PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
What were the orders given by Guru Ji to the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji instructed the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama to consider Banda Bahadur as their leader in their struggle against the Mughals.

Question 2.
Why did Banda Bahadur come to Punjab from the South?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji had appointed Banda Bahadur as the leader of the Sikhs in Punjab. Hence, he came to Punjab from Deccan to undertake military action against the tyrannical Mughals.

Question 3.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Samana?
Answer:
Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji, lived in Samana. The other two executioners of two young Sahibzadas, namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Jalad Bhagal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Due to this reason, Banda Bahadur attacked Samana.

Question 4.
What was the reason for attacking Bhuna village by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
A contingent of Mughal soldiers guarding a Mughal treasury was camping at village Bhuna. Banda Bahadur needed money for his military campaigns. Hence, he attacked the village Bhuna.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Sadhaura?
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. Usman Khan was notorious for commiting atrocities on the Hindus. Usman Khan had also killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the battle of Bhangani.

Question 6.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Chapparchiri and Sirhind?
Or
What was the reason for attacking Sirhind by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab. He had also bricked alive the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind. That was why Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri.

Question 7.
What was the cause of the battle of Rahon?
Answer:
The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in arms against Faujdar Shamas Khan. The Sikhs had removed the Mughal officers by force and replaced them by Sikh officers. As a result, the battle of Rahon was fought between the Sikhs and the Mughals.

Question 8.
Wazir Khan was the Subedar of which place? Where did he fight against Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
Wazir Khan was appointed as the Subedar of Sirhind by the Mughals. He fought a battle with Banda Bahadur at Chapparchirri.

Question 9.
Write about the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was arrested along with about one thousand Sikh soldiers in 1715 and taken to Delhi. There, the Mughal tormentors plucked out his flesh with hot iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred.

Question 10.
When and between whom third battle of Panipat fought?
Answer:
Third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761 between Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas. ,

Question 11.
How was the Karorsinghia Misl named?
Answer:
The founder of Karorsinghia Misl was Karor Singh. His Misl was named as Karorsinghia Misl after his name.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 12.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. She belonged to the Kanhaiya Misl. She was a woman of extraordinary courage and ability.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Describe the meeting of Banda Bahadur and Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Dass. His childhood name was Lakshman Dass. He was a Bairagi. In 1708, Guru Gobind Singh Ji visited South India. There, Madho Dass happened to meet’Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He was so much impressed by the graceful personality of Guru Sahib that he immediately adopted Guru Sahib as his Guru. Guru Sahib baptized him a Sikh and renamed him Gurbaksh Singh. Guru Sahib sent him to the Punjab* to lead the Sikhs. He became popular as Banda Bahadur in Punjab.

Question 2.
Write a note on the conquest of Samana by Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on October 26, 1709. The cause of the attack on Samana was that the executioner who had martyred Guru Teg Bahadur Ji and bricked the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind belonged to Samana. The fight continued in the streets of Samana for many hours. It is said that the Sikhs killed nearly ten thousand Muslims. They also razed to the ground numerous buildings. The families of the executioners were completely liquidated. Banda Bahadur looted a large amount of money from Samana.

Question 3.
Write about the battle of Chapparchiri (Sirhind).
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in Punjab. Secondly, the two young Sahibzadas were bricked alive in a wall on his orders. Banda Bahadur determined to avenge the heinous crimes committed by Wazir Khan. When Banda Bahadur marched towards Sirhind, many people rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, who was an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army along with his thousand soldiers. However, later he deserted the Sikh army. On the other side, Wazir Khan had twenty thousand soldiers at his disposal. On May 22, 1710, a fierce battle took place at Chapparchirri, a place 16 kilometres away from Sirhind. Wazir Khan was slain in the battle. The enemy army became the victim of the swords of Sikhs in large numbers. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 4.
Describe the battle of Gurdas Nangal.
Answer:
The Mughals were highly infuriated by the continuous victories of Banda Bahadur. Finally, in 1715, a large Mughal army attacked Banda’s army. Abdus Samad Khan was in command of that army. The Sikhs fought the Mughal army doggedly. However, they were forced to move to Haveli of Duni Chand at Gurdas Nangal, a place 6 kilometres west of Gurdaspur City. They again entrenched themselves in the mansion (haveli) of Bhai Duni Chand. In order to strengthen the defence of the Haveli, they dug out a moat around the building and filled it with water. In April 1715, the Mughal army landed near the haveli of Duni Chand and besieged it. The Sikhs put up a stiff resistance. The siege continued for eight months during which all the food supplies within the haveli were finished. Thus, compelled by the circumstances, the Sikhs accepted the defeat. Banda Bahadur and his about 1000 soldiers were arrested and taken to Lahore.

Question 5.
Which was the First Misl? Describe it.
Answer:
The Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl which came into existence. The founder of this Misl was Nawab Kapur Singh. He had first occupied a village Faizalpur near Amritsar and named it Singhpur. It was, therefore, also called the Singpuria Misl.

In 1753, Nawab Kapur Singh died and his nephew Khushal Singh became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. By that time, the influence and dominance of the Sikhs had increased and Faizalpuria Misl extended its sway over a wide area. In 1796, Buddh Singh, son of Khushal Singh, became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. He was a brave and capable chief just like his father. In 1819, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexecFFaizalpuria Misl to his kingdom.

Answer the following questions in 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Describe the early conquests of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was a great military commander of his times. The strongest weapons of Banda Bahadur were his intrepidity and the blessings of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He had come to Delhi on the instructions of Guru Sahib. He sent the Hukamnama of Guru Gobind Singh Ji to the Sikhs of Malwa, Doaba and Majha. Soon after, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. After organising the army with the help of those Sikhs, Banda Bahadur marched towards Punjab to take military action against the tyranny and oppression of the Mughals.

1. Attack on Sonipat. After leaving Delhi for Punjab, he first attacked Sonipat. At that time, only 500 Sikhs had joined him. However, the Faujdar of Sonipat had no courage to face the Sikh army on learning about the stories of their valour. He ran away from the town along with his soldiers.

2. Looting of Royal treasury at Bhuna (Kaithal). After Sonepat, Banda Bahadur reached Kaithal. He received a report that some soldiers were camping at a nearby village Bhuna with the land revenue collections. Banda Bahadur, who was in need of money for his military campaigns, attacked village Bhuna. The Faujdar of Kaithal came forward to fight a battle with him but was badly defeated. Banda Bahadur acquired all the money.

3. Victory of Samana. After Bhuna, Banda Bahadur marched towards Samana. Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Teg Bahadur, lived there. The executioners of two young Sahibzadas, (Sahibzadas Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh) namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on November 26, 1709 and punished them. The fight continued for many hours in the streets of Samana. The Sikh soldiers razed to the ground the imposing buildings of Samana and put nearly ten thousand Muslims to sword. The families of Sayyid Jalaludin, Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were killed. Banda Bahadur acquired a large booty during the attack. He appointed Bhai Fateh Singh as the administrator of Samana.

4. Victory of Ghurram. One week after the victory of Samana, Banda Bahadur attacked Ghurram. The Pathans of Ghurram offered resistance to the Sikh army. However, they saved their lives by running away. The Sikh army looted a lot of money from Ghurram.

5. Attack on Kapuri. From Ghurram, Banda Bahadur reached Kapuri. The ruler of Kapuri, Qutbudirt was notorious for inflicting atrocities on the Hindus. Banda Bahadur defeated him and put him to death! Banda Bahadur burned down his haveli.

6. Victory of Sadhaura (Qatalgarhi). The ruler of Sadhaura, Usman Khan, was notorious for committing atrocities on the Hindus. He had killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the victory of Bhangani. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhora. After defeating Usman Khan, the Sikhs ravaged Sadhora,, town. Some of the Muslims took shelter in the haveli of Buddhu Shah. The Sikh army chopped off their heads. As a result, the place came to be ’known as Quatalgarhi.

7. Victory of Mukhalispur. After Sadhora, Banda Bahadur invaded Mukhalispur and easily occupied it. He changed the name of the fort to Lohgarh. Later, Banda Bahadur made Lohgarh as his capital.

8. Victory of Chapparchirri and Sirhind: The main target of the military expedition of Banda Bahadur was Sirhind where Subedar Wazir Khan lived, who had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab and afterwards also. He was also responsible for the martyrdom of two young Sahibzadas. That was why Banda Bahadur wanted to take revenge upon him. When Banda Bahadur approached Sirhind, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army with his one thousand soldiers. Wazir Khan also came forward with his 2000 soldiers. A fierce battle was fought at Chapparchirri (near Sirhind) on 22 May, 1710 A.D. between the two armies. However, some of the Sikhs indulged in looting only and deserted the army during the course of the battle. The nephew of Sucha Nand also ran away from the field. At such a crucial juncture, Banda Bahadur charged forward and encouraged the loyal Sikhs. Finally, he killed Wazir Khan. A large number of Mughal soldiers were slain by the Sikhs. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

9. Attack on Saharanpur and Jalalabad: In the meantime, Banda Bahadur got report that Jalal Khan, the governor of Jalalabad, was committing atrocities on his Hindu subjects. Therefore, he invaded Jalalabad. On his way, he occupied Saharanpur also. However, Banda Bahadur returned without conquering Jalalabad because of heavy rains and he had received an urgent message from the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to come to their help.

10. Control over Jalandhar Doab: The continuous victories of Banda Bahadur had infused a new spirit of courage among the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab. The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in revolt against the Faujdar Shams Khan. Shams Khan sent a huge army against the Sikhs after declaring Jihad. Banda Bahadur arrived at the right time to assist the Sikhs in their revolt. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs emerged victorious. In this way, the regions of Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur came under the control of the Sikhs.

11. Control over Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot: Encouraged by the victories of Bapda Bahadur, nearly 8000 Sikhs revolted against their Muslim rulers. Soon they took in their possession the region of Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 2.
Describe the battles between Bahadur Shah and Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur spread awe and fear amoag the Mughal rulers of Punjab. When the Mughal Emperor received the report about actual condition in the Punjab, he got infuriated. The emperor, therefore, directed all his attention towards Punjab. On June 27, 1710, he left Ajmer for Punjab.

The emperor also directed the Subedars of Delhi, Avadh, and Nizams and Faujdars of Muradabad and Allahabad to come along with their armies to Punjab.
1. Battle of Eminabad: Bahadur Shah, Feroze Khan Mewati and Mahabat Khan in command of a large army marched against Banda Bahadur and his Sikh army. Bhai Binod Singh and Ram Singh engaged the Mughal army in a battle on October 26, 1710 at Eminabad, a place between Banesar and Tarawari. At one time, the Sikh army pushed back Mahabat Khan. But as the number of Mughal soldiers was quite large, the Sikhs were defeated. The Sikhs were highly insulted. The dead bodies of the Sikhs were hanged on the trees on the roadsides. Bahadur Shah appointed Feroze Khan Mewati as the Faujdar of Sirhind.

2. Battle of Sadhaura: When Banda Bahadur learnt about the defeat of Sikh army, he immediately marched against the enemy. At that time, the Mughal army was camping at Sadhaura. The Mughal army was trying to seek some better place for camping. On December 4, 1710 a Mughal contingent left Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur exploited the opportunity to attack the remaining army at Sadhaura. He inflicted heavy losses on the Mughals. However, by the evening, the search party of the Mughal army returned. As a result, the Sikh army was forced to discontinue the attack and move back to the fort of Lohgarh.

3. Battle of Lohgarh: By this time, Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah himself took over the command to act against Banda Bahadur. He directed his commander Munim Khan to move towards the fort of Lohgarh with an order to gauge the actual strength of the Sikh army. Munim Khan overstepped the instructions of the Emperor and attacked Lohgarh on December 10, 1710 A.D. The other Mughal commanders were forced to join him in this expedition. The Sikhs gave them a tough fight. However, the Sikhs faced hardships because of the scarcity of the provisions. They were not fully prepared to fight a battle. In such a situation, one of the Sikhs, namely Gulab Singh wore the dress of Banda Bahadur and took over the command of the fort in place of Banda Bahadur. It helped Banda Bahadur to leave Lohgarh safely and he reached Nahan along with his Sikhs on December 11, 1710. Munim Khan stormed the fort of Lohgarh and captured it. Gulab Singh was killed. However, Bahadur Shah felt frustrated when he found that he was not able to capture Banda Bahadur. Hence, the Emperor sent his army under Hamid Khan after Banda Bahadur towards Nahan. The Emperor himself marched through Sadhaura, Badowal, Ropar, Hoshiarpur, Kalanaur, etc. and reached Lahpre.

4. The activities of Banda Bahadur in the Hilly Regions: Banda Bahadur sent a message to the Sikhs living in the hilly regions to join him. Very soon, a large number of Sikhs gathered at Kiratpur.

  1. First of all, Banda Bahadur issued a directive ^o the old enemy of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, named Bhim Chand of Bilaspur to accept his suzerainty. When Bhim Chand refused to follow his command, Banda Bahadur attacked Bilaspur. A fierce battle took place. Bhim Chand and his 1300 soldiers were killed in the battle. It was one of the glorious victories of the Sikhs.
  2. The rest of the hilly chiefs were terrified by the victory of Banda Bahadur. Some of them even presented gifts and recognised his suzerainty. Raja Siddha Sen of Mandi even openly announced that he was a follower of the Sikh Gurus.
  3. From Mandi, Banda Bahadur marched towards Kullu. The ruler of Kullu, Raja Man Singh was able to trap Banda Bahadur by a trick. However, Banda Bahadur soon set himself free.
  4. From Kullu, Banda Bahadur marched towards the kingdom of Chamba. The Raja of Chamba, Raja Udai Singh welcomed him and even married a girl from his family to Banda Bahadur. A son was born to Banda Bahadur in 1711, who was named Ajay Singh.
  5. Battle of Baihrampur: Next, Banda Bahadur marched from the hills of Raipur and Baihrampur and came down to the plains. There, he was again attacked by Faujdar of Jammu, Baizd Khan Khaishgi. A battle was fought on June 4, 1711, near Baihrampur. Bhai Bhag Singh and Bhai Fateh Singh displayed their skills with great courage and won the battle for the Sikhs.

After the victory of Baihrampur, Banda Bahadur attacked Raipur, Kalanaur, and Batala and occupied those towns. But, he soon lost those territories. Banda Bahadur again took shelter in the mountains. But Bahadur Shah and his army failed to destroy Banda Bahadur’s power and the Sikh army.

Question 3.
Describe the battles fought by Banda Bahadur in the Ganga-Yamuna region.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm spread among the common people because of continuous victories won by Banda Bahadur. The people became hopeful that Banda Bahadur would free them from the tyranny of the Mughals. So many Hindus and Muslims started embracing Sikh religion. The inhabitants of Muslim villages like Unarasa were converted to Sikh religion.

The Faujdar of Jalalabad did not tolerate it. He imprisoned many Sikhs of that village. Banda Bahadur, on getting this report, set out towards Unarasa to get the Sikhs released.
1. Attack on Saharanpur: The Sikhs attacked Saharanpur after crossing the river Yamuna. The Faujdar of Saharanpur ran away to Delhi on the arrival of Sikhs. His subordinates tried to resist the attacks of the Sikhs but were badly defeated. The Sikh army occupied a major portion of Saharanpur. They changed the name of Saharanpur to Bhagnagar.

2. Battle of Bihat: After Saharanpur, Banda Bahadur marched towards Bihat. The Pirzadas of Bihat were commiting atrocities on the Hindus. They used to slaughter cows at public places. Banda Bahadur put many Pirzadas to sword. It is said that only one Pirzada escaped the sword of Banda Bahadur because at that time he was away to Bulandshahr.

3. Attack on Ambeta: After Bihat, Banda Bahadur attacked Ambeta. The Afghans (Pathans) of Ambeta were very rich. They did not oppose the Sikh army. The Sikh army acquired a lot of money from them.

4. Attack on Nanota: The Sikhs attacked Nanota on July 21,1710. The Sheikhzadas of Nanota were experts in archery. They gave a tough fight to the Sikh army. The fight spread over to the streets and market of the town. Finally, the Sikh army won the victory and three hundred Sheikhzadas were killed.

5. Attack on Unarasa: After the victory of Nanota, Banda Bahadur turned to Jalalabad and Unarasa, which were his main targets. Banda Bahadur sent the message through his representative to Jalal Khan to ask him to immediately release the imprisoned Sikhs and quietly accept the suzerainty of Banda Bahadur. Jalal Khan refused to accept the orders of Banda Bahadur. He even insulted the representative of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur now stormed Unarasa. A fierce battle took place and the Sikhs won it. Jalal Khan and his nephews Jamal Khan and Pir Khan were killed.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Activity:

Question 1.
Show the places of battles fought by Bandu BaIiadurIhempofPunjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word:

Question 1.
What did Madho Dass call himself after conifng under the influence of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
Madho Dass called himself a Dass (a humble servent) or Banda (a reliable follower of Guru Sahib).

