Class 9 – Page 27 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Food Security in India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
To make available food at affordable prices to the poorer section, the government has started __________ system.
Answer:
Public Distribution

Question 2.
A big famine occurred in 1943 in __________ State of India.
Answer:
West Bengal

Question 3.
The malnutrition prevails more among __________ and __________
Answer:
Women, Children

Question 4.
__________ card is issued to the very poor people.
Answer:
Rations

Question 5.
__________ is the price announed by the government for agricultural products.
Answer:
Minimum Support Price.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which card is issued to the people living below poverty line?
(a) Antyodoya Card
(b) BPL Card
(c) APL Card
(d) CPL Card.
Answer:
(b) BPL Card.

Question 2.
__________ is an indicator of food security.
(a) Milk
(b) Water
(c) Hunger
(d) Air.
Answer:
(c) Hunger.

Question 3.
What is the price announced by the government for agricultural products known as?
(a) Minimum Support Price
(b) Issue Price
(c) Minimum Price
(d) Fair Price.
Answer:
(a) Minimum Support Price

Question 4.
Besides Bengal Famine in which other state did famine occur?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Punjab
(c) Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(c) Odisha.

Question 5.
Which Cooperative provides milk and milk products in Gujarat?
(a) Amul
(b) Verka
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) Sudha.
Answer:
(a) Amul.

III. True/False :

Question 1.
Availability of food means there is no food production within the country.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Hunger is an indicator of food security.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Ration shops are also known as Fair Price shops.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Milk-fed, Punjab is India’s largest marketing cooperative.
Answer:
False.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
What do you mean by food security?
Answer:
Food security means that food is available to every individual. All people should have access to basic food and they can afford to buy the food.

Question 2.
Explain the need for food security.
Answer:
The need for food security is due to continuous and rapid growth in population.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Famine?
Answer:
Famine means extreme scarcity of food.

Question 4.
Give two examples of epidemics.
Answer:

Smallpox epidemic in India in 1974.
Plague in India in 1994.

Question 5.
In which year Famine of Bengal occurred?
Answer:
In 1948.

Question 6.
How many people were killed during the Famine of Bengal?
Answer:
The famine killed thirty lakh people in the Famine of Bengal.

Question 7.
Who were the main sufferers during famine?
Answer:
Women and children were the main sufferers during famine.

Question 8.
Who gave the term ‘entitlement’?
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen.

Question 9.
Who are food insecure people?
Answer:
Landless people, traditional artisians, petty self-employed workers.

Question 10.
Name the states where food insecure people exist in large number.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand, Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh etc.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Green Revolution?
Answer:
The green revolution refers to a set of research and the development of technology transfer initiatives occurring between the 1930s and the late 1960s, that increased agricultural production worldwide, particularly in the developing world, beginning most markedly in the late 1960s. The initiatives resulted in the adoption of new technologies.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through FCI. It is created in order to distribute foodgrains, in deficit areas and among weaker sections of society at an affordable price. In other words, a buffer stock is a system that buys and stores stocks at times of good harvests to prevent prices falling below a target range and release stocks during bad harvests .to prevent prices rising above a target range.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Public distribution system means the regulated and controlled distribution of essential goods among people. Under this system, essential consumer goods are provided to people at fair prices through government agencies. PDS ensures supply of essential commodities through a network of fair price shops. At present, there are about 4.50 lakh fair price shops in India, out of which about 3.60 lakh shops are operating in rural areas and 0.90 lakh shops are operating in urban areas.

Question 4.
What is Minimum Support Price?
Answer:
Minimum support price is the price at which government purchases crops from the farmers and not at the market price. The MSP helps to support the farmers and thus ensures that they produce the required foodgrains in the country.

Question 5.
What do you mean by seasonal hunger and chronic hunger?
Answer:
Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food production. This happens in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labourers, who get less work during rainy season. On the other hand chronic hunger is a consequence of having persistently inadequate diet in terms of quantity and quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of very low income, and in turn, inability to buy food even for survival.

Question 6.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stocks are created by the government to distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer sections of society at a price lower than the market price. This also helps in solving the problem of shortage of food during bad harvest season or during period of calamity.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Issue price?
Answer:
The price at which the procured and buffer stock foodgrains are sold through the PDS is called as issue price. The issue price is higher than MSP but lower than the market price of the grains.

Question 8.
Explain the role of cooperatives in providing food.
Answer:
The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. Mother Dairy is providing milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate while Amul is another cooperative in milk and milk products. Academy of Development Science has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grains banks in different regions.

VI. Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India 1
What do you observe in picture?
Bengal Famine
Answer:
People are poor, unhealthy, and undernourished, without shelter and facing natural calamities like drought and famine.

Question 2.
Can you say that the family shown in the picture is a poor family? If yes then why?
Answer:
Yes, the family shown in the picture is a poor family because they have nothing to eat. They are facing acute hunger and ill health.

Question 3.
Discuss with your teacher about the source of livelihood of the people.
Answer:
In this situation only some government help or outside help can provide relief to these people for the livelihood.

Question 4.
What type of help can be given to victims of calamity at relief camps?
Answer:
Victims of calamity at relief camps can be given food, water, clothes, medicines and shelter first of all. After that rehabilitation programmes can be started.

Question 5.
Graph Production of foodgrains in India (Million Ton)
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India 2
Source: Economic Survey 2011-12, 2013-14 and Agriculture Estimates, a look 2004.

Study the graph and answer the following questions :

In which year did India achieve the target of producing nearly 200 million tonnes of foodgrains?
Answer:
In the year 2000-01, India achieved the target of producing nearly 200 million tonnes of foodgrains.

Question 6.
In which year did India have the highest production of foodgrains?
Answer:
India had the highest production of foodgrains in the year 2016-17.

Question 3.
Has the production of foodgrains continuously increased during 2000-01 to 2016-17?
Answer:
No, the production of foodgrains has not continuously increased during 2000-01 to 2016-17.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Food Security in India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the dimension of food security?
(a) Accessibility
(b) Availability
(c) Affordability
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Who are prone to food insecurity?
(a) SCs
(b) ST
(c) OBCs
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
When was RPDS launched?
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1999.
Answer:
(b) 1992.

