Class 8 – Page 48 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 National Movement 1885-1919

January 19, 2024January 18, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 21 National Movement 1885-1919 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 21 National Movement 1885-1919

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB National Movement 1885-1919 Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Where the first session of the Indian National Congress was held and under whose presidentship and how many delegates participated in it?
Answer:
The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held from 28 December till 30 December 1885 under the Presidentship of Bomesh Chandra Banerjee, 72 representatives took part in it.

Question 2.
When and under whose Governor-generalship Bengal was partitioned?
Answer:
Partition of Bengal took place in 1905 A.D. under the tenure of Lord Curzon.

Question 3.
When and by whom the Muslim League was founded?
Answer:
Muslim League was founded by Muslim leaders on 30th December 1906 A.D. Its main leaders were Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan, Salim-Ulah Khan and Nawab Mohsin.

Question 4.
When, where and who founded Gadar Party?
Or
By whom and where was the Gadar Party founded? ‘ (P.S.E.H. 2020)
Answer:
Gadar Party was founded in 1913 A.D. by the Indians living in America and Canada. It was founded at San Fransisco.

Question 5.
Write down a note on Swadeshi and Boycott.
Answer:
Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was started in 1905 A.D. in Bengal after the partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon. But very rapidly it spread to other parts of the country. Important leaders of this movement were Surendra Nath Banerjee, Vipin Chandra Pal and Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Public meetings were held at different parts of the country. People took oath, in these public meetings, to use local made goods and to boycott foreign made goods. Shopkeepers were forced not to sell foreign made goods and people were also told to not to use foreign made goods. Foreign clothes were burnt at different places of the country. Nationalist newspapers also propagated to boycott foreign made goods. Swadeshi and boycot movement had greatly affected the social, economic and political life of the people. Nationalist feelings of the people were arosed by this movement.

Question 6.
Write a note on revolutionary movement.
Answer:
Revolutionary movement in India originated due to the failure of the moderates and repressive policy of government towards assertive leaders. Main objective of revolutionary leaders was to eliminate the British rule from India. That’s why they founded many secret associations in the country. Revolutionaries in these associations were given the training to fire arms. It’s main centres were in Maharashtra, Bengal, Punjab, etc.

Main leaders of revolutionary movement in Punjab were Sardar Ajit Singh, Pindi Das, Sufi Amba Prasad and Lai Chand Falak. Under their leadership many violent activities took place in cities. Except India, revolutionary movements were started in foreign countries like England, America and Canada. Shyamji Krishna Verma founded Indian Home Rule society in England. This society became the centre of revolutionary activities. Lala Hardyal founded Gadar Party in America.

Question 7.
Write down the main aims of the Indian National Congress.
Answer:
The following were the main objectives of moderates :

To establish friendly relations among those who were working in the interest of the country.
To end communalism, provincialism and the feeling of religious differences and to sow the seed of Nationalism.
To ask the government to make administrative and social reforms.
To make a programme to serve the country.
To make a programme of next 12 months for nationalists of doing activities of national interest.

Question 8.
Write down the causes of the rise of national awakening among Indians.
Answer:
National consciousness aroused among Indian people in the second half of 19th century. Meaning of National consciousness is that sense, prevailing among citizens of any nation, with which they start to feel that all of them belong to one nation.

There were many causes of the rise of national consciousness among Indian people and causes of this sense are given below :
1. Impact of Great Revolt of 1857 A.D. Indian people revolted against the British rule in 1857 A.D. to remove foreign rule from the country. This revolt was crushed by the British. After this, they started committing atrocities on Indian people. That’S why a sense of national awakening rose among Indian people to throw away foreign rule.

2. Administrative Unity. The British government started the same legal and administrative system in the country. As a result people living in different parts of the country started to consider themselves as citizens of one nation with which national consciousness rose among the people.

3. Socio-Religious Reform Movements. Many socio-religious reform movements started in 19th century and 20th century in different parts of the country. All the social reformers, like Raja Ram Mohan Roy (Brahmo Samaj), Swami Dayanand (Arya Samaj) Sri Satguru Ram Singh ji (Namdhari Movement), etc. criticised the prevailing evils of society. Socio-religious consciousness was arosed by them, among the people, to remove these evils and this lead to the birth of nationalism among the people.

4. Western Education and Literature. Indian people read books of foreign writers like Hilton, Mill, Burn etc. and came to know about their political rights. Feelings of Liberty, Equality, Fraternity and National Consciousness rose among the people with the views of many scholars like Rousseau, Voltaire, Macaulay, etc.

5. Economic Exploitation of Indians. The British traders used to buy raw materials at less rates, from Indian people and used to send it to England. Then they used to sell goods, made in the factories of England, to Indian people at higher rates. It led to less sale of Indian made goods. Small Scale Industries were destroyed due to unavailability of raw material. As a result, Indian artisans became unemployed. Farmers were forced to pay higher land revenue because of which they were forced to sell their land. In this way, they also became unemployed.

6. Non-appointment of Indians on Higher Posts. The British Government never appointed Indians on higher posts even if they had the ability to do so. So resentment came in them against the British. Except this, Indian employees were given less wages and facilities as compared to the English employees even for same work. So Indian employees were very much annoyed with this. This thing also helped in the awakening of national consciousness.

7. Indian Newspapers and Literature. Knowledge of people was increased ‘/ben newspapers in India started to publish in the English and local languages. People came to know about local and international events from newspapers like Bombay Samachar, Amrit Bazar Patrika, The Tribune, Kesari etc. and national consciousness rose among them. Except this patriotic writings of great writers like ‘Anand Math’ of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and his song ‘Vande Matram’ became very popular. Poetry and Essays of Ravindra Nath Tagore, Hemchandra Banerjee and Kashavchandra Sen also helped in awakening of national consciousness among the people.

8. Means of Transport and Communication. It became very easy for the people to move from one place to another place with the development of means of transport and communication like Railway, Post and Telegraph office, etc. People started to exchange their ideas. They started to think jointly about solution of their problems.

9. Opposition of Illbert Bill. Governor-General Lord Rippen was the first British
officer who kept soft corner for the Indians. He wanted to give equal rights to Indian judges as compared to European judges. That’s why he introduced a bill called Illbert Bill. But this Bill was opposed by the British. That’s %hy Indian people started opposing the British as well. ”

10. Study of Ancient Literature. Many European Scholars, William Jones, Max Mular, Jacobi etc. studied ancient Indian literature. They proved that the Indian’culture is great. So Indian people started to feel proud of their country and culture. It also led to awakening of national consciousness among the Indian people.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Mr A.O. Hume established Indian National Congress in Bombay in _______ A.D.
Answer:
1885

Question 2.
Lord Curzon partitioned Bengal in _______ A.D.
Answer:
1905

Question 3.
_______ said ‘Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.’
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Question 4.
The session of Indian National Congress was held in _______ A.D. in Surat.
Answer:
1907.

III. Match the words :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Home Rule Movement	(i) 1914 A.D.
2. Muslim League	(ii) Sohan Singh Bhakna
3. Minto Morlay Reforms	(iii) Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan
4. Ghadar Party	(iv) Lord Curzon
5. First World War	(v) 1916 A.D.

Answer:

A	B
1. Home Rule Movement	(v) 1916 A.D.
2. Muslim League	(iv) Lord Curzon
3. Minto Morlay Reforms	(iii) Sir Sayyed Ahmad Khan
4. Ghadar Party	(ii) Sohan Singh Bhakna
5. First World War	(i) 1914 A.D.

IV. Things To Do :

Question 1.
Paste the pictures of leaders related with this lesson in scrapbook and write about the activities performed by them.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
If you would be a leader during that period what role would be played by you in the Swadeshi and Boycott movements?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide National Movement 1885-1919 Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
After _______ AD, Nationalism in India started to emerge.
(a) 1857
(b) 1870
(c) 1885
(d) 1905.
Answer:
(a) 1857.

Question 2.
Indian National Congress was formed in _______
(a) 1857
(b) 1885
(c) 1887
(d) 1890.
Answer:
(b) 1885.

Question 3.
Who was the founder of Indian National Congress?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) A.O. Home
(c) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee.
Answer:
(b) A.O. Hume.

Question 4.
In_______ Bengal was divided by Lord Curzon.
(a) 1911 A.D.
(b) 1907 A.D.
(c) 1905 A.D.
(d) 1902 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1905 A.D.

Question 5.
_______ was the movement which was started due to partition of Bengal.
(a) Non Cooperation
(b) Civil Disobedience
(c) Quit India
(d) Swadeshi and Boycott.
Answer:
(d) Swadeshi and Boycott.

Question 6.
In _______, Gandhiji came back to India from South Africa.
(a) 1905 A.D.
(b) 1910 A.D.
(c) 1915 A.D.
(d) 1918 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1915 A.D.

Question 7.
Rowlatt Act was passed in
(a) 1915 A.D.
(b) 1919 A.D.
(c) 1917 A.D.
(d) 1921 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1919 A.D.

Question 8.
When was Arms Act passed?
(a) 1880 A.D.
(b) 1878 A.D.
(c) 1875 A.D.
(d) 1882 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1878 A.D.

Question 9.
Which act was passed to silence the critics of the British government?
(a) Vernacular Press Act
(b) Arms Act
(c) Rawlat Act.
(d) Govt, of India Act, 1935.
Answer:
(a) Vernacular Press Act.

Question 10.
Who introduced Ilbert Bill to give equal status to Indian Judges as compared to European Judges?
(a) Lord Rippen
(b) Lord Ilbert
(c) Lord Mountbetten
(d) Lord Curzon.
Answer:
(a) Lord Rippen.

Question 11.
Who was the first President of Indian National Congress?
(a) A.O. Hume
(b) Bomesh Chandra Banerjee
(c) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(d) Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
(b) Bomesh Chandra Banerjee.

Question 12.
Who gave the slogan that “Freedom is my birth right and I shall have it.”
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai.
Answer:
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Question 13.
Which age of national movement is known as the Moderate age?
(a) 1885-1905
(b) 1905-1925
(c) 1890-1915
(d) 1900-1920.
Answer:
(a) 1885-1905.

Question 14.
When was All India Muslim League founded?
(a) 1907 A.D.
(b) 1906 A.D.
(c) 1908 A.D.
(d) 1909 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1906 A.D.

Question 15.
When was Lucknow Pact signed?
(a) 1917 A.D. {b) 1915 AD.
(c) 1916 A.D. (d) 1914 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1916 A.D.

Question 16.
Gandhiji went to in 1916 to inspire the peasants to struggle the oppressive plantation system.
(a) Kheda
(b) Kanpur
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Champaran.
Answer:
(d) Champaran.

Question 17.
Who among the following was the leader of Radicals?

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Congress was founded by A.O. Hume in _______A.D.
Answer:
1885

Question 2.
Lord Curzon divided Bengal in _______ A.D.
Answer:
1905

Question 3.
_______ said that “Swaraj is my birht right and I shall have it.”
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Question 4.
Surat session of Congress was held in _______ A.D.
Answer:
1907.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
After Surat divsion of Congress -in 1907, a pact was signed between both factions in 1916.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Annie Besant and Tilak were moderate leaders of Congress.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
First President of Congress was Womesh Chandra Banerjee.
Answer:
(✓).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Home Rule League	(i) 1914 A.D.
2. Muslim League	(ii) Sohan Singh Bhakna
3. Minto Morley Reforms	(iii) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan
4. Gadar Party	(iv) 1909 A.D.
5. First World War	(v) 1916 A.D.

Answer:

A	B
1. Home Rule League	(v) 1916 A.D.
2. Muslim League	(iii) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan
3. Minto Morley Reforms	(iv) 1909 A.D.
4. Gadar Party	(ii) Sohan Singh Bhakna
5. First World War	(i) 1914 A.D.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name any four political associations founded before the foundation of Indian National Congress. What was their objective?
Answer:
Associations:

Bengal British Indian Society
British Indian Association
Indian Association
Bombay Presidency Association.

Objective: Main objective of these associations was to demand reforms in Indian administrative system by the government and to get political rights for Indian people.

Question 2.
What is meant by National Consciousness?
Answer:
Meaning of National Consciousness is to arise one sense in the minds of the people that all of them belong to one nation.

Question 3.
Name any four newspapers which awakened national consciousness among Indians.
Answer:
Bombay Samachar, Amrit Bazaar Patrika, The Tribune and Kesari.

Question 4.
Who introduced Illbert Bill and why?
Answer:
Illbert Bill was introduced by Lord Rippen because he wanted to give equal status to Indian Judges as compared to the British Judges.

Question 5.
Name three foreign scholars which told that Indian culture was great.
Answer:
William Jones, Max Muller and Jacobi.

Question 6.
Why Nationalist movement from 1885 A.D. till 1905 A.D. is known as Moderate age?
Answer:
Nationalist movement from 1885 A.D. till 1905 A.D. is known as Moderate age because all the Congress leaders of this age were moderate in nature.

Question 7.
Name some moderate Leaders.
Answer:
Ferozshah Mehta, Dada Bhai Naoroji, Surendra Nath Banerjee, Gopal Krishna Gokhle and Madan Mohan Malvia.

Question 8.
Why did Lord Curzon divide Bengal? WTiat was his objective?
Answer:
Lord Curzon said that the partition was necessary for the administrative purposes. But his actual objective was to weaken the national movement by dividing Indians.

Question 9.
When and in which parts Congress was divided?
Answer:
Congress was divided among Moderates and Extremists. This division took place at Surat Session in 1907 A.D.

Question 10.
Who was the President of Gadar Movement? Wfhat was the objective of this movement?
Answer:
The President of Gadar movement was Baba Sohan Singh Bhakna. Main objective of this movement was to remove the British rule from India through revolutionary activities.

Question 11.
Name three main extremist leaders.
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Vipin Chandra Pal.

Question 12.
Write names of main leaders of Revolutionary movement in Punjab.
Answer:
Sardar Ajit Singh, Pindi Das, Sufi Amba Prasad and Lai Chand Falak.

Question 13.
When were Minto-Morley reforms passed? WTiat was government’s motive behind this?
Answer:
Minto-Morley reforms were passed in 1909 A.D. Government’s main motive behind this was to please extremist leaders and to separate Muslims from Hindus by giving them special rights.

Question 14.
What was the name of newspaper of Gadar Party? Wfhere Gadar Party was founded by Lala Hardyal?
Answer:
Name of the newspaper of Gadar party was ‘Gadar’. Lala Hardyal founded Gadar Party in America.

Question 15.
Name two main leaders of Home Rule movement.
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mrs. Annie Besant.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the impact of English language on development of Nationalism?
Answer:
The Indians studied English as it had become the official language. Now Punjabis, Madrasis, Bengalis, Gujaratis and Haryanavis were able to talk to one another through the medium of English. English language thus helped in bringing together the people of different provinces. Indians studied Western literature through English language. Thus they received knowledge about freedom, equality, democracy, etc. They started thinking about starting struggle to achieve freedom for their own country.

Question 2.
What was the effect on the Indian languages and newspapers of discrimination against Indians by the British?
Answer:
The British always treated Indians unequally. The Indians were only appointed clerks on very low salaries. No responsible post was given to them. They were discriminated on the basis of religion, caste and creed. The newspapers which were published in Indian languages could not tolerate it. So they started writing articles which highlighted the problems of the common people. The Government took harsh measures to suppress the press. As a result, Indian public was awakened and the spirit of nationalism gained strength.

Question 3.
What were the achievements of Moderates?
Answer:

Congress sessions started to held every year just because of efforts of moderate leaders. Indian demands were kept in front of Government through these sessions.
Sense of nationalism was awakened by essays, speeches and columns of newspapers given by moderate leaders.
Moderate leaders like Dada Bhai Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjee, Gopal Krishna Gokhle etc. went over to England to propagate their demands.
Parliament of England passed Indian Council’s Act in 1892, just because of moderate efforts, according to which Indians were given representation in Lawmaking councils.
The British Government arranged to take I.C.S. Exams in India because of their efforts.

Question 4.
When and why partition of Bengal took place? What was its impact on Indian Freedom Movement?
Answer:
Partition of Bengal was ordered by Lord Curzon in 1905 A.D. His actual motive behind this partition was to weaken national movement by dividing Hindus and Muslims. People got angry with the partition of Bengal and they did strikes, took out processions at different places of the country. Swadeshi movement was also started in opposition to the partition of Bengal.

Impacts: This partition had a great impact on the Indian Freedom Movement:

National consciousness rose among the people due to partition of Bengal.
Congress was divided into two powerful parts, i.e. moderates and extremists, due to partition of Bengal.
National movement spread due to partition of Bengal.

Question 5.
What were the main provisions of Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 A.D.?
Answer:
The following were the main features of the Morley-Minto reforms :

One Indian member, S.P. Sinha was appointed as the member of the Executive Council of Governor-General.
Member of Central Legislative Council were increased from 16 to 60.
Members of Provincial legislative council were increased from 30 to 50.
Indirect electoral system was arranged to elect members of legislative council. According to this electoral system, first of all, members of Municipal Committees or District Boards were elected by the people. These elected members further elect the members of legislative council.
Separate electoral system was arranged for Muslims. 6 seats were kept reserved for them in central legislative council. Only Muslim voters were allowed to vote in these six seats.

Question 6.
What were the differences between policies of Moderates and Extremists?
Answer:
The following were the differences between the policies of moderates and extremists :

The Moderates wanted self-government (within the British Empire) and Extremists wanted Swarajya or complete Independence.
The Moderates were in favour of making appeals and sending petitions to the government but hard-liners wanted to resort to the path of agitations.
The Moderates wanted to invite the attention of the government by passing resolutions only whereas the Extremists wanted to get their demands accepted by agitations, protest meetings and demonstrations.
The Moderates believed in the British sense of Justice whereas the Extremists believed that the British would do nothing for the welfare of the Indians.

Question 7.
How Indian National Congress was divided in 1907 A.D.?
Answer:
Session of Indians National Congress was held at Surat in 1907 A.D. Moderate leaders criticised the Swadeshi and Boycot motions introduced by extremists in this session. Except this, dispute occurred between Moderates and Extremists on the issue of Presidentship of Indian National Congress. Moderates wanted to make Ras Bihari Bose as its President but Extremists were in favour of Lala Lajpat Rai. Extremists were totally against the moderate policies and their constitutional methods. So they started to do their work by separating themselves from Indian National Congress. In this way Congress „ was divided.

Question 8.
When was Muslim League founded? What were the reasons of its origin?
Answer:
Muslim leaders founded their separate political organization on the 30th of December, 1906 A.D. with the name of Muslim League. Its main leaders were Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan, Salim-Ullah Khan, Nawab Mohsin and others.

Reasons: The following were the main reasons of its origin :

Muslims wanted to make one separate association to protect their interests.
Muslim League was founded by the British Policy of ‘Divide and Rule’ in India.
Wahabi Movement started in Arabic countries with which sense of communalism occurred in India.
Principal of Mohammadan Anglo Oriented College, Mr. Beck wrote essays to encourage sense of communalism and Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan also propagated in its favour.

