.
Answer:
The obstacles in the way of democracy can be removed in the following two ways :

Spread of Education. Only educated and able citizens can make democracy successful. So education should be wide-spread. All citizens should be educated. Primary education should be made free and compulsory.
Free and Honest Press. A sound public opinion is the backbone of democracy. Press (newspapers) is an effective instrument of public opinion. So it is very necessary to have an honest and free press for the success of democracy. The press should not be controlled either by the government or big industrialists.

Question 7.
Why are modern democracies indirect?
Answer:
Modern states are very large. The number of citizens runs into crores. It is not possible for them to run the government of a country directly. They cannot even assemble at one place. Moreover, we need an organised body, and not a crowd for running the government. The voters elect their representatives to the legislatures or other offices. The number of elected representatives is not very large. This can run the government smoothly and efficiently. That is why, modern democracies are indirect.

Question 8.
What is the importance of Representation in Democracy?
Answer:
In the modern age, democratic governments are representative governments. It means all depends upon the representation. Modern states have grown in size and population, making it impossible for the people to participate in the affairs of the state. Thus, the system of representation helps them in electing their representatives to run the government. Moreover, the government can know the views of the people and their difficulties and this helps the government in framing right policies to run the administration. Thus the government functions according to the will of the people through their representatives. Thus we see that representation in democracy has great importance.

Question 9.
What is meant, by the responsible government?
Answer:
By responsible government, we mean the governments which were established after the revolutions in England and France. These governments could not be despotic. They had to function according to the law of the land. They were quite different from the democratic governments of today. In modern democratic age, all adults have the right to vote. The government is directly responsible to the legislature and indirectly to the people. But at that time, all the people did not participate in the elections of responsible governments. Such governments were elected by a small number of people.

Question 10.
What is an election manifesto? What are its benefits?
Answer:
An election manifesto is a document which tells the voters about the programme, principles, objectives and promises for which the party stands. An election manifesto is an important document of a political party.

It has the following benefits :

The people judge the political parties by their election manifestoes.
The people are able to form opinion about the aims and objects of the political parties and exercise their franchise accordingly.
The voters are able to know the differences between the different political parties through the election manifestoes.
The political party which comesout successful at the polls tries to implement the programmes published in its election manifesto. If it does not do so, the people can put pressure on it to act according to its manifesto.

Question 11.
Explain simple majority system.
Answer:
In simple majority system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rival/rivals is declared elected. In this system, the elected candidate may or may not get the majority of votes. According to democratic rules, a candidate must be a representative of majority (more than 50%) votes. But sometimes an elected candidate gets less than 50% votes but is still declared elected. Such a candidate cannot be called a real representative of the people. Sometimes a political party getting majority votes sits in opposition in the Legislature and the other party representing minority votes comes to power.

Question 12.
What is the importance of adult franchise?
Answer:
The universal adult franchise means the right of voting granted to every adult— male or female, without any discrimination. A person above a certain age is called an adult. In India a person of 18 years is an adult. In India every person above 18 years enjoys the right to vote. This right is given to every man and woman without distinction of caste, religion, property or education. In a democracy, people rule themselves or the government is run through their chosen representatives. So universal adult franchise becomes very important. It provides an opportunity to the largest number of people to take part in the functioning of the government.

Question 13.
What is the importance of election campaign?
Answer:
Election campaign has great importance in democracy. Through election campaign, people come to know; the different problems of the country. Political parties try to mould the public opinion in their favour. The opposition parties tell the people about their policies and programmes. They throw light on the wrong policies of the government. They promise that after coming to power, they will do everything for the welfare of the public. Similarly, the ruling party presents before the public its achievements and further plans. All these points make it clear that election campaign has great importance.

Question 14.
Does the electorate have real control over its representatives?
Answer:
In a democracy, people elect their representatives. The electorate has real control over their representatives. The representatives have fear in their minds that the electorate will turn against them and push them out of power if they do nothing for the welfare of the electorate. It is thus clear the electorate has control over their representatives. In some countries, the electorate is entitled to recall their representatives if they do not work upto its expectations.

Question 15.
Why have the political parties so much importance in democracy?
Answer:
Political parties have a special role in democracy. They perform the following functions :

Political parties set their programmes. During elections they prepare their manifestoes and present them before the people. Through them, people come to know the national problems and then form their own opinions.
Political parties help in the formulation of the public opinion.
They contest elections.
The party that secures a majority in the election, forms the government.
The party with minority membership forms the opposition.
The political parties give political education and training to the people.

Question 16.
What is the importance of elections in democracy? What role do political parties play in elections?
Answer:
Elections are very important in a democracy :

Through the elections, the people choose their representatives to the legislature central or state.
The elections give stability to the government.
People control the government through elections and stop it from becoming despotic.
People change their governments through the elections.

Political parties play a very important role in the elections :

They put political problems before the people.
They suggest to the people various ways of solving these problems.
They give political education to the people;
They make people aware of their rights.

Question 17.
Mention the defects of the ‘simple majority’ election system.
Answer:
The representative are generally elected by simple majority. In this system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

There are many defects in this system:

The elected representative is not always the choice of the majority. He is generally elected by a minority,
The majority party in the legislature represents only minority votes,
All parties do not get representation according to the number of their votes,
A large number of votes go waste. They do not elect any representative at all.