Question 2.
Write one important victory won by the Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Victory of Sirhind.

Question 3.
Why did the Sikhs lose the battle of Gurdas Nangal?
Answer:
The Sikhs ran short of food supplies during the long siege of haveli of Bhai Duni Chand.

Question 4.
Write one important feature of the victories of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The victories of Banda Bahadur united the Sikhs in the bond of unity and showed them the path of independence.

Question 5.
Write any one cause of the failure of Banda Bahadur in establishing a more permanent rule of the Sikhs in Punjab.
Answer:
(1) Banda Bahadur had become unpopular among the Sikhs.

Question 6.
In which two groups (Dais) did Nawab Kapur Singh divide the Khalsa soldiers in 1734?
Answer:
In 1734, Nawab Kapur Singh divided the Sikh soldiers into two groups, Buddha Dal and Tarun Dal.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 7.
What is the meaning of the word Misl?
Or
How did the word Misl originate?
Answer:
The Misl is an Arabic word, which means all are equals.

Question 8.
How many Sikh Misls were there?
Answer:
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.

Question 9.
Write the name of the founder of the Ahluwalia Misl.
Answer:
Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

Question 10.
Which Misl was founded by Sardar Charhat Singh?
Answer:
Sukherchakia.

Question 11.
Who was the founder of Karorsinghia Misl?
Answer:
Karor Singh.

Question 12.
When and where Banda was executed by the Mughal ruler?
Answer:
In June 1716 at Delhi.

Question 13.
Who was Wazir Khan?
Answer:
Governor of Sirhind.

Question 14.
What was the name of Banda Bahadur’s son?
Answer:
Ajay Singh.

Question 15.
Who was the founder of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Chaudhri Phul Singh, a Sandhu Jat.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 16.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Baba Ala Singh.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Guru Gobind Singh Ji sent Banda Bahadur to the _________ to lead the Sikhs in their struggle against the ___________
Answer:
Punjab, Mughals

Question 2.
The third Battle of Panipat was fought in between the _________ and_________
Answer:
1761, Marathas and Ahmed Shah Abdali

Question 3.
Jasa Singh Ahluwalia was the founder of the ________ Misl.
Answer:
Ahluwalia

Question 4.
Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri to punish the Subedar of
Answer:
Wazir Khan, Sirhind

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
The Phulkian Misl was founded by Chaudhri
Answer:
Phul Singh.

True or False:

Question 1.
Banda was defeated in his battle with Wazir Khan, Subedar of Sirhind.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Banda was executed at Lahore.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Das.
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 5.
The Sukherchakya Misl was founded by Sardar Charat Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A long dark period in the Sikh history followed the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
True

Match the following:

Question 1.

(A)

(B)

1. Nawab Kapoor Singh (a) Bhangi Misi
2. Banda Bahadur (b) Ramgarhiya Misi
(c) Chapparchiri
(d) Faizalpuria Misi

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about any four main military achievements of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The brief description of the main military achievements of Banda Bahadur is as follows:
1. Looting of Samana and Kapuri. Banda Bahadur made his first attack on Samana and looted it badly. Then, he stormed Kapuri. He also ravaged the town of Kapuri.

2. Attack on Sadhaura. The ruler of Sadhaura was ill-treating the Hindu inhabitants of Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. He massacred the Muslims in such a large number that the place came to be known as Qatalgarhi.

3. Victory over Sirhind. The two young Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji were bricked alive in a wall at Sirhind. Banda Bahadur massacred the Muslims of Sirhind to avenge the heinous crime. The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, was also killed in the battle.

4. Conquest of Jalandhar Doab. The’icontinuous victories of Banda Bahadur encouraged the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to rise against the Mughal subedar. They revolted against its Faujdar Shamas Khan and sought the help of Banda Bahadur. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and the Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs won the battle of Rahon and occupied the region bf Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur and his Sikh soldiers were made prisoners at Gurdas Nangal. They were taken first to Lahore and then to Delhi. Banda Bahadur was paraded in the market places of Delhi and publicly insulted. Finally on June 9, 1716, the Mughal government passed the orders for the execution of Banda Bahadur. He was badly tortured before his execution. His son was cut into pieces before his eyes. His flesh was plucked out with red-iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred. About 740 of his followers were also executed at Delhi.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Question 3.
Give four reasons because of which Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom in Punjab due to the following causes:

  1. Kingly Life Style of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur had adopted the kingly life style and abandoned the ways of saints. It reduced the respect of Banda Bahadur among the Sikhs.
  2. Merciless and Brutal Massacres. According to Lala Daulat Ram, Banda Bahadur indulged in very brutal general massacres without sparing any Hindu or Muslim while on his Punjab expeditions. He lost the support of the Sikhs and Hindus due to large scale mindless killings.
  3. Powerful Mughal Empire. The Mughal Empire had yet not lost its vitality. Therefore, Banda Bahadur and his few thousand Sikhs could not fight against the Mughal Empire for long.
  4. Limited Resources of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent kingdom due to his limited resources. The Sikhs did not have enough resources to finish the power of the Mughal Empire.

Question 4.
Who was the founder of the Ahluwralia Misl? How did he expand the power of the Ahluwalia Misl?
Answer:
The founder of Ahluwalia Misl was Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

  1. Jassa Singh successfully opposed the oppression of Mir Mannu (the Subedar of Lahore) from 1748 to 1753.
  2. In 1761, Jassa Singh attacked Lahore and defeated its Subedar Khwaja Obed. The Sikhs occupied Lahore.
  3. In 1762, Ahmed Shah Abdali attacked Punjab. Jassa Singh was defeated at Kup. However, Jassa Singh re-established himself. In 1763, the Sikhs under the leadership of Jassa Singh looted Kasur and Sirhind.
  4. In 1764, Jassa Singh invaded Delhi and looted it.

Question 5.
What was the position of Marathas on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Ahmed Shah Abdali had defeated Marathas in the third battle of Panipat in 1761 and thrown them out of Punjab. However, by the end of the 18th century, they had again extended their sway in the,North India.

Daulat Rao Sindhia, the Maratha chief had established his control over Delhi. He started attacking the region of Satluj and Yamuna Doab. However, his advance was checked by the British, a new power on the political scene of India.

Question 6.
Describe the position of the East India Company on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of the British Empire under the East India Company from 1772 to 1785. He checked the Marathas from extending their sway over Punjab by involving them in military engagements. However, the succeeding Governors-General, especially Cornwallis (1786 to 1793) and John Shore (1793 to 1798) an acting Governor-General) did not try to extend the territories of the British Empire under East India Company. In 1798, Lord Wellesley became the Governor-General. He was a soldier by training. He entered into subsidiary alliances with Hyderabad, Mysore, Carnatic, Tanjore, Awadh, etc. He also fought against the Marathas. The, Marathas were therefore not able to give attention to the Punjab. In 1803, the East India Company occupied Delhi after defeating Daulat Rao Scindia and brought it under the control of the British Empire.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the following Misls:
1. Phulkian,
2. Dalewalia,
3. Nishanwalia,
4. Karorsinghia, and
5. Shahid Misl.
Answer:
A brief description of the history of the above Misls is as follows:
1. Phulkian Misl:
A Sandhu Jat Chaudhari Phul Singh laid the foundation of the Phulkian Misl. The most powerful ruler of this Misl, however, was Baba Ala Singh. Baba Ala Singh had conquered the territories around Barnala in the beginning. In 1762. Ahmed Shah Abdali appointed him Nawab of Malwa region. In 1764, Baba Ala Singh defeated the Subedar of Sirhind Zain Khan. Abdali honoured Baba Ala Singh by awarding him with a kettledrum (Nagra) and Flag in 1765. Baba Ala Singh died in 1765. After the death of Baba Ala Singh, Amar Singh took over the reins of Phulkian Misl. He annexed the area of Bhatinda, Rohtak, and Hansi to the territories of his Misl. Ahmed Shah Abdali awarded him the title Raja-i-Rajanan. After the death of Amar Singh, his son Sahib Singh became the chief of the Phulkian Misl. He was a weak ruler. Finally, by a treaty in 1809, the East India Company made Phulkian Misl a protectorate of the British Empire.

2. Dalewalia Misl:
Gulab Singh established the Dalewalia Misl. He was an inhabitant of a village Dalewal which was situated on the banks of river Ravi. Thus, the Misl was called Dalewal Misl. The most popular and powerful chief of this Misl was Tara Singh Gheba. He kept an army of 7500 soldiers. He was a very wealthy chief. As long as he was alive,
Maharaja Ranjit Singh maintained friendly relations with him. The day, Tara Singh died, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed this Misl into his Empire. The wife of Tara Singh protested strongly against his action but was not able to achieve anything.

3. Nishanwalia Misl:
Sangat Singh and Mohar Singh founded the Nishanwalia Misl. They used to carry the banner of Khalsa (Nishan) during their eariler years. Therefore, this Misl was called Nishanwalia Misl. The territory of this Misl was Ambala and Shahabad. It was not politically much important Misl.

4. Karorsinghia Misl:
Karor Singh founded this Misl. The most popular chief of this Misl was Baghel Singh. Baghel Singh had conquered the territories of Banga, Nawanshahar, etc. The main centre of the activities of this Misl was 20 miles away from Karnal, the place where the Misl shifted its activities. Baghel Singh had an army of 12000 soldiers. After the death of Subedar Zain Khan of Sirhind, Baghel Singh had tried to extend the territories of his Misl towards the north of Satluj. Jodh Singh succeeded Baghel Singh. Jodh Singh had conquered some territory in the Malwa region and annexed it to his Misl. Finally, a major portion of the territory of this Misl became part of the Kalsia kingdom and Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed the rest of its territory.

5. Shahid or Nihang Misl:
Sudha Singh, a Granthi of Damdama Sahib, laid the foundation of this Misl. Sudha Singh died while fighting the Muslim rulers. Hence, this Misl was called Shahid Misl. After him, the Misl was headed by Baba Deep Singh, Karam Singh, Gurbaksh Singh, etc. successively. Most of the members of this Misl were Akalis or Nihangs. Therefore, this Misl was also called Nihang Misl. About 2000 soldiers of this Misl were Nihangs. This Misl had been helping the other Misls during their times of need and crisis.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention four basic principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the four main principles of India’s foreign policy :

  1. Faith in the policy of non-alignment
  2. Faith in the principles of Panchsheel,
  3. Full faith in the U.N.
  4. Opposition to colonialism and imperialism.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Panchsheel?
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, P.M. of China formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence for the nations of the world. These five principles are calledTanchsheel. The main objective of Panchsheel is to maintain world peace by promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means making decisions independently on the basis of merit to solve international problems. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Question 4.
Describe one basic reason which created bad blood between India and the United State of America.
Answer:
India has refused to join military pacts set up by America.

Question 5.
What is the Atomic Policy of India?
Answer:
To use the atomic energy for constructive and peaceful purposes.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Enumerate the number of permanent members and non-permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
The Security Council has 15 members. Out of them five are permanent members. The remaining ten are temporary members. Each temporary member is elected for a term of 2 years by the General Assembly. The five permanent members are: U.S.A., Russia, Great Britain, France and China.

Question 7.
When the UN came into existence and how many were its original members?
Answer:
The United Nations was founded on October 24, 1945. It had 51 original (founder) members.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Disarmament?
Answer:
Disarmament means destruction or reduction of arms. The term implies voluntary destruction of arms and the creation of world without arms.

Question 9.
Describe the basic cause of tension and stagnation of relations between India and China.
Answer:
The border dispute is the main cause of tension between India and China. This tension became intense when China attacked India in 1962.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main principles of Indian foreign policy.
Or
Write down three principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the main principles of Indian Foreign Policy :

  1. Non-alignment. It is the basic principle of India’s foreign policy. India was the first country that initiated the policy of Noii-alignment.
  2. Opposition to Imperialism. India has always opposed imperialism and colonialism.
  3. Opposition to the policy of Caste, ColoSr and Discrimination etc. India has always raised voice against the policy of Caste, Colour and Discrimination.
  4. Faith in the United Nations. India is a founder member of the United Nations and has full faith in the aims and principles of the United Nations.
  5. Panchsheel. Panchsheel is an important principle of Indian foreign policy.
  6. Friendly Relations with other States. India is always ready to have friendly relations with other States of the world.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on Panchsheel.
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, the Prime Minister of China held a meeting in Delhi. They formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence between the nations of the world. These principles are called Panchsheel.

Following are these principles:

  1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
  2. Non-aggression. In other words, the disputes among the nations should be settled by negotiations.
  3. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other states.
  4. To endeavour to achieve mutual gains and co-operation.
  5. To adhere to the policy of peaceful co-existence among different nations Live and let live. If these principles are respected, there can be no danger of any deadly war in the world.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 3.
Describe the meaning of the’^bficy of Non-alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc and having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means taking decisions independently on the basis of merit while solving international problems. Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Reasons. At the time of our independence, there were two power blocs in the world: the American bloc and the Russian bloc. ‘There existed tension between the two blocs. Thus there was a cold war between them. Newly^^.d countries could reduce this tension and make progress with the aid of both, tfiesel.two.blocs. So they did not join any bloc and formed their own group. Pandit Jawaharl, ejiru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Describe the organisation and functions of the General Assembly, Security Council and International, Court of Justice.
Answer:
General Assembly. It is made up of all the member nations of the U.N.O. each of whom has one vote. However, each member state can send five representatives to attend its meetings. The Assembly takes decisions on ordinary matters by a simple majority. It passes the annual budget of U.N.O.

Security Council: It is made up of 15 members out of Ayhqm five are permanent members. The remaining ten members are elected for a term of two years by the General Assembly.

The Security Council is entrusted with the task of preserving world peace. It tries to settle disputes between the different nations in a just and fair manner.

International Court of Justice:
It is called “The World Court”. The Court hears and decides, disputes arising between states according to International Law. It also gives advice to the General Assembly on legal matters.

Question 5.
Describe the role of India in the United Nations.
Answer:
India is one of the 51 founder members of the United Nations. From the very beginning, the Indian leaders have been keeping a firm faith in this great institution. It has been playing an important role in the functioning of the United Nations.

  1. India stood for anti-colonialism. India along with other members got the resolution passed against imperialism and colonialism in 1950.
  2. Admission of New States. India tried her best for the admission of Communist China and Bangladesh. ,
  3. Cooperation in ending wars in other Countries. India supported the peace efforts of the United Nations to put an end to the wars in Egypt, Congo, Korea and Indo-China.
  4. Against Racial Discrimination. India, with the cooperation of the United Nations, raised a strong voice against the policy of racial discrimination followed by the imperialist government in South Africa.
  5. Human Rights. With the cooperation of the United Nations, India raised a strong voice of protest against the countries.which violated the human rights.
  6. Support of Disarmament. India have so supported disarmament for lessening the possibility of wars.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Describe the main reasons which Abated tension and hostility between India and Pakistan.
Or
Write a short note on the Indo-Pak relationship and their main dispute.
Answer:
India has made every effort to establish friendly relations with Pakistan but the tension and hatred between the two countries has never ended. The two countries had border disputes, river water distribution disputes and had to make settlement of evacuee property. The dispute about the sharing of river waters between the two countries was settled with the help of the World Bank^ through the Indus Water Treaty in 1960. The settlement of border disputes and the prql^em of evacuee property have been solved to a great extent. But the Kashmir problem is the bone of contention between the two countries.

Question 7.
Discuss briefly Indo-American relations.
Answer:
India and U.S.A. are the two largest democracies in the world. During 1947-2001 the relations between the two countries were marked by two opposite features. On one side, there was a spirit of co-operation and friendship between the two countries. But on the other, their relations were strained and conflicting. There has been, however, a marked improvement in the relations between the two countries since 2000 A.D. Both these countries are fighting against terrorism

The U.S.A. had begun to give massive military aid to Pakistan. This was strongly opposed by India. The lowest point in the Indo-US relations came in 1971 when India signed the Treaty of peace, friendship and co-operation with the USSR. India’s peaceful nuclear explosion on May 18, 1974, at Pokhran was strongly criticised by the US leaders and the people. There has been a marked improvement in the relations between America and India since 2001 A.D. The President of the U.S.A. Barack Obama visited India in January 2015.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Describe one cause of tension between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan has been claiming Kashmir since independence whereas it is an integral part of India.