Question 4.
When was a famine of Bengal occur?
(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1951
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 1948.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ means accessibility, availability and affordability of food to all people at all times.
Answer:
Food Security

Question 2.
__________ has made India self-sufficient in wheat and rice.
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 3.
__________ is the price announced by the government before the sowing season.
Answer:
MSP

Question 4.
__________ hunger is related to cycles of food production.
Answer:
Seasonal

Question 5.
__________ emphasised the term ‘Entitlement’.
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen.

True/False:

Question 1.
Accessibility means food within the reach of every person.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Right to Food Act, 2013 provides food security.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
National food for work programme was started in 2009.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
MSP is the price announced by the government.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is hunger?
Answer:
Hunger is another aspect of food insecurity. It is not just an expression of poverty. It brings about poverty.

Question 2.
On what factors does food security depend?
Answer:
Food security depends on the PDS.

Question 3.
When was Rationing System introduced in India?
Answer:
The rationing system was introduced in India in 1940s, after the disastrous Bengal famine occurred.

Question 4.
What is ‘Entitlement’?
Answer:
Entitlement would give a certain right to the citizens and place the state under obligation to meet the food needs of the hungry masses.

Question 5.
What is ADS?
Answer:
ADS means Academy of Development Science.

Question 6.
What are the dimensions of ‘food security’?
Answer:

Availability of food,
Accessibility of food,
Affordability of food.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on :
(i) Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS).
Answer:
Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS). It was launched in 1992 in 1700 blocks in the country to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas.

(ii) Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
Answer:
Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). It was launched in June, 1997 to adopt the principle of targeting the poor in all areas. It was for the first time that a differential price policy was adopted for poor and non-poor.

Question 2.
Explain, what do you mean by :
(i) A Famine
Answer:
A Famine. A Famine is characterised by widespread deaths due to starvation and epidemics caused by forced use of contaminated water or decaying food and loss of body resistance due to weakening from starvation.

(ii) Buffer Stock?
Answer:
Stock. Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. The minimum support price is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives, to the farmers for raising the production of their crops.

Question 3.
How is food security affected during a natural calamity?
Answer:
Due to a natural calamity, total production of foodgrains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas. As a result, the prices go up and some people cannot afford to buy food. If such calamity happens in a very widespread area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation. A massive starvation might make a turn of famine.

Question 4.
Who are food-insecure?
Answer:
A large section of people suffer from food and nutrition insecurity in India. The worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill paid occupations and casual labour market.

Question 5.
What is minimum support price? What is the impact of procurement of food at enhanced minimum support price?
Answer:
The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre announced price for their crops. This price is called minimum support price.

The increased foodgrains procurement at enhanced minimum support price is the result of the pressure exerted by leading foodgrain “producing states. Increase in MSP has induced farmers, particularly in surplus states to divert land from production of coarse grains, which is the staple food of the poor.

Question 6.
In which ways is ‘buffer stock’ used to ensure food security?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. It ensures food security by following ways :

It distributes foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price.
It also helps resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during periods of calamity.

Question 7.
Explain the different categories of people in India who suffer from food and nutrition insecurity.
Answer:
A large section of people suffer from food and nutrition insecurity in India. The worst affected categories of the people include landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill paid occupations and casual labour market.

Question 8.
What is the function of Co-operative Society? Give example of two Co-operative Societies and their contribution in ensuring food security.
Answer:
The Co-operative Societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. Mother Dairy and Amul Milk Products are examples of Co-operative societies. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate decided by Government of Delhi. In Gujarat, Amul Milk Products has brought about the white revolution in the country.

Question 9.
What is Buffer Stock? Why is the buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI).

To distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas.
To sell among the poorer strata of society at a lower price.
To resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.
To maintain food security.

Question 10.
Why was the rationing system revived?
Answer:
The introduction of rationing in India dates back to the 1940s against the backdrop of the Bengal famine. The rationing system was revived in the wake of an acute food shortage during 1960’s prior to the Green Revolution. In the wake of the high incidence of poverty levels, as reported by the NSSO in the Mid-1970’s, three food intervention programmes were introduced :

PDS (Public Distribution System)
ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services)
FFW (Food-for-Work).

Question 11.
Describe how the Public Distribution System in India has become more targeted over the years?
Answer:
The Public Distribution System in India has become more targeted over the years because it has failed to achieve its goals. Instances of hunger are prevalent despite overflowing granaries. FCI godons are overflowing with grains, with some rotting away and some being eaten by rats. PDS dealers are sometimes found resorting to malpractices like diverting the grains to open market to get better margin, selling poor quality grains at ration shops, etc.

Question 12.
Why self-sufficiency in foodgrains is necessary for every country?
Answer:
Self-sufficiency in foodgrains is necessary for every country due to the following reasons :

In self-sufficient country, food security is not affected even during natural calamities.
It will reduce the depending on foreign countries for the imports of food- grains.
It will maintain price stability in the country and control black marketing.

Question 13.
What is subsidy? Should subsidies be continued in the country?
Answer:
Subsidy is an economic advantage to the people. Under subsidy, government provide goods and services below the market price. For the development of the country these subsidies must be curtailed as these are imposing very heavy burden on the government exchequer. These subsidies are misused in the country and deserving people are not getting it. Basically they are making great hindrances in the path of development So they must be stopped as soon as possible in the country.

Question 14.
State the role of cooperatives in food security.
Answer:
The cooperatives are playing an important role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low-priced goods to poor people. For example, out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94% are being run by cooperatives. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at affordable rate decided by the Government of Delhi. These are a few examples of many more cooperatives running in different parts of the country ensuring food security to different sections of the society.

Question 15.
What is meant by the ‘National Food-for-Work’ programme?
Answer:
Food-for-Work was launched on 14 Nov. 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country with the objective of providing guaranteed wage employment to every household whose adult volunteers do unskilled manual work for minimum 100 days in a year. It is implemented as a 100 percent centrally sponsored scheme and the foodgrains are provided to the states free of cost. For the implementation of this program, the Parliament has passed a new bill known as ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Bill 2005’ in August 2005.

The collector is the nodal officer at the district level and has the overall responsibility of planning. For 2004-05,₹ 2,020 crore had been allocated for the programme in addition to 20 lakh tonnes of foodgrains.

Question 16.
Differentiate between the two dimensions of hunger. Where is each type of hunger more prevalent?
Answer:
The two main dimensions of hunger are chronic and seasonal dimensions. Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income and in turn inability to buy food even for survival.

Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labour. Each type of hunger is prevalent in rural areas.