Question 18.
What is the importance of Secret Ballot System?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot System has great importance in the election process. The following points make it clear :

The system of Secret Ballot ensures just and impartial election.
The voters are free from outside pulls and pressures in casting their votes.
No outside force or fear can influence the voter to cast his vote under the system of Secret Ballot.
This system brings the desired result without creating any ill-feeling.

Question 19.
What is the importance of the opposition in democracy?
Or
What are the functions of an opposition party?
Answer:
In a democracy, an opposition party is a great blessing for the people. It has an important role to play :

A strong opposition does not allow the government to become despotic. It points out the faults of the government.
It brings the people’s grievances to the notice of the government.
It brings to the notice of the people the wrong deeds of the government.
It provides alternative government to the country.

Question 20.
What are the advantages of the two-party system (bi-party system)?
Answer:
The two-party system or the bi-party system is the best type of party system. It helps in the smooth functioning of a democratic government.

This system has the following advantages :

Both the parties have clear manifestoes, programmes and policies. The electors are able to make up their mind in the exercise of their franchise much before the date of the election.
It also provides stability to the government. The party which gets the absolute majority, forms the government. The other party acts as an opposition party.
Under the two-party system, the government is able to implement long-term measures of reforms and development.
The opposition party keeps the government alert. It exposes the acts of omission .and commission of the government.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Lawn Tennis Game Rules.

Lawn Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question. 1.
Write about the history of Lawn Tennis?
Answer:
History of Lawn Tennis:
Originating from the old indoor game of Real Tennis, its proper name is Lawn Tennis. Although the only major tournament in the world still to use grass courts today is that held at Wimbledon. Lawn Tennis has its roots in France but the game was brought to England. The first championship was held at Wimbledom in 1877 and the first International Championship was held in U.S.A. in 1881 in Australia 1905 and in France 1925. In Modern Olympic which was originated in 1896. Tennis was an official game but it was withdrawn from the Olympic after 1924 but was again included in 1988.

International Tennis Federation (ITF) came into existence in 1977. The game is played in so many forms as men and women singles men and women doubles and mixed double. First time Lawn Tennis was included in Asian Games in 1958. Today it is most interesting game played both at amateur and professional levels. Tennis is a racket game in which the player of one team sends the ball oyer net to the opponent area so that opponent is unable to return the ball. In this way points are scored by the player which won the games set and match. Our player named Leander Paes had won Olympic singles in 1996 at Atlanta.

Latest Rules of Lawn Tennis:

The length of the Lawn tennis court is 78 feet (28.77 m.) and its width is 27 feet (8.23 m).
The height of the net is 3 feet (0.91 m.), and the maximum diameter of the cord or metal cable which suspends the net is 1/3 (0.8 cm).
The diameter of posts is 6″ (15 cms.), and the distance of the centre of the post outside the court on each side is 3 ft. (0.91 m).
The diameter of the Lawn tennis ball is 2 (6.34 cms.), and its weight is 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) The bounce of the ball when dropped from a height of 100″ (254 cms.) is 53″ (1.35 m).
The maximum number of sets in a game for men is 5, and for women is 3.

Question. 2.
Write about the court of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
Lawn Tennis Court:
The tennis court shall be rectangular. It shall be 78′ (23.77 m.) in length and 27′ (8.23 m.) width. It should be divided across the middle by a net suspended from a cord or metal cable. The diameter of this cord should be 1/3 (0.8 cm.), the ends of which shall be attached to or pass over the tops of two evenly pointed posts. These posts should be 3’66” (1.07 m.) in height and not more than 6 inches (15 cm.) square or 6 inches (15 cm.) in diameter, the centre of which shall be 3’ (0.91 m.) outside the court on each side.

The net should be tightly and fully extended so that it fills the space between the two posts fully, and should be so small mesh as to prevent the ball passing through. The height of the net shall be 3′ (0.914 m.) at the centre, and it shall be tautly held down by a strap not more than 2″ (5 cm.) wide and white in colour. A band shall cover the cord and the top of the net for not less than 2 inches (5 cm.) and inches (6.3 cm.) deep on each side. Its colour should be white. There should be no advertisement on the net, strap, band or single sticks.

The lines surrounding the ends and sides of the court shall respectively be called the Base fines and the side-lines. On each side of the net, at a distance of 0.21 feet (6.00 cm.) from it and parallel’to it, service-fines shall be drawn. The space on each side of the .net between the service-line and the side-line shall be divided into two equal parts called the service courts by the centre service-fine. This service fine shall be 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, drawn half-way between and parallel to the side lines.

Each base-line shall be bisected by a centre-service fine which is 4 inches (10 cm.) in length and 2 inches (5 cm.) in width, and is called centre mark. Except the base-lines, all lines should be minimum 1″ (2.5 cm.) and maximum 2″ (5 cm.) in length. The base line may be four inches (10 cm.) in width. All measurements should be made to the outside of the fines.

The permanent fixtures of the court shall include not only the net; posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap and band but also the back and side stops, the fixed stands, movable seats and chairs. All other fixtures around and above the court and the Umpire, Net- cord, Foot-fault Judge, Linesmen and Ball Boys shall be in their proper places.

