Class 8 – Page 43 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 Administrative Structure, Growth of Colonial Army and Civilian Administration

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 11 Administrative Structure, Growth of Colonial Army and Civilian Administration Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 11 Administrative Structure, Growth of Colonial Army and Civilian Administration

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Administrative Structure, Growth of Colonial Army and Civilian Administration Textbook Questions and Answers

I.. Write down the answer to the following questions :

Question 1.
When and which act was passed to check the working of the East India Company?
Answer:
The Regulating Act was passed in 1773 A.D. to check the working of the East India Company.

Question 2.
When and under which act the board of control was constituted?
Answer:
Board of Control was made in 1784 A.D. under Pitt’s India Act.

Question 3.
Who was the founder of Civil Services in India?
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis was the founder of Civil Services in India.

Question 4.
Who was the first Indian to have passed the examination of the Indian Civil Services?
Answer:
The first Indian to pass the examination of Indian Civil Services was Satindra Nath Tagore. He passed this examination in 1863 A.D.

Question 5.
Which was the highest post given to Indian sepoy?
Answer:
Subedar was the highest post to be given to Indian soldiers in the military.

Question 6.
Which Governor-General made improvement in the police department and why?
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis made improvement in the police department. His aim was to establish law, order and peace in the state.

Question 7.
When Indian Law Commission was constituted and why?
Answer:
Indian Law Commission was constituted in 1833 A.D. It was established for the compilation of laws.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Regulating Act?
Answer:
An Act was passed in 1773 A.D. to check the working of the English East India Company. It was known as the Regulating Act. According to this Act :

The civil and military administration of the company came under the check of the British Parliament. The Parliament got control over its revenues too.
The Governor of Bengal was made the Governor-General of British India. A council of members was appointed to help the Governor-General in discharging his duties.
The Governor-General was empowered to control the two presidencies of Bombay and Madras.

Question 9.
Write a note on Pitt’s India Act.
Answer:
In order to remove the defects of the Regulating Act, the British Parliament passed the Pitt’s India Act in 1784. According to this act :

Political and commercial functions of the company were separated. The Board of Directors was now to look after the commercial activities of the company only.
A Board of Control consisting of six members was formed through which the British Governments could fully control the affairs of the company in India.
The council of the Governor-General was to have three members instead of four, one of these members was to be the commander in chief of India.
The Governor-General in council got full powers to direct and control Bombay and Madras presidencies.

Question 10.
Which changes were made in the Army after 1858 A.D.?
Answer:
It was necessary to reorganize the army after the great revolt of 1857 A.D. The British didn’t want that soldiers would again go for revolt. So the following changes were brought in Indian military while keeping in mind these things:

The number of British soldiers were increased.
Only Britishers started to be appointed in artillery.
Indians and Europeans in the military of Madras and Bombay were kept in the ratio of 2: 1.
European troops were kept at all the important places from geographical and military point of view.
Now the British started recruiting people of different religions and castes in one regiment of soldiers so that the people of other religions should remain ready to kill people of one religion in case of any rebellion.
Soldiers of Awadh, Bihar and Central India took part in the revolt of 1857 A.D. Now their members in the military was reduced and number of Gorkhas, Sikhs and Pathan soldiers was increased.

Question 11.
Write a note on the judicial system.
Answer:
The British established important judicial system in India. It’s main feature was the written laws.

Warren Hastings established Revenue and Criminal Courts in each district.
According to the Regulating Act of 1773, a Supreme Court was established in Calcutta. Lord Cornwallis prepared a book called Cornwallis code to give directions to judges.
Lord William Bentick started jury system in Bengal in 1832 A.D.
In 1833 A.D., the Indian Law Commission was appointed which completely reorganized the whole judicial system. Right of making laws was given to Governor-General through Charter Act.
Common legal system was introduced in the entire country. According to this, all the Indians were considered as equal in front of law without any discrimination.

Even after this, discrimination with Indians was there and they were deprived of some specific rights. For example, Indian judges were not allowed to hear the cases of the Europeans. Lord Rippen, in 1883 A.D. tried to give this right to the Indian judges but remained unsuccessful.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
In 1886 A.D. Lord _________ appointed a Public Service Commission of 15 members.
Answer:
Rippon

Question 2.
The ratio of Europeans and Indians was 2: 1 in the army after the revolt of _________ A.D.
Answer:
1857

Question 3.
In 1773 A.D. according to the Regulating Act, a Supreme Court was established in _________
Answer:
Calcutta.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
The objective of British Policies was to protect the British interests in India.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
During the reign of Carnwalis in India each thana was under a Daroga.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
In 1773 A.D. according to the Regulating Act Supreme Court was established in Calcutta.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Administrative Structure, Growth of Colonial Army and Civilian Administration Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
When was the Regulating Act passed?
(a) 1773 A.D.
(b) 1784 A.D.
(c) 1833 A.D.
(d) 1853 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1773 A.D.

Question 2.
With which Act, the Governor-General and his Council got the right to control Bombay and Madras presidencies?
(a) Pitt’s India Act
(6) Regulating Act
(c) Charter Act, 1833
(d) Charter Act, 1853.
Answer:
(b) Regulating Act.

Question 3.
When was Pitt’s India Act passed?
(a) 1773 A.D.
(b) 1784 A.D.
(c) 1833 A.D.
(d) 1853 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1784 A.D.

Question 4.
With which Act, the Governor-General of Bengal was made the Governor-General of India?
(a) Charter Act, 1853
(b) Pitt’s India Act
(c) Regulating Act
(d) Charter Act, 1833.
Answer:
(d) Charter Act, 1833.

Question 5.
Who started Civil Service in India?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Welleslay.
(d) Lord Canning
Answer:
(a) Lord Cornwallis.

Question 6.
Lord Rippon appointed a Public ServiceCommission with members.
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 21.
Answer:
(b) 15.

Question 7.
_________ established Diwani and Criminal Courts in districts.
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Warren-Hastings.

Question 8.
The given picture is of Robert Clive. He is believed to have started this service in India. Name the service.

(a) Civil Service
(b) Judicial Service
(c) Treasury Service
(d) Police Service.
Answer:
(a) Civil Service.

Question 9.
Who is the founder of Civil Services in India?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord William Bentinck.
Answer:
(b) Lord Cornwallis.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Lord _________ appointed 15 members Public Service Commission in 1886.
Answer:
Rippon

Question 2.
The ratio of Indian and British soldiers was made at 2 : 1 after the revolt of _________
Answer:
1857

Question 3.
According to Regulating Act of 1773, Supreme Court was established at _________
Answer:
Calcutta.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
The main aim of the British policies in India was to protect British interests.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
During the times of Cornwallis, every police station was under the control of Daroga.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
Supreme Court was established at Calcutta in 1773 A.D.
Answer:
(✓).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Central Public Service	(i) 1935 A.D
2. Commission Union Public Service	(ii) 1926 A.D
3. Commission Separate Legislature	(iii) 1832 A.D
4. Jury System in Bengal	(iv) 1853 A.D

Answer:

A	B
1. Central Public Service	(ii) 1926 A.D
2. Commission Union Public Service	(i) 1935 A.D
3. Commission Separate Legislature	(iv) 1853 A.D
4. Jury System in Bengal	(iii) 1832 A.D

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the main aim of the administrative policies of the British?
Answer:
To protect their interests in India.

Question 2.
Which were the main parts (basis) of the British administration in India?
Answer:
Civil Service, Army, Police and Judicial System.

Question 3.
When were the Regulating Act and Pitt’s India Act passed?
Answer:
In 1773 A.D. and 1784 A.D. respectively.

Question 4.
Why was Board of Control established in England? How many members were there of Board of Control?
Answer:
Board of Control in England was established to keep control over the working of company. It had six members.

Question 5.
When, where and why Hellibery College was established? ‘
Answer:
Hellibery College was established in 1806 A.D. in England. It was started to give training to the officers of Civil Service in India.

Question 6.
When was Lee Commission appointed? What did it recommend?
Answer:
Lee Commission was established in 1923 A.D. It recommended to establish Union Public Service Commission and provincial public service commission.

Question 7.
The British policy toward Indians was full of discrimination. Give two reasons in its favour.
Answer:

Indians were not given higher posts in civil services, military and police.
Indians were given very less salary as compared to the British.

Question 8.
What was Illbert Bill?
Answer:
Illbert Bill was introduced by the Viceroy of India Lord Rippen in 1883 A.D. This bill was aimed at giving right of hearing cases of Europeans to the Indian judges. But this bill was not passed.

Question 9.
By which Act the Supreme Court in Calcutta was established?
Answer:
Supreme Court in Calcutta was established in 1773 A.D. by the Regulating Act.

Question 10.
When and by whom Jury system was started in Bengal?
Answer:
Jury system in Bengal was started by Lord William Bentick in 1832 A.D.

Question 11.
With which four institutions the Indian administration was run?
Answer:
The Indian administration was run by four institutions and these were

Civil Services
Army
Police
Judiciary.

Question 12.
Who were appointed on higher posts during the British rule?
Answer:
Mostly the English people were appointed on higher posts during the British rule.

Question 13.
Give the number of armymen in the British army in 1856 A.D.
Answer:
In 1856 A.D, there were 2,33,000 Indians and 45,322 Europeans in the British army.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the Civil Services before 1858 A.D.
Answer:
Most of the employees of the company were corrupt before 1858. They carried on private trade and earned a lot of money through bribes and gifts. Clive and Warren Hastings tried to end this corruption but they did not succeed in this mission. Cornwallis came to India after Warren Hastings. He banned private trade by the officials of the company. They were forbidden to accept bribes or gifts. He increased the salaries of the employees so that they were not tempted to accept bribes. Upto 1853, the Directors of the Company appointed the British as employees of the company. But after the passing of Charter Act of 1853, the appointments to civil services were made through a competitive examination to be held in London. The main feature of the civil services before the passing of this Act was that the Indians were debarred from these services.

Question 2.
Why is Lord Cornwallis called the founder of Civil Services in India?
Answer:
Before Lord Cornwallis, the administration of the company was controlled by the Directors of the Company. They appointed employees of .the company. But Cornwallis appointed civil officers for administrative work. They were paid very high salaries. Temptation of the people towards Civil Services increased to such an extent that people from very high families of England started joining such services. That’s why Lord Cornwallis is called the founder of Civil Services in India.

Question 3.
Write a note on the discrimination policy in the British army between the Indians and the British.
Answer:
The British government made discrimination between the Indians and the British in making recruitments in the army. Indians were given low salaries as compared to the British. The arrangements for their lodging and boarding were also of low quality. Indian soldiers were not given due respect. They were often insulted. They could only reach the posts of the ‘Subedars’ by promotion. Contrary to it, the British were directly appointed as officers. This policy of discrimination later on became the cause of the revolt of 1857.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down in brief the constitutional changes made by British Government in India.
Answer:
The British government brought following constitutional changes in India :
1. Regulating Act: An Act was passed in 1773 A.D. to check the activities of English East India Company. It was known as the Regulating Act. According to this Act :

The civil and military administration of the company came under the control of the British Parliament. The Parliament got control over its revenue too.
The governor of Bengal was made the Governor-General of the British India. A council of members was appointed to help the Governor-General in discharging his duties.
The Governor-General was empowered to control the two presidencies of Bombay and Madras.

2. Pitt’s India Act. Pitt’s India Act was passed to remove the defects of the Regulating Act. According to this :

Political and commercial functions of the company were separated. The Board of Directors was now to look after the commercial activities of the company only.
A Board of Control consisting of six members was formed through which the British government could fully control the affairs of the company in India.
The council of the Governor-General was to have three members instead of four.
The Governor-General in council got complete powers to direct and control Bombay and Madras presidencies.

3. The Charter Act, 1833:

The company was restricted to do trade through Charter Act of 1833 so that it could completely concentrate on administration of the British India.
Governor-General and his council were given the name the Governor-General and his Council of India.
A legal member was included in council of Governor-General to make laws for the country. Right of making law was taken away from presidencies governments. In this way control of government was made very powerful.

4. The Charter Act 1853. Another Charter Act was passed in 1853 A.D. Legislative and Executive were separated through this Act. Now total of 12 members were there in legislative. Interference of central government in the affairs of company was increased. Now it was free to take rule of India in its hands at any moment.

Question 2.
Write down in brief about the Civil Services in India during the British rule.
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis is known as the founder of Civil Services in India. He raised the salaries of officers to eradicate bribery from the system. He restricted the officials to do their personal trade and to take gifts from Indians. He appointed only Europeans on the higher posts.

Development of Civil Services after Lord Cornwallis till 1885 A.D :
1. Lord William Bentick established the Hellibery College in England in 1806 A.D. Here formal training was given to the newly appointed officers of Civil Service. They were sent to India after taking formal training.

2. There was a provision in the Charter Act of 1833 that the Indians will be given government jobs without any discrimination on the basis of religion,-caste or colour. But they were deprived of higher posts in Civil Services.

3. Till 1853 A.D., only directors of the company appointed the British officials in India. But after the Charter Act of 1853, one competitive examination was started for the appointment of officials. This examination was conducted in England and its medium was English. Maximum age of 22 years was fixed for taking part in competition. This age was reduced to 21 years in 1864 and 19 years in i876. Satindra Nath Tagore was the first Indian to pass examination of Civil Service. He passed this exam in 1863 A.D.

4. It was very difficult for Indians to take part in this examination in less age and in England. So Indians raised the demand to increase the age of giving exam. They also demanded that this examination should also be taken simultaneously in India as well as in England. Lord Rippen supported this demand but it was refused by Indian government.

Development of Civil Services After 1886 A.D:
1. In 1886 A.D. Viceroy Lord Rippen appointed the Public Service Commission of 15 members: This commission recommended to divide civil services in following three parts :

Imperial or Indian Civil Service. Examination for this should take place only in England.
Provincial Services. Its examination should take place in different provinces.
Professional Service. Commission recommended to raise the age of this examination from 19 years to 23 years.

These recommendations were accepted by Indian Government in 1892 A.D.

2. In 1918, Montague-Chelmsford report recommended that 33% seats of Civil Service should be given to Indians and this number should be gradually increased. This report was implemented by the Indian Government in 1919 A.D.

3. In 1926, Central Public Service Commission and in 1935 Union Public Service Commission and some State Public Service Commissions were established.

It is right that a number of Indians were appointed in Indian Civil Service but still few higher posts were there which were restricted only for the Europeans.

Question 3.
Write down in brief about military, police and judicial system in India during the British rule.
Answer:
A brief description of military, police and judicial administration of India in the British empire is given below:
1. Military Administration. The military was one of the most important part of the British administration. It gave a great contribution in establishing and spreading the British empire in India. In 1856, there were 2,33,000 Indians and 45,300 European soldiers in the British military. Indian soldiers were given very less wages and incentives as compared to the British soldiers. Highest rank for Indians in military was the subedar. Indian soldiers were badly treated by the British officers. That’s why Indian soldiers revolted against the British in 1857 A.D.

It became necessary to reorganize the military after the great revolt of 1857 A.D. the British didn’t want that soldiers would again go for revolt.

So the following changes were brought in Indian military while keeping in mind these things :

The number of British soldiers were increased.
Only the British to be appointed in Artillery.
Indians and Europeans in the military of Madras and Bombay were kept in the ratio of 2:1.
European troops were kept at all the important places from a geographical and military point of view.
Now the British started recruiting people of different religions and castes in one regiment of soldiers so that people of other religion should remain ready to kill people of one religion in case of any rebellion.
Soldiers of Awadh, Bihar and Central India took part in the revolt of 1857 A.D. Now their numbers in the military was reduced and number of Gorkhas, Sikhs and Pathan soldiers was increased.

2. Police. Lord Cornwallis gave a new look to the police system to establish law, order and peace in the empire. He appointed one Police Superintendent in each district. Each district was further divided in divisions and ancient division system was given a new look. Every division was kept under one Daroga or inspector. Function of police in villages was being done by Chowkidars. Indians were not being given higher posts in police department. Their salary was also very low as compared to the British. They were badly treated by Britishers as well.

3. Judicial System: The British established important judicial system in India. Its main feature was written laws.

Warren Hastings established Revenue and Criminal Courts in each district.
According to Regulating Act of 1773, A Supreme Court was established in Calcutta. Lord Cornwallis prepared a book called Cornwallis code to give directions to judges.
Lord William Bentick started jury system in Bengal in 1832 A.D.
In 1833 A.D. the Indian Law Commission was appointed which completely reorganized the whole judicial system. Right of making laws was given to Governor-General through Charter Act.
Common legal system was introduced in the whole of the country. According to this, all the Indians were considered as equal in front of law without any discrimination.

Even after this, discrimination against Indians was there and they were deprived of some specific rights. For example, Indian judges were not allowed to hear the cases of Europeans. Lord Rippen, in 1883 A.D. tried to give this right to Indian judges but remained unsuccessful.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Establishment of East India Company

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 10 The Establishment of East India Company Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Establishment of East India Company

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB The Establishment of East India Company Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Who was the first Portuguese to reach India?
Answer:
First Portuguese who reached India was Vasco-de-Gama.

Question 2.
Write down the names of the four Portuguese settlements.
Answer:
Goa, Daman, Cochin, Calicut, Dieu, etc.

Question 3.
Where the Dutch established their colonies in India?
Answer:
Dutch people established their settlements in India at Cochin, Surat, Masulipattam, Nagpattam and Pulkit.

Question 4.
When and from which Mughal emperor the British got the previliage to free trade?
Answer:
The British got the previlige to trade without paying octroi from the Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar in 1717 A.D.

Question 5.
Among which two European companies, the First Carnatic War was fought and who got the victory?
Answer:
First war of Carnatic was fought between the Britishers and the French. The French people won this war.

Question 6.
When and among whom the battle of Plassey was fought?
Answer:
Battle of Plassey was fought on 23rd June, 1757 A.D. between the British and Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-daula.

Question 7.
When and among whom the battle of Buxar was fought?
Answer:
The battle of Buxar was fought between the British and Mir Qasim, Siraj-ud- Daulah and Shah Alam II.

Question 8.
Write down a note on third Carnatic War.
Answer:
The third Carnatic war was fought between 1756 A.D. to 1763 A.D. In this war the British emerged victorious and the French were defeated.
Causes. In 1756 A.D., once again, England and France were engulfed in a war in Europe (Seven Years War). Consequently, in India too, war broke out between the English and the French.

Question 9.
Explain in brief the victory of Bengal by the British.
Or
How did the English became the Masters of Bengal?
Answer:
The English fought two battles with the Nawab of Bengal to gain control over Bengal

Battle of Plassey and
Battle of Buxar.

The Battle of Plassey took place in 1757 A.D. Siraj-ud-daulah was the Nawab of Bengal at that time. The English, through a conspiracy, won over the confidence of Mir Jafar, the army commander of the Nawab. He remained aloof in the battlefield and thus Siraj-ud-daulah was defeated. After this, Mir Jafar was appointed as the Nawab of Bengal. After some time, Mir Jafar was removed and Mir Qasim was made the Nawab, but after some time, the English tinned against him as well. A battle between the English and Mir Qasim took place at Buxar. Mir Qasim was defeated and Bengal came under the control of the British.

Question 10.
Write down a note on the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
The Battle of Plassey was fought between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-daulah. The Nawab was annoyed with the British due to various reasons. He caused a great loss to the British by invading Qasim Bazar. To take revenge, Clive hatched a conspiracy against him and won the confidence of Mir Jafar, the army commander of the Nawab of Bengal. When the battle started, Mir Jafar stood aside. Siraj-ud-daulah was discouraged as a result of this treachery of Mir Jafar and ran away from the battlefield.

Siraj-Ud-Daulah

Meerah, son of Mir Jafar, killed him. This battle proved to be very important for the English from historical point of view. The English became the real masters of Bengal and it became easy for them to expand their power in India.
Siraj-Ud-Daulah

Question 11.
Write down a note on Dual system in Bengal.
Answer:
Robert Clive started a new administrative system in Bengal which is known as the Dual administrative system. According to it, the administration of Bengal was divided in two parts. The work of tax collection remained with the British, while the Nawab was given the responsibility to run the administration. A fixed amount of money was paid to him for running the administration. As there were two types of administration in Bengal, so this system came to be known as dual administrative system. Real power of the administration in Bengal came in the hands of the British company as a result of this system and the Nawab remained a puppet in the hands of the British.

Question 12.
What do you mean by subsidiary alliance?
Answer:
The subsidiary alliance system was started by Lord Wellesley in 1798 A.D. He wanted to expand the British Empire in India and to make the company very powerful. It was possible only if all the native rulers and Nawabs were made powerless. He took advantage of the subsidiary alliance system and brought many native rulers under the British control.

Terms of the Subsidiary Alliance. Subsidiary Alliances were made between the company and the native rulers. The company promised to give military help to the rulers who entered into subsidiary alliances with it in case of any internal or external trouble.

In lieu of it, the local rulers had to accept the following terms :

He had to accept the supremacy of the company. He was not allowed to make war or any treaty with any other ruler without the permission of the company.
He had to keep a battalion of the English army in his state for his safety and he had to pay its expenses to the British.
He had to keep an English Resident at his court.

Question 13.
Write a note on “Policy of Lapse.”
Answer:
The Policy of Lapse was adopted by Lord Dalhousie. According to this doctrine, succession to protected state depended upon the will of the British. Lord Dalhousie decided that if the ruler of a dependent state had no male child, he could not adopt a son. It meant that if a native ruler died without leaving a son behind, the dependent state would pass onto the hands of the British. On the grounds of Doctrine of Lapse, Dalhousie annexed seven dependept kingdoms into the British Empire which included Nagpur, Jhansi, Jaitpur and Satara.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
After the battle of ________a treaty of Allahabad was signed among the British, Siraj-ud-Daulah and Shah Alam in 1765 A.D.
Answer:
Buxar

Question 2.
In 1772 A.D. the ________ was abolished in Bengal.
Answer:
Dual administration

Question 3.
Lord Welleselly introduced the ________ system for expansion of the British Empire.
Answer:
Subsidiary alliance.

III. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
First of all Vasco-De-Gama a Portuguese captain, reached Calicut in India on 27th May, 1498 A.D.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Two Carnatic wars were fought between the Britishers and French.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
During the battle of Plassey with the Britishers, Mir Jaffer was the Nawab of Bengal.
Answer:
False.

IV. Something To Do:

Question 1.
Suppose you are nephew of Nawab. The Nawab have no son. From the beginning you are said that after the death of Nawab you will become a king. But under the policy of Doctrine of Lapse the British does not become a king to you. What will you do for become a king?
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Question 2.
Make a list on a chart of methods adopted by the Lord Dalhousie for the expansion of British Empire and which states were annexed in this empire by the Lord Dalhousie?
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide The Establishment of East India Company Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
When was Bahadur Shah Zafar arrested?
(a) 1857 A.D.
(b) 1859 A.D.
(c) 1858 A.D.
(d) 1860 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1858 A.D.

Question 2.
When did Vasco de Gama discover sea route to India?
(a) 1456 A.D.
(b) 1498 A.D.
(c) 1490 A.D.
(d) 1496 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1498 A.D.

Question 3.
What was a Farman?
(а) A royal order issued by Aurangzeb
(б) A royal edict issued by British
(c) A verdict 6f rule over Bengal
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) A royal order issued by Aurangzeb.

Question 4.
Which Nawab of Bengal died in 1756 A.D.?
(a) Sirajuddaulah
(b) Mir Qasim
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Alivardi Khan.
Answer:
(d) Alivardi Khan.

Question 5.
Which Governor-General defeated Sirajuddaulah at the battle of Plassey?
(a) Robert Clive
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Wellesley.
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive.

Question 6.
Which Nawab of Bengal was defeated in the battle of Buxar?
(a) Mir Jafar
(b) Sirajuddaulah
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) Murshid Quli Khan.
Answer:
(c) Mir Qasim.

Question 7.
After which battle the company appointed residents in the Indian states?
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Awadh
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Battle of Buxar.

Question 8.
Who granted Diwani rights of Bengal to the British?
(a) Mir Qasim
(b) Murshid Quli Khan
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Mughal Emperor Shah Alam.
Answer:
(d) Mughal Emperor Shah Alam.

Question 9.
Who was the son of Haider Ali?
(a) Tipu Sultan
(b) Mir Jafar
(c) Alivardi Khan
(d) Mir Qasim.
Answer:
(a) Tipu Sultan.

Question 10.
Which ruler of Mysore stopped the export of many things through the ports of his kingdom?
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Alivardi Khan
(c) Tipu Sultan
(d) Mir Jafar.
Answer:
(c) Tipu Sultan.

Question 11.
How many Mysore wars were fought?
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Five.
Answer:
(b) Four.

Question 12.
In which battle Tipu Sultan was defeated?
(a) Battle of Buxar
(b) Battle of Awadh
(c) Battle of Plassey
(d) Battle of Seringapatam.
Answer:
(d) Battle qf Seringapatam.

Question 13.
Identify the shaded state where the three Anglo French wars were fought:

(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
(c) Karnataka.

Question 14.
Why did Vasco-de-Gama come to India through sea route?
(a) To rule India
(b) To discover a new route to reach India
(c) To attack India
(d) On a vacation journey.
Answer:
(b) To discover a new route to reach India.

Question 15.
The person given in picture was the king of a famous kingdom in South India during late 18th century who fought four wars with the British. Name the king.