Question 9.
Write a note on Gadar Party.
Answer:
Many Indians lived in America and Canada. But they were badly treated by the British. So they felt that they cannot get respect in foreign countries until their country would remain under the clutches of slavery. So they made a plan to get freedom for the country. They gathered at San Fransisco (America) in 1913 A.D. and founded Gadar Party. Sohan Singh Bhakna was made President of Gadar Party. Lala Hardyal was appointed as its secretary.

Main objective of Gadar Party to get freedom for the country through revolutionary activities. Party started to publish one newspaper called ‘Gadar’ to propagate its ideas. Material related to the killing of the British supporters, Looting government treasury, making bombs, destroying Railway lines, cutting telephone wires, to encourage soldiers to do revolt etc. used to publish in this newspaper.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were demands, programmes of Indian National Congress (1885-1905 A.D.) and describe Government’s behaviour towards the Congress.
Answer:
Main demands of Indian National Congress. The following were the demands of Indian National Congress :

indian people should be given the right to elect their representatives for central and provincial legislative councils.
Indians should be appointed on higher posts according to their abilities.
Education should be spread in the country.
Unnecessary restrictions on press should be lifted.
Executive and Legislative should he separated from each other.
Local institutions should be developed and they should be given more powers.
Like England, I.C.S. The exam should also be arranged in India.
Expenditure on army should be reduced.
Land Revenue collected from the farnwrs should be reduced.
Proper system of irrigation should be made.

Programme of Indian National Congress. All the Moderate leaders of Congress (1885-1905 A.D.) were not in fiwour of using revolutionary activities or violent activities to meet their demands from the Government. They used to put their demands in front of government through speeches. motions and applications. They used to pass motion in every session of Congress and used to send it to the government. They believed that Government will definitely accept their demands.

Government’s behaviour towards Indian National Congress. The government wanted that Congress should remain under its control but when it was unable to do then it moved against the Congress. The government restricted government officials to take part in sessions of the Congress. The Government also tried to separate Muslims from the Congress. In this way Government adopted the policy of neglecting towards Congress.

Question 2.
Explain the founding of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Many Indians had been planning to form a political organization of all India character. In 1885 A.D.. A.O. Hume, a retired English Civil Servant, appealed to the young graduates of the Calcutta University to form an association for the social, moral and political uplift of the Indians. He got in touch with the prominent Indian leaders like Dada Bhai Naoroji, Feroz Shah Mehta. Bedur-ud-Din Toyabji and founded with their help the Indian National Congress. It held its first session in December, 1885. It was presided over by W.C. Bannerji. After the establishment of Congress, a number of other associations joined it.

Soon the Congress became the most influential political organization in the country.

Main objectives of the Congress :

To develop friendship among the Indians who were working for national cause in various parts of the country.
To develop sentiments of national unity by removing prejudices of race, creed, region and religion.
To develop a mature public opinion on the social problems of the day.
Presentation of popular demands before the Government.

Question 3.
Write down in brief the rise of extremists.
Answer:
National Movement from 1905 till 1919 A.D. remained in the hands of extremist leaders. There were many reasons of origin of extremists whose brief description is given below :
1. Failure of the Moderates. Moderate leaders failed in fulfilling their demands by Government. That’s why youngsters demanded to do powerful political activities.

2. Unemployment. Many Indians got higher education but they remained unemployed. They got annoyed with the British Government and started to think about taking hard steps.

3. Economic Policy of the British. Economic policy started by the British was very helpful in encouraging extremist nationalism.

4. Femine and Plague. Femine occurred in different parts of the country in 1896-97 A.D., Plague also broke out at nearby area of Pune in 1897 A.D. Hundreds or thousands of people died in it. The British Government hardly gave any help in this type of situation. So Indians supported the extremist based movement.

5. Motivation from Foreign Revolutions. Indians got nationalism to free their country from the world events like French Revolution, American struggle for freedom. Unification of Italy, etc. That’s why they adopted the path of extremist nationalism.

6. Misbehaviour with Indians in Foreign Countries. Indians living in England and South Africa were not properly behaved by the British. So Indian nationalists started a powerful movement to get freedom from the British rule.

7. Russian Defeat From Japan. A war broke out in 1904-05 A.D. between J.apan and Russia. A big country like Russia was defeated by small country like Japan. This Japanese win over Russia awakened the sense of getting freedom in the minds of Indians. It also encouraged extremist nationalism.

8. Speeches of Extremist Leaders. Extremist movement was started by the leaders Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Vipin Chandra Pal. They took out processions and gave speeches at different places of the country. Bal Gangadhar Tilak said that, “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it.’’ This type of views were also expressed by Lala Lajpat Rai and Vipin Chandra Pal. gaj Gangadhar Tilak Extremist nationalism was motivated by these type of views.

Question 4.
Explain Home Rule Movement and Lucknow Pact.
Answer:
Home Rule Movement. Home Rule League was founded by Mrs. Annie Besant at Madras and by Bal Gangadhar Tilak at Pune in 1916 A.D. Its main objective was to establish a home rule or Swaraj in India and to arose consciousness about Swaraj among the Indians. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was of the view that “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” As a result, the Indian minister of Britain declared on Aug. 1917 that British Government would establish institutions of self-rule in India, and slowly and slowly self-rule will be established in the country. Just after this declaration, Home Rule League came to an end gradually.

Lucknow Pact. First World War started in Europe in 1914 A.D. British fought against Muslim country, Turkey in this war. The Sultan of Turkey was the religious leader of all the Muslims of the world. That’s why leaders of the Muslim League got annoyed with this and joined hands with Indian National Congress. In 1916 A.D., one pact took place between both the parties at Lucknow according to which separate representation for Muslims was accepted by Indian National Congress. So both these parties started to take part in the national movements in association with each other. It gave new strength to a national movement.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Handicraft and Industry

January 19, 2024January 18, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 14 Handicraft and Industry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 14 Handicraft and Industry

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Handicraft and Industry Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Write down the two reasons for the decline of small-scale industries in India.
Answer:

The main protectors of these industries were local rulers, their family members, and officials.
When the British started conquering local kingdoms, then cottage industries were bound to decline.
People of new classes didn’t like the goods made in cottage industries of India.
They were under the impact of the British. That’s why they liked the goods made in Europe instead of goods made in India.

Question 2.
Why the goods made by small-scale industries were expensive in India?
Answer:
Goods made by cottage industries of India were more expensive because more labour was required to manufacture these goods.

Question 3.
Where and when the first cotton industry was set up in India?
Answer:
First industry (factory) of cotton textile in India was set up in 1853 A.D. at Bombay.

Question 4.
Where and when the first jute industry was set up in India?
Answer:
First Jute industry in India was established in 1854 A.D. at Sarampur (Bengal).

Question 5.
Where and when the first coffee garden was set up?
Answer:
First coffee garden in India was started in 1840 A.D. in South India.

Question 6.
Where afiid when the first tea garden was set up?
Answer:
First tea-garden in India was established in 1852 A.D. at Assam.

Question 7.
Write down the reasons of decline of small scale industries in India in the 19th century.
Answer:
Indian villages were self-dependent before the establishment of the British rule in India. People of villages such as blacksmiths, farmers, carpenters, cobblers, potters, etc. collectively made things to fulfil needs of the village. Their cottage industry or their art was their means of income. But after the advent of the British rule in the country, rural people also started using goods made in the British factories because they were cheap as well as of good quality. So the small scale industries of villages and Indian cities started to decline and people became unemployed.

Question 8.
Write down the importance of modern Indian industries.
Answer:
Economic and Social life of India was greatly affected by the development of modern industries in India. It led to the emergence of two classes i.e. capitalists and labourers. Capitalists started to exploit the labourers. They gave less wages by taking more work from the labourers. So government passed the Factory Acts to improve condition of labourers. Many new cities came into being with industrial development. These cities became centres of modern life and culture.

Question 9.
Write a note on Indigo industry.
Answer:
Indigo was required by the British for textile industry in England. That’s why they encouraged the cultivation of indigo in India. It was started in Bihar and Bengal in laterpart of 18th century. Europeans established large gardens of Indigo where Indian were employed. 35 Lakh hectare land was there in 1825 under the cultivation of indigo. But this cultivation of indigo started declining in 1879 A.D. when manufacture of artificial indigo started. As a result only 3-4 Lakh hectare remained under the cultivation of indigo in 1915 A.D.

Question 10.
Write down a note on Coal Mines.
Answer:
All the new factories, established by the British in India, were run by coal. Coal was also required to run the railway. That’s why special care was given to take out coal from mines. In 1854 A.D. only two coal mines were there in Raniganj district of Bengal. But this number increased to 56 in 1880 and to 123 in 1885 A.D.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The kings of princely states used to use the things made by industries.
Answer:
small scale

Question 2.
New generation did not the goods prepared by small scale industries.
Answer:
like

Question 3.
All new factories were run by
Answer:
power.

III. Write True or False in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
All workers became unemployed due to the decline of small scale industries in towns and villages.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Industrial revolution occurred in England in the 19th century.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The rates of the small scale commodities were high.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Indian raw material began export to England in the 18th century.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the words :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Assam	(i) Sarampur (Bengal)
2. Jute Industry	(ii) Raniganj
3. Coal Mining Industry	(iii) Tea Company

A	B
1. Assam	(iii) Tea Company
2. Jute Industry	(i) Sarampur (Bengal)
3. Coal Mining Industry	(ii) Raniganj

Answer:

V. Things To Do :

Question 1.
Dear student! a potter will be making the utensils of clay. You go to him and know how he is doing his professions?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
If any weaver is weaving the cloth in any village or near the village then you go to him and know how cloth is prepared by him?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Handicraft and Industry Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of these was a cause of decline of small scale industries in India?
(а) Abolition of native princely states
(b) High rates of small scale commodities
(c) Better finishing of machine-made goods
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
When was the first Cotton factory established in India?
(a) 1853 A.D.
(b) 1854 AD.
(c) 1855 A.D.
(d) 1856 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1853 A.D.

Question 3.
Where was the first Jute industry set up in 1854 A.D.?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Sarampur
(c) Bokaro
(d) Jharia.
Answer:
(b) Sarampur.

Question 4.
What is Hectare?
(a) A measurement of height
(b) A measurement of Weight
(c) A measurement of land
(d) A measurement of air
Answer:
(c) A measurement of land.

Question 5.
When was Assam Tea company established?
(a) 1844 A.D.
(b) 1834 A.D.
(c) 1854 A.D.
(d) 1864 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1834 A.D.

Question 6.
Where was first tea garden developed in 1852 A.D?
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Karnataka
(d) Meghalaya.
Answer:
(a) Assam.

Question 7.
When was first coffee garden established in India?
(a) 1820 A.D.
(b) 1830 A.D.
(c) 1840 A.D.
(d) 1850 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1840 A.D.

Question 8.
Mahatma Gandhi believed that all Indians must make their cloth by knitting the yarn. In the given picture Mahatma Gandhi is knitting the yarn to make ________ cloth.

(a) Silk
(b) Khadi.
(c) Jute
(d) Polyster
Answer:
(b) Khadi.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Kings of local kingdoms used products made by ________ industry.
Answer:
cottage

Question 2.
New generation never ________ the products of cottage industry.
Answer:
like

Question 3.
All new industries are run on ________
Answer:
coal.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Decline of Indian cottage industry led to the unemployment of artisons.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Industrial revolution in England started in 19th century.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Machine made goods are costly.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
In 18th century, raw material from India was exported to England.
Answer:
(✓).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Assam	(i) Sarampur (Bengal)
2. Jute Industry	(ii) Raniganj
3. Coal Mines	(iii) Tea Company

Answer:

A	B
1. Assam	(iii) Tea Company
2. Jute Industry	(i) Sarampur (Bengal)
3. Coal Mines	(ii) Raniganj

Question 1.Very Short Answer Type Questions

What was the economic condition of villages before the establishment of the British rule?
Answer:
Villages were self-dependent from economic point of view before the establishment of the British rule.

Question 2.
Why goods made by Indian artisans were unable to compete with goods made by machines?
Answer:
Goods made by Indian artisans were unable to compete with machine made goods because machine made goods were not only cheap but they were of good quality as well.

Question 3.
Why goods by cottage industries of India were not liked by people of new classes?
Answer:
Because they were under the impact of western culture.

Question 4.
Which things are made in Jute industry?
Answer:
Mats and sacks of jute.

Question 5.
Why coffee industry suffered huge loss?
Answer:
Indian coffee was in competition with the coffee of Brazil which was much better in quality as compared to the Indian coffee. That’s why coffee industry of India suffered huge loss.

Question 6.
Name six modern industries developed during the British rule in India.
Answer:

Cotton Textile industry
Jute industry
Coal industry
Indigo industry
Tea
Coffee.

Question 7.
Why were the Factory Acts passed?
Answer:
The Factory Acts were passed to improve the condition of labourers.

Question 8.
Clothes made of which thing were used by early man to keep himself warm?
Answer:
Clothes made by skin of animals.

Question 9.
Where were maximum jute factories opened and who opened them?
Answer:
Maximum Jute factories were opened in Bengal and they were opened by the Europeans.

Question 10.
Why was the cultivation of indigo reduced?
Answer:
The cultivation of indigo was reduced because of the introduction of synthetic indigo in 1879 A.D.

Question 11.
Why did the Coffee plantation industry suffer a lot?
Answer:
The coffee plantation industry suffered a lot because of the competition with Brazilian coffee.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How was the process of making of cloth developed in India? Which evidences have been found about making of cloth through excavation?
Answer:
Early man wore clothes made by skin of animals to keep himself warm. The process of making of cloth was invented quite late. It has been believed that grass was used to make clothes inTndia. Later on they came to know about use of thread on ‘Khaddi or Kargha’ or to make samples. With the passage of time, the technique of making clothes on charkha or kargha was improved.

Evidence: Archaeologists, who study ancient goods, have found evidences of coloured cotton cloth and making of thread from the excavations of Harappa and Mohenjodaro.

Except this, they have found charkhas, mats etc. from excavations of certain places of Kashmir. It tells us that people used to make clothes even 4,000 years ago.

Question 2.
Why did the textile industry decline in India? How it got new life or how was it revived?
Answer:
Indian clothes were famous all around the world. European traders came to India to do trade of cloth and pepper, cloves, cardamom and cinnamon. They established factories of cotton clothes in India. Production in these factories was being done with machines instead of ‘Khaddis’. But textile industry in India started declining after the advent of industrial revolution in England. But in the 20th century, Mahatma Gandhi encouraged the production of Khadi cloth through ancient means of producing clothes i.e. through ‘Charkha’. With this Indian cloth industry was revived.

Government made new economic policy with which cloth industry did enormous progress. Government has also given many facilities for the export and import of the cloth.

Question 3.
Write a note on Jute industry in India during the British rule.
Answer:
Jute industry makes sacks and mats of jute. This industry was mainly under control of European people. First jute industry in India was established at Serumpur (Bengal) in 1854 A.D. After this, most jute factories were established in the province of Bengal. This number of industries was increased up to 36 in the start of 20th century.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down in detail the causes of decline of small scale industries.
Answer:
The main reasons of decline of cottage industries in India are given below :
1. End of Local Kingdoms of India: A number of Indian kingdoms were annexed by the British. That’s why cottage industries suffered a great loss because the things made by cottage industries were used by family members and kings of local kingdoms.

2. Expensive goods of Indian cottage industries: Goods made by the Indian cottage industries were more expensive because more labour was required to manufacture those products. On the other hand, goods made by machines were very cheap. That’s why the sale of goods made by cottage industries was declined. It lead to decline of Indian cottage industries.

3. Quality of machine-made goods. The quality of machine-made goods of the British ‘ industries was much better than the goods made by local cottage industries. That’s why the machine-made goods were liked by most of the Indians. This thing also led to decline of Indian cottage industries.

4. Interests of people of new classes. People of new classes were under the impact of western culture. With this, the things made by machines were of much better quality as compared to the local goods. That’s why the local goods were not ljked by the people of new generation.

5. Sending Indian raw material to England. Industrial Revolution came in Europe in 18th century. That’s why large industries were established over there. Lot of raw material was required to make goods in such industries. But England itself was unable to fulfill needs of its industries. That’s why the British rulers in India started to send raw material from India to England. It led to the shortage of raw material for the Indian manufacturers. So Indian industries started declining.

Question 2.
Write down in detail about modern Indian industries.
Answer:
Many new industries were established in India during the British rule but of which main industries are given below :
1. Cotton Textile Industries. First cotton textile industry in India was established at 1853 A.D. in Bombay. After this, many textile mills were established in 1877 A.D. in cotton-producing areas of Ahmedabad, Nagpur, etc. Till 1879 A.D. around 59 cotton textile mills were established in India in which around 43,000 people were employed. This number of textile mills was increased to 206 in 1905 A.D. Around 1,96,000 labourers were employed in these industries.

2. Jute Industry. Jute industry makes mats and sacks of jute. This industry was mainly under the European people. First jute industry in India was established at Sarampur (Bengal) in 1854 A.D. After this most jute factories were established in the province of Bengal. This number of industries was increased up to 36 in the beginning of 20th century.

3. Coal Mining. All the industries established by the British in India were running with coal. Coal was also required for railway. That’s why special care was given to take out coal from mines. In 1854 A.D. only two coal mines were there in Raniganj district of Bengal. But this number increased to 56 in 1880 and to 123 in 1885 A.D.

4. Indigo Industry. Indigo was required by the British for textile industry in England. That’s why they encourage cultivation of indigo in India. It was started in Bihar and Bengal in later part of 18th century. Europeans established large gardens of indigo where thousands of Indians were employed. 35 Lakh hectare land was there under the cultivation of Indigo. But this cultivation of indigo started to decline in 1879 A.D. when manufacture of artificial indigo started. As a result, only 3-4 Lakh hectare remained under the cultivation of indigo in 1915 A.D.

5. Tea. One company was established in Assam in 1834 A.D. the British planted the first Tea garden in Assam in 1852 A.D. Till 1920 A.D., around 7 Lakh hectare land was there under the cultivation of tea. Tea of around 34 crore Pounds was exported to foreign countries at that time. Later on, tea gardens were also planted in the mountains of Kangra and Nilgiri.

6. Coffee. The first coffee garden was planted in South India in 1840 A.D. Later on, the coffee gardens were planted in the regions of Mysore, Coorg, Nilgiri, and Malabar. This industry suffered a huge loss due to its competition with the coffee of Brazil.

7. Other Industries. Many new industries were established in India during the later part of the 19th century and the early part of the 20th century. Out of these industries steel, sugar, paper, matchstick, leather industries were more important.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Vitamins

January 19, 2024January 18, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 3 Vitamins Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 3 Vitamins

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB Vitamins Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you know about vitamins?
Answer:
Vitamins are such chemical materials which help our body for proper growth and development. By now many vitamins have been discovered but the most prominent of all these are vitamins A, B, C, D, E and K.

Question 2.
What is the importance of vitamins?
Answer:
Importance of Vitamins in our body:

Vitamins maintain our health.
Vitamins help in the growth and development of our body,
They increase appetite.
They purify our blood and increase blood in our body.
They strengthen the bones and teeth.
Vitamins help us to create immunity in our body.
They cure the skin diseases.
They provide energy to our body.