Question 17.
Explain briefly the measures adopted by India after Independence to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
Answer:
After independence, Indian policymakers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in the ‘Green Revolution’ especially in the production of wheat and rice. The increase in foodgrains was, however, disproportionate. The highest rate of growth was achieved in Punjab and Haryana, where foodgrain production jumped from 7.23 million tonnes in 1964-65 to reach an all time high of 30.33 million tonnes in 1995-96. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, on the other hand, recorded significant increases in rice yield.

Question 18.
How has the Public Distribution System (PDS) proved to be most effective in furthering food security in India?
Answer:
Public Distribution System is the most important step taken by the Government of India towards ensuring food security. In the beginning the coverage of PDS was universal with no discrimination between the poor and non-poor. Over the years, the policy related to PDS has been revised to make it more efficient and targeted. In 1992, Revamped Public Distribution System was introduced in 1,700 blocks in the country. The target was to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas.

Question 19.
Explain the dimensions of food security.
Or
Describe the dimension of food security.
Answer:
Food security, has the following dimensions :

Availability of Food,
Accessibility of Food
Affordability of Food.

1. Availability of Food. It means food production within the country, food imports and the previous years’ stock stored in government granaries.

2. Accessibility of Food. It means food is within reach of every person.

3. Affordability of Food. It implies that an individual has enough money to buy sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet one’s dietary needs.

Question 20.
What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Answer:

During the disaster or calamity food supply is adversely affected.
During disaster or natural calamity like earthquake, drought, flood, etc., there is widespread failure of crops.
During calamity/disaster the price goes up.
Black-marketing and hoarding is also one of major factors responsible for high price rise during calamity.
During calamity or disaster situation of starvation may appear.

Question 21.
What will happen if there is no food security?
Answer:
If there is absence of food security, following problems will arise :

Due to natural calamity there will be shortage of food and prices go up. At high prices, some people cannot afford to buy food. It may cause a situation of starvation.
It will increase black marketing and people will be exploited to a large extent.
The poorest section of the society might be food insecure most of times,
A massive starvation might take a turn of famine.

Question 22.
Why is food security essential? How is food security affected during disaster?
Answer:
The poorest section of the society might be food insecure most of the times while persons above the poverty line might also be food insecure when country faces a disaster like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, etc.

During the time of natural calamity, total production of foodgrains decreases, which creates shortage of food in the affected areas. Due to shortage of food, the prices go up. At a high price, some people cannot afford to buy food. If such disaster happens in a very wide area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the issue of Food Security in India.
Answer:
“Food security implies access by all people at all times to sufficient quantities of food to lead an active and healthy life.”
“Hunger is intolerable in the modern world in a way could have been in the past, because it is so unnecessary and unwanted.”-Amartya Sen and John Dreaze.

Good security is basically understood in terms of food availability, stability and accessibility. Ensuring availability of food implies efficient domestic production and internal trade to make enough food available for the entire population. It calls for taking appropriate preemptive measures to ensure stability during harmful seasonal and inter-annual instability of food supplies. However, despite food being abundantly available, it may not be within easy access to certain sections of society.

Hence enhacing people’s purchasing power to buy food where it is not produced or’making it available at subsidised rate through the public distribution system and employment programs provides a safety net and ensures accessibility to adequate and safe food given the critical situation in India, food security needs to be understood also in terms of vulnerability of certain sections of the society who are physically and mentally pre-occupied with getting the next meal. It entails intervening sensitivity to make opportunities available to such section so that they can overcome exploration, injustice and discrimination.

Question 2.
Explain Public Distribution System.
Answer:
The network of Public Distribution System (PDS) was introduced to supply essential commodities at the subsidised price and it was considered as an essential element of Government’s safety net to the poor. After Bengal famine in 1943, the system of rationing for equitable distribution of foodgrain was introduced in India. After independence, the Government of India decided to extend the system was gradually designed to meet to basic food requirements of all consumers. In order to distribute essential food items fair price shops were opened in all states.

The Public Distribution System (PDS) evolved as a system of management of scarcity and food distribution of foodgrains at affordable Prices. Over the years, PDS has become an important part of Government’s policy for management of good economy in the country. PDS is supplemental in nature and is not intended to make available the entire requirement of any of the commodities distributed under it to a household or a section of the society.

PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and the State Governments. The central Government, through FCI, has assumed the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains to the State Governments. The operational responsibility including allocation within State, identification of families below the poverty fine, issue of Ration Cards and supervision of the functioning of FPS, rest with the State Governments. Under the PDS, presently the commodities namely wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene are being allocated to the States/UTs for distribution. Some State/UTs also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such as pulses, edible oils, iodized salt, spices, etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Flower Cultivation Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Which is the major cut flower crop?
Answer:
Gladiolus.

Question 2.
Which is the major loose flower crop?
Answer:
Marigold.

Question 3.
How much area is under flower crops in Punjab?
Answer:
The area under cultivation of flowers in Punjab is around 2160 hectares out of which 1300 hectares area is under fresh flowers.

Question 4.
What are different types of flowering crops being cultivated in Punjab?
Answer:
Divided into two categories :

Loose flowers
Cut flowers.

Question 5.
When Gladiolus corms are planted in the field?
Answer:
September to mid-November.

Question 6.
Which month is suitable for making Chrysanthemum cuttings?
Answer:
End June to mid-July.

Question 7.
How Gerbera is propagated?
Answer:
Through tissue culture.

Question 8.
Which color of the rose is widely grown for loose flower production?
Answer:
Red Rose.

Question 9.
Which flowers are used for the extraction of oil?
Answer:
Flowers of Tuberose, Motia (Jasmine).

Question 10.
Which flower is generally grown in protected conditions?
Answer:
Gerbera.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Define cut flowers and name the major cut flower crops under cultivation.
Answer:
These are flowers that are cut with long stems or branches. Some of the major cut flowers are Gladiolus, Gerbera, Chrysanthemum, Rose, and Lilium.

Question 2.
How Gladiolus spikes are harvested and stored?
Answer:
Gladiolus flower spikes are harvested when the basal floret is half or fully open. These cut spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in a cold store.

Question 3.
How the roses are propagated?
Answer:
Propagation of rose plants can be done

by T-budding for cut flower varieties
from stem cuttings for loose flowers.

Question 4.
Which months are suitable for raising the nursery of Marigold crop?
Answer:
For rainy season nursery is raised during last week of June to first week of July. For winter it is done in mid September and foT summer first week of January.