(a) Tipu Sultan
(b) Hyder Ali
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Mir Qasim.
Answer:
(a) Tipu Sultan.

Question 16.
The person given in the picture defeated Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-daulah in the battle of Plassey. Name the person.

(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Robert Clive
(c) William Bentick
(d) Lord Canning.
Answer:
(b) Robert Clive.

Question 17.
Vasco-de-Gama was the first explorer who reached India by Sea. Which country did he belong to?
(a) England
(b) Portugal
(c) France
(d) Russia.
Answer:
(b) Portugal.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The battle of ________ was fought between the British and Shuja-ud-daulah, Shah Alam and Mir Qasim in 1764.
Answer:
Buxer

Question 2.
________ system was ended in Bengal in 1772 A.D.
Answer:
Dual,

Question 3.
Lord Wellesley adopted system of ________
Answer:
Subsidiary Alliance.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Vasco-de-Gama reached Calicut on 27th May, 1498.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Two carnatic wars were fought between the British and French.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Mir Jafar was the Nawab of Bengal in the battle of Plassey.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Battle of Plassey	(i) Lord Hastings
2. Battle of Buxor	(ii) Siraj-ud-daulah
3. Attack on Arcott	(iii) Mir Qasim
4. British Gorkha War	(iv) Robert Clive

Answer:

A	B
1. Battle of Plassey	(ii) Siraj-ud-daulah
2. Battle of Buxor	(iii) Mir Qasim
3. Attack on Arcott	(iv) Robert Clive
4. British Gorkha War	(i) Lord Hastings

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who discovered new sea route to reach India from Europe?
Answer:
Portuguese sailor (captain) Vasco-de-Gama discovered new sea route to reach India from Europe.

Question 2.
When and on which port did Vasco-de-Gama reached India?
Answer:
27 May, 1498 on the port of Calicut.

Question 3.
When the English East India Company was.established?
Answer:
On 31 Dec. 1600 A.D.

Question 4.
When the French East India Company was established?
Answer:
In 1664 A.D.

Question 5.
Name the two French Governors in India under whom French power was spread in India.
Answer:
Dooma and Dupleix.

Question 6.
Name the British representatives who were sent to the Mughal Durbar to get trade concessions?
Answer:
William Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe.

Question 7.
Name the French settlements near Chennai (Madras) and Kolkata (Calcutta).
Answer:
Pondicherry near Chennai and Chandernagar near Kolkata were the French settlements.

Question 8.
Between which European companies the third carnatic war was fought?
Answer:
This war was fought between French East India Company and English East India Company.

Question 9.
Give any one cause of the First Carnatic War (1746-48).
Answer:
War broke out in Europe between England and France. As a result, war also started in India between the two powers.

Question 10.
When the first Carnatic War ended? Mention one result of this War.
Answer:
The First War of Carnatic come to an end in 1748 A.D. The English got back the region of Madras (now Chennai) as a result of the peace treaty.

Question 11.
Give any one cause of the Second Carnatic War.
Answer:
The French supported Nasir Jang the ruler of Hyderabad and Chanda Sahib, the ruler of the Carnatic. The English could not tolerate this so they gave recognition to their opponents and waged a war against the French in 1751 A.D.

Question 12.
What was the result of Second War of Carnatic?
Answer:
French were defeated in the Second Carnatic War. It increased the power and prestige of the British Company in India.

Question 13.
Which Indian powers got involved in the Second War of Carnatic?
Answer:
The following Indian powers got themselves involved in the Second Carnatic War :

Claimants to the throne of Carnatic.
Claimants to the state of Hyderabad.

Question 14.
Mention any one cause of the third Carnatic War. (1756-1763).
Answer:
The Seven Years War began in Europe between England and France in 1756 A.D. Subsequently, a war between England and France also started in India. This was the Third War of Carnatic.

Question 15.
When did the third War of Carnatic take place. Which two European companies fought the third Battle of Carnatic? Who was defeated in this War?
Answer:
The Third War of Carnatic took place in 1J56 A.D. It was fought between the English East India Company and The French East India Company. The French were defeated in it.

Question 16.
What was the result of the third War of Carnatic?
Answer:
France lost her power in India as a result of the third War of Carnatic and the British emerged as a great power in India.

Question 17.
Who was Dupleix? What was his plan?
Answer:
Dupleix was the Governor of French possessions in India. He had prepared a plan for enhancing the French influences in Southern India.

Question 18.
Why was Dupleix called back?
Answer:
Dupleix was called back to France on account of the French defeat in the second Carnatic war.

Question 19.
Who was Robert Clive? What part did he play in the second War of Carnatic?
Answer:
Robert Clive was a very able English army Commander. He occupied Arcot, the capital town of Chanda Sahib in the Second War of Carnatic and compelled Chanda Sahib to leave Trichnapalli, As a result, the British won the war.

Question 20.
When and between whom the Treaty of Paris was signed? What were the effects of this treaty on India?
Answer:
The Treaty of Paris was signed in 1763 A.D. between France and England. The Third War of Carnatic in India also came to an end by this treaty.

Question 21.
State any one reason for the success of the British against the French in the Carnatic Wars.
Answer:
The English had a powerful navy. They were in a position to send their army with the help of navy from one place to another.

Question 22.
Between which powers did the Battle of Plassey take place?
Answer:
Between the British East India Company and Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah of Bengal.

Question 23.
State any one cause of the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
The British started fortifying Calcutta (now Kolkata) in order to strengthen their position in Bengal. Calcutta (Kolkata) was a part of the kingdom of the Nawab. It strained the relations between the British and the Nawab.

Question 24.
Write any one result of the battle of Plassey.
Answer:
Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah was defeated in this battle and Mir Jafar became the new Nawab of Bengal. Mir Jafar gave huge amount of money and the district of 24 Parganas to the British.

Question 25.
What was the importance of the Battle of Plassey for the British?
Answer:
This battle greatly enhanced the power and prestige of the British which was the largest and most prosperous state in India. As a result, the key to the conquest of India fell into the hands of the English.

Question 26.
Write any one cause of the battle of Buxar.
Answer:
The British Company had got permission to trade freely in Bengal, but the officials of the Company had been trading privately. It caused financial loss to the Nawab of Bengal.

Question 27.
Clive is considered to be “the founder of the British Empire in India.” Give one reason in support of this view.
Answer:
Clive won the Second War of the Carnatic and also the Battle of Plassey for the British. Both these victories proved to be the foundation stone of the British Empire in India.

Question 28.
Who was Mir Jafar? For how long he remained the Nawab of Bengal?
Answer:
Mir Jafar was an army commander who betrayed Siraj-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Bengal. He remained the Nawab of Bengal from 1757 A.D. to 1760 A.D.

Question 29.
When and between whom was the Treaty of Allahabad signed?
Answer:
The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on May 3rd, 1765 between the British, Nawab of Awadh and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam.

Question 30.
Write any one term of the treaty of Allahabad.
Answer:
The British Company got the right of Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa from the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam. As such, the English became the real rulers of Bengal.

Question 31.
“Buxar completed the work of Plassey.” Justify this statement.
Answer:
The battle of Plassey had paved the way for the increase of power and influence of the British in Bengal but they became the real rulers of Bengal after the battle of Buxar.- Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Avadh and Shah Alam, the Mughal Emperor came completely under the control of the British Company. It is, therefore, said that Buxar completed the work of Plassey.

Question 32.
Which treaty was imposed by Lord Wellesley to expand the British Empire?
Answer:
Lord Wellesley followed the policy of expansion by making Subsidiary Alliances with the Indian states.

Question 33.
Name the two states affected by the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
States of Jhansi and Nagpur were affected by Doctrine of Lapse. They both were annexed into the British empire.

Question 34.
When was Avadh annexed by the British?
Answer:
The British annexed Avadh in 1856 A.D.

Question 35.
Write any one term of Subsidiary Alliance.
Answer:
According to Subsidiary Alliance system, Indian rulers were not allowed to maintain any political relations with any internal or external power.

Question 36.
What promises the British Company made with any Indian ruler entering Subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
The British East India Company promised security of the native ruler under this system in case of internal revolt or external aggression. The British company promised to protect the Indian rulers.

Question 37.
How was the British East India Company benefited by the Subsidiary Alliances? Mention any one benefit.
Answer:
Political position of the English East India-Company became very strong as a result of the Subsidiary Alliances.

Question 38.
How were the Indian rulers affected by the Subsidiary Alliances? Mention one effect.
Answer:
Local rulers who entered into Subsidiary Alliances with the company, were free from internal and external dangers. They started leading a luxurious life and became careless about the welfare of their subjects.

Question 39.
When did the Dual administrative system come to an end in Bengal?
Answer:
In 1772 A.D.

Question 40.
Name the three governors-general under whom the British empire expanded to a great deal.
Answer:
Lord Wellesley, Lord Hastings and Lord Dalhousie.

Question 41.
When and by whom independent Mysore state was established?
Answer:
Hyder Ali established independent Mysore state in 1761 A.D.

Question 42.
When first Mysore war took place? Who emerged victorious?
Answer:
First Mysore war took place in 1767-1769 A.D. Hyder Ali emerged victorious out of this war.

Question 43.
When was Hyder Ali died? Who became Sultan of Mysore after him?
Answer:
Hyder Ali was died in 1782 A.D. After him, his son Tipu Sultan became Sultan of Mysore.

Question 44.
When and how did Tipu Sultan die?
Answer:
Tipu Sultan died in 1799 A.D. while fighting fourth war of Mysore against the British.

Tipu Sultan

Question 45.
When treaties of Basin and Dewgao took place?
Answer:
In 1802 A.D. and 1803 A.D. respectively.

Question 46.
Between whom the treaty of Dewgao took place? Which two states were given to the British after this treaty?
Answer:
Treaty of Dewgao took place between Maratha Sardar Bhonsle and the British. The British got the states of Cuttock and Balasor through this treaty.

Question 47.
How many states of Rajasthan came under subordination of the British under Lord Hastings? Name four main states out of them.
Answer:
19 States of Rajasthan came under the subordination of the British during the tenure of Lord Hastings. Jaipur, Jodhpur, Udaypur and Bikaner were four main states out of those 19 states.

Question 48.
Name Dutch settlements in India.
Answer:
Dutch had their settlements in India at Surat, Cochin, Pulikat, Nagapattam, Chinsura etc.

Question 49.
By whom and for how many years the East India Company was granted the trade privileges to trade with India?
Answer:
The British Queen Elizabeth-I granted the East India Company the trade privileges of 15 years to trade with India.

Question 50.
Who was Assif Shah and when did he die?
Answer:
Assif Shah was the Nizam of Hyderabad. He died in 1748 A.D.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why did the European Trading Companies clash with one another and what were the results of the clash?
Answer:
Causes of the Clash. Many European companies came to India for trade. The traders of these companies were very greedy, selfish and ambitious. All the companies wanted to establish their complete control over the trade in India. So, this clash of interests was the main cause of conflict among the trading companies.

Results of the Conflicts. First of all, the Dutch defeated the Portuguese and took over the control of whole trade in their hands. In between, the English increased their activities. They defeated the Dutch and drove them away from India. So only the English and the French were left in India. A long struggle for supremacy in India began between these two powers. The English were the winners in this conflict and they established full control over trade in India. Gradually, they also established their political power in India.

Question 2.
Describe the First Carnatic War.
Answer:
War for the throne of Austria went on in Europe between 1740-48 A.D. England and France fought against each other in this war. As a result, the war between these two nations also started in India. The French looted the English trade centre of Fort Saint George (Madras). When the Nawab of Carnatic sent his army against them, it was also defeated by the French. Dupleix was the Governor of the French possessions in India during those days. The prestige of the French was greatly enhanced in India. In 1748 A.D., the war between the English and the French in Europe came to an end. In this year, a treaty was signed between the English and the French in India as well. The French returned Madras (now Chennai) to the English.

Question 3.
What were the results of the Second Carnatic War?
Answer:

Chanda Sahib was killed and Arcot was occupied by the English.
The English declared Muhammad Ali as the ruler of Carnatic.
The French influenced continued in Hyderabad. They got the right of collecting revenue. They also stationed a battalion of their army there.
The English Commander Clive became famous as a result of this war.

Question 4.
What were the results of the Third Carnatic War?
Answer:
The Third War of Carnatic started in 1756 A.D. and ended in 1763 A.D. Given below are the results of the war :

The French lost their hold on the state of Hyderabad and the English influences was established there.
The English got the territory of Northern Sarkars.
The French power in India completely broke down and it became easy for the English to expand their power in India.

Question 5.
What were the causes of animosity between the English and the French in the 18th century?
Answer:
The following were the three main causes of animosity between the two powers :

England and France had been the enemies of each other for a long time.
There was a trade competition between the two countries in India.
Both the countries wanted to establish their political power in India.

Actually, whenever there was a war between England and France in Europe, a conflict between the two powers also started in India.

Question 6.
Describe the main provisions of the Treaty of Allahabad.
Answer:
The following were the main terms of the Treaty of Allahabad (1765) :

The English and the Nawab of Awadh promised to help each other in case of any war.
The Nawab promised to pay fifty lakh rupees to the English as compensation of war.
The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam granted Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the British Company. The English, in return, agreed to pay a pension of? 26 Lakhs per annum to Shah Alam.
The Nawab of Awadh promised not to give shelter to Mir Kasim in his state.

Question 7.
Which of the three Wars of Carnatic was the most important and why?
Answer:
The Second War of Carnatic was the most important war out of the three wars of Carnatic. This war was a symbol of the diplomatic victory of the English. Before this, the English were badly defeated by the French in the First War of Carnatic. As a result, the French power in India became very strong. In the Second War of Carnatic too, the English were on the verge of defeat.

But Robert Clive cleverly changed the situation. He turned the war plan of the French into a failure. After this war, the power of the French rapidly declined. Consequently, the English easily defeated the French in the Third War of Carnatic. Had the English been defeated in the Second War of Carnatic, they would have not only lost trade in India, but would have to leave India like the Portuguese and the Dutch.

Question 8.
Why was Siraj-ud-daulah defeated in the battle of Plassey?
Answer:
Given below were the causes of defeat Siraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plassey :
1. Conspiracy of Clive. Clive gave a hitting blow to Siraj-ud-daulah by hatching a conspiracy against him. He won over the support of Mir Jafar, the army commander of Siraj-ud-daulah, and easily defeated Siraj-ud-daulah.

2. Lack of farsightedness of Siraj-ud-daulah. Siraj -ud-daulah was not a farsighted ruler. Had he been a wise ruler, he would have kept an eye on the activities of the English and his other opponents. He would have noticed the conspiracy beforehand which was being hatched by Clive. So, lack of his farsightedness became a cause of his defeat.

3. Lack of Military resources. The military set up of Siraj-ud-daulah was faulty. His soldiers were neither trained like the English soldiers nor they had modern weapons of war. Soldiers of the Nawab fought like a crowd in the battle. They lacked discipline.

Question 9.
What were the causes of the success of the British in the conflict between the French and the British?
Answer:
The following causes were responsible for the success of’the British against the French:
1. Powerful Navy of Britain. The English navy was more powerful than that of the French. The British had large ships to bring soldiers and war material from England to India.

2. Sound Financial Condition of the British. Economic condition of the British was very sound. Their trade activities continued even during the war days. But as the French usually kept themselves involved in politics, they therefore, lacked financial resources.

3. British Victory over Bengal. Bengal, a rich state of India, came under the control of the British after the battle of Plassey. Need of money for winning a war is very great. The British trade in Bengal continued even during the war days. The money they earned from this trade was utilised by them for their wars in the south.

4. Efficient infantry and able army commanders. The infantry wing of the British army was better trained and organised than that of the French army. English commanders like Robert Clive, Sir Ayercoote and Major Lawrence were very capable persons. On the other hand, the French army commanders like Dupleix, Lally and Bussey were not so capable and efficient persons. This factor also contributed to the success of the British.

Question 10.
What were the causes of conflict between Siraj-ud-daulah and the British? (P.S.E.B. 2005, 2003)
Answer:
The following causes were responsible for the conflict between Siraj-ud-daulah and the British :

The British gave no gifts to Siraj-ud-daulah on his appointment as the Nawab of Bengal. Siraj-ud-daulah was therefore, angry with the British.
The British gave shelter to a deserter of Siraj-ud-daulah’s service. The Nawab demanded the return of the traitor, but the British turned a deaf ear to his demand.
The English started deploying forces in Calcutta (Kolkata) and in spite of refusal of the Nawab to allow them to keep their forces there, the British did not withdraw them.
There was misappropriation of funds in the Dacca treasury of Nawab and the Nawab held that the misappropriated amount was in the possession of the English. He asked them to return the amount but the English refused.

Question 11.
What was the significance of the Battle of Buxar in Indian history?
Answer:
The Battle of Buxar is more important than the Battle of Plassey in the history of India. As a result of this battle, the British became a great political force in India. It paved for them the way for the conquest of more territories in India. The English consolidated their position in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. The Nawab of Avadh Shuja-ud- daulah and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam came completely under the British control.

Question 12.
What were the causes of the Battle of Plassey (1757 A.D.)?
Answer:
The following were the causes of the battle of Plassey :

Causes:

The English gave no gifts to Siraj-ud-daulah on his appointment as the Nawab of Bengal. He was, therefore, angry with the British.
The British stationed their armed troops at Calcutta (Kolkata) and continued reinforcing them in spite of the Nawab’s protests.
The English hatched a conspiracy against the Nawab with the co-operation of Seth Amin Chand and army commander Mir Jafar of Bengal.

Question 13.
What were the causes of the Battle of Buxar?
Answer:
The following are the causes of the Battle of Buxar :

The officials of the English Company were misusing the trade concessions allowed to them by the Nawab. It resulted in the decline in the income of the Nawab of Bengal.
Mir Qasim strengthened his army. He established an arms and ammunition factory and shifted his treasury from Calcutta (Kolkata) to Mungher. The English did not like the activities of Mir Qasim.
Mir Qasim also allowed Indian traders to trade without paying any tax like the English. It increased the animosity between the English and the Nawab.

Question 14.
Who was Tipu Sultan? Explain his conflict with the British.
Answer:
Tipu Sultan was the son of ruler of Mysore, Hyder Ali. He became ruler of Mysore in 1782 A.D. after the death of his father, Hyder Ali. At that time, second Mysore xwar was going on. Tipu carried on the war. In the beginning, he got some success but he was defeated in 3rd battle of Mysore (1790-92). He was forced to surrender some part of his kingdom to the British. He wanted to take revenge of his defeat and that’s why he again declared war against the British. Tipu Sultan died in this war (1799) and most of the part of his kingdom was annexed into the British empire. Remaining part of the Mysore was given to Prince Krishna Rao.

Question 15.
Write a note on the British-Gorkha War (1814-1816 A.D.).
Answer:
Gorkhas of Nepal captured some of the border areas of the British. That’s why Lord Hastings send a huge army to suppress the power of Gorkhas. It was send under Aukhterloani. Gorkha’s were defeated in this war. That’s why they were forced to give many areas to the British. Except this, they also agreed to keep a British resident in Kathmandu, the capital of Nepal.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the expansion of the British empire in India from 1823 till 1848 A.D.
Answer:
From 1823 till 1848 A.D., the British empire in India was expanded by Lord Emerhest, Lord William Bentick, Lord Auckland, Lord Allenbrough and Lord Harding.

It’s description is given below :

Lord Emerhest won the First Anglo Burmese war (1824-26 A.D.) and annexed the states of Arakan and Assam into the British empire.
After this, Lord William Bentick captured Kutch, Mysore and Kurg. He made a Trade treaty with amirs of Sindh in 1832. It led to stoppage of expansion of Maharaja Ranjit Singh in this direction.
Lord Auckland made a subsidiary alliance with amirs of Sindh in 1839 A.D. and expanded the British empire.
Charles Napier captured Sindh in 1843 A.D. during the tenure of Lord Allenbrough and annexed it into British empire.
Lord Harding defeated the Sikhs in first Anglo-Sikh War. As a result, Jalandhar, Kangra and Kashmir were captured by the British.

Question 2.
How different Maratha kingdoms won over by the British?
Answer:
Till 1772 A.D., Chief of Marathas, Peshwa, remained very powerful. After this, Maratha Chief Nana Fadnavis kept Maratha power in one way or the other. During this age, most important Maratha chiefs were Scindhia, Bhonsle, Holkar and Gaikwad. But Peshwas and different chiefs were defeated one by one by the British.

1. Decline of Peshwa. After the death of fourth Peshwa, Madhav Rao, in 1771 A.D. his son Narayan Rao became next Peshwa. But he was killed by his uncle Raghoba. At this moment of problem, Nana Fadnavis took charge of Marathas. He declared son of Narayan Rao as next Peshwa and declared himself as his guardian. He fought a long battle with the British but did not accepted the Subsidiary Alliance. But Maratha chiefs were divided after his death. Peshwa was afraid by Maratha chief Holkar. That’s why he came under the protection of the British in 1802 A.D. and accepted Subsidiary Alliance under the treaty of Bassein.

2. End of Power of Scindhia and Bhonsle. Scindhia and Bhonsle didn’t like the acceptance of subsidiary alliance by the Peshwa. They considered it as a disrespect of the whole Maratha community. They declared war against the British to take revenge of this disrespect. Gaikwad gave his support to the British. Lord Lake defeated Scindhia and captured Delhi, Agra and Aligarh. Areas of Cuttock and Balasor also came under occupation of the British. In the end, Scindhia and Bhonsle both accepted the Subsidiary Alliance.

3. End of Power of other Maratha Chiefs. The Peshwa, once again tried to create unity among Marathas. In 1817 A.D., Lord Hestings defeated the forces of Peshwa, Bhonsle and Holker. Peshwa was given pension and his title was abolished. Whole of his kingdom was annexed into the British empire. After this, other Maratha chiefs also accepted the subordination of the British. In this way, all the Maratha kingdoms were annexed into the British empire.

Question 3.
Explain briefly the Anglo-Mysore wars.
Answer:
The Kingdom of Mysore was very powerful. This kingdom became very prosperous under Hyder Ali and military power of the state was also increased to a great extent. The British made an alliance with the enemies of Hyder Ali—Marathas and the Nizam of Hyderabad, to suppress the increasing power of Mysore. This was unbearable for Hyder Ali.

That’s why he declared war against the Britishers.
1. First war of Mysore. This war started between Hyder Ali and the British in 1767 and fought till 1769 A.D. Hyder Ali reached till Madras in this war. Then in 1769 A.D. one defensive treaty took place between both the parties. Conquered areas of both the parties were given back to each other.

2. Second War of Mysore. Hyder Ali also showed a great courage in the second war of Mysore (1780—84). But he was defeated at Portonona because he was unable to get expected help from the French. Hyder Ali died in 1782 A.D. and Tipu Sultan carried on the war. Later on, according to the treaty of Mangalore in 1784 A.D., conquered areas of both the parties were given back to each other.

Tipu Sultan

3. Third War of Mysore. In third war of Mysore (1790-92 A.D.), Tipu Sultan attacked on the British forces. But in the end he was defeated by Lord Cornwallis. According to the treaty of Srirangapattnam, half of the kingdom of Tipu Sultan was taken away by the British and Tipu Sultan was also forced to give? 3 crore as a compensation of war to the British

4. Fourth War of Mysore. Tipu Sultan died (1799 A.D.) in fourth war of Mysore while saving his capital. After his death, some area of his kingdom was given to old Mysore dynasty, some area was given to Nizam and some area was taken away by the British.

In this way, the power of Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan was completely destroyed by the British.

Question 4.
Explain in brief merchantilism and Trade Wars.
Answer:
There were trade relations between India and Europe right from ancient times. Three main routes were there of this trade :

First route was northern route. This route was going on through Afganisthan, Caspean Sea and Black Sea.
Second route was middle route which was going on through Iran, Iraq and Seria.
Third route was southern route. This route was going on through Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea, Red Sea and Egypt.

States of Western Asia and Southern-Eastern Europe were occupied by Turkey in 15th century. It led to closure of ancient trade routes between India and Europe. That’s why European countries tried to find new sea routes to reach India. First of all the Portuguese sailor Vasco-de-Gama reached port of Calicut of India on 27th May 1498. So, Portuguese started to do trade with India. This process is known as Merchantilism whose objective was to earn money.

Trade Wars. Other European powers also established trade relations with India When they found Portuguese earning money through trade with India. These European powers were Dutch, the British and the French. Wars started between them to establish their supremacy on Indian trade. These wars are known as Trade Wars.

Gradually they established their factories and establishments in India.

Main Portuguese establishments in India were at Goa,’ Daman, Basin, Bombay, Saint Tom, Hugli and Salset.
Main Dutch establishments in India were at Cochin,* N&gapatnam, Pulkit and Chinsura.
Main British establishments in India were at Surat, Ahmedabad, Baloch, Agra, Bombay and Calcutta.
Main French establishments were at Pondicherry, Chandranagar and Karikal.

With the passage of time, all these four European powers came in direct conflict with each other to win over each other’s establishments. Impact of Portuguese and Dutch reduced to a great extdht till 17th century due to this conflict. Till this time, only French and the British remained in Indian scenario. They both were also engaged in conflict with each other to keep monopoly over Indian trade. Later on the British emerged victorious out of this conflict.