Question 3.
What do you know about vitamin A? Write the effects of deficiency and excess of it.
Answer:
Vitamins:
By now many vitamins have been discovered, but the most prominent of all these are vitamins A, B, C, D, E and K. The details about the sources and functions of various vitamins have been given below:

Sources:
It is available in plenty in milk, curd, butter, cheese, egg, fish, fresh vegetables such as spinach, carrot, cabbage and tomato, orange, mango, papaya, fig, etc.

1. Vitamin A:
The following are the functions of vitamin A-

It improves eyesight.
It increases appetite.
It keeps digestive function normal.
It helps in the development and strengthening of body.

Diseases which are produced due to the deficiency of the vitamin ‘A’:

The lack of vitamin A causes night blindness.
The skin becomes dry.
Nose, throat, eyes and skin become more prone to infectious diseased.
The body becomes weak and’its development stops.
The lungs get weakened.

Question 4.
What is vitamin B complex? What is the source of it?
Answer:
Vitamin B:
The following are the functions of vitamin B:

It regulates Nervous System and keeps it normal.
It energizes nerves, muscles, heart and brain.
It stimulates appetite.
It gives protection against skin diseases.

Diseases which are produced due to the deficiency of the vitamin B:

One feels less appetite.
The development of children stops.
One is affected with a disease called berry-berry and skin diseases.
One develops blisters on the tongue.
The hair begins to fall off.

Sources:
It is available in milk, curd, butter, cheese, whole pulses, cereals, soyabean, peas, eggs, leaves of green vegetables, cabbage, onion, spinach, tomato, salad, etc.

Question 5.
What is vitamin C? Write its functions?
Answer:
Sources:
It is found in orange, lemon, pomegranate, guava, amla, etc. In addition to these, it is available in green vegetables, tomato, cabbage, carrot, spinach, etc.

Functions of vitamin C:

Vitamin C help in the absorption of iron from the food materials.
It mantains and repairs cartilage, bones and teeth.
It keeps the blood vessels healthy.
It help in healing bone injuries.
It strengthens the immune system.
It maintains good eye health and improves vision.

Deficiency of Vitamin C causes:

One is afflicted with such tooth diseases as pyorrhoea.
The bones get weakened.
Wounds do not heal quickly.
One suffers from anaemia.
Bleeding does not stop quickly.

Question 6.
Write about vitamin D?
Write the effect of its deficiency.
Answer:
Vitamin D:
The functions of vitamin D are –

It helps in the formation of bones and teeth.
It strengthens bones and teeth.
It is needed most for the growth of children.

Sources: It is found in milk, egg yolk, butter, ghee, cod liver oil, etc. It forms itself in the rays of the sun.

Diseases which are produced due to deficiency of the vitamin ‘D’:

Bones become weak.
The teething of children gets delayed.
One is afflicted with such diseases as epilepsy, hysteria and rickets.
Muscles become weak.

Question 7.
What is vitamin E? Write its sources.
Answer:
Vitamin E:
The functions of Vitamin E are-

It increases the reproduction power.
It prevents impotence in men and infertility in women.

Diseases which are produced due to deficiency of the vitamin ‘E’:

Boils are formed on the skin.
One is afflicted with infertility.

Sources:
It is available in cabbage, carrot, salad, peas, onion, tomato, cauliflower. In addition to these, it is found in honey, wheat, rice, egg yolk, almond, pistachis, gram pulse, etc.

Question 8.
What is vitamin K? Write effects of its deficenecy.
Answer:
Vitamin K:
The functions of Vitamin K are as follows:

It stops blood flow from cuts.
It helps in blood clotting.
It saves one from skin diseases.

Diseases which are produced due to deficiency of the vitamin K:

The process of blood clotting gets stopped.
One is afflicted with some skin diseases.

Sources: It is found in cabbage, spinach, fish, soyabean, tomato and egg yolk.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide Vitamins Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Mention the types of Vitamin:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) All above.
Answers:
(D) All above.

Question 2.
From where we get Vitamin D?
(A) Sun
(B) Food
(C) Fruits
(D) None of these.
Answers:
(A) Sun

Question 3.
Beri-Beri disease is cause of Vitamin:
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin K
(D) None of these.
Answers:
(A) Vitamin C

Question 4.
Lack of which Vitamin causes scurvy disease?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin B
(D) None of these.
Answers:
(B) Vitamin A

Question 5.
Lack of Vitamin A which disease occurs?
(A) Night Blindness and skin disease
(B) Not feeling hungry
(C) Anaemia
(D) All of the above.
Answers:
(D) All of the above

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention the types of vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamins are of six types – A, B, C, D, E and K.

Question 2.
Lack of which vitamin causes night blindness?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin A.

Question 3.
Lack of which Vitamin causes Berry-Berry disease?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin B.

Question 4.
Lack of which Vitamin causes Scurvy disease?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin B.

Question 5.
What is the cause of Pyoria?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin C.

Question 6.
Lack of which vitamin causes infertility in women?
Answer:
Lack of Vitamin E.

Question 7.
Mention the vitamins which are not soluble inwater?
Answer:
Vitamins C, D and K.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the effect of vitamin ‘C’ deficiency?
Answer:
The deficiency of vitamin C causes scurvy. It results in the swelling and aching of hand and feet. The development of bones becomes slow and sometimes the bones get distorted. It delays the healing of wounds and weakens the teeth. It results in dark circles under eyes. There is always a risk of communicable diseases.

Question 2.
What are vitamins?
Answer:
Vitamins are such chemical materials which help our body for proper growth and development. By now many vitamins have been discovered but the most prominent of all these are vitamins A, B, C, D, E and K.

Question 3.
What are functions of vitamin ‘A’ and write its sources.
Answer:
Vitamin A:
The following are the functions of vitamin A-

It improves eyesight.
It increases appetite.
It keeps digestive function normal.
It helps in the development and strengthening of body.
Img 5

Diseases which are produced due to the deficiency of vitamin A:

The lack of vitamin A causes night blindness.
The skin becomes dry.
Nose, throat, eyes and skin become more prone to infectious diseases.
The body becomes weak and its development stops.
The lungs get weakened.

Sources:
It is available in plenty in milk, curd, butter, cheese, egg, fish, fresh- vegetables such as spinach, carrot, cabbage and tomato, orange, mango, papaya, fig, etc.

Question 4.
Write the source of vitamin E and K
Answer:
Sources of Vitamin E:
It is available in cabbage, carrot, salad, peas, onion, tomato, cauliflower. In addition to these, it is found in honey, wheat, rice, egg yolk, almond, pistachis, gram pulse, etc.

Sources of Vitamin K: It is found in cabbage, spinach, fish, soyabean, tomato and egg yolk.

Question 5.
What are the need of vitamins in our body?
Answer:
Need of Vitamins in our body:

Vitamins maintain our health.
Vitamins help in the growth and development of our body.
They increase appetite.
They purify our blood and increase blood in our body.
They strengthen the bones and teeth.
Vitamins help us to create immunity in our body.
They cure the skin diseases.
They provide energy to our body.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals

January 19, 2024January 18, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Conservation of Plants and Animals Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) A place where animals are protected in their natural habitat is called …………………..
(b) Species found only in a particular area is known as …………….. .
(c) Migratory birds fly to faraway places because of …………………. changes.
Answer:
(a) Zoo
(b) endemic species
(c) climatic.

Question 2.
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Wildlife sanctuary and biosphere reserve
(b) Zoo and wildlife sanctuary
(c) Endangered and extinct species
(d) Flora and fauna.
Answer:
(a) Difference between Wildlife Sanctuary and Biosphere Reserve.
Wildlife sanctuary is the place where wild animals are protected and preserved. Biosphere reserve is the area meant for conservation of variety of plants, animals and micro-organisms (biodiversity) found in an area.

(b) Difference between Zoo and Wildlife Sanctuary.
Zoo is a place where animals are protected in their natural habitat.
Wildlife Sanctuary is a place where wild animals are protected and preserved.

(c) Endangered and Extinct Species.
Endangered Species are the animals whose numbers are diminishing and face extinction.
Extinct Species are the species which have been disappeared from the earth.

(d) Difference between Flora and Fauna.
Flora is a collection of plants found in a particular area.
Fauna is a collection of animals found in a particular area.

Question 3.
Discuss the effects of deforestation on the following.
(a) Wild animals
(b) Environment
(c) Villages (Rural areas)
(d) Cities (Urban areas)
(e) Earth
(f) The next generation.
Answer:
(a) Effect of deforestation on wild animals.
Plant and trees are the habitat and food for wild animals. So cutting of trees destroy the natural habitat of wild animals and thus they would become endangered species.

(b) Effect of deforestation on environment.
Deforestation decreases the level of oxygen in the atmosphere. Rainfall and the fertility of soil also decreases due to deforestation. As a result, there are increased chances of natural calamities like floods and drought.

(c) Effect of deforestation on villages (rural areas).
Most of the agriculture is done in rural areas. When trees and plants (deforestation) are cut down, it leads to change in soil properties.

(d) Effect of deforestation on cities (urban areas).
In cities there run more factories and automobiles. So deforestation will pollute the environment and hence the life in cities will not be healthy for living.

(e) Effect of deforestation on earth.
Deforestation leads to the increase of natural calamities like flood and drought. Deforestation leads to increase in temperature of earth causing global warming. Less trees would result in more soil erosion.

(f) Effect of deforestation on the next generation.
Deforestation leads to the climatic changes which have a great effect on the next generations. The environment becomes polluted. So the next generation would not be as prosperous as previous one.

Question 4.
What will happen if:
(a) we go on cutting trees
(b) the habitat of an animal is disturbed
(c) the top layer of soil is exposed ?
Answer:
(a) If we go on cutting trees continuously, rainfall and the fertility of the soil will decrease. Hence there are increased chances of natural calamities such as floods and drought.

(b) If the habitat of an animal is disturbed, some of the species do not get appropriate food and shelter and with the passage of time they will come under the category of endangered species.

(c) If the top layer of the soil is exposed, the soil has less humus and become less fertile. Gradually the land converts into deserts. It is called desertification.

Question 5.
Answer in brief:
(a) Why should we conserve biodiversity ?
(b) Protected forests are also not completely safe for wild animals. Why ?
(c) Some tribals depend on the jungle. How ?
(d) What are the causes and consequences of deforestation ?
(e) What is Red Data Book ?
(f) What do you understand by the term migration ?
Answer:
(a) Biodiversity is the variety of plants, animals and micro-organisms generally found in an area. Animals that feed on plants too are selective in their feeding habits e.g. the red panda prefers tender bamboo shoots and the koala bear of Australia feeds mostly on eucalyptus leaves. Birds and antelopes too, are very selective in their feeding habits. Wide variety of plants in the forests fulfil the needs of different herbivorous animals and strengthen the food chain. Therefore, to conserve wild life, it is necessary to conserve the rich variety of plants and animals.

(b) Protected forests are also not completely safe for wild animals because people living in the neighbourhood encroach upon them and destroy them.

(c) Some tribes depend on the jungle. Rock shelters are also found inside the Satpura National Park which are the pre-historic evidences of human life in these jungles.

Figures of animals, men shown as fighting, hunting, dancing, and playing musical instruments are depicted in these rock paintings. Figures of a man-eater tiger and a group of people are also shown in these rock paintings. Many tribals still live in the jungle.

(d) Causes of Deforestation.
Due to changing lifestyle of the people and development of technology in the 20th century, the utilization of forest products has increased tremendously. The main factors leading to the felling of trees for our comfort and convenience are:

Requirement of more timber for housing purpose due to increase in population.
Clearing the forest land for cultivation.
Construction of roads and dams.
Overgrazing by the cattle.
Increased mining industry.

Consequences of Deforestation.
The following are the major consequences of deforestation:

The balance of oxygen/carbon dioxide ratio in air will be disturbed.
Excessive floods.
Soil erosion.
Climatic changes.
Destruction or migration of animals and birds living in forests.
No replenishment of ground water.
Destruction of medicinal plants.
Industries related to timber, rubber etc. will not flourish.
Reduction in fertility of soil.

(e) Red Data Book.
Red Data Book is the source book which keeps a record of all endangered animals and plants. There are different Red Data Books for plants, animals and other different species.

(f) Migration.
Going far away from their original habitat of some species during a particular period of the year is called migration. Migration mostly takes place in birds. Birds migrate to other places due to climatic changes e.g. Bar headed goose, Great Cormorant, Surkhab are the migratory birds.

Question 6.
In order to meet the ever-increasing demand in factories and for shelter, trees are being continually cut. Is it justified to cut trees for such projects ? Discuss and prepare a brief report.
Answer:
It is not justified to cut trees for such projects. Do yourself by discussing in your class.

Question 7.
How can you contribute to the maintenance of green wealth of your locality ? Make a list of actions to be taken by you.
Answer:
We should maintain the green wealth of our locality.

We should grow more and more trees on the either side of road.
We should discourage the cutting of trees.
The government should make laws to prevent the excessive cutting of trees.
Parks should be made in a particular area.

Question 8.
Explain how deforestation leads to reduced rainfall.
Answer:
We know that forest helps in bringing the rainfall. So deforestation leads to reduced rainfall and the fertility of soil also decreases. As a result, there are increased chances of natural calamities such as floods and drought.

Question 9.
Find out about the national parks in your state. Identify and show their locations in the outline map of India.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 10.
Why should paper be saved ? Prepare a list of ways by which you can save paper.
Answer:
Need of saving paper.
One tonne of paper needs 17 full grown trees. So we should save paper. Paper can be recycled for 5-7 times and can be used. We should save, reuse used paper and recycle it. By this we not only save trees but also.save energy and water needed for manufacturing paper. Moreover, the harmful chemicals used in paper making will also be reduced.

List of ways of Saving Paper:

Write on both sides of a paper.
Re use the paper.
Leave less margin.
Make toys, caps etc. out of used papers.

Question 11.
Complete the word puzzle.
Down
1. Species on the verge of extinction.
2. A book carrying information about endangered species.
5. Consequence of deforestation.
Across
1. Species which have vanished.
3. Species found only in a particular habitat.
4. Variety of plants, animals and micro-organisms found in an area.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals 1
Answer:

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Conservation of Plants and Animals Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Students saw a huge squirrel in the forest which is often found in this particular region. Rajinder asked guide about it. Guide told him that it is found in this particular area only. What is this species called ?
(a) Ordinary species
(b) Endemic species
(c) Endangered species
(d) Special species.
Answer:
(b) Endemic species.

Question 2.
In which book, the record of endangered species is kept ?
(a) Blue Data Book
(b) Red Data Book
(c) Yellow Data Book
(d) Green Data Book
Answer:
(b) Red Data Book.

Question 3.
What causes the migration of birds and animals ?
(a) For entertainment
(b) For Respiration
(c) For Abondonment
(d) For Reproduction.
Answer:
(d) For Reproduction.

Question 4.
When was Project Tiger Act launched by our government ?
(a) 5 April 1973
(b) 1 April 1973
(c) 12 April 1973
(d) 14 April 1973
Answer:
(b) 1 April 1973.

Question 5.
The increase in level of which gas causes global warming ?
(a) CO₂
(b) O₂
(c) N₂
(d) H₂
Answer:
(a) CO₂

Question 6.
Which of the following is a migratory bird ?
(a) Parrot
(b) Surkhab
(c) Maina
(d) Pigeon.
Answer:
(b) Surkhab.

Question 7.
In which state is Kanha National Park situated ?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(6) Madhya Pradesh

Question 8.
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve has which of the following animals ?
(a) Wild Dog
(b) Leopard
(c) Wolf
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 9.
The plants and animal found in a particular area are called:
(a) Endemic species
(b) Fauna
(c) Flora and fauna
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Endemic species.

Question 10.
By how many full-grown trees one tone paper is made ?
(a) 17
(b) 27
(c) 7
(d) 37
Answer:
(a) 17.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
1. The removal of the top soil layer is known as ………………..
Answer:
soil erosion

2. Wild plants and animals in the forest constitute ………………
Answer:
wildlife

3. Plants need ……………. gas for photosynthesis.
Answer:
carbon dioxide

4. The conversion of fertile land into deserts is called …………….
Answer:
desertification

5. …………………. is that part of the earth in which living organisms exist or which supports life.
Answer:
Biosphere

6. ………………….. refers to the variety in life existing on earth.
Answer:
Biodiversity

7. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists of one national park named …………………. and two wildlife sanctuaries named ………………. and ……………. .
Answer:
Satpura, Bori, Pachmarhi

8. The plants and animals found in a particular area are termed ………………. and ………………. .
Answer:
flora, fauna

9. …………………. species are exclusively found in a particular area only.
Answer:
Endemic

10. …………………… is a group of populations which are capable of interbreeding with each other.
Answer:
species

Question 2.
Define deforestation.
Answer:
Deforestation. Clearing of forests and using that land for other purposes is called deforestation.

Question 3.
Give some natural causes of deforestation.
Answer:
Causes of Deforestation. Forest fires and severe drought are some of the natural causes of deforestation.

Question 4.
What is the result of decrease in rainfall and fertility of soil ?
Answer:
This results in the increase of natural calamities such as floods and drought.

Question 5.
Which gas is needed by plant for photosynthesis ?
Answer:
The plant needs carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

Question 6.
What is the result of increased amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere ?
Answer:
It leads to global warming.

Question 7.
What causes draught ?
Answer:
Causes of Draught. Increase in temperature on earth causes draught.

Question 8.
Define Desertification.
Answer:
Desertification. The conversion of fertile land into desert is called desertification.

Question 9.
Name the place which has plants and animals similar to those of the upper Himalayan peaks and those belonging to lower Western Ghats.
Answer:
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

Question 10.
What do the government do to protect and conserve wildlife ?
Answer:
The government lays down rules, methods and policies to protect and conserve them.

Question 11.
What is biosphere ?
Answer:
Biosphere. It is that part of earth in which living beings exist or which supports life.

Question 12.
Define biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity. It refers to variety in life existing on earth, their inter relationships and their relationship with the environment.

Question 13.
What are biosphere reserves ?
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve. Biosphere reserves are the areas that are meant for conservation of biodiversity.

Question 14.
Name one national park and two wildlife sanctuaries in Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
National Park – Satpura
Wildlife Sanctuaries – Bori and Pachmarhi.

Question 15.
Define flora.
Answer:
Flora. The plants found in a particular area is called flora.

Question 16.
Name some flora of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Sal, Teak, Mango, Jamun, Silver ferns, Arjun etc.

Question 17.
Define fauna.
Answer:
Fauna. These are the animals found in a particular area.

Question 18.
Name fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Chinkara, blue-bull, barking deer, leopard, wild dog, wolf etc.

Question 19.
Define species.
Answer:
Species. It is a group of population which are capable of interbreeding with each other.

Question 20.
What are endemic species ?
Answer:
Endemic Species. These are exclusively found in a particular area only which may be any geographical unit like a state, zone or a country.

Question 21.
Give two endemic flora of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:

Sal
Wild mango.

Question 22.
Give two endemic fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:

Indian giant squirrel
Flying squirrel.