Question 5.
What is the planting time for winter season marigold?
Answer:
In winter season marigold is sown during the mid September.

Question 6.
Write harvesting stages of the following flowers :

Gladiolus
Rose as cut flower
Motia.

Answer:

Gladiolus. Harvesting is done when the basal floret is half or fully open.
Rose as a cut flower. It is harvested at the tight bud (closed) stage.
Motia. These are harvested at the unopened flower buds stage.

Question 7.
What is plant spacing in African and French marigolds?
Answer:
For African marigold spacing is 40 x 30 cm and for French marigold, spacing is 60 x 60 cm.

Question 8.
What is planting time of Gerbera ? For how many years Gerbera crop gives flowers?
Answer:
Planting time for Gerbera is September to October. This crop once planted can produce flowers for three years.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 6

Question 9.
Write names of loose flowers and write their uses.
Answer:
Loose flowers are Rose, Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These flowers are used for making garlands, used for worshipping God and for other decorative purposes.

Question 10.
Which is the appropriate soil for Jasmine production?
Answer:
Light to heavy soil with good drainage are appropriate soils for Jasmine.

Question 1.
What is the importance of flowers in human life?
Answer:
Flowers are very important in human life. These make the world around us beautiful and colourful. Flowers play an important role in cultural and customary events. During marriage ceremonies, birthdays, flowers are used to complete some customs and are also used for decorative purposes. Devotees present flowers to their gods in the temples and other religious places to show their respect, faith and devotion. Chief guests are welcomed by presenting flowers to them in the form of bouquets or garlands. Women use flower as part of their make up. Flower cultivation has become economically beneficial for the farmers. Thus flowers play an important role in our life.

Question 2.
What is the difference between cut flowers and loose flowers? Give examples.
Answer:

Loose flowers: These flowers are harvested without stem. Examples of such flowers are Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These are used for making garlands, for worshipping gods and for other decorative purposes.
Cut flowers: These flowers are harvested with a long stem or branch attached with them. These are marketed as such with stem. These are usually used for making bouquets e.g.Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera, Rose, Lilium etc.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on importance and cultivation of motia.
Answer:
It is one of the main flower among fragrant flowers. These flowers are used to extract fragrant oil. These are also used for worshipping gods.
Climate. Summer season and dry climate is suitable for their growth.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 5

Soil. Light to heavy soils with good drainage are suitable. Appearance of flower. Flowers appear during the months of July—August.
Harvesting. Unopened flower buds are harvested for marketing.

Question 4.
Write a short note on transplanting, harvesting and yield of marigold.
Answer:
Marigold is one of the major loose flowers crop of our state. It is cultivated throughout the year. Soils of Punjab are found very appropriate for the cultivation of Marigold.
Sowing Nursery: For rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.
Varieties:L These are of two types—African and French.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 4

Spacing: For African variety spacing should be 40 x 30 cm and for French variety spacing should be 60 x 60 cm.
Flowering: Flowering starts after 50-60 days of transplanting.
Harvesting: Fully opened flowers are harvested.
Yield: Average yield in rainy season is 200 quintal per hectare and in winter it is 150 to 170 quintal per hectare.

Question 5.
How the following flowers are propagated?
1. Gladiolus
Answer:
Gladiolus. It is propagated by planting corms in the field.

2. Tuberose
Answer:
Tuberose. These are propagated from underground bulbs.

3. Chrysanthemum
Answer:
Chrysanthemum. These are propagated by stem cuttings of plants. These are cut from old plants.

4. Gerbera.
Answer:
Gerbera. These plants are propagated through tissue culture.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How much area comes under fresh flower cultivation?
Answer:
1300 hectare.

Question 2.
What type of flowers are Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera?
Answer:
Cut flowers.

Question 3.
What type of flowers are Rose and Motia?
Answer:
Loose flower.

Question 4.
How Gladiolus plants are propagated?
Answer:
From corms.

Question 5.
What is the sowing time of corms of Gladiolus in the fields?
Answer:
From September to mid-November.

Question 6.
When can the cultivation of marigold be done?
Answer:
Throughout the year.

Question 7.
Which soil is good for the cultivation of Marigold?
Answer:
All soils of Punjab are suitable for the cultivation of Marigold.

Question 8.
Name the varieties of Marigold.
Answer:
African and French.

Question 9.
How much seed is required for raising seedlings for one acre?
Answer:
600 gram.

Question 10.
When is the nursery of Marigold sown for the rainy season?
Answer:
Last week of June to first week of July.

Question 11.
After how many days of transplanting Marigold the crop starts flowering?
Answer:
After 50-60 days.

Question 12.
What is the yield of Marigold in rainy season?
Answer:
Around 200 quintals per hectare.

Question 13.
What is the yield of Marigold in winter?
Answer:
150-170 quintal per hectare.

Question 14.
From which plants Chrysanthemum cutting are obtained?
Answer:
These are cut from old plants.

Question 15.
When the stem cuttings of Chrysanthemum are done?
Answer:
Last week of June to mid July.

Question 16.
When are stem cuttings of chrysanthemum planted in fields?
Answer:
Mid July to mid September.

Question 17.
Give plant spacing for Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
30 x 30 cm.

Question 18.
When does the flowers appear on the chrysanthemum?
Answer:
November-December.

Question 19.
At what height the cut stems are harvested above ground level?
Answer:
5 cm above the ground level.

Question 20.
When do we get rose flowers in Punjab?
Answer:
November to February-March.

Question 21.
What is the colour of Gerbera flowers?
Answer:
Red, orange, white, pink, yellow.

Question 22.
When are.Gerbera flowers planted?
Answer:
September to October.

Question 23.
How many types of Tuberose are there?
Answer:
Two types—single and double.

Question 24.
Which type of Tuberose is more fragrant?
Answer:
Single type.

Question 25.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 26.
When do the flowers of Tuberose appear?
Answer:
July-August.

Question 27.
Give yield of Tuberose.
Answer:
Cut flowers 80,000 or 2-2.5 tons of loose flowers per acre.

Question 28.
Name a fragrant giving flower.
Answer:
Motia.

Question 29.
What is the color of Motia flowers?
Answer:
White.

Question 30.
When do we get Motia flowers?
Answer:
April to July-August.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How to prepare bulbs of Gladiolus for planting in the next season?
Answer:
Corms are dug out from the soil after 6-8 weeks of harvesting the spikes. These corms are cleaned. These are dried in shade and are stored in a cold store for planting in the next season.