Question 2.
Describe one positive aspect of Indo-Pak relationship.
Answer:
On 17th Feb., 1999, India and Pakistan signed a formal agreement for launching the Delhi-Lahore Bus Service.

Question 3.
Give the names of the founder countries of the Non-alignment Movement.
Answer:
India, Yugoslavia and Egypt.

Question 4.
Mention any one object of the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
To maintain international peace and security.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
Mention one important function of the Security Council.
Answer:
To help in maintaining international peace and security.

Question 6.
Throw light on any ope aspect of India’s policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Not to join any of the power blocs.

Question 7.
Mention any one cause for the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace in the world.

Question 8.
Give one example of the work done by the U.N. for world peace.
Answer:
In 1949, it made the Dutch forces to vacate Indonesia.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can be his best self.

Question 10.
Why is disarmament necessary? Give one reason.
Answer:
To save humanity from total destrubtidh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
What was Marshall Plan of America?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was a big programme of American aid-to the European nations to rebuild their war shattered economies.

Question 12.
Why were SEATO and Baghdad pacts prepared by the U.S.A.?
Answer:
To check spread of communism.

Question 13.
What is India’s Atomic or Nuclear Policy?
Answer:
India wants to make’ the use of atomic energy.for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 14.
What is meant by atomic weapons?
Answer:
The weapons which are exploded by the use of atomic or nuclear energy are called atomic weapons.

Question 15.
Which powers colonised Africa?
Answer:
The continent of Africa was colonised by Britain, France, Italy, Portugal and Belgium.

Question 16.
When was Bangla Desh created?
Answer:
In 1971.

Question 17.
Write down the names of two permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
England and U.S.A.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 18.
What is meant by policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but to have friendly relations with all countries.

Question 19.
Write down the names of two organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
1. General Assembly and
2. Security Council.

Question 20.
Enumerate the number of non-permanent members of Security Council of UNO.
Answer:10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
There are ____________ organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
United Nations was established on ___________
Answer:
24th October, 1945

Question 3.
Originally United Nations consisted of ___________ members.
Answer:
51

Question 4.
Pt. ___________ is rightly acknowledged as the chief architect of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 5.
The train characteristic of India’s foreign policy is ___________
Answer:
Non-alignment,

Question 6.
India has full faith in the ___________ of United Nations.
Answer:
principles

Question 7.
At present United Nations consists of ____________ members.
Answer:
193

Question 8.
The word ‘Panchsheel’ stands for principles.
Answer:
five

Question 9.
___________ is a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Kashmir

Question 10.
There are ___________ permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
China made a sudden attack on India in:
(a) August 1962
(b) September 1962
(c) October 1962
(d) September 1965.
Answer:
(c) October 1962

Question 2.
The Principles of Panchsheel were signed between the Heads of the Govt. of:
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Japan
(d) Inia and Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India and China

Question 3.
The architect of Non-alignment is:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Dr. Rajinder Praad
(c) Atal Behari Vajpaye
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 4.
India became a member of U.N. in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1960.
Answer:
(a) 1945

Question 5.
Which organ of United Nations has all the member states as Its members?
(a) Security Council
(b) General Assembly
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Economic and Social Council.
Answer:
(b) General Assembly

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Bangladesh was established in:
(a) 1965
(b) 1972
(c) 1971
(d) 1970.
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 7.
International Court of Justice has _________________ Judges.
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 22
(d) 20.
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a basic principle of India’s foreign policy?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Friendly relations with other states
(c) Faith in United Nations
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.
Answer:
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.

Question 9.
Who was the first woman president of the U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit
(d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur.
Answer:
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a permament member of U.N. Security Council?
(a) India
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Russia
(d) England.
Answer:
(a) India

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are security and defence so important for India today?
Answer:
It was easier to defend the frontiers of India in ancient times. The Himalayas served as the sentinal in the north. The ocean protected us in the south. But now the high Himalayas and the deep oceans have lost their importance as the protectors of the country. Due to the progress of science and technology, the mountains ánd the seas are no longer barriers to check the enemy. So it has become very important for India to defend her borders. Secondly, our relations with some of our neighbours are not very friendly. We have to defend ourselves against them. So India’s need for defence and security is greater these days.

Question 2.
Write the names of any four organs of the United Nations. Explain one important function of each organ.
Answer:
Following are the four main organs of the United Nations.

  1. General Assembly,
  2. Security Council,
  3. Economic and Social Council and
  4. International Court of Justice.

Question 3.
Give some suggestions to Improve the relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
The relations between India and Pakistan can be improved by promoting common interests of both the countries.

The following steps should be taken in this direction:

  • Trade relations between both the countries should be strengthened.
  • Efforts should be made to improve cultural and educational relations between the two countries.
  • There should be friendly sports matches between the teams of the two countries.

Question 4.
When was the United Nations established? Mention its aims.
Answer:
The United Nations was established, on 24th October 1945. The number of its founder members was 51. But now about 209 countries of the world are its members. India is one of its founder members.

Following are its aims :

  • To settle the disputes between the states through peaceful means.
  • To promote friendly relations among the member states.
  • To find solutions to social and economic problems of the world.
  • To protect and uphold the freedom and rights of man.
  • To maintain world peace.
  • To strive hard to achieve these objects.

Question 5.
Write the full names of ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO. Write the functions of any two of these organisations.
Answer:
ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO are specialized agencies of the United Nations.
1. ILO: Its full name is International Labour Organisation.
Its functions are as under :

  • It tries to improve the living and. working conditions of the labourers.
  • To fix minimum wages and hours of work for the workers.

2. UNESCO: Its full name is United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation. Its main function is to promote educational, scientific and cultural co-operation among the member nations of the world.

3. FAO: Its full name is Food and Agricultural Organisation. Its main function is to
formulate schemes to increase agricultural production and consider the food situation of all the nations. . ,

4. WHO: Its full name is World Health Organisation. Its main function is to protect the health of people and to eradicate diseases.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 6.
Write a short note on the following :
(i) SAARC
(ii) Veto Power.
Answer:
(i) SAARC: Its full name is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It is an organisation of developing countries of South Asia. Its members are—India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. Some similarities are found in the cultural and economic problems of these countries. The representatives of these countries sit together to solve their problems and promote mutual cooperation.

(ii) Veto Power: The permanent members of the Security Council possess Veto power. These members are United States, Britain, China, France and Russia. For all effective decisions of this body, the unanimity of these five big powers is compulsory. This implies that these big powers have a veto on all important decisions of the council and anyone of these five powers can prevent it from taking any action against any country.

Question 7.
Mention some positive aspects of Indo-China relationship.
Answer:

  1. Both the countries have agreed to solve their border dispute through a special committee consisting of officials from the both sides.
  2. Both the countries have agreed to extend economic co-operation to each other. There is a considerable increase in the trade between the two countries.
  3. In 1988, the then Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, visited China. The Chinese Prisident visited India in December 1991 and again in 2014. The way for the restoration of friendly relations between the two countries became clear. Since then many good-will missions have’been exchanged between the two countries.

Question 8.
Write down six features of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

  • To make efforts for security and peace in the world.
  • To support the movements for self-determination in the colonies.
  • To oppose racialism.
  • Settlement of international disputes by peaceful methods.
  • To co-operate with U.N.O. and its Specialized Agencies.
  • To support the Non-Alignment movement and to remain away from the military blocs.

Question 9.
Write a short note on United N&tibns’ Security Council.
Answer:
The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The UNSC was formed in 1945 following World War II to address the failings of the previoifs international organisation i.e. the League of Nations to maintain world peace. The Security Council consists of 15 members. Soviet Union (Russia), United Kingdom, France, China and United States of America are its five permanent members. These countries can veto any resolution. There are 10 non-permanent members elected on regional basis to serve for a term of two years. The Council held its first session on 17th January, 1946.

Question 10.
What is the contribution of India to promote world peace?
Answer:
Following the policy of Non-Alignment, Indi%has always condemned colonialism and imperialism.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

Question 11.
Enumerate six main organs of the U. N. O.
Answer:
Following are the names of the chief organs of the U. N. 0.:

  • The General Assembly.
  • The Security Council.
  • Economic and Social Council.
  • The Trusteeship Council.
  • The Secretariat.
  • International Court of Justice.

Question 12.
Name five permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
Following are the names of five permanent members of the Security Council of the U.N. – United States of America, Great Britain, Russia, China, and France.

Question 13.
Briefly explain the International Court of Justice.
Answer:
There is a total of fifteen judges in the International Court of Justice. Its headquarter is the Hague in Holland. Its main task is to settle the disputes between the U.N.O.’s member countries.

Question 14.
Write down a note on Secretary-General of the U. N.O.
Answer:
The head of the Secretariate of U.N.O. is called Secretary-General. He is appointed by the U. N. Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for five years. Now Antonio Guterres is Secretary-General of UNO.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we write balanced chemical equations?
Answer:
To understand the method to write balanced chemical equation, let us take an example.
Zinc + Sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + hydrogen This equation can be written as below
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

Check the number of atoms on both sides of the arrow.

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Zn 1 1
H 2 2
S 1 1
0 4 4

In the equation, number of atoms are same on the both sides of the arrow, thus it is balanced chemical equation.
Now let us try to balance the following chemical equation
Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

Step I: Make a list of atoms of different elements in the unbalanced equation

Element No. of atoms in reactants (LHS) No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe 1 3
H 2 2
0 1 4

Step II: Choose a compound with maximum number of atoms for balancing whether it is reactant or product. Choose an element with maximum number of atoms in the choosen compound. On this basis we choose Fe3O4 and in it we choose the element oxygen. On the right, there are four atoms of oxygen and on the left only one.

To balance, oxygen atom

Atoms of oxygen In reactants In product
(i) initially 1 (In H2O) 4 (In Fe3O4)
(iii) after balancing 1 × 4 4

To equalize the number of atoms, we can not change the formulae of elements and compounds taking part in the reaction e.g. to balance oxygen atoms we can put coefficient ‘4’ and can write 4H20 but we cannot write H204 or (H2O)4 or (H2O4).

A partially balanced equation will be
Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2
(Partially balanced equation)

Step III: Fe and H are still unbalanced. Choose any one and move ahead. To balance hydrogen atoms, on left side, make number at atoms of hydrogen ‘4’.

Atoms of hydrogen In reactants In product
Initially 8 (4 In H2O) 2 (In H2)
After balancing 8 2 × 4

Now equation becomes
Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step IV: Check the above equation and choose third element which still is unbalanced. We will find that only iron is the element, which remains to be balanced.

To balance Fe we take 3 atoms of Fe on the left side.
3Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Step V: At the end, let us count the number ofatoms of elements on both sides of the equation
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2 (Balanced equation)

Number of atoms of every element on both sides of the equation are equal. Therefore this equation is now balanced. This method of balancing chemical equations is known as hit and trial method because we use smallest integral coefficient to balance the equation.

Step VI: To write the symbols for physical states. There is no information given about the physical state in the above balanced equation.
To make chemical equation more informative, write the physical states with the reactants and products. To represent the states of solid, liquid, gas, aqueous of the reactants and products we write (s), (l), (g) and (aq) respectively with them. When reactant or product is present in the form of solution in water then word (aq) is written.

Thus, balanced equation will be
3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
when (g) is used with water, then it means that water is used in the form of steam in the reaction. Usually, physical state is not mentioned in the chemical equation until it is very necessary.

Sometimes the conditions of the reaction like temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. are shown over or under the arrow e.g.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 2.
Give types of chemical reactions with examples.
Answer:
The various types of chemical reactions are :
1. Combination reactions: In these reactions two or more than two reactants combine to form a single product. Such reactions are known as combination reactions.

Example: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydoxide (slaked lime) and a lot of heat is evolved.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
In this reaction calcium oxide and water combine to give single product calcium hydroxide.

2. Dissociation or Decomposition reactions: In these reactions single reactant breaks into two or more than two new substances. Such reactions are called dissociation reactions.

Examples of dissociation reaction :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

3. Displacement reactions: When an element displaces another element from a compound, then it is called displacement reaction.

Examples:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

4. Double displacement reactions. In such a reaction two different atoms or group of atoms exchange themselves with each other.

Example :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6

Question 3.
Briefly describe oxidation and reduction with suitable examples.
Answer:
Oxidation. Oxidation of a substance takes place in a reaction when there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen in it and opposite to it reduction takes places when there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Example: A black coating of copper (II) oxide is seen on copper powder. Why this black substance is formed?
This copper oxide is formed due to combination of copper with oxygen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
If on this heated substance hydrogen gas is allowed to flow, this black coloured coating changes into brown colour because in these circumstances reverse reaction takes place and copper is again obtained.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 8
When there is gain of oxygen in a substance in a reaction we say oxidation of the substance has taken place and when there is loss of oxygen we say reduction of the substance has taken place.

There is loss of oxygen in copper (II) oxide, therefore it gets reduced. There is gain of oxygen in hydrogen, therefore it is oxidized. Thus, in a reaction one of the reactant is oxidized and other reactant is reduced. Such type of reactions are called reduction-oxidation reactions or redox reactions.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

Other examples of redox reaction are :

  • ZnO + C → Zn + CO
  • MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
  • In this reaction carbon is oxidized to become CO and ZnO is reduced to Zn.
  • In this reaction HCl is oxidized to Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
(i) H2 + N2 → NH3
Answer:
3H2 + N2 → 2NHg

(ii) BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → AlCl3 + BaSO4
Answer:
3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)2 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4

(iii) H2S + O2 → SO2 + H2O
Answer:
2H2S + 3O2 → 2SO2 + 2H2O

(iv) KBr + BaI2 → KI +BaBr2
Answer:
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2

(v) Al + CuCl2 → AlCl3 + Cu
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu

(vi) AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 +Ag
Answer:
2AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(vii) Al (OH)3 → Al2O3 + H2O
Answer:
2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3H2O

(viii) NH3 + CuO → Cu + N2 + H2O
Answer:
2NH3 + 3CuO → Cu + N2 + 3H2O

(ix) KClO3 → KCl + O2
Answer:
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

(x) BaCl2 + K2SO4 → 2BaSO4 + KCl
Answer:
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples from our daily life to show that chemical changes do take place in our daily life.
Answer:

  1. Fermentation of grapes take place.
  2. Our body digests the food.
  3. In summer, if milk is left in the room, we can see a change in it as it becomes sour.

Question 2.
Differentiate between balanced and skeletal chemical equation.
Answer:
Balanced equation. If number of atoms of each element are same before and after the reaction, then such a reaction is balanced chemical reaction.

Skeletal chemical equation. When number of atoms of each element before and after the reaction are not same then such a chemical equation is called skeletal Chemical equation.

Question 3.
What are the necessary requirements while writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
These are :

  • It represents a true chemical change.
  • It should be balanced.
  • It should represent physical states of the reactants and products.
  • It should indicate the necessary conditions required for the reaction to occur.
  • It should represent heat changes during reactions.

Question 4.
Give one example each of balanced and skeletal equation.
Answer:
2KCl + O2 → 2 KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
This is example of balanced equation.
Zn + AgNO3(aq) → Zn (NO3)2 + Ag
This is example of skeletal equation.

Question 5.
Give chemical formula for slaked lime and one use of it.
Answer:
Chemical formula -Ca(OH)2. Solution of slaked lime is used for white washing the buildings.

Question 6.
Why there is a shine on the walls after two-three days of white washing?
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present in the air and form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. After 2-3 days of white wash, calcium carbonate is formed due to which there is a shine on the walls.

Question 7.
Give chemical formula of marble and give reaction to show bow it is formed?
Answer:
Marble is also known as calcium carbonate.
Its chemical formula is CaCO3 Reaction to show its formation
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 10

Question 8.
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
How oxidation and reduction in the above reaction is taking place? What is the name of such reaction?
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11
Such a reaction is called redox reaction.

Question 9.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12
Complete the above reaction and tell the colour of the product.
Answer:
Above reaction is :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 13
colour of PbO is yellow.

Question 10.
Give colours of following solutions.
1. FeSO4
Answer:
FeSO4 → green

2. CuS04
Answer:
CuSO4 → blue

Question 11.
What is rusting? What is the chemical formula of rust. What is its loss?
Answer:
New articles made up of iron are shiny but after some time a reddish brown coating is seen on their surface. Usually it is called rusting of iron.

Chemical formula of rust – Fe2O3.H2O (Hydrated iron (III) oxide)
It is powdery substance that gets removed from the surface and due to this iron articles are getting damaged.