Question. 3.
Write about the ball of the Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
The Lawn-tennis Ball:
The ball should have a uniform outer surface. It shall be white or yellow in colour. The diameter of the ball shall be minimum 2 1/2” (5.35 cm.) and maximum 2 5/8” (6.67 cm.). Its weight should be more than 2 ounces (56.7 gm.) and not less than 2 1/16 ounces (58.8 gm.). It should have a bounce of more than 53 inches (135 cm.) and less than 58 inches (147 cm.) when dropped from a height of 100” (254 cm.) upon a concrete base.
Lawn Tennis Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
The ball should have a forward deformation of more than 220 inches (.956 cm.) and less than .290 of an inch (.74 cm.), and a return deformation of more than .350 of an inch (.89 cm.) and less than .425 of an inch (1.08 cm.) at 18 pounds (8.165 kg.) load. The two deformation figures shall be the averages of three individual readings along three axes of the ball and no two individual readings shall differ by more than 0.30 of an inch (.80 cm.) in each case.

Players:
The players shall stand on opposite sides of the net. The players who delivers the ball first is called the server, and the other will be called the receiver. The choice of ends and the right to be Server or Receiver in the first game is decided by the toss. The toss winning players may choose his end or may ask the other player to choose. If a player decides to choose the end, the other player has the right to choose to be the Server or the Receiver.

Service:
The service shall be delivered in the following manner : Before delivering the service, the Server shall stand with both feet at rest behind (that is, farther from the net than the base-line). This place shall be within the imaginary continuation of the Centre Mark and the side-line. Then the Server shall project the ball by hand into the air and before it hits the ground, strike it with his racket, and the delivery shall be considered to have been completed at the moment of the impact of the racket and the ball. A player with the use of one arm may utilize his racket for protection or defence.

The Server, throughout the delivery of the service, shall-

not change his position by walking or running.
not touch, with either foot, any area other than that behind the base-line within the imaginary extension of the centre mark and side-line.

1. In delivering the service, the Server shall stand behind the right and the left courts turn by turn. He shall start from the right in every game. If the service is delivered from a wrong half of the court and is undetected, the play resulting from such wrong service shall stand, but the inaccuracy of station shall be corrected immediately after it is detected.

2. The ball served should pass over the net and hit the ground in the Service Court which is diagonally opposite, before the Receiver returns it. If the ball touches any other line of the court, the Service shall not be considered.

General Rules of Lawn Tennis:
1. The tennis player shall not serve until the other player or receiver is ready. If the receiver attempts to return, he is deemed to be ready.

2. The service is a let if the ball served touches the net, strap or band, or touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries. It shall be let if it is delivered when the receiver is not ready.

3. At the end of the first game the receiver shall become server, and the server shall become the receiver. This will continue alternately in all the games of a match.

4. The server wins the point if the ball served is not a let, and touches the receiver or anything he wears or carries before it hits the ground.

5. If a player knowingly does something which, in the opinion of the Umpire, hinders his opponent in making a stroke, the Umpire shall award the point to the opponent and in case such an act of player is involuntary, the Umpire shall order the point to be replayed.

6. If the ball in play touches a permanent fixture other than the net, posts, single sticks, cord or metal cable, strap or band after it has hit the ground, the player who struck it wins the point. But if the ball touches such an object before it hits the ground, the point is awarded to the opponent.

7. If a player wins his first point, his score is 15, on winning the second point, the score is 30; and on winning the third point, his score rises to 40. The player who gets 40 points wins the set of game. But in case both the players win 3 points each, the score is called deuce, and the next point won by a player is scored advantage for that player. If the same player (with advantage) wins the next point, he wins the game. If the other player wins the point, the score is again called deuce; and so on, until a player wins two points following the score at deuce.

8. When a player wins first six games, he wins a set, except that he must win by a margin of two games over his rival, and if necessary, a set is extended until this margin is achieved. The players shall change ends at the end of the first and third game and at the end of each set provided the total number of games in each set is not even, and in which case the change is made at the end of first game of the next set.

9. The maximum number of sets in a match for men is 5 and for women 3.

10. The game shall continue from the start to the conclusion, provided that after the third set, or when moment participate, after the second set, a player can take rest. But the duration of rest is from 10 to 15 minutes. When it is essential, the Umpire may suspend the play for such a period as he may deem necessary.

11. In case the play is suspended, and is not be resumed until a later day rest may be taken by a player after the third set or after the second set in case of women players. In case the play is postponed to a later day, the completion of an unfinished set shall be considered as one set. These provisions should be properly explained. The play should, however, never be suspended, delayed or interfered with for the purpose of enabling a player regain his strength.

12. The Umpire shall be the sole judge of such suspension of the game, and after living due warning to the offender who causes such suspension, may disqualify him.

13. In changing ends, a maximum of one minute should elapse from the close of the previous game till the players are ready for the start of the next game.

The Doubles Game
The Court:
For the Doubles Game, the court shall be 36 feet (10.97 m) in width, that is, it shall be wider by 4 1/2 feet (1.47 m) on each side that meant for the Singles game. Those portions of the singles side-lines which lie between the two services lines are called the Service Side-Lines. In other respects, the Court shall be similar to the one described in the court for the Singles game. However, the portions of the singles side lines between the base-line and service-line on each side of the net may be omitted, if so desired.

