PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Chemical Effects of Electric Current Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of ……………….. , ………………. and ………………. .
(b) The passage of an electric current through a solution causes ……………….. effects.
(c) If you pass current through copper sulphate solution copper gets deposited on the plate connected to the ………………… terminal of the battery.
(d) The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material, by means of electricity is called ……………………… .
Answer:
(a) acid, bases, salts.
(b) chemical
(c) negative (- ve)
(d) electroplating.

Question 2.
When the free ends of a tester are dipped in a solution, the magnetic compass needle shows deflection. Can you explain the reason ?
Answer:
Deflection of compass needle is due to conduction of electricity through the solution because the solution is good conductor.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Question 3.
Name three liquids, which when tested in a manner shown in fig. may causes the magnetic needle to deflect.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 1
Answer:

  1. Acid
  2. Base
  3. Acidulated water.

Question 4.
The bulb does not glow in the setup shown in fig. List the possible reasons. Explain you answer.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 2
Answer:
The set up shows no glowing of the bulb but it does not mean that liquid is not conducting electricity. Liquid may be so weak electrolyte that it can not make the bulb glow. So, to test it for surity, LED can be used, which glows for very minute currents.

Question 5.
A tester is used to check the conduction of electricity through two liquids labelled A and B. It is found that the bulb of the tester glows very brightly for liquid A while it glows dimly for liquid B. You would conclude that.
(i) liquid A is better conductor than liquid B.
(ii) liquid B is better conductor than liquid A.
(iii) both liquids are equally conducting.
(iv) conducting properties of liquids cannot be compared in this manner.
Answer:
(i) Liquid A is better conductor than liquid B.

Question 6.
Does pure water conduct electricity ? If not, what can we do to make it conducting ?
Answer:
Pure water does not conduct electricity but it can be made good conductor by adding few drops of dil. sulphuric acid. The water so obtained is called acidulated water.

Question 7.
In case of a fire, before the firemen use the water hoses, they shut off the main electrical supply for the area. Explain why they do this.
Answer:
Pure water is an insulator but tap water is a good conductor of electricity. To avoid electrocuting, firemen manually shut off the supply before using water hoses.

Question 8.
A child staying in the coastal regions tests the drinking water and also the sea water with his tester. He finds that the compass needle deflects more in case of sea water. Can you explain the reason ?
Answer:
Since sea water is rich in salt concentration. So, compass needle is more deflected in sea water as compared to the drinking water available in coastal areas.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Question 9.
Is it safe for electrician to carry out electrical repairs outdoor during heavy downpour ? Explain.
Answer:
No, it is not safe for a wireman to carry out electrical repairs during heavy down pour because water (Impure) is a conductor of electricity. So, wireman can get electric shock.

Question 10.
Paheli had heard that rain water is as good as distilled water. So she collected some rainwater in a clean glass tumbler and tested it using a tester. To her surprise she found that compass needle showed deflection. What could be the reasons ?
Answer:
No doubt, rain water is pure like distilled water. But then environment is contaminated with many impurities. These impurities get dissolved in rain water, making it a conductor of electric current.

Question 11.
Prepare a list of objects around you that are electroplated.
Answer:
Electroplated objects.

  1. Handle bar of cycle.
  2. Wheel rims.
  3. Artificial ornaments.
  4. Bath taps.
  5. Kitchen gas burners.

Question 12.
The process that you saw in Activity 14.7 is used for purification of copper. A thin plate of pure copper and a thick rod of impure copper are used as electrodes. Copper from impure rod is sought to be transferred to the thin copper plate. Which electrode should be attached to positive terminal of the battery and why ?
Answer:
Thick rod of impure copper is to be attached to positive terminal of battery as pure copper moves to electrode connected to negative terminal of the battery.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chemical Effects of Electric Current Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In order to keep the flow of electricity continue in circuit, which of the following items should be used in place of iron nail in the given circuit.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 3
(a) Graphite
(b) Plastic
(c) Wood
(d) Rubber.
Answer:
(a) Graphite.

Question 2.
Pankaj knows that pure water is bad conductor of electricity. If you dissolve salt in water then what will happen ?
(а) Water will become good conductor of electricity.
(b) Water will remain bad conductor of electricity.
(c) Water will neither be a good conductor nor a bad conductor of electricity.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Water will become good conductor of electricity.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Question 3.
Which out of the following is insulator of electricity ?
(a) Acid
(b) Bases
(c) Pure water
(d) Solutions of salt
Answer:
(c) Pure water

Question 4.
Which out of the following is not an insulator ?
(a) Rubber
(b) Plastic
(c) Wood
(d) Copper
Answer:
(d) Copper

Question 5.
What is the effect of passing electric current through the solution of electrolytes ?
(a) Magnetic effect
(b) Heat effect
(c) Chemical effect
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Chemical effect.

Question 6.
Which effect of electric current is used in electroplating ?
(a) Magnetic effect
(b) Chemical effect
(c) Heat effect
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Chemical effect

Question 7.
The availability of some amount of impurities make water:
(a) conductor
(b) insulator
(c) pure
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) conductor.

Question 8.
A tester is used to check the conduction of electricity through two liquids labelled A and B. It is found that the bulb of the tester glows very brightly for liquid A while it glows dimly for liquid B, you would conclude that:
(а) Liquid A is better conductor than liquid B
(b) Liquid B is better conductor than liquid A
(c) Both liquids are equally conducting
(d) Conducting properties of liquids cannot be compared in this manner.
Answer:
(a) liquid A is better conductor-than liquid B.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is human body a conductor or an insulator ?
Answer:
Conductor.

Question 2.
What are conductors ?
Answer:
Conductors.
Materials like silver, copper, aluminium, iron and human body etc. which allow electric current to pass through them, are called conductors.

Question 3.
What are insulators ? Give two examples.
Answer:
Insulators.
Materials like wood, rubber, silk, plastic etc. which do not allow electric current to pass through them, are called insulators.

Question 4.
Do all liquids allow electric current to pass through them ?
Answer:
No.

Question 5.
What is LED ? ,
Answer:
LED-Light Emitting Diode.

Question 6.
Name the phenomenon of breaking up of a chemical compound under the action of electric current.
Answer:
Electrolysis.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Question 7.
What do we get on electrolysis of acidulated water ?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas and Oxygen gas.

Question 8.
Which effect of current is used in electroplating ?
Answer:
Chemical effect.

Question 9.
Which effect of current makes a bulb glow ?
Answer:
Heating effect.

Question 10.
How can small current be tested ?
Answer:
By using LEDs.

Question 11.
Name different effects of electric current.
Answer:

  1. Heating effect,
  2. lighting effect,
  3. chemical effect and
  4. magnetic effect.

Question 12.
Is air an insulator ?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 13.
Name few liquids which can conduct electricity.
Answer:
Lime water, lemon juice, vinegar, tap water.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Question 14.
Can conductors be classified as insulators or vice versa under special conditions ?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 15.
Which commonly used liquids can conduct electricity ?
Answer:
Solution of acids, bases and salts.

Question 16.
What are electrodes ?
Answer:
Electrodes.
Metallic rods or plates immersed in electrolytes to make contact with battery, are called electrodes.

Question 17.
By which phenomenon cheap articles are coated with gold or expensive metals ?
Answer:
Electroplating.

Question 18.
Is electroplating useful process ?
Answer:
Yes.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Air is a bad conductor of electricity. Show with an experiment.
Answer:
Air-a bad conductor of electricity.
Take a battery bulb and connect it to a cell and a switch. When the switch is fixed with a safety pin then the current flows and bulb glows, but when safety pin is removed then there is only air between the gap of switch and current does not flow. It shows that air is bad conductor of electricity.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Question 2.
What is electrolysis ?
Answer:
Electrolysis.
Breaking up of chemical compounds under the action of electric current, is called electrolysis. When we pass electric current through water (acidulated), it breaks up into its constituents : hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is liberated at the cathode whereas oxygen is liberated at the anode.

Question 3.
What is electroplating ?
Answer:
Electroplating.
Process of electrolysis is used to deposit thin layers of valuable metals (like zinc, silver or gold) on cheaper metals by the passage of electricity through electrolyte to save them from rusting whereas to give them a decorative look. This process is called electroplating.

Question 4.
Give a brief account of LED.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 4
LED.
It is light emitting diode. It glows even when the current is .very small. It consists a bulb with two legs called leads. One leg is longer and other leg is shorter.
Longer leg is attached to +ve terminal of battery and shorter leg is attached to -ve terminal.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is water a good conductor ? What happens when common salt is added to water ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 5
Pure or distilled water is an insulator.
Experiment.
Dip two carbon rods in distilled water and connect it to a bulb, 6 V battery and a key. The bulb will not light up showing that distilled water is a bad conductor of electricity.

Now replace distilled water by water mixed with common salt. The bulb will at once light up, when key is introduced. This shows that distilled water is perfectly insulator, impure water specially one containing common salt is highly conducting.

Question 2.
What is electroplating ? Give its uses.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 6
Electroplating.
It is the process by which a costlier metal is deposited on base or cheap metal by passing current through its salt solution. When an electric current is passed through an electrolyte (the compound) breaks up into its constituent ions.

Positive ions are attracted towards cathode (negative electrode) and negative ions are attracted towards anode (positive electrode). This process of electrolysis is used in plating materials with a thin coat of metals is called electroplating.

Uses of Electroplating:

  1. Iron is electroplated with nickel or chromium to prevent it from rusting.
  2. Artificial jewellery, made from cheap metals is electroplated with expensive metals like gold and silver to give it an attractive look.
  3. Handle bars of cycle, wheel rims, car parts etc. are coated with chromium to give a shiny look.
  4. Tin cans are made by electroplating a layer of tin on the iron.

Question 3.
How can a spoon be copper plated ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 7
Experiment.
Take a spoon that is to be electroplated with copper. Take a copper plate and make it anode by connecting it to the positive terminal of the battery. The spoon is connected to the negative terminal of the battery. A rheostat (Variable resistance); key and ammeter are also connected in series as shown. CuSO4 solution is put in a glass vessel. A rheostat is adjusted till a proper current flows through electrolyte [For best electroplating 1A of current should be passed for every 100 cm2 of the surface to be electroplated say if the area of a spoon on both sides is 60 cm2, a current of 0.6 A should be passed.] Pass the current for 5-10 minutes, till a layer of shinning copper is seen deposited on a spoon.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions  Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Stars and the Solar System Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the solar system?
[a] An asteroid
[b] A satellite
[c] A constellation
[d] A comet
Answer:
[d] A comet.

Question 2.
Which of the following is NOT planet of the sun?
[а] Sirius
[b] Mercury
[c] Saturn
[d] Earth
Answer:
[a] Sirius.

Question 3.
Phases of the moon occur because
(a) we can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.
(b) our distance from the moon keeps changing.
(c) the shadow of the earth covers only a part of moon’s surface.
(d) the thickness of the moon’s atmosphere is not constant.
Answer:
(a) We can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks.
(а) The planet which is farthest from the sun is …………………….. .
(b) The planet which appears reddish in colour is …………………… .
(c) A group of stars that appear to form a pattern in the sky is known as a …………………….. .
(d) A celestial body that revolves around a planet is known as ………………………. .
(e) Shooting stars are actually not ………………………………….. .
(f) Asteroids are found between the orbits of ……………………. and …………………………… .
Answer:
(a) Neptune
(b) Mars
(c) Constellation
(d) Satellite
(e) Stars
(f) Mars, Jupiter.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 5.
Mark the following statements as true (T) or false (F) :
(a) Pole star is a member of our solar system. ()
(b) Mercury is the smallest planet of the solar system. ()
(c) Uranus is the farthest planet in the solar system. ()
(d) INSAT is an artificial satellite. ()
(e) There are nine planets in the solar system. ()
(f) Constellation Orion can be seen only with a telescope. ()
Answer:
(a) (T)
(b) (T)
(c) (F)
(d) (T)
(e) (F)
(f) (F).

Question 6.
Match items in column A with one or more items in column B
Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Inner planets (a) Saturn
(ii) Outer planets (b) Pole star
(iii) Constellation (c) Great Bear
(iv) Satellite of the earth (d) Moon
(e) Earth
(f) Orion
(g) Mars

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Inner planets (e) Earth
(g) Mars
(ii) Outer planets (a) Saturn
(iii) Constellation (c) Great Bear
(f) Orion
(iv) Satellite of the Earth (d) Moon

Question 7.
In which part of the sky can you find Venus if it is visible as an evening star?
Answer:
In west part of the sky.

Question 8.
Name the largest planet of the solar system.
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 9.
What is a constellation? Name any two constellations.
Answer:
Constellations are small groups of stars appearing in the space having specific common shapes. All the stars of a group always stay together and their positions are fixed relative to each other e.g. Ursa Major.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 10.
Draw sketches to show the relative positions of prominent stars in
(a) Ursa Major
(b) Orion.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 1

Question 11.
Name two objects other than planets which are members of the solar system.
Answer:
Asteroids, Meteors, Natural satellite.

Question 12.
Explain how you can locate the Pole Star with the help of Ursa Major.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 2
Ursa major changes its position in the sky after every three hours, it appears to revolve around fixed star. This fixed star is pole star.

Question 13.
Do all the stars in the sky move? Explain.
Answer:
All the stars except pole stars, appear to move in the sky from east to west as the earth rotates from west to east about its axis. Pole star is situated in the direction of axis of the earth, so it appears to be stationary.

Question 14.
Why is the distance between stars expressed in light years? What do you understand by the statement that a star is eight light-years away from the earth?
Answer:
Distance between the stars is very large. It is of the order of millions or billions kilometres. So, it is not convenient to express the distance in kilometres. So another larger unit called light-year is used to express distance between the stars. It can be defined as distance travelled by light in one year.

When a star is 8 light-years from the earth it means, light with speed of 3 × 108 m/sec, takes 8 years to cover that distance from earth to that star.
Now 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m
.’. 8 light years = 8 × 9.45 × 1015 m
= 75.6 × 1015 m
So, earth is 7.56 x 1016 m away from the given star.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 15.
The radius of Jupiter is 11 times the radius of the Earth. Calculate the ratio of the volumes of Jupiter and the Earth. How many Earths can Jupiter accommodate?
Answer:
Let R be radius of the Earth.
then volume of the Earth = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^{3}\)
and volume of Jupiter = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^{\prime 3}\)
= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \pi(11 \mathrm{R})^{3}\) [as R’= 11R]
Now Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Volume of the Earth }}{\text { Volume of the Jupiter }}=\frac{\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^{3}}{\frac{4}{3} \pi(11 \mathrm{R})^{3}}=\frac{1}{1331}\)
or 1:1331

Question 16.
Bojo made the following sketch of the solar system. Is the sketch correct ?.’If not, correct it.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 3
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 4

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Stars and the Solar System Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Parvinder saw a constellation in the sky in a clear dark night. Name this constellation.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 5
(a) Saptarishi
(b) Orion
(c) Cassiopia
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Sapatrishi.

Question 2.
The planet which is nearest to the sun?
(a) Earth
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Mercury.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 3.
Which planet is called red planet?
(a) Mars
(b) Mercury
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(a) Mars

Question 4.
Which is the brightest planet at night?
(a) Mercury
(b) Earth
(c) Venus
(d) Mars
Answer:
(c) Venus.

Question 5.
The planet which is farthest from the Sun is :
(a) Neptune
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mercury
(d) Earth
Answer:
(a) Neptune.

Question 6.
Name the first Indian Artificial satellite.
(a) INSAT
(b) IRS
(c) Arya Bhatta
(d) Kalpana-I
Answer:
(c) Arya Bhatta.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 7.
Name the planet of the solar system where life exists.
(a) Mercury
(b) Earth
(c) Mars
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(b) Earth.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not the member of solar system?
(a) An asteroid
(b) A satellite
(c) A constellation
(d) A comet
Answer:
(c) A constellation.

Question 9.
Which of the following is not planet of the solar system?
(a) Sirius
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Earth
Answer:
(a) Sirius.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the star closest to earth other than sun.
Answer:
Alpha century.

Question 2.
How much time does light take to reach us from Alpha century.
Answer:
4.3 years.

Question 3.
Which constellation looks like a big kite with a tail?
Answer:
Ursa-major constellation.

Question 4.
Name the constellation which looks like a cluster of twinkling gems in the night sky.
Answer:
Pleides constellation.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 5.
Define a light year.
Answer:
Light year. It is the distance travelled by light with a speed of 3,00,000 km/ hr in one year.
1 light year = 9.46 × 1012 km.

Question 6.
How far is the sun from the earth?
Answer:
The sun is at a distance of 1.5 × 108 km from the earth.

Question 7.
Which planet is known as the red planet?
Answer:
Mars.

Question 8.
Which planet rotates on its axis from East to West?
Answer:
Uranus.

Question 9.
Which force hold the planets in their orbits around the sun?
Answer:
Gravitational force of the sun holds the planets in their orbits around the sun.

Question 10.
What are Asteroids?
Answer:
Asteroids. The small solid objects made up of rocks and minerals, which move in the gap between the orbits of the Mars and Jupiter are called Asteroids.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 11.
What are meteorites?
Answer:
Meteorites are small chunks of rock or metal that are leftovers of broken comets. They are called meteors while falling through the atmosphere and appearing as streak of light. But those meteors that fall on the earth surface are called meteorites.

Question 12.
What are phases of moon?
Answer:
The shape of the bright part of the moon changes slightly every day. These are called phases of moon.

Question 13.
What is an artificial satellite?
Answer:
Artificial Satellite. It is an object which is made to revolve around the earth or any object.

Question 14.
Write two uses of artificial satellites.
Answer:
Uses of Artificial Satellites. Artificial satellites are used for long-distance communication, research, remote sensing and defence.

Question 15.
Which planet has maximum of satellites?
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 16.
Why is Pole star stationary?
Answer:
It is because pole star is situated on the axis of the earth.

Question 17.
Which is natural satellite of the earth?
Answer:
Moon.

Question 18.
Why can’t Moon surface be used for communication?
Answer:
It is because moon has no atmosphere.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 19.
Which is the biggest planet of the solar system?
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 20.
Which is the nearest planet of the earth?
Answer:
Mars.

Question 21.
In which part of the sky and at what time of the year are the following constellations seen? Scorpio, Great Bear, Pole Star and the Orion.
Answer:
1. Scorpio is visible in summer.
2. Great bear (Saptarishi) is visible in autumn.

  • Pole star is visible in north throughout the year.
  • Orion (Vyadha) is visible in winter in southern sky only.

Question 22.
When was Halley’s comet last seen?
Answer:
In 1986.

Question 23.
Name the nearest and the farthest planet from the sun.
Answer:
The nearest planet from the sun is Mercury and the farthest planet is Neptune.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How can you identify Ursa Major?
Answer:
Identification of Ursa Major. It is a group of seven bright stars. It appears like a large ladle or a question mark. The two stars marked 1 and 2 at the top of the ladle are called Pointers, as the line joining them points towards the polar star.

Question 2.
What are planets? How many planets are there in the solar system? Name them.
Answer:
Planets. The bright objects in the night sky which don’t twinkle like the stars and appear to change their positions with respect to the stars are called planets. In the solar system, there are nine planets. These are: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Pluto and Neptune.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 3.
Give three points of difference between a star and planet.
Answer:
Differences between star and planet.