Question 2.
When is the nursery of marigold raised?
Answer:
Sowing Nursery. For the rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.

Question 3.
When are the cuttings for Chrysanthemum prepared?
Answer:
Stem cuttings are cut from the old plants which are known as mother stock from end June to mid July.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 1

Question 4.
When do the flowers of Chrysanthemum appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Chrysanthemum flowers appear in November-December. For cut flower use, stems are harvested 5 cm above ground whereas for loose flowers fully opened flowers are harvested.

Question 5.
When do the flowers of Rose appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Rose flowers appear in November to February—March in Punjab. Cut flowers are harvested in tight bud stage and for loose flowers harvest in fully open stage.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 2

Question 6.
Write about types of Tuberose.
Answer:
Tuberose flowers are of two types—single and double. Single types are more fragrant and oil can be extracted from these flowers

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 3

Question 7.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted and when do the flowers appear?
Answer:
Bulbs are planted in February-March and flowers appear in July-August.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details of cultivation of Galdiolus.
Answer:

Gladiolus is main flower crop used as cut flower.
Seed: Gladiolus corms are used as seed.
Sowing time: September to mid-November.
Spacing: 30 x 20 cm
Harvesting: Spikes are harvested when basal floret is half or fully open.
Storing: Spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in cold store.
Next season seed: Dug out the corms from the soil from which flower spikes have been cut. Dug out these after 6-8 weeks after taking spikes. Clean and dry the corms in shade and store them in cold store of next season planting.

Question 2.
Write about cultivation of Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
Chrysanthemumilowers are used as cut flowers as well as loose flower. These can be planted is pots.

Preparing cuttings: Stem cuttings are prepared from old plants during last June to mid-July.
Sowing time: Cuttings are planted during mid-July to mid-September.
Plants spacing: 30 x 30 cm.
Appearance of flowers: November to December.
Harvesting: Cut flowers are harvested from 5 cm above the ground. But loose flowers are harvested when fully open.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Flower Cultivation Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. ……………….. is the main cut flower crop :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Gladiolus
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Gladiolus

2. Produce obtained for tuberose is ……………….. loose flowers per acre.
(a) 2-2.5 ton
(b) 5 ton
(c) 20 ton
(d) 1 ton.
Answer:
(a) 2-2.5 ton

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the ………………..
(a) Corms
(b) Grafting
(c) Leaves
(d) All
Answer:
(a) Corms

4. Loose flower is :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Jasmine
(d) Gerbera
Answer:
(d) Gerbera

5. French flower is type of ………………..
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Motia
(d) Gerbera.
Answer:
(a) Marigold

True/False:

1. In Punjab, area under flower cultivation is 5000 hectares.
Answer:
False

2. In Punjab, area under fresh flower cultivation is 13000 hectares.
Answer:
False

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the corms.
Answer:
True

4. For raising nursery of one acre of marigold 600 gram seed is required.
Answer:
True

5. Tuberose flowers are used as loose and cut flowers for oil extraction.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. In Punjab, flower crops are mainly classified in ……………… categories, Loose flower, Cut flower.
Answer:
two

2. Cut flowers are harvested with their ………………
Answer:
long stems

3. Marigold is the main major ……………… crop of Punjab.
Answer:
loqse flower

4. Tuberose bulbs are planted during ………………
Answer:
February-March

5. Motia (Jasmine) flowers are of ……………… colored having good fragrance.
Answer:
white

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Poverty: Challenge Facing India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
More than _________ of the world’s poor people live in India.
Answer:
one fifth

Question 2.
Poverty creates a feeling of _________ in the poor people.
Answer:
insecurity

Question 3.
_________ people require more calories than _________ people.
Answer:
Rural urban

Question 4.
Punjab state has succeeded in reducing poverty with the help of high _________ growth rates.
Answer:
Agricultural

Question 5.
_________ is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life.
Answer:
Poverty line

Question 6.
_________ is a measurement of poverty.
Answer:
Relative poverty.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What is the number of people living in poverty in India?
(a) 20 crores
(b) 26 crores
(c) 25 crores
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 2.
Poverty ratio in _________ countries is less.
(а) Developed countries
(b) Developing countries
(c) Less developed countries
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(а) Developed countries

Question 3.
In India which state is the poorest state?
(a) Punjab
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(c) Odisha

Question 4.
National income is the indicator of
(a) Poverty line
(b) Population
(c) Relative poverty
(d) Absolute poverty.
Answer:
(c) Relative poverty

III. True/False:

Question 1.
There is a rapid decrease in global poverty.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Disguised unemployment prevails in agriculture.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Educated unemployment prevails more in villages.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) estimates the increase in populations.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Bihar and Odisha states are the most poor states.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
What is the meaning of relative poverty?
Answer:
Relative poverty refers to the distribution of national income across different individuals and households in the country.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of absolute poverty?
Answer:
Absolute poverty refers to the measure of poverty, keeping in view the per capita intake of calories and minimum level of consumption.

Question 3.
Name two indicators of relative poverty.
Answer:
Per capita income and national income are the two indicators of relative poverty.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life.

Question 5.
Name the criteria adopted by the Planning Commission of India to determine the poverty line.
Answer:
In India the Planning Commission of India determines the poverty line by his or her income or consumption level.

Question 6.
Name two indicators of poverty.
Answer:
Income and consumption are two indicators of poverty.

Question 7.
In poor families who suffers the most?
Answer:
In poor families childern suffer the most.

Question 8.
Name two poorest states of India.
Answer:
Odisha and Bihar are two poorest states of India.

Question 9.
How Kerala has reduced poverty in the state?
Answer:
Kerala has focused more on human resources development.

Question 10.
What has helped West Bengal in reducing poverty?
Answer:
Land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty in West Bengal.

Question 11.
Name two- states which reduced poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rates.
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana are the states which reduced poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rate.

Question 12.
How China and South-East-Asian countries are able to reduce poverty?
Answer:
In China and South-East-Asian countries poverty ratio declines as a result of rapid economic growth and investment in human resource development.

Question 13.
Give two causes of poverty.
Answer:

Low economic growth.
Heavy population pressure.

Question 14.
Name two poverty alleviation programmes.
Answer:

Mahatama Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yozana (SGRY).