Question 5.
Explain the establishment of the British the East India Company.
Answer:
Establishment of the Company. Like the Pbrtuguese and the Dutch the British too decided to trade with India. Britain had strengthened her navy after defeating Spain in 1588 A.D.. In 1600 A.D., traders of England sought the permission of Queen Elizabeth for trade with India and established the British East India Company. They wanted to establish trade relations with eastern islands. But eastern islands were under the control of the Dutch. The Dutch harassed the British traders and compelled them to withdraw from the East Indies.

Concessions from the Mughal Emperor. Now the British” East India Company increased its trade activities in India. In 1608 A.D., Capt. Hawkins obtained permission of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir to trade with India. In 1615 A.D., Sir Thomas Roe came to the Court of Jahangir as an ambassador of James I, the king of England. He sought permission of Jahangir to establish a factory at Surat and also obtained several other concessions. As such, Surat became a trade centre of the English.

Growth of power of the British East India Company. In 16li A.D., the English established a factory at Masulipattam in South India. After this, they purchased some land and laid the foundation of the city of Madras (Chennai) and established -a factory there. In 1651 A.D., the British Emperor Charles’ II got Bombay (Mumbai) from the Portuguese as dowry and the British Company established a cotton, cloth factory there.

Permission for free trade. The British East India: Company established its first factory in 1633 in the East India, in Orissa. Soon they set up their “factories at Hugli, Patna, Balasor and Dacca. Surat continued to be th^headquartes of the British Company till 1686 A.D. A mint was set up in Bombay (Mumbai). Coins made in this mint were in circulation in the Mughal Empire. In 1717 A.D., the British Company got the permission to trade freely (free from Octroi tax) in lieu of payment of Rs. three thousand per annum to the Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar.

In this way, trade of the British East India Company flourished a lot. With the expansion of trade, cities like Madras (Chennai), Bombay (Mumbai) and Calcutta (Kolkata) became very prosperous.

Question 6.
Explain Anglo-French struggle.
Or
Write the phases of struggle between the British and the French.
Answer:
The wars which took place between the British and the French in South India are known as the wars of Carnatic. Following is the chronological order of this conflict :
1. First Carnatic War: The First Carnatic War was fought during 1746-1748 A.D.

Causes:

The English and the French wanted to establish their supremacy in trade in the whole of India. This was the main cause of animosity between them.
At that time, war broke out between England and France in Europe. As a result, war between the English and the French also started in India.

Events. In 1746 A.D., the French attacked the British territory and occupied Madras (now Chennai). As Madras was a part of Carnatic state, the British requested the Nawab of Carnatic to come to their help. The Nawab sent ten thousand soldiers to stop the war between the British and the French. The Nawab’s army was defeated by the French army. In 1748 A.D., the war ended in Europe:

Consequently, the War between the English and the French also came to an end in India.

Results:

The French supremacy was established in South India as a result of their victory in this war.
The control of Chennai (Madras) was given back to the British as a result of the peace treaty.

2. Second Carnatic War (P.S.E.B. 2002 B):
The Second Carnatic War was fought between 1751 A.D. and 1754 A.D.

Causes: The Second Carnatic War was started due to the dispute about succession to the thrones in two states namely, Hyderabad and Carnatic. In each state, there were two claimants to the throne. Nasir Jang and Muzafar Jang were claimants to the throne of Hyderabad and Anwar-ud-Din and Chanda Sahib to that of Carnatic. The French army Commander Dupleix supported Muzafar Jang and Chanda Sahib and made them the rulers of Hyderabad and Carnatic respectively.

The English did not remain silent spectators. They supported Nasir Jang in Hyderabad and Muhammad Ali, son of Anwar-ud-Din in Carnatic.

Events: In the beginning, the French won some victories. Chanda Sahib, with the help of the French, defeated his enemies at Trichnapali. But the English army commander Robert Clive changed the whole position. He laid siege to Arcot, the capital of the state ruled by Chanda Sahib. Chanda Sahib ran away from Trichnapali for the protection of his capital, but he could neither protect his capital nor himself. In this way, Carnatic came under the rule of the British.

Results:

A treaty was signed in 1755 A.D. between the English and the French. Both the parties decided to remain aloof from the conflicts between Indian rulers.
The prestige of the English was enhanced as a result of this war.

3. Third Carnatic War. The Third Carnatic War was fought between 1756 A.D. to 1763 A.D. In this war too, the English came out victorious and the French were defeated.

Causes: In 1756 A.D., once again, England and France were engulfed in a war in Europe, (Seven Years War). Consequently, in India too, war broke out between the English and the French.

Events: First of all, the French occupied the English fort named Saint David. After this, they attacked Madras (now Chennai). But in 1760 A.D., an English Army Commander Eyer Coot badly defeated the French in the battle of Vandivash. In 1763 A.D., the war in Europe (Seven Years War), came to an end by the treaty of Paris. Consequently, the war between the English and the French in India also came to an end.

Results:

The power of the French in India was almost finished. The French were left with only Pondicherry, Mahe and Chandernagar.
The British became the most powerful political power in India.

Question 7.
Explain the expansion of the British Empire during the time of Lord Wellesley.
Answer:
Lord Welleslly came to India as Governor-General in 1798 A.D. He wanted to spread the British empire in India. He adopted a number of methods of fulfil this objective and captured many Indian states.

In short, he used following methods to spread the British empire in India:
1. Through Wars. Lord Welleslly defeated Tipu Sultan in fourth Mysore war in 1799 A.D. and captured lot of his territory. He also defeated Marathas in 1802 A.D. and captured Delhi, Agra, Cuttock, Balasor, Bharoch, Buftdelkhand to spread British empire. Wellesley also captured Indore, which was the capital to Maratha king Jaswant Rao Holker.

2. Through Subsidiary Alliance. Welleslly also adopted the policy of Subsidiary Alliance to spread the British Empire. It was made between the company and native rulers. The company promised to give military help to the rulers who entered into subsidiary alliances with it in case of any internal or external trouble. But in that case local ruler was not allowed to make war or any treaty with any ruler without the permission of the company.

First of all, this alliance was accepted by Nizam of Hyderabad in 1798 A.D. Even he gave some of his areas to the British. After Nizam, this alliance was also accepted by Nawab of Awadh. Even he gave area of Ruhelkhand and Doab of Ganga-Yamuna to the British for the expanses of military which was kept in its state.

3. Through Pensions. Wellesley gave pension to King of Surat- in 1800 A.D. and included Surat in the British empire. Nawab of Karnataka died in 1801 A.D. He fixed pension for his son and included his state in the British empire.
In this way Lord Welleslly expanded the British empire, to a great deal, in India.

Question 8.
Explain the expansion of the British empire during the time of Lord Dalhousie.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie spread the British empire in India through four following methods:

Through Conquests
Though Doctrine of Lapse
On the basis of Mal-administration
By discontinuing titles and pensions.

1. Through Conquests:

Lord Dalhousie took advantage of the opposition of Moolraj and Chatar Singh and declared war against the Lahore Darbar. It is also known as Second Anglo-Sikh War (1848-1849 A.D.). The British emerged victorious from this war. As a result, Punjab was annexed on 29th March 1849 and it become part of the British empire.
Lord Dalhousie attacked Sikkim in 1850 A.D. and defeated its ruler. In this way, Sikkim was also annexed into the British empire.
The next turn was of Burma. The British emerged victorious from the second Anglo-Burmese war in 1852 A’.D. So, the Prom and Pegu states of Burma were annexed into the British empire.

2. Doctrine of Lapse. Lord Dalhousie adopted the policy of Lapse to annex Indian states into the British empire. According to this policy if the ruler of a dependent state had no male issue he could not adopt a son. It meant that if a native ruler died without leaving a son behind, the dependent state would pass into the hands of the British. On the grounds of this doctrine, Dalhousie annexed seven dependent kingdoms into the British empire which included Nagpur, Jhansi, Jaitpur, and Satara.

3. On the basis of Mal-Administration. In 1856-A.D., Lord Dalhousie accused Nawab of Awadh that the administration of Awadh is mismanaged. That’s why Avadh was annexed into the British empire. This action of Dalhousie .was totally against ethics.

4. By discontinuing titles and pensions. Lord Dalhousie took away the titles of rulers of Karnataka, Poona, Thanjavur, and Surun and discontinued their pension. Later on, these states were annexed into the British empire.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 First Aid

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 1 First Aid Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 1 First Aid

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB First Aid Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is first aid?
Answer:
First Aid:
The aid given to the wounded or the patient till the doctor arrives or is approached is called First Aid. During play, players receive many wounds or cuts, and if they do not receive first aid timely, they may become crippled or handicapped for life. As such, it is very essential for Physical Education teachers and students to have knowledge of First Aid. They should be fully familiar with the symptoms and the principles of treatment of injuries received by players so that they may help the injured. Sometimes these injuries prove fatal when first aid is not available.

Importance:
In today’s world of science, human life is greatly influenced by technological advances, as a result of which many accidents occur. No wonder people continue to get injured or wounded. If the injured gets timely first aid, his life can be saved easily. The ways and means adopted to save the life of the injured or to lessen his pain before the doctor arrives or is approached constitute First Aid. Accidents can occur anywhere and anytime, at home and outside.

The first job in the First Aid is to prevent the flow of blood from the injury because excess of blood loss may prove to be fatal. Blood can flow from injuries received in different parts of the body. If timely and proper First Aid is available to the injured, problems which may crop up later can be avoided. The injured can be saved from untimely and sudden painful death by providing proper First Aid in time. In the treatment and cure of the injured, First Aid plays an important role.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of first aid?
Answer:
The objectives of first aid are as follows:

To carry the victim to a nearby hospital or a doctor at the earliest.
To promote recovery.
To prevent any further injury.
To save the life of the victim.

Question 3.
Which things can be included in a first aid box?
Answer:
The following things can be included in the first aid box:

Bandages: Triangular, round and warm.
Splints of different sizes.
Thermometer, forceps, scissors, torch and safety pins.
ORS sachets.
Lecoper or adhesive tape.
An inhaler.
A measuring beaker or glass.
A cotton packet.
Antiseptics, germicides, spirit, betadine, boric acid, soap, burnol, tincher iodine and dettol.
Sterilized cotton balls.

Question 4.
Write the rules of first aid.
Answer:
The rules of first aid are as follows:
1. Immediate Aid:
First Aid should be given to the injured at the earliest possible. There should be no hesitation or fear in providing First Aid because no time should be wasted in thinking. Immediate decisions have to be taken to save the life of the injured.

2. Artificial Respiration:
If a person is unconscious, and is not breathing, he should be given artificial respiration. A person suffering from heart attack can also be saved by artificial respiration.

3. Sympathetic Attitude:
The injured person gets extremely frightened. So a sympathetic attitude and good will prove to be very important. These are beneficial in removing the fear in the mind of the injured.

4. Prevention of bleeding:
The flow of blood from the injury should be stopped at the earliest as the excessive loss of blood may endanger the life of the injured.

5. Keeping the injured away from the crowd:
When a person gets involved in an accident, many people come and surround him from all sides. It prevents the flow of fresh air to the injured and the person also gets frightened and upset. So steps should be taken to keep the injured away from the crowd, and to provide First Aid at the earliest.

6. Immediate Medical Aid:
The Medical aid should be arranged for the injured immediately. No untrained person should be allowed to use hit and trial methods of treatment.

Question 5.
Who is a first aider?
Answer:
A person who has got a certified course of first aid training from an authentic organization is called a first aider.

Question 6.
Write the qualities of a first aider.
Answer:
The qualities of a first aider are as under-

A First Aider should be a person who seeks comfort and joy in serving others and who looks upon his job as his religious duty.
He/She should have the maximum knowledge of medical sciences, particularly the person should be quite well versed in Anatomy and Physiology.
He/She should be capable of understanding the nature of injury, and should be properly trained in First Aid.
He/She should be a person of genial nature and self-confidence.
He/She should be capable of understanding the mental state of the injured.
He/She should have patience, devotion and dedication.
He/She should be capable of giving First Aid in a very natural, affectionate manner.
He/She should be capable of encouraging the injured.
He/She should be familiar with all those points which are relevant in providing First Aid.
All necessary medicines should always be ready for use in his First Aid box.
A high academic qualification is not sufficient for a First Aider. He should have developed in him qualities of high moral character.

Question 7.
What do you know about (CPR)?
Answer:
C.P.R. stands for Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation.
If the pulse of the patient is not felt and the victim is unconscious, CPR methods should be used to restart his heartbeat and working of the lungs. Place the palms of your hands on the patient’s heart and press hard for about thirteen times. Then give mouth to mouth respiration twice. Repeat the procedure till the pulse of the victim is felt. If CRP is performed properly on time life of the victims can be saved.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 First Aid 1

C.P.R. should be given when:

The victim is unconscious.
Victim’s eyes are still.
The pulse of the victim is not felt.
There is no heart beat (Cardiac arrest).

C.P.R. should not to be performed:

If the victim is finding difficulty in breathing.
If the victim is suffering from a heart attack.

Question 8.
What do you know about mouth to mouth respiration?
Answer:
Mouth to Mouth Artificial Respiration:
The first aider puts his mouth on the mouth of the victim and gives artificial respiration till the victim’s chest fills up with air and swells up. This action should be repeated 12 to 16 times or until the victim starts breathing.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 First Aid 2
Steps involved in Mouth to Mouth Artificial Respiration are as follows:

Remove any blockage from the victim’s mouth.
Hold the victim’s chin with one hand and with the other hand close his nose tightly.
Finally, blow the breath forcefully into the victim’s mouth.

Question 9.
How artificial respiration can be given by using Schafer’s method? Explain.
Answer:
When a person is feeling difficulty in breathing then artificial breathing must be given to save his life. One of the methods, namely Schafer’s method is given below:

Schafer’s Method:
1. Position of the Patient:
Lie down the patient on earth by his face and belly touching the earth. His arms must be above his head, palm facing downward. Turn his face towards one side and loosen his clothes. If patient is lying on prone position, change it or reverse it, lift his arms away from his body.

2. Position of the Operator:
First Aider should sit beside the waist of the patient putting his knee on the floor. Heels must be little away, while sitting his face must be towards the head of the patient. After sitting, first aider should keep his hands on the back of the patient in a way that one hand will be on the backbone and other will be to its opposite. Wrist and thumb must be together, fingers towards earth, while keeping both arms straight.
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 First Aid 3

3. Application of the Artificial Respiration:
First aider should put his body weight, while moving ahead, on the waist of the patient. By doing so the belly and other parts of the body of the patient would be pressed towards earth and from the centre diaphragm will also go down and the whole air of the lungs will be exhaled. These activities should be done within two seconds, after putting the weight on the patient for two seconds, the first aider will shift the weight on the toes slowly. The part of the belly would come back on original position and diaphragm will go down. Air wilkgo in the lungs. It should be performed within three seconds. Both activities must be executed within five seconds. It should be repeated twelve times within one minute. Artificial respiration must be continued till the patient starts
PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 1 First Aid 4

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide First Aid Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The objectives of First Aid:
(A) To take the patient to the near Hospital.
(B) To promote recovery.
(C) Prevent any further injury.
(D) To save the life of victim.
Answer:
(A) To take the patient to the near Hospital.
(B) To promote recovery.
(C) Prevent any further injury.
(D) To save the life of victim.

Question 2.
What the first aid box should contain?
(A) Thermometer, Scissors
(B) Torch
(C) Chimti
(D) None of them.
Answer:
(A) Thermometer, Scissors
(B) Torch
(C) Chimti

Question 3.
The rules of First Aid:
(A) Stop bleeding .
(B) Provide Artificial respiration
(C) Keeping the injured away from the crowd
(D) All above Mentioned.
Answer:
(D) All above Mentioned.

Question 4.
The Qualities of First Aider:
(A) He should have the maximum knowledge of medical science.
(B) He should be a person of genial nature and self confident.
(C) He should have patience, devotion and dedication.
(D) Above all.
Answer:
(D) Above all.

Question 5.
What is CPR?
(A) Cardio
(B) Pulmonary
(C) Resuscitation
(D) Above all.
Answer:
(D) Above all.

Question 6.
When CPR should be given:
(A) The victim is unconscious
(B) Victim’s eyes are still
(C) The pulse of the victim is not felt
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(D) Above all.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
If anybody falls ill then what will you do?
Answer:
After the check up for fever, it should be tried to slow down the temperature of the person suffering from fever, and then he should be brought to the doctor.

Question 2.
What should be the attitude of first aider?
Answer:
The attitude of a first aider should be polite and sympathetic.

Question 3.
What is the colour of the burnt spot?
Answer:
It is ugly red in colour.

Question 4.
Name the help which is rendered to a patient before the doctor visits.
Answer:
First Aid.

Question 5.
What is the aim of First Aid?
Answer:
To save the life of a patient before the doctor arrives at the site or the patient is taken to the hospital for treatment.

Question 6.
What types of duties a First Aider should perform till the doctor attends the patient?
Answer:
He should look after the patient continuously.

Question 7.
What will you do when a person becomes unconscious and feels difficult in respiration? (From Board M.QuestionP.)
Answer:
Artificial Respiration should be provided to the person.

Question 8.
Mention the first quality of a First Aider.
Answer:
He should be active and alert.

Question 9.
How many days a dog should be watched after his bite?
Answer:
10 days.

Question 10.
Name the two insects who bite.
Answer:
Honey bee and Mosquitoe.

Question 11.
How we should wash a burning part of our body?
Answer:
Soapy in touch or simple water should be used.

Question 12.
How we should wash when some acid caused burning?
Answer:
Dilute acid mixture should be used to wash the area under burns.

Question 13.
Name any three things which can be applied on bite.
Answer:
1. Spirit
2. Ammonium Carbonate
3. Washing Soda.

Question 14.
Write any one method of Artificial Respiration.
Answer:
Mouth to mouth artificial respiration.

Question 15.
The normal temperature of human body should be …………….. .
Answer:
98.4°F.

Question 16.
Which number should be dialled for Ambulance service?
Answer:
108.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by First Aid?
Answer:
First Aid is the treatment provided to an ill or injured person at the spot according to the rules before the arrival of a doctor.

Question 2.
Write any two objectives of First Aid.
Answer:
1. To save the life of injured person before the arrival of a doctor.
2. To promote recovery.

Question 3.
Write any two rules of First Aid.
Answer:
1. Try to control bleeding from the deep wounds.
2. Do not allow the people to gather around the injured. The victim may feel uneasy as he will not get fresh air.

Question 4.
Who is a first aider?
Answer:
A person who has got a certificate course of first aid training from an authentic organisation is called a first aider.

Question 5.
Write any four rules of a first aider.
Answer:

A first aider should start first aid immediately with full confidence.
First aider should be experienced.
First Aider should take quick decision and act wisely.
A first aider should be calm. He should not become impatient.

Question 6.
What does C.P.R. stands for?
Answer:
C.P.R. stands for Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Reproduction in Animals Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Explain the importance of reproduction in organisms.
Answer:
Importance of Reproduction.
It is the ability of living organism to produce the youngones of its own kind. Reproduction helps to increase the population of species. It is an important biological process for existence and continuity of a species. It also involves the transmission of genetic material from parents to offsprings.

Question 2.
Describe the process of fertilization in human beings.
Answer:
Fertilization.
The testes produce the male gametes called sperms. Millions of sperms are produced by the testes. Though sperms are very small in size, each has a head, a middle piece and a tail.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 1
The first step in the process of reproduction is the fusion of a sperm and an ovum or an egg. Millions of sperms from the male are transferred into female body. The sperms swim in the oviduct with the help of their tails to reach egg. When they come in contact with the egg,- one of the sperms may fuse with the egg. Such fusion of the egg and the sperm is called fertilization. During fertilization, the nuclei of the sperm and the egg fuse to form a single nucleus which result in the formation of a fertilized egg called zygote. Zygote is the beginning of a new individual.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 2
The process of fertilization is the meeting of an egg cell from the mother and a sperm cell from the father. So the new individual inherits some characteristics from the mother and some from the father.

Question 3.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) Internal fertilization occurs:
(i) in female body.
(ii) outside female body.
(iii) in male body.
(iv) outside male body.
Answer:
(i) In female body.

(b) A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of:
(i) fertilization
(ii) metamorphosis
(iii) embedding
(iv) budding.
Answer:
(ii) metamorphosis.

Question 4.
Indicate whether the following statements are True [T] or False [F]:
(a) Oviparous animals give birth to young ones.
Answer:
False

(b) Each sperm is a single cell.
Answer:
True

(d) A new human individual develops from a cell called gamete.
Answer:
False

(e) Egg laid after fertilization is made up of a single cell.
Answer:
True

(f) Amoeba reproduces by budding.
Answer:
False

(g) Fertilization is necessary event in asexual reproduction.
Answer:
False

(h) Binary fission is a method of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
True

(i) A zygote is formed as a result of fertilization.
Answer:
True

(j) An embryo is made up of a single cell.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Give two differences between a zygote and a foetus.
Answer:
Differences between a zygote and a foetus

Zygote	Foetus
1. The fusion of sperm and egg is called a zygote.	1. The stage of embryo in which cell body parts are identifiable is called foetus.
2. It is single celled structure.	2. It is a multicellular structure.

Question 6.
Define asexual reproduction. Describe two methods of asexual reproduction in animals.
Answer:
Asexual Reproduction.
The type reproduction in which only a single parent is involved is called asexual reproduction.

Methods of asexual reproduction in animals
1. Binary Fission.
Binary fission involves an equal or nearly equal longitudinal or transverse splitting of the body of the parents into two parts each of which grows to parental size and form. This method of reproduction occurs regularly among protozoa (Amoeba, Paramecium etc.) in which it is essentially the process of cell division which results in the complete separation of the daughter cells. It has also been observed among multicellular animals as an sea anemones in the form of longitudinal fission or as transverse fission among planarians.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 2

2. Budding.
Budding is a form of asexual reproduction in which new individual arises from a relatively small mass of cells that initially forms a bud on the parental body. The bud may assume parental form either before separation from the body of the parent as in external budding or after separation as in internal budding. External budding is common among sponges, coelenterates (e.g. Hydra), flatworms and tunicates. But in some coelenterate as in Obelia, it gives rise to medusae rather than to the parental.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 4

Question 7.
In which female reproductive organ does embryo get embedded ?
Answer:
Uterus (Uterine wall).

Question 8.
What is metamorphosis ? Give examples.
Answer:
Metamorphosis. The drastic changes that take place during the development of an animal is called metamorphosis.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 5
In the above figure, we see the different stages of development of frog. We find three distinct stages –
(i) Egg (ii) tadpole larva (iii) adult frog.
We see that tadpole larva is totally different from its adults.
Tadpole has gills for respiration because it lives outside the water. The sudden changes come in the body of tadpole like gills are replaced lungs. These sudden changes are called metamorphosis.
Example of animals in which metamorphosis take place are : Frog, silkworm.

Question 9.
Differentiate between internal fertilization and external fertilization.
Answer:
Differences between external fertilization and internal fertilization

External fertilization	Internal fertilization
1. The fusion of male gamete (sperm) and female gamete (ovum) occurs outside the body.	1. The fusion of gametes occurs inside the body.
2. Both individuals discharge their gametes outside the body.	2. Only the male discharge gametes into genital tract of female.
3. Development occurs outside the body.	3. Development may occur inside the body.
4. Example : Frog.	4. Example : Human, cattle, shark, birds.

Question 10.
Complete the crossword puzzle using the hints given below.
Across
1. The process of the fusion of the gametes.
6. The type of fertilization in hen.
7. The term used for bulges observed on the sides of the body of Hydra.
8. Eggs are produced here.

Down
2. Sperms are produced in these male reproductive organs.
3. Another term for the fertilized egg.
4. These animals lay eggs.
5. A type of fission in amoeba.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 6
Answer:

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Reproduction in Animals Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A hydra on fission produces two or more hydra. What is this type of asexual reproduction called ?
(a) Budding
(b) Binary Fission
(c) Vegetative reproduction
(d) Gamete.
Answer:
(a) Budding.

Question 2.
The following diagram is of which organism ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 8
(a) Amoeba
(6) Paramecium
(c) Hydra
(d) Frog
Answer:
(c) Hydra.

Question 3.
The following diagram shows the life cycle of which organism ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 9
Answer:
Life cycle of a frog.

Question 4.
The following Diagram shows which process of asexual reproduction of amoeba ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 10
(a) Budding
(b) Binary fission
(c) Asexual reproduction
(cl) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Binary fission

Question 5.
Female gamete is called:
(a) Sperm
(b) Egg
(c) Zygote
(d) Fertilization
Answer:
(b) Egg.

Question 6.
An amoeba on fission produces two amoeba. What type of asexual reproduction is this ?
(a) Budding
(b) Binary fission
(c) Gametes
(d) Vegetative reproduction.
Answer:
(b) Binary fission.

Question 7.
Internal fertilization is:
(a) Inside the body of female
(b) Outside the body of female
(c) Inside the body of male
(d) Outside the body of male.
Answer:
(a) Inside the body of female.

Question 8.
By which process one tadpol is developed into adult ?
(a) Fertilization
(b) Metamorphosis
(c) Stagnation
(d) Budding.
Answer:
(b) Metamorphosis.

Question 9.
The number of nucleus found in gamete is:
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) One.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
1. The process of ……………… ensures continuity of life on earth.
2. The male and female gametes in the flower are called ………………. and ………………… respectively.
3. In ……………….. reproduction, one individual can make many new individuals from its body parts.
4. ………………….. grow throughout life, but ………………… grow only upto a certain age.
5. A multicellular animal starts its life from a ……………………. through sexual reproduction.
Answer:
1. reproduction
2. pollen, egg
3. asexual (vegetative)
4. plants, animals
5. zygote.