Question 23.
Which factors affect the natural habitat of endemic species and endanger their existence ?
Answer:

The destruction of their habitat,
Increasing population,
Introduction of new species.

Question 24.
What are Wildlife Sanctuaries ?
Answer:
Wildlife Sanctuaries are some areas where wild animals are protected and preserved.

Question 25.
Name some important threatened wild animals.
Answer:
Black duck, white eyed buck, elephant, golden cat, pink headed duck, gharial, march crocodile, python, rhinoceros, etc.

Question 26.
What are Zoos ?
Answer:
Zoos. Zoos are also the places where animals are protected.

Question 27.
What are national parks ?
Answer:
National parks are large and diverse reserves to protect whole sets of ecosystems.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write causes of soil erosion.
Answer:
Causes of Soil Erosion:

Top soil is carried away by wind sweeping across ploughed soil left unused in dry season.
Dust stroms cause soil erosion.
Loss of the forests by felling or fire starts soil erosion. Soil is carried away by rivers and streams and deposited in the oceans.
Unprotected fields are eroded by wind and water.
Urbanisation has led to removal of vegetation.
Burrowing animals also contribute in soil erosion. They make the soil loose and liable to be carried away by water.
Human activities, such as felling of trees, overgrazing, overcropping and faulty tilling, accelerate soil erosion.

Question 2.
How can soil be conserved ?
Answer:
Soil Conservation:

Stopping clear-cutting of forests and overgrazing of ranges, check soil erosion by streams and rivers.
Intensive cropping helps in checking soil erosion. A field always under a crop is protected against soil erosion.
Bunds around the fields contain rain water and check soil erosion besides washing away of minerals.
Irrigation channels in the fields should be so designed as to carry water at a slow speed.
Drainage canals to carry flood water will protect the fields against soil erosion.
Contour ploughing (ploughing along a slope rather than up and down) checks soil erosion by water.
Erosion of soil by wind may be stopped by planting trees and growing grass. Tree belts round fields act as wind breakers.

Question 3.
Write importance of wild life.
Answer:
Importance of Wild Life:

Plants, animals and microorganisms provide many things to us.
Ecological balance is maintained by maintaining food chains and natural cycles.
Maintenance of gene bank for breeding programmes.
Wild animals are source of fun and recreation to public. .
It is a source of inspiration to poets and artists.
It is source of aesthetic value.

Question 4.
Write two differences between endangered and vulnerable species.
Answer:
Differences between endangered and vulnerable species

Endangered species	Vulnerable species
1. They have extreme danger of dying out and disappearing.	1. They face some danger of dying out.
2. They may become extinct.	2. They have danger of entering category of endangered species.

Question 5.
Explain biosphere reserves.
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve.
It is a specified area in which multiple use of land is permitted by dividing it into certain zones and each zone is specified for particular activity.

The concept of Biosphere Reserve has been evolved by Man and Biosphere (MBA) programme of UNESCO. In the biosphere reserve, multiple land use is allowed by designating various zones such as core, buffer zone and manipulation zone. In a biosphere reserve, wild population, traditional life ,style of tribals and varied domesticated plant and animal genetic resources are protected.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals 3

Question 6.
Discuss the concept of “endangered species.”
Answer:
Endangered Species.
The species (or taxa) which are on the verge of extinction and whose survival is unlikely if the causal factor continue to be operating. These are species with only limited number of individual survivals. They are in immediate danger of extinction e.g., the great Indian bustard bird which is inhabitant of the semiarid areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra is highly endangered bird.

Question 7.
What are the factors responsible for global warming ?
Answer:
The continuously rising levels of carbon dioxide and some other gases in the air result in an increase in the temperature of atmosphere causing warming up of the atmosphere of earth i.e. global warming.

Question 8.
Why are the forests considered to be an important natural resource ?
Answer:
The forests are considered to be a significant natural resource on the earth because:

they help in maintaining the balance of oxygen and CO₂ gases in the air and thus sustain life.
they help in bringing rain.
they regulate climate.
they help in replenishing ground water,
they control floods.
they prevent soil erosion.
they provide a living place to a large number of plants and animals.
they provide us many medicinal plants.
they provide many plant products such as rubber, gums, resins, honey, lac, katha etc.
they decrease run off rate of rain water.
they provide conditions for wild life, the main source of meat for tribal societies.

Question 9.
What measures should be taken for the replenishment of forests ?
Answer:
Measures for Replenishment of Forests.
Man is utilizing the natural resources to fulfil his needs in modern times. However, if the forests are removed for our comforts, it will ultimately lead to elimination of the human species from the surface of the earth. The following measures should be adopted for replenishment of forests:

Growing more plants.
Judicious use of plant products.
Prevent overgrazing by the cattle.
Strict law enforcement for setting up mining and other industries in. . around forests.
Mobilising the public opinion through electronic and print media.
Establishing forest nurseries.

Question 10.
How do plants check soil erosion ?
Answer:
The underground parts of the plants (i.e. roots) help in binding the soil particles. The soil with plant cover is not eroded by water or wind. Hence, plants check the soil erosion.

Question 11.
Why is it necessary to have a wide variety of plants in a forest ?
Answer:
It is essential to have a wide variety of plants in a forest due to the following reasons:

selective feeding habits of animals.
fulfil the needs of animals as well as human beings.
provide shelter to a number of organisms.
a stable diversified food chain/food web offers a better chance of survival to the animals living in the forest.

Question 12.
Name five National Parks.
Answer:
National Parks:

Corbett National Park in Uttrakhand.
Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh.
Sanjay National Park in Maharashtra.
Periyar National Park in Kerala.
Bannughatta National Park in Karnataka.

Question 13.
Explain how large scale deforestation could lead to depletion in ground water resource.
Answer:
Vegetation helps the soil to retain water which ultimately replenishes the ground water resource. In recent times, large forest areas have been cleared for various purposes. Overgrazing too has destroyed vegetation and the barren land so formed, has lost the capacity to hold water. And thus there is a depletion in ground water resource.

Question 14.
To protect a forest means to conserve air, soil and water. Explain.
Answer:
The forest is complex biological system. Though it is self-sufficient, it depends on the other renewable resources to maintain itself. Therefore, to protect a forest it is necessary to conserve air, soil and water. A forest relies on specific climatis conditions for its survival. At times, large scale man-made geographical alterations such as huge dams and excessive mining have disturbed the environment of the region causing severe damage to the forests in the area. Air pollution from industries situated even miles away have similar ill-effects on the forests.

Question 15.
How does habitat destruction affect wildlife ?
Answer:
Animals and plants have a strong relationship with their habitat. Certain living organisms can survive only in a specific kind of environment. The golden lion tamarins were found in a small area of Brazilian rain forests. It was their only natural habitat. When this area was destroyed, the beautiful little golden coloured mammal became homeless.

Although, Brazil has many more rain forests, today, few golden lion tamarins survive only in the zoos and probably will never be able to return to the wild habitat because their natural habitat has been destroyed by man. When a forest dies, a large number of animals become endangered or extinct.

Question 16.
Name at least seven wild animals of Khangchendzena National Park, which face the danger of extinction.
Answer:
Wild animals of Khangchendzena National Park which face extinction are snow leopard, clouded leopard, marbled cat, Himalayan black bear, civet binturong, red panda Tibetian wild ass, blud sheep, serow, goral, takin, musk deer and green pigeon.

Question 17.
What is an ecosystem ?
Answer:
Ecosystem. The biotic community together with the physical environment (abiotic components) forms an interacting system called the ecosystem. It may be natural or artificial. An ecosystem may be temporary e.g. crop field or permanent e.g. forest. An ecosystem may be as big as an ocean or forest or as small as wood. Thus ecosystem is any structural and functional unit of the environment that can be identified.

Ecosystem is an interacting system consisting of a community (living) components and environment (abiotic components) where both influence each other.

Question 18.
What are the advantages of silviculture ?
Answer:
Silviculture is the major project started to replenish forest. It is of two-fold advantages:

Produces large quantities of raw materials.
Increases the area under forests.

Question 19.
What are the functions of biosphere reserves ?
Answer:
Functions of Biosphere Reserve:

It helps to maintain the biodiversity of that area.
It helps to maintain the culture of that area.
It may also contain some other protected area.

Question 20.
Name some animals which are preserved in our wild life Sanctuaries. What do these sanctuaries pose ?
Answer:
Some of the important threatened wild animals like black buck, white eyed buck, elephant, golden cat, pink headed duck, gharial, marsh crocodile, python, rhinoceros, etc. are protected and preserved in our wild life sanctuaries. Indian sanctuaries pose unique landscapes, broad level forests, mountain forests and virgin bush lands in deltas of big rivers.

Question 21.
Write a note on migratory birds.
Answer:
Migratory Birds. Birds who cover long distances to reach another land are known as the migratory birds. The migratory birds are Bar Headed Goose, Great Cormorant. Migratory birds fly to far away specific areas every year during a particular time because of climatic changes. They fly for laying eggs as the weather in their natural habitat becomes very cold and inhospitable.

Question 22.
Write a note on reforestation.
Answer:
Reforestation.
It is the restocking of the destroyed forest by planting more new trees. We should plant at least as many trees as we cut. Reforestation can take place naturally also. If the deforested area is left undisturbed, it re-establishes itself. If we have to retain our green wealth for generations, plantation of more trees is required.

Government of India has implemented the National Forest Policy in 1952. It aimed at forest coverage of one-third of the total land area of the country. On the failure of this policy, Indian government revised the policy in 1980. This was named Forest (conservation) Act. This act aimed at preservation and conservation of natural forests and meeting the basic needs of the people.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the steps for conservation of wild life.
Answer:
Steps for conservation of wild life :

To preserve the endangered species.
Proper planning and management of land and water so as to protect the natural habitat.
Maximum varieties of food crops, farage plants, timber trees, livestock, animals for aquaculture and their wild relatives should be preserved to maintain gene bank.
Each country should identify the habitat of wild relatives of economically useful organisms and should preserve them.
Wild areas should be protected to preserve the habitat of migratory or wild ranging animals.
To check the over-exploitation of the useful organisms.
International trade in wild plants and animals should be regulated.
Protection of wild life from the activities of poachers and hunters. Indian government enacted “Wild Life Protection Act” in 1972 to declare hunting as an unlawful act.
Emphasis should be laid on the development and creation of parks and sanctuaries, where threatened species could be preserved or introduced.
The observance of “wild life week” is made an annual feature with a view to educate the masses of the importance of wild life.
It is proposed to establish breeding farms, especially for threatened species, so that they can be reared in semi-natural conditions and then introduced in parks and sanctuaries.

Question 2.
List a few advantages of forests.
Answer:
Advantages of Forests:

Forests conserve fertility of soil.
Forests cause rains and maintain water cycle.
Forests provide Wood. Indian forests yield valuable timbers, wood like teak, sal, deodar, shisham etc.
Forests provide Paper. The conifers and bamboos are used as raw material to prepare paper.
Medicinal plants of forests provide medicines of great importance.
Forests provide number of products like resins, gums, rubber, food and insecticides.
Forests also provide the cork e.g. oak (Quercus).
The other useful products which are obtained from the forest e.g. shellac, natural dyes, lac, honey, wax, etc.
Rayon and artificial silk are obtained from cotton linters.
Plastics are also prepared from cellulose nitrate.
Natural rubber is also obtained from the forests.
Forests provide fuel wood.
Forests provide essential oils which are obtained from rosha grass, khas and sandal wood. They are used in the manufacture of soaps, cosmetic, pharmaceuticals, confectionary, pipe and tobacco.
Soap substitute such as ritha and shikakai are important commercial products.
Forests have a great aesthetic value.

Question 3.
Give some sketches of flora and fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals 4

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure

January 18, 2024January 17, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Force and Pressure Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Give two examples each of situations in which you push or pull to change the state of motion of objects.
Answer:

In a cricket game, fielders stop the ball hit by a batsman.
Brakes applied to stop a moving vehicle.

Question 2.
Give two examples of situations in which applied force causes a change in the shape of an object.
Answer:

1. Pressing a rubber ball placed on a table.
2. Spring fixed in the seat of bicycle pressed down due to weight of the rider.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks in the following statements:
[а] To draw water from a well we have to ………………. at the rope.
[b] A charged body …………….. an uncharged body towards it.
[c] To move a loaded trolley we have to …………………. it.
[d] The north pole of a magnet …………… the north pole of another magnet.
Answer:
(a) pull
(b) attracts
(c) push
(d) repels.

Question 4.
An archer stretches her bow while taking aim at the target. She then releases the arrow, which begins to move towards the target. Based on this information fill up the gaps in the following statements using the following terms.
Muscular, contact, non-contact, gravity, friction, shape, attraction.
[а] To stretch the bow, the archer applies a force that causes change in its …………………. .
[b] The force applied by the archer to stretch the bow is an example of ………………… force.
[c] The type of force responsible for a change in the state of motion of the arrow is an example of a ………………. force.
[d] While the arrow moves towards the target, the forces acting on it are due to ………………….. and that due to ………………….. of air.
Answer:
(a) shape,
(b) muscular,
(c) muscular,
(d) gravity, friction.

Question 5.
In the following situations identify the agent exerting the force and the object on which it acts. State the effect of force in each case.
[a] Squeezing a piece of lemon between the fingers to extract its juice.
[b] Taking out paste from a toothpaste tube.
[c] A load suspended from a spring while its other end is on a hook fixed to a wall.
[d] An athlete making a high jump to clear the bar at a certain height.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 1

Question 6.
A blacksmith hammers a hot piece of iron while making a tool. How does the force due to hammering affect the piece of iron ?
Answer:
The force applied by the hammer flattens the piece of iron i.e. changes its shape and size.

Question 7.
An inflated balloon was pressed against a wall after it has been rubbed with a piece of synthetic cloth. It was found that the balloon sticks to the wall. What force might be responsible for attraction between the balloon and the wall.
Answer:
Electrostatic force.

Question 8.
Name the forces acting on a plastic bucket containing water held above ground level in your hand. Discuss why the forces acting on the bucket do not bring a change in its state of motion.
Answer:
Forces acting on plastic bucket

Force of gravity acting downwards.
Muscular force of arms acting upwards.

The two forces do not bring about any change in state of motion of bucket because both forces are equal and act in the opposite direction and thus cancel each other’s effect.

Question 9.
A rocket has been fired upwards to launch a satellite in its orbit. Name the two forces acting on the rocket immediately after leaving the launching pad.
Answer:
When a rocket leaves launching pad, the following forces act on it:

Gravitational force of earth (downwards).
Propelling force of gases emitted by combustion of fuels (upwards).

Question 10.
When we press the bulb of a dropper with its nozzle kept in water, air in the dropper is seen to escape in the form of bubbles. Once we release the pressure on the bulb, water gets filled in the dropper. The rise of water in the dropper is due to
(a) pressure of Water
(b) gravity of the earth
(c) shape of rubber bulb
(d) atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
(d) atmospheric pressure.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Force and Pressure Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Raman was surprised to see a camel walking easily barefooted on sand but he himself was unable to walk barefoot on sand. What is the reason behind this ?
(a) The surface area of the foot of the camel is more
(b) The surface area of the foot of Raman is more.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The surface area of the foot of the camel is more.

Question 2.
By exerting force on anything:
(a) results in increasing the speed of the object
(b) results in decreasing the speed of the object
(c) Results in change in the direction of the motion of the object
(d) All the effects are possible.
Answer:
(d) All the effects are possible.

Question 3.
Force is:
(a) a push on an object
(b) a pull on an object
(c) a push or pull on an object
(d) neither a push nor a pull.
Answer:
(c) a push or pull on an object.

Question 4.
The food in the foodpipe is pushed forward during digestive process :
(a) By friction force
(b) Muscular force
(c) Contact force
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Muscular force.

Question 5.
The force of friction on a moving object always acts:
(a) in the direction of motion
(b) opposite to the direction of motion
(c) in the direction of motion upwards
(d) opposite to the direction of motion downwards
Answer:
(b) opposite to the direction of motion.

Question 6.
While carrying luggage on the railway station a ‘coolie’ often rolls his cloth and places it on his head to :
(a) increase force
(b) increase pressure
(c) reduce weight
(d) reduce pressure
Answer:
(d) reduce pressure.

Question 7.
The pressure applied by liquids …………………. with the increase in depth.
(a) decreases
(b) remains same
(c) increases
(d) depends on the nature of liquids
(c) increases.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is common in following actions :
kicking, hitting, lifting, pulling, etc ?
Answer:
In all above actions, force is used to change the motion of the object.

Question 2.
What other terms are used for actions involving motion of objects ?
Answer:
Push or pull.

Question 3.
What is force ?
Answer:
Force. A push or pull that changes or tends to change the state, shape or direction of motion of the body is called force.

Question 4.
What is meant by pressure ?
Answer:
Pressure. Force acting per unit area is called a pressure.

Question 5.
Explain with an example that force can change the speed of an object.
Answer:
Suppose you are going on your bicycle with a speed of 10 m/s in north to south direction, and if your friend gives a strong push to your bicycle in the same direction then the speed of your bicycle will definitely increase.

Question 6.
Give an illustration to show that a force can change the shape of the object.
Answer:
If a rubber ball is pressed in between the two palms, we find that ball is no longer round but becomes oblong.

Question 7.
Give an illustration to show that a force can produce change in both the speed and direction of motion.
Answer:
When the batsman plays the ball thrown by bowler, the speed and direction of the ball changes.

Question 8.
Give an illustration to show that force can change the direction of mofion of an object.
Answer:
In game of football, we can change the direction of a moving football by kicking it.

Question 9.
What causes force to act ?
Answer:
Interaction between two objects.

Question 10.
What happens when force is applied in the direction of motion ?
Answer:
The speed of object increases.

Question 11.
What happens when forces acting on an object are in opposite direction and equal ?
Answer:
Net force will be zero i.e. object will not move in any direction.

Question 12.
What is contact force ?
Answer:
Contact force. The force which acts only, when objects are in contact, is called contact force.

Question 13.
Give examples of contact force.
Answer:
Muscular and frictional forces.

Question 14.
Which type of force is force of gravity ?
Answer:
Non-contact force.

Question 15.
Give an example of non-contact force.
Answer:
Magnetic force.

Question 16.
What is electrostatic force ?
Answer:
Electrostatic force. The force exerted by a charged body is called electrostatic force.

Question 17.
How can pressure be increased or decreased ?
Answer:
By changing the area on which force acts.

Question 18.
Why is the foundation of wall made wider ?
Answer:
To decrease the pressure of the walls on the base.

Question 19.
What is relation between force, area and pressure ?
Answer:
Pressure = Force/Area.

Question 20.
Which type of tool is needed for cutting or piercing ?
Answer:
A sharp edged tool.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is done to stop a moving ball ?
Answer:
To stop a moving ball, equal force is applied in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of the ball.

Question 2.
Can a moving object on a smooth surface stop by itself ? If so, why ?
Answer:
A moving object can stop by itself due to friction between it and the surface on which it is moving. Friction acts in the opposite direction thus, stops the ball.

Question 3.
When is net force applied zero ? Give an example.
Answer:
When two forces are applied in opposite direction and are equal in magnitude then net force is zero. Example : A game of tug-of-war.