Question 12.
Fats are oils containing foods, when kept for long time then what change take place in them? What is name of this process?
Answer:
Fats and oils containing foods, when kept for long time, results in the change of their taste and smell. This process is named as rancidity.

Question 13.
How can we stop rancidity?
Answer:

  • To slower down the rate of oxidation, antioxidants are added to food items.
  • By keeping food items in air tight containers.
  • By flushing nitrogen gas in packets of chips so as to stop the oxidation of chips.

Question 14.
Zinc metal can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. But copper metal can not displace zinc from the solution of Zinc sulphate. Give reason.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. Copper is less reactive than zinc thus copper can not displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.

Question 15.
What happens when zinc rod is placed in copper sulphate solution? Give chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It wall displace copper from solution of copper sulphate and zinc sulphate is formed. Blue colour of the solution of copper sulphate change to white slowly.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 14

Question 16.
What is lime mitigation? Why there is sound of shuun-shuun in this process? Give chemical equation representing the reaction.
Answer:
When quick lime is mixed with water, it changes to slaked lime. This is lime mitigation. This is a exothermic reaction and heat is evolved due to which there is sound of shuun-shuun is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 15

Question 17.
Write names of the substances which got reduced and oxidized.
1. SO2 + 3H2S → 2H3O + 3S
Answer:
In SO2, S is reduced and in H2S, S is oxidized.

2. 2Al + 3HCl → 2AlCl2 + 3H2
Answer:
Aluminium is reduced and chlorine is oxidized.

3. 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and sulphur is reduced.

4. Zn + 2AgNOa → An (NO3)2 + 3Ag
Answer:
Zinc is oxidised and silver is reduced.

5. H2 + CuO → Cu + H2O.
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and copper is reduced.

Question 18.
What does a complete chemical equation represent and why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?
Answer:
A complete chemical equation represents reactants, products and their physical state in a symbolic form.
A chemical equation is balanced so that number of atoms of every element in reactants and products becomes equal. Therefore it is necessary to balance the chemical equation.

Question 19.
What type of reactions are combustion of coal and formation of water? Represent by chemical equation.
Answer:
1. Combustion of Coal:
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

2. Formation of water from H2 and O2 :
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)

Question 20.
How is dissociation reaction different from combination reaction?
Answer:
In a combination reaction two or more than two substance combine to give a single new substance where as in dissociation reaction a single substance breaks or dissociates into two or more than two new substances.

Question 21.
Give two examples of dissociation reaction.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 16

Question 22.
What is the difference between oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
In reaction, some substance gain or loose oxygen and hydrogen. If there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen from a substance then it is called oxidation. Loss of oxygen and gain of hydrogen is called reduction.

Question 23.
Give two examples of corrosion.
Answer:
Examples of corrosion are :

  1. black coating on silver
  2. green coating on copper.

Question 24.
Which type of reaction is shown in figure given below and define it.
Answer:
Displacement Reaction. It is a reaction in which more active element (metal or non-metal) displaces less active element (metal or non-metal) from its solution of its compound.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 17

Question 25.
What is shown in the figure given ahead? Also indicate 1 and 2 in the figure .
Answer:
The figure represents electro-lysis of water :

  1. Oxygen gas
  2. Hydrogen gas

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 18

Question 26.
The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 19
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction.
Answer:
Photochemical decomposition

(ii) Write the chemical equations.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 20

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do we get on the combustion of magnesium ribbon?
Answer:
We get a white powder of Magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
What is law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
In any chemical reaction, mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

Question 3.
Define balanced chemical equation.
Answer:
If number of atoms of each element before and after the chemical reaction are equal, then such a chemical reaction is balanced equation.

Question 4.
Give one example of balanced equation.
Answer:
3 Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2.

Question 5.
If (g) is written with water, then what does it represent?
Answer:
Water is in the form of vapour or steam.

Question 6.
Sometimes we show the conditions of a reaction like pressure, temperature, catalyst etc. where do we write it.
Answer:
Above and below the arrow.

Question 7.
How does a new substance form in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
By breaking and making of bonds between atoms.

Question 8.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which two or more than two reactants combine to give single product is called combination reaction.

Question 9.
What is the use of slaked lime?
Answer:
For whitewashing the buildings.

Question 10.
Write chemical formula for Marble.
Answer:
CaCO3.

Question 11.
What do we get on the combustion of natural gas?
Answer:
CO2, H2O and energy.

Question 12.
Write formula for ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
FeSO4.7H2O.

Question 13.
What is formed of grey colour from silver chloride in sun light?
Answer:
Silver metal.

Question 14.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 21
Where is above reaction used?
Answer:
Black and white photography.

Question 15.
Why after some time shining iron articles become dull?
Answer:
Due to rust.

Question 16.
What is the colour of rust coating on iron?
Answer:
Brown colour.

Question 17.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
When a metal comes in contact with moisture, acid etc. it gets corroded and the process is called corrosion.

Question 18.
What is the colour of coating on silver due to corrosion?
Answer:
Black coating.

Question 19.
What is the colour of coating on copper due to corrosion?
Answer:
Green coating.

Question 20.
Due to which process, there is a change in smell and taste of food items which contain fat and oils?
Answer:
This change is due to oxidation and is called rancidity.

Question 21.
What do the manufacturer of chips flush in the packets of chips to prevent oxidation?
Answer:
Nitrogen gas.

Question 22.
What is the colour of coating of copper(II) oxide?
Answer:
Black colour.

Question 23.
What is other name of oxidation-reduction reaction.
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Question 24.
When does oxidation of substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is gain of O2 or loss of H2.

Question 25.
When does reduction of a substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is loss of O2 or gain of H2.

Question 26.
White coloured silver chloride change to which colour in sunlight?
Answer:
In grey colour.

Question 27.
Give one example of endothermic reaction.
Answer:
3AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

Question 28.
In w hat calcium carbonate dissociate when heat is given to it?
Answer:
Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 29.
Write chemical formula for slaked lime.
Answer:
Ca(OH)2.

Question 30.
What is special there in potato, rice and bread?
Answer:
Carbohydrate.

Question 31.
What do we get on the decomposition of carbohydrate?
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 32.
Write the reaction for combination of natural gas?
Answer:
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + energy.

Question 33.
What type of reaction is combination of coal and formation of water from H2 and O2?
Answer:
Combination reaction.

Question 34.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 22
What is A in above reaction.
Answer:
Chlorophyll.

Question 35.
What is skeletal chemical equation?
Answer:
If in a chemical reaction, number of atoms of each element on left hand side is not equal to number of atoms of each element on right hand side such a reaction is called skeletal chemical equation.

Question 36.
What are products?
Answer:
In a chemical reaction new substances are formed which are known as products.

Question 37.
What are reactants?
Answer:
Those substances which take part in a chemical reaction and undergo chemical changes are called reactants.

Question 38.
What is reduction reaction?
Answer:
It is a reaction in which there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Question 39.
What is oxidation reaction?
Answer:
It is reaction in which there is loss of hydrogen or gain of oxygen.

Question 40.
If in a reaction one reactant is reduced and other is oxidised, what is name of such a reaction?
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The chemical reaction given below represents :
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) →
BaSO4(s) + 2 NaCl(aq)
(A) Decomposition reaction
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Double diplacement reaction.
Answer:
(D) Double displacement reaction

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out is called:
(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Polymerisation reaction
(D) All.
Answer:
(A) Exothermic reaction

Question 3.
During electrolysis, hydrogen and oxygen are produced in the ratio by volume :
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:2
(D) 4:1.
Answer:
(A) 2: 1.

Question 4.
The chemical formula of rust is:
(A) Fe2O3
(B) FeCO3
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O
(D) FeCO3 xH2O.
Answer:
(C) Fe2O3 .xH2O

Question 5.
Which is an example of a decomposition reaction?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 23
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 24

Question 6.
Redox reaction involves:
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Both oxidation and reduction
(D) None.
Answer:
(C) Both oxidation and reduction

Question 7.
In a packet of chips oxygen is replaced by gas:
(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(C) N2
(D) O3.
Answer:
(C) N2

Question 8.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
What type of chemical reaction is shown by the above equation?
(A) Combination reaction
(B) Dissociation reaction
(C) Displacement reaction
(D) Double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(C) Displacement reaction.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Complete the following chemical equation.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 25
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 26

Question 2.
Respiration is an ________ reaction.
Answer:
Respiration is an exothermic reaction.

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a ________ reaction.
Answer:
Rusting iron is a redox reaction.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Plant Clinic Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
In which year plant clinic was established at Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 2.
How many plant clinics have been established by Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana in Punjab?
Answer:
Plant clinics are running at 18 Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKS) in various districts and four at regional research stations Abohar, Bathinda and Gurdaspur and Department of Fruit science, PAU, Ludhiana.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 3.
Where is plant clinic located at PAU?
Answer:
PAU clock tower, located near gate no. 1 at PAU campus.

Question 4.
Name any two instruments/tool being used in the plant at clinics?
Answer:
Computer, Microscope, scissors, knife etc.

Question 5.
Name the principle based on which the exact quantity of pesticides is calculated to control insect pests on different crops.
Answer:
Economic threshold level.

Question 6.
Name the instrument with the help of which one can observe the pictures on slides.
Answer:
Projector.

Question 7.
Name the tool used to observe the small disease specimens under field conditions.
Answer:
Microscope.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 8.
Name any two chemicals used for preservation of diseased plant specimens.
Answer:
Formalin, acetic acid.

Question 9.
Mention the email address of plant clinic located at Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana.
Answer:
plantclinic@pau.edu.

Question 10.
Mention the telephone number of plant clinic situated at PAU, Ludhiana.
Answer:
0161-240-1960 with extension 417. Mobile number: 9463048181.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What is plant clinic?
Answer:
Plant clinic is a place where diagnosis and remedial measures for diseased plants, nutrient deficiency, insect attack etc. are provided to the farmers.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of Plant Clinic?
Answer:

  • Diagnosis and remedial measures for plants are provided.
  • Various experts are available at all times in the plant clinic for quick redressal of day to day problems faced by farmers.
  • Farmers can get solutions to their problems through email, mobile phone, whatsapp.

Question 3.
How plant clinic differ from human hospitals?
Answer:
In human hospitals, diseases of human beings are identified and treated. Whereas in plant clinic besides treating diseased plants, training and education to identify diseased plants is also given.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
Mention the disiciplines / subjects used for the identification of plant specimens.
Answer:
In these clinics attack of disease, nutrient deficiency, insect attack and other reasons which are harming plants are studied. Disciplines which are used to identify plant, specimen etc. at plant clinic are plant pathology, entomology, soil sciences, agronomy etc.

Question 5.
Enlist the equipments being used in plant clinic.
Answer:
Following equipments are required at plant clinic:
Microscope, magnifying lenses, chemicals, incubator, scissors, knife, computer, photo camera, projector, books, etc.

Question 6.
What is the importance of microscope in plant clinic?
Answer:
Plant is dissected to see the symptoms of disease by using microscope. Actual colour, small identification marks etc. are also seen by using microscope.

Question 7.
What do you understand from the term “Economic Threshold Level”?
Answer:
To protect plants from diseases and insects, fertilizers and insecticides should be used after properly calculating the required dose of these. When number of insects increased upto a specific number or affect a specified number of plants of the crop. Spray of pesticide should start after this level has reached. This way crop as well as farmers will get some benefit. This is known as economic threshold level.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 8.
Comment on the use of computer in plant clinic.
Answer:
Some specimens cannot be preserved either wet or dry. Such samples are scanned and stored in computer. These can be used when needed.

Question 9.
How incubator is useful in diagnosis of microorganisms in plants?
Answer:
Media after inoculation with pathogen is placed in incubator which is set at appropriate temperature and proper moisture is provided for the proper growth of pathogen. This is used for identification of other organisms also.

Question 10.
Enlist the chemicals required for the preservation of plant specimen in glass jars.
Answer:
For this work formalin, alcohol etc. is used.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Describe the mobile diagnosis-cum-exhibition van.
Answer:
To make the reach of plant clinics upto the villages, plant clinics have mobile diagnostics cum exhibition van. This van has the facilities in it for diagnosis and for exhibition. It has various equipments in it and it has the facility to show movies of technical know how to farmers, Agricultural experts provide remedies at the spot after testing and knowing their problems. Farmers are gaining a lot from this van.

Question 2.
What is the use of camera and Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) projector in plant clinic?
Answer:
Camera is used to take photographs of diseased plants. These photographs and slides are kept safe in the plant clinic. These are shown to the students for further reference. Scientists can also take help from these photos. Projector is used to see these slides. It can show enlarged view of photos and slides.

Question 3.
Define PAU doots and KMAS service of plant clinic.
Answer:
PAU doots is a new service introduced by clinic plants in which some farmers are enrolled as ‘PAU doots’ who are given the responsibility to disseminate the agriculture technology: These doots disseminate the information, which they get regularly through mobile messages and emails, to the fellow farmers using public address system.

KMAS is Kisan Mobile Advisory Service which is provided by Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) to the farmers for adopting advanced and new agricultural practices at their field. Messages are sent to the fellow farmers for spreading the technology related information.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
What is touch screen Kisok and farmer service centre?
Answer:
Plant clinic has a computerized touch screen Kisok which is called information booth. It pictorially explains the production and protection technology of rabi and Kharif crops from sowing till harvesting. Plant clinic was made a part of Farmer Service Centre (FSC) in 1999 and now it is known as agricultural technology information centre. Various types of problem of allied activities related to agriculture are taken. This is very helpful centre for the farmer.

Question 5.
Describe the services provided by plant clinic to the farmers. Or What are the advantages of plant clinic?
Answer:

  • In Plant Clinic identification of deficiency of nutritional elements in plants is done and also identification of harmful insects is also done.
  • After identifying the symptoms of the diseased plarfts brought from the fields, methods to prevent diseases are suggested on the spot.
  • In Plant Clinic training is given to identify the symptoms of diseases and insects.
  • Training is given to calculate the required amount of fertilizers and insecticides etc. to be applied to the crop so that unnecessary expenditure can be avoided.
  • Training is also given about the economic threshold of main insects of different crops. This helps in knowing exact amount of fertilizers and insecticides to be used or applied.
  • Training for using different types of spray pumps and other agriculture implements is also given.
  • Students are shown various types of diseased plants and are trained to treat such plants. This help in reducing the expenditure of the fanners.
  • Photographs of various types of implements, fertilizers, pumps, plant sample, seed and other items used for studying plants are kept at the plant clinic.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Plant Clinic Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Name of chemical used for preservation of diseased plant specimens.
(a) Formalin
(b) Gulocose
(c) Sodium bromide
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Formalin

Question 2.
In which year plant clinic was established in. PAU?
(a) 2010
(b) 1993
(c) 1980
(d) 1955.
Answer:
(b) 1993

Question 3.
Which tool is tised to diagnose micro organisms in plants?
(a) microscope
(b) incubation
(c) Projector
(d) All.
Answer:
(b) incubation

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
In how many Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) are plant clinics working?
(a) 1
(b) 27
(c) 18
(d) 22.
Answer:
(c) 18

Question 5.
What is the e-mail address of plant clinic of Punjab Agriculture University?
(a) www.gadvasu.in
(b) www.pddb.in
(c) plantclinic@pau.edu
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(c) plantclinic@pau.edu

Question 6.
Mention the landline telephone number of plant clinic situated at Punjab Agricultural University.
(a) 0161-2401960 Extension-417
(b) 94630-48181
(c) plantclinic@pau.edu
(d) www.pau.edu.
Answer:
(a) 0161-2401960 Extension-417

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

True False:

1. PAU established Central Plant Clinic at Ludhiana in 1993.
Answer:
True

2. Various types of equipments and apparatus are required in the plant clinic.
Answer:
True

3. No chemicals are required in plant clinic.
Answer:
False

4. e-mail address of plant clinic at Punjab Agricultural University is plantclinic@pau.edu.
Answer:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Fill in the blanks:

1. To see various symptoms of disease, we use ………….. .
Answer:
microscope

2. One of the chemical used to preserve fresh symptoms of various plants is …………. .
Answer:
formaldehyde

3. Computer, ………… are important part of plant clinic.
Answer:
scanners

4. Plants are dissected using knife, ……………..etc.
Answer:
scissors.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one reason due to which yield is reduced.
Answer:
Deficiency of nutrients, diseases, attack of insects.

Question 2.
Which instrument is used to see the symptoms of diseases?
Answer:
Microscope.

Question 3.
What is used for disection of plants?
Answer:
Knife, scissors etc.