Star Planet
1. They are very hot. 1. They are not very hot.
2. They emit their own heat and light. 2. They reflect the sun’s energy falling over them.
3. They twinkle. 3. They don’t twinkle.
4. They are dot-shaped. 4. They are disc-shaped.
5. They travel in the sky from East to West. 5. They travel in sky around the sun from West to East.

Question 4.
Why is life possible of the earth?
Answer:
The earth has sufficient oxygen and water necessary for life. The temperature on earth is suitable for the existence of life. Also there is an ozone layer around earth which prevents the habitants from the harmful solar radiations. Therefore, all the conditions for the evolution of life are fulfilled on the earth.

Question 5.
Do all the stars of a constellation lie really close together?
Answer:
The various stars forming a constellation are rarely close to each other in space. The stars are in the same direction but at quite different distances from us. They appear to our eye was close together, although they are not really so.

Question 6.
Name the planets which can be identified with naked eye.
Answer:
Besides our own earth, we can identify only five other planets with naked eye. These planets are Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter and Saturn.

Question 7.
What is the solar system? Name the planets situated between the sun and the earth.
Answer:
Solar System. The sun and its family i.e. planets, satellites, asteroids, comets, etc. is called as solar system. The sun is at the centre of the solar system and all members of the solar system are revolving around the sun in elliptical paths, called orbits. The planets situated between the sun and the earth are Mercury and Venus.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 8.
What is pole star and why is it important?
Answer:
Pole Star. All the stars except one, appear to be shifting their positions in the sky. There is only one star called pole star, which does not shift its position. It is lying in North above the north pole on the axis of rotation of the earth. It is used as a direction finder by sailors and those working in, offshore drilling operations.

Question 9.
Differentiate between a star and a shooting star.
Answer:
Differences between a star and a shooting star :

Star Shooting Star
1. A star is made up of hot gases such as hydrogen and helium. 1. A shooting star is made up of rock and metal particles.
2. A star emits light due to the nuclear reaction taking place in it. 2. A shooting star emits light due to the heat produced by friction on entering the atmosphere.
3. The size of a star is very big. 3. The size of a shooting star is very small. It may be as small as a dust particle.

Question 10.
What are meteors or the shooting stars?
Answer:
Meteors or the Shooting Stars. You must have seen certain objects which appear to fall from the sky leaving a streak of light. They are also called shooting stars. Word ‘STAR’ is in fact misleading since they are neither themselves stars nor in any way connected with stars. These are pieces of rock floating in space.

When these floating rocks enter the earth’s atmosphere, they experience a lot of friction of air and get burnt. They appear as a ball of fire falling towards earth emitting intense light. Most of these burn up in atmosphere. When a meteor is very large, it does not burn up completely and reaches the earth. This piece reaching the earth and sea is called Meteorite.

Question 11.
Represent Solar system in a tabular form.
Answer:
Solar system can be represented as
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 6

Question 12.
What is light year? How is it expressed in meters.
Answer:
Light year. We know that light travels nearly a distance of 3 × 108 m in one second or 3,00,000 km in one second. Light year is the distance travelled by light in
1 year or in 365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days.
∴1 light year = 365 \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 24 × 60 × 60 × 3 × 108 m/s
or 1 Light year = 9.46 × 1015 m

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 13.
Why do the heavenly bodies seem to move from east to west?
Answer:
The heavenly bodies seem to be moving from east to west because earth rotates on its imaginary axis from west to east whereas it appears to us that earth is stationary. That is why various heavenly bodies appear to us moving from east to west. Earth completes one round on its axis in 24 hours.

Question 14.
Define the following terms :
1. Planet
2. Satellite
3. Period of rotation.
Answer:
1. Planet. The celestial bodies which revolve around the sun are called planets, e.g., Mercury, Earth and Venus.

2. Satellite. The celestial bodies which revolve around the planets are called satellites. Moon is a satellite of earth. Some other bodies also have satellites.

3. Period of rotation. The time taken by a planet to complete one rotation on its axis is called period of rotation.

Question 15.
Which is the brightest among all the planets and why?
Answer:
Venus is the brightest planet among all the planets. The bright appearance of Venus is due to its cloudy atmosphere, which reflects almost three-fourth of the sunlight that falls on it.

Question 16.
There is very much difference between the temperatures of Mercury and Venus planets, while there is not so on the earth and the Mars planets. Why?
Answer:
Mercury and Venus are the nearest neighbours of the sun. There is no thick atmospheric cover around them that can work like a heat cover. But these planets are so nearest to the sun that they cannot save themselves from the sunlight and are heated very much. They become most coolest after the sunset.

Only the Earth and Mars are such planets where there is a balance between the atmospheric cover and their distance from the sun. Therefore, there is not much difference in the day and night temperatures of both the planets due to this balance.

Question 17.
Why are the Mercury and the Venus known as morning or evening stars?
Answer:
The Mercury and the Venus are known as morning or evening stars because both can be seen near the horizon immediately before the sunrise and after the sunset. At this time, these appear like the brightest star.

Question 18.
What are the conditions favouring life to flourish on earth?
Answer:
Following are the conditions that favour life to flourish on earth :

  • Oxygen is present in the atmosphere of the earth which is necessary for respiration for all the organisms.
  • Presence of water for the biological process on the earth.
  • Due to proper distance of the earth from the sun, there is proper temperature on the earth.
  • Presence of protective ozone layer around the earth which protects us from the ultraviolet radiations of the Sun.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a solar system?
Answer:
Solar System: Solar system consists of the Sun, a large number of asteroids between Mars and Jupiter. There are large number of comets or shooting stars which move in highly elliptical paths. The planet nearest to the sun is Mercury followed by Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. Whereas mercury is the smallest planet, Jupiter is the largest one.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 7
The planets rotate about the sun in elliptical path as well as spin about their own axis [Fig. (6)]. The nearest star to our solar system is Alpha Centauri and is about 4.3 light-years away from us. Brightest star Sirius is about 8.7 light-year from us.

Fig. (a) shows the motion of different planets around the sun (not to the scale). Shape of solar system resembles an inverted saucer with all planets. Sun dominates the solar system and accounts for 99.9% of total matter of the whole system. The sun is the source of all the energy in solar system. Earth receives almost all the energy from the sun.

Question 2.
What is meant by Uttrayan and Dakshinayan?
Answer:
Uttrayan and Dakshinayan. We generally say that the Sun rises in the east and sets in the west. This is only partially correct because the position of rising sun changes every day. Let us perform a time-consuming experiment to stress our point. Note down the direction of rising sun on the sky.

Repeat the observation every week. A continuous change will be observed. From summer solstice (around June 21), the point of the sun shifts towards south. The sun is said to be in dakshinayan (moving south). This continues till winter (around December 22). After this sunrise changes its direction and stars move towards north. Now it is said to be in Uttaryan (moving north). Only on March 21 and September 23, the sunrise in the east and sets in the west.

Question 3.
What are terrestrial and Jovian Planets?
Answer:
Terrestrial planets. Four planets near to the Sun i.e. mercury, venus, earth and mars are called terrestrial planets. Their structure is similar to that of the earth. These are small planets and have a thin atmosphere on them.
Jovian planets are larger in size than terrestrial planets.

These planets are made of mainly hydrogen and helium. These planets, namely Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune are so-called because their structure is similar to Jupiter. They have a number of moons around them and some have rings around them. Their temperature, gravity etc. are such that life can never be possible on them.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Comets’.
Answer:
Comets: Comets are heavenly bodies which revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical path. Comets appear in the sky as a ball of fire with a tail. Tail always points away from the sun. Lesser the distance it has from the sun, longer is the tail. Comets are composed of rock-like material surrounded by large masses of easily vaporised substances like water, ammonia, methane etc. When comets approach the sun, some of its material is vaporised due to heat of the sun. Light of the sun exerts pressure on these vapours and force them away Tail is longest and from the comet in the form of a tail.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 8

Question 5.
Write various uses of artificial satellites.
Answer:
Uses of Artificial Satellites. Various uses of artificial satellites are as follows :

  • They can be used to forecast weather.
  • They facilitate radio and television programme transmission.
  • Artificial satellites enable long-distance telephone communication.
  • They help to locate mineral and metal deposits.
  • Artificial satellites fitted with telescopes and software programmes gather and process data on space phenomena, thus enhancing our knowledge and understanding of the universe.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 13 Sound Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Sound

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Sound Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer.
Sound can travel through
(a) gases only
(b) solids only
(c) liquids only
(d) solids, liquids and gases.
Answer:
(d) solids, liquids and gases.

Question 2.
Voice of which of the following is likely to have minimum frequency ?
(a) Baby girl
(b) Baby boy
(c) A man
(d) A woman.
Answer:
(c) A man.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 3.
In the following statements, tick T against those which are true, and F against those which are false:
(a) Sound cannot travel in vacuum.
Answer:
True

(b) The number of oscillations per second of a vibrating object is called its time period.
Answer:
False

(c) If the amplitude of vibration is large, sound is feeble.
Answer:
False

(d) For human ears, the audible range is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
Answer:
True

(e) The lower the frequency of vibration, the higher is the pitch.
Answer:
False

(f) Unwanted or unpleasant sound is termed as music.
Answer:
False

(g) Noise pollution may cause partial hearing impairment.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks with suitable words.
(a) Time taken by an object to complete one oscillation is called ………………….
(b) Loudness is determined by the ………………. of vibration.
(c) The unit of frequency is ……………… .
(d) Unwanted sound is called ………………… .
(e) Shrillness of a sound is determined by the …………………. of the vibration.
Answer:
(a) Time period,
(b) amplitude,
(c) Hertz (Hz),
(d) noise,
(e) frequency.

Question 5.
A pendulum oscillates 40 times in 4 seconds. Find its time period and frequency.
Number of oscillations
Solution:
Frequency = PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound 1
= \(\frac{40}{4}\)
= 10 Hz.
Time period = \(\frac{1}{\text { Frequency }}\)
= \(\frac{1}{10}\)
= 0.1 s.

Question 6.
The sound from a mosquito is produced when it vibrates its wings at an average rate of 500 vibrations per second. What is the time period of the vibration ?
Solution:
Frequency 500 vibrations = 500 Hz
Time period = ?
We know, time period = \(\frac{1}{\text { Frequency }}\)
= \(\frac{1}{500}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 1}{2 \times 500}\)
= \(\frac{2}{1000}\)
= 2 × 10-3 s

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 7.
Identify the part which vibrates to produce sound in the following instruments ?
(a) Dholak
(b) Sitar
(c) Flute.
Answer:

Instrument Vibrating part
(а) Dholak Stretched membrane
(b) Sitar String
(c) Flute Air column.

Question 8.
What is difference between noise and music ? Can music become noise sometime ?
Answer:
Differences between noise and music:

Noise Music
1. It is an unpleasant sound. 1. It is a pleasant sound.
2. It causes discomfort. 2. It has a soothing effect.
3. It can lead to health problems. 3. No health problems are associated with it.

Yes, music can become noise when music is too loud, then it becomes a noise.

Question 9.
List sources of noise pollution in your surroundings.
Answer:
Sources of noise pollution:

  1. Sounds of vehicles.
  2. Loudspeakers.
  3. Working Machines.
  4. Bursting of crackers.
  5. Desert coolers.
  6. Radios and televisions at high volumes.
  7. Kitchen appliances.
  8. Hawkers.

Question 10.
Explain in what ways noise pollution is harmful to humans.
Answer:
Harmful effects of noise pollution:

  1. Lack of sleep.
  2. Hypertension.
  3. Anxiety.
  4. Partial deafness.

Question 11.
Your parents are going to buy a house. They have been offered one on the roadside and another three lanes away from the roadside. Which house would you suggest your parents should buy ? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Parents should buy a house three lanes away from the roadside because roadside house has many disadvantages such as:

  1. Lot of noise due to passing vehicles.
  2. Smoke and dust produced by running vehicles.
  3. Sound of loud horns of vehicles at the time of traffic jams.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 12.
Sketch larynx and explain its function in your own words.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound 2
Function of Larynx.
When air passes through the vocal cords, they produce sound. Vocal cords may become loose/thick or tight/thin on vibration, thus causing different types of voices.

Question 13.
Lightning and thunder take place in the sky at the same time and at the same distance from us. Lightning is seen earlier and thunder is heard later. Can you explain why ?
Answer:
The speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s while that of sound is only 340 m/s. So, lightning and thunder although taking place simultaneously in the sky at the same distance will be seen and heard at different intervals of time.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Sound Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The unit of frequency is:
(a) dB
(6) Hz
(c) dB and Hz
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Hz.

Question 2.
The intensity of disagreeable sound for human ear is
(a) 60 dB
(b) 10 dB
(c) 90 dB
(d) 30 dB.
Answer:
(c) 90 dB.

Question 3.
Ultrasonic sound is:
(a) Sound of frequency less than 20 Hz
(b) Sound of frequency more than 20 KHz
(c) Sound of frequency 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Sound of frequency more than 20 KHz.

Question 4.
Speed of sound at 20°C is approximately:
(a) 430 m/s
(b) 304 m/s
(c) 340 m/s
(d) 3400 m/s
Answer:
(c) 340 m/s

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 5.
The intensity of sound at ordinary inhale is:
(a) 10 dB
(b) 20 dB
(c) 60 dB
(d) 70 dB.
Answer:
(a) 10 dB.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is sound ?
Answer:
Sound. It is a form of energy which produces in us the sensation of hearing.

Question 2.
How is sound produced ?
Answer:
Sound is produced by vibrations of a body.

Question 3.
Will sound travel in vacuum ?
Answer:
No, it will require some medium.

Question 4.
Does sound travel in gases ?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 5.
Does sound travel in liquids ?
Answer:
Yes.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 6.
Does sound travels in solids ?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 7.
On what factor does loudness of sound depend ?
Answer:
Loudness of sound depends upon the amplitude of vibrating body.

Question 8.
If an object makes 10 oscillations in a second, then what is its frequency ?
Answer:
10 Hertz.

Question 9.
Will the sound travel faster, in wood or water ?
Answer:
In solids, the sound travels faster than liquids. So sound will travel faster in wood than in water.

Question 10.
Sound is produced when objects …………………. .
Answer:
Sound is produced when objects vibrate.

Question 11.
The number of oscillations per second is called …………………… .
Answer:
The number of oscillations per second is called frequency.

Question 12.
We can respond to the frequency of sound more than ……………….. hertz and less than ……………… hertz.
Answer:
We can respond to the frequency of sound more than 20 hertz and less than 20,000 hertz.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 13.
Name the section of throat in which the human voice is produced.
Answer:
Larynx.

Question 14.
Name the characteristics of sound which help us to distinguish different sounds.
Answer:
The characteristics of sound which distinguish different sounds. The pitch or loudness of the sound.

Question 15.
What is the audible range of human ear ?
Answer:
Audible Range. The human ear responds to sounds having frequencies 20 hertz to 20,000 hertz.

Question 16.
Define the term pitch.
Answer:
Pitch. A sensation depending upon the frequency is known as the pitch.

Question 17.
Which sound has higher frequency ? Sound produced by a buzzing mosquito or sound produced by roaring lion.
Answer:
The frequency of sound produced by a buzzing mosquito will be more than the frequency of sound produced by a roaring lion.

Question 18.
Write the following frequencies in their increasing order:
(i) Voice of a child
(ii) Voice of man
(iii) Voice of a woman.
Answer:
Voice in increasing order of their frequencies:
Voice of a man < Voice of a child < Voice of a woman.

Question 19.
How do we hear sound ?
Answer:
When sound waves travelling through air strike our ears, diaphragm of ear starts vibrating. These vibrations reach the ear nerves by small bones and send the messages to our brain and which we hear.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 20.
What is length of vocal cords in man ?
Answer:
About 20 mm.

Question 21.
Unpleasant sounds are called ………………. .
Answer:
Noise.

Question 22.
Which sound is produced by musical instruments ?
Answer:
Musical sound.

Question 23.
What is unit of loudness of sound ?
Answer:
Decibel (dB).

Question 24.
Name an instrument with pleasant sound.
Answer:
Harmonium/Guitar/Piano.

Question 25.
What is hearing impairment ?
Answer:
The disability to hear sounds is hearing impairment.

Question 26.
What are causes of hearing impairment ?
Answer:
Ear disease, injury, age and loud noise.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 27.
Give an example of loud noise.
Answer:

  1. Sound produced by machinery in a factory.
  2. Loudspeakers at full volume.

Question 28.
At which unit, sound becomes harmful ?
Answer:
More than 80 dB (Average factory range).

Question 29.
Which is the major cause of noise pollution ?
Answer:
Vehicles.

Question 30.
Which natural organism is important to reduce noise pollution ?
Answer:
Plants and trees.

Question 31.
What is noise pollution ?
Answer:
Noise Pollution. Presence of excessive or unpleasant sound in the atmosphere is called, noise pollution.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the term time period, frequency and amplitude.
Answer:
Time Period.
It is the time taken by a vibrating particle to complete one vibration.

Frequency.
The number of oscillations per second is called the frequency of the oscillation. Frequency is measured in hertz [Hz].

Amplitude.
The maximum distance through which a vibrating body is displaced from its central resting position, is called amplitude of oscillations.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 2.
One astronaut speaks with another astronaut on Moon. Can the other astronaut listen to the first astronaut ?
Answer:
There is no atmosphere on the moon, thus, the astronauts cannot listen to each other. Therefore, a material medium is required for the propagation of sound.

Question 3.
Sound produced by a mosquito is quite different from the roar of a lion. Explain.
Answer:
The loudness of sound depends upon the amplitude of the wave. A mosquito produces sound by the vibration of its wings, in open air while the lion roars by the vibration of its vocal chords. The amplitude of the sound produced by mosquito will be less than the sound produced by a lion. The pitch and quality of the two sounds is quite different, which makes the two sounds different and distinguishable.

Question 4.
Explain with simple experiment to show that sound propagates through solid substance.
Answer:
Experiment.
Connect two empty match boxes by tying them with the two ends (15 to 20 m long). Request your friend to keep one match box close to his ear. By stretching the string speak into one match box. Sound will be heard very clearly by your friend. This shows that sound can propagate through solids.

Question 5.
How is the human voice produced ?
Answer:
Production of Human voice.
The human voice is the result of vibrations. It is produced in the larynx, a section of the throat. Muscles in the larynx tighten the vocal cords. Air from the lungs rushes past the tight stretched cords and causes the vocal cords to vibrate. The vibrations produced in the vocal cords produce the sound or the voice.

Question 6.
What are ultrasounds ?
Answer:
Ultrasound.
Our ear does not respond to sounds of frequencies less than 20 hertz or greater than 20,000 hertz. Sound of frequency greater than 20,000 hertz is called ultrasonic. The instrument used for producing ultrasonic sound is ultrasonic CT.

Question 7.
What are the uses of ultrasonic sound ?
Answer:
Uses of ultrasonic sound:

  1. Dogs can listen ultrasonic sounds. So to call their dogs people use ultrasonic sounds.
  2. In medical science, ultrasonics are used for forming the images of internal organs of human body.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Question 8.
A boy claps his hands in front of stair-case and hears a musical sound. Explain.
Answer:
The distance of each step of stair case increases from the boy. When a boy claps, sound will not strike all the steps simultaneously but it will strike in short and regular intervals. The reflected sound from them will be received by the ear in the form of a number of waves at regular intervals. Thus a periodic disturbance produces a musical sound.