Question 4.
Write down any five rules of Lawn Tennis.
Answer:
General Rules:
1. The order of serving shall be decided at the start of each set in the following manner:
(а) The pair who are to serve in the first game of each set shall decide who shall, do so, while the opposing pair shall decide similarly in the second game.
(b) The partner of the player who served in the first game shall serve in the third game, the partner of the player who served in the second game shall serve in the fourth game, and so on in the same order in all the subsequent games of a set.

2. The order of receiving the service shall be decided at the start of each set as mentioned below:

(i) The pair who are to receive the service in the first game shall decide as to which partner shall receive the first service, and that partner shall continue to receive the first service in every odd game throughout the set.
(ii) The rival pair shall decide which partner shall receive the first service in the second game and that partner will continue to receive the first service in every even game throughout the set. Partners shall receive the service alternately throughout each game.

3. If a partner serves out of his/her turn, the partner who should have served shall serve as soon as the mistake is found out. In such case, all points scored, and any faults served before such discovery, shall be considered. If a game is completed before such discovery, the order of service does not change.

4. In case the order of receiving the service is changed by the receivers during a game, it shall remain unchanged until the end of the game in which the mistake is detected. But the partners shall resume their original order of receiving the service in the next game of the set in which they are the receivers.

5. The ball shall be struck alternately by one or other player of the opposing pairs. In case a player touches the ball in play with his racket against the above said rule, his opponents shall get the point.

Important Information about the Lawn Tennis Game

Length of Tennis court = 78’ or 26, 77” Metre
Breadth of court = 27’ or 8.23 Metre
Height of the net = 3’6” or 1.07 Metre
Diametre of iron tar (cable) = 1/4 inch
Diametre of Poles = 6 inch or 15 cm
Distance of poles from centre = 3’ or 90 cm
Weight of Tennis ball = 2 ounces (56.7 – 60.24 grns)
Distance of Tennis Poles = 2 1/2; inches
Bounch of ball after throwing it from the height of 100 feet = 53 inches
Number of sets for men = 5 sets
Number of sets for women 3 sets
Colour of Tennis ball = White or yellow.

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Welcome Life Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Guide हमदर्दी और हिमायत Textbook Questions and Answers

अभ्यास के प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संवेदनशील मुद्दों से आपका क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर-
संवेदनशील मुद्दे वे मुद्दे हैं जो गंभीर मुद्दों से जुड़े हैं और इसका हल हर किसी के लिए संभव नहीं है। उन्हें हल करने के लिए बहुत सूझ-बूझ की आवश्यकता होती है। उदाहरण के लिए किसी भी परिवार के व्यक्तिगत मुद्दे या किसी भी समाज के धार्मिक और भाषाई मुद्दे।

प्रश्न 2.
संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए स्कूल काऊंसलर ने किन बिंदुओं पर सुझाव दिया था?
उत्तर-
स्कूल के काऊंसलर खुशमिंदर सिंह ने छात्रों से कहा कि संवेदनशील मुद्दों को आसानी से हल नहीं किया जा सकता। इसलिए निम्नलिखित बातों को ध्यान में रखा जाना चाहिए

किसी व्यक्ति में सहनशीलता, धैर्य, उचित ज्ञान, अच्छी भाषा इत्यादि गुण होने चाहिएं। इसके साथ ही निश्चित रूप से मुद्दे के मूल कारण को जानना चाहिए, प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को ध्यान से सुनना चाहिए और
सूझ-बूझ से एक ठोस निर्णय लेना चाहिए।
निर्णय किसी पर थोपा नहीं जाना चाहिए, लेकिन एक ऐसा माहौल बनाया जाना चाहिए ताकि दूसरे संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करने के आपके निर्णय को समझें।
सबसे पहले खुद को उस स्थिति में रखें जिसमें कोई और है।
ऐसे मुद्दों को खुलेआम उछालना नहीं चाहिए बल्कि एक कमरे में बैठकर गुपचुप तरीके से हल करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 3.
प्रिंसीपल ने विद्यार्थियों की यह कमेटी क्यों बनाई?
उत्तर-
प्रिंसीपल ने बताया कि कई नाजुक मुद्दे ऐसे होते हैं, जिसके लिए काफी विचार-विमर्श की आवश्यकता होती है और अकेले उनका हल नहीं किया जा सकता। ऐसे मुद्दों को प्रत्येक व्यक्ति हल नहीं कर सकता। इसलिए सूझ-बूझ की ज़रूरत होती है। इसलिए प्रिंसीपल ने विद्यार्थियों की एक कमेटी बनाई ताकि सभी इकट्ठे होकर नाजुक मुद्दों को हल कर सकें।

पाठ पर आधारित प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
आपकी माँ क्या कार्य करती हैं?
उत्तर-
मेरी माँ ऑफिस जाती हैं और घर का सारा काम खुद करती हैं। वह हमारे लिए खाना बनाती हैं, कपड़े धोती हैं, घर की सफाई करती हैं और परिवार के सभी सदस्यों की ज़रूरतों का ख्याल रखती हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
वह कौन-से काम हैं जो आपके पिता जी करते हैं?
उत्तर-
मेरे पिता जी भी दफ्तर जाते हैं। वह सुबह मुझे और मेरे भाई की तैयार होने में मदद करते हैं। बाज़ार से घर की ज़रूरतों की चीजें लाते हैं। वह मेरी और मेरे भाई की पढ़ाई में मदद करते हैं और माता जी की कई कामों में मदद करते हैं जैसे कि फल काटना, सब्जियां काटना आदि।