Question 4.
Which equipment is used to observe micro organisms?
Answer:
Incubator.

Question 5.
At which mobile number one can contact plant clinic?
Answer:
9463048181.

Question 6.
Which type of van is used by plant clinic at PAU for giving technical knowledge to villagers?
Answer:
Mobile diagnostic cum exhibition van.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 7.
Write name of any one chemical which is used in plant clinic?
Answer:
Formalin.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the need of knife in the plant clinic?
Answer:
Knife is used to dissect the plant so that it can be viewed under the microscope.

Question 2.
What is the use of magnifying lens in plant clinic?
Answer:
This is used Ip see small parts of plants, insects and other smaller organism and to identify them.

Question 3.
Which service has been started by plant clinic so as to reach the villagers?
Answer:
PAU doot and KMAS service has been started. Farmers can register their email and mobile number with the plant clinic to” get benefits.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by economic threshold? Describe in detail.
Answer:
Before applying insecticides, their exact amount required for the particular crop is first calculated. This way plants can get maximum benefit and expenditure is also minimum. Many problems are created if insecticides f are used in excess of what is required or if these are unnecessarily used. e.g. insects become resistant to the use of insecticides, these become habitual rather than dying, friendly insects are also killed, the insects which were not harmful earlier may start harming the crop, whole of the environment gets polluted.

Every year the same insect does not attack the crop to the same extent. On one year the attack is intense on the other year it may be moderate or mild. Therefore, one should take proper care while using these drags. Insecticides should be used only when the number of insects reach a particular level for a given crop. This way plant get more benefit and expenditure is also lowered.

Number of insects should not be allowed to increase from the specified value and do not allow these to damage the crop. Farmers should not get monetary loss due to unnecessary use of drugs. Sometime the signs of attack are counted and not the number of insects e.g. Stemborer in rice. Its attacked sites are counted and not actual number of insects.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 2.
Criticise the future of economic clinics.
Answer:
This is a competition age. Therefore, farmers should not allow the nutrient deficiencies to occur in their crops and also should take proper measures to protect the crop from diseases. This way he can earn more profit. The agriculture is now not limited only to state or country but has extended to international level. Produce has to be exported to other countries.

If produce is of good quality one can earn more profit. Help from plant clinic can be taken to maintain the proper quality of the crop. Nutrient deficiencies can be checked and proper fertilizers can be used to overcome the deficiencies. Amount of insecticide or fertilizers to be used can be calculated and expenditure on these poisons can be reduced. Unnecessary use of these poisons also harm the whole of environment Therefore, plant clinics have an important role to play in future.

Question 3.
Which facilities are available at plant clinic?
Answer:

  • Farmers are given technical knowledge at plant clinics.
  • Diagonsis of diseases is done, their symptoms are noted. Damage of crop by insects is also estimated.
  • Soil and water testing facility is also available.
  • Farmers can contact plant clinic through telephone, e-mail and whats app and can get solution to their problems.
  • Plant clinic has a diagnostic cum exhibition mobile van, which is used to reach villagers and films are shown to farmers having technical information.
  • PAU has started PAU messengers and KMAS service. Farmers can register their phone no. and e-mail with the plant clinic.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 11 Plant Clinic

Question 4.
Explain the need of plant clinic by telling its history.
Answer:
For the last few years there is an increase in number of students from cities who are seeking admission in higher education courses related to agriculture. These students do not have much of practical knowledge about agriculture works and when they go to the field work after getting higher education degrees, they face so many practical problems.

First plant disease clinic was set up by PAU Ludhiana in 1978 and later on PAU Ludhiana established central plant clinic in 1993. In different districts there are 18 agriculture science centres, where plant clinics are also running. These clinics have proved very useful for the students. Because of this principle farmers are getting knowledge and information about the nutritional deficiencies in their crops and protection against diseases, thus they are earning more profit.

Question 5.
What is plant clinic? What is the use of computer in plant clinic?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Marching Game Rules.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
What is marching?
Answer:
Marching:
1. Attention:
It is very important position. The ankle of the feet should be in line, making the 30° angle should be straight along with body, chest should be normal. Both the arms are attached with side of the body and finger should be little close.

2. The neck should be straight by looking ahead the body. Weight should be on both feet and respiration should be normal.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Stand at Ease:
Stand at ease position move left foot toward, left side at the distance 12″. The weight of the body should be on both legs and drag both the hands behind. His body and right hand would be under the left hand. The thumb of right hand should be under left hand. At ease position, both the hand should be stretched keeping the finger stretched.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Right Dress:
On the command of right dress, all students move ahead with right foot and get the position at the distance of 15″, but a student standing at right will remain standing, student in a first row raise right hand, left shoulders and move towards left. The fingers load others, students would stand to his right hand and other would follow, they would keep at the distance of 30″.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 3
Left Dress: On getting command left dress, all movement will be followed by left hand.

Left Turn:
In this exercise, student will stand in attention position and counting two. On counting one, student will turn left side at the 90° and on left toe and right finger will raise upward after this exercise. On counting two, will raise a foot 6″ and meet with other foot.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4
Right Turn:
This exercise is performed on counting two as it is done on left turn. In the same way right ankle or left foot is done.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 5
About Turn:
On command of about turn, student will turn back from the right side at the degree of 180°, while taking turn left, foot will be raise and turn on right foot. The body weight should be parallel on both feet on counting two, student will turn left foot and will remain in attention position.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 6
Quick March:
On command quick march, student will take left foot ahead. This foot will drag near the earth keeping knee straight, in this same way, right foot will be followed. The finger of hand will close, this exercise is performed after taking right foot ahead and repeat again and again. The hand position with be contrast to it. This exercise will be continue on counting one and two.

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Halt:
The command of halt is given, when right foot is the cross to the left foot. As command is given to students, as soon as will touch the left foot to the earth. Right leg will come to the parallel, and they will stand. Their both hands will be together and student will remain in attention position.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How many species of rodents are there in Punjab?
Answer:
8 types.

Question 2.
In which area of Punjab Indian bush rat is found?
Answer:
Dry and sandy areas.

Question 3.
How much damage is caused to germinating winter maize by rodents?
Answer:
10.7%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
At how many locations poison bait should be placed in one acre?
Answer:
At 40 locations at the rate of 10 grams of bait at a point

Question 5.
Name the two reodent eating beneficial birds.
Answer:
Owl and eagle.

Question 6.
Name the bird causing maximum damage to crops. Or Which is the most harmful bird in agriculture?
Answer:
Parrot (Rose ringed parakeet)

Question 7.
How much should be the height of scare crow from the crop?
Answer:
One metre more than the height of crop.

Question 8.
Name any one chemical used for killing rodents.
Answer:
Zinc phosphide.

Question 9.
Where does lapwing make its nest?
Answer:
On the ground.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 10.
What does Hoopoe eat its diet?
Answer:
Insects.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Why we need to protect the agricultural products from harmful animals?
Answer:
Development in the agriculture field can be maintained if agriculture produce is stored properly and protected from harmful animals, birds etc. It is necessary to protect the produce from the pests.

Question 2.
Describe the method of pre-baiting for rodents.
Answer:
To trap more rodents it becomes necessary to prebait the rodents. For this purpose place bait in each cage consisting of 10 to 15 gram pearl millet, sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains two per cent of powdered sugar and two ppr cent of groundnut or sunflower oil, for 2-3 days.

Question 3.
How to reduce the ill effect of Bromadiolone in human being?
Answer:
Effect of bromadiolone can be reduced by using vitamin K as antidote. Use this vitamin under the supervision of ajdoctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
How the anti rat campaign can help in eradication of rats at village level? .
Answer:
It is of no use to eradicate rats in a smaller area. Because rats will come again from the neighbouring field or area. To get best results there should be rat killing campaign at village level. Under this campaign rodents are killed collectively in whole of the village at all the locations e.g. in orchards, in cultivated, uncultivated, forestry land etc.

Question 5.
What do you mean by scarecrow? What is its role in crop protection?
Answer:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

Question 6.
How the oil seed crop can be protected from parakeet damage?
Answer:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we can protect oilseed crops from parrots.

Question 7.
Why the crop should not be sown at the place having dense trees?
Answer:
Birds have their nests on the trees. If maize and sunflower crops are sown near such sites where birds come and go very easily and very frequently then birds can easily damage the crop. Therefore, crop should not be sown near the places having dense trees.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 8.
How the beneficial birds help farmers in protecting the crops?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, hawks, falcon, eagles etc. Birds like drongos, blue joy, cattle egret, lapwings etc. are insects eating birds. These eat many of the harmful insects from the fields.

Question 9.
How do you identify the Cattle Egret?
Answer:
It is a white coloured bird and its beak is yellow. This bird is seen preying on insects behind the tractor or oxen during ploughing.

Question 10.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during use of poisonous bait?
Answer:
Precautions while-using poisonous baits:

  • Use a stick or Khurpa for mixing the ingredients of bait while preparing. Otherwise use rubber gloves. Protect eyes, nose and mouth from the bait;
  • Keep rodenticides and poisonous bait away from the reach of children and domestic animals.
  • Never prepare baits in household utensils.
  • Use polythene bags for carrying baits and after use bury these bags under the earth.
  • Killed rats along with baits should be buried deep under the earth.
  • Zinc phosphide is very poisonous for humans. In case of accidental ingestion induce vomitting by inserting fingers in the mouth upto throat and rash to doctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
How many types of rodents are there in Punjab? Describe the rodent species found in various areas of Punjab.
Answer:
In Punjab there are 8 species of rats and mice. Indian gerbil, Indian bush rat, Indian mole rat, soft furred field rat, short tailed mole rat, house mouse, brown spiny mouse, field mouse. The Indian mole rat can damage sugarcane and rice-wheat at the time of germinating. Indian mole rat is found mostly in bet area whereas Indian gerbil and Indian bush rat are found in Kandi region (district Hoshiarpur)

Question 2.
Describe the two methods of preparation of poisonous bait.
Answer:
1. 2% zinc phosphide bait:
Take 1 kg of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat with 20 gram of vegetable oil (sunflower or groundnut oil), and 25 gram of zinc phosphide. Mix all these materials thoroughly. Always prepare fresh bait and never add water to this bait.

2. 0.005% Bromadiolone bait:
Take 20 gram of vegetable oil, (sunflower or groundnut oil), 20 gram powdered sugar and 20 gram bromadiolone powder and 1 kg of cracked wheat or any other cereal flour. Mix this material properly, bait is ready for use.

Question 3.
How to manage rodents by integrated management methods?
Answer:
Using only one method to control rats is not very effective. Rats multiply themselves quickly by giving birth to offsprings. Therefore, use more than one method to kill rats. Rats coming out from flooded burrows should be killed using sticks. After sowing of a crop use chemical methods to kill rats. After pre-baiting also put some gas tablets in the burrows. After zinc phosphide if needed use bromadiolone.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Describe the traditional methods used for protection of crops from birds.
Answer:

  • Sow Dhaincha and Bajra near the costly crops to save the crops from birds. Birds like to eat bajra and dhaincha. Birds prefer these crops as their feed and main crop is saved.
  • Do not sow crops like sunflower near the places where birds usually visit e.g. near the electricity wires and near the dense trees.
  • To save maize and sunflower from Parrots, sow these crops at least in two-three acres of area. Parrots do not go inside the crop and does not harm the crop to large extent.

Question 5.
Describe the mechanical method of protecting crop from birds.
Answer:
1. Making explosions: Make false gun shots at different time intervals to scare the birds.

2. Using scarecrow:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

3. Hanging dead crows:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore, to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we protect oilseed crops from parrots.

4. Using rope-crackers:
Tie fire crackers on a rope at 6-8 inch distance. Ignite the lower end of the rope. Explosions caused by fire crackers at different intervals scare the birds and the birds fly away. Fix the rope in the centre at the time of germination and at the boundaries of the field at the time of maturity.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Friendly birds are:
(a) Lapwing
(b) Blue Joy
(c) Drongo
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Rats eaten by an owl in a day.
(a) 4-5
(b) 8-10
(c) 1-2
(d) All.
Answers:
(a) 4-5

Question 3.
Where does red mattled lapwing (tatihri) make its nest?
(a) on ground
(b) on trees
(c) in water
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) on ground

Question 4.
Chemical used to kill rats is:
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Zinc phosphide
(d) All.
Answers:
(c) Zinc phosphide

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 5.
How many types of birds are found in Punjab?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 300
(d) 50.
Answers:
(c) 300

Question 6.
Which bird makes its nest in the cavities of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) House sparrow.
Answers:
(a) Hoopoe

Question 7.
Which bird makes its nest on ground?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-watded Lapwing
(c) Cattle Egret
(d) Blue Joy.
Answers:
(b) Red-watded Lapwing

Question 8.
Which bird makes its nest in groups on the top of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) Owl.
Answers:
(c) Cattle egret

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 9.
How much damage is caused to sprouting wheat by rodents?
(a) 2.9%
(b) 10.7%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 1.1%.
Answers:
(a) 2.9%

True False:

1. Blue Joy has insects as its main diet.
Answers:
True

2. Eight type of rodents and mice are found in the fields of Punjab.
Answers:
True

3. Rose-ringed parakeet is most harmful bird in the field of agriculture.
Answers:
True

4. Zinc Phoshide is used to kill cats.
Answers:
True

5. Owl, Falcon are friendly birds for a farmer.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Fill in the blanks:

1. Scare crow should be atleast ………………… higher than the crop.
Answers:
one metre

2. For trapping rodents place ………………….. traps per acre in the field.
Answers:
16

3. ………………………….. percent of total bird species in India are useful to agriculture.
Answers:
3. 98

4. ………………………. bird has a yellow beak.
Answers:
Cattle egret.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where does rats live?
Answer:
Rats live in Burrows.

Question 2.
Which species of rats are found in areas of sugarcane and wheat rice and bet areas?
Answer:
Indian mole rat.

Question 3.
Which rat is found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Gerbil rat.

Question 4.
Which rats are found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Indian Bush rats.

Question 5.
How much damage is done by rats at the time of sprouting and maturity?
Answer:
At the time of sprouting is 2.9%. At the time of maturity is 4.5%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 6.
How much damage is done to peas by rats at the time of maturity?
Answer:
1.1%.

Question 7.
How much damage is done by rats in bet area at the time of maturity of wheat?
Answer:
25%.

Question 8.
How will you kill rats which are coming out of flooded burrows?
Answer:
Kill with sticks.

Question 9.
How many traps per acre should be placed for trapping rats?
Answer:
16 traps.

Question 10.
After how many days cages should be used again for trapping rats?
Answer:
After 30 days.

Question 11.
For how much area one kg of zinc phosphide bait be used?
Answer:
2.5 acre.

Question 12.
What is natural method to control rats?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, kites, hawks, falcons, eagles, snakes, cats, mongooses, jackals, etc.

Question 13.
How many species of birds are found in Punjab?
Answer:
300 species.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 14.
What is the worth in Rs. of rice which are eaten by doves, Pigeons and weaving bird?
Answer:
Worth rupees 2 crore.

Question 15.
After how many days should the direction, clothes and location of the scarecrow be changed?
Answer:
After ten days.

Question 16.
How many rats are eaten by an owl?
Answer:
4-5 rats in a day.

Question 17.
For how many times a single pair of house sparrow feeds its chick?
Answer:
250 times.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should we do to save birds around us?
Answer:

  • We should plant conventional trees like, Banyan, Peepal, Kikkar, Tahli, Toot etc. around our living area.
  • We should provide place for nests by placing wooden or earthen pots wherever possible.

Question 2.
Write about Neelkanth.
Answer:
It has pale blue abdomen and breast is rufous brown. It is of the size of blue rock pigeon. It feeds on insects. Its nest is in the cavities of the trees.

Question 3.
Write about Red-wattled Lapwing.
Answer:
Its head, bieast and neck are black in colour. It is bronze brown from above and white from below. It feeds on insects and snails. It makes its nest on ground.

Question 4.
How are the crops protected by using scarecrows (Darna)?
Answer:
See in above questions.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give chemical methods of killing rodents (rats).
Answer:
See above question.

Question 2.
Give mechanical methods to protect crops from rats.
Answer:
Following mechanical methods are used:

  • Killing rats-After harvesting, at the time of Rauni rats come out from the flooded burrows which are killed by sticks.
  • Using cage/traps-See above questions.
  • Using bait-See above questions.