Question 9.
Give an activity to prove that sound travels faster in water than in air.
Answer:
Sound travels faster in water (liquids) than in air, we can prove this fact by the following activity.
Activity. Take a longer balloon and fill it with water. Hold it close to your ear and scratch it gently with index finger on the farther side of the balloon. A sound will be heard. Repeat this experiment with air-filled balloon. On comparing the two sounds, it is proved that sound travels faster in water than in air.

Question 10.
What is noise ? What is its unit ?
Answer:
Noise.
The unpleasant sounds which are not soft and sweet are known as noise such as sound of machines, automobiles, crackers, etc.
The unit of voice is Decibel (dB).
Noise level is 0-120 dB.

Question 11.
State one difference between noise and a musical sound.
Answer:
Noise is a sound, which produces disagreeable (jarring) effect on the ear. On the other hand, musical sound produces pleasing effect on the ear of the listener.

Question 12.
How do children with impaired hearing communicate ?
Answer:
Children with impaired hearing communicate using sign language and with technically developed devices.

Question 13.
Identify the part which vibrates to produce sound in the following instruments ?

Sr. No. Musical Instrument Sound producing part
1. Flute
2. Dholak

Answer:

Sr. No. Musical Instrument Sound producing part
1. Flute Air column
2. Dholak Stretched membrane

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an activity to show that sound needs medium to be heard.
Answer:
Sound needs medium.
Sound produced by a vibrating object reaches our ears due to vibrations of the molecules of the medium (air) in succession. If there is no air between the vibrating object and our ear, we would not hear any sound at all. We can study this by the following activity.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound 3
Activity.
Take a wooden stick and hold one end close to your ear. Ask your friend to scratch the other end gently, you will hear the sound.

This activity shows that sound can travel through wood. Sound can travel through liquids as well. You can check this by filling a balloon with water. Hold a water filled balloon close to you ear and scratch the opposite surface of the balloons with your finger.You will again hear sound. Now do the same experiment with an air-filled balloon. This time the sound heard is very feeble in comparison.
Thus, we conclude that sound requires a medium to be heard.

Question 2.
What is noise pollution ? What are its causes and its effects ?
Answer:
Noise pollution.
The unwanted sound which is not soft and is disagreeable to the ear, is called noise. The presence of loud sound in atmosphere is only noise pollution.

Causes of noise pollution.

  1. The loud sounds produced by machines in factories.
  2. Loud speakers.
  3. Generators.
  4. Railway stations.
  5. Air ports.
  6. Music programmes.
  7. Crackers.

Effects of noise pollution:

  1. The worst effect of noise pollution is deafness.
  2. It raises the heart beat.
  3. It also effects the pupil of eyes, thus causing night blindness or colour blindness.

Question 3.
What is music? Name the various types of vibrating objects used in
different kinds of musical instruments.
Answer:
Music.
Music is the arrangement of the sound of different frequencies called notes or Swara in a way that it produces a pleasing effect on the ear.
In musical instruments, we use vibrating objects such as strings, membranes, and columns of air. There are, thus, three families of musical instruments:

  1. Stringed instruments (tantu vadya) e.g. violin, sitar, etc.
  2. Wind instruments or reed instruments (sushir vadya) e.g. the flutes or the shahnai.
  3. Membranous instruments (avanaddha vadya). Many of these are percussions or rhythm instruments e.g. tabla or mridangam.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions  Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB Sports and Discipline Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the relation between Sports and Discipline?
Answer:
Sports have a very deep relation with discipline because one cannot achieve victory without discipline in sports. Sports causes development in the behaviour of player/sportsperson. Discipline plays an important role in building up the character of a player and without discipline, a good character cannot be developed. Lack of discipline causes several problems in the life of a player which further gets tough for the player to overcome.

No example can be better than that of the ‘Nature’, everything is disciplined as far as the functioning of Nature is concerned. For example; the sunrise and sunset always occur timely and with strict discipline; earth revolves around the sun with a fixed speed and time, likewise, there must be a proper and strict discipline in the life of an individual as well.

If an individual wants to become a successful player, he/she should practice discipline right from childhood because discipline can be developed aptly in one’s childhood. Sports teach discipline to the player in a way because sports demand obedience, co-operation, honesty, peace of mind and responsibility, which in turn brings discipline in the life of a player. It can be concluded that discipline is the key to success, and discipline can be easily achieved through sports.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Question 2.
What is the meaning of Discipline?
Answer:
Meaning of Discipline. Discipline means to follow the rules strictly or everybody should perform all his duties. Every citizen should remain in discipline. “Discipline makes a nation great” is a well-known saying. If every citizen is disciplined, the nation can make rapid progress. By abiding all rules and regulations, a citizen can make his contribution to his society or country.

Question 3.
What are the types of discipline?
Answer:
Types of Discipline.
Discipline is of two types:

1. Self Discipline
2. Forced Discipline or Commanded Discipline.

1. Self Discipline:
The feeling of abiding by the rules comes from his own and perform his duties without any external command. This is permanent discipline.

2. Forced Discipline.
In forced discipline the rules and regulations are followed by command or the directions of someone. This type of discipline is temporary. Forced discipline will remain only upto that time when you have a fear of someone or a person who commands on your head. Out of these, self discipline is better. Children must have the feeling to be self-disciplined, so that they may become good students or good citizens.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Question 4.
What is the need and importance of discipline?
Answer:
Importance of Discipline in our life. Discipline is a milestone of our society. Without discipline man can’t move in society. If every citizen is disciplined the nation can make rapid progress. By abiding the rules, a good citizen can make his contribution to his society or country. Discipline is the base of every caste, creed, society and country. In every sphere of life, Discipline is needed. Importance of Discipline is known by the following facts:

  • Discipline makes a good student an ideal citizen.
  • Disciplined boys learn to respect their teachers, parents and elders.
  • Through Discipline children become obedient.
  • Disciplined children behave nicely with others.
  • Disciplined boys become punctual.
  • Discipline develops the personality of a person.
  • Discipline develops good habits and good qualities in a person.
  • Discipline helps to reform social life.
  • Discipline makes the society and the nation more strong.
  • Discipline makes a nation strong and keeps it strong.
  • Discipline helps the society and country for its progress and happy life of their citizens.
  • Discipline helps a person to lead a successful and happy life.
  • Discipline also protects the country from foreign invaders.
  • Discipline helps to run school, house and other organisations smoothly.
  • Discipline helps a person for his harmonious development of his personality.
  • Disciplined labour can increase the production of their factory.
  • Discipline assists a person for his mental development because a person performs his duties after proper thinking and according to rules.

One should remain in discipline to lead a successful life. Home, School, Play fields are such places where a person gets an opportunity to remain in discipline.

Question 5.
How do the sports create discipline in Hie life of the students?
Answer:
Sport and discipline are integral part of each other. Victory can not be achieved without discipline. Sports build the character of the players. Discipline plays an important role in character. building. Character building is impossible without discipline because indiscipline creates many problems in the life of a player. It becomes difficult for a player to overcome these problems. The nature works in discipline. The sun rises in the east in the morning and sets in the west in the evening.

The earth moves in an order. Similary discipline is very important in the life of a human being. We can teach discipline in better way to the children. Sports create discipline in the innocent mind of the children. Sports teaches them to be disciplined because sports teaches punctuality, coordination, leadership, honesty, and sense of responsibility to fulfil their duties. Discipline is the key to success because it creates opportunity to succeed.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide Sports and Discipline Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Types of discipline :
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answers:
(A) Two

Question 2.
Importance of discipline:
(A) Children become obedience.
(B) Disciplined boys behave good with others.
(C) Discipline causes to do the work on time.
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(D) Above all.

Question 3.
Sports and discipline are related:
(A) There is discipline in sports.
(B) Discipline develops character in sports man.
(C) Without discipline character cannot be developed.
(D) Above all.
Answers:
(D) Above all.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Question 4.
These qualities belongs to:
(A) Punctuality
(B) Obedience
(C) Tolerance
(D) All above in discipline.
Answers:
(D) All above in discipline.

Question 5.
Why indiscipline is harmful for the country?
(A) Country cannot remain happy.
(B) Country cannot progress.
(C) Country will depend on other countries.
(D) All Above.
Answers:
(D) All Above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by obeying the rules or remain in control?
Answer:
Discipline.

Question 2.
On which thing the ancient institution used to stress mostly?
Answer:
To be disciplined.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Question 3.
How students behave these days in their institutions?
Answer:
Indiscipline.

Question 4.
How is the nation built and how it remains stable?
Answer:
Through discipline.

Question 5.
What type of education discipline provides to the children?
Answer:
Obedience.

Question 6.
Discipline develops the personality. How?
Answer:
Mental development.

Question 7.
How the quality of discipline is improved?
Answer:
Games and sports.

Question 8.
Whose important place is there to instil discipline in students.
Answer:
The important place to instil discipline in student is teacher.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Children learn discipline at Home. How?
Answer:
Home is the first school of Discipline for children. Parents, grandmother, grandfather; uncle and aunty, brothers and sisters live together in a house. The elder person in family leads it in all activities. All other follow him according to the sweet will of his elders. Everyone love each others and respect to the elders. Everybody share their happy and sorrows. They had very congenial and wholesome atmosphere of his family. All the members of the family perform their duties. In such congenial atmosphere children remain in discipline. They start to be in discipline from his house in their childhood, small children respect elders and follow them.

Question 2.
How sports developed discipline in students.
Answer:
School and discipline. Atmosphere of the school provides training to the students for discipline. In school, students respect their teachers and obey them. They live together with their friends and co-students. Playing, and sitting together become their habits. They attend their school in time and do their home work regularly. They are afraid of theft and telling lie and help each other. These qualities become part and parcel of their character.

All the teacher obey the order of the headmaster and other workers follow him in carrying the order of the teacher, everything is performed in a disciplined way in the school. The students start learning discipline in such type of atmosphere of the school. In this way, environment of school is helpful in teaching their students about discipline.

Question 3.
Do our society and our country need discipline? Write your ideas.
Answer:
Man is a social animal. He has to depend upon others for the satisfaction of many of his needs. He cannot live alone. He cannot fulfil all his desires all alone. We have to take help from one another in some work. We can not disobey the rules of our society. To imbide the rules of our society we have to remain in discipline people can get benefits by obeying Laws in other fields of life. The society will be stable if we remain in discipline. Indiscipline is harmful for the society.

Law treats all men as equal. Therefore, it is the duty of every person to obey Law. Law are made for the welfare of the people . Our society and country are facing so many troubles from outside and within the country to safe the country from foreign invasion. Everyone should obey rules and laws in life and lead an organised and disciplined life. A country can progress only if has inhabitants leads disciplined life. For the progress of the country the whole society must be disciplined. Indiscipline is not in favour of the country. We should not go against the country. So we can say that our society and country needs Discipline.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Sports and Discipline

Question 4.
Why indiscipline is harmful for the country?
Answer:
It is the duty of every citizen to obey laws and to be disciplined.

  • Indiscipline is harmful to our society.
  • For the development and progress of the country discipline is the need of the hour. Discipline has great importance for the citizen of the country to develop and for stability.
  • Indiscipline is very very harmful to the nation.
  • Students, labourers, and so many others employees, of Govt, and private institutions go on strike and destroy the national property. Such type of indiscipline is not in favour of the welfare of our country.

Everybody is aware that he can play an important role to form government because government is for the people, by the people and of the people. Laws are made by the government and the people has to obey these Laws. If the countrymen are indisciplined it causes internal disturbance, thereby causing foreign forces to attack. So a country cannot progress due to indiscipline.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Crop Diversification Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
Which cropping system is adopted in the sub-mountainous regions?
Answer:
Rice-Wheat.

Question 2.
Which is the main cropping system in southwestern region?
Answer:
Cotton-Wheat.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 3.
Give examples of multiple cropping systems.
Answer:
Maize-potato-moong, groundnut-potato-bajra.

Question 4.
How much water table is depleting every year in central Punjab due to cultivation of rice crop?
Answer:
Approximately 74 cm per year.

Question 5.
Which bacterium helps in nitrogen fixation?
Answer:
Rhizobium.

Question 6.
Which fertilizer can be saved in Dhaincha-Basmati-wheat cropping system?
Answer:
Nitrogen fertilizer.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 7.
Which crops are imported by India from foreign countries?
Answer:
Pulses, oil seed crops.

Question 8.
How many days before basmati transplanting, green manure should be incorporated in the field?
Answer:
Just before a day.

Question 9.
What percentage of area is under irrigation in Punjab state?
Answer:
98%.

Question 10.
How many tubewells (no.) are there in Punjab?
Answer:
Approximately 14 lakhs.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
What do you mean by crop diversification?
Answer:
Crop diversification refers to cultivation of alternate crops by reducing area under conventional crops like wheat and rice and by increasing area under the crops like-maize, pulses, basmati, sugarcane, potato, oilseed crops, etc.

Question 2.
Which crops can be grown in dry land areas?
Answer:
Oil seed crops can be grown in such land areas.

Question 3.
Enlist maize based cropping systems.
Answer:
Maize-potato-summer moong or sunflower, maize-potato or toria- sunflower, maize-potato-onion or mentha and maize-gobhi sarson moong.

Question 4.
Enlist fodder based cropping systems.
Answer:
Maize-Berseem-Bajra, Maize-Berseem-Maize or Cowpea.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 5.
Write significance of intensive cropping system.
Answer:

  • High yield can be taken from small land holding.
  • Climate changes can be tackled.
  • Use of chemical fertilizers is reduced.
  • Balanced nutrition in maintained and employment opportunities are increased.
  • Agro-ecosystem is maintained and it helps in conserving natural resources.

Question 6.
Which enterprises can be adopted in integrated farming system?
Answer:
Following enterprises can be adoped in integrated farming system-

  • Fish farming
  • Cultivation of fruits
  • Cultivation of vegetable
  • Dairy farming
  • Rabbit farming
  • Pig farming
  • Goat farming
  • Bee keeping
  • Poultry farming
  • Agroforestry like poplar.

Question 7.
Write about source of irrigation in Punjab.
Answer:
Approximately 98% of area in Punjab is under irrigation. There are nearly 14 lakhs tubewells in Punjab. Canal irrigation is also adopted.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 8.
Name the alternate crops which can be cultivated in central Punjab over rice-wheat
Answer:
Maize, Potato, Pea, Sugarcane, Basmati, Sunflower, Muskmelon, Chilli and other vegetables.

Question 9.
Write the names of main crops cultivated in sub-mountainous region.
Answer:
Main crops cultivated in sub-mountainous region are-wheat, maize, paddy, basmati, potato, oil seed crops and peas.

Question 10.
Which cropping systems should be adopted in areas having light soils?
Answer:
Groundnut based cropping system can be adoped in light soils, e.g. gsoundnut-potato or toria or wheat, groundnut- potato-bajra (fodder), groundnut- toria or gobhi sarson.

(C) Answer in five to six sentences:

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 1.
What do you mean by crop diversification? Write about its aim and significance?
Answer:
Crop diversification:
Crop diversification refers to cultivation of alternate crops by reducing area under conventional crops; like, wheat and rice and by increasing area under the crops like-maize, pulses, basmati, sugarcane, potato, oilseed crops etc.

Aim: Aims of crop diversification are:

  • Judicious use of natural resources and conserving them for future and for long time.
  • To get more income by investing less on growing crops.
  • To get out of the same crop rotation cycle so that soil and water remain conserved.

Significance:
Rice-wheat cropping cycle requires 215 cm water in a year and out of this water 80% is consumed by rice crop. Cultivation of rice is damaging the physical and chemical properties of the soil. For the last 50 years area under cultivation of rice has increased at the cost of area under groundnut, oil seed crops, cotton, pulses etc. Crop diversification is the reverse of this process and lot of water is saved and soil health is also improved.

Question 2.
Why there is need for crop intensification? Describe in detail with examples?
Answer:
Intensive cropping system means sowing more than two crops in a year. Crops are sown in the time between the harvesting of first crop and sowing of next crop.
Need for crop intensification:

  • High yield can be taken from small land holding.
  • Climate changes can be tackled.
  • Use of chemical fertilizers is reduced.
  • Balanced nutrition is maintained and employment opportunities are increased.
  • Agro-ecosystem is maintained and it helps in conserving natural resources.

Cultivation of leguminous crops help in increasing the soil fertility by fixation of nitrogen with rhizobium. This saves nitrogen fertilizers. Important multiple cropping patterns are –

  • Green manuring based; e.g. Jantar-Maize etc.
  • Maize based; e.g. maize-potato-moong or sunflower.
  • Soyabean based ; e.g. soyabean-wheat-cowpea
  • Groundnut based; e.g. – Groundnut – potato-toriya,.
  • Green fodder based; e.g. – Maize – berseem- bajra.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 3.
Write about the problems related to agriculture in Punjab.
Answer:
Problems related to agriculture in Punjab are as follows:

  • After green revolution Punjab remained stuck in the crop cycle of paddy and wheat. Due to cultivation of these two crops water table is going down and excess use of chemicals like weedicides, pesticides and fertilizers etc. has damaged the health of the soil and also badly affected the chemical and physical properties of the soil.
  • Area under oil seed crops and pulses is reducing.
  • Due to heavy rainfall in south-western zone there exists problem of soil erosion.
  • Water level is going down by 74 cm every year and farmers have to use submersible motor for lifting water,
  • which adds to the cost of cultivation.
  • New species of insectes and weeds are being generated.
  • Biodiversity is decreasing.
  • Climate changes are taking place.

Question 4.
What is integrated farming system? Describe in detail with examples.
Answer:
In Integrated farming system a farmer can adopt one or two additional enterprises other than agriculture. This way farmer can increase his income and his family members can also help in the “’enterprise. (Integrated forming system IFS) helps in meeting the nutritional food requirements of the family. Some of the enterprises which a farmer can adopt from:

  • Fish farming.
  • Cultivation of fruits
  • Cultivation of vegetables
  • Dairy farming
  • Rabbit farming
  • Pig farming
  • Goat farming
  • Bee keeping
  • Poultry farming
  • Agroforestry like, poplar.

Question 5.
What do you mean by inter cropping system? Describe with examples.
Answer:
Intercropping system. Inter cropping is also called mixed cropping system. Inter cropping is done to get high yield from small land holding, get higher income and to fulfil requirements of the population.

Due to increase in factories, expansion of residential areas, land under cultivation is decreasing day by day. Therefore, it is the need of the hour to obtain maximum yield from the available land. For this inter cropping is done e.g. Maize or moong, Arhar or moong, Soyabean or moong, Maize or soyabean, Maize or maize for green fodder or groundnut, Cotton or maize etc. Due to intercropping there is no bad effect on the yield of the main crop. This system helps in maintaining the soil fertility. Problem of weeds is also reduced to large extent.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Crop Diversification Important Questions and Answers

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How much land is under the cultivation of rice?
Answer:
Approximately 28.3 lakhs hectare.

Question 2.
How much land is under the cultivation of wheat?
Answer:
Approximately 35.1 lakhs hectare.

Question 3.
For the last 50 years, at the cost of which crops area under the cultivation of rice has increased?
Answer:
Groundnut, oil seed crops, sugarcane, pulses.

Question 4.
How much water is consumed by rice-wheat crop cycle in a year?
Answer:
215 cm.