Question 15.
Name the programme that provides free food to the Govt, school children.
Answer:
Minimum Needs Programme.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by poverty? Explain it.
Answer:
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get minimum basic necessities of life, like food, clothing, shelter, education and health facilities. Man struggles to fulfil these minimum basic needs. If the minimum basic needs are not fulfilled then there is less of health and efficiency among those living in poverty and the country. In other words, poverty is a state of being extremely poor.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Relative Poverty and Absolute Poverty.
Answer:
Relative poverty refers to the distribution of national income acr oss different individuals and households in the country. The economic conditions of different regions or countries is compared under relative poverty. On the other hand absolute poverty refers to the measure of poverty, keeping in view the per capita intake of calories and minimum level of consumption. It refers to income and consumption levels in a country.

Question 3.
What are the problems faced by the poor people?
Answer:
Some of the most important problems faced by the poor people are as follows :

Social discrimination
Housing
Subculture of poverty.

After 67 years of planning India is still one of the poorest countries in the world. Some of the variables on which the poor differ for others are degree of participation in the labour force, kind of employment, characteristics of family, degree of knowledge of the larger society, awareness of political, social and economic rights.

Question 4.
Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India.
Answer:
The poverty line is estimated based on consumption levels in India. If a person has basic needs fulfilled which include minimum level of food, clothing, educational and medical needs, etc. These minimum consumptions are then calculated in rupees and total becomes the minimum income required to fulfil basic needs. A person is considered poor if his income level falls below the minimum level necessary to fulfil basic needs.

Question 5.
Describe the major indicators of poverty.
Answer:
Keeping in view the different aspects of poverty, social scientists are trying to use a variety of indicators to measure poverty. Usually the indicator used to measure poverty are related to the level of income and consumption. But social scientists have also included social indicators like illiteracy level, malnutrition, lack of access to health care, lack of job opportunities and lack of safe drinking water. Social exclusion is another common indicator on which the analysis of poverty is based.

Question 6.
Describe the poverty trends in India since 1993-94.
Answer:
Percentage of people living below the poverty line has decreased in the last two decades. Though there is a decline in both rural and urban poverty but decline in rural poverty is less compared to decline in urban poverty.

In 1993-94, 403.7 million of people or 44.3% of population was living below the poverty line. The proportion of people below poverty line came down to 37.2% in 2004-05 and further to 21.7% in 2011-12.

Question 7.
Briefly describe the inter-state disparities in poverty in India.
Answer:
There is difference among the proportion of poor people in states. Estimates show that average Indian HCR was 21.7% in 2011-12 but states like Odisha and Bihar are the two poorest states with poverty ratio 32.6 and 33.7 respectively. In comparsion there has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana. These states have used agricultural growth and human capital growth to reduce poverty.

Question 8.
What are the three main causes of poverty in India?
Answer:
There are a number of causes for widespread poverty in India :
1. Low economic growth. India was under British rule for more than 100 years. British politics discouraged the traditional textile industries and small and cottage industries which were flourishing in India. This resulted in less job opportunities and low growth rate of incomes. Due to this overall poverty rate could not be reduced.

2. High Prices. Continuously rising prices have badly affected the poor. Rising prices take away a major portion of their income and thus make them more poor.

3. Low Productivity in Agriculture. Agricultural production is very low due to sub-divided and fragmented holdings, lack of capital, use of traditional methods of cultivation, illiteracy etc. It is the main cause of poverty in India.

Question 9.
Promotion of economic growth helps in reducing poverty. Explain.
Answer:
Stepping up the pace of growth is an ultimate solution to the problem of poverty in India. When the pace of growth increases, employment both in farms and industries increases. Greater employment lesser the poverty. Since the eighties India’s economic growth has been one of the fastest in the world. Economic growth provides opportunities and the resources needed to reduce poverty and help in economic development.

Question 10.
What are the main features of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005?
Answer:
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005 aims to provide 100 days of wage employment to every household. This ensures a regular, wage in rural areas and promotes sustainable development. l/3rd of proposed jobs have been reserved for women. The control of the state govt, will establish employment guarantee funds for the implementation of the scheme.

Question 11.
Explain any three poverty alleviation programmes undertaken by the Government of India.
Answer:

Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY). It was launched with an objective to provide employment opportunity to the surplus workers and to develop regional, social and economic conditions.
Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY). It was started in 2000 aimed at improving the health, primary education, drinking water, housing and roads of the rural areas with additional central assistance.
Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). It was launched in the year 2000. Under this scheme poor families were identified and twenty five kilograms of foodgrains were made available to each family at a very subsidised rate of ₹ 2 per kg for wheat and ₹ 3 per kg for rice.

VI. Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss under what conditions the poor families of your village or city are living?
Answer:
In my village the poor families are living with irregular jobs, lack of good health, unhygienic living conditions and unable to send children to schools.

Question 2.
After reading the cases of rural and urban poverty, discuss the below-mentioned reasons of poverty and find out whether these are the reasons of poverty in both mentioned cases or not.
1. Landless family
Answer:
Landless family. In both the cases of rural and urban areas families have no land to cultivate.

2. Unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment. Unemployment forced them to do household chores at a very meagerable rates.

3. Big family
Answer:
Big family. Big size of the family is also the cause of poverty in both the cases.

4. Illiteracy.
Answer:
Illiteracy. Families are illiterate and even they are not sending their wards to school.

5. Poor health and undernourished
Answer:
Poor health and undernourished. They are sick people and cannot afford treatment. Their children are undernourished and items like shoes, soap and oil are luxury items for their families.

Question 3.
Graph Poverty ratio in selected states
im-1
(i) Looking at the graph name the five states with the highest percentage of poor people.
Answer:
Five states with the highest percentage of poor people are Bihar, Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

(ii) Name the states where estimates of poverty are less than 22% but more than 15%.
Answer:
They are West Bengal, Maharastra and Gujarat.

(iii) Name the states with the highest poverty percentage and with lowest poverty percentage.
Answer:
The state with the highest percentage of poverty is Bihar and with the lowest poverty percentage is Kerala.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Poverty: Challenge Facing India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In 1993-94 the percentage of poor in India was :
(a) 44.3%
(b) 32%
(c) 19.3%
(d) 38.3%.
Answer:
(a) 44.3%.

Question 2.
Which is the poverty determination measure?
(a) Headcount ratio
(b) Sen’s Index
(c) Poverty Gap Index
(d) All of these.
Answer;
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Which country of the world has the highest per capita income in dollars term?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Switzerland
(c) Norway
(d) Japan.
Answer:
(c) Norway.