Question 2.
Which part of the body:
(a) produces sperms ?
(b) produces ova ?
(c) passes sperms from a man to a woman ?
Answer:
(a) Testis
(b) Ovaries
(c) Penis.

Question 3.
How many methods of reproduction are there in the plants and animals ?
Answer:
Two:

asexual
sexual.

Question 4.
How many parents are needed in asexual reproduction ?
Answer:
Only one parent is needed in asexual reproduction.

Question 5.
How many parents are needed in sexual reproduction ?
Answer:
Two parents are needed in sexual reproduction.

Question 6.
What are the specialised cells present in the sex organs ?
Answer:
Gametes.

Question 7.
Name two animals which reproduce by binary fission.
Answer:

Amoeba
Paramecium.

Question 8.
In which organisms do the buds remain attached to the parent organisms ?
Answer:
Sponges, Corals.

Question 9.
What is zygote ?
Answer:
Zygote. Zygote is the first structure formed after union of sperm and egg.

Question 10.
What is fertilization ?
Answer:
The fusion of male gamete and female gamete is known as fertilization.

Question 11.
Which is the larger-sperm or ovum ?
Answer:
Ovum or egg.

Question 12.
Name two hermaphrodites.
Answer:

Earthworm
Leech.

Question 13.
Name two animals in which fertilization is external.
Answer:

Frog
Fish.

Question 14.
Define metamorphosis.
Answer:
Metamorphosis. The drastic changes which transform a larva into an adult is called metamorphosis.

Question 15.
What is gonad ? Name the male and female gonads of human body.
Answer:
Gonad.
The reproductive organ that produces special sex cells called gametes, is called gonad.
Male gonad. The male gonad testis produces male gametes, called sperms.
Female gonad. It is the ovary and produces female gametes called ova.

Question 16.
Name the male and female gametes of man.
Answer:
Male gamete – Sperm : Female gamete – Ovum.

Question 17.
Give one example each of animal showing external fertilization and another of internal fertilization.
Answer:
External fertilization – Frog;
Internal Fertilization – Human.

Question 18.
What is the function of sperm duct ?
Answer:
Sperm duct (vas deferens). It conducts sperms from testes to urethra.

Question 19.
What is hymen ?
Answer:
Hymen. In the case of virgins at the orifice of vagina present a thin membranous diaphragm called hymen. It is perforated to pass menstrual discharge.

Question 20.
In which type of asexual reproduction takes place in Hydra ?
Answer:
Budding.

Question 21.
Define cloning.
Answer:
Cloning. It is the production of an identical cell, any other part, or a complete organism.

Question 22.
Name the sheep which was cloned successfully by Ian Wilmont at the Roslin Institute in Edenburgh, Scotland.
Answer:
Dolly sheep.

Question 23.
Name the first mammal to be cloned.
Answer:
A sheep named Dolly which was born on 5th July, 1996.

Question 24.
What is reproduction ?
Answer:
Reproduction. To produce young ones of their own kind is called reproduction.

Question 25.
What is the function of tail of sperm in man ?
Answer:
For movement.

Question 26.
What is ovulation ?
Answer:
Production of eggs from the ovaries is called ovulation.

Question 27.
What is a test tube baby ?
Answer:
The babies produced by an artificial fertilization outside the body are called test tube babies.

Question 28.
Give full form of I.V.F.
Answer:
Invitro fertilization.

Question 29.
Where does test tube baby develops ?
Answer:
In uterus.

Question 30.
What are oviparons animals ?
Answer:
Egg laying animals are called oviparous animals.

Question 31.
What are viviparous animals ?
Answer:
Young ones producing animals are called viviparous animals.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the difference between sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction ?
Answer:
Differences between Asexual and Sexual reproduction:

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
1. New individuals are formed from a single parent.	1. Two parents are involved in the formation of new individual.
2. It does not require the production of sex organs.	2. Sex organs are pre-requisite for it.
3. It does not involve meiosis.	3. It involves meiosis at one or the other stage.
4. It does not involve fusion of cells.	4. It involves formation and fusion of gametes.
5. New individual develops from one cell.	5. New individual develops from fusion product of two gametes.
6. New individuals are genetically similar to the parents.	6. New individuals are generally different from either of the two parents.
7. It does not introduce variability.	7. It introduces variability.

Question 2.
What is sexual reproduction ? Discuss sexual reproduction in animals.
Answer:
Sexual reproduction.
Union of male and female individuals to accomplish fertilization is called sexual reproduction.

Sexual reproduction in animals.
In sexual reproduction, there are two parents. The parents have sex organs which produce sex cells. Females produce eggs while males produce sperms. Sperms are produced by sex organs called testes. Female sex cells are called eggs or ova (singular ovum). Ova are produced by sex organ called ovaries. A sperm enters an egg. This is called fertilization. A fertilized egg divides many times. The cells develops into an embryo which later develops into an adult.

Question 3.
What are the organs in human beings which produce the gametes ?
Answer:
The male organs in human beings are a pair of testis. The female organs in human beings are a pair of ovaries.

Question 4.
Name two organisms which produce by two types of asexual methods. What are the methods ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 11

Question 5.
What are gametes ? What is the difference between the unisexual and hermaphrodite ?
Answer:
Gametes.
Gametes are the reproductive cells which are produced by the sex organs of the body. There are two types of gametes-male and female. Due to the union of gametes, fertilization takes place.

Unisexual organism are those which have only one kind of sex organs either male or female.
Hermaphrodite are those organisms which have both kinds of sex organs.

Question 6.
What is hermaphrodite ? Give two examples.
Answer:
The organisms which can produce both the male and female gamete are called hermaphrodites or bisexual. Examples:

Earthworm
Hydra.

Question 7.
In how many ways can a tissue grow in size ?
Answer:
Growth means getting bigger in size. The tissue can grow in size by:

Increasing the size of the cells.
Increasing the number of cells.

Question 8.
What are the basic features in the process of asexual reproduction ?
Answer:
Basic features of asexual reproduction

Only one parent is involved.
All the cell divisions are mitotic.
All the offsprings are genetically similar to the parent.
The reproductive unit is a fragment or specialised part of the parent.

Question 9.
How is process of binary fission different from budding ?
Answer:
Differences between binary fission and budding

Binary	Budding
1. Only two young ones are formed.	1. Large number of buds may be formed, each growing into new individual.
2. Example : Amoeba, Euglena.	2. Examples : Sponges, Hydra.

Question 10.
Define ovulation.
Answer:
Ovulation.
Release of ovum (unfertilized egg) from the ovary is called ovulation. Egg is released on 14th day of 28-day menstrual cycle.

Question 11.
What is reproduction ? What are its basic types ?
Answer:
Reproduction.
All organisms born on this earth show characteristics life cycle, involving birth, growth, maturation, reproduction and death. Reproduction is one of the most important processes by which continuation of the species from one generation to another generation can take place. Older and aged organisms are replaced by new and younger organisms by reproduction. There are two basic types of reproduction. Reproduction is of two types:
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Sexual reproduction.

Question 12.
Name the various organs of male reproductive system in man.
Answer:
Male reproductive organs of man

A pair of testes
A pair of epididymis
A pair of vas deferentia
A pair of seminal vesicles
Urethra
Penis
Male reproductive glands
(Cowper’s gland and prostate gland).

Question 13.
Name the various organs of female reproductive system.
Answer:
Female reproductive system is composed of organs given ahead :

A pair of ovaries
A pair of fallopian tubes
Uterus
Vagina
Vulva

Question 14.
Differentiate the following:
(i) Sperm and Ovum
(ii) Vas deferens and Fallopian tube
(iii) Male urethra and Female urethra
(iv) Foetus and Embryo.
Answer:
(i) Differences between Sperm and Ovum

Sperm	Ovum
1. The sperm is active.	1. The ovum is inactive.
2. The sperm is capable of movement.	2. The ovum is stationary.
3. It has a locomotory organ (tail).	3. It has no locomotory organ.
4. It is smaller in size.	4. It is bigger in size due to presence of yolk.

(ii) Differences between Vas deferens and Fallopian tube

Vas deferens	Fallopian tube
1. Vas deferens is a part of male reproductive system.	1. Fallopian tube is a part of female reproductive system.
2. It serves to conduct the sperm from the testis to the urethra.	2. It serves to conduct the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.

(iii) Differences between Male Urethra and Female Urethra

Male urethra	Female urethra
In male the urethra serves to carry the urine as well as semen outside.	In female urethra serves to carry only the urine as the urethra and the vaginal apertures are separate.

(iv) Differences between Foetus and Embryo

Foetus	Embryo
1. The mammalian embryo which has recognisable appearance of main features of fully developed animal is called as foetus.	1. In early stage of development (from the fertilized egg), the developing animal is called as embryo.
2. In humans after two months of gestation the embryo is called foetus.	2. It is the early stage of development, before it emerges from the egg or from the uterus of the mother. In humans, the term is restricted to the stages between second to eighth week after conception.

Question 15.
Write a note on ‘test tube babies’.
Answer:
Test tube babies.
Actually this name is a wrong name because babies cannot grow in test tubes. In some women oviducts are blocked. These women unable to bear babies because sperms can not reach the egg for fertilization. In such cases, doctors collect freshly released egg and sperms and keep them together for a few houjs for in vitro fertilization (fertilization outside the body). After the zygote develops for about a week, it is placed in the mother’s uterus. Complete development takes place in the uterus and the baby is born like any other baby.

Question 16.
How does fertilization take place in frog ?
Answer:
In frog fertilization takes place outside the body of female. So this type of fertilization is called external fertilization.

During spring or rainy season, frogs and toads move to ponds. As the eggs are laid, the male frog deposits sperms over them. Each sperm swims randomly in water with the help of its long tail. The sperms come in contact with the eggs. This results in fertilization.

Question 17.
Why animals which undergo external fertilization such as frog and fish lay eggs in hundreds while a hen lays only one egg at a time ?
Answer:
Frog and fish release hundred of eggs and millions of sperms. But all the eggs are not fertilized because eggs and sperms get exposed to water movement, wind and rainfall. Some animals found in water may feed on eggs. Thus production of large number of eggs are necessary to ensure fertilization.

Question 18.
What are oviparous and viviparous animals ?
Answer:
Oviparous animals. The animals, which lay eggs are called oviparous animals. Frog, butterfly, hen, crow etc.

Viviparous animals. The animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals, e.g. man, dog, cow, cat etc.

Question 19.
What is Menstruation ?
Answer:
Menstruation.
The rhythmic changes in the uterus which occur about every 28 days throughout the reproductive cycle of women except the pregnancy is called menstrual cycle. The female sex hormones initiate the thickening of the uterine wall for the implantation of a fertilized ovum. If the ovum is not fertilized, the lining wall is broken down and discharged from the body. This is called menstruation. Normally the menstrual cycle starts at the age of 10-14 years and stops at the age of 45-50 when menopause is reached.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are gonads ? Briefly explain male reproductive system.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 12
Gonads.
The primary sex organs which produce gametes are called gonads. Male gonads are testes and female gonads, ovaries.

Male reproductive system. The male reproductive system of man consist of following organs:
1. A pair of testes.
The male gonads (primary sex organs) are a pair of testes. They are paired organs and are located outside the body cavity in a pouch called scrotum. It helps in keeping the testes at a cooler temperature than the body temperature essential for maintenance and function of spermatogenic tissue. It measures 4 cm, 3 cm and 2.5 cm in length, thickness and width. Each testis is formed of large number of seminiferous tubules, they produce sperms and glandular cells which produce sex hormone, testosterone.

2. A pair of epididymis.
At the end of each seminiferous tubule is a very small tubule called the vas efferens. The vasa efferentia lead into epididymis. In the epididymis sperms are stored.

3. A pair of vasa deferentia (Sing. Vas deferens).
Corpus epididymis continues as vas deferens. It is a muscular tube. It is about 30 cm long. It leaves the scrotum by inguinal canal passes over the urinary bladder and receives a duct from seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory Fig. Male reproductive organs duct.

4. Male Urethra.
It is about 7-9 inches long. It leaves the urinary bladder and is joined by ejaculatory duct. It passes through penis and opens at the tip. The tip of penis is called glans penis and is covered over by fold of skin which is known as prepuce.

5. Reproductive glands (Accessory or secondary glands). They are prostate gland and Cowper’s gland.

Prostate gland. It surrounds the urethra and opens into by means of numerous fine ducts. It secretes milky alkaline secretion and form 15-30% of semen.
Cowper’s gland. A pair of glands called Cowper’s gland are attached to urethra. They secrete a clear viscid muscus which is lubricatory in function.
The seminal vesicles. They are paired tubular structures located behind the neck of bladder. Its secretion forms essential component of seminal fluid.

Question 2.
Briefly explain various parts of female reproductive system.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 13
Reproductive system of woman. It consists of following organs:
1. A pair of ovaries.
There are present a pair of ovaries (primary female sex organ) measuring 3 cm, 2 cm and 1 cm in length, breadth and thickness. Each ovary is a small almond-like flattened body. Each ovary lies in the abdominal cavity on either side of the middle line. Ovaries produce female sex cells, ova and their glandular cells produce hormones. Each ovary is attached to dorsal abdominal wall by a fold of peritoneal membrane called mesovarium.

2. A pair of fallopian (uterine) tubes.
Each fallopian tube is about 5 inches long. It extends from the vicinity of the ovary to the uterus. The fallopian tube is retained in its position by a mesentery called mesometrium.

3. Uterus.
The uterus is hollow, muscular, thick walled organ. Its mucous membrane contains small gland cells and many capillaries. It receives ova and pass them on to vagina. The lower part of uterus is called cervix.

4. Vagina.
It is muscular tube measures 8 cm in length and lined with stratified epithelium. It receives the semen from the male during mating and during child birth, it conveys the child to the outside.

5. Vulva.
The opening of vagina to the outside alongwith labia majora and labia minora constitute the external female sex organs collectively called as vulva. Clitoris, homologous to penis is present at the junction of labia majora and labia minora.

Question 3.
Write a note on cloning.
Answer:
Cloning. It is the production of an identical cell or a complete organism. Dolly, a sheep, was successfully cloned. It was the first mammal to be cloned in 1996.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 14
A cell was collected from the mammary gland of a female Finn Dorsett sheep. [Fig. (a)]. Simultaneously, an egg was obtained from a Scottish blackface ewe [Fig. (b)]. The nucleus was removed from the egg. Then, the nucleus of the cell from the Finn Dorsett sheep was inserted into the egg of the Scottish blackface ewe. The egg thus produced was implanted into the Scottish blackface ewe. Development of the egg took place normally and finally Dolly was born. Though Dolly was given birth by Scottish blackface ewe, it was found to be identical to the Finn Dorsett sheep from which the nucleus was taken. Because the nucleus of Scottish blackface ewe was removed, Dolly did not show any character of the Scottish blackface ewe. Unfortunately, Dolly died on 14th February 2003 due to certain lung diseases.
The cloned animals are also found to be born with severe abnormalities.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 Women and Reforms

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 17 Women and Reforms Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 17 Women and Reforms

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Women and Reforms Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Due to whose efforts the Sati system was declared illegal?
Answer:
Sati system was declared illegal by Lord William Bentick in 1829 A.D. due to the efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Question 2.
In which year the permission of widow remarriage was granted?
Answer:
Legal permission of widow-remarriage was granted in 1856 A.D.

Question 3.
When and who established Aligarh Muslim University?
Answer:
Aligarh Muslim University was founded in 1920 A.D. Actually it was Mohammadan Anglo Oriental College founded by Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan which later on converted into university.

Question 4.
When and where who founded the Namdhari Movement?
Answer:
Namdhari Movement was started on 13th April, 1857 A.D. at Bhaini Saheb (Ludhiana) by Shri Satguru Ram Singh.

Question 5.
Where Singh Sabha established educational institutions for the women education?
Answer:
Singh Sabha established educational Institutions for women education at Firozpur, Karron and Bhamor.

Question 6.
Write down in brief the contribution of Raja Ram Mohan Roy for the emancipation of women.
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a great social reformer of 19th century. He was of the view that society cannot do progress unless women are not given equal rights as compared to males.

He propagated to eradicate Sati system from society. He convinced the government of William Bentick that there was no place of Sati system in ancient religious books or shastras. Due to his reasons and efforts, the government passed an Act in 1829 and declared it illegal.
He wrote many essays for the welfare of women.
He criticised child marriage and polygamy and also opposed the girl infanticide.
He raised his voice against purdah system and told that it is one of the largest obstacle in the way of women progress.
He propagated for women education. He was also in favour of widow remarriage.
He also stressed on giving share to women from ancestral property.

Question 7.
Write down in brief the contribution made by Ishwar Chander Vidyasagar to reform the condition of women.
Answer:
Ishwar Chander Vidyasagar was a great social reformer. He did a lot of hardwork for the interests of women and founded around 25 schools in Bengal for girls education by his own expenses. He struggled a lot in favour of widow remarriage. He was instrumental in 25 widow remarriages from 1855 till 1860 A.D.‘Hindu Widow Remarriage Act 1856’ was passed only because of his efforts. He also criticised child marriage.

Question 8.
Write down in brief the efforts made by Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan for the improvement of the condition of women.
Answer:
Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan wanted to bring reforms in Islamic society. He was of the view that society can prosper if women would be considered as equal to males. He strongly opposed the marriage of boys and girls in the early age. He raised his voice against divorce system. He also criticised purdah-system. He was of the view that purdah is dangerous for the health of women and is an obstacle in the way of progress of women. He considered that the custom of slavery, prevailing in society, is not good. He published a newspaper called ‘Tehzib-ul-Akhlak’ to remove prevailing evils from the society. He did a lot to remove illiteracy from the society. He was in favour of religious education as well as in favour of giving Western education.

Question 9.
Explain the contribution by Swami Dayanand to improve the condition of women.
Answer:
Swami Dayanand Saraswati stressed on the fact that women should be respected in society. He strongly opposed the custom of marriage of boys and girls in early age means child marriage. He was in favour of widow remarriage. He started many widow homes to improve the condition of widows. He founded an institution .called Arya Samaj which criticised Sati system and dowry system. He started many schools to give training of sewing-weaving to poor girls. He motivated the females to get education and opened many girls schools in different parts of the country.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The women in Hindu society had not right to property.
Answer:
inherit

Question 2.
After the Sati of his brother’s wife a new turn came in the life of ________
Answer:
Ishwar Chander Vidyasagar

Question 3.
Due to the efforts of Keshav Chander Sen in 1872 A.D. banned ________
Answer:
Second marriage

Question 4.
________ condemned divorce system.
Answer:
Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan

Question 5.
________ joined Theosophical Society in 1886 A.D. in England.
Answer:
Annie Besant.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A	B
(i) Swami Vivekanand	1. Namdhari Movement
(ii) Sri Satguru Ram Singh Ji	2. Rama Krishan Mission
(iii) Singh Sabha	3. Aligarh Muslim University
(iv) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan	4. Manji Sahib (Amritsar)

Answer:

A	B
(i) Swami Vivekanand	2. Rama Krishan Mission
(ii) Sri Satguru Ram Singh Ji	1. Namdhari Movement
(iii) Singh Sabha	4. Manji Sahib (Amritsar)
(iv) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan	3. Aligarh Muslim University

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Women and Reforms Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Where was Sri Narayana Guru born?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka.
Answer:
(a) Kerala.

Question 2.
Which Governor-General of the British India helped in declaring Custom of Sati as illegal?
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Wellesely
(c) William Bentinck
(d) Robert Clive.
Answer:
(c) William Bentinck.

Question 3.
Who formed an association in Madras Presidency for Widow Remarriage?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Veeresalingam Pantulu
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Swami Vivekananda.
Answer:
(b) Veeresalingam Pantulu.

Question 4.
Who was the main person behind the passing of legislation of Widow Remarriage Act in 1856?
(a) Veeresalingam Pantulu
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Swami Vivekananda.
Answer:
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Question 5.
Who published a book ‘Stripurushtulna’?
(a) Ramabai
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Tarabai Shinde.
Answer:
(d) Tarabai Shinde.

Question 6.
Which of these leaders lent his support to demands for greater equality and freedom for women?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Both a + c
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Both a + c.

Question 7.
When was Paramhans Mandali was founded?
(o) 1840
(b) 1845
(c) 1842
(d) 1847.
Answer:
(a) 1840.

Question 8.
Which of these social evils prevailed in Indian society during 19th century?
(a) Sati Pratha
(b) Untouchability
(c) No widow remarriage
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 9.
When was Sharda Act passed?
(a) 1929 A.D.
(b) 1930 A.D.
(c) 1931 A.D.
(d) 1932 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1929 A.D.

Question 10.
When did the British government allow inter-caste marriages?
(a) 1871 A.D.
(b) 1872 A.D.
(c) 1873 A.D.
(d) 1874 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1872 A.D.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
In Hindu society, females were not given share in ________ property.
Answer:
ancestrol

Question 2.
A great change came in the life of ________ when he saw his brother’s wife becoming Sati.
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 3.
In 1872 A.D ________ we banned by Keshav Chandra Sen.
Answer:
Second marriage

Question 4.
________ opposed the divorce system.
Answer:
Sir Sayyed Ahmed

Question 5.
________ joined Theosophical Scoeity in 1886 A.D. at England.
Answer:
Annie Besant.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Wood’s dispatch of 1854 A.D. gave stress on Women education.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Keshav Chandra Sen was a famous leader of Arya Samaj.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Prarthna Samaj opposed widow remarriage.
Answer:
(✗).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Swami Vivekanand	(i) Na mdhari Movement
2. Satguru Ram Singh Ji	(ii) Rama Krishna Mission
3. Singh Sabha Movement	(iii) Aligarh Muslim University
4. Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan	(iv) Manji Sahib

Answer:

A	B
1. Swami Vivekanand	(ii) Rama Krishna Mission
2. Satguru Ram Singh Ji	(i) Na mdhari Movement
3. Singh Sabha Movement	(iv) Manji Sahib
4. Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan	((iii) Aligarh Muslim University

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the four evils prevailed in Indian society in 19th century with which the condition of women became very pity.
Answer:
Sati system, Female infanticide, Purdah system and Polygamy.

Question 2.
Why people killed their daughters in 19th century? Write any two reasons.
Answer:

Lot of money was required to marry the girl child.
It was very difficult to find a suitable match for a girl.

Question 3.
Why people were not educating their girls in 19th century?
Answer:
People thought that giving education to girls is just like giving more freedom to them. Except this they thought that giving education to girls is dangerous for society.

Question 4.
Name two leaders associated with Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Keshav Chandra Sen.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Arya Samaj?
Answer:
Swami Dayanand Sarasvati.

Question 6.
Who where and why Scientific society was founded?
Answer:
Scientific society was founded by Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan in Aligarh. It started to translate one book of science into Urdu language.

Question 7.
Who was the founder of Nirankari Movement? With which method he taught to do marriage?
Answer:
The founder of Nirankari Movement was Baba Dayal Ji. He taught to do marriage according to the custom of ‘Gurumat’.

Question 8.
Who started custom of ‘Anand Marriage’? What was its feature?
Answer:
Custom of Anand Marriage was started by Sri Satguru Ram Singh Ji. The main feature of this system was that only one rupee and twenty-five paisa is required to do marriage.

Question 9.
When and where the foundation of Singh Sabha Movement was laid?
Answer:
Foundation of Singh Sabha Movement was laid at ‘Manji Sahib’ (Amritsar) in 1873 A.D.

Question 10.
When a branch of Singh Sabha was founded at Lahore? Who was made its President?
Answer:
Branch of Singh Sabha at Lahore was founded in 1879 A.D. Prof. Gurmukh Singh was made its President.

Question 11.
When, where and who founded Ahmedia Movement?
Answer:
Ahmedia movement was founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmed at the Distt. of Gurdaspur in 1897 A.D.

Question 12.
When and who founded Sangat Sabha?
Answer:
Sangat Sabha was founded by Keshav Chandra Sen in 1860 A.D.

Question 13.
When Mrs. Annie Besant came to India? With which organization was she associated?
Answer:
Mrs. Annie Besant came to India in 1893 A.D. She was associated with the Theosophical Society.

Question 14.
When was Prarthna Samaj founded? Name two of its main leaders.
Answer:
Prarthna Samaj was founded in 1867 A.D. Two of its main leaders were Mahadev Govind Ranade and Ram Krishan Gopal Bhandarkar.

Question 15.
Who founded Arya Samaj and what did it condemn?
Answer:
Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Sarasvati and Arya Samaj condemned the Sati system and dowry system.

Question 16.
When Mohammadan Anglo Oriental College was converted into University?
Answer:
Mohammadan Anglo oriental college was converted into Aligarh Muslim University in 1920 A.D.

Question 17.
Who founded Rama Krishna Mission and why?
Answer:
Rama Krishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda and he started it in the memory of his teacher Swami Rama Krishna Paramhansa.