Question 5.
How much water is consumed by rice crop out of total water consumed in a year by rice-wheat crop cycle?
Answer:
80%

Question 6.
How much total area in Punjab is under the cultivation of various crops?
Answer:
41.58 lakhs hectare.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 7.
In how many zones has Punjab been divided on agroclimatic basis?
Answer:
Three zones-sub mountainous zone, central zone, south-western zone.

Question 8.
Submountainous zone lies at foothills of which hill?
Answer:
Himalayan foothills.

Question 9.
How much area under sub-mountainous region is covered by Kandi belt?
Answer:
Approximately 9%

Question 10.
Which is the main crop cycle in Punjab?
Answer:
Wheat-rice.

Question 11.
Which crop rotation cycle is adopted in South-Western Zone?
Answer:
Cotton-Wheat.

Question 12.
What is the quality of ground water in south-western zone?
Answer:
Its is saline or saline sodic.

Question 13.
Name the crops used as green manure.
Answer:
Jantar, Rawanh (Cowpea).

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 14.
If maize is to be sown then for how many days before green manure should be ploughed in the fields?
Answer:
8-10 days before sowing maize.

Question 15.
Dried bits of which crop can be used as green manure?
Answer:
Summer moong.

Question 16.
How much protein content is contained in soyabean?
Answer:
35-40%.

Question 17.
Which crop contributed a lot in bringing white revolution?
Answer:
Fodder crops.

Question 18.
How much fodder is given to cows and buffaloes on daily basis for higher milk yield?
Answer:
40 kg green fodder.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 19.
Write vegetable based crop system for villages which are near to city.
Answer:
Cauliflower-tomato-ladyfinger.

Question 20.
Write vegetable based crop system for villages which are far away from city.
Answer:
Potato-ladyfinger-early sown cauliflower.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about Kandi area?
Answer:
It is the nearly 9% area under the sub-mountainous zone.

Question 2.
What is the problem found in central zone of Punjab?
Answer:
The cropping cycle adoped in this zone is of wheat-rice and due to this cycle underground water is going down at the rate of 74 cm per year.

Question 3.
Why is soyabean best alternate for rice crop?
Answer:
Rice yield is decreased due to attack of insects and pests and diseases. Therefore, soyabean is best alternate for rice crop.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Crop Diversification

Question 4.
What is the advantage of inter cropping system?
Answer:
Inter cropping system is helpful in maintaining the fertility of the soil. Problem of weeds is also decreased to large extent.

Question 5.
Suggest vegetable cropping system for farms which are nearby city.
Answer:

  • Brinjal (long)- late cauliflower-bottle gourd
  • Potato – muskmelon
  • Spinach-knol khol- onion or green chilli or radish.
  • Cauliflower – tomato-ladyfinger.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Suggest maize based and soyabean based cropping systems.
Answer:
1. Maize based cropping system-
Some of the maize based cropping systems are:

  • Maize – Potato – Moong or sunflower.
  • Maize – Potato or toria – sunflower
  • Maize-potato – onion or mentha etc.

These cropping systems help in conserving the natural sources.

2. Soyabean based cropping system-
Soyabean based cropping system is-Soyabean – wheat- rawanh (Cowpea) (fodder)
Rice yield is decreased due to attack of insects and p@6ts and diseases. Therefore soyabean is best alternate for rice crop. Soyabean is a leguminous crop. It helps in fixing nitrogen in the soil and thus helps in maintaining the fertility of the soil. Soyabean is a good source of protein. It contains nearly 35-40% protein content. It is used to prepare soya milk, soya cheese, soyanutri etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one or two words:

Question 1.
How the land was measured in ancient time?
Answer:
Using a rope.

Question 2.
Which Emperor is called die founder of land reforms?
Answer:
Mughal Emperor Akbar.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 3.
How many acres are there in one hectare?
Answer:
2.5 acre.

Question 4.
How may marlas make one kanal?
Answer:
20 marlas.

Question 5.
In which states of India, Murababandi has been done in a systematic way?
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana.

Question 6.
In which decade, Murababandi was started?
Answer:
In the decade of 1950.

Question 7.
Which site is to be seen for Jammabandi?
Answer:
www.plrs.org.in

Question 8.
How many acres are there in a Muraba according to Murababandi Act?
Answer:
25-25 acre pieces of land.

Question 9.
At what time, Girdawary of Rabi crops is prepared?
Answer:
1 March to 31 March.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 10.
After how many years, new Jammabandi is carried out?
Answer:
Earlier it was after every four years and now after every five years.

(B) Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Who corrects the Girdawary of a disputed land?
Answer:
Girdawary of a disputed land can be got corrected in the court of Tehsildar.

Question 2.
What is Jammabandi?
Answer:
Jammabandi is an important document of Punjab land revenue act regarding the ownership of a land. Particulars which are mentioned in this are khepet number, khatauni, name of village pati, name of person according to his share in ownership, name of person who is existing cultivator and source of irrigation.

Question 3.
What is Intkaal?
Answer:
Transfer of ownership right from one owner of land to another owner is calld intkaal.

Question 4.
What instruments are required for measurement of land?
Answer:
Demarcation of the land on all four sides is called measurement. Patwari or Kanungo use shijra and zareeb to mark the length and breadth of the land according to the Khasra number.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 5.
What is Goshwara?
Answer:
Total of all cultivated crops in the form of a table is called goshwara.

Question 6.
What is Rehan or Mortgage?
Answer:
When owner of a land gives all or part of his land temporarily to another person for cultivation for mutually agreed amount and for fixed time, it is called mortgage.

Question 7.
What is Khraba/loss of crops, how it is assessed?
Answer:
When crop destroyed on large scale due to natural calamities like heavy rians, floods, attack of insects/pests, drought etc. is called Khraba. Loss or Khraba is assessed by assuming that production of crop in the area is 100%.

Question 8.
What is Shijra and what are its other names?
Answer:
Shijra is a piece (of cloth on which map of village is carved, Khasra numbers of all the land of village land are printed on it. It is also known as Kishatvar, Paarcha or Latha.

Question 9.
What is Murababandi and what are its benefits?
Answer:
Scattered pieces of land in the name of an owner are consolidated as one unit at one place, this is called Murababandi or chakbandi. Its
benefit is that every work related to land becomes easier.

Question 10.
What is Zareeb?
Answer:
Zareeb is a chain made up of iron rings and is used to measure land. It is 10 Karams long i.e. 55 feet long.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

(C) Answer in five to six sentences:

Question 1.
What is Girdawary and at what time it is done?
Answer:
It is a survey of the crops. It is called Girdawary or Gardaury. It is done twice in a year. For Rabi crops it is done in the month of March and for Kharif crops it is done in October. Additional Girdawari in also done for Jayad crops in the months of May and December for crops falling between Rabi and Kharif and between Kharif and Rabi season.

Question 2.
Why division of land is essential and how it is done?
Answer:
When there are two or more shareholders of a particular piece of land, then land is divided as per the consent of the shareholders, this is called division of land. After division of land each shareholder is the independent owner of his share of land. Now he can sell the land or mortgage his land. He can take loan against his land.

Question 3.
What is computerization of land record?
Answer:
All the land records have been computerized. The certified copies of Jammabandi and Intkaal can be obtained by paying requisite fee personally from nearby office of Sub-Tehsildar or Tehsildar. The land records can be seen at the site www.plrs.org.in.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 4.
What is Theka or Chakota or renting in or renting out of land?
Answer:
The owner of a land gives his land on rent to some other person for cultivation for fixed time period and fixed amount agreed on by both sides. The time period can be one year or two years or five years etc. This is called Theka Or Chakota.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on land registry.
Answer:
When a person who is owner of a piece of land, house, shop etc. mortgaged or sold the same to some other person, then an agreement is entered with photos with mutual consent of both parties in the register maintained in the office of Tehsildar. This is called registry. Registry Bai, Rehan share, transfer of ownership etc. are various types of registries.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who played important role in the work of measurement of land in the regime of Mughal emperor Akbar?
Answer:
Todar Mai.

Question 2.
Before the year 1580, how did people pay tax to the government?
Answer:
In the form of crop.

Question 3.
After the year 1580, in which form tax was paid to the government?
Answer:
In the form of cash.

Question 4.
What is the length of Zareeb?
Answer:
10 karam or 55 feet.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 5.
What is Musteel?
Answer:
A piece of 25 acre land is called Musteel.

Question 6.
How many columns are there in intkaal?
Answer:
It has 12 columns.

Question 7.
How many columns are there in Jammabandi form?
Answer:
1-12 Columns.

Question 8.
When is Girdawary of Kharif crop done?
Answer:
1 October to 31 October.

Question 9.
When is the Girdawary of Jmd crop done?
Answer:
May and December.

Question 10.
How is the loss of crop assessed?
Answer:
By assuming 100% production of crop.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 11.
1 foot a = …………..
Answer:
12 inches.

Question 12.
1 yard = ……………..
Answer:
3 feet.

Question 13.
1 furlong =…………….
Answer:
220 yards.

Question 14.
1 mile =……….. yard = ………… furlong
Answer:
1760 yard=8 furlong.

Question 15.
1 Karm =……….. inch =…………. foot
Answer:
66 inches=5.5 feet.

Question 16.
1 sq karm=…………. sarsahi
Answer:
1 sarsahi.

Question 17.
1 maria=…………… sarsahian
Answer:
9 sarsahian.

Question 18.
1 maria = ………… sq feet
Answer:
272.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 19.
1 maria = ………… sq yard
Answer:
30.

Question 20.
1 Kanal = ………. maria
Answer:
20.

Question 21.
1 Kanal =……… biswa
Answer:
12.

Question 22.
1 acre = …………. kanal
Answer:
8.

Question 23.
1 acre = ……….
Answer:
4000.

Question 24.
1 acre = ……. maria =……. sq foot
Answer:
160 maria=220 x 198 sq foot.

Question 25.
1 acre=………. sq metre
Answer:
4000.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Question 26.
1 biswa = ………. sq foot
Answer:
50.

Question 27.
1 Muraba/1 Musteel =………. acre
Answer:
25.

Question 28.
1 hectare =………….. acre
Answer:
2.5.

Question 29.
1 hectare =………… sq metre
Answer:
10000.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
At the time of Akbar, how was land tax paid?
Answer:
Earlier land tax was paid in the form of crops and since 1580 the tax was paid in the form of cash.

Question 2.
What are different types of intkaal?
Answer:
Types of intkaal are – Bai, Rehan, exchange, division etc.

Question 3.
Who enters the details in intkaal?
Answer:
Patwari makes enteries in the intkaal, kanungo checks the enteries as per the record. Tehsildar summons both the parties at a specified place and time, Numbardar verifies and Tehsildar approves it.

Question 4.
What type of ownership changes are entered in the Jammabandi?
Answer:
Rehan, Bai, unirrigated to irrigated, rental to crop sharing etc.

Question 5.
What is the reason for loss of crop?
Answer:
There are many reasons of loss or Kaharaba e.g. heavy rains, floods, attack of insects, pests etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Land Measurement and Documentation of Land Records

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Girdawary, land registry.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 2.
Write note on theka, division.
Answer:
Do yourself.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Nursery Raising Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
Which fungicide is used for vegetable seed treatment?
Answer:
Captan or thiram.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 2.
What is the optimum time for raising the nursery of tomato?
Answer:
First week of November, first fortnight of July.

Question 3.
When should the Chilli nursery be raised?
Answer:
Last week of October to mid of November.

Question 4.
Write the name of two summer season flowers.
Answer:
Sunflower, Zinnia.

Question 5.
Write the names of two winter season flowers.
Answer:
Gulashrafi, Ice plant.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 6.
What is the optimum time for raising nursery of eucalyptus?
Answer:
February-March or September-October.

Question 7.
What is the length of poplar cutting for nursery raising purpose?
Answer:
20-25 cm.

Question 8.
Write the method through which true to type plants can be produced.
Answer:
Vegetative propagation-cuttings.

Question 9.
What is the seed rate of onion for one acre?
Answer:
4-5 kg per acre.

Question 10.
Write the name of two fruits and flowers which are raised through budding.
Answer:
Mango, Guava, Apple, Pears.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
Which vegetables are raised through nursery?
Answer:
Capsicum, Brinjal, Onion, Tomato, Cabbage, Broccoli, Chinese Cabbage, Chills etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 2.
Write the seed rate and time of sowing for nursery raising of tomato.
Answer:
Vegetable Time of sowing of nursery Seed rate per acre Tomato First week of November, first fortnight of July 100 gram

Question 3.
Which are two winter season flowers and when these can be sown?
Answer:
Marigold, Gulashrafi; time of sowing: September to March.

Question 4.
Which fungicide is used against damping off of seedlings of vegetables?
Answer:
Seeds are treated with captan or thiram against damping off.

Question 5.
Which fruit plants are vegetatively propagated?
Answer:
Following fruit plants are vegetatively propagated-Mango, Guava, Plums, Citrus fruits, Peach, Grapes, Pomegranate, Fig, Apple, Pears etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 6.
Which fruit plants are grown through seed?
Answer:
Fruit plants whieh are grown through seed are-Papaya, Karonda, Jamun, Falsa etc.

Question 7.
Write ideal method of nursery raising of poplar.
Answer:
Nursery is raised from one year old plants. Cuttings should be 20-25 cm long and 2-3 cm in diameter. Treat the cuttings with ehlorpyriphos and emisan against termite and diseases. Time of nursery raising is mid January to mid February. By keeping one bud above the soil, plant the cuttings in the soil and keep the soil moist till sprouting starts.

Question 8.
How to collect the seed for preparation of Drake nursery?
Answer:
These seeds are collected in winter from healthy, well growing and tall plants. Best time for collecting seeds is from November-December.

Question 9.
Which are the methods for nursery preparation of fruit plants?
Answer:
Nursery raising for fruit plants is done by using seeds as well as by vegetative propagation. Vegetative propagation methods are-cuttings, budding, layering, grafting etc.

Question 10.
What are the advantages for preparation of plants through cutting?
Answer:
It is a very cheap method and easy also. Plants developed are uniform and of same heredity qualities.

(C) Answer in five to six sentences:

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 1.
How to develop plants through layering?
Answer:
This is a vegetative propagating method. In this method new plants are developed from mother plant while it remains attached to it. Layered shoots are encouraged to form roots while still attached with the plant. About 30 cm from the shoot tip remove the ring of bark and bury it in the soil keeping the end of shoot exposed. Keep the soil moist, roots will emerge after few weeks. Now separate the plant from the mother plant.

Question 2.
Describe the methods of budding.
Answer:
Budding is a vegetative propagation method. It involves the insertion of a scion on to the stock. A ‘scion’ is detached bud of a plant, while a ‘stock’ is the stem of parent plant. Buds should be taken from healthy plants which are known for their good quality fruits, and are disease free also. Cut in the bark of root stock should precisely match with the size of bud. Tie the bud tightly around the root stock keeping the bud exposed.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 3.
Descrbe briefly about the nursery raising of Sisham.
Answer:
Collect riped pods from healthy and straight trees in December to January. Nursery can be raised in poly bags or in seed beds. Suitable time for nursery raising is mid January-February and July-August. Soak the pods in cool water for 48 hours before sowing. Sow the seed at a depth of 1 to 1.5 cm. Seeds start germinating within 10-15 days after sowing. When plants become 5-10 cm high, thinning should be done and spacing should be 15 x 10 cm. For raising nursery 2-3.5 kg pods per acre are required. Nearly 60,000 plants can be obtained.

Question 4.
Describe the method of nursery raising of flowers.
Answer:
Flower nurseries are prepared on raised seed beds or in pots. Take soil, leaf mould, FYM each in 1: 1: 1 proportion and add 75 g super phosphate, 75 g CAN and 45 g murate of potash per m3 area. Mix all these properly. Thick layer of 2-3 cm of thin mixture is applied on raised seed beds. Sow seeds and cover with the same mixture and sprinkle water on these seed beds. Keep the soil of seed beds moist. It takes 30-40 days for nursery to become ready.

Question 5.
What are the methods for nursery preparation of fruit plants?
Answer:
Nursery can be prepared by two methods for fruit plants.
(1) Using seeds
(2) Vegetative propagation.

1. Nursery raising by seeds:
It is easy and cheap method to raise nursery from seeds. But the plants obtained are not uniform and also have different heredity traits and they may grow big in size. Management of such plants becomes very difficult.

2. Vegetative propagation:
There are four methods to raise nursery by using vegetative propagation.

  • By cuttings
  • Layering
  • Budding
  • Grafting.

Plants produced by this method are uniform and true to type plants. Plants grown by this method bear fruit early.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Nursery Raising Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 1.
What is the future of nursery raising occupation for vegetables with respect to income?
Answer:
It is very profitable occupation.

Question 2.
The land choosen for nursery rasing should get sun shine but for how many hours?
Answer:
At least 8 hours in a day.

Question 3.
Which type of soil is suitable for nursery raising?
Answer:
Sandy Loam or Clayey Loam.

Question 4.
What should be the size of seed bed prepared for nursery raising of vegetables?
Answer:
1.0 to 1.25 m, wide.

Question 5.
How much should be the height of seed bed prepared for nursery rasing of vegetables.
Answer:
15 cm.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 6.
What should be the length of seed bed prepared for nursery raising of vegetables?
Answer:
At least 3-4 m.

Question 7.
Which fungicide is used to treat the soil of seed bed prepared for nursery raising of vegetables?
Answer:
Formalin.

Question 8.
What is used to treat the seeds used for nursery raising?
Answer:
Captan or thiram.

Question 9.
What is the time of sowing of nursery for brinjal?
Answer:
October-November, February-March and July.

Question 10.
What is the time of sowing of nursery for early season cauliflower?
Answer:
May-June.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 11.
What is the time of sowing of nursery for mid season crop of cauliflower?
Answer:
July-August.

Question 12.
What is the time of sowing of nursery for late season crop of cauliflower?
Answer:
September-October.

Question 13.
What is the time of sowing of nursery for rabi onion?
Answer:
Mid October to mid November.

Question 14.
What is the time of sowing of nursery for Kharif onion?
Answer:
Mid March to mid June.

Question 15.
What is seed rate for sowing nursery of brinjal and capsicum?
Answer:
For brinjal seed rate is 400 gram per acre and for capsicum seed rate is 200 gram per acre.

Question 16.
What is seed rate for cauliflower (early season)?
Answer:
500 gram per acre.

Question 17.
What is seed rate for mid season and late season crop of cauliflower?
Answer:
250 gram per acre for both.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 18.
Cultivation of which flowers is profitable?
Answer:
Guldaudi, Dalhia, Seasonal flowers.

Question 19.
In how many days the nursery for flowers is ready?
Answer:
30-40 days.

Question 20.
Which fruit plants are prepared by cutting method of vegetative propagation?
Answer:
Pomegranate, Mango, Pears, Guava.

Question 21.
What should be the spacing between cuttings and what is the number of buds used for nursery raising for fruit plants.
Answer:
Spacing should be 6-8 inches and there should be 3-5 buds.

Question 22.
What is the name given to plant on which scion is fitted?
Answer:
Root stock.

Question 23.
Which type of grafting is done for mango?
Answer:
Side grafting.

Question 24.
Which are the plants for agroforestry?
Answer:
Poplar, Eucalyptus, Drake, Sisham.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 25.
What is the length and diameter of poplar cuttings?
Answer:
20-25 cm long and 2-3 cm diameter.

Question 26.
Which chemical is used to treat cuttings of poplar against termite and diseases?
Answer:
Chloropyriphos and emisan.