Question 3.
How traps and cages can be used to protect crop from rodents?
Answer:
Kill the trapped rats by drowning in water and the interval between two trapping in the same location should not be less than 30 days. P.A.U. has developed double chambered multi-catch trap with tunnel type entrance. Many rats can be trapped at a time. Place 16 traps for an acre at runways and activity sites of rats in the fields, also place traps in homes, poultry farms, godowns, stores etc. Place one trap for 4 to 8 square metre along the walls, comers of rooms, grain storing places and behind the boxes.

In cold stores wrap the traps in newspapers before placing. For catching rats pre-baiting is done. For this purpose put in each cage/trap bait consisting of 10 to 15 grams of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains 2% of powdered sugar and 2% of groundnut or sunflower oil. This should be done for 2-3 days. Thus by using traps crops can be saved from damage by rats.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Why we should not kill birds useful for crops?
Answer:
Useful birds include insectivorous and rodentivorous birds. They feed insects to their young ones. Predatory birds; like, owl, eagle, falcons etc. eat rats and mice. An owl can eat 4-5 rats a day. These birds help the farmers by killing insects and rodents. We should not kill such useful birds.

Question 5.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during the uses of poison bait?
Answer:

  • Poison bait should be kept away from the reach of children, domestic animals, pets and birds.
  • Save the mouth, eyes and skin from the poison b&t.
  • Never use household utensils for the preparation of poison bait.
  • Use polythene bags for storage and carrying these poison baits. Bury them after use.
  • Collect and burry the left over poison bait and the dead rats aways from the field.

Question 6.
How will you identify the woodpecker?
Answer:
It has a long beak, which has a little bend. It has lines on its feathers, body and tail of white and black colour. It has cockscomb also.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Certified Seed Production Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Write names of two Mexican wheat varieties which were introduced in India in sixties.
Answer:
Lerma Roso, Sonora-64.

Question 2.
Write name of machine which is used for cleaning of seed.
Answer:
Seed grader.

Question 3.
Write name of two recently recommended varieties of wheat.
Answer:
W.H. 1105, PBW 621.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
How many tags are stitched on a bag of certified seed?
Answer:
Two – green and blue.

Question 5.
What is the colour of tag which is used to label foundation seed?
Answer:
White tag.

Question 6.
Write full form of T.L.
Answer:
Truthfully Labelled.

Question 7.
In which year seed act was passed?
Answer:
In the year 1966.

Question 8.
What is the minimum germination per cent of certified wheat seed?
Answer:
Not less than 85%.

Question 9.
Give minimum purity of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
98%.

Question 10.
Write one important yield contributary hereditary trait of cotton plant.
Answer:
Number of cotton bolls, average weight of cotton bolls.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of seed act? When was this regulated?
Answer:
The objective of seed act was to provide right pedigree seeds at lower cost to the farmers. This act was enacted in year 1966.

Question 2.
List two important hereditary and yield contributory traits of cotton plant.
Answer:
Heredity qualities of cotton crop are – number of cotton bolls, average weight Of cotton bolls, number of branches bearing fruit etc.

Question 3.
Define foundation seed.
Answer:
Certified seeds are produced from foundation seeds and foundation seeds shall be the progeny of breeder seeds.

Question 4.
Write full name of agency which certifies the quality of seed.
Answer:
Punjab State Seed Certification Authority has the authority to certify seeds.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List three important yield contributory traits of wheat plant.
Answer:
Some of the yield contributory traits of wheat plants are – number of branches per plant, number of grains per ear, weight of grains, length of ear etc.

Question 6.
Who produces breeder seed?
Answer:
The agency which has researched and discovered the variety, produces nuclear seeds and then produces breeder seed from nuclear seed.

Question 7.
List three parameters of physical quality of seeds. .
Answer:
Physical appearance qualities – colour of seed, shape, weight etc.

Question 8.
Define a certified seed.
Answer:
Those seeds which are produced according to the standards set by Punjab State Seed Certification Agency and also under their supervision are called certified seeds.

Question 9.
What is the importance of isolation distance in seed production?
Answer:
The crop which is used for seed production should be separated from the same crop species by some minimum distance. This way seed quality and standard can be maintained and affect of other crop can be avoided.

Question 10.
Why removal of off types from a seed crop is so important?
Answer:
The seed we get is of high quality and is free from mechanical mixing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Differentiate hereditary traits from phenotype or physical quality traits.
Answer:
Physical quality traits:
Colour of seed, shape, weight, free from breakage, free from garbage, free from weeds and free from other seeds etc. are some of qualities which a high quality seed should have.

Hereditary traits:
These are the qualities which cannot be seen externally. These are the hidden qualities, which are carried on from one crop to the other crop. These are called genetic traits. Different plants have different genetic qualities. The difference we see in different varieties of the same crop are due to genetic qualities.

Question 2.
List three important field standards in seed production.
Answer:

  • Isolation of seed.crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

Question 3.
Explain seed standards for a certified seed production.
Answer:
There are two types of standards which are to be followed to produce certified seeds:
(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field.
(2) Standards of the seed.

(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field:

  • Isolation of seed crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

(2) Standards of the seed:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture per cent in seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
Explain procedure for certified seed production on commercial scale.
Answer:
1. One should get proper and full knowledge and information about seed production and Marketing (sound knowledge and required expertise). Such a training can be obtained from P.A.U. Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK), department of agriculture, Punjab State Seed Certification Authority, PUNSEED etc.

2. Choosing crop whose seed is to be produced, Make a proper plan for necessary infrastructure required for seed production and marketing etc.

3. To establish a firm and get seed licence from the department of agriculture.

4. Some of the basic requirements are seed grading machine for cleaning of seed threshing floor, store, bag closer machine, bags for packing seeds.

5. We can get foundation seed from director seeds, P.A.U. Ludhiana. Bill for seed should be in the name of firm or company and it is necessary.

6. Get the crop as recommended from the foundation seed and get registered the crop with department of Punjab State Seed Certification Authority.

7. Keep on removing by pulling out the plants which are off-type plants, diseased plants, weed plants. The above mentioned department supervise/observe the crop for two-three times.

8. Harvest the crop, clean it and pack it properly. Do all these activities under the supervision of PSSCA. Put on proper tags on the seed bags.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List important points for starting seed production enterprise.
Answer:
Following points should followed for starting seed production enterprise:

  • Choose a crop that will give good returns and is easy to produce the seeds of this crop or not.
  • Choose the crop suited to the area and which can be cultivated by you.
  • Choose the crop whose seed is consumed in large quantity, e.g. wheat.
  • Become registered farmer with PUNSEED.
  • Whichever seeds you want to produce, gain sound knowledge and expertise to produce such seeds.
  • One can earn good profit by producing hybrid seeds, but it needs hardwork, proper training and patience.
  • Basic infrastructure is required which is a costly affair. Basic infrastructure consists of store, threshing floor, seed grader and other machines.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Certified Seed Production Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Categories of seeds are:
(a) Primary
(b) Breeder
(c) Foundation and certified
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
Which colour tag is put on the foundation seed bag?
(a) White
(b) Blue
(c) Red
(d) Yellow.
Answers:
(a) White

Question 3.
Which colour tag is put on the bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(a) Golden

Question 4.
New varieties of wheats which are disease free:
(a) WH1105
(b) PBW621
(c) HD3086
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 5.
Which colour tag by Government is put on the certified seed bag?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) Blue

Question 6.
Which colour tag is put on bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(b) White

Question 7.
How many tags are put on the bag of certified seeds?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4.
Answers:
(a) 2

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 8.
What should be the minimum purity of certified seeds of paddy?
(a) 98%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 13%.
Answers:
(a) 98%

True False:

1. Hereditary traits are determined by genetic factors.
Answers:
True

2. PBW 621 is a variety of wheat.
Answers:
True

3. Bags with certified seeds bear two tags.
Answers:
True

4. Lerma Roso is a Mexican wheat variety.
Answers:
True

5. Certified seeds of rice must have minimum 98% purity.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Fill in the blanks:

1. Number of tillers per plant is a trait for wheat.
Answers:
hereditary

2. Certification tags shall be of colour for foundation seed.
Answers:
white

3. The credit of green revolution goes to wheat varieties.
Answers:
Mexican

4. Bag containing seed bears a golden tag.
Answers:
breeder.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When were the Mexican wheat verities cultivated for first time?
Answer:
In 1965-66. .

Question 2.
From where was green revolution started?
Answer:
From the cultivation of semi dwarf Mexican wheat varieties.

Question 3.
Write hereditary qualities of corn.
Answer:
Length and circumference of com cob, average number of grains in the com cob, average weight of 1000 grains, time for maturity etc.

Question 4.
Write about germination of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
Germination should not be less than 80%.

Question 5.
Which tag is attached on bag of certified seed by government?
Answer:
Blue coloured tag.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did the farmers experience good quality seeds?
Answer:
Nearly 50 years ago when they cultivated the Mexican Semidwarf varieties of wheat and the yield was double than the previous years.

Question 2.
What is seed?
Answer:
Some grains or some other vegetative parts of a plant e.g. roots, stem cuttings, bulbs, sukers etc. which can be used to grow new plants. These all are considered as seeds.

Question 3.
Give properties of certified seeds.
Answer:
Certified seeds have following qualities. These seeds should be of

  • definite purity
  • free from diseases and seeds of weeds
  • definite germination.

Question 4.
Write possible qualities of certified seeds of wheat.
Answer:

  • Germination – pot less than 85% .
  • Purity – not less than 98%
  • Moisture content – not more than 12%.

Question 5.
What information we get from green tag fixed on bags of certified seeds?
Answer:
Green Tag has the following information about the seed germination, purity, diseases and other standards.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 6.
Where is the head office of Punjab State See Certification Agency and where is the zonal office?
Answer:
Head office is at SCO 837-838 Sec. 22 A, Chandigarh and regional offices at Ludhiana, Jalandhar, Kotkpura.

Question 7.
What is the process to reach the certified seed?
Answer:
We get breeder seed from the nuclear seed, foundation seed from breeder seed then certified seed from the foundation seed.

Question 8.
What are the various tags attached to different seed bags?
Answer:
Yellow tag on breeder seed, White tag on foundation seed, Blue tag on certified seed.

Question 9.
How many types of seeds are there according to Seed act?
Answer:
There are four types of seeds – Nuclear seeds, Breeder seeds, Foundation seeds, Certified seeds.

Question 10.
What do you know about T.L. seed?
Answer:
If seed is not certified but otherwise it conforms to all seed and field standards it is called T.L. (truthfully labelled) seed. Such seeds should have standards like – hereditary purity, germination, moisture content as per the standards etc.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about possibilities of profit and risk in the enterprise of seed production.
Answer:
The enterprise of certified seeds production is profitable. Such seeds have more selling price than the other seeds. But there is some initial cost involved e.g. cost of foundation seed, certification fees, cost to remove off-type plants, seed grading, packaging of seed, attaching tag, sealing and storing of seeds. During 2014-2015, minimum support price of one quintal of wheat was Rs. 1450. But certified seed of wheat was sold at a price of Rs. 2000-2500 per quintal. This way enterprise of seed production of certified and hybrid seed is very profitable.

There is also a fear of loss in this business also, as in other businesses. Some times the seed remains unsold and it can fail in laboratory test also. But the possibility of unsold seed is very less because already there is huge demand of seed in the market, which is not being fulfilled. So, this business is very profitable.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
What do you mean by certified seed? Write three features of certified seeds.
Answer:
See in the above questions.

Question 3.
Which four parameters are examined in the seed test laboratory while examining seeds?
Answer:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • a number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture percent in the seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agro Based Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Which crops can be dried and powdered at domestic level?
Answer:
Turmeric, Chillies etc.

Question 2.
From where the training on agro based industries can be obtained?
Answer:
Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras.

Question 3.
Name any two machines installed in agro processing complex.
Answer:
Mini rice mill, small flour mill, grinder, oil expeller, cotton ginning machine.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 4.
List the items in which mentha oil is used. What are the uses of peppermint (Mentha) oil?
Answer:
Medicines, perfumes, cosmetics etc.

Question 5.
How much Jaggery can be made from one quintal of sugarcane?
Answer:
10-12 kg.

Question 6.
What is the percentage of post-harvest losses in grains?
Answer:
10%.

Question 7.
What is the pre requisite for starting any agro based industry?
Answer:
Basic training.

Question 8.
How much powder can be made from one quintal of raw turmeric? Or How much turmeric powder can be produced during processing from 100 kg raw turmeric?
Answer:
15-20 kg.

Question 9.
How water and oil are separated during mentha processing?
Answer:
With the help of separator.

Question 10.
Name any two rural agro-based industries.
Answer:
Turmeric processing plant, Mentha procesing unit, Juggery manufacturing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What type of agro based industry can be set at cooperative level?
Answer:
A huge investment is (nearly 30 lakhs Rupees) is needed to set up dehydration and freezing plant for the processing of fruits and vegetables. Such units can be established at cooperative level and initial investment at individual level is reduced to large extent.

Question 2.
Why post harvest loss is taking place in our country?
Answer:
There is lack of sources for processing and storage, therefore post harvest losses are taking place.

Question 3.
What should be done to reduce the post harvest losses?
Answer:
We should process the agriculture produce to stop the damage of grains.

Question 4.
How agro based industries can be helpful in enhancing income of the fanners?
Answer:
Farmers can get more income by processing and selling of the agricultural produce at small scale. Farmer can also increase his income by adopting the occupations like – poultry farming, dairy farming etc.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
Discuss the method for processing mentha.
Answer:
For extracting oil from mentha, mentha processing plant is established. Mentha crop is dried in open sun to reduce the moisture content. It is taken in an,air tight tanks in which steam is passed at pressure. Oil gets heated up and gets mixed with steam. Oil and steam mixture is removed from the tank and is cooled down quickly and oil and water are collected in another tank. This tank is known as separator. Oil is lighter than water and floats on the surface of water. It is decantated and collecte in plastic containers which are then sealed.

Question 6.
Describe the machine developed by PAU, Ludhiana for processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Punjab Agricultural University has developed a machine which is used for washing and polishing of turmeric. This machine can wash 2.5 -3.0 quintal turmeric in an hour and then can polish it also.

Question 7.
What are the technical operations related with jaggery manufacturing?
Answer:
Sugarcane is crushed using cane crusher. Juice so obtained is heated and concentrated to get jaggery.

Question 8.
Discuss any three machines used in agro processing complexes.
Answer:
Agro processing complexes can have machines like minirice mill, oil expel’ler, cotton gining machine etc. which are used to process paddy, oil seeds, cotton etc.

Question 9.
Why can’t the freezing plants for fruits and vegetables be installed at farmers’ level?
Answer:
A huge investment nearly Rs. 30 lakh is required to set up this unit. Therefore, it cannot be established at farmer’s level.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which agricultural produces can be used at home after drying? Or Write the name of four agricultural products which are used dried at domestic travel.
Answer:
Fenugreek, corriander, mint, chillies etc. can be used at homes after drying.

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Discuss the advantages of setting up of agro processing complexes in Punjab.
Answer:
Generally, there is damage of 10% grains after harvesting and in case of fruits and vegetables this damage and loss is upto 30 – 40%. If processing units are established at village level then such losses can be minimized. Farmers can get more income. Unemployed youth can get work and we can get fresh and high quality eatables. Due to availability of employment and earning, the migration towards cities is also reduced.

Question 2.
What type of machinery can be installed in a small agro processing complex and which crops will be processed?
Answer:
A small agro processing complex can have following machines.

  • mini rice mill
  • oil expeller
  • small flour mill
  • grinder
  • pulse cleaner and grader
  • cotton ginning machine
  • small feed mill
  • mini dal mill

These machines are used for processing pulses, cereals, oil seeds, spices, paddy, cotton etc. .

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 3.
What should be done to stop the migration of people from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
People migrate towards cities due to non availability of employment and income per family is also not up to the mark instead it is very low. If more opportunities are made available and sources of income are also generated then this will help in stopping the migration towards the cities. Therefore encouragement should be given to agriculture based enterprises.

Youth in rural areas can set their own small processing units. Some other agriculture based enterprises like dairy farming, fish farming, poultry farming, mushroom cultivation, honey production, bee keeping etc. can be adopted. By self-marketing of the processed products, one can get more returns.

Question 4.
What should be the policy for capital intensive agro processing industry?
Answer:
There are some agro processing plants which have very high initial cost. For example, the cost to establish dehydration and freezing plant for fruits and vegetables is nearly Rs. 30 lakh. Such a plant cannot be set up. at an individual level. Such a unit should be established at cooperative level by group of farmers. This way one plant can be used by various farmers and they can process their produce and can market them.