Question 18.
According to Sati system, the wife was burnt alive after her husband’s death. Do you know when this evil practice was abolished?
Answer:
In 1829 A.D.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Nirankari Movement and Baba Dayal Ji.
Answer:
Baba Dayal Ji was the founder of Nirankari Movement. Birth of girl, in that society, was not considered as good for the family. That’s why people killed their daughters exactly after their birth. Many social evils related to females were there in society such as child marriage, Dowry system, Sati system, etc. Widows were badly treated by the people and they were not allowed to remarry. Baba Dayal Ji tried a lot to eradicate all these evils from the society. He strongly opposed girl infanticide and Sati system. He also taught his followers to marry their children according to ‘Gurumat’.

Question 2.
When and who founded Namdhari Movement? Describe the social reforms done by it.
Answer:
Namdhari Movement was started by Sri Satguru Ram Singh Ji at Bhaini Sahib (Ludhiana) on 13th April, 1857 A.D.
He strongly opposed the prevailing evils of society :

He severely condemned child marriage, girl infanticide, Dowry system and other social evils.
He stressed on giving equal rights to females as compared to males so that their social status could be uplifted.
He condemned the useless expenditure on marriage.
He started a system of marriage which was known as ‘Anand Marriage’. Only one rupee and twenty-five paisa was required to do marriage in such system. He did not believe in caste system as well.

Question 3.
Who was Keshav Chandra Sen? Describe his contribution in the field of social welfare.
Answer:
Keshav Chandra Sen was a famous leader of Brahmo Samaj. He became the member of Brahmo Samaj in 1857 A.D. He founded Sangat Sabha in 1860 which discussed subjects such as religion. Keshav Chandra Sen propagated in favour of women education and widow-remarriage. He strongly criticised customs like child marriage, polygamy etc. Just because of his effort, the British government passed an Act in 1872 A.D. to restrict second marriage.

Question 4.
What is the contribution of Mrs. Annie Besant and Theosophical society in the field of social reforms?
Answer:
Mrs. Annie Besant became the member of the Theosophical society in England in 1866 A.D. She came to India in 1893 A.D. She went from one place to another in India and gave speeches. She propagated ideas of her society by writing books and essays. The theosophical society also brought many social reforms. It also opposed child marriage and caste system. It also does many efforts for the welfare of widows and backward classes. Society opened many boys and girls schools for the development of education. It started central Hindu collage at Benaras in 1898 A.D., where education of Hindu religion and other religions was given.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the work done by Singh Sabha Movement, Ahmedia Movement and Swami Vivekananda (Rama Krishna Mission) for social welfare and upliftment of women.
Answer:
1. Singh Sabha Movement. The foundation of Singh Sabha Movement was laid at Manji Sahib (Amritsar) in 1873 A.D. Its objective was to remove prevailing evils from Sikhism and society. Sardar Thakur Singh Sandhawalia was appointed its President and Giani Gian Singh was made its secretary. All the Sikhs residing in different parts of the country were allowed to become the member of Singh Sabha. Another branch of Singh Sabha was opened at Lahore in 1879 A.D. and Prof. Gurmukh Singh was made its President. Gradually many branches of Singh Sabha were founded in Punjab. Propagators of Singh Sabha strongly condemned the prevailing caste system, untouchability and other social evils in society.

This movement propagated to give equal rights to females as compared to males. It criticised the evils related to women like Purdah system, Child marriage, Polygamy and restriction on widow remarriage. Singh Sabha opened widow-homes for the welfare of widows. It also gave special emphasis on women education. Sikh girls school at Firozpur, Khalsa Bhujang school Karron and Vidya Bhandar Bhamor are famous girls schools which were started by Singh Sabha.

2. Ahmedia Movement. The Foundation of the Ahmedia Movement was laid by Mirza Ghulam Ahmed in 1853 A.D. at Qadian Distt. Gurdaspur. It told the people to live according to the teachings of ‘Quran Sharif. It propagated for mutual brotherhood and religious tolerance. They propagated to sacrifice evil customsr superstitions and evils from the society. They also propagated for religious education as well as for western education. They founded many schools and colleges.

3. Swami Vivekananda and Rama Krishna Mission. Ram,a Krishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 A.D. in the memory of his Guru ‘Swami Ram Krishna Paramhans’. He criticised the prevailing superstitions’ and useless customs of Indian society. He did not believe in caste system and untouchability. He tried to improve the condition of women. He was in favour of giving equal rights to both males and females. He opposed child infanticide, child marriage, dowry system etc. He propagated for women education and established many schools and libraries.

Question 2.
Describe the impacts of Reform Movements of 19th century.
Answer:
As a result of efforts of the Indian reformers, the British government took several steps to eradicate social evils from the society. It gave special care to improve the condition of women.

The British government passed Acts in 1795 A.D. and in 1804 A.D. and imposed ban on female infanticide.
Lord William Bentick passed an Act in 1829 A.D. and imposed ban on Sati system.
Government passed an Act in 1843 A.D. and eliminated Slavery-system from Indian society.
Widow-remarriage was given legal sanction in 1856 A.D. just because of efforts of great social reformer of Bengal, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
The government passed an Act in 1860 A.D. and fixed the minimum age of marriage of girls at 10 years. According to Sharda Act of 1929 A.D. minimum age of marriage was fixed at 16 years for boys 14 years for girls.
In 1872 A.D., the Government passed an Act and gave sanction to Inter caste marriage.
Wood’s Despatch in 1854 A.D. gave stress on women education.

Question 3.
Write down the condition of women in the 19th century.
Or
Explain the condition of women in the 19th century. (P.S.E.B. 2020)
Answer:
The condition of women in Indian society of 19th century was very pitiable. They lived a hell like life because of many social evils like Sati system, female infanticide, slavery system, purdah-system, restriction on widow remarriage, polygamy, etc. To remove these evils from the Indian society, many socio-religious movements were started in 19th century.

Main Social Evils Related to Women
1. Girl Child Infanticide. Birth of a girl, in society, was not considered as good for the family. It had many reasons. First of all, parents had to spent a lot of money on marriage of their daughter which was out of reach of a common man. Secondly, it was very difficult for parents to find a suitable partner for their daughter. Thirdly, if any parents were unable to marry their daughter, it was also not considered good for the family. That’s why many people killed their daughters exactly after their birth.

2. Child Marriage. Parents used to get their daughters married at an early age. That’s why generally girls remained illiterate. If husband of any girl died in his early age then she was forced to go for Sati or she had to live whole of her life as widow.

3. Sati System. According to the custom of Sati system, if husband of any female dies then she has to set on the funeral pyre of husband. In this way she was forced to go for Sati system.

4. Restriction on Widow marriage. Widow marriage was severely restricted by society. Widow was disrespected in society. She was forced to have hair cut and she was forced to wear white clothes for whole of her life.

5. Purdah System. According to Purdah system, females had to live in Purdah for whole of their life. It had a very bad impact on their health and progress.

6. Dowry System. According to Dowry system, girls are given dowry at the time of their marriage. Poor people were forced to take loan from money-lenders to give dowry. That’s why many girls were forced to commit suicide.

7. Illiteracy of Women. Most of the people did not care about giving education to their girls. Giving them education was considered useless so that they could not become self-dependent. Giving education to girls was also considered dangerous for society.

8. Not giving property rights to women in Hindu Society; Women, in Hindu Society, were not given any right over ancestral property.

Question 4.
Write down different views of social reformers and their efforts for the improvement of the condition of women.
Answer:
Views and efforts of different social reformers about education and improving condition of women are given below :

1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a great social reformer of 19th century. He was of the view that society cannot do progress unless women are not given equal rights as compared to males.

He propagated to eradicate the Sati system from society. He convinced the government of William Bentick that there is no place of Sati Pratha in ancient religious books or shastras. Due to his reasons and efforts, the government passed an Act in 1829 A.D. and declared it illegal.
He wrote many essays for the welfare of women.
He criticised child marriage and polygamy and also opposed female infanticide.
He raised his voice against Purdah system and told that it is one of the largest obstacle in the way of women progress.
He also stressed on giving shares to women from ancestral property.

2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a*great social
reformer. He did a lot of hard work for the interests of women and founded around 25 schools in Bengal for girl’s education on his own expenses. He struggled a lot in favour of widow remarriage. He was instrumental in 25 widow remarriages from 1855 till 1860 A.D. ‘Hindu Widow Remarriage Act’ 1856 was passed only because of his efforts. He also criticised child marriage.

3. Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan. Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan wanted to bring reforms in Islamic society. He was of the view that society can prosper if women would be considered equal to males. He strongly opposed the marriage of boys and girls in an early age. He raised his voice against the divorce system. He also criticised Purdah System. He was of the view that Purdah is dangerous for the health of women and is an obstacle in the way of progress of women. He considered that the custom df slavery, prevailing in society, is not good. He published a newspaper called ‘Tehzib-ul-Akhlak’ to remove the prevailing evils from society. He did a lot to remove illiteracy from. society. He was in favour of religious education as well as in favour of giving western education.

4. Swami Dayanand Sarasvati. Swami Dayanand Sarasvati stressed on the fact that women should be respected in society. He strongly opposed the custom of marriage of boys and girls in early age means child marriage. He was in favour of widow remarriage. He started many widow homes to improve condition of widows. He founded an institution called Arya Samaj which criticised Sati system and dowry system. He started many schools to give training of sewing-weaving to poor girls. He motivated females to take education and opened many girls schools in different parts of the country.

5. Mrs. Annie Besant. Mrs. Annie Besant was the member of the Theosophical society. This society strongly opposed child marriage for the welfare of women and raised its voice in favour of widow-remarriage. This society opened many schools of boys and girls for the development of education. It founded Hindu college at Benaras in 1898 A.D. This college gave education of Hindu religion as well as of other religions.

Question 5.
Explain why so many reformers paid special attention towards the condition of women?
Answer:
Many social reforms gave special emphasis on problems of women due to the below reasons :

Different social reformers were of the view that it is necessary to stop atrocities committed on women.
Social reformers were of the view that the education of women is necessary to eradicate present evils from society.
They felt that if we need to get freedom of country from political slavery of foreign countries, first of all our home and society should be reformed.
They also felt that it is necessary to improve the condition of women to eradicate prevailing social evils from the society.
Social reformers were of the view that democratic system of the country is useless without equality in society. So they tried to give equal rights to women as compared to males.

Question 6.
Explain the contribution made by the social reformers of Maharashtra for the emancipation of women.
Answer:
Social reformers founded many institutions in Maharashtra. These institutions started special movements to improve the condition of women and their description is given below:
1. Paramhans Sabha. Social reformers of Maharashtra started movements in the 19th century for bringing consciousness to society. Paramhans Mandali was founded in 1849 A.D. It started the religious-social reform movement in Bombay. Its main objective was to oppose idol worship and the caste system. This Sabha started many schools of women’s education.

It also started institutions to give education in the evening. Jyotiba Phooley opened a school at Phone for the girls of scheduled castes so that the condition of women could be improved. He also tried to improve the condition of widows. That’s why the government passed an Act called the ‘Widow Remarriage Act’ in 1856 A.D. He opened an orphanage for the children of widows. There was another social reformer of Maharashtra ‘Gopal Hari Deshmukh’ who was famous by the name of ‘Lok-Hitkari’. He criticized social evils and stressed social welfare.

2. Prarthna Samaj. Prarthna Samaj was founded in Maharashtra in 1867 A.D. Mahadev Govind Ranade and Ram Krishna Gopal Bhandarkar were famous leaders of this society. They strongly opposed the caste system and child marriage. They were in favour of widow remarriage. They found ‘Vidhva-Vivaha Sangh’. They also opened educational institutions and orphanages at many places. Just because of their efforts, Deccan Educational Society was founded in 1884 A.D., which started Deccan college at Pune.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Education and British Rule

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 16 The Education and British Rule Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 16 The Education and British Rule

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB The Education and British Rule Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What do you mean by the new educational system?
Answer:
Education of Western literature in the English language was given in new education system. That’s why new schools, colleges and universities were opened. Later on, technical education was also emphasized.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Wood’s Despatch?
Answer:
Important recommendations were given by Chairman of Board of Control Charles Wood in 1854 A.D. for the development of education. These recommendations are known as Wood’s Despatch.

Question 3.
When the title of ‘Sir’ was conferred to Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan? When did he die?
Answer:
Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan was conferred the title of ‘Sir’ in 1898 A.D. He died in the same year i.e. in 1898 A.D.

Question 4.
In which languages the Raja Ram Mohan Roy was expert?
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was an expert in Bengali, Persian, Sanskrit, Urdu, English and Greek languages.

Question 5.
Which book was written by Ishwar Chander Vidyasagar?
Answer:
Ishwar Chander Vidyasagar wrote a book called ‘Premier Varna Parichaya’ in Bengali language.

Question 6.
Write down the objectives of the new educational system.
Answer:
New educational system was started due to following objectives :

Educated Indians were required by the British to run their administration.
Those educated people were required who could know English and who could be able to tell them about the problems of the people.
The British were of the view that educated Indians could be easily converted into Christians.

Question 7.
What were the recommendations of Hunter Commission about education?
Answer:
The Hunter Commission was appointed in 1882 A.D. Its education related recommendations are given below :

Private schools should be given enough grants.
Reforms should be brought in secondary schools.
Special arrangements of women education should be made.
Students should be given physical and moral education.
There should not be much government interference in schools and colleges.

Question 8.
Write down the effects of Western Educational System.
Answer:
Following were the impacts of Western Educational System :

Most of the people remained illiterate due to expensive educational system.
The British government did not give any emphasis on higher education. As a result there was no development in Indian languages with which link of Indians with higher education was broken.
Western-educated Indians got the opportunity to read foreign history.
Spread of Western Education helped in eradication of superstitions from India.
Western education aroused national consciousness among Indians. In the end they were able to remove the foreign rule from the country.

Question 9.
Explain the growth of Modern Education System.
Answer:
The British laid the foundation of Modern Education System in India. The English East India Company opened a school, Saint Mary Charity School, at Madras in 1715 A.D. Lord Warren Hastings established Calcutta Madrasa in 1718 A.D. Muslim students of rich families took education over here. One Sanskrit College was started at Benaras due to the efforts of Jonathan Tunckon later on. It was a centre of Hindu education. After this, the story of development of education starts in 1813 A.D.

I. Development of Education from 1813 A.D. till 1854 A.D. The British government planned to spend one lakh rupees every year on the development of education through Charter Act of 1813 A.D. But it didn’t spend this amount due to lack to any clear policy. A committee was made in 1823 A.D. to give recommendations on education policy. But there were some differences among the members of this committee. Some of its members were in favour of giving Western education through the medium of English language. On contrary to it, some members wanted to make local languages, like Sanskrit, Arabian, Persian etc., as medium of education. Lord MacaulejHbecame the President of Education Committee in 1835 A.D. He gave his decision in favour of Western education. Raja Ram Mohan Roy also gave stress on adopting Western education.

Wood’s Despatch. A committee was constituted in 1854 A.D. under the chairmanship of Charles Wood for the spread of Modern Education in India. The recommendations of Charles Wood were known as Wood’s Despatch.

It gave the following recommendations for bringing educational reforms :

An educational department should be established in every province of the country.
Universities should be established in major cities such as Calcutta, Bombay, Madras, etc.
One government school should be opened in every district.
The arrangement should be made for training of teachers so that the level of education could be raised.
Schools should be opened for women.

On the basis of recommendations of Charles Wood, universities were set up at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857 A.D. Medical Colleges were also opened in these cities in the same year. Government College of Lahore was established in 1864 A.D.

II. Development of Education after 1854 A.D.
Hunter Commission. Hunter Commission was appointed in 1882 A.D. Its education-related recommendations are given below :

Private schools should be given enough grants.
Secondary schools should be improved.
Special arrangements of women education should be made.
Students should be given physical as well as moral education.
Not much government interference should be there in schools and colleges.

Government accepted the recommendations of Hunter Commission which became the base of Modern Educational System.

Indian University Act 1904 A.D. Lord Curzon passed an Act called ‘Indian University Act’ in 1904 A.D. Government interference in universities was increased due to this Act. That’s why this act was greatly opposed by the Nationalists.
Sadller Committee. Government appointed Sadller Committee in 1917 A.D.

This committee gave following recommendations for the development of education :

Medium of education at school level, should be Indian languages and later on it should be English language.
The examination system should be improved.
Government control over universities should be reduced.
Special emphasis should be given on Technical Education.
The vice-Chancellor should be appointed in every university.

Hurtog Committee 1928. Hurtog Committee was appointed in 1928 A.D. for spread and bringing reforms in educational sector.

This committee gave following recommendations :

Primary education should be made compulsory.
Salary of teachers should be increased.
Extra expenditure on education should not be done.

Basic Education 1937 A.D. Mahatma Gandhi gave suggestions in 1937 A.D. for starting Basic Education. He was of the view that free and compulsory education should be given to the children up to the age of 14 years. They should also be given technical education.

Seargent Scheme. Seargent gave certain recommendations in 1943 A.D. for the development of education.

The following were the given recommendations :

Education should be given in Nursery Schools before Primary education.
Free education should be given to students of the age of 6-15 years.
Adult education should be given.
Limited students should be admitted in colleges.

Question 10.
Write down in brief about the Maharaja Sayaji Rao University in Baroda.
Answer:
Baroda is an important city of Gujarat State. This city is famous for Maharaja Sayaji Rao University. This university was founded by Maharaja Sayaji Rao III in 1948 A.D.

Works done by Maharaja. Maharaja Sayaji Rao himself was a great scholar. He gave a great contribution in the field of education. He also did few important works in social and economic sectors.

He severely criticized the prevailing social evils such as casteism and untouchability.
He opened many schools, libraries and hospitals with the help of his state.
He opened a college at Baroda in 1881 A.D. which later on became a university. Many foreigner students also used to visit this university to take education.

Around 20 Public Schools and more than 100 Private Schools are associated with Maharaja Sayaji Rao University of Baroda. Education in this university is given only in the English medium. Around 3000 Indian and foreigner students take education in this university.

Question 11.
Explain the contribution of the following different intellectuals in the field of education.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was in favour of providing Western Education to Indians. He published newspapers and wrote books on many subjects like-Geography, Astronomy, Grammar, Algebra etc. in Bengali language. He opened one English school and one Vedant College at Calcutta on his own expenses.

(b) Swami Dayanand Sarasvati
Answer:
Swami Dayanand Sarasvati. Swami Dayanand Sarasvati was a supporter of not only of Sanskrit and Vedic education but also of Western education. He founded many schools, colleges and Gurukuls in different parts of the country especially Punjab and Uttar Pradesh. In 1886 A.D., one Dayanand Anglo Vedic School was opened at Lahore after his death. The students were given the education of Hindu literature, Sanskrit language and Vedas. Later on D.A.V. schools, colleges were also opened at Hoshiarpur, Jalandhar and Kanpur. One Girls University was also opened at Meerut in the memory of Swami Dayanand.

(c) Swami Vivekanand
Answer:
Swami Vivekanand. The Rama Krishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda. This organization opened many schools, colleges, libraries and hospitals for social welfare. _ j Swami Ji also propagated Indian Culture in America and Europe.

(d) Ishwar Chander Vidyasagar.
Answer:
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a famous scholar. He wrote a book in Bengali language called ‘Premier Varna Parichaya’. This book made easy the art of learning language. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a principal of Sanskrit College. He introduced a new method of learning Sanskrit. He also gave a great contribution in the field of education of girls.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan established Muslim Anglo-Oriental _________ in Aligarh.
Answer:
School

Question 2.
In 1888 A.D. he conferred the title of ________
Answer:
Sir

Question 3.
During the time of Swami Dyanand Saraswati a women college was established in ________
Answer:
Meerut.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy	(iii) Persian, Sanskrit,Urdu, English and Greek language.
2. Ishwar Chandar Vidyasagar	(i) Wrote a book in Bengali language named ‘Premier Varna Prichaya’
3. Swami Vivekanand	(ii) established Rama Krishan Mission was well versed in Bengali,

Answer:

A	B
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy	(iii) Persian, Sanskrit, Urdu, English and Greek language.
2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar	(i) Wrote a book in the Bengali language named ‘Premier Varna Prichaya’
3. Swami Vivekanand	(ii) established Rama Krishan Mission was well versed in Bengali,

IV. Things To Do :

Question 1.
Students collect more information about Mahatma Gandhi ji.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher and text book.

Question 2.
Students collect more information about Ravinder Nath Tagore.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher and text book.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide The Education and British Rule Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Schools in Mosques were called
(a) Maktaba
(b) Mashraba
(c) Hyda
(d) Sanatani.
Answer:
(a) Maktaba.

Question 2.
In which of the following languages, the education w as imparted before the British period?
(a) Urdu
(b) Gurmukhi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Schools were opened for education in handicrafts and trade and they were called as
(a) Trade school
(b) Mahajan schools
(c) Handicraft schools
(d) Maktaba.
Answer:
(b) Mahajan schools

Question 4.
In language a learning place is called ‘Madarsa’.
(a) Persian
(b) Urdu
(c) Arabian
(d) Greek.
Answer:
(c) Arabian.

Question 5.
Who established new schools, colleges and universities?
(a) French
(b) British
(c) Portuguese
(d) Dutch.
Answer:
(b) British.

Question 6.
When was the Hunter Commission set up?
(a) 1882 A.D.
(b) 1904 A.D.
(c) 1917 A.D.
(d) 1928 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1882 A.D.

Question 7.
When was Wood’s Disptach came?
(a) 1851 A.D.
(b) 1852 A.D.
(c) 1853 A.D.
(d) 1854 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1854 A.D.

Question 8.
When did Sargent Scheme came?
(a) 1943 A.D.
(b) 1954 A.D.
(c) 1944 A.D.
(d) 1845 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1943 A.D.

Question 9.
Who started Shantiniketan?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Gopal Krishan Gokhala
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai.
Answer:
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore.

Question 10.
When was Sayaji Rao university established?
(a) 1945 A.D.
(b) 1946 A.D.
(c) 1948 A.D.
(d) 1949 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1948 A.D.

Question 11.
This person wrote a book called ‘Satyarath Prakash’ and established Arya Samaj. Name the person.
(a) Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Vivekananda
(c) Jyoti ba Phule
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Dayanand Saraswati

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan established Mohammden Anglo-Oriental ________ at Aligarh.
Answer:
College

Question 2.
In 1988 A.D. Sayyed Ahmed Khan was given the title of ________
Answer:
Sir

Question 3.
During the time of Swami Dyanand Saraswati, a girls college was established at ________
Answer:
Meerut.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
Aligarh Muslim University was founded in 1875 A.D.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Mahatma Gandhi stressed on vocational education in colleges.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindra Nath Tagore were against Western education.
Answer:
(✓)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy	(i) Arya Samaj
2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar	(ii) Sati Pratha
3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati	(iii) Widow re-marriage

Answer:

A	B
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy	(ii) Sati Pratha
2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar	(iii) Widow re-marriage
3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati	(i) Arya Samaj

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were Mahajan Schools in India before the advent of the British?
Answer:
Mahajan Schools were those schools where students were given the education of business and of any art.

Question 2.
Who was Lord Macauley? When did he give his verdict in the favour of Western Education?
Answer:
Lord Macauley as the Chairman of Education Committee. He gave his verdict in favour of Western Education in 1835 A.D.

Question 3.
When were Universities and Medical Colleges opened at Bombay, Calcutta and Madras?
Answer:
In 1857 A.D.

Question 4.
When was the ‘Indian University Act, 1904’ passed? What was its defect?
Answer:
‘Indian University Act, 1904’ was passed in 1904 A.D. Its defect was that it increased government control over universities.

Question 5.
When and who gave the idea of Basic Education?
Answer:
The idea of Basic education was given by Mahatma Gandhi in 1937 A.D.

Question 6.
With what objective, Raja Ram Mohan Roy took certain steps for the development of education?
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy took certain steps for the development of education with the objective of eradicating prevailing social evils, wrong customs and superstitions of Indian Society.

Question 7.
In which two main states Swami Dayanand Sarasvati established schools, colleges and Gurukuls?
Answer:
In Uttar Pradesh and Punjab.

Question 8.
In which State Baroda city is situated and for which Educational institution it is famous?
Answer:
Baroda city is situated in Gujarat State. It is mainly famous for Maharaja Sayaji Rao University.

Question 9.
Who founded Rama Krishna Mission? What this institution has done for social welfare?
Answer:
Rama Krishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda. This Institution opened many schools, colleges and libraries for social welfare.

Question 10.
Who was Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan? Why he started Aligarh movement?
Answer:
Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan was the first Muslim social reformer. He started Aligarh movement for bringing reforms in Islamic society and religion.

Question 11.
Who was the first Principal of Aligarh Mohammaden Anglo College? In which work he helped Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan?
Answer:
The First Principal of Aligarh Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College was Mr. Beck. He helped Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan in bringing Muslims and the British government closer to each other.

Question 12.
Who was Charles Wood?
Answer:
Charles Wood was the President of Board of Control. He gave certain recommendations on education in India which are called Wood’s Dispatch.

Question 13.
Who passed Indian Universities law and why?
Answer:
Indian universities law was passed in 1904 A.D. by Lord Curzon with which interference of the government in universities increased.

Question 14.
What was favoured by Swami Dayanand Sarasvati?
Answer:
Swami Dayanand Sarasvati was in favour of imparting Sanskrit, vedic education along with western education.

Question 15.
Who is believed to have begun the English medium of education in India?
Answer:
Charles Wood.

Question 16.
Many universities were opened up at various places on the recommendation of Sir Charles Wood. Name any one place.
Answer:
Bombay, Calcutta etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was system of education in India before the advent of the British in India? (P-B. 2006)
Answer:
Before the advent of the British in India, Primary education was given in Mosques, Temples and Gurudwaras.