Question 27.
What is the suitable time for preparing nursery of poplar?
Answer:
Mid January to mid February.

Question 28.
After how many years poplar plants are ready to transplant in the field?
Answer:
One year.

Question 29.
What is suitable time for preparing nursery of Eucalyptus (Safeda)?
Answer:
February-March or September-October.

Question 30.
When are the seeds of Drake collected?
Answer:
November-December.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 31.
What is time of sowing for Drake?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 32.
How much time is taken by seeds of Drake for germination?
Answer:
Three weeks.

Question 33.
Which tree is state tree of Punjab?
Answer:
Sisham.

Question 34.
For how much time pods of sisham are to be soaked in cool- water before sowing?
Answer:
48 hours.

Question 35.
What is the seed rate for sisham for preparing nursery for one acre?
Answer:
2.0 to 3.5 kg pods.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which type of vegetables can be grown by nursery raising?
Answer:
Those vegetables, which can tolerate the transplanting shock, can be grown successfully by nursery raising.

Question 2.
Which land should be choosen for preparing nursery of vegetables?
Answer:
A land which gets sunshine for at least 8 hours a day. Land should be free from stones. There should be no big trees near the land which may cause shading.

Question 3.
Why sandy loam or clayey loam is best suited for preparing nursery of vegetables?
Answer:
This soil has required proportion of constituents like clay, sand, silt etc.

Question 4.
Write about the size of seed beds for preparing nursery of vegetables?
Answer:
Seed beds should be 1.0 to 1.25 m wide and 15 cm higher than ground level and should be 3-4 m in length.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 5.
After treating the soil, how to eliminate the effect of formalin?
Answer:
The effect can be eliminated by turning the soil in beds once a day for 3-4 days.

Question 6.
What should be the depth for sowing seeds in the nursery and what is row spacing?
Answer:
Seed should be sown at a depth of 1-2 cm and line spacing should be 5 cm.

Question 7.
Give some important points which you keep in mind while transplanting the seedlings?
Answer:

  • When seedlings are 4-6 weeks old, nursery is ready for transplanting.
  • Stop irrigating the nursery before 3-4 days of transplanting.
  • Transplanting should be done in the evening time’
  • Irrigate immediately after transplanting.

Question 8.
Write about fertilizers for preparing nursery of seasonal flowers.
Answer:
Fertilizer requirement for each one cubic metre is 75 gram, super phosphate, 75 gram CAN, 45 gram murate of potash, for equal proportion of soil, leaf mould, and FYM (in the ratio 1:1:1).

Question 9.
What problem may arise for fruit plants prepared from seed?
Answer:
Plants prepared from seed are not uniform, become large in size and it becomes difficult to manage them. They are also not hue to type plants.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising

Question 10.
Give one advantage of preparing plants by vegetative propagation?
Answer:
The plants prepared by this method are true to type plants and are uniform in size such plants bear fruit early. They bear fruits, which are uniform in size, colour and other characteristics.

Question 11.
Write about cuttings of poplar.
Answer:
Prepare cuttings from one year old plants but not from training and pruning of branches of old plants. Cuttings should be 20-25 cm long and 2-3 cm in diameter.

Question 12.
How will you save cutting of poplar from termite and diseases?
Answer:
Treat the cuttings with 0.5% solution of chloropyriphos 20EC and 0.5% Emisan solution separately against termite and diseases.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give method of taking leaves sample for different fruit plants.
Answer:

Fruit Method to take leaves samples
Mango Take 30 leaves of 5-7 months in March-April. The branch should be bearing flowers or fruits for taking leaves.
Alucha From the branches of the same year take 100 leaves of 3-4 months for mid-May to mid-July.
Peach From the branches of same year take 100 leaves of 3-5 months from mid-May to mid-July.
Guava Take 50-60 leaves from 5-7 months old branches (non-bearing) in August-October.
Citrus family Take 100 leaves 4-8 months old after fruiting is over in July to October.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Nursery Raising
Question 2.
What do you know about the grafting of mangoes?
Answer:
Mangoes are propagated through grafting. For this purpose stones of mango are sown in August in a well-prepared field. Germination takes place in 2 weeks. These seedlings are transplanted to nursery when leaves are still of light colour and are one-fourth of actual size. Seedlings become graftable upto April. Take a healthy scion for grafting. Remove leaves from this scion. In 7-10 days petioles drop and buds become swollen. Scion is ready for grafting. Give two 4 cm sized horizontal cuts separated by 1-2 cm. Give another cut on the stock at 15 cm height from ground level. Bark from this portion of rootstock is lifted away.

A slanting cut is given to the scion on the base and removes bark also. The length of the scion stick should not be more than 8 cm because the chance of breakage is more for a long stick. Prepared scion is inserted under the bark flap of rootstock. The bark flap is restored to its original position and the graft joint is tied using polythene strips of gauge 150-200 thickness. When scion growth starts the upper part of the rootstock is lopped. This method of propagation is used from March to October in Punjab. The success rate is lower from May to October.

Question 3.
What do you know about Nursery raising of Pear, Peach, and Alucha?
Answer:
1. Pear: Rootstock is Kainth or Batank (rootsucker). Tongue grafting is done during January-February whereas T budding is done from June to August. 1 to 3 years plants are transplanted in mid-February and aged plants are transplanted at the end of December.

2. Alucha (Plum): The plants are transplanted upto mid-January. Plants are in a dormant stage. The rootstock used is Kabul green gaze. The basal part of graft 5 to 7.5 cm is dipped in IAA 100 ppm solution for 24 hours.

3. Peach: These are propagated by budding or grafting. Rootstocks are Sharbati and Khurmani. The other variety Florida has lesser seeds thus is not used as rootstock.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D. Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB National Movement 1919-1947 A.D. Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
When and from which country Mahatma Gandhiji came back to India?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhiji came back in 1891 A.D. from England and then again came back to India from South Africa in 1915 A.D.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Satyagraha Movement?
Answer:
Satyagraha was one of the largest weapons of Mahatma Gandhi. According to it, he used to keep fast or to set on protest. Many a time he used to keep hunger strike.

Question 3.
Where and when Jallianwala Bagh tragedy occurred?
Answer:
Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh took place on 13th April 1919 A.D. at Amritsar.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Khilafat Movement?
Answer:
Indian Muslims believed that the Sultan of Turkey was their Khalifa and religious leader. He was not treated well by the British after the First World War. That’s why Muslims started a movement against the British which was known as Khilafat movement.

Question 5.
Write down the names of the persons who left their law practices during the non-cooperation.
Answer:
Moti Lai Nehru, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, C.R. Dass, Sardar Patel, Lala Lajpat Rai, etc.

Question 6.
When and why Simon Commission was appointed?
Answer:
Simon Commission was appointed in 1928 A.D. to check the Reform Act of 1919 A.D.

Question 7.
When and where, by whom was founded the Nau-Jawan Bharat Sabha?
Answer:
Nau-Jawan Bharat Sabha was founded by Sardar Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, Sukhdev and Bhagwati Charan Vohra at Lahore in 1926 A.D.

Question 8.
Write down a note on Simon Commission.
Or
What do you know about Simon Commission?
Answer:
The British government appointed Simon Commission and sent it to India in 1928 A.D. to check the Reform Act of 1919. This Commisson had seven members but none of them was an Indian. So this commission was strongly opposed with black flags and slogans like ‘Simon go back’. Police started canning the revolutionaries. As a result Lala Lajpat Rai got hurt in this canning and later on he died because of these wounds.

Question 9.
Write down a note on civil disobedience movement. .
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi started Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930-1934 A.D. to attain freedom from the British. He broke the Salt Law at a place named Dandi on the coast of Gujarat. Encouraged by this incident, people of all the coastal areas started violating the Salt Law. A pact was signed between Gandhiji and Lord Irwin in 1931 A.D. All those who had violated the law were freed. Gandhiji went to England to participate in the Second Round Table Conference. But no satisfactory solution to the Indian problems could be found there. ^On his return from England, Gandhiji again started the Civil Disobedience Movement. Gandhiji was arrested and sent to jail. Government declared Indian National Congress illegal to suppress this movement and leaders of Congress were sent to jail. Police fired at people at many places. But the British government was unable to suppress this movement.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 10.
Write down a note on Quit India Movement.
Answer:
The British fought Second World War against Japan. So Japan decided to attack India because India was under the British rule. Gandhiji thought.that if the British could left India then Japan would not attack India. So Gandhiji started Quit India Movement on 8th August 1942 A.D. Government arrested Gandhiji and other Congress leaders on 9th August 1942 A.D. People got angry with this and they severely damaged police stations, government buildings, post offices and railway stations. Government also used repressive policies but was unable to suppress the revolutionaries.
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Question 11.
Write down a note on Azad Hind Fauj.
Answer:
Indian National Army was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in Japan. His objective was to free India from the British rule. Those Indian soldiers were included in Indian National Army who were captivated during the Second World War by Japan. Subhash Chandra Bose gave many slogans such as ‘Delhi Chalo’, ‘Give me blood, I will give you freedom’, ‘Jai Hind’ etc. But Japan was defeated in Second World War. So Indian National Army was unsuccessful in getting India free. Subhash Chandra Bose died in an air crash in 1945 A.D. A number of soldiers of Indian National Army were arrested by the British. That’s why Indian people did strikes, protest and demonstrate in whole of the country. So the British made free all the soldiers of Indian National Army.

Question 12.
Explain the Gandhian Era.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi holds the highest place in the history of modern India. He made the maximum contribution to the freedom struggle of India. He faced the British with Non-violence and Satyagraha and forced them to leave India.

A brief description of the life and activities of this great freedom fighter is as under :
Birth and Education: Gandhiji’s name was Mohan Das Karam Chand Gandhi. He was born on 2nd Oct., 1869 A.D. at Porbander in Kathiawar. Gandhiji received his early education in India and went to England for his higher education. He became a barrister and came back to India.

Political Life: After returning from England, he worked as lawyer for some time. But later, he went to South Africa.
When he reached South Africa, he was pained to see that the Indians were not treated well by the whites. Gandhiji could not tolerate it. He started Satyagraha movement there and helped Indians to get their demands accepted by the African Government.

Gandhiji in India: In 1915, Gandhiji returned to India from South Africa. The First World War was going on at that time. The British Government was engaged in this war. It was badly in need of men and money. So, Gandhiji appealed to the people to cooperate with the British. He wanted to win over the British by helping them. He believed that the British would grant freedom to India after winning the war.
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But contrary to his belief, the British passed the Rowlatt Act. Gandhiji was very much pained by these Black Bills and he started satyagraha against them.

Non-Cooperation Movement: Gandhiji started the Non-Cooperation Movement against the British in 1920. Public completely cooperated with Mahatma Gandhi. The government tried to suprress the movement forcefully. But Gandhiji withdrew the movement on account of some incident of violence in 1922.

Civil Disobedience Movement: In 1930, Gandhiji started Civil Disobedience Movement. He violated salt laws by preparing salt from sea water. He broke the salt law on the sea coast at Dandi in Gujarat in March, 1930. The people started defying the salt laws at various places. Consequently, the government was frustrated and Indians were given the right to prepare salt.

Quit India Movement. The main aim of Gandhiji was to free India. He started Quit India Movement in 1942 to achieve his aim. Lakhs of people took part in the movement and suffered heavy losses. Though the movement failed, yet it made clear that the British would have to quit India soon.

Other Works: Gandhiji did a lot to uplift the status of all the Indians. He gave the message of wearing Khadi to remove poverty from India. He gave the message of brotherhood to stop communal riots in the country.

Death: On 30th January, 1948 A.D. Gandhiji was shot dead by Nathu Ram Vinayak Godesey. The whole of the country was plunged into gloom at his death. Indians cannot forget the services of Gandhiji. He is remembered as the ‘Father of the Nation’.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 13.
Explain the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi started Non-Cooperation movement against British Government in 1920 A.D.

Following were the main objectives of this movement :

  • To criticize the atrocities committed on people of Punjab and the policies of British.
  • To stop injustice committed against Sultan of Turkey (Khalifa)
  • To establish unity among Hindus and Muslims.
  • To achieve Swaraj (freedom) from British Government.

Program of Non-Cooperation Movement :

  • To give up government jobs.
  • To return government or official titles.
  • Not to take part in government festivals and meetings.
  • Not to use foreign-made goods. Instead country-made goods should be used.
  • To boycot government courts and disputes should be resolved through Panchayats.
  • To use Khadi cloth made by charkha.

Progress of Non-Cooperation Movement: Mahatma Gandhi returned his title of ‘Kesar-e-Hind’ to the government. He appealed the people to take part in his movement. Many Indians gave up their government jobs and titles. Thousands of students left their schools and colleges. They started to study in Kashi Vidyapeeth, Gujarat Vidyapeeth, Tilak Vidyapeeth, etc. Hundreds of Lawyers left their legal practice. Moti Lai Nehru, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, C.R. Dass, Sardar Patel, Lala Lajpat Rai also left their legal practice. People sacrificed foreign made clothes and started tctuse Khadi clothes made by charkha.

Government arrested thousands of people to suppress this movement. Congress session was going on at village Chauri-Chaura of Gorakhpur distt. of Uttar Pradesh in 1922 A.D. Around 3000 farmers were taking part in it. Police fired bullets ut them. Farmers became angry, they attacked the police station and set it on fire. As a,result 22 policemen were killed. Gandhiji became furious he took back Non-Cooperation’Movement at Bardauli on 12th February in 1922 A.D.

Importance: Yet the Non-Cooperation Movement was called off by Mahatma Gandhi but still it gave an important contribution in spreading National movement.

  • People of almost all the classes took part in this movement with which national consciousness occurred among them.
  • Females also took part in it. Their self-confidence increased with this.
  • Popularity of Congress party increased with this movement.
  • Some leaders of Congress were furious with Mahatma Gandhi because of calling off the movement. Pandit Moti Lai Nehru and C.R. Dass were some of them. So they founded ‘Swaraj party’ on 1923 A.D. to achieve freedom from the British.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 14.
Explain the Revolutionary movement.
Answer:
Revolutionary movement was also started in India for getting freedom from the British rule. Their brief description is given below :
1. Babbar Akali Movement: Some Akali Sikh leaders wanted to run Gurudwara reform movement in a violent way. They were known as Babbar Akalis. Their leader Kishan Singh founded a ‘Chakravarti Jatha’ and raised his voice against repressive policies of British at Hoshiarpur and Jalandhar. He along with his 186 friends was arrested on 20th February 1923. Five out of them were hanged.

2. Young India Society (Naujawan Bharat Sabha): Young India Society was founded at Lahore in 1926 A.D. It’s founder members were Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, Bhagwaticharan Vohra, Sukhdev, etc.

Main Objectives: The following were the main objectives of this society :

  • To deveop feeling of sacrifice.
  • To develop sense of patriotism among the people.
  • To spread revolutionary ideas among the masses.

Membership: All the males-females of 18 to 35 years of age were free to become members of this society. Only those persons could become members who believed in their programmes. Many males and females of Punjab gave their cooperation to this society. Durga Devi Vohra, Sushila Mohan, Amar Kaur, Parvati Devi and Lilawati were some of its members.

Activities: Members of this society were fully active at the time of arrival of Simon Commission. Revolutionaries took out strong procession against Simon Commission under the leadership of Lala Lajpat Rai. The British police caned that procession. Lala Lajpat Rai was severely hurt in this canning. He died on 17th November 1928 A.D. Meantime, all the revolutionaries of India made their central organization called ‘Indian Socialist Republic Association’. Members of Young India Society started to carry on activities with this association.

Assembly Bomb Case: Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt surrendered themselves by throwing bombs in legislative assembly on 8th April 1929 A.D. Pobce also arrested two other revolutionaries—Sukhdev and Rajguru.

Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were hanged on”23rd March 1931 A.D. on the charges of murder of Police officer Mr. Sanderas. But it is one of the hard facts that Bhagat Singh sacrificed his life and set an example which could motivate .the coming generations.

Question 15.
Explain about Gurudwara reforms movement.
Answer:
Gurudwara reform movement was started, during the period of 1920-1925 A.D., to remove occupation of Gurudwaras of Punjab from the clutches of Mahants. This movement is also known as Akali Movement because Akalis made possible to remove Mahants from Gurudwaras.

Akali Dal started many morchas for making Gurudwara reform movement successful. Brief description of some of these morchas is as below :
1. Morcha of Nankana Sahib. Mahant Narayan Dass of Nankana Sahib was a characterless person. One peaceful Jatha reached Nankana Sahib on 20 February 1921 A.D. to remove him from the Gurudwara. This Jatha was badly treated by Mahant. His goons attacked the Jatha. Leader of Jatha Laxman Singh and some of his supporters were burnt alive by the Mahant.

2. Morcha of Keys of Treasury of Harmandar Sahib. Keys of treasury of Harmandar Sahib were with the British. Shiromani Committee demanded those keys but British denied to hand over keys to them. Sikhs protested against British for their denial of handing over the keys. Many sikhs were arrested by the British. Congress and Khilafat Committee supported the British. So finally the British handed over the keys of treasury to the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (S.G.P.C.)

3. Morcha of ‘Guru Ka Bagh’. Gurudwara ‘Guru Ka Bagh’ is situated in Ajnala sub¬division and around 13 miles from Amritsar. This Gurudwara was under possession of Mahant Sunder Dass who was a characterless person. Shiromani Committee sent a Jatha under the leadership of Daan Singh on 23rd August 1921 A.D. to take over the possession of this Gurudwara. Members of this Jatha were arrested by the British. Sikhs got furious with this. They started sending more and more Jathas to Gurudwara. These Jathas were also badly treated. Its members were even canned by the police.

4. Incident of Punja Sahib. The Government decided to send Sikhs arrested in ‘Guru Ka Bagh’ Morcha to Attock through railway. Sikhs of Punja Sahib urged the government to stop train at Hassan Abdal so that arrested Sikhs could be given food. But Government denied that request. Then Bhai Karan Singh and Bhai Pratap Singh jtood in front of train and got martyrdom. Except the martyrdom of these two Sikhs, body parts of many Sikhs were cut down.

5. Jaito Morcha. In 1923 A.D., the British dethroned Ripudaman Singh, the ruler of Nabha, without any reason. Shiromani Akali Dal and other patriot Sikhs decided to hold a big rally at Gurudwara Gangasar (Jaito). On 21st February, 1924 A.D. a Jatha of five hundred Akalis started for Gurudwara Gangasar. They had to face British army when they reached Nabha. The Sikhs were unarmed. Consequently, more than 100 Sikhs achieved martyrdom and about 200 were injured.

6. Sikh Gurudwara Act. In 1925 A.D., the Punjab Government passed the Sikh Gurudwara Act. According to this Act, the management of the Gurudwaras came into the hands of the Sikhs and the government released all the Sikhs from the jails in due course of time.

So, the Sikhs made many sacrifices in the Akali movement. On the one hand, they saved the Gurudwaras from the Mahants who were puppets in the hands of the British and on the other hand, they created a spirit of hatred among the Indians against the British which continued till the achievement of independence.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Mahatma Gandhi started ____________ movement in India against the Rowlatt Act.
Answer:
Non Cooperation

Question 2.
Mahatma Gandhi ji postponed the Non-Cooperation in ____________________
Answer:
1922 A.D

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 3.
Nankana Sahib Gurdwara’s Mahant _________________ was characterless person.
Answer:
Narayan Das

Question 4.
There were ____________ members of Simon Commission, which was sent in India in 1928 A.D.
Answer:
Seven

Question 5.
On 26th January 1930 A.D. an ________________ day was celebrated in India.
Answer:
Independence.