Question 4.
What type of poverty can make the comparison of two countries possible?
(a) Absolute Poverty
(b) Relative Poverty
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them.
Answer:
(b) Relative Poverty.

Question 5.
In which State there is the highest poverty in India?
(a) Odisha
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) West Bengal.
Answer:
(a) Odisha.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_________ is the inability to get the minimum consumption requirements for life, health and efficiency.
Answer:
Poverty

Question 2.
_________ poverty is that poverty in which minimum physical quantities of national requirement are determined for a subsistence level.
Answer:
Absolute

Question 3.
In _________ poverty we compare the relative level of income of the population. It refers to poverty in relation to different classes, regions and other countries.
Answer:
Relative

Question 4.
There are _________ types of poverty.
Answer:
two

Question 5.
_________ refers to that amount of purchasing power by which people can satisfy their minimum basic needs.
Answer:
Poverty.

True/False:

Question 1.
There are two types of poverty, absolute and relative poverty.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Poverty is the main problem of India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Head count ratio refers to the percentage of population below poverty line.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Rising population implies rising incidence of poverty in India.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Head count ratio and poverty incidence ratio are identical terms.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the proportion of world’s poor which live in India?
Answer:
One fifth of the world’s poor live in India.

Question 2.
How many children under the age of five die annually in India according to UNICEF?
Answer:
About 2.3 million children.

Question 3.
What was the percentage of population below poverty line in 2011-12 in India?
Answer:
21.7 per cent.s

Question 4.
Write the types of poverty.
Answer:
Types are:

Absolute poverty
Relative Poverty.

Question 5.
What is Calorie?
Answer:
Calorie is the energy given to a person by a full day’s food.

Question 6.
State the full form of NSSO.
Answer:
National Sample Survey Organisation.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do different countries use a different poverty line?
Answer:
Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level of development and its accepted minimum social norms. For example, a person not having a car in the United States may be considered poor. In India, owning of a car is still considered a luxury.

Question 2.
What is ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005’?
Answer:
The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts. Later, the scheme will be extended to 600 districts. Now this scheme is implemente. in all the districts of the country.

Question 3.
Give an account of Inter-state disparities of poverty in India.
Answer:
This proportion of poverty is not the same in every state. Although state level poverty has witnessed a secular decline from the level of early seventies, the success rate of reducing poverty varies from state to state.

In India, Odisha and Bihar continue to be the two poorest states with poverty ratios of 47% and 43% respectively, while poverty ratios of Jammu and Kashmir and Punjab is 3.5% and 6.2% respectively.

Question 4.
What is ‘National Food-for-Work Programme’ (NFWP)?
Answer:
National Food-for-Work Programme was launched in 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country. The programme is open to all rural poor who are in need of wage employment and desire to do manual unskilled work. It is implemented as a 100 per cent centrally sponsored scheme and foodgrains are provided free of cost to those districts.

Question 5.
What is ‘Rural Employment Generation Programme’?
Answer:
Rural Employment Generation Programme was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and in small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth Five Year Plan.

Question 6.
Write a short note on ‘Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana-(SGSY) and ‘Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY).
Answer:
1. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY). It was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy.

2. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY). It was implemented in 2000. Additional central assistance is given to states for basic service such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water and rural-electrification.

Question 7.
Write any two main features of the NREGA which help in alleviating poverty.
Answer:
Following are the main features of NREGA :

This Act Provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in all districts. One third of the proposed jobs would be reserved for women.
Under the programme, if an applicant is not provided employment within fifteen days he will be entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.

Question 8.
Name two social and two economic groups that are most vulnerable to poverty. When does the situation for such a group become more acute?
Answer:
Two social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty are Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe households. Similarly, among the economic groups, the most vulnerable groups are the rural agricultural labour households and the urban casual labour households.

The situation of such a group becomes more acute when women, elderly people and female infants are systematically denied equal access to resources available to the family.

Question 9.
Describe global poverty trends.
Answer:
The proportion of people in developing countries living in extreme economic poverty defined by the World Bank as living on less than $1 per day has fallen from 28 per cent in 1990 to 21 per cent in 2001. Although there has been a substantial reduction substantially in China and South-East Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and massive investments in human resources development.

Question 10.
What poverty really means to people?
Answer:
The official definition of poverty however captures only a limited part of what poverty really means to people. It is about a “minimum” subsistence level of living rather than a “reasonable” level of living. Many scholars advocate that we must broaden the concept into human poverty. Worldwide experience shows that with the increase in development, the definition of poverty also changes.

Question 11.
Explain any three features of Public Distribution System.
Answer:
Following are the features of PDS.

It is used as an important activity of the state to ensure food security to the people, particularly the poor ones.
The prices of the goods sold through PDS in fair prices shops will be less than that of the market price. The cost of this price difference will be borne by the government. This amount is known as subsidy.
This system controls unscrupulous rise in prices for essential goods in the markets.

Question 12.
How is poverty line fixed in India?
Answer:
While fixing the poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, foot-wear, educational and medical requirements are determined for subsistence. These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in rupees. The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calories requirement. The calories vary depending on age, sex and the type of work that a person does. The accepted average calories requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas. On the basis of these calculations, for the year 2000, the poverty line for a person was fixed at ₹ 328 per month for the rural areas and ₹ 454 for the urban areas.

Question 13.
Explain the following issues on the basis of textbook :
(a) Landless
Answer:
Landless: Landless is that person who does not own any land. Lakha Singh is treated as landless.

(b) Unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment: Unemployment is a situation in which those people who are able and willing to work at existing wage rate cannot get work. Ram Saran and Lakha Singh’s families are unemployed or under-employed.

(c) Size of families
Answer:
Size of Families: By the size of families we mean the number of persons in a family. Generally the size of poor families like Ram Saran and Lakha Singh are very large.

(d) Illiteracy
Answer:
Illiteracy: Person who cannot read and write is treated as illiterate poor person.

(e) Poor health/Malnutrition.
Answer:
Poor health/Malnutrition: Poor health means who have no access to health care and remain ill. Malnutrition means undernourishment.