Schools of Mosques were known as Maqtab or schools of Temples and Gurudwaras were known as Pathshalas. All these were religious schools because these schools used to teach the religious books of their respective religions. Language was also of their own religion.
In Maqtab, Urdu, Persian and Arabian languages were used. In Gurudwaras Gurumukhi language and in Temples Hindi and Sanskrit languages were used to teach their respective students. Teachers who gave education were religious leaders.
Larger schools were there for higher education. These were generally different from religious places. Teachers of these schools were generally scholars.
The schools, in which Arabian and Persian were taught, were known as Madrassas. Students of all the religions were allowed to take education over here.
For Higher education of Hindi and Sanskrit, arrangement was there in larger schools like Benaras.
Special schools were also there in India for training of business or of any art. These were known as Mahajani Schools.

Question 2.
Write a note on Aligarh Movement.
Answer:
Aligarh movement was a Muslim movement. This movement was started by Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan for arousing consciousness among Muslims. He was of the view that Muslim Society cannot develop until Muslims will not take English education. That’s why he encouraged Muslims to take English education. He founded Mohammadan Anglo- Oriental College at Aligarh in 1875 A.D. This college later on became the famous Aligarh Muslim University. This university contributed in giving modern outlook to its citizens. Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan was died in 1898 A.D. but the Aligarh University founded by him is still progressing sc lot.

Question 3.
When was Sadller’s Committee appointed? What were its education related recommendations?
Answer:
Sadller’s Committee was appointed in 1917 A.D. This committee gave following recommendations for the development of education.

Medium of education should be Indian language at school level and English language at higher level.
Examination system should be improved.
The government’s control on universities should bfe reduced.
Special emphasis should be given on Technical education.
Vice-Chanceller should be appointed in each university.

Question 4.
What were the education-related recommendations of the Hurtog Committee?
Answer:
Hartog Committee was appointed in 1928 A.D. to spread and reforms in education system. This committee gave the following recommendations :

Primary education should be made compulsory.
Salary of teachers should be increased.
Extra expenditure on education should be reduced.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan and Aligarh Movement.
Answer:
Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan was first Muslim social reformer. He started Aligarh movement in 19th century for bringing reforms in Islamic Society and Islam religion.

Important works:
1. He explained concepts of Islam religion to eradicate prevailing social evils and wrong customs among Indian Muslims.

2. He was of the view that development of western education is necessary for bringing consciousness among Muslims. That’s why he motivated Muslims to study Western literature and to eet Western Education. , , ,

3. He founded Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh in 1875 A.D. Here Muslim students were given Western Education. Later on this college became the centre of activities of Aligarh Movement. This college became Aligarh Muslim University in 1920 A.D.

4. Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan wanted to bring Muslims closer to the British government so that Muslim interests could be protected with the help of the British government.

To achieve this objective, Mr. Beck helped him a lot who was the first Principal of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.

In 1878 A.D., Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan was made the member of Public Service Commission. He was appointed as the member of Viceroy’s Council in 1882 A.D. He was given the title of ‘Sir’ in 1898 A.D. He died in the same year.

Aligarh Movement. Aligarh Movement was started by Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan for bringing consciousness among Muslims. It is known as Aligarh Movement because its centre was Aligarh. Leaders of this movement motivated the people to adopt concepts of ‘Quran’ and to eradicate wrong customs from their lives. They also stressed on getting Western Education by the Muslims.

Question 2.
Write down about the Aligarh Muslim University.
Answer:
Aligarh is a famous city of Uttar TPradesh. Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan founded Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College over here in 1875 A.D. His objective was to provide education of western literature and English language to Muslims because Muslims leaders like Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan and Hidayattiilah Khan were of the view that education of western literature and English language is necessary for the all round development of Muslims. That’s why Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College was founded and the education given by it was given the name of Aligarh movement. In 1920 A.D., Aligarh Muslim University was founded over here.

Aligarh University

The first Chancellor of Aligarh University was Sultan Jahan Begum. This University spread with the passage of time. It established many Medical and Engineering colleges. Presently this university has 80 educational departments. Around 30,000 students each year take education in this university.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 When, Where and How

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 9 When, Where and How Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 When, Where and How

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB When, Where and How Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Write down the answer of the following questions:

Question 1.
In which three periods the Historians have divided the Indian History?
Answer:
Historians have divided the Indian History in three periods and these are:
(a) Ancient period
(b) Medieval period
(c) Modern period.

Question 2.
When modern period started in India?
Answer:
It has been considered that modern period, in India, was started in 18th century after the death of Aurangzeb.

Question 3.
When independent state of Hyderabad was founded and who founded it?
Answer:
Independent state of Hyderabad was founded by Nizam-ul-Mulk in 1724 A.D.

Question 4.
Write down the names of the European powers who came to India during the modern period.
Answer:
Portuguese, Dutch, French and the British.

Question 5.
When and by whom the independent state of Avadh was founded?
Answer:
Avadh was declared as an independent state by Saadat Khan in 1739 A.D.

Question 6.
How books as historical sources help us?
Answer:
A number of books were printed in modern age in English and in Indian languages due to the invention of printing press. With these books, we come to know about human development in different fields such as literature, art, history, science and music. These books are very helpful in increasing our knowledge about history and science. We can take inspiration from these books to do progress in our lives.

Question 7.
Write down in brief about the historical buildings.
Answer:
Historical monuments, built in the modern age, are the living examples of History. A number of historical monuments still exist is our country and still are in very good condition. India Gate, Parliament House, President House, Birla House and other buildings are included in it. These monuments tell us about different aspects of Indian art and architecture.

Question 8.
How Newspapers, Magazines and Pamphlets are helpful in writing history?
Answer:
A number of newspapers, magazines and pamphlets, in different Indian languages, were printed in modern age in India. Out of them ‘The Tribune’, ‘The Times of India’ and many other newspapers are still printing. Ah these newspapers and magazines give us information of many important events of modern age. Even they print any particular news of that age in today’s newspaper. In this way they are helpful in writing history.

Question 9.
Write a note on Govt. Documents.
Answer:
Government documents are a very important source of history of modern India. We can get information about activities of foreign powers, the British conquest of India and the British administration in India through these documents. These documents also tell us that how India was economically exploited by the British. In other words Government documents are one of the important sources of writing history of modern India.

II. Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
In Europe Modern Period began in the __________ century.
Answer:
16th

Question 2.
There was __________ period in India in the 16th century.
Answer:
medieval

Question 3.
__________, __________, __________ Pathans and Rajputs etc. new powers emerged in the 18th century.
Answer:
Marathas, Sikhs, Rohillas

Question 4.
In 1724 A.D., Nizam-Ul-Mulk founded an independent state of __________
Answer:
Hyderabad

Question 5.
In 1739 A.D., Sadaat Khan made an independent state.
Answer:
Avadh

Question 6.
Three carnatic curves were fought between the and Britishers during the period 1744 to 1763 A.D. which British got victorious?
Answer:
French

Question 7.
__________, newspapers, magazines, pamphlets and historical buildings are main sources of Modern Indian History.
Answer:
Books, government documents.

III. Write True or ‘False’ in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
There were many social evils prevalent in India in the 18th century.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Western ideas enlightened the Indians along with western education and literature.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
In India Mughal Empire was more powerful in the 18th century.
Answer:
False

IV. Something To Do:

Question 1.
Write main sources of Modern Indian history on a chart with a picture of each source and paste it on the wall of your class room.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide When, Where and How Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of these is a part of periodization of Indian history?
(a) Ancient age
(b) Modern age
(c) Medieval age
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Which of these European powers came to India in modern age?
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Who among the following was the first Governor-General of India?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Canning.
Answer:
(b) Warren Hastings.

Question 4.
Which of these is a source of history of modern India?
(a) Books
(b) Historical Monuments
(c) Official Documents
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 5.
Who founded the independent state of Awadh?
(a) Nizam-ul-mulk
(b) Ali Vardi Khan
(c) Tipu Sultan
(d) Murshid Quli Khan.
Answer:
(a) Nizam-ul-mulk.

Question 6.
Identify the following pictures and tell with which period do these buildings belong?

(a) Ancient period
(b) Gupta Period
(c) Medieval period
(d) Modern period.
Answer:
(d) Modern period.

Question 7.
__________ Carnatic wars were fought between the French and the British.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(c) Four.

Question 8.
__________ period began in the 16th century in Europe.
(a) Medieval
(b) Modern
(c) Gupta
(d) Ancient.
Answer:
(b) Modern.

Question 9.
The given picture is of one of the famous historical building in India. Name the building.

(a) India Gate
(b) Qutub Minar
(c) President House
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) India Gate.

Question 10.
With which age the buildings given below are associated?

(a) Modern age
(b) Ancient age
(c) Medieval age
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Modern age.

Question 11.
Identify the building in the picture.

(a) India Gate
(b) Qutub Minar
(e) President House
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) India Gate.

Question 12.
Which building of the following buildings is not situated in Delhi, the Capital of the country?

Answer:
(d) Taj Mahal

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
Modern age in Europe started in __________ century.
Answer:
16th

Question 2.
There was __________ age in 16th century India.
Answer:
medieval

Question 3.
In 18th century India, many new regional powers puch as____________, __________, __________ Pathan and Rajputs.
Answer:
Marathas, Sikhs, Rohillas.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
Many social evils prevailed in Indian society during 18th century.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Western education and literature along with western ideas motivated Indians against the British.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
Mughal empire was quite powerful during 18th century.
Answer:
(✗).

Match the Following:

Question 1.

A	B
1. Saadat Khan	(i) Europeans
2. Nizam-ul-Mulk	(ii) Avadh
3. Babur	(iii) Hyderabad
4. Dutch	(iv) Mughals

Answer:

A	B
1. Saadat Khan	(ii) Avadh
2. Nizam-ul-Mulk	(iii) Hyderabad
3. Babur	(iv) Mughals
4. Dutch	(i) Europeans

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In how many periods, history of the world has been divided?
Answer:
World history has been divided in three periods and these are ancient period, medieval period and modern period.

Question 2.
In which century, medieval period was started in Europe?
Answer:
In 16th century.

Question 3.
Name any four new powers which emerged on political scene of India in the 18th century.
Answer:
Marathas, Sikhs, Ruhelas and Pathans.

Question 4.
When India became Independent?
Answer:
In 1947 A.D.

Question 5.
Why modern period in Europe started earlier than India?
Answer:
Modern period started very early in Europe, as compared to other countries, which developed very quickly. European countries also progressed very quickly.

Question 6.
Which step was taken by the Indian rulers of modern period to strengthen Indian economy?
Answer:
They gave encouragement to agriculture, trade and industries.

Question 7.
When and between whom were Carnatic wars fought? Who emerged victorious out of these wars?
Answer:
Carnatic wars were fought between the British and the French during the period of 1746-1763 A.D. The British emerged victorious out of these wars.

Question 8.
On what history is based and how historians reconstruct history?
Answer:
History is based on facts and historians use many sources to reconstruct history.These sources include books, government documents, newspapers, magazines, historical buildings, paintings etc.

Question 9.
Who founded Mysore State and under whom it progressed?
Answer:
Hyder Ali founded Mysore State and it progressed under the son of Hyder Ali, Tipu Sultan.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How western education and literature in modern India paved way for Indian independence?
Answer:
A number of schools and colleges were established in the modern period in India where education was given in Indian languages as well as in English language. Western ideas also spread in country through western education and literature. Sense of liberty, equality and fraternity developed among such Indians who received education of philosophy, history and western civilization. They were not able to tolerate the British rule in India and were unable to tolerate the economic exploitation of the country. That’s why they started national movement against the British rule. They gave great sacrifices and suffered a lot and brought freedom for the country in 1947 A.D.

Question 2.
Write a note on the advent of independent states in India in modern period.
Answer:
Many provinces of the Mughal empire took advantage of its weakness and declared themselves independent. First of all Nizam-ul-Mulk founded Hyderabad state in 1724 A.D. After this, Murshid Quli Khan and Alivardi Khan made Bengal a free state. Saadat Khan founded the Avadh state in 1739 A.D. In the same way Hyder Ali founded the state of Mysore in the south. State of Mysore developed to a great deal under Hyder Ah and his son Tipu Sultan. The Marathas also took advantage of this situation. They started to attack Mughal provinces under the leadership of Peshwas.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the important sources of history of modern India.
Answer:
History depends upon facts. That’s why historians are dependent upon different sources for the creation of history. A number of sources are there to get information of history of modern India.

Some of these main sources are given below:
1. Books. A number of books were printed in the modern period in English language and in Indian languages due to the invention of printing press. With these books, we came to know about human development in different fields such as literature, art, history, science and music. We can take inspiration from these books to do progress in our lives.

2. Historical Monuments. Historical monuments, built in modern age, are the living examples of history. A number of historical monuments still exist in our country and still are in very good condition. India Gate, Parliament House, President House, Birla House and other buildings are included in it. These monuments tell us about different aspects of art and architecture of India.

3. Newspapers and Magazines. A number of newspapers, magazines and novels, in different Indian languages, were printed in modern age in India. Out of them ‘The Tribune’, “The Times of India’ and many other newpapers are still printing. All these newspapers and magazines give us information of many important events of modern age.

4. Government Documents. Government documents are very important source of the history of modern India. We can get information about the activities of foreign powers, the British conquest of India and the British administration in India through these documents. These documents also tell us that how India was exploited economically by the British.

5. Art and Sculptures. A number of pictures and sculptures are also there which are important sources of modern history. These sources give us information of important historical persons and national leaders.

6. Other Sources. Except given sources, some other important sources of modern Indian history are also there. Most important source out of these sources are films which throw some light on the life and lifestyle of contemporary people. Except this, we can come to know about personality and views of Gandhiji and Pt. Nehru from their own hand written letters and correspondence.

Question 2.
Write down in detail over “An overview of the modern Indian history.”
Answer:
Modern age in India started in 18th century after the death of Aurangzeb. Some of the features can be seen from the different events of this age and these are given below:
1. Advent of New Powers. Many of the old powers weakened during this age and they were replaced by the new powers. Marathas, Sikhs, Ruhelas, Pathans and Rajputs were emerged as new powers.

2. Arrival of Foreign Powers. Mutual conflict of these Indian powers motivated foreign powers to establish their authority and supremacy in India. Portuguese, the British, Dutch and the French were included among these powers. Modern period in India started with the arrival of European powers.

3. Social and Economic Reforms. A number of social evils were there in Indian society as compared to foreign societies of this time. Many social reformers tried to remove these social evils from society. A number of defects were also there in the economic sector of country. That’s why Indian rulers, i.e. the British, gave special attention to agriculture, trade and industries. They also tried to remove such defects of economy from Indian society.

4. Beginning of National Movement and Independence of country. A sense of liberty, equality and fraternity aroused among those enlightened Indians who got education of history, philosophy and western civilization. They were not able to tolerate the British rule in India and were unable to tolerate economic exploitation of the country. That’s why they started national movement against the British rule. They gave many sacrifices and suffered a lot and brought freedom for the country in 1947 A.D.

5. Reorganization of Economy. Work of reorganization of the economy of country started after the achievement of independence. That’s why just within 69 years of freedom, Indian economy has been emerged as one of the fastest growing economy of the world.

Question 3.
Explain the main developments during modern period of Indian history.
Answer:
The age of 18th century or the beginning of modern age of Indian history is known as the Black age. It was so because country was weakened due to the decline of Mughal Empire. Conflict between local powers and foreign powers started in the country.

The advent of Independent States. Many small states or different provinces of the Mughal Empire took advantage of its weakness and declared themselves independent.

First of all, Nizam-ul-Mulk founded the independent state of Hyderabad in 1-724 A.D.
After this, Bengal was made an independent state by Murshid Quli Khan and Alivardi Khan.
Saadat Khan made an independent state of Avadh in 1739 A.D.
In the same way, Mysore state was founded in the South under the leadership of Hyder Ah.
The state of Mysore was greatly developed under the leadership of Hyder Ali and his son Tipu Sultan.
Marathas also took advantage of this situation and started invading Mughal states under the leadership of Peshwas.

Struggle among the Foreign Powers. European powers such as the Portuguese, Dutch, French, and British also took advantage of the weakness of Mughals and tried to establish their rule in the country. Three Carnatic wars were fought between the British and the French during 1746-1763 A.D. The British emerged victorious which paved the way for the establishment of British rule in India.

The British control over the Indian Economy. The Indian economy was severely damaged by the chaos which prevailed in the Indian politics of that time. The British took control of Indian trade. Handicraft work and artisan work both were destroyed by the British policies.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 23 India after Independence

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 23 India after Independence Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 23 India after Independence

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB India after Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
When Constituent Assembly was constituted and how many members it has?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in 1946 A.D. It has 389 members.

Question 2.
When the Constitution of India was passed and implemented?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was passed on 26th November 1949 A.D. and implemented on 26th January 1950.

Question 3.
Who is given the credit for the unification of the Indian princely states?
Answer:
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was instrumental in the unification of Princely States.

Question 4.
How Hyderabad state was merged with India?
Answer:
The state of Hyderabad was included in India with the help of the police. Indian police were sent over there on 13th September 1948 A.D. and this state was merged in Indian Union on 17th September 1948 A.D.

Question 5.
How Junagarh state was merged with India?
Answer:
Nawab of the Junagarh state wanted to be included in Pakistan. But Plebiscite (Public survey) took place over there on 20th February 1948 A.D. in which people wished to be included in Indian Union. That’s why Junagarh state was included in Indian Union.

Question 6.
How many members were in the state reorganization commission?
Answer:
This commission had three members.

Question 7.
Write down any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

Peaceful Co-existence
Not to attack each other.

Question 8.
Where and when the first conference of Non-alignment was held?
Answer:
First conference of Non-Aligned movement was held at Belgrade in 1961 A.D.

Question 9.
Write down a note on Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
After the Second World War, the entire world was divided into two opposite alliances. America was the leader of one alliance which was known as Western Bloc. U.S.S.R. was the leader of second alliance which was known as Eastern Bloc. Serious Cold War started between them. Military treaties and pacts like Nato and Warsah Pact have made situation more tense. India wanted to keep its own sovereignty and didn’t become the member of any group. That’s why India started Non-Aligned Movement with the help of other countries. Founders of this movement were Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru, Tito of Ugoslavia and Nasir of Egypt.

Non-Aligned Movement started in 1961 A.D. It was based on principles of Panchsheel. All the members of this movement didn’t want to include themselves in any of the alliance. Its first conference held at Belgrade in 1961 A.D. It was started with 25 members but now it has more than 100 members.

Question 10.
Write down a note on the foreign policy.
Answer:
India, after independence, adopted the foreign policy based on the concept of peaceful co-existence. Its main features are given below:

India respects the sovereignty and freedom of all the countries of the world.
India believed that people of all the religions, nations and races are equal.
India strongly oppose those countries which discriminate the people on the basis of colour, race or class. For example, India had opposed the racial policy of South African Government and its discriminational policy with Asian people and original inhabitants of Africa.
India believes that all international disputes should be resolved through peaceful methods.

Question 11.
Write down a note on Communalism.
Answer:
India is a secular country. People of different religions live over in India whose religious beliefs are different. Communal riots broke out in country at many occasions due to religious fundamentalism. Incident occurred at Gujarat in 2002 A.D. was one of the serious incident of such type. Many people are of the view that government should give special care to the interests of minorities.

Question 12.
Explain in brief the relation between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
India likes to keep friendly relations with all the countries, especially our neighbouring countries. Pakistan and China are the most important neighbouring countries of India.

Brief description of India’s relations with them is given below :
India and Pakistan. India has always tried to keep friendly relations with Pakistan. Pakistan didn’t give its sanction to Kashmir’s inclusion with India. That’s why Kashmir became the main reason of conflict between India and Pakistan. India and Pakistan have fought three wars with each other due to Kashmir problem. Kargil war of 1999 A.D. was one of them.

After the Indo-Pak war of 1971 A.D. Shimla Agreement was signed between Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Pakistani Prime Minister, Zulfikar Ali Bhutto. The main objective of this agreement was to peacefully resolve all the problems of Indo-Pak. That’s why Lahore Agreement was also signed between Indian Prime Minister Atal Behari Vajpai and Pakistani Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif. Bus service and Railway service was also started between both the countries. People of both the countries came closer to each other due to these services. Indian and Pakistani writers and social servers are free to move from one country to another. So the railway and bus services started between both the countries which could give strength to these friendly relations. We believe that the areas of disputes would be resolved in near future.

India and China. Indian relations with China remained friendly right from ancient times. Both countries were associated with each other due to trade and Buddhism. When Communist revolution came in China in 1949 A.D. then India was the first country to give sanction to new government of China. India also supported China as a member of U.N.O. An agreement took place between India and China in 1954 A.D. on the basis of Panchsheel. But both countries also fought war with each other due to border disputes. Very tense relations remained between both the countries for several years. These relations improved after 1980 A.D. Indian and Chinese Prime Ministers met each other on several occasions and discussed their areas of dispute. Today, both the countries are busy in solving their border disputes.

Question 13.
Write down details of the unification of the princely states.
Answer:
India had to face many problems after getting independence. One of these problems was of local kingdoms. They were 562 jp number and were ruled by Indian kings or rulers. According to Act of 1947 A.D., these kingdoms were free to keep their own freedom or were free to be included in the countries of either India or Pakistan. That’s why many local kingdoms liked to remain free. But first Home Minister of free India Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel handled the matter with great intelligence and asked the rulers of local kingdoms to become a part of Indian union. Small kingdoms were included into provinces.

Some kingdoms were sharing cultural values and even they were sharing common boundries. They were joined and made state. For example kingdoms of Kathiawar were included in Saurashtra and the kingdoms of Patiala, Nabha, Faridkot, Jind and Malerkotla were joined to make Pepsu state. Now only three kingdoms remained which were not ready to be included in India and these were Hyderabad, Junagarh and Kashmir.

Hyderabad: Nizam of the kingdom of Hyderabad Usman Ah Khan refused to merge his kingdom into union of India. So Indian police was sent to Hyderabad on 13th September 1948 A.D. and on 17th September 1948 A.D. kingdom of Hyderabad was merged into union of India.

Junagarh. Nawab of Junagarh wanted to go with Pakistan. But plebiscite (Public Survey) took place in Junagarh on 20th February 1948 A.D. and public wished to be merged in Union of India. Therefore Junagarh was merged into union of India.

Kashmir. Ruler of Kashmir Maharaja Hari Singh also wanted to remain free. But Pakistan wanted to control kingdom of kashmir. So ruler of Kashmir called for Indian help and proposed to merge his state into Indian Union. Indian government accepted the request of ruler of Kashmir and send its army to Kashmir. War started between India and Pakistan but a large part of Kashmir was occupied by Pakistan.

Other Kingdoms. Except these kingdoms, there were certain other small kingdoms which were included in the nearby states. Baroda was included in the province of Bombay. Unified state was founded by joining few small states. For example one union was made in March, 1948 by joining Bharatpur, Dholpur, Alwar and Karavli. After this Rajasthan union was formed in which kingdoms of Boondi, Talwara, Pratapgarh, Shahpur, Banswara, Kota, Kishangarh, etc. were included in it.

Question 14.
Write down the development of India in economic and industrial fields after the independence.
Answer:
Many economic problems occurred in India due to division of the countries. Large part of wheat and rice producing areas of India went to Pakistan. Large part of irrigated land also went to Pakistan. So there was a shortfall of grains in India. In the same way large part of jute and cotton producing areas went over to India. There was a short fall of raw material for jute and textile industries. So Indian government started to find solution of these problems to improve economic condition of the country. That’s why Planning Commission was established in 1950 to achieve this objective. In this way the process of economic development started in the country which is still going on. This shadow can be seen in agricultural and industrial sectors as well.

Agriculture. India is a agriculture based country. Foodgrains are produced on 75% agricultural land of the country. Rice, wheat, peanut, sugarcane, maize, sunflower, etc. are important foodgrain crops. India made dams on all the important rivers for the development of country. These dams give water to agricultural land and stop floods to a great extent. These dams are helpful in producing electricity. These are known as river valleys. Nangal Dam, Damodar Valley Dam, Harikud Dam, Tungabhadra Dam and , Nagaijuna Sagar Dam are some of the important dams of the country.

Special steps were taken by the government to increase agricultural production. Farmers were told new methods of farming. Government gives good seeds and fertilizers to farmers. Poor farmers are given loans from Banks to improve agriculture. In this way government is trying to improve condition of agriculture.

Industry: Industrial development started in India even during British rule. Many Textile, Iron, Sugar, Matchstick, Cement industries were established in that age. But these industries were unable to develop fully because British hardly took care in development of Indian industry. But after independence, India started to spread industrial sector in the country. Engineering tools, Electrical goods, computers and related goods, medicine and industries of agricultural tools were established in the country. Many Multinational companies established their industries in the country. These industries have given employment to lakhs of skilled and semi-skilled labourers.

Indian government took special interest in Scientific and Industrial inventions. Many universities were set up to invent new tools, seeds, fertilizers, etc.

Question 15.
Explain the relationship of India and America.
Answer:
The United States of America is supreme among the great powers of the world. India’s relations with the USA never remained simple. These relations have been changed from time to time. After Indian independence, strained relations remained between both the countries over the issue of Kashmir and several other issues.