Question 4.
Force is a vector quantity. How ?
Answer:
A vector quantity is that quantity which can be represented completely by magnitude as well as direction. To represent the force magnitude as well as direction both are required. Hence force is a vector quantity.

Question 5.
Name various types of forces.
Answer:
The following are the various types of forces:

Muscular force.
Magnetic force.
Electrostatic force.
Gravitational force.
Frictional force.

Question 6.
List two effects of force.
Answer:
Effects of Force.

Force changes the state of motion.
Force changes the shape of an object.

Question 7.
What is state of motion of an object ?
Answer:
State of motion of an object is its speed and direction of motion. The state of rest is when speed is zero. The change in speed or direction of motion or both means a change in state of motion of an object.

Question 8.
Can force change only the direction of motion without any change in speed of an object ? If yes, how ?
Answer:
Yes, force can change only direction of motion without any change in speed of an object. It can be shown as follows:
Experiment.
Take a small stone. Tie it to a string. Whirl string in circular path with your hand. It is noted that stone moves with a constant speed in circular path. But when the whirling is stopped, the stone tries to move in horizontal path. This shows that force applied is used to change the direction of motion of the stone.

Question 9.
Give few examples of muscular force.
Answer:
Muscular force. Walking, breathing, running, lifting, sking, fighting are few activities which require muscular force to accomplish.

Question 10.
Give an example of contact force.
Answer:
When a moving striker collides with a disc on a carrom board, the disc begins to move showing the effect of contact force.

Question 11.
Give two examples of non-contact forces.
Answer:
Examples of non-contact force.

When two magnets lie side by side at a distance they either repel or attract each other.
A charged body can attract or repel other uncharged or charged body even from a distance.

Question 12.
Why is force of gravity termed as non-contact force ? Explain.
Answer:
Force of gravity acts on objects lying on or near the surface of earth. It also acts on distant objects such as shown by leaves falling from trees, water in pipes flowing downwards, revolution of moon around the earth. In all cases, objects are not in contact with the earth. So it is termed as a non-contact force.

Question 13.
Define pressure and what are its units ?
Answer:
Pressure. The force acting per unit area of a surface, is called pressure. Force
Pressure = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}\)
Unit of Pressure is Pascal or N m^-2.

Question 14.
Why do you use sharp edged knife to cut a fruit ?
Answer:
In the sharp edged knife the effect of force increases the pressure on a fruit and thus cut it easily.

Question 15.
Where is pressure greater and the least inside a bottle filled with water ?
Answer:
In a bottle filled with water, the pressure is the greatest at the bottom of the bottle and it is the least at the top of the bottle.

Question 16.
What makes a balloon stretch as it is filled with air ?
Answer:
When we fill air in a balloon, the air exerts pressure on inner surface of the balloon. The pressure of the air inside the balloon stretches it.

Question 17.
Show experimentally that pressure increases with the depth.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 2
The pressure of a liquid depends upon its depth. This can be proved by an experiment given below :
Experiment.
Take a deep vessel having atleast three holes at different heights on one side of the vessel as shown in Fig. Fill it with water. We shall find that the jet of water from the lowest hole reaches the farthest. This proves that at the lowest hole, the force or pressure is
maximum. Fig. Pressure increases with depth.

Question 18.
What is atmospheric pressure ?
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure. Our earth is surrounded by an air column. This air column like liquid columns exerts pressure on all the objects lying on earth. This pressure exerted by air of the atmosphere is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 19.
Atmospheric pressure is so great, why are we not crushed by it ?
Answer:
Our body and the bodies of other organisms are made up of cells which have fluids that exert pressure from within. This pressure exerted from the inside of the cell is equal to the atmospheric pressure and prevents us from being crushed.

Question 20.
The following picture shows the sheet of rubber tied to one side of the pipe filled with water. If the level of water is raised then what will be the effect on balloon of rubber. Give reason.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 3
Answer:
When the level of water is raised in pipe, the rubber sheet tied to the pipe blows. This happens because with the raise of level of water, the pressure exerted on rubber increases.
That is way, rubber sheet blows.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different types of forces ? Give an example of each.
Answer:
Types of forces:
The following are the different types of forces:
1. Muscular force
2. Magnetic force
3. Electrostatic force
4. Gravitational force
5. Frictional force.

1. Muscular force:
The force applied by a living being with its muscles is known as muscular force e.g., bullocks apply muscular force to draw a cart.

2. Magnetic force:
A magnet has the property of attracting things made of cobalt, nickel, iron or steel. The force produced by a magnetic substance is called the magnetic force e.g., a magnet can move small iron pins.

3. Electrostatic force:
When substances like plastic and terylene are rubbed against each other, charge is excited on them. The force produced due to this electricity is called the electrostatic force e.g., when a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the rod moves bits of paper due to electrostatic force.

4. Gravitational force:
The earth exerts a force of attraction on all things on its surface and beyond. The force of attraction exerted by the earth is called the gravitational force or force due to gravity. An object dropped from a certain height falls on the earth due to the gravitational force.

5. Frictional force:
When an object moves along some other object, the force which acts between the surfaces of a contact of the two objects is called the frictional force. The frictional force opposes the motion of the object e.g., a marble rolled on the ground stops after sometime due to the frictional force.

Question 2.
When a force is applied to a body, state its effect.
Answer:
The following conclusion can be drawn about the effect of force applied to an object:

Change in speed : The applied force can produce a change in the speed of an object.
Change in direction of motion : The applied force can change the direction of motion of object.
Change in both speed and direction of motion : The applied force can produce a change in both the speed and direction of motion.
Change in shape and size of the body : The applied force can change the shape and size of an object.

Question 3.
Mention advantages and disadvantages of force.
Answer:
Advantages of force:

Force can move a stationary object. For example, a toy can be moved by applying force.
It can slow down a moving object. For example, a bicycle slows down on applying force due to brakes.
It can change the direction of motion of an object. For example* a batsman hits the ball and changes its direction.
It can change the shape of an object. For example, squeezing a sponge changes its shape.

Disadvantages of a force:

Frictional force is responsible for wear and tear of tyres of vehicles and of our shoes.
Frictional force also generates heat. This can be harmful. The heat produced in moving machines reduces their efficiency.

Question 4.
Describe an experiment to show that pressure is the same at all points at the same depth.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 4
Experiment.
Take an empty tin can and pierce several holes of equal size at the same height and cover them with cellotape to be opened at will. Now fill the can up to its brim and remove the cellotape in order to open the holes (Fig.). It will be found that water from all the holes traverses equal horizontal distance. This is because of the fact that the pressure at all points is the same at the same depth.

Question 5.
How can you demonstrate the presence of atmospheric pressure experimentally?
Answer:
Experiment.
Take a metallic can. Add little water into it. Remove its cap and heat the can, as shown in Fig. (a). The water boils and steam starts coming out from the mouth of the can. The steam forces out most of the air from the can. Now close the can with an air tight lid. Pour cold water on the can. Due to the cold water, the steam inside the can condenses to a liquid state. A partial vacuum is created. The external pressure (atmospheric) becomes greater than the inside pressure of steam. Hence high external pressure crushes the container [See Fig. (b)].
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 5

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Colonialism and Tribal Society

January 18, 2024January 17, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 13 Colonialism and Tribal Society Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 13 Colonialism and Tribal Society

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Colonialism and Tribal Society Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
In which states majority of the people belonging the tribal society lives?
Answer:
Tribal people live more in number in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Orissa.

Question 2.
What are the main occupations of tribal people?
Answer:
Main occupations of tribal people are animal rearing, hunting, catching fish, collection of food items and agriculture.

Question 3.
In which states the tribal people revolted against the Britishers?
Answer:
People of tribal society revolted against the British in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Orissa, Meghalaya, Bengal, etc.

Question 4.
Who was the leader of Khasi tribe?
Answer:
Tirut Singh was the leader of Khasi tribe.

Question 5.
When and which tribe in Chhota Nagpur area revolted against the Britishers?
Answer:
Kol tribe of Chhota Nagpur area revolted firstly against the British in 1820 A.D.

Question 6.
Who was made the leader of Kharodh tribe by the Britishers?
Answer:
One person of Kharodh tribe was thrown out of society. He was called back by the British and was made the head of tribe.

Question 7.
Write a note on Tribal society.
Answer:
Tribal society or tribal people are one of the important part of Indian population. Their population was around 160 millions according to the Census of 1991. A very large population of tribal people live in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh. 23.22% part of total population of Madhya Pradesh belongs to tribes. Some tribes also live in small states and union territories like Sikkim, Goa, Mizoram, Dadra-Nagar Haveli and Lakshadweep. Most of the tribal people belong to Gond, Bhil, Santhal, Mizo and other tribes.

Question 8.
Write a note on Birsa Munda.
Or
What do you know about Birsa Munda?
Answer:
Birsa Munda was a leader of the revolt of the Munda tribe in Bihar (Chhota Nagpur area). He was a very powerful person. He was considered as the messenger of God. He protested motion against such non-tribal people who took away the land of Munda people. Munda people also hate moneylenders and Zamindars because they treated them badly. Birsa Munda told the Munda people to not to pay the taxes to Zamindars. Munda people in Chhota Nagpur region attacked the British officers, missionaries and police stations. But Birsa Munda was arrested by the British and the revolt was crushed.

Question 9.
Write down the effects of the revolt of Birsa Munda.
Answer:
Munda revolt was a powerful tribal revolt. So government started to care about the problems of tribal people after the suppressing of revolt.

All in all impacts of revolt of Munda tribe are given below :

The British Government passed ‘Chhota Nagpur Act’ in 1908. According to this act marginal farmers were given the rights of land.
Social and religious consciousness came among the people of Chhota Nagpur region. Many people started to worship Birsa Munda.
Many new socio-religious movements were started.
Tribal people started to struggle for their rights.

Question 10.
Explain the revolts by tribal society in northern-eastern regions.
Answer:
Khasi revolt. First revolt in North-Eastern region was started by Khasi tribe. They had complete control from Jaintia mountains in East and upto Garo mountains in the west. Tiruth Singh was the founder of this tribe. Khasi people wanted to throw foreigners out of their region. On 5th May, 1829, Khasi people, with the help of Garo people, killed many Europeans and Bengalis. They put European colonies on fire. Tiruth Singh also wanted to remove foreign rule from Bhots and Singphose and some other mountaineous tribes. So he revolted against the British rule with the help of his 10,000 men. On the other side Khasis villages were put on fire one by one by the British. Later on in 1833 A.D., Tiruth Singh surrendered in front of the British army.

Singphos Revolt. When the British soldiers were busy in suppressing the revolt of Khasi tribe, at that time Singphos tribe also revolted against the British. Both of these tribes also invited the other tribes like Khapti, Garo, Naga, to join the revolt. All of them collectively attacked the British army in Assam and killed many Britishers. But they had to surrender because they were unable to face the modern weapons of the British.

Other Revolts,

Khasi tribe again revolted in 1839 A.D. They also killed the political messenger of the Britishers Colonal White and many other Britishers.
Another tribe of North-east Naga also revolted. This revolt lasted for 2-3 years.
Revolt of Kukis in mountainous region of Manipur also lasted for a long time. They were 7,000 in number. They revolted against the British in 1826, 1844 and 1849 A.D. They also killed many British officers. But later on all of these revolts were suppressed by the British government. arrested Kukis were tortured in a number of ways.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Tribal society is an _______ part of the Indian population.
Answer:
important

Question 2.
Tribal people lived in _______ or _______ rooms huts.
Answer:
one, two

Question 3.
From Jaintiya hills to Garo hills territories in East were under the control of the _______ tribe.
Answer:
Khasi

Question 4.
When the British soldiers were facing the revolt of Khasi, another tribe _______ revolted.
Answer:
Singphos.

III. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
Gonds are in minority among the tribes.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The basic unit among tribal people is family.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The Britishers occupied the tribal land for the opium and indigo farming.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Birsa Munda called upon the farmers of Munda tribe to pay the taxes to the Zamindars.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Colonialism and Tribal Society Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who was Birsa?
(a) Leader of Munda tribe
(b) Leader of Oraon tribe
(c) Leader of Ho tribe
(d) Leader of Khasi tribe.
Answer:
(o) Leader of Munda tribe.

Question 2.
Tribal Society is a Society which lives away from our civilization in , valleys and mountains.
(a) Villages
(b) Forests
(c) Towns
(d) Cities.
Answer:
(6) Forests.

Question 3.
_______ made some laws and started to interfere in the internal matters of tribals.
(a) Indian Government
(b) Local Governments
(c) The British
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) The British.

Question 4.
Who used to do Jhum Cultivation?
(a) Villagers
(b) Urban people
(c) Forest dwellers
(d) Jribals.
Answer:
(d) Tribals.

Question 5.
Large number of tribals recruited to work in tea plantations of
(a) Assam
(b) Jharkhand,
(c) Manipur
(d) West Bengal.
Answer:
(a) Assam.

Question 6.
Birsa Munda was arrested in _______
(a) 1890 A.D.
(b) 1895 A.D.
(c) 1888 A.D.
(d) 1898 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1895 A.D.

Question 7.
Birsa Munda was released in _______
(a) 1896A.D.
(b) 1898 AD.
(c) 1897 A.D.
(d) 1899 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1897 A.D.

Question 8.
When did Birsa Munda die?
(a) 1898A.D.
(b) 1899A.D.
(e) 1897A.D.
(d) 1900A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1900 A.D.

Question 9.
Birsa Munda was died due to _______ disease.
(a) Cholera
(b) Plague
(c) T.B.
(d) Fever.
Answer:
(a) Cholera.

Question 10.
What is Sal?
(a) A type of cloth
(b) A type of tree
(c) A type of honey
(d) A type of herb.
Answer:
(b) A type of tree.

Question 11.
Tell the name of the person shown in the picture.

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Mangal Pandey
(d) Teerath Singh.
Answer:
(b) Birsa Munda.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Tribal society is one of the _______ part of Indian population.
Answer:
important

Question 2.
Tribals live in huts with _______ or _______ rooms.
Answer:
one, two

Question 3.
From Jainia hills in the east till Garo hills in the west the area was under the occupation of ______________ tribe.
Answer:
Khasi

Question 4.
When the British soldiers were facing the Khasi revolt, another tribe of _______ also revolted.
Answer:
Singfosa.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
Gonds are in minority among the tribes.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
The first basic unit of tribal social system is family.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
The British occupied tribal land only to produce opium and indigo.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Birsa Munda asked the people to not to pay taxes to Zamindars.
Answer:
(✗).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Revolt of Kharodh Tribe	(i) 1855 A.D.
2. Revolt of Santhal Tribe	(ii) 1846 A.D.
3. Munda Revolt	(iii) 1899-1900 A.D.
4. Kol Revolt	(iv) 1820 A.D.

Answer:

A	B
1. Revolt of Kharodh Tribe	(ii) 1846 A.D.
2. Revolt of Santhal Tribe	(iv) 1820 A.D.
3. Munda Revolt	(iii) 1899-1900 A.D.
4. Kol Revolt	(i) 1855 A.D.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by tribal society?
Answer:
Society of tribal people is known as tribal society.

Question 2.
With which tribes Indian tribal people are associated? Name them.
Answer:
Gond, Bhil, Santhal, Mizo, etc.

Question 3.
Tell in brief the regional distribution of the tribal people.
Answer:
Around 63% tribal people live in the mountainous region, 2.2% in islands and 1.6% in cold regions. Other people are scattered in different urban and rural regions.

Question 4.
What was the basic reason of revolts of tribal people against British rule in 19th century?
Answer:
The main reason of revolts of tribal people against British rule in 19th century was wrong policies of the British government. Their land was snatched and their means of livelihood were destroyed.

Question 5.
When Naga revolt of North Eastern region took place? How much it lasts long?
Answer:
Naga revolt of North Eastern region took place in 1844 A.D. It lasted for 2-3 years.

Question 6.
Why was land of tribal people snatched by the British Government?
Answer:
The British wanted to grow opium and indigo due to the commercialization of crops. That’s why their land was snatched by the British government.

Question 7.
Name any four leaders of different tribal revolts.
Answer:
Tirut Singh (Khasi), Sidhu and Kanhu (Santhal) and Birsa Munda (Munda tribe).

Question 8.
Why did the British government start the commercialization of agriculture?
Answer:
The British government started the commercialization of agriculture for their own selfish economic-interests.

Question 9.
Why were tribals against the British rule?
Answer:
The tribals were completely against the new arrangements of the British rule because they did not approve the social and economic changes brought by the British.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a brief description of houses and occupations of tribal people.
Answer:
Tribal people live in the huts of barely one-two rooms which are made without any planning. These huts are made in 2-4 lines in front of each other. These huts are surrounded by large trees. These people generally rear tamed animals, sheeps and goats. They depend upon local natural and material means. Except these, their occupations include hunting, catching fish, gathering of food and ploughing the field with the help of bulls.

Question 2.
Write a note on family of tribal society.
Answer:
Family is the first social unit of tribal society. Women play a very important role in household works of the family. Main functions of women are making food, collecting wood, cleaning and washing the clothes. They help males in their agricultural work. This work includes levelling the land, sowing the seeds, cutting the crops, etc. Main functions of males are cutting the jungles, levelling of the land, ploughing the field etc. Because females help in a great deal to men in their works, that’s why the custom of polygamy exists in tribal society.

Question 3.
Write a note on revolt of Khasi tribe in the North-Eastern region of the country.
Answer:
First revolt in the North-Eastern region was started by Khasis tribe. They had complete control from Jaintia mountains in East and upto Garo mountains in the west.

Tirut Singh was the founder of this tribe. Khasi people wanted to throw foreigners out of their region. On 5th May, 1829, Khasis people, with the help of Garo people, killed many Europeans and Bengalis. They put European colonies on fire. Tirut Singh also wanted to remove foreign rule from other mountainous tribes as well. So he revolted against the British rule with the help of his 10,000 people. On the other [side Khasi villages were put on fire one on one by the British. Later on in 1833 A.D. Tirut Singh surrendered before the British army.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the changes that occurred in the tribal society and their economic condition. ‘ (P.S.E.B. 2009)
Answer:
Tribal society. Tribal society or tribal people are one of the most important parts of Indian population. Their population was around 160 millions according to the census of 1991. Large population of tribal society live in the states’of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh. 23.22% of total population of Madhya Pradesh belong to tribal society. Some tribes also live in small states like Sikkim, Goa, Mizoram, Dadra-Nagar Haveli, Lakshadweep. Most of the tribal people belong to tribes like Gond, Bhil, Santhal, Mizo, etc.

Out of these tribal people, 63% live in mountainous region, 2.2% five in islands and 1.6% live in colder regions. Others are scattered in different urban and rural regions. These people live in the huts of one or two rooms. These huts are made in line with each other. These huts are surrounded by large trees. These people rear animals like sheep, goat, etc. They depends upon the local natural and physical means. Main occupations of these people are hunting, catching fish, collecting food and agriculture.