III. Write ‘True or False’ in brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
Mahatma Gandhi Ji surrendered the title of Kesar-I-Hind to the government.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Swaraj Party was established by Mahatma Gandhi Ji.
Answer:
False

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 3.
Bhagat Singh and his companions founded Naujwan Bharat Sabha in 1926 A.D.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
On 5th April, 1930 A.D. Mahatma Gandhi Ji broke the Salt Law in a village Dandi by making salt from the sea water.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the words :

Question 1.

A B
1. Non Violence (i) Maharaja Ripudaman Singh
2. Quit India Movement (ii) Mahatma Gandhi Ji
3. Revolutionary Movement (iii) On 8th August, 1942
4. Jaito Morcha (iv) Sardar Bhagat Singh

Answer:

A B
1. Non Violence (ii) Mahatma Gandhi Ji
2. Quit India Movement (iii) On 8th August, 1942
3. Revolutionary Movement (iv) Sardar Bhagat Singh
4. Jaito Morcha (i) Maharaja Ripudaman Singh

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide National Movement 1919-1947 A.D. Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
_______ movement started side by side with Non-Cooperation movement.
(a) Swadeshi and boycott
(b) Quit India
(c) Khilafat
(d) Civil Disobedience.
Answer:
(c) Khilafat.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 2.
Gandhiji started _______ movement in 1920 AD.
(a) Non Cooperation
(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(c) Quit India
(d) Civil Disobedience.
Answer:
(a) Non Cooperation.

Question 3.
Non Cooperation movement was called off due to violence occured at _______ in U.P.
(a) Lucknow
(b) Chauri Chaura
(c) Benaras
(d) Meerut.
Answer:
(b) Chauri Chaura.

Question 4.
_______ founded Naujawan Sahha in 1925-26 AD.
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chandrashekhar
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
(a) Bhagat Singh.

Question 5.
In _______ Session, Congress passed a resolution demanding Purna Swaraj.
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lahore
(d) Kanpur.
Answer:
(c) Lahore.

Question 6.
Indian National Congress, in 1929 Session, decided to celebrate _______ as Independence Day.
(a) 15 August
(b) 26 January
(c) 17 August
(d) 19 March.
Answer:
(b) 26 January.

Question 7.
Gandhiji marched to and broke Salt Law.
(a) Gujarat
(b) Surat
(c) Dandi
(d) Ahmedabad.
Answer:
(c) Dandi.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 8.
The first phase of Civil disobedience Movement ended in
(a) 1929 A.D.
(b) 1928 A.D.
(c) 1931 A.D.
(d) 1930 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1930 A.D.

Question 9.
Second phase of Civil Disobedience Movement Started in
(a) 1932 A.D.
(b) 1933 A.D.
(c) 1931 A.D.
(d) 1934 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1932 A.D.

Question 10.
Civil Disobedience Movement ended in
(a) 1932 A.D.
(b) 1933 A.D.
(c) 1931 A.D.
(d) 1934 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1934 A.D.

Question 11.
Quit India Movement started in
(a) 1940 A.D.
(b) 1941 A.D.
(c) 1942 A.D.
(d) 1943 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1942 A.D.

Question 12.
Who started Quit India Movement?
(o) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
(d) Mahatma Gandhi.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 13.
When did Muslim League demanded Pakistan?
(a) 1930 A.D.
(b) 1935 A.D.
(c) 1940 A.D.
(d) 1945 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1940 A.D.

Question 14.
When did Gandhiji decide to launch a nation wide Styagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act?
(a) 1919 A.D.
(b) 1920 A.D.
(c) 1921 A.D.
(d) 1922A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1919 A.D.

Question 15.
When Cabinet Mission came to India?
(a) March 1945
(b) March 1946
(c) Sept. 1947
(d) Sept. 1946.
Answer:
(b) March 1946.

Question 16.
Which day was observed by Muslim League as Direct Action Day?
(o) 15 Aug, 1945
(b) 26 Jan, 1946
(c) 16 Aug, 1946
(d) 26 Jan, 1947.
Answer:
(c) 16 Aug, 1946.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 17.
The person in the given picture gave great contribution in the Indian Freedom struggle. Name the person.
im-3
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Chancira Shekhar Azad.
Answer:
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
Mahatma Gandhi started _______ to oppose Rowlatt Act.
Answer:
Rowlatt Satyagraha

Question 2.
Mahatma Gandhi withdraw Non-Cooperation Movement in _______ A.D.
Answer:
1922

Question 3.
Mahant _______ of Gurdwara Nankana-Sahib was a characterless person.
Answer:
Narayan Dass

Question 4.
Simon Commission had _______ members.
Answer:
Seven

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 5.
26th January 1930 A.D. was celebrated as India’s first _______ day.
Answer:
Independence.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
During Non-Cooperation Movement Mahatma Gandhi surrendered the title of Kesar-e-hind.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Swaraj Party was founded by Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
In 1926 A.D. Bhagat Singh and his companions founded Naujwan Bharat Sabha.
Answer:
(✓)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 4.
On 5th April, 1930 Mahatma Gandhi made salt at Dandi and broke salt law.
Answer:
(✓).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A B
1. Ahimsa (i) Maharaja Ripudaman Singh
2. Quit India Movement (ii) Mahatma Gandhi
3. Revolutionary Movement (iii) 8th August, 1942
4. Jaiton Morcha (iv) Sardar Bhagat Singh

Answer:

A B
1. Ahimsa Maharaja (ii) Mahatma Gandhi
2. Quit India Movement (iii) 8th August, 1942
3. Revolutionary Movement (iv) Sardar Bhagat Singh
4. Jaiton Morcha (i) Maharaja Ripudaman Singh

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was Rowlatt Act? Why was it opposed by the people?
Answer:
Rowlatt Act was passed to suppress the movement of the people. According to it, any person could be arrested only on the basis of doubt. That’s why it was opposed by the people.

Question 2.
When did Simon Commission come to India? Which leader lost his life in the anti-demonstration against this Commission?
Answer:
The Simon Commission came to India in 1928. Lala Lajpat Rai was severely wounded by police lathis while leading a procession against the Simon Commission at Lahore. He died of the injuries a few days later.

Question 3.
Write the names of the associates of Bhagat Singh. In which year were they hanged?
Answer:
Sukhdev and Rajguru. They were hanged on 23rd March, 1931 in the Central Jail at Lahore.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 4.
When did the Indian National Congress demand Poorna Swaraj?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress demanded Poorna Swaraj or complete independence in 1929 A.D. at its Lahore Session.

Question 5.
When did the Quit India movement start? What was its impact on the British Government?
Answer:
The Quit India movement was started in August 1942 A.D. The Government tried to suppress this movement with full force.

Question 6.
When was the Indian Independence Act passed?
Answer:
The Indian Independence Act was passed on 16th July’, 1947. But it was finally approved by the Crown two days later.

Question 7.
Whose minister was Cripps and what was the reason of his arrival to India in 1942 A.D.?
Answer:
Cripps was a minister of the British Government. The British Government sent him to India in 1942 A.D to satisfy Indians so that they could help the British in the World War II.

Question 8.
Why Non-Cooperation movement was started?
Answer:
One peaceful crowd in Jallianwala Bagh at Amritsar was fired at by the Police. Gandhiji decided to start Non-Cooperation Movement against the British to protest this incident.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 9.
When was the Non-Cooperation movement withdrawn and what was its reason?
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation movement was withdrawn in 1922 A.D. Its reason was violent incident occurred at Chauri-Chaura in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 10.
What was the contribution of Lala Lajpat Rai to the freedom struggle of India?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai was a great patriot. He lodged a strong protest against the partition of Bengal. In 1928, he led a procession at Lahore to protest against the Simon Commission. The police cane-charged the processionists as a result of which he received severe injuries. He died of these injuries a few days later.

Question 11.
What was the contribution of Sardar Bhagat Singh to the struggle for freedom?
Answer:
Sardar Bhagat Singh was a great revolutionary. He threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly Hall at Delhi to convey the feelings of the Indians to the British Government. He was also among those revolutionaries who shot dead Mr. Saunders, the Deputy Superintendent of Police at Lahore.

Question 12.
Why was the Civil Disobedience movement started?
Answer:
After the failure of the Non-Cooperation movement, the government passed the laws which were not in the interests of the public. The rates of taxes were so high that a common man was unable to pay. Civil Disobedience movement was started by Gandhiji to mark protest against such laws.

Question 13.
When and by whom Swaraj Party was founded?
Answer:
Swaraj Party was founded by Pt. Moti Lai Nehru and C.R. Dass in 1923 A.D.

Question 14.
What was the objective of Swaraj Party? Was it successful in achieving its objective?
Answer:
Main objective of Swaraj Party was to take part in elections and to struggle for achievement of independence. Swaraj Party got important success in the elections of central assembly and state assemblies held on 1st November 1923 A.D.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 15.
When and between whom Poona Pact was signed?
Answer:
Poona Pact was held between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in September 1932 A.D.

Question 16.
On 13th April, 1919, around 20,000 people gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. What was the main reason of their peaceful arrest?
Answer:
To oppose the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of their popular leaders.

Question 17.
Many movements were started in India to gain independence. Do you know when the Quit India movement was started by Gandhiji?
Answer:
In August, 1942.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the life of Gandhiji till 1915 A.D.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhiji was born on 2nd Oct. 1869 A.D. in the house of Diwan Karam Chand Gandhi at Porbandar of Kathiawar (Gujarat). His mother was Putli Bai. Gandhiji received his early education in India and went to England for higher education. He became barrister and came back to India in 1891 A.D. He went to South Africa in 1893 A.D. Indian people were badly treated over there by the British. Gandhiji criticized it. He started Satyagraha movement over there and Indians were given their rights. Gandhiji came back to India in 1915 A.D.

Question 2.
When and which Act was passed on the basis of Montegue-Chelmsford report? What was written in it?
Answer:
Indians helped the British in First World War. So the British published Montegue- Chelmsford report to please Indians. Act of 1919 A.D. was passed on the basis of this report.

Following were the main points of this Act :

  • India will remain a part of the British Empire.
  • Gradually the responsible rule will be established in India.
  • Indians will be included in every department of state administration.

Question 3.
What were the clauses of Act of 1919 A.D.? Why it was opposed by Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Following were the main clauses of Act of 1919 A.D. :

  • Through this Act, subjects were divided between Centre and Provinces.
  • Dyarchy was established in provinces.
  • The communal electoral system was spread.
  • System of two houses of the legislative council was made in the Centre.
  • Members of state Council were increased to 60, and members of Legislative Assembly were increased to 145.
  • Powers and rights of secretary of states were reduced. Number of members of its council was also reduced.

Indians were not very much pleased with Act of 1919 A.D. So they started Satyagraha movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, to oppose this Act.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 4.
Write a note on Rowlatt Act.
Answer:
Indian people started the Satyagraha movement in opposition to Act of 1919 A.D. So the British Government passed Rowlatt Act in 1919 A.D. to control the situation. According to this Act, the British government was free to arrest any person without issuing any warrant and without any trial. Arrested person was not allowed to appeal in court against his arrest. So this Act was strongly opposed by the people. Pt. Moti Lai Nehru criticised this Act by saying, “No Appeal, No Vakil and No Dalil.” Gandhiji started Satyagraha movement in whole of the country to oppose Rowlatt Act.

Question 5.
Write a note on the Non-Cooperation movement.
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi against British government in 1920 A.D. Main objectives of this movement was to not to cooperate the British government in any manner. This movement was declared in Nagpur session of Congress. Gandhiji appealed the people not to cooperate government in any manner. One definite programme was also prepared. According to it, people sacrificed their government jobs and titles. Mahatma Gandhiji gave back his title of ‘Kesar-e-Hind’. Students left their government schools. Lawyers left their legal practice. Foreign made goods were also sacrificed and people started to use local goods. But people, at a place of Chauri-Chaura, set police station on fire in which many policemen were killed. When Gandhiji listened the incident of violence, he took back this movement.

Question 6.
Write a note on the increasing tension between the Sikhs and the British about the Gurudwaras.
Answer:
The British government always supported the Mahants, the priests of the Gurudwaras. The Sikhs did not like it. These priests had entered the Gurudwaras as Sewadars but during the British rule, they began to consider themselves as the owners of the Gurudwaras. They considered the property of Gurudwaras as their personal property. Patronage of the British was available to the Mahants or priests. So they thought that their hold on the Gurudwaras was safe. They started living a luxurious life. The Sikhs could not tolerate it.

Question 7.
Describe the event of Guru Ka Bagh Morcha.
Answer:
Guru Ka Bagh is situated 13 miles away from Amritsar in Tehsil Ajnala. This Gurudwara was in the possession of Mahant Sunder Dass, who was a characterless person. Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee sent a Jatha on 23 Aug., 1921 A.D. under the leadership of Dhan Singh to take charge of the Gurudwara. The police arrested the members of this Jatha. The Sikhs got annoyed with this incident and sent many more Jathas, which were very cruelly treated by the police. All political parties of the country condemned this action of the government.

Question 8.
Write a brief note on the Jaito Morcha.
Answer:
In July 1932, the British removed Maharaja Ripudaman Singh of Nabha from the throne without any reason. Shiromani Akali Dal and other patriot Sikhs condemned this action of the government and a Jatha of 500 Akalis marched towards Gurudwara Gangasar (Jaito) on 21st February, 1924. On reaching Nabha, they faced the British Army. Many Sikhs were killed and a large number of them were injured. Finally, the Sikhs succeeded in getting their demands accepted by the government.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on the event of Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy.
Answer:
The tragedy of the Jallianwala Bagh occurred in 1919 A.D. on the Baisakhi Day. The people of Amritsar were holding a meeting in Jallianwala Bagh on that day to protest against the arrest of their leaders. General Dyer, without giving any warning, ordered his troops to fire on the peaceful meeting. As a result, a wave of discontent and anger spread all over the country. The struggle for freedom took a new turn. Now, it became a struggle of all the people against the foreign rulers.

Question 10.
How the event of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy gave a new turn to freedom struggle of India?
Answer:
Many people were killed due to the massacre of Jallianwala Bagh (13th April 1919 A.D.). This massacre took a new turn to freedom struggle of India. This struggle was limited to few people before the massacre. Now it became the struggle of the masses. Farmers, labourers, students, etc, started to take part in it. Lot of enthusiasm came in freedom struggle with this massacre and the freedom struggle started with great pace.

Question 11.
Write a note on motion of Poorna Swaraj.
Answer:
Indian National Congress passed a resolution of Poorna Swaraj at its annual session on 31st December 1929 A.D. This session was held at Lahore, on the banks of Ravi river, under the presidentship of Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru. This was also decided in this session that if government did not free India quickly then Independence Day will be celebrated in whole of the country on 26th January 1930 A.D. It was also decided to start Satyagraha movement to achieve independence. 26th January 1930 was celebrated as first Independence day in the whole country.

Question 12.
Where Round Table Conferences were held? Briefly describe them.
Answer:
Round Table Conferences were held at London. First Two Conferences. First Round Table Conference was called by the British Government in 1930 A.D. to discuss the report of Simon Commission. But this Conference remained unsuccessful due to boycot of the Congress.

Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin on 5th March 1931. Gandhiji accepted to suspend Civil Disobedience Movement and to take part in Second Round Table Conference in this Pact. Second Round Table Conference was held in London in Sept. 1931 and Gandhiji demanded to stop the rule of representing Indians in centre and provinces. But he was unsuccessful in meeting his demands. As a result he again started Civil Disobedience Movement on 3rd January 1932 A.D. In the end Gandhiji and other Congress leaders were arrested.

Third Conference. Third Conference was held in 1932 A.D. Gandhiji didn’t take part in it.

Question 13.
Why Cripps Mission was sent to India? Was it been able to satisfy Congress leaders?
Answer:
Second World War started in Sept. 1939 A.D. The British government did not consult the Congress leaders and declared India’s participation iij the war. The Congress leaders criticised this declaration and resigned from provincial legislative councils. The British government sent Cripps Mission to India on March 1942, under Sir Starford Cripps so that the solution of this problem could be found. It put certain proposals before the Congress leaders which were unable to satisfy the Congress leaders.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 14.
Write a note on Pakistan’s demand of Muslim League.
Answer:
Muslim League was pleased with the resignations of Congress leaders from provincial legislative councils in 1939 A.D. That’s why leader of League Mohammad Ali Jinnah decided to celebrate Freedom Day on 22nd Sept., 1939 A.D. On 23rd March 1940 A.D., Muslim League demanded Free Pakistan for Muslims by calling two separate nations for Hindus and Muslims. The Britishers also supported Muslim League because they wanted to weaken National movement.

Question 15.
Briefly describe Cabinet Mission and its suggestions.
Answer:
The British government sent the Cabinet Mission, with three members, to India in March 1946 A.D. Its President was Lord Pathik Lawrence. This mission discussed with Indian leaders about political power to be given to India. It also suggested to establish constitutional committee to frame the constitution and to establish interim Government in the country. So according to this suggestion, Jawaharlal Nehru made an interim government in Sept. 1946. Muslim League also joined interim government on 15th Oct. 1946 A.D.

Question 16.
Briefly describe the events after 1946 which led to freedom or division of India.
Answer:
The British Prime Minister Lord Attlee declared on 20th February, 1947 that the British government will free India by 30th June 1948 A.D. Lord Mountbatten came to India as new Viceroy on 22nd March 1947 A.D. He started discussions with the Congress leaders. He declared that India will be made free but it will be divided into two parts— India and Pakistan. Congress accepted this division because it wanted to stop bloodshed and violence in the country.

The British Parliament passed ‘Indian Independence Act’ on 18th July 1947 A.D. As a result, the British rule in India came to an end on 15 August 1947 A.D. and India became free. But India was divided into two parts i.e. India and Pakistan.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On the basis of which theories Mahatma Gandhi tried to achieve freedom to the country?
Answer:
The British didn’t fulfil their promises done with Indians during first world war. So Indians planned to remove the British rule under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

Mahatma Gandhi tried to win over freedom on the basis of following theories :
1. Non-Violence. Mahatma Gandhi adopted the policy of peace and non-violence to win over the hearts of the British. Gandhiji was therfollower of truth and non-violence.

2. Satyagraha Movement. Mahatma Gandhi believed in Satyagraha movement. According to this, he used to keep fast for few days or to demonstrate to meet his demands. Whole of the world was attracted towards him when he used to start this type of moVement.

3. Hindu Muslim Unity. Mahatma Gandhi stressed on thje unity of all the Indians especially Hindus and Muslims. If at any place riots occurred due to one reason or the other, then Gandhiji always tried to pacify the people by going at that place.

4. Non-Cooperation Movement. Mahatma Gandhi started Non-Cooperation Movement to oppose injustice being committed with Indian people. For this, he urged the people to boycot Government offices, courts, schools, colleges and foreign made goods.

5. Khadi and Charkha. Gandhiji asked the rural people to use Khadi clothes and to prepare cloth with the help of charkha. He propagated that local goods should be used instead of foreign made goods.

6. Social Reforms. Mahatma Gandhi also tried to eradicate social evils such as untouchability. He also tried for the welfare of the women.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 National Movement 1919-1947 A.D.