Following are the main reasons of strained relations between both the countries.

the United States of America started to give more and more military help to Pakistan. India strongly opposed it but America hardly cared about it.
Pakistan become the member of military alliances made by America but India refused to become member of these alliances.
Bangladesh come into existence as a result of the Indo-Pakistan war in 1971 A.D. America tried to interfere in war in favour of Pakistan but India strongly opposed it.
America established military bases in Pakistan. America has made military cantonments at Digo-Garcia island in Indian ocean. India also opposed it because c’ its security concerns.
There are some basic differences among India and America on the issue of Nuclear Power. India is developing Nuclear power but America has strongly opposed it. Even America has stopped supply of nuclear fuel to India.
India has not signed Nuclear Prolification Treaty (NPT) because it is not based on moral values. This treaty is partial. This treaty restricts those countries to make nuclear weapons who don’t have nuclear power. On the other side there is no such restrictions on Nuclear powers.

Actually Indian relations with America are strained due to these given reasons. But still they are not much strained. Both the countries are cooperating each other in economic, technological, scientific and cultural fields. In 1993 A.D. Bill Clinton become the President of USA and from then these relations are improving day by day. America helps India in economic sector as well. The USA and its economic institutions are playing a very important role in economic system of India in present age. We can expect better relations in near future as well.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ was made the President of the Committee.
Answer:
Dr. Ambedkar

Question 2.
Dr. Rajinder Prasad was the first _______ of India.
Answer:
President

Question 3.
In 1954 A.D _______ hand over Pondicherry, Chandernagar and Mahi Indian territories to India.
Answer:
French.

III. Write True or False in brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
After getting independence, India constituted a committee of seven members for the drafting of Constitution.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In the end of 1948 A.D. India occupied the French and Portugueses settlements which were situated in India.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
After the independence, Indian government did not pay any attention towards her industrial development.
Answer:
False.

IV. Match the Words :

Question 1.

A	B
1. The first Home Minister of India	(i) Seven members
2. Members of Indian Constitution	(ii) In 1999 A.D. Committee
3. Dispute of Kargil	(iii) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel.

Answer:

A	B
1. The first Home Minister of India	(iii) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel.
2. Members of Indian Constitution	(i) Seven members
3. Dispute of Kargil	(ii) In 1999 A.D. Committee

V. Things To Do :

Question 1.
To know about the cultural similarities of India and her neighbour countries.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide India after Independence Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Constituent Assembly of India started preparing the new Constitution in
(a) July 1946
(b) Dec. 1946
(c) Aug. 1947
(d) Jan. 1950
Answer:
(b) Dec. 1946.

Question 2.
When did India become Republic?
(a) 26 Aug, 1947
(b) 26 Jan, 1950
(c) 15 Aug, 1947
(id) 26 Nov, 1949
Answer:
(b) 26 Jan, 1950.

Question 3.
When were the Indian states reorganised?
(a) 1950
(b) 1953
(c) 1956
(d) 1959.
Answer:
(c) 1956.

Question 4.
On what basis, Indian states were reorganised in 1956?
(a) Wealth
(b) Population
(c) Natural resources
(d) Linguistic.
Answer:
(d) Linguistic.

Question 5.
Till today, _______ five year plans have been made.
(a) Ten
(b) Eight
(c) Twelve
(d) Nine
Answer:
(c) Twelve

Question 6.
Franchise is people’s right to _______
(a) Property
(b) Vote.
(c) Freedom
(d) Religion.
Answer:
(b) Vote.

Question 7.
Which of these problems was faced by the newly independent India?
(a) Problem of refugees
(b) Problem of division of Society
(c) Problem of development
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 8.
Which of these subjects was kept in Union List?
(a) Taxes
(b) Defence
(c) Foreign affairs
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 9.
Which of these subjects was in the State List?
(a) Medical
(b) Police
(c) Local bodies
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
At the time of independence, the majority of Indians lived in
(a) Villages
(b) Towns
(c) Cities
(d) Metropolitans.
Answer:
(a) Villages.

Question 11.
Who said that, “In politics we have equality, and in social and economic life we will have inequality.”
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri.
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 12.
_______ refugees come in India after independence?
(a) 5 million
(b) 6 million
(c) 8 million
(d) 10 million.
Answer:
(c) 8 million.

Question 13.
_______ princely states were there in India in 1947.
(a) 570
(b) 560
(c) 550
(d) 565.
Answer:
(d) 565.

Question 14.
India’s population in 1947 was _______
(a) 345
(b) 325
(c) 355
(d) 395.
Answer:
(a) 345.

Question 15.
Who was the permanent chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Rajgopalchari.
Answer:
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ was made the Chairman of Drafting Committee.
Answer:
Dr. Ambedkar

Question 2.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first _______ of India.
Answer:
President

Question 3.
In 1954 A.D gave Pondicherry, Chandranagar and Mahi to India
Answer:
France.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
After Indian Independence, a drafting Committee was Constituted.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
At the end of 1948 A.D. India took control of all the areas which were under the Portugueese and French occupation.
Answer:
(✗),

Question 3.
After independence, India did not care about its industrial development.
Answer:
(✓).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. First Home Minister of India	(i) 1999
2. Members of Drafting Committee	(ii) Sardar Patel
3. Kargil War	(iii) Seven

Answer:

A	B
1. First Home Minister of India	(ii) Sardar Patel
2. Members of Drafting Committee	(iii) Seven
3. Kargil War	(i) 1999

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many members were there of Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution? Who was its Chairman?
Answer:
There were seven members of Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution. The Chariman of this committee was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 2.
Who was the first President of India?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India.

Question 3.
Why small kingdoms were included in the nearby states in India?
Answer:
Indian government felt that small kingdoms would not be able to develop properly. That’s why they were included in the nearby states.

Question 4.
Which areas of India were under Portuguese possession at the time of Independence? When they were included in Union of India?
Answer:
Areas of Goa, Daman and Deu were under Portuguese possession at the time of Indian independence. On 20th December 1961 A.D. they were included in Union of India.

Question 5.
How many States and Union Territories are there in India?
Answer:
There are 28 States and 7 Union Territories in India.

Question 6.
When states were reorganized and how many States and Union Territories were formed?
Answer:
States were reorganized in November 1956 A.D. 14 States and 6 Union Territories were formed at that time.

Question 7.
Who were the first Governor-Generals of India and Pakistan?
Answer:
Lord Mountbetten and Mohammad Ali Jinnah respectively.

Question 8.
What was the impact of division of India on the people of Bengal and Punjab?
Answer:
Lakhs of people of Bengal and Punjab died due to division of India and lakhs had to leave their homes. Around 80 lakh people of eastern and western Punjab had to leave their lands, shops and other properties.

Question 9.
What is the main base of foreign policy of India?
Answer:
Peaceful co-operation.

Question 10.
Where Afro-Asian Conference of 1955 held in Indonesia? Name three Asian leaders participated in it.
Answer:
Afro-Asian Conference of 1955 was held at Bandug in Indonesia. Indian Prime Minister Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru, Chau-in-lai of China and Sukarno of Indonesia took part in it.

Question 11.
Who were the founders of Non-Aligned Movement?
Answer:
Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru of India, President of Ugoslavia Tito and President of Egypt Nasir were the founders of Non-Aligned Movement.

Question 12.
When Non-Aligned Movement was started? On which values it is based?
Answer:
Non-Aligned Movement started in 1961 A.D. It was based upon the principles of Panchsheel.

Question 13.
Give brief description of SAARC.
Answer:
‘SAARC was founded in 1985 A.D. Its full form is ‘SOUTH ASIAN ASSOCIATION OF REGIONAL COOPERATION’. Its objective was to produce economic cooperatio’n and mutual peace among South Asian countries.

Question 14.
What are the main social and economic problems of India?
Answer:
Communalism, casteism, linguism, poverty, unemployment, illiteracy, population explosion, etc.

Question 15.
What is the problem of Linguism?
Answer:
Peopje speaking different languages live over here in India. Problem in this relation is that some people consider their language as superior than the other languages.

Question 16.
Give two evil consequences of increasing population.
Answer:

Increasing population is the basic reason of poverty and unemployment.
Development plans of government either fail or they move on a slow pace.

Question 17.
When and why war started between India and China?.
Answer:
War between India and China started in 1962 A.D. due to border dispute.

Question 18.
Between whom Lahore agreement took place? What was its objective?
Answer:
Lahore agreement took place between Indian Prime Minister Atal Behari Vajpai and Pakistani Prime Minister, Nawaz Sharif. Its objective was to resolve mutual disputes of India and Pakistan peacefully.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How was the Indian Constitution framed?
Answer:
After independence, India made a committee of 7 members to frame the Constitution. It was assigned the work of drafting the Constitution. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was made its chairman. This committee made the draft and produced in front of constituent assembly on 21st February, 1948 A.D. Discussion on this draft was started from 4th Nov. 1948. Assembly had to go through 11 meetings for this. Around 2473 amendments were produced during this discussion age and some of them were accepted. This Constitution was passed on 26th November, 1949 A.D. and was implemented on 26th January 1950 A.D.

Question 2.
Write a note on ‘Panchsheel’.
Answer:
India made an agreement with the Chinese Prime Minister Chau-in-lai in 1954 A.D. This agreement was based on five principles. These principles are given below :

To accept peaceful co-existence.
Not to attack each other.
Not to interfere in each other’s matter.
To obey the concept of equality and cooperation for mutual interests.
To respect mutual sovereignty and regional integrity.

Question 3.
How India made free its areas from the possession of French and Portuguese after independence?
Answer:
Indian areas of Goa, Daman and Diu were under Portuguese possession. In the same way Pondicherrey, Chandranagar and Mahi were under French rule. French gave back Indian areas to India in 1954 A.D. but Portuguese refused to do so. In the end Indian government was forced to use military to take -possession of its areas. On 20th December 1961 A.D., Portuguese establishments of Goa, Daman and Diu were included in the Union of India. Goa was made a state on 30th May, 1987 A.D. and Damap and Diu were made Union territories.

Question 4.
Why and how states were reorganized after independence?
Answer:
Indians started to demand reorganize states on the basis of language and culture even during British rule. After independence, one Telugu person Ramulu demanded to reorganize states on linguistic basis, kept indefinite fast as and was died. So constitutional amendment took place and Telugu spoken areas were separated from Madras and was given the name of Andhra Pradesh. One commission with three members was appointed to reorganize other states. States were reorganized in Nov. 1956 on the basis of recommendations of commission. 14 states and 6 union territories were formed.

Question 5.
Describe the role of India in U.N.O.
Answer:
India is an active member of the U.N.O. (United Nations Organisation). India has sent its forces with peace keeping forces of U.N.O. in many disturbed areas of the world.

India has also contributed a lot in many institutions and agencies of U.N.O. For example Vijay Laxmi Pandit became the member of General Assembly of U.N.O. in 1963 A.D. Shashi Tharoor is the Under Secretary of Communication and Public Information of U.N.O. India is also a member of Security Council. India gets aid of U.N.O. every year as well.

Question 6.
Write a note on problem of Casteism and Poverty.
Answer:
Problem of Casteism. Problem of casteism is one of the main obstacles in the way of our national unity. Some people always hate the people of other castes. Even politicians and political parties take the help of caste to get support of the people. But it is required from us that all the people should be equally treated. According to Article 17 of Constitution, untouchability is restricted in any form.

Problem of Poverty. The Problem of poverty is one of the largest obstacles in the way of progress of the country. Indian people are so poor that they are unable to get proper food of one day. Main reasons of poverty are increasing population, less agricultural production and unemployment. Government has tried a lot to reduce poverty.

Question 7.
Briefly describe the problem of unemployment in India.
Answer:
Problem of unemployment is increasing day by day because number of unemployed persons is increasing. Most of the unemployment exists among literate people. Government is trying a lot to resolve this problem. Retired servicemen, literate unemployed are given loans from government so that they could start their own business. Retirement age of job is reducing so that more and more people could get employment. Additional occupations like rearing of cattle, pigs, honey bees, etc. are being encouraged, Training and loan facilities are also provided to them.

Question 8.
Write a note on problem of Inflation in India.
Answer:
Inflation is a world-wide problem in today’s age. But this problem has taken serious form in India. Today everything available in the market is expensive. Prices of goods are increasing day by day. As a result most number of people are unable to fulfil their basic needs of daily life. That’s why the government should take some concrete steps to control increasing inflation. Government should implement such plans in the country with which Inflation could be reduced.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe in detail about problems of illiteracy and the increasing population.
Answer:
1. Illiteracy. More than 23 crore people of India are illiterate. Around 60 women out of 100 are illiterate. Illiteracy gives rise to unemployment which becomes a reason for poverty. An illiterate person hardly knows about the progression opportunities available in the country. Except this democratic system will become successful if people would be literate.

An illiterate person is unaware of his rights and duties as well.
Governmental Efforts: Indian Government is taking certain steps to remove illiteracy from the country :

There is a provision in our Constitution to give free and compulsory education to children upto the age of 14 years.
Indian government gives scholarships to poor and intelligent students.
The Indian government has also started adult education in the country. National Adult Education Programme was started on 2nd October 1978 A.D. National Literacy Mission was started in 1988 A.D. Many Adult education centres were established under this mission.
Many educational programmes, related to illiterate adults, are being broadcast on All India Radio and Doordarshan. Their main objective is to literate every person in the country.

2. Increasing Population. India is facing a problem of the increasing population these days. The speed of the increasing population in India is too much that it is very difficult to stop this speed by the government. According to the census of 2011 A.D., India’s population was 121.02 crores. Our population is increasing by lakhs every year.

Causes: There are certain reasons for increasing population in the country:

The death rate is decreasing due to the improvement of medical facilities. About 25 years ago this death rate was 33 per thousand. But now it has been reduced to 9 per thousand. In earlier times, many diseases were there like the plague, malaria, etc. because of which thousands of people used to die. But now these diseases have been controlled to a great extent.
Marriage is less age is one of the reasons for the increasing population. Many rural families used to prefer child marriages which result in the growth of the population.
People don’t like to use family planning due to ignorance and religious reasons.
Many poor people think that more children will help in an increase in the income of the family. That’s why parents like to give birth to more children.

Losses and solution. The increasing population is the basic reason for many problems like poverty, unemployment, etc. All the developmental plans become useless with the increasing population. These problems could be solved at a government level. People could be told about the losses of increasing population and government can propagate in favour of small family.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Cell Structure and Functions Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer These

Question 1.
Indicate whether the following statements are True [T] or False [F].
(a) Unicellular organisms have one-celled bodies.
Answer:
True

(b) Muscle cells are branched.
Answer:
False

(d) Amoeba has irregular shape.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Make a sketch of the human nerve cell. What function do nerve cells perform ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 1
Functions of Nerve Cell:

It receives and transfers messages.
It control and co-ordinate the functioning of different parts of the body.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the following :
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleus of a cell.
Answer:
(a) Cytoplasm.
It is a jelly-like fluid present inside the cell membrane. Various cell organelles are present in it. It contains water, sugar, minerals, lipids proteins etc.

(b) Nucleus.
As true nucleus is present in all the eukaryotic cells except mammalian RBCs, sieve tube cells, tracheids and vessels. It is formed of four components:
(i) Nuclear Membrane.
It is a two-layered envelope around the nuclear sap. It is porous (with nuclear pores) and semi-permeable membrane. Outer membrane is studded with ribosomes. It regulates exchange of materials between nucleoplasm and cytoplasm.

(ii) Nucleoplasm.
It is a semifluid colloidal substance in which nucleoli and chromatin fibres are present. It acts as nuclear skeleton and forms spindle for the cell division.

(iii) Nucleolus.
It is dense, spherical, naked and darkly stained structure and it is site of formation and store house of RNA.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 2
(iv) Chromatin Fibres.
These are long, fine and darkly stained threads which collectively form nuclear reticulum. During prophase of mitosis and meiosis, these condense to form a specific number of rods, called chromosomes. These are embedded with genes which are chemically formed of DNA and act as units of heredity and variation. They also help in the synthesis of structural and enzymatic protein.

Question 4.
Which part of the cell contains organelles ?
Answer:
Cytoplasm contains organelles.

Question 5.
Make sketches of animal and plant cells. State three differences between them.
Or
State four differences between animal and plant cells.
Answer:
Animal cells differ from plant cells in the following definite ways :

Plant cells	Animal cells
1. Plant cells have cell wall made up of cellulose.	1. Animal cells have no such walls and no cellulose.
2. Plant cells have chloroplasts.	2. Animal cells do not possess the chloroplasts.
3. Plants cells have thin cytoplasm and large vacuole.	3. Animal cells have thick cytoplasm with no vacuole.
4. Centrosome absent.	4. Centrosome present.
5. Reserve food is in the form of starch.	5. Reserve food is in the form of glycogen and param sylum.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 3

Question 6.
State the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
Answer:
Eukaryotes.
These are the organisms whose cells contain well defined nucleus with a clear nuclear membrane. Examples are onion cells, cheek cells.

Prokaryotes.
These are the organisms whose cells have no definite nucleus i.e. without nuclear membrane. Examples are bacteria, blue green algae.

Question 7.
Where are chromosomes found in a cell ? State their function.
Answer:
Chromosomes are found in nucleus of a cell. Chromosomes carry genes and help in inheritance or transfer of characters from the parents to the offspring.

Question 8.
‘Cells are the basic structural units of living organisms’. Explain.
Answer:
As a building cannot be constructed without bricks. Similarly, a body of living organism has basic structural unit such as cell. Cells are of different size, shapes and group together to form organs, organ systems etc.

Question 9.
Explain why chloroplasts are found only in plant cells ?
Answer:
Chloroplast are green coloured plastids. They impart green colour to plants and only plants make use of green colour to synthesis food.

Question 10.
Complete the crossword with the help of clues given below.
Across
1. This is necessary for photosynthesis.
3. Term for component present in the cytoplasm.
6. The living substance in the cell.
8. Units of inheritance present on the chromosomes.

Down
1. Green plastids.
2. Formed by collection of tissues.
4. It separates the contents of the cell from the surrounding medium.
5. Empty structure in the cytoplasm.
7. A group of cells.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 4
Answer:

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Cell Structure and Functions Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A slide is given in the figure below. What does this show ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 6
(a) Cork cells
(b) Onion membrane
(c) Unicellular organism
(d) Multicellular Organism.
Answer:
(b) Onion membrane.

Question 2.
What is the name of basic structural unit in living organism ?
(a) Tissue
(b) Organ of body
(c) Cell
(d) Molecule.
Answer:
(c) Cell.

Question 3.
Which out of the following cell-organ is found in plants only ?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Cell membrane
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(b) Chloroplast.

Question 4.
Which organism is not unicellular ?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Amoeba
(c) Paramecium
(d) Algae or mould
Answer:
(d) Algae or mould.

Question 5.
Which of the cell organelle synthesise protein ?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Chromosome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Centrosome
Answer:
(c) Ribosome.

Question 6.
Who discovered cell ?
(a) Robert Hook
(6) M.J. Schleiden
(c) Schwann
(d) Robert Brown
Answer:
(a) Robert Hook

Question 7.
Which cell organelle is called suicidal bag ?
(a) Ribosome
(b) Lysosome
(c) Chromosome
(d) Centrosome
Answer:
(b) Lysosome

Question 8.
Which out of the following is unicellular organism?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Paramecium
(c) Bacteria
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 9.
Which is the power-house of cell?
(a) Centrosome
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Ribosome.
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria.

Question 10.
Name a human cell which can change its shape.
(a) White blood cells
(b) Red blood cells
(c) Platelets
(d) Plasma
Answer:
(b) Red blood cells.

Question 11.
Which organ of the cell is found in plant cell only?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Chromosome
(e) Nucleus
(d) Cytoplasm
Answer:
(a) Cell wall.

Question 12.
Which is the longest cell of human body?
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Muscular cell
(c) Red blood cells ,
(d) White blood cells
Answer:
(a) Nerve cell.

Question 13.
Of what the cell wall is made?
(a) Fat
(b) Cellulose
(c) Protein.
(d) Mineral Salt.
Answer:
(b) Cellulose.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
1. The cell is the …………………. and functional unit of organism.
2. Cell wall is found in ……………….. cells.
3. Power house of the cell is ………………….
4. Amoeba and Paramecium consists of a single …………………
5. Plastids are present only in ……………….. cells.
Answer
1. structural
2. plant
3. mitochondrion
4. cell
5. plant.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer.
1. Suicidal bags of cells are ?
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Ribosomes.
Answer:
(a) Lysosomes

2. Plant cells do not have:
(a) Cell wall
(b) Centrosomes
(c) Plastids
(d) Mitochondria.
Answer:
(b) Centrosomes.

Question 3.
What is structural and functional unit of life ?
Answer:
Cell.

Question 4.
What is the contribution of Robert Brown in cell biology ?
Answer:
He discovered nucleus in the cells of orchid.

Question 5.
Who proposed the cell theory ?
Answer:
M.J. Schleiden and Theodore Schwann.

Question 6.
Name the smallest and largest cell.
Answer:
Smallest cell – Mycoplasma.
Largest cell – Ostrich egg.

Question 7.
Name the smallest and largest cell of human body.
Answer:

Smallest cell – nephron.
Largest cell – neuron.

Question 8.
Who called the protoplasm as the physical basis of life ?
Answer:
Huxley.

Question 9.
Give the contribution of Rudolf Virchow in the field of biology.
Answer:
He stated “omnis cellula e cellula” which means new cells are formed by the growth and division of pre-existing cells.

Question 10.
What are two types of cells on the basis of nature of nucleus ?
Answer:
Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells.

Question 11.
What is nucleoid ?
Answer:
Nucleoid. It is incipient nucleus of prokaryotes like bacteria and blue-green algal cells and is without nuclear membrane.

Question 12.
What is contribution of Robert Hooke in the field of cell biology ?
Answer:
Robert Hooke discovered the cell.

Question 13.
What are the three functional regions of a cell ?
Answer:
Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus.

Question 14.
Give the primary function of plasma membrane.
Answer:
It regulates exchange of material between cytoplasm and extra-celluar fluid.

Question 15.
Name the smallest sized cell organelle.
Answer:
Ribosome.

Question 16.
Which cell organelle is called suicidal bag ?
Answer:
Lysosome.

Question 17.
Name the largest sized cell organelle.
Answer:
Plastids.

Question 18.
Which cell organelle is called cell centre ?
Answer:
Centrosome.

Question 19.
What are organs ?
Answer:
Organs. Various body parts of animals and plants are called organs.

Question 20.
Who coined the word ‘Cell’ ?
Answer:
Robert Hooke.

Question 21.
Why Robert Hooke coined the word cell ?
Answer:
Robert Hooke was excited when he observed spaces in a cork slice those appeared like honeycomb. He called these compartments as cells.

Question 22.
Name some organs of plants.
Answer:
Roots, stem, leaves, flower, fruit.

Question 23.
Write examples of unicellular organisms.
Answer:
Amoeba, Paramecium, Bacteria, etc.

Question 24.
What is size of the smallest cell ?
Answer:
0.1 micron (μm) i.e. ten thousandth part of a millimetre.

Question 25.
What is yellow yolk in the egg of a hen ?
Answer:
It represents single cell.

Question 26.
Write the size of largest cell observable with naked eyes.
Answer:
170 mm.

Question 27.
What are cell organelles ?
Answer:
The parts of a cell are called cell organelles.

Question 28.
What role does cell membrane play in a cell ?
Answer:
Cell membrane encloses a liquid substance known as protoplasm. It regulates the flow of substances both into the cell and out of it.

Question 29.
Name four major elements responsible for protoplasm.
Answer:
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen.

Question 30.
What is nucleoplasm ?
Answer:
Nucleoplasm. It is the liquid protoplasm in the nucleus.

Question 31.
Who controls the activities of a cell ?
Answer:
Nucleus.

Question 32.
What do chromosomes do ?
Answer:
Chromosomes help in inheritance or transfer of characters from the parents to next generation.

Question 33.
What are chloroplasts ?
Answer:
The green plastids in the plants are called chloroplasts.

Question 34.
What is the shape of mitochondria ?
Answer:
Rod-shaped or spherical.

Question 35.
Name the power house of a cell.
Answer:
Mitochondria.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a cell ?
Answer:
Cell.
Just as the bricks are the units of all types of houses, the cells are the units or building blocks of living organisms. Animals and plants like ant, housefly, dog, elephant, sunflower, neem etc. consist of cells.

Question 2.
Write the names of cell organelles.
Answer:
Cell Organelles.
Cell organelles are living strictures of cytoplasm. These include : Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, peroxisomes, plastids, sphaerosomes, glyoxysomes, centrosome. microtubules, microfilaments, cilia and flagella.

Question 3.
What is the difference between the plasma membrane and cell wall ? Give the functions of each one.
Answer:

Characters	Plasmsa membrane	Cell Wall
1. Occurrence	Around the protoplasm of all the cells.	Outside the plasma membrane in plant cells, bacteria, blue-green algae, fungi etc.
2. Nature	Thin and selective permeable.	Thick and freely permeable.
3. Chemistry	Lipoproteinous and trilaminar.	Formed of cellulose hemicellulose, pectin, water, etc.
4. Function	Regulates the exchange of materials between cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.	It is protective and supportive in function. It provides definite shape and prevents evaporation of water.