Family: Family is the first social unit of tribal society. Women play very important role in household works of the family. Main functions of females are making food, collecting wood, cleaning and washing the clothes. They help th’e males in agricultural works. This work includes levelling the land, sowing the seeds, cutting the crops, etc. Main functions of males are cutting the jungle, levelling the land, ploughing the field, etc. Because females help in a great deal to men in their works, that’s why the custom of polygamy exist in tribal society.

Changes in Economic Condition of Tribal society : Tribal people were very poor in 19th century under the British rule. Their living style was greatly affected by the British rule. Their ancient social and economic structures were completely changed by the British. It led to adverse impact on tribal society and their economy. Commercialization of crops was done by the British government to protect their economic interests. The government captured the land of tribal people for the agriculture of opium and indigo. As a result, tribal people were forced to do labour work. But they were given very less wages for their work. They were forced to take loans for their livelihood. It’s result came in adverse impact on their economic condition.

Tribal people were totally against these social and economic changes. That’s *.vhy resentment came among them against the British.

Question 2.
Explain the revolts by tribal society in Chhota Nagpur area.
Answer:
Revolts of Chhota Nagpur region against the British rule were very important. Out of these, revolt of Munda tribe was of great importance. A brief description of these revolts is given below :
1. Revolt of Kol tribe. First of all people of Kol tribe revolted against the British rule of Chhota Nagpur region in 1820 A.D. They didn’t tolerate the expansion of the British rule in their region. They put many villages on fire. Koli rebels were killed in great number that’s why they were forced to surrender in front of the British in 1827 A.D.

2. Revolt of Munda tribe. Munda tribe of Chhota Nagpur region also revolted against the British in 1830-31. People of Kol tribe also took part in it. Very quickly, this revolt spread till Ranchi, Hazari Bagh, Palamu and Anmum. Around 1,000 rebels were killed by the British. Even then it was unable to suppress the revolt completely. In the end, this revolt was suppressed in 1832 A.D. after army’s intervention. Even then activities of Munda and Kol people against the government hardly came to an end.

3. Revolt of Kharodh tribe. Kharodh tribe of Chhota Nagpur region also revolted against the British in 1846 A.D. They attacked the camp of British captain Macfferson and forced him to surrender with his 170 officials. People of other neighbouring tribes also joined the Kharodh tribe. But this revolt was crushed by the British in that same year. They called back Kharodh leader from outside and made him the head of Kharodh people.

4. Santhal Revolt. The Santhals also revolted against the British in 1855 A.D. They were 10,000 in number. They were lead by two brothers Sidhu and Kanhu. Santhal’s blocked the railway line between Bhagalpur and mountaineous region of Rajmahal. They attacked the British bunglows with swords and poisonous arrows. Many British officers of Railway and police were killed by them. The British army followed them.

But they went over to jungles. Later on in 1856, they faced the British soldiers. In the end their leaders were arrested and were tortured to a great deal.

5. Second Revolt of Munda tribe. Munda tribe has been a very famous tribe of Bihar. During British rule, many non-tribal people settled in the tribal regions. They snatched land from the tribal people. That’s why tribal people were forced to do labour work for non-tribal people. When they got frustrated, then they revolted under the leadership of Birsa Munda. The main revolt was started in the southern region of Ranchi in 1899-1900. The main objective of this revolt was to replace the British rule with Munda rule.

Birsa Munda stood against those non-tribal people who took away the land from the Munda people. Munda people also hate the moneylenders and Zamindars because they used to treat them badly. Birsa Munda told the Munda people not to pay the rent to Zamindars. Munda people in the Chhota Nagpur region attacked the British officers, missionaries, and police stations. But Birsa Munda was arrested by the British and revolt was crushed by them.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 20 The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture

January 18, 2024January 17, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 20 The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 20 The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Who has written ‘Anand Math?
Answer:
Anand Math Novel was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.

Question 2.
Write down the names of the writers of short stories.
Answer:
Famous writers of short stories were Ravindra Nath Tagore, Premchand, Jaspal, Tejendra Kumar, Krishna Chand, etc.

Question 3.
Who established the printing press in India and when?
Answer:
First printing press of India was started by Portuguese in 1557 A.D.

Question 4.
Which two newspapers Bal Gangadhar Tilak started publishing?
Answer:
Newspapers called ‘Kesari’ in Marathi language and ‘Maratha’ in English language.

Question 5.
Write down the famous painters of Art School of Baroda University.
Answer:
G.R. Santosh, Ghulam Sheikh, Shanti Dev, etc.

Question 6.
Write down the famous artists of Madras School of Art.
Answer:
D.R. Choudhary, K.C.S. Pannikar, Satish Gujral, Ram Kumar and K.G. Subramaniyam.

Question 7.
Write down a note on the literature of 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
Every section of literature developed in 19th and at the beginning of 20th century whose description is given below :
1. Novels, Stories, etc. Katha literature.

Famous writers of the Bengali literature were Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, Michael Madhusudan Dutt, Sharat Chandra Chatterjee etc. ‘Anand Math’ novel of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee is known as ‘Bible of modern Bengali Patriotism’.
Munshi Premchand throws light on the exploitation of peasants by the British government through his novels ‘Godan’ and ‘Rangbhumi’. He wrote many other novels in Hindi and in Urdu language.
Writers like Hemchandra Benarjee, Dinbandhu Mitra, Rabindra Nath Tagore etc. wrote a lot about patriotism.

2. Poetry. Romanticism in Indian poetry started when it came in contact with European literature. But more stress is given on nationalism and national movement in Indian poetry. Famous poets, who prospered Indian poetry, were Rabindra Nath Tagore (Bengali), Iqbal (Urdu), Keshav Sut (Marathi), Subramaniyam Bharti (Tamil) etc.

3. Dramas and Cinema. Indian Dramatists and artists tried to write Eastern and Western style of drama. Famous dramatists of this age were Girish Karnands (Kannada), Vijay Tendulkar (Marathi), Mulakhraj Anand and R.K. Narayan (English). Rabindra Nath Tagore gave stress on National consciousness and International Humanism through his writings.

Question 8.
Write down a note on the painting of 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
A new form to painting was given by different art schools and art groups in 19th and at the start of 20th century.

It’s description is given below :

Raja Ravi Verma painted European Naturalism by mixing it with Indian myths legends.
Painters of Bengal Art School, Rabindra Nath Tagore, Havell Kumarswami made paintings based on traditional stories, epics and ancient literature.
Paintings of Amrita Shergill and George Keyt were very much influenced by modern European art, modern spirit and symbols. Colour-scheme used by George Keyt was very impressive.
Rabindra Nath Tagore made beautiful paintings through watercolours and coloured chalks. Rabindra Nath Tagore
Paintings of flowers and women made by famous artists of Bombay were very beautiful because of their colours. Names of Francis Newton Souza, K.H. Ara, S.K. Banner can be taken in this regard. Except this, there is a great contribution of Baroda University of Art, Madras Art School and National Gallery of Modern Art in making painting popular.

Question 9.
What do you mean by the changes in Performing Arts?
Answer:
Mainly music, painting, dances and dramas are included in the fine-art. Indian heritage was very prosperous in these fields before the advent of Britishers. Classical music, Indian and Carnatic music school of our country are some of the examples of this prosperous heritage of India.

Folk music and folk dance of our country fills encouragement among the people. Names of Indian classical dances, Kathakali, Kuchipudi and Kathak are included in this.
Dramas played on the stage and puppet shows are important aspects of our cultural tradition.
Different types of musical instruments, like Sitar, Tumbi, Drum (Harp), (Sarangi), Tabla (Tabor) etc. are famous in India. Flute, Shehnai (clarionet) are musical instruments that run with air.
Great artists of India like Kumar Gandharva, Ravi Shankar, Rukmani Devi, Ragini Devi, Uday Shankar, and Rabindra Nath Tagore became very famous in the fields of Indian music and dance.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Much literature was written in _______ language during the 19th century.
Answer:
Bengali

Question 2.
Bande Matram the national song was written by _______
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterji

Question 3.
Munshi Prem Chand wrote many novels in _______ and _______ language.
Answer:
Urdu, Hindi

Question 4.
Amrita Sher Gill and _______ were the great Indian painters.
Answer:
George Keyt.

III. Write True or False in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
Prince of Wales Museum is known as ‘Chhatterpati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalya’.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Marina Coastal is 10 Kilometer long.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
War Memorial is made in the memory of martyrdoms of the First World War.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The Legislature and Secretariat Offices of Tamil Nadu are located in the Fort St. George building.
Answer:
True.

IV. Things To Do :

Question 1.
Write ‘Bande Matram’ national anthem on chart and sing it.
Answer:
Do it yourself

Question 2.
Make a chart of “Jan Gan, Man’ the National Anthem.
Answer:
Do it yourself

Question 3.
To know about famous folk dances – Bhangra and Gidha etc. of Punjab.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide The Changes in Arts, Painting, Literature and Architecture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
An accepted norm or style is called
(a) Convention
(b) Commission
(c) Engraving
(d) Mural.
Answer:
(a) Convention.

Question 2.
The art form which observed carefully and tried to capture what the eye saw is called
(a) Realism
(b) Picturesque
(c) Portrait
(d) History painting.
Answer:
(a) Realism.

Question 3.
The Style of painting which showed Indian landscape as a quaint, unexplored land is known as
(a) Portrait
(b) Picturesque
(c) Realism
(d) History painting.
Answer:
(b) Picturesque.

Question 4.
Paintings which showed the social lives of Europeans in India are called
(a) Realism
(b) History painting
(c) Portrait
(d) Picturesque.
Answer:
(c) Portrait.

Question 5.
_______ are the paintings which depicted scenes from British imperial history and their victories.
(a) Picturesque
(b) Realism
(c) Portrait
(d) History painting.
Answer:
(d) History painting.

Question 6.
Which of these was brought in India with British art?
(a) Oil painting
(b) Miniatures
(c) Use of perspective
(d) Mural art.
Answer:
(a) Oil painting.

Question 7.
Painting made by Francis Hayman in _______depicts the British victory in the Battle of Plassey.
(a) 1770 A.D.
(b) 1762 A.D.
(c) 1766 A.D.
(d) 1768 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1762 A.D.

Question 8.
Who wanted to develop a national style of art?
(a) Raja Ravi Verma
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Aabindranath Tagore
(d) Francis Hayman.
Answer:
(c) Aabindranath Tagore.

Question 9.
Who decided to set up a picture production team and printing press in Bombay?
(a) Raja Ravi Verma
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Aabindranath Tagore
(d) Francis Hayman.
Answer:
(a) Raja Ravi Verma.

Question 10.
Which of these new things was introduced by colonial rule in India?
(a) New art forms
(b) New Styles
(c) New materials
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 11.
European artists came to India along with British
(a) Sailors
(b) Traders
(c) Warriors
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Traders.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
During _______ century, much of the Bengali literature was written.
Answer:
19th century

Question 2.
Vande Matram was written by _______
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Question 3.
Munshi Prem Chand wrote many novels in _______ and _______ languages.
Answer:
Urdu, Hindi

Question 4.
_______ is famous beach in Chennai.
Answer:
Marina beach

Question 5.
Vande Matram, the national song was written by _______
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Prince of Wales Museum is presently known as ‘Chatrapati Shivaji Museum’.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Marina beach is 10 kilometer long.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
War Memorial was made in the memory of the soldiers martyred during First World War.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Vande Matram was included in a book Anand Marriage.
Answer:
(✗).

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Fort St. George	(i) Beach
2. V.G.B. Golden Beach	(ii) Madras
3. Anand Math	(iii) Munshi Prem Chand
4. Godan	(iv) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Answer:

A	B
1. Fort St. George	(ii) Madras
2. V.G.B. Golden Beach	(i) Beach
3. Anand Math	(iv) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
4. Godan	(iii) Munshi Prem Chand

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From which novel National Song of Wande Matram’ was taken?
Answer:
From the novel ‘Anand Math’.

Question 2.
Which novel of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee is known as ‘Bible of Bengali Patriotism’ and why?
Answer:
Bengali novel ‘Anand Math’, because many patriotic songs are there in it.

Question 3.
Name any two famous novels of Munshi Premchand.
Answer:
Godan and Rangbhoomi.

Question 4.
Name two newspapers published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Answer:
Samvad Kaumudi and Mirat-ul-Akhbar.

Question 5.
Who was Raja Ravi Verma?
Answer:
Raja Ravi Verma was a famous painter and sculpture of modern India. His pictures and paintings were associated with Indian epics and Sanskrit literature.

Question 6.
Where was Kala Bhavan established by Rabindra Nath Tagore?
Answer:
At Shanti Niketan.

Question 7.
Name two famous painters of Madras Art School.
Answer:
D.R. Chaudhary and K.C.S. Panikar.

Question 8.
Name three musical instruments which run with air.
Answer:

Flute
Shehnai (clarionet)
Algoza.

Question 9.
What is the modern name of Prince of Wales Museum of Mumbai? With which building it is situated?
Answer:
Modern name of Prince of Wales Museum of Mumbai is ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahqlaya’. It is situated near to Gateway of India.

Question 10.
By which two architects, Gateway of India was built?
Answer:
John Wiltet and his friend John Beigh.

Question 11.
Name two famous Sea Beaches of Chennai.
Answer:
Merina Beach and V.G.B. Golden Beach.

Question 12.
In whose memory, War Memorial of Chennai was built?
Answer:
It was built in the memory of soldiers died in the First World War.

Question 13.
Raja Ravi Verma was a great artist. Which field of art was he associated with?
Answer:
He was a painter.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the development in the field of novels from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century.
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, Michael Madhu Sudan Dutt and Sharat Chandra Chatterjee were famous scholars of Bengali literature in modern age. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee wrote famous novel ‘Anand Math’ in Bengali language. Many national songs were there in it. Our national song Vande Matram’ is also one of them. Presently it is known as ‘Bible of Bengali Patriotism’.

Munshi Prem Chand also wrote many novels in Urdu and Hindi language. He threw light on the exploitation of peasants by British in his novels ‘Godan’ and ‘Rangbhoomi’. Writings of scholars like Hemchandra Benerjee, Dinbandhu Mitra, Rang Lai, Keshav Chandra Sen, Rabindra Nath Tagore became very popular and they filled sense of patriotism among the people.

Question 2.
Describe the development of poetry from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century.
Answer:
Romanceism started in Indian poetry when it came in contact with European literature. But Indian poetry gave more stress on Nationalism and National movement.

Famous poets of India are Rabindra Nath Tagore (Bengali), Iqbal (Urdu), Qazi Nazrool Islam (Bengali), Keshav Sat (Marathi), Subramaniyam Bharti (Tamil) etc. But poetry after 1936 A.D. tells the story of daily life and misery of the people. Faiz and Mezaz (Urdu), Jivan Nand Dass (Bengali), Agya and Mukti Bodh (Hindi) were some of the poets who gave new poetry. After independence, poetry was composed by poets like Raghuvir Sahai, Kedarnath Singh (Hindi), Shakti Chattopadhyaya (Bengali) etc.

Question 3.
Which developments took place in the Helds of dramas and cinema from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century A.D.?
Answer:
Indian artists and dramatists tried to mix western and eastern styles of dramas from 19th century till the beginning of 20th century. Cinema organization gave a great contribution is arosing interests of the people in dramas and cinema. Girish Karnad (Kannada), Vijay Tendulkar (Marathi) etc. were famous dramatists of this age. Mulakh Raj Anand, Raja Rao, R.K. Narayan wrote dramas in English language.

Rabindra Nath Tagore was also a famous dramatist of this age. We can find a beautiful mixture of ancient Indian traditions and European culture in his writings. He tried to develop National Consciousness and International Humanism through his writings.

Question 4.
Write down a note on Fort St. George.
Answer:
Fort St. George situated at Chennai was the first British fort in India. It was made in 1639 A.D. It’s name was kept on the name of St. George. This fort became the centre of commercial activities of the British. This fort gave a great contribution in establishing the British supremacy in the Karnatic region. In present age, Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu state and offices of the Secretariate are situated in this building. Pictures of Tipu Sultan are still there on the walls of this fort which increases its glory.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the development in the field of Painting in the 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
Many changes came in the field of Indian painting during 19th century and at the beginning of 20th century. These changes were brought by art schools and art groups.

Their brief description is given below :
1. Raja Ravi Verma. Raja Ravi Verma was a great artist in the field of painting. He was not only good at painting but he was also famous for the making of sculptures. He made pictures by mixing European naturism with Indian myths legends. Pictures made by him are associated with Indian epics and Sanskrit literature. He expressed Indian glorious past through the medium of paintings.

2. Art School of Bengal. A number of steps were taken by Rabindra Nath Tagore and Havell Kumarswami to popularise Bengali Art school. Famous painters of this school made paintings based on Indian historical stories, epics and ancient literature. They made small pictures with water colours. Rabindra Nath Tagore used water colours in Japanese technique. He even established Kala-Bhavan in Shanti-Niketan.

3. Amrita Shergil and George Keyt. Amrita Shergil and George Keyt were also quite famous Indian painters. They had the knowledge of modern European art, modem animism and symbols. Disserent Paintings of Amrita Shergil were different from each other but she made pictures of Indian females. Colour-style used by George Keyt in his paintings was quite impressive.

4. Rabindra Nath Tagore. Paintings of Rabindra Nath Tagore were based on his own experiences. He made many pictures outlined by coloured chalks and filled with water colours.

5. Famous Artists of Bombay. Francis Newton Souza was one of the most famous artists of this school. He made pictures of different models with impressive colours. Paintings of flowers and women made by K.H. Ara were famous for their colours and specificness. S.K. Bakre, H.A. Gade and M.F. Hussain are other famous painters of Bombay.

6. Art School of Baroda (Vadodhra) University. G.R. Santosh, Ghulam Sheikh, Shanti Dev are famous painters of this school. Every artist of this school has its own style of painting but modernity can be seen in every work of every artist.

7. Art School of Madras. This school was prospered after independence under the guidance of D.R. Chaudhary and K.C.S. Pannikar. Other famous artists of this school were Satish Gujral, Ram Kumar and K.G. Subramaniyam.

Except these art schools, models of modern art can be seen in National Gallery of Modern Art. Lalit Kala Academy has encouraged the artists by giving them scholarships, grants, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the progress of press in the 19th and the beginning of the 20th century.
Answer:
There was no printing press in India before the British rule. Newspapers in Mughal rule were hand written which were prepared by Mughal emperor and rich businessmen for their own use. First printing press in India was established by Portuguese in 1557 A.D. But their objective was to print Christian literature and to propagate Christianity.

Development of Press till 1857 A.D.:

Newspapers started to be printed at Calcutta and other cities due to press related liberal policy of Lord Hastings. One famous journalist J.S. started to print newspaper, called ‘Calcutta Journal’, in 1818 A.D. At the same time G.C. Marshman star ted, to print newspapers ‘Darpan’ and ‘Digdarshan’ in Sarumpur.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy started to publish ‘Samvad Kaumudi’ in Bengali language in 1821 A.D. and ‘Mirat-ul-Akhbar’ in Persian language in 1822 A.D. At the same time Furdoonji Murzbaan started to publish a newspaper ‘Bombay Samachar’ in Gujarati language.