Question 2.
Describe Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and Khilafat Movement.
Answer:
1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. In 1919 A.D. and under the orders of Mahatma Gandhi, strikes were called and processions were held in Punjab to oppose Rowlatt Act. Two famous leaders of Amritsar Dr. Kitchloo and Dr. Satpal were arrested on 10th April 1919 A.D. Indians took out a procession to oppose this Act. Government ordered to open fire at this procession. As a result, few people were killed. So Indians became angry and killed 5 British officers. The British Government called the Military in Amritsar city to control the situation.

Around 20,000 people gathered at Jallianwala Bagh of Amritsar on 13th April 1919 to oppose Rowlatt Act. General Dyer ordered to fire bullets at these people. People started to run here and there to save their lives. This garden was closed from three sides and the fourth side was covered by the soldiers. Just within a short span of time whole of the garden was filled with blood and dead bodies. Around 1000 people were killed in this massacre and 3000 persons were wounded. People got furious after knowing about this massacre.

2. Khilafat Movement. Turkey helped Germany against the British in the first world war. Turkish Sultan ‘Abdul Hamid II’ was considered as Khalifa or religious leader of Muslims of Indians. They helped the British in the war so that Khalifa of Turkey will not be treated badly at the hands of the British. But Turkey was divided into many parts by the British at the end of the war and Khalifa was imprisoned by the British.

So Indian Muslims started Khilafat Movement to oppose the British. Shaukat Afi, Muhammad Afi, Abul Kalam Azad and Azmal Khan were its main leaders. Mahatma Gandhi and Bal Gangadhar Tilak also took part in this movement to establish unity among Hindus and Muslims.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB The Revolt of 1857 Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write down any two political causes of the revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
1. Insult of Bahadur Shah: In 1856 A.D., the Governor-General told the Mughal Emperor that he would be the last emperor of India. After his death, his princes will have to vacate the Red fort. This decision of the British annoyed the Muslims.

2. Unjustified annexation of Avadh: Avadh remained a faithful friend of the British but its unjustified annexation annoyed the people.

Question 2.
Which punishment was given to Bahadur Shah Zafar?
Answer:
He was taken prisoner and sent to Rangoon. After some time, Bahadur Shah Zafar died and the Mughal empire came to an end. His two sons were shot dead.

Question 3.
Write down the immediate cause of the revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
The episode of the greased cartridges was the immediate cause of rising on May 10, 1857. Some Indian soldiers at Meerut refused to use a new type of cartridge which were greased with the fat of the pigs and cows. A portion of the cartridge had to be bitten with one’s teeth before it could be fired. This enraged the Hindu and Muslim soldiers in the British army. They refused to obey the orders of their British officers to use the cartridges and rose in revolt.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 4.
With which other two names the revolt of 1857 A.D. is known?
Answer:
The first war of Independence and Soldier Revolt.

Question 5.
Write down in brief the social causes of revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:

  1. The Christian missionaries were propagating Christianity in India. They insulted Hindu and Muslim religions while propagating Christianity. The Government never put any restrictions on their activities. So, the Indians were annoyed with this policy of the British.
  2. In 1856 A.D. Religious Inability Act was passed. According to this Act, if someone changed his religion, he could get the share of his father’s property. Bypassing this law, the government encouraged the people to embrace Christianity.
  3. The British did not treat Indians well. They called Indians ‘Rustics’ and ‘Black Indians’. Indians could not bear this insult. This also become a cause of the revolt of 1857.

Question 6.
Write down the causes of failure of the revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
The following were the main causes of failure of Indians in the rising of 1857 :

  • The day of 31st May, 1857 was fixed for the start of revolt. But it started on 29 March. Rebels were not fully prepared for the revolt.
  • Revolt did not spread in entire India.
  • Unity was lacked among rebels.
  • Rebels lacked means to carry on the revolt.
  • Rebels were not fighting for any common objectives.
  • Military generals of rebels were not capable objectives.
  • Some local kingdoms helped the British to crush the revolt.
  • Means of transport were under control of British.
  • Intelligence system of the British was very good.
  • They crushed the revolt with the help of their military.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The cartridges were greased with the fat of cow and ________
Answer:
pig

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 2.
Many states annexed to the British Empire according to the Doctrine of Lapse of Lord
Answer:
Dalhousie

Question 3.
First of all the revolt of 1857 A.D. was started in ________
Answer:
Barrakpur

Question 4.
________ was a famous general of Nana Sahib.
Answer:
Tanya Tope

Question 5.
Indian soldiers declared their emperor.
Answer:
Bahadur Shah Zafar.

III. Write ‘True’ or ‘False* in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
Indians were appointed on high posts.
Answer:
False

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 2.
Good treatment was given to the Indians by the Britishers.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The British made many social reforms.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Gradually Indian industry and trade declined.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The Britishers ’adopted the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
Answer:
True.

IV. Something To Do :

Question 1.
To know about Lakshmi Bai, queen of Jhansi.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of prominent freedom fighters and paste them in your scrapbook.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide The Revolt of 1857 Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
When did first war of Independence take place?
(a) 1857 A.D.
(b) 1897 AD.
(c) 1947 AD.
(d) 1965 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1857 A.D.

Question 2.
What was the demand of Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi from the British?
(a) To adopt a daughter
(b) To adopt a son
(c) To give her back her kingdom
(d) To give her pension.
Answer:
(b) To adopt a son.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause of revolt done by Indian Sepoys?
(a) Use of Canons
(b) Use of new machines.
(c) Use of fat coated cartridges
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Use of fat coated cartridges.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 4.
Who was the last Mughal Emperor?
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Jahangir
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer:
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Question 5.
Where was Bahadur Shah Zafar exiled and died?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kanpur
(c) Rangoon
(d) Nepal.
Answer:
(c) Rangoon.

Question 6.
When did Bahadur Shah Zafar die?
(a) 1857 A.D.
(b) 1862 A.D.
(c) 1860 A.D.
(d) 1865 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1862 A.D.

Question 7.
From where did the Indian revolt of 1857 start?
(a) Delhi
(b) Meerut
(c) Kanpur
(d) Jhansi.
Answer:
(b) Meerut

Question 8.
________ was proclaimed as emperor of India in 1857.
(o) Bahadur Shah Zafar
(b) Tantya Tope
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Aurangzeb.
Answer:
(a) Bahadur Shah Zafar.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 9.
________ was the first martyer of the revolt of 1857.
(a) Nana Saheb
(b) Mangal Pandey
(c) Rani Laxmi Bai
(d) Tantya Tope,
Answer:
(b) Mangal Pandey.

Question 10.
________ led the revolt of Kanpur.
(a) Tantya Tope
(b) Rani Laxmi Bai
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Kunwar Singh.
Answer:
(c) Nana Saheb.

Question 11.
Rani Lakshmi Bai died at
(a) Kanpur
(b) Gwalior
(c) Nagpur
(d) Satara.
Answer:
(b) Gwalior.

Question 12.
What was the long term result of revolt of 1857?
(a) Rise of Indian Nationalism
(b) Creation of Awareness
(c) End of Company’s rule
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Rise of Indian Nationalism.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 13.
When was Awadh annexed into the British Empire?
(a) 1850 A.D.
(b) 1856 A.D.
(c) 1860 A.D.
(d) 1857 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1856 A.D.

Question 14.
Who introduced Policy of Lapse in India?
(a) Lord William Bentinck
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Wellington
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Lord Dalhousie.

Question 15.
Who resented high taxes in countryside?
(a) Peasants
(b) Zamindars
(c) Jotdars
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 16.
Which of these reforms was introduced by the British?
(a) Ban on Sati Pratha
(b) Permission of Widow remarriage
(c) Introduction of Western Education System
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 17.
Identify the event with which the persons given in the picture were associated:
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 1
(a) First World War
(b) Revolt of 1857
(c) Peasant Revolt
(d) Indigo Revolt.
Answer:
(b) Revolt of 1857.

Question 18.
The given picture is of Rani Laxmi Bai whose kingdom was annexed by the British under a policy called ________
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 2
(a) Subsidiary Alliance
(b) Doctrine of Lapse
(e) Policy of Paramountcy
(d) Through Conquests.
Answer:
(b) Doctrine of Lapse.

Question 19.
The person in the given picture was declared the leader of the 1857 revolt. Name the person.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 3
(a) Tantya Tope
(b) Raja Kanwar Singh
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar
(d) Nana Saheb.
Answer:
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 20.
The person in the given picture is known as the first martyr of the revolt of 1857 AD. Name the person.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 4
(a) Tantya Tope
(b) Mangal Pandey
(c) Kanwar Singh
(d) Nana Saheb.
Answer:
(b) Mangal Pandey.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The cartridges were filled with the fat of cow and ________
Answer:
pig

Question 2.
According to Doctrine of Lapse of Lord ________, many Indian Kingdoms were captured.
Answer:
Dalhousie

Question 3.
Initially, the revolt started at ________
Answer:
Barrackpur

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 4.
________ was a famous general of Nana Sahib.
Answer:
Tantya Tope

Question 5.
Indian soldiers declared ________ at their leader.
Answer:
Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
During British times, Indians were appointed at higher posts.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Indians were behaved quite well.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
The British introduced many social reforms here in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Gradually Indian trade and industries declined.
Answer:
(✓)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 5.
The British adopted the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
Answer:
(✓)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A B
1. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah (i) Delhi
2. Nana Sahib (ii) Avadh
3. Bahadur Shah Zafar (iii) Kanpur
4. Sardar Ahmed Khan Kharal (iv) Punjab

Answer:

A B
1. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah (ii) Avadh
2. Nana Sahib (iii) Kanpur
3. Bahadur Shah Zafar (i) Delhi
4. Sardar Ahmed Khan Kharal (iv) Punjab

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write two religious causes of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:

  1. The British were converting Indians into Christians by promising them many concessions.
  2. The English passed Religious Inability Act, 1856 to spread Christianity.

Question 2.
Write two political causes of Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:

  1. There was discontentment among the Indian rulers because of the policy of the subsidiary alliance and the Doctrine of Lapse.
  2. Title of Emperor was taken away from the Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar. He was, therefore, annoyed with the British.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 3.
Write the names of the main leaders of the. Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
Names of four important leaders of the revolt were:

  1. Nana Sahib
  2. Tantya Tope
  3. Rani Laxmi Bai and
  4. Kanwar Singh.

Question 4.
Give two reasons of the failure of Revolt of 1857 A.D. in Punjab.
Answer:
Revolt of 1857 A.D. failed in Punjab due to two following reasons :

  1. There was no capable leader of rebels.
  2. Instead of giving help to rebels, the kings of Patiala, Nabha and Jind gave their support to the British.

Question 5.
Which were the four main centres of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.?
Answer:
Meerut, Delhi, Kanpur and Lucknow.

Question 6.
Who was Tantya Tope?
Answer:
Tantya Tope was the General of Nana Sahib. He was the leader of army of Nana Sahib in the revolt. When the British took control of Kanpur, he helped Rani Laxmi Bai.

Question 7.
Why did the Rani of Jhansi took part in the Rising of 1857 A.D.?
Answer:
Rani of Jhansi took part in the rising of 1857 because the British did not allow her to adopt a heir to the throne of Jhansi.

Question 8.
Write two political consequences of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:

  1. The rule of the East India Company came to an end. India came under the direct rule of the British Crown i.e. the King and the Parliament of Britain.
  2. The British Government abandoned the policy of annexing Indian States.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 9.
Write two social effects of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:

  1. It created bitterness between the Hindus and the Muslims.
  2. The Indians and the Europeans began to hate each other.

Question 10.
Give any two economic effects of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:

  1. After the Sepoy mutiny of 1857, the British purchased raw material at cheap rates from the Indian markets and sent it to England.
  2. They had a monopoly in the trade of Tea, Coffee, Tobacco, Cotton, etc.

Question 11.
In which cantonments of Punjab revolt occurred in the Revolt of 1857 A.D.?
Answer:
During the revolt of 1857 A.D. revolt occurred in cantonments of Lahore, Firozpur, Peshawar, Ambala, Mianwali etc. of Punjab.

Question 12.
What was the contribution of Sardar Ahmed Khan Kharal in the revolt?
Answer:
Sardar Ahmed Khan Kharal refused to pay tax to the government and rose in revolt against it. He fopght against the English at some places. Ultimately he died while fighting the British near Pakpattan.

Question 13.
Why Nana Sahib became opponent of the British?
Answer:
Peshwa Baji Rao II died in 1857 A.D. But after his death, Lord Dalhousie stopped the pension of his successer i.e. Nana Sahib. That’«s why he became opponent of the British and revolted against them.

Question 14.
How many soldiers at Merrut refused to use the greased cartridges?
Answer:
Nearly 85 soldiers in Merrut refused to use the greased cartridges.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 15.
Who occupied Delhi on 11th September?
Answer:
General Nicklson occupied Delhi on 11th September with the help of the Sikh soldiers.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where and why did the Revolt of 1857 start?
Answer:
The Revolt of 1857 started at Barrackpur cantonment, Bengal in March. A soldier named Mangal Pandey shot an English officer. He was hanged for this crime. This incident inspired his fellow soldiers with patriotic feelings and they later joined the revolt against the British on 10th May, 1857.

Question 2.
Why were the soldiers of Avadh against the British?
Answer:
The army of Bengal was the best army of the East India Company. A majority of the soldiers in the army belonged to Avadh. Lord Daihousie annexed Avadh into the British Empire. Avadh soldiers did not like it and turned against the British. The English disbanded the Avadh army as a result of which thousands of soldiers became unemployed. They decided to rise in revolt in protest.

Question 3.
Why did the Indian soldiers take part in the Revolt of 1857 A.D.?
Answer:
Following are the reasons of taking part of Indian soldiers in the Revolt of 1857 A.D. :

  1. In 1856, one law was passed according to which soldiers could be sent beyond the sea in a war. But in Hindu religion, it was considered that going beyond the sea is against religion.
  2. Indian soldiers were badly treated during the Parade. It was unbearable for the Indian soldiers to tolerate this disrespect.
  3. Indian soldiers were given very less salary as compared to the British soldiers. That’s why resentment spread among them.
  4. The British officers disrespected the culture of Indian soldiers in front of them. Indian soldiers wanted to take revenge of this disrespect.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 4.
Describe the military consequences of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
Following were the military consequences of the revolt :
1. Consolidation of the Army: There were two types of soldiers before the revolt.

  • The soldiers appointed by the Company and
  • The soldiers appointed by the British government. After the revolt, the two armies were unified.

2. Increase in the number of European Soldiers: The number of European soldiers was increase^ and the number of Indian soldiers was decreased. But the Sikhs of Punjab and the Gorkhas of Nepal were given preference in the recruitment in the army.

3. Reorganisation of Indian Army: Artillery was put under the charge of the British soldiers. Indian soldiers were given weapons of low quality.

Question 5.
Describe the event of Lucknow at the time of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
Lucknow, the capital of Avadh, was the centre of revolt. The rebels uprooted the British administration in this area. The British Commander-in-Chief Havlock marched on Lucknow with a large force and captured it on 31st March, 1858. After sometime, the large landlords of Avadh also lay down their arms. Thus the revolt was crushed in Avadh.

Question 6.
Discuss the importance of freedom struggle of 1857 A.D. in the history of our country on the basis of four things.
Answer:
The First War of Independence was the most important event in the history of India. Its importance may be studied as under :

  • It was the first attempt made by the Indians for the achievement of freedom. Indian soldiers and public collectively faced the enemy in this war of independence. Thus this struggle was a symbol of Indian national unity.
  • People of all castes, creeds and religions made joint efforts to achieve freedom.
  • The British were alarmed as a result of this revolt and they made several reforms in the administration to please the Indians.
  • Several Indians sacrificed their lives in this struggle. The sacrifices of these persons always inspired the coming generations of India.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 7.
Write down a note about Regional Focus: Avadh.
Answer:
Avadh was a very prosperous state. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Avadh always remained loyal to the Britishers. But Britishers started to interfere in his kingdom. He was forced to keep the British army in his kingdom. After some time whole of his army was relieved and kept British army over there. Whole expenditure of the British army was on Nawab. All the relieved soldiers of army of Nawab became unemployed. In 1856 A.D., Britishers accused Nawab of mis government of Avadh and removed him. Then his kingdom was annexed into the British empire. Soldiers, formers and zamindars got annoyed with this and they took part in the revolt of 1857 in great number.

Question 8.
Write a note on “Doctrine of Lapse”.
Answer:
The Doctrine of Lapse was adopted by Lord Dalhousie. According to this doctrine, succession to protected state depended upon the will of the British. Lord Dalhousie decided that if the ruler of a dependent state had no male child, he could not adopt a son. It meant that if a native ruler died without leaving a son behind, the dependent state would pass into the hands of the British. On the grounds of Doctrine of Lapse, Dalhousie annexed seven dependent kingdoms into the British Empire which included Nagpur, Jhansi, Jaipur and Satara.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the main causes of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
The main causes of the Revolt of 1857 were as follows :
1. Political Discontentment: There was a great resentment among the Indian masses on account of wrong political policies of the British. Lord Dalhousie annexed several Indian states on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse. The rulers, the public and employees of these states turned against the British. The British ruined village self-government. They did not promote the Panchayat system. They also gave setback to village cottage industries. So the villagers too had feelings of hatred against the British.

2. Shortcomings in the Administration: Corruption was rampant in the British administration. Justice was very costly. Land tax system was very faulty and harsh. Actually, the main aim of the British was to collect more and more money. The British rule in India was, therefore, most unpopular.

3. Economic Exploitation: To promote industry in England, the British ruined Indian industries. Now, only the British made goods were sold here. Farmers too were greatly exploited by the Company. All high jobs were given to the British who got their salaries from Indian exchequer. So this exploitation of Indians increased the discontentment against the British rule.

4. Interference in the Religious Matters: The British took many steps to convert the Indians into Christianity. They also tried to change religious customs of the Indians. As a result, Indians belonging to all religions turned against the English.

5. Discontentment in the Army: There was discontentment among Indian soldiers. They were given very low salaries. The British soldiers misbehaved with them. In 1856, Indian soldiers were supplied greased cartridges for use. Soldiers were enraged and rose in revolt.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 2.
What were the causes of the failure of Rising of 1857?
Answer:
The following were the main causes of the failure of Indians in the Rising of 1857:
1. Beginning of the Revolt before time: The rebellion started before time because of the incidents at Behrampur, Barrakpur and Meerut. Unity among the revolutionaries received a setback and the English got sufficient time to suppress the revolt.

2. No common aim: The leaders participating in the struggle did not have any common goal. Some were fighting for the cause of religion, some for the safety of their states, while some others for the independence of the country. Therefore, the failure of revolution was certain.

3. Revolt Unorganised: The rebels had no able leader who could have kept them united. They were unorganised and indisciplined.

4. Untrained Soldiers: The rebels lacked trained soldiers. They had no modern weapons of war. Most of the people who participated in the rising were disbanded soldiers. They had little experience. The rising was bound to fail.

5. The rising did not spread in the whole country: This struggle remained restricted only to the northern India. People of South India did not take active part in it. Had the whole of India stood united against the British, the first war of Indian Independence would not have failed.

6. Control of the British over the means of transport: All the means of transport and communication like railways, post and telegraph etc. were in the hands of the British. They were in a position to send soldiers and weapons of war from one place to another place easily.