Question 4.
Which cell organelle is called “suicidal bag” and why ?
Answer:
Lysosome is commonly called suicidal bag of cell. It is so as it contains hydrolytic enzymes which help in digestion of foreign food or bacteria (by heterophagy) ; or reserve food or certain cell organelles (by autophagy) ; or the whole cell after the cell death (by autolysis).

Question 5.
Which cell organelle is called “power house” of the cell ? Write about its function briefly.
Answer:
Mitochondrion is commonly called “power house” of the cell because it is site of oxidative breakdown of glucose in aerobic cell respiration to produce energy- rich ATP molecules. One mole of glucose, in aerobic respiration, produces 36 ATP molecules.

Question 6.
Define the following terms :
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Nucleoplasm.
Answer:
(a) Protoplasm is the physical basis of life and lies inside the cell membrane. It includes both cytoplasm and nucleoplasm.

(b) Cytoplasm lies between the cell membrane and nucleus. It contains various types of cell-organelles and cell-inclusions. It undergoes cyclosis. It is the site of protein synthesis, glycolysis, etc.

(c) Nucleoplasm lies inside the nucleus and contains only nucleoli and chromatin fibres. It does not undergo cyclosis. It forms spindle during cell division.

Question 7.
Draw a labelled diagram of plant and animal cell.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 7

Question 8.
Describe the variations in shape and size of cells.
Answer:
The cells are generally round or spherical in shape. However, there is lot of variations in shape of cells. These can be cuboidal and columnar. Some of the animal cells are long and branched as in nerve cells.

Question 9.
What are unicellular and multicellular organisms ?
Answer:
Unicellular Organisms. The organism whose body is made of only a single cell is called a unicellular organism, e.g. Amoeba, Paramecium, Chlamydomonas, Yeast, Euglena etc.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 8
Multicellular Organisms. The organisms whose body is made of many cells is called a multicellular organisms, e.g. Man, Hydra, Dog, Elephant etc.

Question 10.
WTiat are organs and organ systems ?
Answer:
Organ. A group of tissues which perform a definite function of the body is called an organ.
Organ System. A group of organs which do a big job is called an organ system.

Question 11.
Draw the diagrams of different kinds of cells.
Answer:

Question 12.
How was the first cell discovered?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 10
Robert Hooke in 1665 observed slices of cork under a simple magnifying device. Cork is part of the bark of a tree. He took thin slices of cork and observed them under his microscope. He noticed partitioned boxes or compartments in the cork slice. These boxes appeared like a honey comb.

He also noticed that one box was separated from the other by a wall or partition. Hooke coined the term ‘cell’ for each box. Cell in Latin means ‘hollow space.’

Question 13.
Discuss about the various shapes of cells.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 11
Generally cells are round, spherical or elongated. Some cells are long and pointed at both ends. They exhibit spindle shape. Cells sometimes are quite long and thread like. Some are branched like the nerve cell or neuron.

Question 14.
Differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms.
Answer:
Differences between unicellular and multicellular organisms.

Unicellular Organisms	Multicellular Organisms
1. These organisms are made of only one cell.	1. These organisms are made of many cells.
2. All functions of body are performed by only a single cell.	2. Each function of the body is performed by a group of special cells.
3. Cilia are found. Examples. Amoeba, Paramecium etc.	3. Cilia are not found. Examples. Almost all animals.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the structure of a typical cell in detail.
Answer:
Structure of cell
A cell is the basic unit of life. It is capable of performing all functions of life and to fulfil all the functions, cell is made up of different parts. Basically, a cell is formed of three parts:
1. Cell membrane or plasma membrane
2. Nucleus.
3. Cytoplasm.

The cytoplasm is surrounded by cell membrane and nucleus constitutes the protoplasm of a cell. The typical structure of plant and animal cells are shown ahead:

1. Cell Membrane.
It is a delicate, thin membrane. It is also called plasma membrane. It forms the outermost layer in animals but in plant cells an additional membrane is present. It is called cell membrane in animal’s cell and cell wall in plant’s cell. Cell membrane has following functions:
(i) It provides shape to the cell.
(ii) It allows the flow of some substances into the cell and out of the cell.
(iii) It acts as a barrier to protect internal parts.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions 12

2. Nucleus.
The oval or spherical structure, which is the controlling centre of all activities of the cell is called nucleus. Nucleus is made up of following parts:
(i) Nuclear Membrane. It is the membrane having pores which separates contents of nucleus from cytoplasm.
(ii) Nucleoplasm. The fluid present in nucleus is called nucleoplasm.
(iii) Nucleolus. Small spherical body made up of nucleoprotein. RNA is also present in nucleus.
(iv) Chromatin Material. Several thread like structures forming a network are present in nucleoplasm. Chromatin material is in the form of chromosomes which carries genes on it.

The nucleus has following functions:
Chromatin material of nucleus transmits characters from one generation to other.
It contains informations for carrying out all basic functions.

3. Cytoplasm.
The jelly like fluid inside the membrane of cell is cytoplasm. All tiny structures performing different functions, are present in it. These are called organelles.

It also contains water, sugar, minerals, lipids, proteins etc. The various cell organelles present in cytoplasm are:
(i) Mitochondria. They are commonly called Tower house of the cell’ because they help in release of energy from food. They also store energy. Mitochondria (singular mitochondrion) are oval or rod shaped organelle bounded by two membranes.

(ii) Endoplasmic Reticulum. A complex network of membranes which are present either attached to nucleus or free from it are endoplasmic reticulum. Its network extends from nuclear membrane to cell membrane. It helps in protein synthesis and also in transport of various substances.

(iii) Plastids. These organelles are present only in plant cells. These are of three types:
(а) Chloroplasts. Green coloured plastids are chloroplasts. The green colour is due to the presence of pigment chlorophyll. They are commonly known as ‘Kitchen of the’ cell’ because chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis i.e. process of making food.

(b) Leucoplasts. Colourless plastids are called leucoplasts. These are present in the roots and underground modified stems.

(iv) Golgi Bodies. These are membrane-bound, piles of many flattened sacs. In plants, Golgi bodies are known as dictyosomes. They are mainly secretory in function.

(v) Vacuoles. The fluid-filled organelles present in a cell are vacuoles. In-plant cells, vacuoles are few in number and larger in size whereas, in animals, they are more in number and smaller in size. They maintain the turgidity of plants cells. Vacuoles also serve as a waste deposit bin in which unwanted materials may be diverted.

(vi) Lysosomes. Small spherical bodies having a single membrane are lysosomes. They sacrifice their own selves to destroy and digest various materials. They are also called ‘suicidal bags’. Plant cells do not have lysosomes.

(vii) Ribosomes. These are small rounded bodies that are present free or attached with the endoplasmic reticulum. They perform the function of protein synthesis.

(viii) Centrosome. It is a rod-like structure. It occurs close to the nucleus and helps in cell division.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Synthetic Fibres and Plastics Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Explain why some fibres are called synthetic.
Answer:
Some fibres are called synthetic fibres because they are not obtained from natural sources. They are made by human beings. The raw materials used for preparing synthetic fibres are petrochemicals, which in turn are produced from fossil fuel, petroleum.

Question 2.
Mark (✓) the correct answer.
Rayon is different from synthetic fibres because
(a) it has a silk-like appearance
(b) it is obtained from wood pulp
(c) its fibres can also be woven like those of natural fibres.
Answer:
(b) It is obtained from wood pulp.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.
(а) Synthetic fibres are also called …………… or ……………….. fibres.
(b) Synthetic fibres are synthesised from raw material called ………………. .
(c) Like synthetic fibres, plastic is also a ………………… .
Answer:
(a) Man made, artificial
(b) Petrochemicals
(c) Synthetic.

Question 4.
Give examples which indicate that nylon fibres are very strong.
Answer:
Parachutes, ropes for climbing, tents made of nylon.

Question 5.
Explain why plastic containers are favoured for storing food.
Answer:
Advantages of using plastic containers for storing food:

They do not react with food, air and water.
They are strong and light in weight.
They can have different sizes, shapes and colours.

Question 6.
Explain the difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting plastics.
Answer:
Differences between the Thermoplastics and Thermosetting Plastics

Thermoplastics	Thermosetting plastics
1. It can bend easily.	1. It cannot bend but breaks.
2. On heating, it gets deformed.	2. Heating has no affect on it.
3. It can be used again and again.	3. It cannot be reused.
4. It can be moulded into various shapes on heating. Examples : Polythene, PVC.	4. It can be moulded only once, on heating. Examples : Bakelite, Melamine.

Question 7.
Explain why the following are made of thermosetting plastics.
(а) Saucepan handles
(b) Electric plugs/switches/plug boards
Answer:
(a) Saucepan handles are made of thermosetting plastics because plastic is bad conductor of electricity, fire resistant and heat tolerant.

(b) Electric plugs/switches/plugboards are made of thermosetting plastics because this plastic is bad conductor of electricity and durable.

Question 8.
Categorise the materials of the following products into ‘can be recycled’ and ‘cannot be recycled’.
Telephone instruments, plastic toys, cooker handles, carry bags, ball point pens, plastic, bowls, plastic covering on electric wires, plastic chairs, electrical switches.
Answer:
Can be recycled. Plastic toys, carrybags, ball point pens, plastic bowls, plastic chairs, plastic covering on electric wires.
Cannot be recycled. Telephone instruments, cooker handles, electrical switches.

Question 9.
Rana wants to buy shirts for summer. Should he buy cotton shirts or shirts made from synthetic material ? Advise Rana, giving your reason.
Answer:
Rana should buy cotton shirts.
Preference of cotton clothes to synthetic materials in summers.

Cotton clothes are porous while synthetic materials are non-porous or air resistant.
Cotton clothes soak sweat and give a dry feeling while synthetic clothes have little water absorbing property.

Question 10.
Give examples to show that plastics are non-corrosive in nature.
Answer:
Plastics are non-corrosive in nature. Plastics do not react with air, water etc. so, they do not get corroded.
For example –

Different chemicals are stored in plastic bottles.
Water is kept into plastic bottles.
Pickles and food items are stored in plastic containers.

Question 11.
Should the handles and bristles of a toothbrush be made of the same material ? Explain your answer.
Answer:
No, different materials should be used for making handles and bristles of toothbrush because bristles help in cleaning teeth and handle is just for support. Bristles must be soft and delicate and powerful while handle should be hard and rigid.

Question 12.
‘Avoid plastics as far as possible’. Comment on this advice.
Answer:
Plastics are not environment friendly. They release poisonous gases on burning. They are non-biodegradable, so pollute soil or water in which they are dumped. Therefore, use of plastic should be avoided as far as possible.

Question 13.
Match the terms of Column A correctly with the phrases given in Column B.

Column A	Column B
(i) Polyester	(a) Prepared by using wood pulp
(ii) Teflon	(b) Used for making parachutes and stockings
(iii) Rayon	(c) Used to make non-stick cookwares
(iv) Nylon	(d) Fabrics do not wrinkle easily

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(i) Polyester	(d) Fabrics do not wrinkle easily
(ii) Teflon	(c) Used to make non-stick cookwares
(iii) Rayon	(a) Prepared by using wood pulp
(iv) Nylon	(b) Used for making parachutes and stockings

Question 14.
‘Manufacturing synthetic fibres is actually helping conservation of forests’. Comment.
Answer:
Natural fibres are obtained from natural resources i.e. natural plants. But synthetic fibres are obtained from other materials. So, synthetic fibres are not dependent on natural vegetation or crops grown in the field. Thus manufacturing synthetic fibres actually helps conservation of forests.

Question 15.
Describe an activity to show that thermoplastic is poor conductor of electricity.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics 1
Activity.
Take a few samples of thermoplastic such like polythene, PVC, Nylon, Polystyrene etc.
Now set up the circuit as shown in fig. and insert a piece of Nylon between the two terminals A and B of copper wire. If bulb starts glowing then it is good conductor otherwise it is a bad conductor. Repeat the experiment using different samples of thermoplastics.
In each case, bulb would not glow indicating that thermoplastics are bad conductor of electricity.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Synthetic Fibres and Plastics Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In the following diagram, a boy is seen using rope for going up a rock. Tell rope made of which material is most suitable for this purpose ?
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics 2
(a) Cotton
(b) Wood
(c) Nylon
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Nylon.

Question 2.
Which of the following is called artificial silk ?
(a) Rubber
(b) Teflon
(c) Rayon
(d) Polythene.
Answer:
(c) Rayon.

Question 3.
…………… is used for making polyester clothes.
(a) P.E.T.
(b) Acrvline
(c) Terrylene
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Terrylene.

Question 4.
Today while studying in the class Nisha came to know that there is such a type of plastic which melts when heated. Name this plastic. (From Board M.Q.P.)
(a) Plastic
(b) Thermoplastic
(c) Acrylic
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Thermoplastic.

Question 5.
Which out of the following is natural fibre ?
(a) Rayon
(b) Terylene
(c) Wool
(cl) Nylon.
Answer:
(c) Wool.

Question 6.
Which out of the following fibres is made by man ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wool
(c) Rayon
(d) Silk.
Answer:
(c) Rayon.

Question 7.
Which out of the following is biodegradable ?
(a) Metal
(b) Plastic
(c) Paper
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Paper.

Question 8.
Which of the following material is used to make ropes ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wool
(c) Nylon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Nylon.

Question 9.
Which type of thermoplastic is used to make switches, which is poor conductor of heat and electricity ?
(a) Nylon
(b) Backelite
(c) Melamine
(d) Polythene
Answer:
(b) Backelite.

Question 10.
Which out of the following is thermoplastic ?
(a) Nylon
(b) Polythene
(c) Acrylic
(d) Backelite
Answer:
(d) Backelite.

Question 11.
Synthetic fibres are made from small units called:
(a) Cell
(b) Molecules
(c) Polymer
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Polymer.

Question 12.
Sericulture is the bringing up of which creature ?
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Hare
(d) Silk worm
Answer:
(d) Silk worm

Question 13.
Natural Polymer is:
(a) Rayon
(b) Cotton
(c) Nylon
(d) Polyster
Answer:
(b) Cotton.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name few natural fibres.
Answer:
Cotton, wool, silk.

Question 2.
Name a natural polymer.
Answer:
Cellulose.

Question 3.
Name a fibre which is silk like but man made.
Answer:
Rayon.

Question 4.
Which fibre is obtained from woodpulp ?
Answer:
Rayon.

Question 5.
In which year, Nylon was made ?
Answer:
In 1931.

Question 6.
Which fibre was made from coal, air and water ?
Answer:
Nylon

Question 7.
Of which fibre, parachutes and tents are made of ?
Answer:
Nylon

Question 8.
What is PET ?
Answer:
PET. It is a form of Polyester.

Question 9.
Why do parachutes and ropes for climbing rocks are made of Nylon ?
Answer:
Due to its strength.

Question 10.
Give few characteristics of plastics.
Answer:
Plastics can be recycled, reused, coloured, melted, rolled into sheets or made into wires.

Question 11.
What are Polythene and PVC ?
Answer:
Thermoplastics.

Question 12.
Bakelite is an example of which type of plastic ?
Answer:
Thermosetting plastic.

Question 13.
Where is Teflon used ?
Answer:
For making kitchen cookware and tape sealing.

Question 14.
Which of these fibres is costly-wool, rayon ?
Answer:
Wool.

Question 15.
Why does hot water deform plastic bottles ?
Answer:
Because they are made of thermoplastic, which melts on heating.

Question 16.
Which thermosetting material is versatile, heat resistant and fireproof ?
Answer:
Melamine.

Question 17.
Why is plastic used in cars, aircrafts etc. instead of metals ?
Answer:
Because it is lighter than metals.

Question 18.
Why are plastic containers convenient to use ?
Answer:
Plastic containers are light, cheap, strong and can be handled easily.

Question 19.
Which synthetic fibre resembles wool ?
Answer:
Acrylic.

Question 20.
Give two reasons for prefering synthetic fibres over natural fibres.
Answer:

Durability and
affordability.

Question 21.
Give one disadvantage of synthetic fibres.
Answer:
They melt on heating.

Question 22.
Which substances are non-biodegradable ?
Answer:
Non-biodegradable substances: Those substances which cannot be decomposed by bacteria are called non-biodegradable substances.

Question 23.
Which material or thing is responsible for choking drains and death of herbivores ?
Answer:
Polythene bags.

Question 24.
What is 4R principle ?
Answer:

Reduce,
Reuse,
Recycle and
Recover.

Question 25.
Plastics are non-biodegradable. Are they environment friendly or environment non-friendly ?
Answer:
Environment non-friendly.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are polymers ? Give an example of natural polymer. Are polymers found in nature ?
Answer:
Polymer.
A Polymer is a long chain consisting of lakhs of small units (molecules). It is made by combining together small molecules of chemical substances. Cellulose is natural polymer.

Polymers are found in nature. As for example, cotton is a natural fibre which in fact is cellulose. Cellulose is made up of large units of glucose. Similarly, wood pulp is cellulose from which rayon is manufactured. Therefore, rayon also a polymer.

Question 2.
What are synthetic fibres ?
Answer:
Synthetic Fibres.
The fibres other than natural fibres which are made by human beings are called synthetic fibres.
These are made of very large units which in turn are made up of similar small units.

Question 3.
Give few examples of synthetic fibres.
Answer:
Rayon, Nylon, Polyester, Plastic, Acrylic, Terylene etc. are synthetic fibres.

Question 4.
Give uses of Rayon and Nylon.
Answer:
Rayon is used to make clothes, bedsheets and carpets.
Nylon is used to make clothes, socks, ropes, tents, tooth brushes, belts, sleeping bags, curtains, parachutes etc.

Question 5.
List the characteristics of synthetic fibres which make them popular dress material.
Answer:
Characteristics of Synthetic Fibres:
Synthetic fibres possess the following unique characteristics:

They are durable.
They are less expensive.
They dry up quickly.
They are readily available.
They are easy to maintain.
It is easy to wash and does not wrinkle.
These characteristics make them popular dress material.

Question 6.
What happens when different synthetic fibres like Nylon, Polyester and Acrylic burn in air ?
Answer:
On burning the different fabrics, the following results are obtained :

1. Nylon	Burns with difficulty, fabric shrinks from flame, forming hard beads, smells of burning hair.
2. Polyester	Same as nylon, produces a black smoke on burning.
3. Acrylic	Shrinks from flame forming a black bead and a sooty flame.

Question 7.
Why plastic material like polythene is preferred over natural materials ?
Answer:
Advantages of Plastic material over Natural Material. Following are some advantages of plastic material (polythene etc.) over natural materials:

It is cheaper and can be made on a large scale.
It is light weight and can be easily transported.
It is unbreakable, corrosion free, tough and flexible.
It can be easily moulded.

Question 8.
Give uses of polythene.
Answer:
Uses of Polythene.
Polythene sheets are used for packing, satchels are used for packaging milk, polythene containers and pipes are used for storing and transporting water, oil and other materials. Polythene is also used as a water-proofing material.

Question 9.
Give some uses of PVC.
Answer:
Uses of PVC. PVC is used to make bottles, floor coverings, rain coats, soles of shoes, sandals and leather like materials.

Question 10.
What is blended fabric ? Why is it more comfortable to wear them than fabrics from pure synthetic fibres ?
Answer:
Blended Fabric (Polycot and Polywool).
It is a mixture of synthetic (man-made) and natural fibres such as terrycot (polyester and cotton fibres), terrywool etc. Pure synthetic fibres do not absorb sweat so well, so they stick to the body in hot weather. Some synthetic fibres catch fire very easily. To overcome this defect, synthetic fibres are mixed with natural fibres to make blended fabrics.

Question 11.
What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances ?
Answer:
Biodegradable Substances.
Substances which are decomposed by microbes (bacteria) are known as biodegradable substances. Bodies of dead animals, human excreta and many other substances are decomposed into simpler compounds or elements by bacteria. Such substances are biodegradable substances.

Non-biodegradable substancs.
Those substances which are not decomposed into simpler compounds by naturalprocessesor or bacteria are known as non-biodegradable substances.

Question 12.
What are natural and synthetic polymers ?
Answer:
1. Natural Polymers. The polymers which occur in nature and are obtained from plants and animals e.g. rubber, starch, cellulose, proteins etc. are called natural polymers.

2. Synthetic Polymers. The polymers which do not occur in nature and have been synthesised in laboratory are called synthetic polymers. These are also called manmade polymers e.g. polythene, poly-vinyl chloride, teflon, bakelite etc.

Question 13.
Suggest some ways to reduce the use of plastic materials.
Answer:
Plastic is non-biodegradable and is therefore, not environment friendly. The best way to reduce its use is to follow the 4R principle, which is as follows:

Reduce – use less
Reuse – use again
Recycle – cycle again
Recover – get again

Question 14.
Which way the plastic/polythene bags and wrappers thrown carelessly be harmful to animals ?
Answer:
The plastic/polythene bags and wrappers thrown carelessly after use are swallowed by stray animals. These plastic made materials are non-biodegradable either choke the respiratory canal of the animals or forms a lining in their stomach resulting in the cause of their death.

Question 15.
In which ways excessive use of plastic materials is harmful for environment and society ?
Answer:
Plastic is harmful for environment and the man in the following ways:

Since Plastic is synthesised from petrochemicals so its excessive use would lead to exhaustion of non-renewable petrochemical the reserve of which is limited.
Plastic is non-biodegradable and clogs the drains and sewage system if thrown carelessly after use which usually happens.
Plastic does not burn completely and releases lots of poisonous fumes in the atmosphere causing air pollution.
Sometimes carelessly thrown plastic/polybag are swallowed by animals resulting in their death.

Question 16.
Why it is not advised to wear polyester clothes while working in a kitchen ?
Answer:
Polyester is a synthetic fibre. It easily catches fire and melts so that it sticks to the body causing harmful and painful burns. That is why women are advised not to wear polyester clothes while working in kitchen.

Question 17.
As a sensible and responsible citizen what measures would you adopt in your individual capacity to keep public places free from plastic ?
Answer:

I would not throw plastic carry bags in water bodies and on the road after use.
While going to market for shopping I would take cotton or jute bag with me or I would insist on the shopkeeper to give me paper bag.
I would use steel lunch box instead of one made from plastic.

Question 18.
Four students planned to climb the top of mountain. They have selected the rope according to the table shown below. Which student has selected the correct rope and why ?

Name of the Students	Rope
Inderjeet	Cotton
Gopal	Silk
Saloni	Nylon
Karamjit	Wool

Answer:
Saloni has choosen the correct rope because the rope of nylon is stronger than silk and wool.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give uses of the following:
(a) Polyester fibres
(b) Teflon
(c) Polythene
(d) Polypropylene
Answer:
(a) Uses of Polyester Fibres:

Polyester fibres are used in textile industry for making a variety of clothes, such as sarees, dress materials, curtain clothes, etc.
Polyester fibres mixed with natural fibres are used for making blended textiles such as terrycot (mixed with cotton), terry wool (mixed with wool).
It is used for making sails of sail boats.
It is used for making water hoses for fire fighting operations.

(b) Uses of Teflon:

It is used for coating inside of non-stick cooking utensils.
It is used in the manufacture of seals and gaskets.

It is used in the manufacture of bags, toys and pipes.
It is used for covering electric cables because it is a good electrical insulator.

(d) Uses of Polypropylene:

It is used to prepare seat covers.
It is used for making ropes, fishing nets etc.

Question 2.
State four important properties and uses of nylon fibres.
Answer:
Properties of Nylon Fibres:

Nylon fibres are very strong.
Nylon fibres absorb very less water. Therefore, these can be dried rapidly.
Nylon is wrinkle resistant and keep permanent creases.
Nylon fibres have high wear and tear resistance and therefore, have longer life.

Use of Nylon:

Nylon is used for a large number of purposes where high strength fibres are required.
Nylon is used for making parachute fabrics, fishing nets, tyrecord, ropes, stockings (socks) and other textiles.
Nylon is mixed with wool to make long-lasting fabrics.

Question 3.
Give the properties common to Nylon and Polyester fibres.
Answer:
Properties of Nylon and Polyester Fibres:

Nylon and polyester fibres are very strong threads in comparison to silk, cotton, and wool.
Both the threads have excellent resistance to wrinkles.
Both the threads absorb very little water, so they dry out quickly.
They have the high abrasion resistance and are not attacked by moths.
Ordinary chemicals have no effect on them.
They are lightweight and fine in texture.
They are insoluble in common solvents.

Question 4.
What is plastic? What are its different types? Give properties of plastics which render them as a material of choice. Also, give its uses.
Answer:
Plastic. It is a polymer like synthetic fibre.
Example. Polythene

Types of Plastic. All plastics do not have the same arrangement of units. There are two types of plastics: One has a linear arrangement of units and the other has a cross-linked arrangement of units.

Properties of Plastics:

Plastic is not attacked by air and water. That is they are non-reactive and non¬corrosive.
Plastic is light, strong, and durable.
Some plastics can be easily deformed on heating and some others do not soften on heating.
Plastics are poor conductors of heat and electricity.

Uses of Plastics:

In Health Care Industry. Plastics find extensive use in the Health care industry for packaging tablets, threads used for stitching wounds syringes, doctor’s gloves, and many other instruments.
In Kitchen Cookwares. Plastic is used for making special cookwares to be used in micro-ovens which can withstand high temperatures.
In making non-stick cookwares on which Teflon, a kind of plastic is used, oil and water do not stick.
Fire Proof Plastics. Melamine plastic is used for coating the uniforms of firemen. This makes the uniform flame resistant.