Development of Press After 1857 A.D:
A number of newspapers started to publish after 1857-58 A.D. in different parts of the country. Later on, the Press developed to a great deal during 1881-1907 A.D. For example, Bal Gangadhar Tilak started to publish ‘Kesari’ in Marathi language and ‘Maratha’ in English language. Due to efforts of Ghosh brothers, newspapers of ‘Yugantar’ and “Vande Matram’ started to be published in Bengal and they started to raise their voice against the British rule. Monthly papers also started to be published in this age. ‘The Hindustan Review’ from 1899 A.D., ‘The Indian Review’ from 1900 A.D. and ‘The Modern Review’ from 1907 gaj Gangadhar Tilak A.D. were some of the famous monthly papers.

Question 3.
Explain the case study of: Mumbai and Chennai.
Answer:
Bombay is known as Mumbai these days and Madras is known as Chennai. Both of these cities became the main presidencies during British rule. Very quickly these cities became centres of political, commercial and cultural activities. Both of these cities developed to a great deal in music and dance as well.
1. Mumbai. Instead of political and commercial activities, Bombay became the centre of cultural activities under the East India Company in 1668 A.D. This city got royal protection and that’s why, many new schools and colleges were opened over here. All round development of music, dance and dramas took place over here. Field of literature also developed very quickly due to the development of new style of writing. Except this new styles of literature, painting and architecture were also developed.

Buildings of Mumbai. Different models of architecture of Mumbai still remind us about Colonial rulers and their style. All these building are made in Indo-European style.

Their brief description is given below :
(а) Prince of Wales Museum. Prince of Wales Museum is known as the ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalya’ these days. It is situated in south Mumbai near to Gateway of India. It was made in the beginning of 20th century in the memory of Indian Journey of Prince of Wales and Ruler of Britain Edward VII. The work of building was given to a famous architect George Wiltet in 1909 A.D. It was completed in 1915 A.D. It is a beautiful mixture of many elements of architectural technique. This building has three floors and on the top, dome is there. This dome looks alike the dome of Taj Mahal. Its windows and floor match with the palaces of Mughals. Symbols of monuments of ancient India and architecture of Indus Valley Civilization can be seen over here.

(b) Gate Way of India. Gate Way of India is situated near to the Prince of Wales Museum on the coast of Arabic Sea. It was made by George Wiltet and his friend John Beigh. It was made in the memory of Delhi Durbar Journey of George V and Queen Mary in India.

(c) Victoria Terminas. Victoria Terminas was prepared in 1888 A.D. Now it is known as the ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminas’. It’s earlier name was kept on the name of the Ruler of Britain Queen Victoria. Its model was prepared by the famous British architect F.W. Starus (Stievans). It took around 10 years to built this terminas. It was given the name of ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminas’ in March 1996. It was included in the world heritage of UNESCO on the 2nd July 2004.

(d) Other Buildings of Mumbai. There are many other important buildings in Mumbai except the previously mentioned buildings and these are General Post Office, Municipal Corporation, Raja Bhai Tower, Bombay University. All these buildings were built in 19th and 20th centuries.

2. Chennai. Chennai (Madras) was built in 1639 A.D. by taking land from the local leaders. It was developed into a metropolitan city in 1658 A.D. and it became a presidency. Every type of art of Southern India, like dance and music, was developed over here. Many buildings were built over here in the 19th and 20th centuries.

Following are the famous places of Chennai:

Sea Beaches of Chennai. Sea beaches of Chennai are very famous all over India. Merina Beach is quite famous out of these beaches. It is around 6 km long. Many famous buildings are situated in front of it. V.G.B. Golden beach is one of the other famous beaches of Chennai. It is generally overcrowded by children due to the availability of toy trains over here.
War Memorial. War memorial is also a beautiful building that was built in Chennai. It was built in the memory of the soldiers who had died during the First World War.
High Court. Building of High Court of Chennai completed in 1892 A.D. It is the second famous Judicial complex in the world. Its dome and galleries are fine examples of Indo-European architectural techniques.
Other Famous Buildings. Other famous buildings of Chennai which were made during British rule are George Tower, Saint Thomas Cathedral Basilika, Presidency College, Rippen Building, Chennai Central Station, Southern Railway Headquarters, etc.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 BeeKeeping

January 18, 2024January 17, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 6 BeeKeeping Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 6 BeeKeeping

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB BeeKeeping Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
Name two hive-bee species.
Answer:
Indian bees, Italian bees.

Question 2.
How many legs a honey bee has?
Answer:
Three pairs.

Question 3.
Name two wild species of honey bees.
Answer:
Rock bee, little bee.

Question 4.
Which is the most suitable period to start beekeeping in Punjab?
Answer:
February-March and November.

Question 5.
How many days a drone bee takes to complete its life cycle?
Answer:
24 days.

Question 6.
Do you have to pay fee for getting beekeeping training?
Answer:
No.

Question 7.
How many bee frames should be used to start a new colony for higher profit?
Answer:
Eight bee frames.

Question 8.
What material is used by honey bees to seal ripe honey?
Answer:
Bees wax.

Question 9.
After how much period, queen bee in a colony should be replaced?
Answer:
After every year.

Question 10.
Are the worker bees male or female?
Answer:
Female.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
Where do rock bees construct their comb?
Answer:
Rock bees construct their comb on projections of water tanks, buildings, rocks, tree branches, etc.

Question 2.
How will you differentiate new and old queen bee?
Answer:
New queen has long firm abdomen and is golden brown in colour. Old queen has dark brown or black adbomen and is sluggish in movement.

Question 3.
From where training on beekeeping may be obtained?
Answer:
Training on beekeeping may be obtained from PAU, Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras or Department of agriculture.

Question 4.
How will you shift honey bee colonies to shady place during summer season?
Answer:
To protect bees from heat in summer, colonies should be shifted to the thick shade by 2-3 feet daily. Ventilation should be proper for the hives. There should be a sources of water near the apiary.

Question 5.
What should be hive to hive and row to row distance of colonies in an apiary?
Answer:
Hive to hive distance should be 6-8 feet and row to row distance should be 10 feet.

Question 6.
What hive products other than honey can be obtained from honey bee colonies?
Answer:
Hive products obtained from colonies other than honey are bees wax, propolis bee venom, royal jelly etc.

Question 7.
Why should not unripe honey be extracted?
Answer:
We should not extract unripe honey because its shelf life is low.

Question 8.
How can honey be filtered?
Answer:
After extracting honey we should remove wax and floating impurities from the extracted-honey for this use double layer muslin cloth for filtering the honey.

Question 9.
What are the equipment’s required for starting beekeeping?
Answer:
Equipment’s required for starting beekeeping are-hive tool, bee veil, smoker and comb foundation etc.

Question 10.
Write a note on honey marketing.
Answer:
There are traders and exporters who procure honey. Several self help groups (SHG) are also involved in the marketing of honey. Bottling of honey in attractive bottles having proper information labels fixed on them add to the profit from honey trading.

Question 1.
What care should be taken while purchasing honey bee colonies?
Answer:

Start beekeeping at suitable time, in Punjab suitable time for starting bee keeping is February to March and November.
For higher productivity starts new colony with eight bee frames.
Purchase new colony which have mated new queen, open and sealed brood, pollen and brood but have minimum number of drone brood and drone bees.
Shift colonies during late night or early morning with closed gates of the hives.

Question 2.
Explain the process of honey extraction.
Answer:
Honey is ready for extraction, it is indicated from the holes in the frame if 75% of holes are sealed, we can extract honey. Honey should not be extracted unripe, because its shelf life is low and it becomes sour in short duration. Remove bees from the frames by shaking and with the help of bees brush. We can use machines for extracting honey or it can be done manually. Remove wax layer from honey combs by using uncapping knife. After extraction, empty combs should be returned to the colonies. Remove the impurities and filter the honey using double muslin cloth.

Question 3.
How can bees wax be extracted?
Answer:
While extracting honey, wax layer is removed from the comb using uncapping knife. Put this wax, very old, broken or damaged combs or wild bee combs in hot water and filter it using thick cloth. Discard the impurities which remained on the top of the cloth. Allow the molten wax in hot water to settle for a night. Wax floats on the water surface as a harden block. This can be collected easily.

Question 4.
What are the. subsidy facilities being provided by the Government in Punjab?
Answer:
For encouraging the beekeeping occupation, government is providing subsidy on bee hive and honey bee colonies through National Horticulture Mission. Government also provides subsidy on honey extracting machine, uncapping knife, drip tray, food grade plastic container for honey.

Question 5.
Explain importance of beekeeping.
Answer:
Beekeeping is an important and beneficial agricultural based subsidiary occupation. One can earn good income from this occupation. This can be adopted by women, farmers, students etc. as subsidiary occupation. Italian Honey bees can yield 20 kg of honey per colony per year under stationary beekeeping and 60 kg honey per colony per year can be obtained under migratory beekeeping conditions. Other than honey, we can get bee wax, propolis, pollen, bee venom and royal jelly. These are also source of income, one can earn by selling queen bees and colonies etc. Honey bees also help in increasing the crop yield by pollination of field, crops, fruit and vegetable crops.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide BeeKeeping Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Which species of the bee was reared earlier, in India?
Answer:
Only Indian bees.

Question 2.
Which states were involved in beekeeping in earlier times?
Answer:
Hilly and southern areas.

Question 3.
How much honey can be obtained per colony per year from Italian bees under stationary conditions?
Answer:
20 kg.

Question 4.
How much honey can be obtained per colony per year from Italian bees under migratory conditions?
Answer:
60 kg.

Question 5.
How many body parts are there in bee body?
Answer:
Three parts-head, thorax, abdomen.

Question 6.
Which are male bees? Do they sting?
Answer:
Drone bee, No they do not have sting.

Question 7.
Does queen bee has sting?
Answer:
Yes, it has.

Question 8.
When does a queen bee use its sting?
Answer:
Against rival queen bee.

Question 9.
Which state is leader in honey production?
Answer:
Punjab.

Question 10.
How many worker bees can be there in a colony of bees?
Answer:
8000 to 80,000 and sometimes more.

Question 11.
Which species of bee is more aggressive?
Answer:
Rock bee.

Question 12.
What is the size of Indian bee?
Answer:
Medium size.

Question 13.
Which bees are produced from unfertilized eggs?
Answer:
Male bees.

Question 14.
What can be the maximum age of worker bees?
Answer:
One to one and half month i.e. six weeks.

Question 15.
Which season is suitable for starting beekeeping?
Answer:
Spring (February to April).

Question 16.
Name species of bees found in India.
Answer:
Little bee, rock bees, Indian bee, Italian bee.

Question 17.
What is common name of Apis Florea?
Answer:
Little bee.

Question 18.
What is common name of Apis Mellifera?
Answer:
Italian bee.

Question 19.
Which bee species is reared in Punjab?
Answer:
Italian bee.

Question 20.
What is life period for a queen bee?
Answer:
2-4 years.

Question 21.
What is the function of drones in the colony?
Answer:
They mate with queen bee.

Question 22.
Which bees are produced from fertilized eggs?
Answer:
Worker bees.

Question 23.
In which direction should bee hives face?
Answer:
Facing the sun.

Question 24.
What is the position of Punjab in the production of honey?
Answer:
It is a leading state.

Question 25.
How do bees help us?
Answer:
They help by pollinating crops in the fields, flowers, vegetables etc. and help in increasing the yield.

Question 26.
Name the wild species of bee.
Answer:
Rock bee and Little bee.

Question 27.
Where does the rock bee construct its comb?
Answer:
Projection of water tanks, buildings, rocks and thick branches of trees.

Question 28.
Where does the little bee construct its comb?
Answer:
In bushes, stacked sticks or thin twigs of trees.

Question 29.
Which species of the bees are reared?
Answer:
Indian and Italian bees.

Question 30.
How many castes of Honey bees are there in a colony?
Answer:
Three-queen, worker, drones.

Question 31.
Describe queen bee.
Answer:
It is long, light brown and shining.

Question 32.
What is difference between abdomen of worker and drone bee?
Answer:
Worker bees have conical abdomen and drones have roundish and hairy adbomen.

Question 33.
Write name of crops which are used by bees for getting nectar and pollen?
Answer:
Sheesham, khair, litchi, ber, cucurbits, peach etc.

Question 34.
Which is the second best season for bee keeping?
Answer:
October-November (Autumn Season).

Question 35.
In which season bee activities are slow?
Answer:
Winter season (December to January).

Question 36.
Why should there be water source near the bee live?
Answer:
Bees use water to cool their comb.

Question 37.
What should be distance between boxes?
Answer:
10 feet.

Question 38.
What is Propolis?
Answer:
It is honey gum.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about queen bee?
Answer:
Queen plays the role of laying eggs and maintains the colony. It can lay 1500 to 2000 eggs in a day. It can live for many years but its capacity to lay eggs starts reducing after one year. It have long firm abdomen, light brown in colour, wings of queen bee does not cover its abdoment completely.

Question 2.
How is Italian bee better than other species of bees?
Answer:
Quantity of honey obtained from Italian bee is more than the quantity of honey obtained from other species and it is not aggressive.

Question 3.
What arrangement should be done at bee farm for sunlight and shade?
Answer:
There should be arrangement of sunlight in winter and of shade in summer, plant autumn trees near it.

Question 4.
What are the four stages of honey bee?
Answer:
Egg, larva, pupa, adult.

Question 5.
Write a note on life span of queen and its replacement?
Answer:
Queen honey bee has a life span of 2-4 years. Queen bee is replaced every year with new queen bee.

Question 6.
Write note on life span of worker bee.
Answer:
Worker bee has life span of one to one and half month, but in winter it can live for six months.

Question 7.
Write a note on the body structure male bees?
Answer:
Drones (male bees) are black and big in size than worker bees. They have large compound eyes which unite at top of their head. Tip of abdomen is round and hairy.

Question 8.
Which equipment is required for starting bee keeping?
Answer:
Hive, gloves, hive tool, bee veil, smoker, comb foundation, honey extractor, queen cage, uncapping knife, bee brush, containers etc.

Question 9.
What is the importance of honey in human diet?
Answer:
Honey is a good food. One should take 50 gram honey daily. It contains carbohydrates, minerals and vitamins. It contains many antibiotics. It can be used in case of cough. It is also beneficial for eyes and brain.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many species of honey are there? Write about their size and nature.
Answer:
There are four species of honey bees. Little bee, rock bee, Indian bee. Italian bee. Rock bee is larger of all and is very aggressive. Little bee is smallest among them. Rock bee and little bee are wild species. Indian bees and Italian bees can be reared and medium sized. Italian bee is calm in nature.

Question 2.
What do you know about life cycle of honey bee and write about management of colony?
Answer:
Honey bee has four stages in life cycle-egg, larva, pupa, adult. Life cycle of queen bee completes in 16 days, worker bee and drone bee complete their life cycle in 21 days and in 24 days respectively.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 BeeKeeping 1
There are three castes of honey bees. Queen, worker, and drone (male) bees. There is one queen in a colony. There are thousands of worker bees and drones are a few hundred in number. Worker bees construct the comb, collect pollen and nectar, and can sacrifice their life for the betterment of their hive.

Question 3.
How many worker bees are there is a colony? What are the tasks they do?
Answer:
There can be 8000-80,000 worker bees in a colony depending upon in size. These do not lay eggs but perform all other duties. They keep the hive clean, take care of the brood, make a hive, collect nectar and pollen and fill in the comb, take care of the live, temperature regulation and guard the live, feeding young ones and queen.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation

January 18, 2024January 17, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Mushroom Cultivation Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one to two words:

Question 1.
Name two important commercially grown mushrooms.
Answer:
Button mushroom, Paddy straw mushroom, shiitake mushroom.

Question 2.
Name the health benefits of mushrooms.
Answer:
Mushrooms are rich in proteins, minerals such as calcium, phosphorus, iron, potassium etc. These are also suitable for patients having Sugar and blood pressure.

Question 3.
How many crops of button mushroom can be obtained in the winter season in Punjab?
Answer:
Two crops can be obtained from September to March.

Question 4.
What is the maximum height of the compost stack during compost preparation for button mushroom?
Answer:
Five feet.

Question 5.
What is the ratio of farm yard manure and sandy soil for preparation of casing soil?
Answer:
FYM and garden soil should be in the ratio of 4:1.

Question 6.
Which insecticide is used for control of insect pests of mushrooms?
Answer:
Nuvan (Dichlorovos).

Question 7.
What is the gap period between spray of insecticide for control of flies and next harvest of mushrooms?
Answer:
48 hours.

Question 8.
What is the amount of spawn required for 3 quintals of straw?
Answer:
300 grams.

Question 9.
What is the total mushroom production in Punjab presently?
Answer:
Nearly 45000-48000 tones per annum.

Question 10.
How many turnings are given during preparation of compost?
Answer:
Seven turning.

Question 11.
What is the pH of good quality ready compost?
Answer:
7.0 to 8.0 pH.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the important nutritional attributes of mushrooms?
Answer:
Calcium, phosphorus, iron, potash, minerals and vitamin C etc. are present in mushrooms in ample quantity.

Question 2.
What are the requirements for growing mushrooms?
Answer:
Fresh paddy straw (not older than one year), bamboo sticks and mushroom seed (spawn), Kisan Khad, urea, murate of potash, gypsum,
gamma, B.C. 20E, Furadan, Molasses etc. are required.

Question 3.
Why is it important to turn the compost stack during compost preparation?
Answer:
By turning the compost stack the original outer portion goes inside and central portion becomes the outer part. This helps in increase in microbial activity.

Question 4.
How is the compost prepared for mushroom growing treated?
Answer:
Before sowing the mushroom seeds, prepared compost is treated with Bavistin 50% soluble 20 mg per litre. 20 gram dust of Bavistin is required for one quintal compost which is enough for four boxes.

Question 5.
What is the significance of casing? How is casing soil prepared?
Answer:
Casing provides proper environment for growth of mushrooms. Casing mixture is obtained by mixing FYM and garden soil in the ratio 4: 1 or spent compost and FYM in the ratio of 1:1.

Question 6.
What are the recommended varieties of mushrooms for cultivation in Punjab and give their technical names?
Answer:
According to environment of Punjab, there are five varieties of mushrooms-Button mushrooms, shiitake mushroom, Chinese mushrooms, Milky, oyster mushrooms.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Mushroom Cultivation 1
Question 7.
Give the turning schedule for preparation of compost and the details of what all is required for compost production.
Answer:
Turning schedule for preparation of compost:

Turning	After how many days turning is done after preparing the stack	Things to add
First	4	Molasses
Second	8	–
Third	12	gypsum
Fourth	15	–
Fifth	18	Furadan
Sixth	21	–
Seventh	24	Lindane.

Thus seven turnings are done. Initial three turning after even’ four days and the remaining turnings after every three days.

Question 8.
How is casing soil mixture disinfected before use?
Answer:
Disinfecting soil:
Wet the mix of compost and garden soil. Spray 4-5% of Formalin on it. In addition 20 g Furadan per quintal of casing soil is also added. Treated soil is covered with tarpaulin sheet or Polythene sheets for at least 48 hours. Then it is opened and turned again and again, so that formalin evaporates completely from it.