प्रश्न 3.
आप अपनी माँ के साथ किन कामों में हाथ बटाएंगे?
उत्तर-
सबसे पहले मैं उन्हें घर को साफ रखने में मदद करूंगा। हम घर में गंदगी नहीं फैलाएंगे और सब कुछ यथावत रखेंगे। हम उन्हें कपड़ों को सुखाने और अन्य छोटे काम करने में मदद करेंगे।

प्रश्न 4.
आप अपने पिता के साथ किन कामों में हाथ बटाएंगे?
उत्तर-
हम अपनी पढ़ाई स्वयं करेंगे, सूखे कपड़े संभालने में उनकी मदद करते हैं। बाज़ार से घर का ज़रूरी सामान लाकर देंगे ताकि जब वे दफ्तर से थक कर वापस आएं तो कुछ समय आराम कर सकें।

गतिविधि-1

प्रश्न-
आप क्या चाहते हैं कि एक वर्ष के बाद आपके पास क्या-क्या सुविधाएं हों?
उत्तर-
एक वर्ष के बाद मैं चाहता हूँ

अध्ययन करने के लिए एक अच्छा स्मार्टफोन होना चाहिए।
एक अच्छा लैपटॉप और इंटरनेट कनैक्शन होना चाहिए ताकि मेरी ऑनलाइन कक्षाएं आसानी से चलें।
एक कार हो ताकि मैं अपने माता-पिता के साथ घूम सकू।
चौबीस घंटे बिजली की आपूर्ति हो।

गतिविधि-2

प्रश्न-चित्र को देखें, यहाँ और कुल दस चीजें हैं। इनमें से एक ऐसी चीज़ चुनें जो बाकी सभी नौं चीज़ों का कार्य करे।
PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत 1
उत्तर-
इन सभी चीजों में से मैं स्मार्टफोन रखना पसंद करूँगा जो हमारी कई ज़रूरतों को पूरा करता है। हम टी०वी० देख सकते हैं, टैलीफोन, सुन सकते हैं, लेखांकन कर सकते हैं, अलार्म लगा सकते हैं, समय देख सकते हैं, फोटो क्लिक कर सकते हैं, और वीडियो बना सकते हैं। इसके साथ ही यह कंप्यूटर का सारा काम कर सकता है।

गतिविधि-3

प्रश्न 1.
इस बंद मुट्ठी में संवेदनशील मुद्दे हैं। नीचे चित्र में खुले हाथ की पांच उंगलियों में पांच संवेदनशील मुद्दे लिखो।
PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत 2
उत्तर-
पाँच संवेदनशील मुद्दे हैं
(क) धार्मिक मुद्दे
(ख) भाषाई मुद्दे
(ग) परिवार से जुड़े मुद्दे
(घ) सामाजिक मुद्दे
(ङ) महिला सुरक्षा के मुद्दे।

प्रश्न 2.
मद्री को बंद रखना काऊंसलर साहिब की किस शिक्षा की तरफ इशारा करता है?
PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 4 हमदर्दी और हिमायत 3
उत्तर-
स्कूल काऊंसलर का विचार था कि सभी मुद्दों को बहुत सावधानी से हल किया जाना चाहिए। उन्होंने कहा कि संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए बहुत धैर्य, उचित भाषा और ज्ञान की आवश्यकता होती है। इसके साथ-साथ मुद्दे के मूल कारण के बारे में जानने की ज़रूरत है, दूसरों की बात को सम्मानपूर्वक सुनें और सूझ-बूझ के साथ निर्णय लें। निर्णय किसी पर थोपा नहीं जाना चाहिए।

Welcome Life Guide for Class 10 PSEB हमदर्दी और हिमायत Important Questions and Answers

वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

(क) बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
समाज में रहते हुए हम सबसे सम्मानपूर्वक व्यवहार करते हैं तो यह किस प्रकार का गुण है?
(a) संवेदनशीलता
(b) सम्मान
(c) घृणा
(d) हमदर्दी।
उत्तर-
(a) संवेदनशीलता।

प्रश्न 2.
वेदना शब्द का अर्थ है
(a) सामूहिक दर्द को समझना
(b) अपने निजी दुःख
(c) समाज का दुःख
(d) समाज का सुख।
उत्तर-
(b) अपने निजी दुःख।

प्रश्न 3.
संवेदना का अर्थ है
(a) अपने निजी दुःख
(b) समाज का दुःख
(c) सबका सामूहिक दर्द समझना
(d) समाज का सुख।
उत्तर-
(c) सबका सामूहिक दर्द समझना।

प्रश्न 4.
इनमें से कौन-सा हम में लिंग संवेदनशीलता न होने का सूचक है?
(a) माता-पिता का अपने बहन या भाई को अधिक प्यार करना
(b) कक्षा में लड़की को मॉनिटर बनाना
(c) (a) और (b) दोनों
(d) कोई नहीं।
उत्तर-
(c) (a) और (b) दोनों।

प्रश्न 5.
……………. जीवन जीने के लिए आवश्यक हैं।
(a) कामनाएं
(b) नफ़रत
(c) ईर्ष्या
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-
(a) कामनाएं।

प्रश्न 6.
जीवन जीने के लिए क्या सबसे अधिक आवश्यक है?
(a) रोटी
(b) कपड़ा
(c) मकान
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।

प्रश्न 7.
हमें सामाजिक कल्याण के लिए क्या करना चाहिए?
(a) पेड़ बचाओ
(b) नशे न करना
(c) पर्यावरण बचाओ
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-प्
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।

प्रश्न 8.
प्रिंसीपल ने कितने बच्चों को अपने दफ्तर में बुलाया?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16.
उत्तर-
(c) 14.