Question 5.
Discuss the various operations involved in turmeric processing. Or How turmeric powder is prepared from raw tarmeric?
Answer:
For processing, all the turmeric, rhizomes are washed properly to remove soil sticking to it etc. For this purpose P.A.U. has developed a machine which can wash and polish turmeric. This machine can wash and polish simultaneously nearly 2.5 – 3.0 quintal turmeric per hour. After this step (i.e. washing etc.) turmeric is boiled so that fingers become soft and their colour becomes uniform.

If boiling is done in open container it takes an hour but if boiled in pressure cooker it takes 20 minutes. After boiling, turmeric fingers are dried in sun so that moisture content is less than 10%. It takes nearly 15 days if strong sunlight is available. Now top layer of turmeric is removed by polishing. Then it is grounded in the grinder (hammer mill). This way 100 kg fresh turmeric gives 15-20 kg. powdered turmeric.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Agro Based Industries Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
……………… kg turmeric powder can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
(a) 25-30
(b) 15-20
(c) 5-10
(d) 45-50.
Answer:
(b) 15-20

Question 2.
……………..kg Gud can be prepared from one quintal sugarcane.
(a) 21-22
(b) 30-35
(c) 10-12
(d) 18-20.
Answer:
(c) 10-12

Question 3.
After harvesting, there is nearly …………. loss in Crops.
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 50%.
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 4.
Mentha oil is used in
(a) medicines
(b) perfumes
(c) cosmetics
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
After harvesting loss in fruits and vegetables in:
(a) 15-20%
(b) 20-30%
(c) 30-40%
(d) 10-15%.
Answer:
(c) 30-40%

Question 6.
How much jaggery (Gud) can be prepared from 100 kg sugarcane?
(a) 10-12 kg
(b) 40-45 kg
(c) 60-70 kg
(d) 30-35 kg.
Answer:
(a) 10-12 kg

Question 7.
What name of Punjabi magazine published by Punjab Agricultural university every month?
(a) Changi kheti
(b) Modem kheti
(c) Kheti niya
(d) Krishi jagran.
Answer:
(a) Changi kheti

Question 8.
From which crop is raw material for textile industry obtained?
(a) wheat
(b) cotton
(c) sugarcane
(d) mustard.
Answer:
(b) cotton

Question 9.
Which machine is used for oil extraction from oil seeds?
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(a) Oil expeller

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which machine is used for cleaning of seed
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(c) Seed grader

True False:

1. Post harvest losses in grains are approximately 10%.
Answer:
True

2. Mentha is a weed.
Answer:
False

3. We can get 15-20 kg of turmeric powder from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
Answer:
True

4. We can get 30-40 kg of Jaggery from one quintal sugarcane.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Fill in the blanks:

1. Post harvest losses in fruits and vegetables is …………….. .
Answer:
30-40 %

2. ……………. is used to dry vegetables.
Answer:
Solar dryer

3. During Mentha processing, oil and water are separated with the help of …………. .
Answer:
Separator

4. Mentha processing plant is used to extract oil from ……………. crop.
Answer:
Mentha.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one reason of unemployment.
Answer:
Limited number of jobs.

Question 2.
How much damage/loss occur to the vegetables and fruits after harvesting?
Answer:
30 – 40%.

Question 3.
How much is the cost for setting up of agro-processing complexes?
Answer:
5 to 20 lakh Rupees.

Question 4.
How many days are required to dry turmeric fingers after boiling?
Answer:
In strong sunlight 15 days.

Question 5.
What is use of turmeric?
Answer:
Medicines, cosmetics and as dye in cotton clothes.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 6.
What is used for drying vegetables?
Answer:
Solar drier.

Question 7.
Name monthly magazine related to agriculture?
Answer:
‘Changi Kheti’.

Question 8.
How many Krishi Vigyan Kendras are under P.A.U.?
Answer:
17.

Question 9.
Write the name of four agricultural related co-occupations.
Answer:
Cattle rearing (Cows, goats, sheep etc), Poultry fanning, Honey bee rearing, fish rearing, Dairy farm, etc.

Question 10.
What is the use of flour mill (atta chakki)?
Answer:
Used to grind wheat, maize seeds to get flour.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is there any financial help available by government or other organisation for establishing agriculture based enterprises?
Answer:
Government as well as many other organisations provide financial help and training to establish agriculture based occupations.

Question 2.
What is the cost of establishment of agro-processing unit and how much is the income from this unit?
Answer:
Cost for setting up these machines is from Rs. 5 to 20 lakh and one can get an income of Rs. 10 thousand to 50 thousand per month.

Question 3.
Give uses of turmeric (in food).
Answer:
Turmeric is used to prepare various vegetables curries, to give taste, colour and flavour to the food items and it is also used for preparing food and chatnies at large scale.

Question 4.
Which things can be dried in solar drier?
Answer:
Fenugreek leaves, corriander, chilli, garlic etc. and some medicinal plants can be dried.

Question 5.
Write down the names of four agro based industries which can be started at the village level.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 2.
Write about processing of mentha?
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 3.
Write the name of any ten agriculture based enterprises.
Answer:

  • Poultry farming
  • Dairy farming
  • Honey production
  • Mushroom cultivation
  • Fish farming
  • Jaggery manufacturing
  • Drying of vegetables and their packaging
  • Agro-processing complex
  • Turmeric processing unit
  • Mentha processing plant.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(d) Lead oxide is being reduced.
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all.
Answer
(i) (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.
(c) decomposition reaction.
(d) displacement reaction.
Answer:
(d) displacement reaction.

Question 3.
What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings?
Tick the correct answer.
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.

Question 4.
What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?
Answer:
Balanced chemical equation. It is a chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element are equal on both sides of the equation.

The chemical equation should be balanced because law of conservation of mass holds good i.e., the total mass of the reactants must be equal to the total mass of the products.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 5.
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them :
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
Answer:
3H2 (g) + N2 → 2NH3 (g)

(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
Answer:
2H2S (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2H2O (l) + 2SO2 (g)

(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
Answer:
3BaCl2 + A12(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3BaSO4 (s)↓

(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer:
2K (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g)

Question 6.
Balance the following chemical equations :
(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
Answer:
2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O

(b) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O
Answer:
2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O

(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
Answer:
NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3

(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl
Answer:
BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

Question 7.
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
Answer:
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O

(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver.
Answer:
Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride + Copper.
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu

(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl

Question 8.
Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and identify the type of reaction in each case.
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide (s)
Answer:
2KBr (aq) + Bal2 (aq) → 2KI (aq) + BaBr2 (aq) — Double displacement reaction

(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
Answer:
ZnCO3 (s) → ZnO (s) + CO2 (g) — Decomposition reaction

(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
Answer:
H2(g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl(g) — Combination reaction

(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
Answer:(a)
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) — Displacement reaction

Question 9.
What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Or
Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reactions.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction. It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out.
e.g. C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 + Heat energy
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) + Heat energy

Endothermic reaction : It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is absorbed,
e.g. N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) — Heat energy
C (S) + H2O (g) → CO + H2 (g) — Heat energy.

Question 10.
Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction? Explain.
Answer:
During respiration oxidation of glucose occurs which produces heat energy.

Question 11.
Why are decomposition reactions called opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
During decomposition a single substance breaks down into two or more substances which is just the reverse of combination reaction.

Examples for decomposition reactions are :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 12.
Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
Here electrical energy is supplied to bring about the reaction.

Question 13.
What is the difference between the displacement and double displacement reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
Displacement reaction: In this reaction a more active element displaces less active element from solution of its compound. Examples:
Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) ↓
Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) ↓

Double displacement reaction: The reaction in which there is an exchange of ions between two reactants is called a double displacement reaction.
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO3 (aq)
BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) BaSO4 (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 14.
In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Answer:
Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag ↓

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 15.
What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.
Answer:
Precipitation reaction. A reaction in which an insoluble product or precipitate is produced is called precipitation reaction.
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO3 (aq)
BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 16.
Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each :
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction.
Answer:
(a) Oxidation: A chemical reaction in which a substance gains oxygen or loses hydrogen is called oxidation.
Examples
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

(b) Reduction: A chemical reaction in which a substance loses oxygen or gains hydrogen is called reduction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

Question 17.
A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Answer:
The element X is copper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
Therefore the black coloured compound formed is copper (II) oxide (CuO).

Question 18.
Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
Answer:
The iron articles can be protected from rusting by applying paint on them so that the iron surface does not come in contact with air (or oxygen) and moisture which causes rusting.

Question 19.
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Answer:
This is because food items are prevented from oxidation by oxygen or air.

Question 20.
Explain the following terms with one example each :
(a) Corrosion
Answer:
Corrosion: The slow eating up of metals by the action of air and moisture on their surfaces is called corrosion. For example, iron undergoes corrosion or rusting in the presence of moist air.

(b) Rancidity.
Answer:
Rancidity: When fats and oils or food containing oils and fats get oxidised with air or oxygen, their smells and tastes change, This process is called rancidity. For example, the packet containing potato chips is flushed with nitrogen gas to avoid rancidity.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Chemical Reactions and Equations InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon should be cleaned before burning to remove the protective layer of basic magnesium carbonate from its surface.

Question 2.
Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions.
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
Answer:
H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium Sulphate → Barium Sulphate + Aluminium Chloride
Answer:
3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 3BaSO4 + 2AlCl3

(iii) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Answer:
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2

Question 3.
Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions.
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride and water.
Answer:
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 4.
A solution of substance “X’ is used for white washing.
(i) Name the substance X’and write its formula.
Answer:
X is calcium oxide (quick lime) and its formula is CaO.

(ii) Write the reaction of the substance X named in (i) above with water.
Answer:
CaO (s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)

Question 5.
Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in activity 1.7 double of the amount collected in the other? Name this gas.
Answer:
When electric current is passed through acidulated water, the reaction taking place is
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6
Therefore hydrogen and oxygen produced are in the ratio 2 : 1 by volume. Hence volume of gas collected in one test tube is double the volume of gas collected in the other tube and this gas is hydrogen.

Question 6.
Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change, when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer:
This is because iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Therefore, the concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases and blue colour of solution gradually fades away.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
The concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases as ferrous sulphate is produced.

Question 7.
Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in the activity 1.10 given in textbook
Answer:
NaCl (aq) + AgNO3(ag) → NaNO3(aq) +AgCl(s) ↓

Question 8.
Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions :
(i) 4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O (s)
(ii) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)
Answer:

Substance oxidised Substance reduced
1. Na(s) H2
2. H2 CuO(s)

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
How many Chambers a State Legislative Assembly has? Give their names.
Answer:
In many states of India, the State Legislatures have one House. Some State Legislatures have two Houses. Where the State Legislature has two Houses, these are Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad. Where there is only one House, the name of the House is Vidhan Sabha pr Legislative Assembly.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions concerning State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
(a) The qualifications to become its member.
Answer:
Essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Legislative Assembly or the Vidhan Sabha. Following are the essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Vidhan Sabha :

  • He must be a citizen of India.
  • He must have completed 25 years of age.
  • He must not be either an insolvent or a bankrupt or of unsound fnind.
  • He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the State Government.

(b) The maximum and minimum number of its members as per the Constitution.
Answer:
Number of Members. The number of members of the Vidhan Sabha is fixed by the Parliament on the basis of the population of the state concerned. It can have a maximum membership of 500 and a minimum of 60 persons.

(c) Mention the stages, an ordinary bill has to pass through.
Answer:
Stages of an ordinary bill. An ordinary bill, before becoming an act, has to pass through the following stages; At the first stage, the bill is introduced in the House and its first reading is done. At the second stage, a general discussion on each clause of the bill takes place. At the third stage, the debate is confined to the acceptance or rejection of the bill.

(d) The minimum age required to become the member of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
Minimum age limit for the member of the Vidhan Sabha.
The minimum age limit for contesting election to the Vidhan Sabha is 25 years.

(e) How is the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly elected?
Answer:
Election of the Speaker. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and maintains discipline and decorum in the House. He is elected by the House from amongst its own members.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
Answer the following questions concerning Legislative Council of a state :
(а) How many members can be there of the Legislative Council?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad is the upper House of the State Legislature. The maximum strength of this House is fixed at one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha and a minimum of 40 members.

(b) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Council.
Answer:
Term of the members of Legislative Council.
The Legislative Council is a permanent house. The term of members is six years but one-third of its members retire after every two years.

(c) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The term of the members of Legislative Assembly is 5 years but the Assembly can be dismissed by the President by using Article 356 even before the completion of its term.

(d) Name four states where the Lagislative Council Exists.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have Legislative Councils. It means these states have bicameral legislature.

Question 4.
Enumerate the four powers of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the State Legislature :

  • To exercise control over the Council of Ministers.
  • To pass the budget, and to impose, reduce or repeal taxes.
  • To make laws on the subjects included in the State List and the Concurrent List.
  • To punish those who violate the discipline of the House.

Question 5.
Do your state has bicameral legislatuse?
Answer:
Punjab has a unicameral legislature called Vidhan Sabha. Punjab has no Second Chamber or Vidhan Parishad.

Question 6.
How is the Governor of a State appointed?
Answer:
The Governor is the constitutional head of a state. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

Question 7.
Who and how is a Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor. He appoints a person who is the leader of the majority party in the State Vidhan Sabha.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 8.
Examine the role of the Governor during President’s rule in a state.
Answer:
If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in a State in accordance with the Constitution, he declares constitutional emergency in the state. The Governor can dismiss the Council of Ministers and dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. He becomes the real head of the State.

Question 9.
Mention the term of the office of the Governor.
Answer:
The term of the Governor is five years. But before the expiry of this term, he can be removed from his office by the President. The President can ask him to hold this office even after five years of his term.

Question 10.
Name the three lists under which powers between union and states are distributed.
Answer:
There are three lists under which powers are divided between union government and state governments :

  • Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which only union government can make laws.
  • State List. This list contains 66 subjects on which state government can make laws.
  • Concurrent List. This list contains 47 subjects on which both union government and state governments can make laws. But in case of clash of laws, central law prevails.

Question 11.
What do you understand by Lok Adalats?
Answer:
Lok Adalats haye been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi on Oct. 6, 1985. It decided 150 cases in a single day.

Question 12.
When and who appoints Finance Commission?
Answer:
The president of India appoints the Finance Commission at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as the deemed necessary by him/her.

II. Answer the following questions in short :

Question 1.
Briefly describe the administrative powers of the Governor.
Or
Explain three powers of the Governor
Answer:
Following are the executive powers of the Governor of a state :

  • All executive actions of the State are taken in his name.
  • It is his responsibility to maintain law and order in the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist hini in this work.
  • He appoints the Chief Minister, and on his advice, other ministers of his Council of Ministers.
  • He makes high appointments like those of the Advocate General, Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission, etc.
  • He is also consulted by the President in matters relating to the appointment of the judges for the High Court of his State.

Question 2.
Examine the process of appointment of the Council of Ministers in a state.
Answer:
The Constitution of India establishes Parliamentary form of government at the State level and at the Centre. The Governor, therefore, is a nominal head of the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist him. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the State. The Governor appoints a person as the Chief Minister who is the leader of the majority party in the Legislative Assembly. He also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Governor can neither delete nor add any new name to the list, given to him by the Chief Minister.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
Explain the discretionary powers of a Governor.
Answer:
The Governor has some powers which he can use on his own discretion. These are called his discretionary powers.

The Governor can exercise these powers in the following cases :

  • When no party holds a clear majority in the State Vidhan Sabha, he shall exercise his discretion in the appointment of the Chief Minister.
  • In the event of the failure of the constitutional machinery in the state, he may recommend the imposition of the President’s rule in his state.
  • To safeguard the interests of the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in his state.
  • To reserve any bill passed by the state legislature for the approval of the President.
  • The Governor can dismiss the ministry if he is convinced that it has lost the majority support.

Question 4.
How a declaration of the breakdown of constitutional machinery affects the State Government?
Answer:

  • The President can use all the powers or any of the executive powers of the state.
  • The powers taken over by him shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him. These powers are generally exercised by the state Governor.
  • He can suspend or dissolve the legislative assembly of the state.
  • The Parliament can make laws on any subject on the State list for that State.
  • The Parliament passes the annual budget of the state.
  • The Council of Ministers of the state is dismissed.

Question 5.
Distinguish between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
There are the following differences between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers :

  • The Council of Ministers consists of about 60 ministers, whereas the Cabinet has only 15-20 members.
  • The Cabinet is the inner part of the Council of Minister. That is why, it is commonly termed as wheel within a wheel.
  • The Cabinet formulates all the policies of the state whereas the Council of Ministers does not take part in policy making.
  • The meetings of the Cabinet are held once or twice a week but the meetings of the Council of Ministers are very rarely held.