7. Harsh methods of the British to suppress the Revolt: The British dealt with revolutionaries very cruelly. Cities were looted and burnt. Many people were hanged. Public got frightened and did not take part in the rising.”

8. Economic difficulties: The rebels lacked money. They were not in a position to purchase good weapons. As a result, they failed in their mission.

Question 3.
Describe the results of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
The rising of 1857 A.D. had some very important results which were as under :
1. Political results:

  1. The rule of the company in India came to an end. India, now, came under the direct control of the British government in England.
  2. The Governer-General of India was given the new title of Viceroy.
  3. Mughal rule in India came to an end.
  4. Indian kings were given permission to adopt son.
  5. After 1857, British discontinued the policy of annexing Indian States into the British Empire.

2. Social results:

  • On 1st of Nov. 1858, Queen Victoria of England proclaimed a Declaration in which it was said that the British government would not interfere in the religious matters of the Indians. Indians would be given jobs on merit and they would also be given higher posts.
  • The British adopted the policy of divide and rule. They started favouring one particular religion and people of one class were made to fight with the people of other class so that their interests in India could be protected.

3. Military results:

  • The number of Indian soldiers in the army was reduced and that of the Europeans increased.
  • After the rising, artillery and ammunition departments were put under the control of British soldiers.
  • Now the soldiers of different castes and different religions were kept into separate regiments so that they could not start revolt again against the Britishers.
  • European soldiers were appointed on higher and important posts. Indian soldiers were given less important positions.
  • Some type of system was made in which Indian soldiers and officers of every level should remain under the supervision of European army.
  • Expenses of European army were put on Indian people.

4. Economic results: Many type of trade restrictions were imposed on Indians by British government. As a result, Indian trade suffered huge losses.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 4.
Explain the four main events of Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Or
Describe the main events of Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
The Indians rose against the British on a large scale for the first time in 1857. Plan for the rising was ready. The message of rising was .sent to soldiers and the public by circulation of roses and chapatis. 31st May, 1857 was fixed for the revolt, but the incident of greased cartridges at Meerut led to the beginning of rising on 10th May.

An account of the events of this rising is as under :
1. Barrakpur. Greased cartridges were supplied to the soldiers stationed at Barrakpur, a cantonment in Bengal on 29th March, 1857 A.D. A soldier named Mangal Pandey refused to use them. In a fit of anger, he shot dead an English officer and asked his companions to pounce upon their British Officers. Mangal Pandey was sentenced to death. All the soldiers of Barrakpur Cantonment got enraged by this incident. Mangal Pandey was the first martyr of the revolt of 1857.

2. Meerut. The fire of revolt engulfed Meerut on 10th May, 1857. The Public and soldiers of Meerut came out in an open revolt against the British. The whole city echoed with slogans like “Maro Firangi Ko”. Soldiers broke open the gates of jails and released their companions. From there, they marched to Delhi.

3. Delhi. The English officers tried to check rebels at Delhi, but they failed to do so. The rebels declared Bahadur Shah as their king and Delhi came under their control within four days.

On 14th September, 1857 differences arose among the rebel soldiers at Delhi. British took advantage by this rift and re-established their control over Delhi. Terror was let loose on the citizens. Bahadur Shah was arrested and sent to Rangoon. Both of his sons were killed.

4. Kanpur. Nana Sahib declared himself as Peshw’a at Kanpur. The British commander Havlock defeated Nana Sahib and the control of Kanpur came in the hands of the English. Tantya Tope tried to re-establish his control there but failed. In the mean time Nana Sahib took shelter in Nepal. Tantya Tope fled and went over to Rani of Jhansi.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 5
Mandal Pandey

5. Lucknow. Lucknow was the capital of Avadh. The English commander Havlock invaded Lucknow with a large army and established his control over the city on 31st March, 1858. After some time, “Talukedars” of Avadh also laid down their arms and as such the fire of revolt in Avadh was also extinguished.

6. Jhansi. Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi led the rising. The British commander attempted to suppress the revolt and occupy Jhansi but failed. Jhansi was again invaded in April, 1858 A.D. This time a few companions of Rani Lakshmi Bai deserted her and joined the British. They however, faced bravely the aggressors. The fort of Jhansi came under the control of the British. The Rani was killed in a battle with the British near Gwalior. In the Central India, Tantya Tope fought many battles with the English but was defeated. He was captured and hanged on April 18th, 1858.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 6

7. Punjab. Yet many rulers of states of Punjab helped the Britishers in revolt, but still revolt occurred at many places against Britishers. Indian soldiers revolted at Ferozpur, Peshawar, Jalandhar and at some other places. But these revolts were suppressed by Britishers and many soldiers were killed.

In modern Harvana, local leaders of Rewari. Bhiwani, Balabhgarh, Hansi, etc. also revolted in 1857 A.D. but they were also suppressed by Britishers.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 5.
Explain the political, economic and military causés of the Revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
In 1857, Indians revolted against the British for the first time. They wanted to drive them away from their country. This revolt is considered as the ‘First War of Independence’. Political, military and economic causes of this revolt were as under :

I. Political Causes:
1. Annexationist Policy of Daihousie. LMrd Daihousie wanted the expansion of the British empire in India. He. therefore, adopted the policy of annexation through the Doctrine of Lapse. According to this policy, a ruler who had no male heir was not allowed to adopt a son who might inherit his kingdom. He annexed Satara, Nagpur. Sambalpur, Jaitpur etc. to the British Empire. By following this policy, the British did not allow the widow queen of Jhansi to adopt a son. She, therefore, became a bitter enemy of the British.

2. Injustice with Nana Sahib. Nana Sahib was the adopted son of the last Maratha Peshwa Bajirao II. After the death of Bajirao, the British refused to pay annual pension to Nana Sahib. So, he turned against the British. On seeing injustice done to Rani of Jhansi and Nana Sahib, the Indians were annoyed and felt insulted. They began to make plans to end the British rule in India.

3. Insult of Bahadur Shah. In 1856 A.D, the Governor-General told the Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah that he would be the last Emperor of India. After his death, his princes will have to vacate the Red Fort and stay in a rented house near Qutub Minar. This decision of the British annoyed Bcgam Zeenat Mahal, the queen of Bahadur Shah. She started hatching conspiracies to destroy the British rule in India. The Muslim population of the country could not bear this insult to the heir of Akbar and Aurangzeb.

4. Unjustified annexation of Avadh. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Avadh was a faithful friend of the British. His ancestors had also helped the British several times. Even then, the British levelled the charge of maladministration against the Nawab of Avadh and annexed his kingdom to the British empire. They gave pension to Wajid Ali Shah and sent him to Calcutta (Kolkata). The people of Avadh got annoyed over it. There were 60,000 Avadh soldiers in the army of Bengal. They could not tolerate this injustice done to their king and decided to rise in revolt against the British.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857 7

II. Military Causes:

  • Low Salaries: The salaries of Indian soldiers were very low. They were not given higher salaries even if they were qualified. Chances of their promotion were very less.
  • Misbehaviour of the Europeans: Indian soldiers were considered to be inferior to European soldiers and English officers used to maltreat the Indian soldiers.
  • The Enlistment Act of 1856: An Act was passed in 1856 by which, it was made obligatory for the soldiers to go overseas if ordered. As a result of it, dissatisfaction spread among the Indian soldiers.
  • Annexation of Avadh: The British annexed Avadh on the basis of maladministration. The Nawab was deposed and his army was disbanded.
  • The issue of Greased Cartridges: In 1856 A.D, Indian soldiers were given greased cartridges which were to be bitten with one’s teeth before they could be fired. This enraged the Hindu and Muslim soldiers in the British army. Indian soldiers were angry over it. The first freedom struggle of 1857 A.D. was the result of this discontentment amongst the Indian soldiers.

III. Economic Causes:

  • The British started sending raw materials from India to factories in England. Finished products of England were sold in India. This policy affected Indian industry very badly and many artisans became jobless.
  • The British increased the land tax step by step. This tax was collected by very harsh methods. The farmers were dissatisfied due to this reason.
  • Import duties on Indian raw materials in England were high whereas import duties in India on British-made goods were low. Indian trade was, therefore, suffering from heavy losses.
  • The British confiscated the Jagirs of many ‘Jagirdars’ and increased taxes on other ‘Jagirs’. As a result, many landlords turned against the British.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Revolt of 1857

Question 6.
Explain the contribution of Punjabis in the revolt of 1857 A.D.
Answer:
The Punjabis had mixed reactions to the revolt of 1857. The Indian soldiers in some cantonments of Punjab faced the British army bravely, but some rulers of Punjab states sided with the British. As a result, The revolt of 1857 in Punjab could not succeed.

A brief description of the role of the Punjabis in the revolt of 1857 is as under:
1. Revolt by Soldiers. The uprising started on 10th May 1857 at Meerut. The news about the revolt reached Lahore on May 12th, 1857. Indian soldiers (called sepoys) at Mian Mir cantonment (near Lahore) were disarmed as there was danger of the spread of revolt in Punjab. After this, the Indian soldiers in the cantonments of Peshawar, Naushehra, Multan, Ambala, Jalandhar, Rawalpindi, Amritsar, Hoshiarpur, and Derajat were disarmed. Even then the soldiers in the eastern region revolted. The army created some disturbances at Jalandhar, Phillaur, Jhelum, and Thaneshwar. Hindustani and Punjabi soldiers revolted in other important cantonments also. Some soldiers killed their commanders.

2. Revolt by Common people. In view of the deteriorating condition of the British Government, the common people also revolted at several places. For example, people at Sialkot and Sirsa co-operated with the Indian soldiers. Besides, the Muslim tribals of Montgomery, Multan, Bahawalpur, and Fazilka also joined the revolt. Similarly, Punjabis rose in an open revolt at Karnal, Rohtak, and Rewari. Some jats of Karnal refused to pay the land tax to the British.

3. Revolt by Sardar Ahmed Khan Kharal. Ahmed Khan Kharal was the chief of a tribe. He refused to pay tax to the government and ro#e in revolt against it. Some tribals living on the banks of Ravi sided with him. He fought against the English at some other places also and killed the British soldiers and officers. Ultimately, he died while fighting the British near Pakpattan.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Soil and Soil Management Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
What is the pH of normal soil for crop production?
Answer:
pH should be from 6.5 to 8.7.

Question 2.
Name any two physical properties of soils.
Answer:
Particle size, soil density, pore size, water holding capacity etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Question 3.
Which soils have highest infiltration rate?
Answer:
Sandy soil.

Question 4.
What is the percentage of clay particles in clayey soils?
Answer:
At least 40% clayey particles.

Question 5.
Which soil property determines the soil acidity or alkalinity?
Answer:
Value of pH for the soil.

Question 6.
Which are the prominent salts present in saline soils?
Answer:
Chlorides and sulphates of potassium, calcium and magnesium.

Question 7.
The soil with higher concentration of sodium carbonates and bicarbonates are categorized as.
Answer:
Alkali soil.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Question 8.
Which amendment is used for reclamation of alkali soils?
Answer:
Gypsum.

Question 9.
Name two green manure crops.
Answer:
Daincha, Jantar.

Question 10.
Which crop is best suited for cultivation in clayey soils?
Answer:
For cultivation of paddy crop.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
What is soil?
Answer:
Soil is the upper layer of earth in which plant roots grow, plants take water and nutrients from it.

Question 2.
Write the important functions of soil.
Answer:
Crops absorb water and nutrients from soil and soil also gives physical strength to the plants.

Question 3.
Enlist the physical properties of soil.
Answer:
Size of particles, soil density, pore size, water holding capacity etc.

Question 4.
Compare clayey and sandy soils.
Answer:

Sandy Soil Clayey Soil
1. If soil is rubbed between finger and thumb, it feels gritty. 1. Soil particles are very fine.
2. Water holding capacity in not good. 2. Water holding capacity is large.
3. Pore size is big. 3. Pore size is very small.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Question 5.
What acidic 90?
Answer:
Those soils which have high acidic content and their pH value is less than 7 are acidic soils. These soils are found in areas of heavy rain fall, due to this, bases drin out and due to decay of organic malter Like leaves etc. soil becomes acidic.

Question 6.
What is saline soil?
Answer:
Soils which have high content of salt in them are saline soils. These soils have chlorides and sulphates of potassium,, calcium and magnesium. .

Question 7.
Write two main methods to identify a sandy soil.
Answer:

  • Sandy soils have higher infiltration rate.
  • It feels gritty when soil is rubbed in hands.
  • Moist ball breaks very easily.

Question 8.
What are the major properties of loamy soils?
Answer:

  • Particles are very-very fine.
  • Pore size is very small.
  • When taken in hand it feels like powder.
  • Water holding capacity is high.

Question 9.
What are saline-alkali soils?
Answer:
Soils with higher concentration of sodium and soluble salts in it are called saline-alkali soils.

Question 10.
What is puddling?
Answer:
Ploughing in flooded field is known as puddling.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

(C) Answer in five to six sentences:

Question 1.
Describe the different types of sods according to their physical properties.
Answer:
Physical properties of soil are: size of soil particle, pore size, soil structure, water holding capacity etc. There are three types of soils:
1. Clayey Soil:
It has more than 40% of clay content. Its water holding capacity is high. Balls can be made from moist clay and do not break on applying pressure. Particles are fine and pore size is also very fine.

2. Sandy Soil:
These soils have low water holding capacity. Particle size is not very small and pore size is also not very small as compared to clayey soil, water infiltration rate is high. Moist ball break easily with very little pressure. When rubbed in hands it feels gritty.

3. Loamy soil:
Properties of this soil lies between sandy and clayey soil. Its properties are optimum for crop cultivation and is best suited for agriculture.

Question 2.
Give the diagrammatic representation of soil components.
Answer:
Soil is a mixture of minerals, organic matter, water and air. Their proportion is shown in the diagram below. Water and air content can vary.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management 1

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Question 3.
Explain the management practices for improving sandy soils.
Answer:

  • Incorporate green manure which is 45-50 days old or before the flowering sets. Sunhemp/dhaincha can be used for this purpose.
  • Apply well decomposed organic manue (FYM etc.) by ploughing.
  • Poultry manure, pig manure and compost etc. can be mixed with the soil.
  • Cultivate leguminous crops in such soils.
  • Use small plot size for irrigation.
  • Remove the top sandy layer by using Karaha.
  • Incorporate clay soil or village pond soil to improve the quality.

Question 4.
Explain the method of reclamation of alkali soil.
Answer:

  • Level the field uniformly so that distribution of water is same throughout the field.
  • Do not allow the outflow of salt dissolved water to adjoining fields, prevent it by making strong bunds around the field.
  • To know the requirement of gypsum for the soil, get soil and water tested.
  • Broadcast the required dose of gypsum in the field and mix it with shallow ploughing.
  • Apply green manure, organic manure etc. to improve the soil.

Question 5.
Explain in detail the management strategy for clayey soils.
Answer:

  • To improve water infiltration rate and aeration of the clayey soil apply green manure and organic manure.
  • Plough the crop residue in the soil.
  • Plough the field at proper moisture content to avoid the formation of large-sized clods. .
  • This soil is suitable for cultivation of paddy.
  • There should be proper drainage system so as to drain out excessive water.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Soil and Soil Management Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is earth living or non-living according to soil scientists?
Answer:
It is living.

Question 2.
What is the percentage of minerals and organic matter in earth?
Answer:
Minerals 45% and organic matter 0-5%.

Question 3.
Which soil is called light soil?
Answer:
Sandy soil.

Question 4.
Which soil has high water holding capacity?
Answer:
Clayey soil.

Question 5.
Which soil is best suited for agriculture?
Answer:
Loamy soil.

Question 6.
Where is the problem of acidic soils found?
Answer:
In areas of heavy rainfall.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Question 7.
What is value of pH for Acidic soils?
Answer:
Less than 7.

Question 8.
What range of pH value is suited for agriculture?
Answer:
6.5 to 8.7.

Question 9.
What is pH of saline soils?
Answer:
Less than 8.7.

Question 10.
Which soils are called Kauai, reh, Thur or shorn?
Answer:
Saline soils.

Question 11.
How much is the water holding capacity of alkali soils?
Answer:
Very less.

Question 12.
Name a crop used for green manure?
Answer:
Sunhemp, Jantar.

Question 13.
What should be the plot size for sandy soils for irrigation?
Answer:
Small size.

Question 14.
What is the suitable time to mix lime in acidic soil?
Answer:
3-6 months before sowing the crop.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Question 15.
How big is the problem of acidic soils in Punjab?
Answer:
There is no problem of acidic soils in Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write reason why soils become acidic?
Answer:
Heavy rainfall helps in the growth of plants and more vegetation is found in such areas. Leaves etc. fall on the ground decompose and increase the acidic content. Rain water helps in the flowing out of basic salts which further adds to the acidic nature.

Question 2.
Write two properties of saline soils.
Answer:

  • Chloride and sulphate salts of calcium, magnesium and potassium have high concentration in such soils.
  • pH of these soils is less than 8.7.

Question 3.
Write two properties of alkali soils.
Answer:

  • In such soils concentration of carbonates and bicarbonates of sodium is high.
  • Infiltration rate of such soils is low.

Question 4.
Write two methods to reclaim the acidic soils.
Answer:
The soil is reclaimed by using lime. Remains from cane mill and wood ash can also be used.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Question 5.
Give properties of loamy soil.
Answer:
Its properties are between sandy and clayey soil. It feels like powder when taken in hands.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of water logged soil?
Answer:
Those soils in which water table is at depth of 0 to 1.5 m below surface of soil are called water logged soils.

Question 7.
How saline soils are reclaimed?
Answer:
Salts are washed away with water from the soil. For doing this field is flooded with water and is then ploughed. This water is drained out from the field which have salts dissolved in it. In another method, salts are made to dissolve into water and this water is allowed to leach down.

Question 8.
How can we improve sandy soils?
Answer:
We can improve sandy soil by incorporating 45-50 days old green manure crop of dhaincha/sunhemp in the soil.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Soil and Soil Management

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Make a list of physical properties of soil. Write few lines about any one of these?
Answer:
Different soils have different physical properties. Some of the physical properties are:

  1. Particle size
  2. Depth
  3. Colour
  4. Density
  5. Water holding capacity
  6. Temperature
  7. Pore size
  8. Infiltration rate

Particle size:
Soil is made up of different mineral particles. Particle size depends on the ratio in which different sized particles are present in the soil. Fertility of the soil depends on particle size to some extent.

Question 2.
What is pH value? What is the effect of pH value on soil?
Answer:
pH value:
pH value tells us the nature of the soil i.e. acidic, neutral or alkaline nature. pH value is the ratio of concentration of hydrogen ion (H+) and hydroxyl ion (OH-) in a solution.

pH value of soil Type of soil
> 8.7 Alkali
8.7 – 7 slightly  alkaline
7 Neutral
7.6 to 5 light acidic
< 6.5 acidic

Question 3.
Write briefly about the chemical characters of soil?
Answer:
Soils have different types of chemical properties like pH, electric conductivity (EC), salt content, etc. Based on these chemical properties, soils are classified as below:

  1. Acidic soils: These soils have a pH value of less than 7. These soils are found in areas where high rainfall occurs.
  2. Salt-affected soils: These soils have a high concentration of salts. Based on salt concentration, pH and EC soils can be saline, alkali, or saline-alkali.