प्रश्न 9.
संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करने के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
(a) धैर्य
(b) उचित ज्ञान
(c) मूल कारण का पता होना
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।
उत्तर-
(d) उपरोक्त सभी।

(ख) खाली स्थान भरें

……………. स्कूल का काऊंसलर था।
स्कूल के ………….. ने 14 शिक्षकों की एक कमेटी बनाई।
व्यक्ति की कम …………… इच्छाएं होनी चाहिएं।
मानवीय जीवन में ………….. ज़रूरी है।
इस दुनिया का हर व्यक्ति ……………. है।
विद्यार्थी जीवन में …………… का विशेष महत्त्व है।

उत्तर-

खुशमिंदर सिंह,
मुख्य अध्यापक,
इच्छाएं,
बदलाव,
अद्वितीय,
मित्रता।

(ग) सही/ग़लत चुनें

जीवन में परिवर्तन आवश्यक नहीं है।
विद्यार्थी के जीवन में मित्रता का कोई स्थान नहीं है।
प्रत्येक व्यक्ति एक-दूसरे से अलग होता है।
संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए समझदारी की आवश्यकता होती है।
प्रत्येक व्यक्ति में संवेदनशीलता होती है।

उत्तर-

ग़लत,
ग़लत,
सही,
सही,
सही।

(घ) कॉलम से मेल करें

कॉलम-I — कॉलम-II
(a) वेदना — (i) मित्रता
(b) संवेदना — (ii) निजी दुःख
(c) रोटी, कपड़ा, मकान — (iii) सामूहिक दर्द समझना
(d) संवेदनशील मुद्दा — (iv) जीवन की आवश्यकताएं
(e) छात्र जीवन उत्तर — (v) धार्मिक मुद्दा।
उत्तर-
कॉलम-I — कॉलम-II
(a) वेदना — (i) मित्रता
(b) संवेदना — (ii) निजी दुःख
(c) रोटी, कपड़ा, मकान — (iii) सामूहिक दर्द समझना
(d) संवेदनशील मुद्दा — (iv) जीवन की आवश्यकताएं
(e) छात्र जीवन — (v) धार्मिक मुद्दा

अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संवेदनशीलता का गुण क्या है?
उत्तर-
समाज में रहते हुए, जब हम दूसरों के साथ सम्मानपूर्वक व्यवहार करना चाहते हैं, तो इसे संवेदनशीलता का गुण कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
वेदना शब्द का सीमित अर्थ क्या है?
उत्तर-
वेदना शब्द का सीमित अर्थ है अपना निजी दुःख।

प्रश्न 3.
संवेदना शब्द का व्यापक अर्थ क्या है?
उत्तर-
संवेदना शब्द का व्यापक अर्थ है सभी के सामूहिक दुःख को समझना।

प्रश्न 4.
हमें अपने भाई-बहनों से क्या शिकायत है?
उत्तर-
कि माता-पिता उनसे अधिक प्यार करते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
स्कूल में लड़कों को क्या शिकायत है?
उत्तर-
कि लड़कियों को कक्षा में मॉनिटर बनाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
लड़के और लड़कियों के काम अलग-अलग किसने बनाए?
उत्तर-
इसे प्रकृति ने नहीं बल्कि समाज ने खुद तय किया है कि वे क्या काम करेंगे।

प्रश्न 7.
जीवन जीने की मूल आवश्यकता क्या है?
उत्तर-
जीवन जीने की मूल आवश्यकता रोटी, कपड़ा और मकान है।

प्रश्न 8.
जीवन जीने के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
उत्तर-
जीवन जीने के लिए आवश्यकताएं और आकांक्षाएं आवश्यक हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
हम अपने समाज की सेवा कैसे कर सकते हैं?
उत्तर-
पर्यावरण और पेड़ों को बचाकर और खुद को ड्रग्स से बचाकर, हम अपने समाज की सेवा कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
हम कम संसाधनों में अपनी बढ़ती ज़रूरतों को कैसे पूरा कर सकते हैं?
उत्तर-
कम आकांक्षाओं को सीमित रखकर, हम कम संसाधनों में अपनी बढ़ती ज़रूरतों को पूरा कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
प्रिंसीपल ने सुबह की सभा में क्या कहा?
उत्तर-
उन्होंने छात्रों से कहा कि वे कल के समाज के प्रभारी होंगे। इसलिए उन्हें ज़िम्मेदारियों को निभाना सीखना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 12.
कितने छात्रों की प्रिंसीपल सर ने एक समिति बनाई और क्यों?
उत्तर-
प्रधानाचार्य सर ने संवेदनशील मुद्दों को हल करने के लिए 14 छात्रों की एक समिति बनाई।