Question 9.
What are the quality attributed of well prepared compost?
Answer:
Attributes of well prepared compost are its colour, smell and moisture content. When colour of compost is dark brown and there is no smell of ammonia and moisture is 65-72% then the compost is ready for spawning and pH value should be 7.0 to 8.0.

Question 10.
What is the production of mushrooms from one square meter bed area?
Answer:
Production of mushrooms from one square metre bed area is 8-12 kg. mushrooms.

Question 1.
What is the importance of mushrooms in our diet?
Answer:
Mushrooms are used as food in whole of the world. It contains many nutrients and thus help in keeping the body fit. Mushrooms contain protein in large quantity, which is easily digestible. Mushrooms also contain potassium, calcium, iron, phosphorus, minerals and vitamin C in large amount. Carbohydrates and fats are present in small amounts. Therefore, mushrooms are beneficial for blood pressure and sugar patients.

Question 2.
Give the procedure for preparation of stack for composting in button mushroom?
Answer:
Spread wheat straw on “pucca” floor and wet it with clean water. Keep this straw as such for 48 hours. Mix bran and fertilizers separately and wet it with water. After 24 hours bran fertilizer mixture is broadcasted on the wetted wheat straw. Prepare stacks of the size 5 feet high, 5 feet broad and 5 feet long on the wooden boards. Height and breadth of the stack should not be more than 5 feet each.

Question 3.
What do you know about the marketing of mushrooms?
Answer:
Do not cut or pull the Mushrooms rather pick them by gentle twisting of the buttons. The mature unopened mushrooms are harvested once a day. This way no harm is done to the small button mushroom. After picking, clean off the straw pieces sticking to the mushrooms. Pack them in perforated polythene bags in 200 g lots. These packed mushrooms are sent for marketing. Mushrooms can be dried in sun or in shade and can be used in off season marketing.

Question 4.
What is mushroom spawn? How is spawning done in trays for button mushroom?
Answer:
See next questions.

Question 5.
What are the different steps in button mushroom production and briefly discuss each one?
Answer:
Steps in button mushroom production-
1. Ingredient, for compost preparing:
Wheat straw 300 kg., wheat bran 15kg, CAN 9 kg; urea, super phosphate and murate of potash 3 kg each of the three; gypsum 30 kg, gamma BHC (20% E.C.) 60 ml, molasses 5 kg, Furadan (3G) 150 gram.

2. Stack preparation:
Spread the wheat straw on a pucca floor and wet properly with water, leave it open for at least 48 hours. Mix wheat bran/husk powder with fertilizers (separately) mentioned in step 1 and moisten with water. Broadcast wheat bran mixture on the wet wheat straw after 24 hours. Mix using pitchforks. Prepare a stack of 5 x 5 x 5 foot high with the help of 3 wooden boards. Stack should not be higher than 5 feet.

3. Turning the compost stack:
Layer of stack is removed from top and all sides, it is thoroughly mixed and wetted. This way the inner part of the stack forms outer part of the new stack and outer part of the original stack goes inside the new stack. Repeat the same process when needed. Turning is necessary to increase the microbial activity which helps in decomposition. Turn the stack every fourth day and add to it. molasses, gypsum, furadan, lindane dust respectively at first, third, fifth, sixth and seventh turning.

The compost prepared from 300 kg wheat straw is used to fill 20-25 crates of the size 100 x 150 x 18 cm. When color of compost is dark brown and there is no smell of ammonia and moisture content is 65-72% then the compost is ready for spawning and pH should be 7.0 to 8.0.

4. Disinfecting the compost:
Before spawning, prepared compost is mixed with Bavistin 50% soluble 20 mg per litre. 20 gram Bavistin dust is required for one quintal compost which can be filled in four crates or boxes.

5. Filling crates and spawning:
Dismantle the compost stack and let it attain the room temperature. Take out spawn from the bottles and by using two layer growing method, broad cast spawn on the compost and fill in the boxes. Cover it with thick layer of compost. Broadcast the remaining part of spawn on this layer. Cover the boxes with wet newspaper or other papers.

6. Covering crates with soil:
Crates covered with 80-100% mycelium are covered uniformly with FYM and garden soil in the ratio 4:1 or covered with well rotten rice bran- and gobar gas slurry in the ratio 1:1. Before covering, treat it with 4-5% formalin.

7. Disinfecting soil:
Wet the mix of compost and garden soil. Spray 4-5% of Formalin on it..In addition 20g Furadan per quintal of casing soil is also added. Treated soil is covered with tarpaulin sheet or polythene sheets for at least 48 hours. Then it is opened and turned again and again so that formalin evaporates completely from it.

8. Covering of trays:
After 2-3 weeks of spawning remove the news paper and cover the compost covered with mycelium with a l’to 15 inch thick layer of disinfected soil.

9. Arranging containers:
Trays can be stacked and the area under cultivation can be increased. The trays are arranged one above the other in lines and the lines are 2 to 2.5 feet apart up and below. This way adequate working area is available and no harm is done to small pinheads of mushroom. After picking, the lower most part of the stalk of the mushroom is cut off with the help of a knife and clean mushrooms are collected.

10. Packing: Fresh Mushrooms are packed in perforated polythene bags in a lot of 200 grams.

11. Yield: 12 kg Mushrooms are available in one square metre area in one season.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Mushroom Cultivation Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many trays are covered with Mycelium in 2-3 weeks?
Answer:
80-100 percent.

Question 2.
How many grams of Mushrooms are filled in poly bags for marketing?
Answer:
200 grams.

Question 3.
What is name of Mushroom seed?
Answer:
Spawn.

Question 4.
Which nutrients are found in less quantity in Mushrooms?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and fats.

Question 5.
Which variety of Mushroom is grown in summer and how many crops can be obtained?
Answer:
It is paddy straw mushroom. We can obtain four crops from this.

Question 6.
For how many boxes the compost prepared from 300 kg of wheat straw is enough?
Answer:
20-25 boxes of. the size 100 x 150 x 18 cm.

Question 7.
How will you identify the prepared compost?
Answer:
When color of the compost becomes dark brown and there is no ammonical smell, compost is ready.

Question 8.
Name any disease, which can be cured by taking mushrooms.
Answer:
Blood pressure.

Question 9.
How many crops of mushrooms are obtained in winter?
Answer:
White button mushrooms give two crops in winter.

Question 10.
When the winter mushrooms sown?
Answer:
From October to April.

Question 11.
Which materials are required for Mushroom compost?
Answer:
Molasses, Gypsum, furadan, gamma B.H.C. etc. are required.

Question 12.
How much seed is required for one square metre?
Answer:
300 gram seed is required for one square metre.

Question 13.
What is the yield of Mushrooms obtained from one square metre?
Answer:
In one season 8-12 kg of fresh Mushrooms can be obtained from one metre square.

Question 14.
How many crops are taken from summer season Mushroom?
Answer:
From milky mushroom three crops can be taken.

Question 15.
How many mushroom growers are there in Punjab?
Answer:
400.

Question 16.
What is the time when we can take crop of button mushroom?
Answer:
September to March two crops.

Question 17.
What is the time when we can take crop of oyster.
Answer:
October to March, one crop.

Question 18.
What is time of taking shiitake Mushroom?
Answer:
One crop September to March.

Question 19.
Which variety of Mushroom is cultivated more in Punjab?
Answer:
Button mushroom.

Question 20.
From where can we get seed of mushroom?
Answer:
Punjab Agricultural University, Department of Micro Biology.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is spawning done in boxes or crates?
Answer:
Dismantle the compost pile and let it attain the room temperature. Take out spawn from the bottles and by using two layer growing method, broad cast spawn on the compost and fill in the boxes. Cover it with thick layer of compost. Broadcast the remaining part of spawn on this layer. Cover the boxes with wet newspaper or other papers.

Question 2.
How will you fill the bags for cultivation of Dhingri (Oyster Mushroom)?
Answer:
Polythene bags are filled up-to 3 level with wheat straw and bits of spawn are broadcast on it. Fill the bag again up-to 2 level with wheat straw and broadcast spawn. Fill the bag with alternate layers of straw and spawn to its full capacity. The upper end of the bag is tied with gunny thread and bottom comers of the bag are given cut to drain off the excess of water. Place these bags in a room with proper facility of light. After 3¬4 weeks of spawning small mushroom primordia appear and at this stage bags are cut open. Water the straw only to keep them moist.

Question 3.
What should be taken care of while picking mushrooms (harvesting)?
Answer:
Do not cut or pull the Mushroom they are picked by gentle twisting of the buttons. The mature unopened mushrooms and harvested once a day.

Question 4.
Which insect is harmful for Mushrooms? How can we control it?
Answer:
Mushroom flies are harmful for Mushrooms, When these are seen in the beds, on the window panes, walls or ceiling then spray 30 millilitre Nuvan 100 EC (WP) per 100 cubic metre. After spray close the doors and windows for at least 2 hours and do not pick the mushrooms for at least 48 hours. Do not spray directly on the beds.

Question 5.
What is done to increase the crop area?
Answer:
Boxes are placed on each other to increase the crop area and the Distance between boxes placed in sines is 2 to 2.5 feet and the distance between trays placed over each other is one foot.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How are paddy straw mushrooms cultivated?
Answer:
1. Material required: Fresh paddy straw (not older than one year) bamboo stick, spawn.

2. Method or procedure:
Make bundles weighing 1-1.5 kg from dry paddy straw. Tie both ends and cut the protruded ends on both sides to make them equal-sized. Soak these bundles in clean water for 16 to 20 hours. Place these bundles on a sloping surface to drain the excess water. Place five bundles on two bamboo sticks which are kept one foot apart. Spawn is broadcasted on these bundles. This way a bed of 22 bundles per square metre is prepared. To get more area under the cultivation, beds are laid on one another. For one bed 300 grams of seed is required.

3. Seed Broadcast (Spawning): 300 grams of seed is required for a bed. Keep uniformity for each layer.

4. Watering: Water after 2-3 days of spawning. Ventilation is not required initially but later on proper ventilation is required.

5. Crop appearance:
After 7-9 days of spawning small plant heads start appearing. Fruit bodies of mushrooms become worth harvesting on the tenth day. Mushroom continues to appear for 15-20 days in 4 flushes. One crop of this mushroom is over in one month. This way four crops from April to August can be obtained.

6. Packing: Mushrooms are packed in perforated polythene bags in a lot of 200 grams.

7. Yield and cost: 22 kg of dry paddy straw can give a yield of 2.5 to 3 kg of fresh mushrooms.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy

January 18, 2024January 17, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Agriculture Chapter 4 Solar Energy

Agriculture Guide for Class 8 PSEB Solar Energy Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer In one to two words:

Question 1.
What is the major benefit of solar water heater?
Answer:
It is used to heat water for temperatures less than 100°C.

Question 2.
Give two examples of renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
Solar energy, Bio-gas.

Question 3.
Give two examples of non-renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
Coal, Petroleum products etc.

Question 4.
How many types of solar dryers are?
Answer:
There are two types of solar dryer on the basis of their use domestic solar dryer and multi product solar dryer.

Question 5.
Name any two vegetables which are dried in the solar dryer.
Answer:
Spinach, Fenugreek, Chilli etc.

Question 6.
What is the capacity of multiple solar dryer for drying agricultural product?
Answer:
20 to 30 kg agricultural product.

Question 7.
What is the major benefit of solar cooker?
Answer:
It is used to cook food.

Question 8.
What percentage of conventional fuel can be saved by the use of solar cooker?
Answer:
It saves 20% to 50% conventional fuel.

Question 9.
For how many hours solar lantern can be used?
Answer:
For 3-4 hours.

Question 10.
How many types of solar cooker are there?
Answer:
These are of two types storage cum collector solar water heater and thermosiphon solar water heater.

(B) Answer in one to two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the types of energy sources? Give examples.
Answer:
There are two types of energy sources:

Renewable
Non-renewable.
Renewable energy sources: Biogas, solar energy, chemical energy etc. These sources are plenty and less costly.
Non-renewable energy sources: Electricity, coal, petrol etc. These are limited in nature.

Question 2.
Name the products which are dried with solar dryer.
Answer:
Spinach, tomato, fenugreek, mustard leaves, potato, turmeric, chilli, plums, peach, grapes etc.

Question 3.
What is meant by solar cooker?
Answer:
It is a device used to cook food using solar energy. It can save 20% to 50% of non-renewable fuel.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss solar street light.
Answer:
This light is used after the sun sets to light the street, roads etc. A battery is charged using solar energy which is used to give power to these solar lights. These are automatic lights which are operated automatically when sun sets.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 1

Question 5.
What are the points kept in mind when the cooking is done in solar cooker?
Answer:

Pre heat the solar cooker by setting up it in the sun.
Add just sufficient water to the container having food ingredients to be cooked in the solar cooker.
Vegetables, eggs etc. do not need water for cooking in solar cooker. Cut potatoes and vegetables into small pieces before placing these into the solar cooker for cooking.
The container containing ingredients and water should not be filled more than half of its level.

Question 6.
Briefly discuss the solar home lighting system.
Answer:
In this system sunlight is used to charge the inverter battery system. It can be used to light 2 tube lights and two fans up to 5 to 6 hours in case of power cuts.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 2

Question 7.
What is solar water pump?
Answer:
This pump is used to lift water from a level of 35 to 40 feet. It consists of a motor which runs by electricity produced by solar panels.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 3

Question 8.
Briefly discuss solar lantern.
Answer:
This is an emergency light system. It is charged in the sun light and it can be used for 3-4 hours for lighting.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 4

Question 9.
Briefly explain the working of domestic solar dryer.
Answer:
It is a small-sized solar dryer. It can be used to dry 2 to 3 kg fresh products in 2 to 3 days. Products which are dried in this dryer are normally used in powder form in the kitchen e.g. red chillies, onion, garlic, mango powder, ginger, spinach leaves etc.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 5

Question 10.
Briefly discuss the multi-product solar drier.
Answer:
Agricultural products should be dried at low air temperature than the maximum allowed temperature. High temperature may destroy the quality of the food items. This solar drier can be used for drying 20-30 kg of agricultural products per day.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 6

Question 1.
Explain the method of cooking in solar cooker.
Answer:

Pre heat the’solar cooker by setting up it in the sun.
Add just sufficient water to the container having food ingredients to be cooked in the solar cooker.
Vegetables, eggs etc. do not need water for cooking in solar cooker. Cut potatoes and vegetables into small pieces before placing-these into the solar cooker for cooking.
The container containing ingredients and water should not be filled more than half of its level.
Keep the top of solar cooker towards the sun.
Do not open the solar cooker again and again. This will delay in cooking.
Open the lid carefully after cooking the food, so that steam cannot hurt our body.

Question 2.
Explain the solar water heater in details.
Answer:
Solar water heater is a device used for heating water using solar energy. It consists of tubes, storage tank, tube and fix assembly, glass sheet etc.
PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Solar Energy 8
Collector tubes are joined to the header of the bottom and top storage tank is insulated and is mounted in such a way that its bottom is above the top of collector by at least 60-70 cm. Front of the tube and fin assembly is covered by a glass sheet and all other sides and back are insulated. The sun rays fall on the tube and fin assembly, as a result water gets heated up, as hot water is lighter than cold water, hot water moves to the upper part of the storage tank.

Question 3.
Explain two solar dryer in detail.
Answer:
Solar dryer is used to dry vegetables and fruits. These are of two types.
Cabinet dryer:
This is a wooden box which is black from inside. It is covered with a glass sheet. Inside the box. there are perforated trays arranged at different levels, one above the other. Product to be dried is placed in these trays. There are two holes in this dryer, lower hole allows the air to enter and the hole at upper side allows the air to leave, this way air circulation takes place.

Multi product solar dryer:
This device is made up of sheets of wood and iron or of fiber glass. There are many holes at lower part and upper part for circulation of air. An arrangement has been done on the sides for placing and removing the products. There are shining rods for absorbing sunlight. Single glass sheet is fitted on the top of the box. Those trays which are used for drying the products have many holes in them. Trays are 3-4 cm in height. Cut pieces of vegetables and fruits can be dried in these trays. To protect the products from getting direct sunlight shining black plates are fixed. Since this is a solar device and uses sun rays it is placed in sunlight. Its glass top should be towards south.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss the different gadgets of solar energy.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
How the solar energy can be used in different ways?
Answer:
Sun is the ultimate source of energy in the world. Plants make their own food in sunlight and living beings take their food from the plants. Sun is responsible for air – water cycle, but all these things are happening automatically in nature. We can use solar energy in different ways by using different techniques, e.g.

We can heat water using solar energy, cook food, produce electricity. We can dry fruits and vegetables using solar energy.
Electricity can be produced using solar cells.
We can save non-renewable sources of energy by using solar energy.

PSEB 8th Class Agriculture Guide Solar Energy Important Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many types of natural energy source are there?
Answer:
Two types.

Question 2.
What type of energy is electricity obtained from burning of coal?
Answer:
Conventional (Non-renewable) energy source.

Question 3.
Which type of energy sources are limited?
Answer:
Non-renewable.

Question 4.
Which type of energy sources are in plenty?
Answer:
Renewable (Non-conventional).

Question 5.
How much fresh product can be dried in domestic level solar dryer and in how many days?
Answer:
2-3 kg fresh products in 2-3 days.

Question 6.
Can we prepare chapati in solar cooker?
Answer:
No.

Question 7.
In which direction solar water should face?
Answer:
Towards south.

Question 8.
How many fans and lights can be operated using solar home lighting system?
Answer:
2 tubes, 2 fans for 5 to 6 hours.

Question 9.
What is the name of solar water heater.
Answer:
Thermosyphen solar water heater and storage-cum-collector solar water heater.

Question 10.
Name any one conventional source of energy.
Answer:
Coal.

Question 11.
How much percent of conventional fuel is saved by using solar cooker?
Answer:
20% to 50%.

Question 12.
Frame of trays is made up of which material?
Answer:
G.I. sheets.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the uses of solar energy?
Answer:
Solar energy is used to heat water, for drying fruits and vegetables, for cooking food etc.

Question 2.
What is the disadvantage of drying bruits and vegetables in direct sun light?
Answer:
Insects, birds and dust can harm the fruits and vegetables and their color may change.

Question 3.
What is solar heater?
Answer:
This is a device which absorb solar energy and convert it in heat energy.

Question 4.
Why is it necessary to clean the glass of solar water heater?
Answer:
Dust collects on the glass which hinders the path of sun light and therefore efficiency of the water heater is reduced. It becomes necessary to clean the glass top.

Question 5.
How can solar energy be concentrated?
Answer:
By using various types of lenses and mirrors.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
How much conventional fuel is saved by using solar cookers? What are the types of solar cookers? What are the limitations of solar cookers?
Answer:
By using a solar cookers we can save 20% to 50% of conventional fuel which is used to cook food. Solar energy can be concentrated by using various types of lenses, normally these are of two types:

Box type solar cooker
Double reflector solar cooker.

Limitations:
We have to Place the solar cooker in such a way that it is always facing The sunlight and it has to be set again and again. The solar cooker can not be used to prepare chapatis.