Question 6.
Examine the four main functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
Following are the four main functions of the Council of Ministers :

  1. Formulation of Policies. The first important function of the Council of Ministers of a state is the formulation of the policies on the basis of which the administration of the state is to be conducted.
  2. Administration. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the state. Each minister is made incharge of a department and it is his responsibility to run the administration of the department smoothly.
  3. Legislative functions. It is the Council of Ministers that decides the time of summoning and prorougation of the legislature. The Governor’s address is prepared by the council. Majority of the bills are introduced in the legislature by the Council of Ministers.
  4. Financial functions. It is the Council of Ministers which prepares the budget and decides the financial policy of the state. It decides which new taxes are to be imposed. It also decides which taxes are to be increased or decreased.

Question 7.
How a money bill becomes an Act in a State Legislature?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced by a minister only in the Vidhan Sabha. In a State, which has bicameral legislature, the money bill, after being passed by the Vidhan Sabha, is sent to the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad can keep pending the money bill for 14 days. After this, it sends the bill to Vidhan Sabha with or without its suggestions. The Vidhan Sabha has power to reject or accept these suggestions. Then the bill passed by the Vidhan Sabha is sent to the Governor for approval. The bill, after getting the assent of the Governor, becomes an act.

Question 8.
Explain the original jurisdiction or administrative powers of a High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can be brought before the High Court directly. This is called the original jurisdiction of the High Court. The High Court has original jurisdictions in the following cases :

  1. Any case regarding the fundamental rights can be brought directly to the High Court. The High Court is empowered to issue five kinds of writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
  2. The State High Courts like the Supreme Court can strike down any law passed by the State Legislature or the Parliament or any order of the executive if it violates any provision of the Constitution.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 9.
Describe the Appellate jurisdiction of a High Court.
Answer:

  • The High Court can hear appeals against the decision of the lower courts in most of the revenue and criminal cases.
  • The High Court can hear appeals in criminal cases in which the accused has been sentenced to four years imprisonment by the Sessions Judge. The Sessions Judge of a district court can award death sentence in criminal cases. But such a sentence is subject to the confirmation of the High Court.

Question 10.
‘A High Court is a Court of Record’. How?
Answer:
According to Article 251, every State High Court is a Court of Record, and as such its decisions are recorded and the courts subordinate to it accept these decisions as judicial precedents.

Question 11.
Examine the organization and main functions of the Lok Adalats.
Answer:
Lok Adalats. The Lok Adalats have been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. Justice P.N. Bhagwati is regarded as its founder. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi in October 6, 1985 and settled many cases in a single day. Our courts have heavy work-load. Lakhs of cases are pending. The system provides the simplest way to file a petition for a poor citizen in the Lok Adalat through a simple letter written on a postcard. In 1987, these Lok Adalats got legal recognition.

Question 12.
Describe briefly the relations between the Union and States on one of the following :
(a) Legislative Relations
(b) Administrative Relations
(c) Financial Relations.
Answer:
(а) Legislative Relations. The union legislature can make laws on the subjects given in the Union list and Concurrent list while the State Legislature can make laws on the State list and the Concurrent list. Only the Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List as well as the Concurrent List during the declaration of emergency in the State (Art. 356).

(b) Administrative Relations. The administrative powers of the State shall be so exercised that they do not come into conflict with executive powers of the Centre. The Union government can issue instructions to the States for that purpose if it thinks it necessary. The executive powers of the union government shall also extend to the giving of directions to a state regarding the construction and maintenance .of the means of communication declared to be of national and military importance.

(c) Financial Relations. The sources of income are divided between the Centre and the States. The important sources of income of the Central Government are such as

  • Customs and export duties.
  • Income tax.
  • Estate duty.
  • Interstate trade tax.

Sources of Income of the States are such as :

  • Land revenue
  • House tax
  • Taxes on succession to agricultural land
  • V.A. tax.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The State Government Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Where is Punjab High Court located?
Answer:
Punjab High Court is located at Chandigarh.

Question 2.
How many States and Union Territories are there in the Indian Republic?
Answer:
There are twenty-eight States and eight Union Territories in India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
On what basis have the states been classified?
Answer:
In India, the states have been organised on a linguistic basis.

Question 4.
What is called a Union Territory?
Answer:
An administrative unit the administration of which is under the Union Government.

Question 5.
On which lists of subjects can the State Government make laws?
Answer:
The State Legislature can make laws on the subjects in the State list and Concurrent list.

Question 6.
In which House can a money bill be introduced?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced only in the Vidhan Sabha.

Question 7.
Who is the real head of a State Government?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the real head of a State Government.

Question 8.
Mention two qualifications for the office of the Governor.
Answer:
He must be a citizen of India and must have completed 35 years of age.

Question 9.
Write any one executive power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State.

Question 10.
Mention any one legislative function of the Governor.
Answer:
He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.

Question 11.
Mention any one financial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Budget of the State is presented to the Legislative Assembly in his name.

Question 12.
Write any one judicial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is consulted by the President in the appointment of the judges of the High Court.

Question 13.
How many minimum sessions of the State Legislature must be held in a year?
Answer:
The State Legislature must hold at least two sessions in a year.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 14.
Who is the chipf adviser of the Governor?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the chief adviser of the Governor.

Question 15.
Write any one power of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
The Chief Minister prepares a list of the ministers and sends it to the Governor for approval.

Question 18.
What is the number of members of the Punjab Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
The Punjab Legislative Assembly consists of 117 members.

Question 17.
Who can appoint the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor is appointed by the President of India.

Question 18.
Who appoints the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.

Question 19.
What is the tenure of the Governor?
Answer:
The tenure of the Governor is five years.

Question 20.
What is tenure of Legislative Council?
Answer:
Legislative Council is a permanent body. Its one-third members retire by rotation after every two years and these members can be re-elected. The tenure of each member is six years.

Question 21.
What is the name of the Governor of the Punjab?
Answer:
V.P. Singh Bednore.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
There are _________ States in India.
Answer:
28

Question 2.
There are _________ Union Territories in India.
Answer:
8

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 3.
In Punjab there is _________ Legislature.
Answer:
unicameral

Question 4.
The _________ is the Chief advisor of the Governor.
Answer:
Chief Minister

Question 5.
The Governor is appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 6.
The tenure of the Governor is _________
Answer:
five

Question 7.
The Chief Minister is appointed by the _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 8.
The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 9.
The strength of the Punjab Legislative Assembly is _________
Answer:
117

Question 10.
The Judges of the High Court retire at the age of _________ years.
Answer:
sixty-two

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 11.
The constitutional head of the state is _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 12.
The Legislative Council is a _________ House.
Answer:
Permanent

Question 13.
The tenure of the Legislative Assembly is _________ years.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The Governor of a state is :
(a) Head of Govt.
(b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the Union Territory
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Head of the State

Question 2.
Two Houses of the State Legislature are :
(а) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Legislative Council and Lok Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council
(d) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council

Question 3.
Who is the constitutional head of the state?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(a) Governor

Question 4.
The term of office of the Governor is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 6 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 5.
The tenure of the Legistative Assembly in normal time is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years.
Answer:
(d) 5 years.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the composition of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
Answer:
The Vidhan Sabha consists of the members directly elected by the people of the State on the basis of adult franchise. According to the Constitution, its maximum membership shall not exceed 500 and shall not be below 60. A citizen having attained the age of 25 years is eligible to be elected to this house. The tenure of the Vidhan Sabha is five years. This house has a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker to conduct its meetings. The House elects them from among its members.

Question 2.
How is the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) organised?
Answer:
The membership of the Vidhan Parishad cannot exceed one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha with a minimum of 40 members. Its members are elected or nominated as under:

  • 1/3rd members are elected by the Vidhan Sabha from amongst persons who are not its members.
  • 1/3rd members are elected by the local bodies of the state.
  • 1/12th of members are elected by persons of at least three years’ standing as teachers in educational institutions not lower in standard than that of a secondary school.
  • 1/12th of members are elected by the university graduates of at least three years’ standing in the state.
  • 1/6th members are nominated by the Governor from amongst persons possessing special knowledge and experience in the fields of arts, literature, science, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the position of the Governor as a representative of the Central Government.
Answer:
The Governor of an Indian State is the head of the State but he is the representative of the Centre also. The following facts prove it :

  1. He acts as a link between Central Government and the State Government. He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President.
  2. If the Governor feels that administration of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he can recommend to the President to declare emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state. In that case, the President may impose President’s Rule in that state.
  3. The State Vidhan Sabha and the Council of Ministers may be suspended or dissolved. During the emergency the Governor acts as a representative of the Central Government. He runs the administration with the help of an Advisory Council.

Question 4.
Mention the grounds on the basis of which the Governor can recommend President’s rule in the state.
Answer:
The Governor can recommend to the President for the imposition of President’s rule in his state if he is satisfied that :

  1. the constitutional machinery has broken down in the state; and
  2. the ruling party has lost the support of the majority of legislators.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the ‘Union Territories’.
Answer:
There are, at present, eight Union Territories apart from the 2S States. Since the area and population covered by them is small, so these are not given the status of a full-fledged state. The administration of the Union Territories is under the control of the President acting through a Lt. Governor or a Chief Commissioner. The Parliament may constitute, for every such territory, a Council of Advisors to the Chief Commissioner which may partly be elected and partly nominated.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 6.
List out three similarities in the organisation of Central and the State Governments.
Answer:
The following are three similarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

  1. The Constitution’ establishes the parliamentary form of government both at the Centre and in the units.
  2. Both at the Centre and in the States there exists’ independent impartial judicial system with a single hierarchy of coy^s to administer justice on, both the Union and the State laws.
  3. The legislature of the Centre is bicameral and so it is in many states such as Bihar, Tamilnadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh.

Question 7.
List out three dissimilarities in the organisation of the Centre and State Governments.
Answer:
The following are the three dissimilarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

  1. The head of the state at the centre is an elected President; but the Governor, the head of the state, is nominated.
  2. The central legislature is bicameral but most of the states have unicameral legislatures.
  3. There is no office like that of the Vice-President in the States.

Question 8.
Give four non-legislative functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
The following are the non-legislative functions of the State Legislature :

  1. The State Legislature exercises control over the finances of the State.
  2. The Legislature’deliberates on the no-confidence motion against the Government.
  3. The elected members of the State Legislature elect the members of Rajya Sabha.
  4. Each of the Houses of the Legislature elects its own Chairman and Deputy Chairman.

Question 9.
Mention three major legislative functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the legislative functions of the Governor :

  1. He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.
  2. All bills passed by the legislature are sent to him for his approval.
  3. He can issue ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 10.
Mention three major executive functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the executive functions of the Governor :

  1. He appoints the Chief Minister and on his advice the other ministers.
  2. He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the Chairman and the members of the Public Service Commission and other officials of the State.
  3. The Chief Minister informs the Governor about all decisions of the Council of Ministers and supplies him information relating to the administration of the State.

Question 11.
Mention the four major functions of the State Governments.
Answer:
The State Governments perform the following functions :

  1. The most important function of each State Government is to maintain law and order in its State.
  2. It is also the function of the State Government to provide the citizens with basic amenities of life.
  3. It provides educational facilities to its citizens.
  4. The Government is also expected to look after the economic welfare of the citizens by undertaking development programmes.

Question 12.
Explain three powers of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Following are the powers of the Chief Minister :

  1. Appointment of the Minister*. The Chief Minister prepares a list of his Ministers and sends it to the Governor.
  2. Distribution of Portfolios. The Chief Minister distributes the portfolios among the ministers.
  3. Removal of Ministers. He can ask a minister to resign. If that minister refuses to resign, the Chief Minister can ask the Governor to remove him from the Cabinet.
  4. Head of the Council of Ministers. The Chief Minister calls the meetings of the Council of Ministers and presides over the meetings.

Question 13.
Describe the position of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Position of the Chief Minister, In fact, the Chief Minister is the most important and powerful authority in the State. There is no field of the State administration which is not under the control of the Chief Minister. A minister remains in office so long as he continues to enjoy the confidence of the Chief Minister. He is the pivot around which the whole administration of the state revolves.

Question 14.
Discuss the administrative powers of the High Court.
Answer:
Following are the administrative powers of the High Court:

  • It exercises the power of superintendence and control over all the subordinate courts.
  • It makes rules and regulations for the transaction of business of the subordinate courts.
  • It frames rules for the promotion of the judges.

Question 15.
Write a note on the District Courts.
Answer:
For the convenience of judicial administration, a state is divided into districts. There are subordinate courts in every district which are under, the control of the District and Sessions Judge. The District and Sessions Judge is appointed by the State Governor in consultation with the High Court. A person to be eligible for appointment to the post of District and Sessions Judge should be an advocate of at least 7 years’ standing or should have served in the central or state government. The High Court exercises control over the district courts.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 16.
What are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has created a very strong Centre. There are three Lists : Central List, State List and Concurrent List, distributing the powers between the Centre and the States. The Central Government has a large number of powers. It has co-equal powers with the States to legislate on the Concurrent List and in the event of any difference between the Centre and the State, on any law, the central law prevails. The residuary powers are also with the Centre.

During the emergency the Centre gets powers to legislate even on State List. Yet another implication of the declaration of emergency in the country is that the federal structure turns into unitary one, thus making the Centre all powerful.

Question 17.
How have the powers of government been divided between the Union and the States?
Answer:
Powers of the government have clearly been divided between the onion and the states. There are three different lists of the Subjects:

  1. The Union List. There are 97 subjects in the Union list. Only Union Government can make laws on these subjects. The main subjects, are Railways, Post and Telegraph, Coinage and Currency, Defence, and Foreign Affairs.
  2. The State List. There are 66 subjects in this list. The state governments make laws on them. The main subjects are law and order, police, agriculture, irrigation, and public works.
  3. The Concurrent List. There are 47 subjects on the concurrent list such as Family Planning, Marriage and Divorce, control over press, Education etc. In this list are those subjects on which both the Centre and the States can make laws. But if the two laws are contradictory, the law made by the Centre prevails.

Question 18.
Discuss the relationship between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State. He is the nominal head of the State. He is to act on the advice of the State Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot act according to his discretion while appointing the Chief Minister and other members of the Council of Ministers. Only the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly is appointed the Chief Minister by him. However, if no party gets clear majority, he is at liberty to appoint the Chief Minister. Other ministers are appointed by him on the advice of the Chief Minister. He distributes portfolios among the ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. But under certain circumstances, he becomes the real head of the state. He acts as the agent of the centre in the state in times of Constitutional Emergency. He also enjoys certain discretionary powers.

Question 19.
What are the powers of the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor has many legislative, executive, financial and judicial powers.

  • He organises the Council of Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister,
  • He appoints members of the State Public Service Commission,
  • The bills passed by the State Legislature are sent to him for assent.
  • Before the start of every financial year, he causes to be laid through the Finance Minister annual Budget before the Legislature,
  • He advises the President about’ the appointment of the judges of the High Court,
  • He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President. He can send report to the President with regard to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the State.

Question 20.
Describe the powers of State Legislature.
Answer:
1. Legislative Powers. It can legislate on all subjects included in the state list and concurrent list as well. If its legislation on some subjects of the concurrent list is contrary to the parliamentary law then it becomes null and void to the extent it is contrary to that.

2. Financial Powers. It has complete control over the financial affairs of the state. The finance minister presents the state budget before the legislative assembly every year. To impose or reduce or abolish all taxes is within its executive powers.

3. Executive Powers. The. council of ministers headed by Chief Minister is the real executive and it is directly and collectively responsible to the legislative assembly.

4. Miscellaneous functions,

  • Members of the legislative assembly participate in the election of the President and the Vice President of India.
  • The legislative assembly elects its own Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
  • It can create a contingency fund of the State which is controlled by the (Governor.
  • It can suspend its own members if they disrupt the proceedings of the House.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

Question 21.
Explain the original jurisdiction and powers regarding*the fundamental rights of the High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can directly be brought to a High Court. They are cases relating to fundamental rights, wills, divorce, marriages, contempt of court etc. Election disputes can also be heard by the High Court. The High Courts of Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai can hear civil cases of a value exceeding Rs. 20,00Q or more.

In case regarding fundamental rights, the High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
The High Court can declare unconstitutional any law passed by the State Legislature or any executive order of a State Government which it finds violative of any of the provisions of the Constitution. Laws declared unconstitutional by a High Court cannot be enforced.

Question 22.
How is a money bill passed in a State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced in a State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha). After a bill is passed by it, the bill is sent to Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) which can delay it for 14 days only.