प्रश्न 13.
किसी भी संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करने के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
उत्तर-
धैर्य, उचित ज्ञान और किसी भी संवेदनशील मुद्दे को हल करते समय दूसरों को ध्यान से सुनें।

प्रश्न 14.
अच्छे आपसी रिश्तों के लिए क्या आवश्यक है?
उत्तर-
अच्छे रिश्तों के लिए आवश्यक है कि हम दूसरों को उनके असली व्यक्तित्व के रूप में स्वीकार करना सीखें।

प्रश्न 15.
विद्यार्थी के जीवन में क्या महत्त्वपूर्ण है?
उत्तर-
विद्यार्थी के जीवन में मित्रता का बहुत महत्त्व है।

प्रश्न 16.
मानव जीवन में प्रमुख समस्या क्या है?
उत्तर-
हम चाहते हैं कि प्रत्येक कोई हमारी इच्छा के अनुसार जीवन जिए।

लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वेदना और संवेदना के बारे में विस्तार से बताएं।
उत्तर-
हम समाज में रहते हैं और दूसरों के साथ सम्मानपूर्वक व्यवहार करते हैं। यह इसलिए है क्योंकि हम में संयम का गुण है। हम सभी के साथ समान व्यवहार करते हैं। इसलिए लड़कों और लड़कियों, पुरुषों और महिलाओं को समान रूप से एक-दूसरे के साथ व्यवहार करना आवश्यक है। यहां हमें वेदना और संवेदना का अर्थ मिलता है। वेदना का सीमित अर्थ किसी का अपना दर्द है और संवेदना का व्यापक अर्थ सबके सामूहिक दर्द को समझना है।

प्रश्न 2.
लड़के और लड़कियों का कैसे अच्छा विकास हो सकता है?
उत्तर-
बच्चे अपने माता-पिता के लिए कई काम करते हैं। चाहे वह लड़का हो या लड़की, दोनों को सामूहिक रूप से माता-पिता के साथ काम करना चाहिए। लेकिन यह जरूरी नहीं है कि समाज ने लड़के-लड़कियों के लिए जो अलग-अलग काम बांटे हैं, वे केवल वही काम करेंगे। उनके काम बदले भी जा सकते हैं। समाज ने अपना “दृष्टिकोण दिया है जिसे बदला जा सकता है। यदि इस दृष्टिकोण को निर्धारित भूमिकाओं के साथ बदल दिया जाएगा, तो निश्चित रूप से लड़के और लड़कियां को बेहतर तरीके से विकास कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
हमारे जीवन में आकांक्षाओं का क्या महत्त्व है?
उत्तर-
हमारे जीवन में आकांक्षाओं का बहुत महत्त्व है। जीवन जीने के लिए आवश्यकताएं और आकांक्षाएं बहुत आवश्यक हैं। आकांक्षाओं के अभाव में कोई कुछ नहीं कर सकता। लेकिन आकांक्षाएं सीमित होनी चाहिएं अन्यथा वे हमारे लिए समस्याएं पैदा करेंगी। निश्चित रूप से उन्हें सीमित रखने की आवश्यकता है। जिस प्रकार जीवन के लिए भोजन, वस्त्र और आश्रय की आवश्यकता होती है, उसी प्रकार एक अच्छा जीवन भी जो केवल इच्छाओं की पूर्ति के साथ ही हो सकता है।

प्रश्न 4.
प्रिंसीपल साहिब ने सुबह की सभा में क्या कहा?
उत्तर-
सुबह की सभा में प्रिंसीपल साहिब ने छात्रों से कहा कि वे कल के समाज के इंचार्ज (Incharge) होंगे। इसलिए उन्हें अपनी जिम्मेवारी सीखनी चाहिए। उन्होंने दस छात्रों के नाम पूछे जिन्हें लगता है कि वे अपने दोस्तों की व्यक्तिगत और पारिवारिक समस्याओं को हल कर सकते हैं। उस समय 14 छात्र आगे आए और उनके लिए ताली बजाई गई।

प्रश्न 5.
छात्रों ने क्या समस्याएं बताईं?
उत्तर-

एक बच्चे ने बताया कि उसके घर पर बिना किसी कारण तनाव रहता है।
एक लड़की ने कहा कि उसके पड़ोस के दो लड़के उसके बारे में गलत टिप्पणी करते हैं।
एक अन्य लड़के ने बताया कि उसके सामने कक्षा में एक छोटे लड़के को बड़े लड़कों द्वारा छेड़ा गया है और उसके साथ दुर्व्यवहार किया गया।
एक अन्य लड़की ने कहा कि उसकी गली में लोगों के अवैध संबंध हैं जो अक्सर उनके घर में झगड़े की वजह बनते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
मानव जीवन की प्रमुख समस्या क्या है और इसे कैसे हल किया जा सकता है?
उत्तर-
मानव जीवन की प्रमुख समस्या यह है कि हम चाहते हैं कि लोग हमारी इच्छा के अनुसार जीवन व्यतीत करें। इसलिए हम चाहते हैं कि हर कोई हमारे हिसाब से अपने आप को बदले। इसका बेहतर समाधान यह है कि हमदर्दी तथा हिमायत हम उन्हें उनके वर्तमान रूप में स्वीकार करें। हमें दूसरों को बदलना नहीं चाहिए, लेकिन उन्हें वैसे ही स्वीकार करना चाहिए जैसे वे हैं। हर कोई अलग है और हम इस अंतर से बहुत कुछ सीख सकते हैं। यदि हम सभी को बदलने की कोशिश करेंगे तो हम असफल होंगे और खुश नहीं रहेंगे।

दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न-हमें दूसरों को कैसे स्वीकार करना चाहिए?
उत्तर-
इस दुनिया में हर कोई एक-दूसरे से अलग है। हर व्यक्ति की शक्ल एक-दूसरे से अलग होती है। इसलिए उनका व्यक्तित्व भी अलग होता है। यदि हम दूसरों के साथ अच्छे संबंध रखना चाहते हैं, तो हमें उनको मूल रूप में स्वीकार करना आवश्यक है। यदि हम ध्यान से देखें तो यह अंतर हमारे लिए आशीर्वाद है। यह अंतर एक-दूसरे के लिए अनुकूल है। जब हम दूसरों को स्वीकार करते हैं, तो हम उनसे बहुत कुछ सीखते हैं। यदि हम दूसरों को स्वीकार नहीं करेंगे तो अकेले रहेंगे छात्रों के जीवन में दोस्तों का बहुत महत्त्व है क्योंकि हम उन्हें वैसे ही स्वीकार करते हैं जैसे वे हैं। इसलिए हमें उनके साथ अच्छे संबंध रखने के लिए दूसरों को उनके वास्तविक या मूल रूप में स्वीकार करना चाहिए।

हमदर्दी और हिमायत PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Notes

हम समाज में रहते हैं और समाज में रहते हुए हम दूसरों के साथ सम्मान के साथ व्यवहार करते हैं। ऐसा इसलिए है क्योंकि हमारे पास संवेदनशीलता का गुण है।
दो अलग-अलग शब्द हैं-वेदना और संवेदना। वेदना का अर्थ है स्वयं का वेदना और संवेदना का अर्थ है सभी के सामूहिक वेदना को समझना।
घर पर, बच्चों को अक्सर यह शिकायत होती है कि माता-पिता उनके भाई-बहनों को उनसे ज़्यादा प्यार करते हैं। स्कूल में, लड़कों को अक्सर शिकायत होती है कि लड़की को क्लास का मॉनिटर क्यों बनाया जाता है। इस तरह की चीजें हम में लिंग संवेदनशीलता न होने का सूचक है।
हमारे माता-पिता अक्सर घर पर अलग-अलग काम करते हैं। हमें अपने माता-पिता को उनके काम में मदद करनी चाहिए। यह हमारे व्यक्तित्व विकास में मदद करता है।
हर किसी के जीवन में कुछ इच्छाएं होती हैं। हमें इन इच्छाओं को पूरा करने के लिए सीमित इच्छाएं रखनी चाहिएं ताकि वे आसानी से पूरी हो जाएं, अन्यथा जीवन में असंतोष छा जाता है।
भले ही जीवन में इच्छाएं कम हों, हमें इन इच्छाओं को पूरा करते हुए सामाजिक नियमों को भी ध्यान में रखना चाहिए।
परिवार में और समाज में कुछ महत्त्वपूर्ण मुद्दे हैं, जिन्हें सावधानीपूर्वक हल करने की आवश्यकता है। ऐसे गंभीर मुद्दों को हल करना हर किसी के लिए संभव नहीं हैं। इसलिए इस अवसर के ज्ञान और नाजुकता को समझना महत्त्वपूर्ण है। उदाहरण के लिए धार्मिक या भाषाई मुद्दे।
संवेदनशील मुद्दों को बलपूर्वक हल नहीं किया जा सकता है। इसलिए हमें मुद्दे का मूल कारण जानने की ज़रूरत है, संबंधित पक्षों से बात करें और मुद्दों को हल करने का प्रयास करें।
इस दनिया में हर व्यक्ति अलग व्यक्तित्व का है। जिस प्रकार हम सभी दिखने में एक-दूसरे से भिन्न होते हैं, उसी प्रकार प्रत्येक व्यक्ति का व्यक्तित्व भी अलग-अलग होता है। हमें सभी को उनके व्यक्तित्व के अनुसार स्वीकार करना होगा।
हालाँकि हम एक-दूसरे से अलग हैं, लेकिन फिर भी हम एक-दूसरे से बहुत कुछ सीखते हैं।
विद्यार्थी जीवन में मित्रों का बहुत महत्त्व होता है। हम जीवन में कितने भी दोस्त बना लें, कोई भी हमारे स्कूल के दोस्तों की जगह नहीं ले सकता।
समाज में रहते हुए हम समाज में बदलाव चाहते हैं। लेकिन हम अपनी इच्छा के अनुसार बदलाव चाहते हैं जो संभव नहीं है। इसका समाधान यह है कि हम दूसरों को वैसे ही स्वीकार करें जैसे वे हैं। यह हमारी कई सामाजिक समस्याओं को हल करने में मदद करेगा।