Question 14.
Examine the concept of social exclusion of poverty.
Answer:
According to this concept, poverty must be seen in terms of the poor having to live only in poor surroundings with other people, excluded from enjoying social equality of better-off people in better surroundings. Social exclusion can be both a cause as well as a consequence of poverty in the usual sense. Broadly, it is a process through which individuals or groups are excluded from facilities, benefits and opportunities that other (their ‘betters’) enjoy. A typical example is the working of the caste system in India in which people belonging to certain castes are excluded from equal opportunities. Social exclusion thus may lead to, but can cause more damage than, having a very low income.

Question 15.
Examine the ‘Vulnerability’ to poverty.
Answer:
Vulnerability to poverty is a measure, which describes the greater probability of certain communities (say, members of a backward caste) or individuals (such as a widow or a physically handicapped person) of becoming or remaining poor in the coming years. Vulnerability is determined by the option available to different communities for finding alternative living in terms of asset’s, education, health and job opportunities. Further, it is analysed on the basis of the greater risks these groups face at the time of natural disasters, terrorism, etc. Additional analysis is made of their social and economic ability to handle these risks. In fact, vulnerability describes the greater probability of being more adversely affected than other people when bad time comes for everybody, whether a flood or an earthquake or simply a fall in the availability of jobs.

Question 16.
What are the main causes of poverty in India?
Or
Explain any three causes for the widespread of poverty in India.
Answer:
The main causes of poverty in India are the following :

Underdeveloped Nature of the Economy. India’a economy is an underdeveloped economy. Its per capita income is low. Thus, its underdeveloped nature is closely associated with poverty.
Rapid Growth of Population. Rapid growth of population in overpopulated countries like India is the main cause of poverty. In these countries, the national income increases but the per capita income remains more or less the same due to the increase in population.
Casual Nature of Employment. Most of the Indian population lives in rural area. The nature of employment in rural, as well as urban areas, is casual and intermittent which is closely related to poverty.
Predominance of Agriculture. Agriculture is the principal means of livelihood. It is the primary asset to rural people. Productivity of land is an important determinant of material well being, but the productivity of land in India is very low. Thus, people remain struck in poverty.

Question 17.
Explain any five measures to reduce poverty in India.
Or
How poverty can be removed in India?
Answer:
Following are the measures by which poverty can be reduced in India :
1. Population Control. Growing population is a major cause of poverty in India. So, it ig necessary to control it. Family planning programme should be implemented effectively to control population explosion.

2. Creation of More Employment Opportunities. Though it has been stated in our constitution that the government would provide employment opportunities to all, but unemployment is still a big problem in India. It is also responsible for poverty. Hence, it is essential to promote employment through intensive development technology.

3. Check on Price Rise. Price rise is also, responsible for poverty in India. It decidedly goes against the interests of the poor. So, price rise must be checked through proper, fiscal and monetary policies and other measures.

4. More Emphasis on Small, Rural and Cottage Industries. Small scale and cottage industries have not developed fully in India, It is essential to develop such industries as their development will help the poor. So, government should adopt effective methods to expand small scale and cottage industries which will increase the self-employment opportunities.

5. Stepping up Capital Formation. Low rate of capital formation is a major hindrance in the way of fast economic development. The rate of capital formation, therefore, must be increased. As it basically depends on the saving rate, ever possible effort should be made to increase savings and their mobilisation.

Question 18.
Explain five important anti-poverty measures undertaken by the Government of India.
Answer:

National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005. The act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts.
National Food for Work Programme (NFWP) 2004. It was launched in 150 most backward districts of the country. It was open to all rural poor who were in need of wage employment.
Prime Minister Rozgar Yogana (PMRY) 1993. The aim is to create self-employment opportunities for educated youth in rural areas and small towns.
Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) 1995. The aim is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) 1999. It aims at bringing assisted poor families above the poverty line, by organising them into self-help groups through bank credit and government subsidy.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is poverty line Fixed in India?
Answer:
Following are the important method to fix the poverty line in India :

In order to estimate the consumption cut-off, the private consumption expenditure is taken into consideration.
In case of private consumption expenditure, both food and non-food items of rural and urban areas are taken into consideration.
The per capita consumption of calories is considered for the food items. In case of non-food items, only socio-economic factors such as literacy level health, life expectancy, birth rate, death rate, etc., are shown. For this purpose, a Frequency distribution is constructed and class interval range denotes the level of calorie consumption. The lower class indicates lower level of calorie consumption whereas the higher class show higher range of calorie consumption.
Every frequency counts the number of calories belonging to the respective consumption class.
The Head Count Ratio is calculated to find out the percentage of poor and non-poor population for the rural and urban areas, particularly the Below Poverty Line population.

Question 2.
Suggest measures to remove poverty in India.
Answer:
Measures to Remove Poverty. Removal of poverty is a big problem before India. This problem should be solved as soon as possible. Unless we are able to provide the public all the necessities of life, our political freedom is useless and any development is also meaningless. The problem of poverty is a big danger to the unity of India. As we have seen, not only one reason but many like economic, social, and political reasons are responsible for it. So, we have to adopt many programmes, covering different aspects together, in order to remove poverty.

The following suggestions can be made to remove poverty :
1. Population Control. A growing population is a major cause of poverty in India. So, it is necessary to control it. A family planning programme should be implemented effectively.

2. Creation of More Employment Opportunities. Though it has been stated in our Constitution that, the government would provide employment opportunities to all, but unemployment is still a big problem in India. It is also responsible for poverty. Hence, it is essential to promote employment through intensive development technology.

3. Increase in Production. Industrial and agricultural production should be increased to remove poverty. Present capacity should be utilized fully and new techniques should be adopted. Proper coordination should be there between large-scale and small-scale industries. Superior seeds, manures, fertilizers, and modern methods of production should be adopted for agricultural development. Necessary irrigation facilities should be made available and social structures in rural areas should also be modified. Land reforms should be implemented sincerely. All these suggestions can be helpful in increasing agricultural and industrial production.

4. Check on Price Rise. Price rise is also responsible for poverty in India. It decidedly goes against the interests of the poor. So, price rises must be checked through proper fiscal and monetary policies and other measures.

5. More Emphasis on Small, Rural, and Cottage Industries. Small scale and cottage industries have not developed fully in India. It is essential to develop such industries as their development will help the poor. So, Govt. should adopt effective methods to expand small and cottage industries which will increase the self-employment opportunities for the poor.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Summer Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Write the name of two varieties of chili.
Answer:
Punjab Surkh, CH-1.

Question 2.
How much is a requirement of vegetables per person per day for maintenance of good health?
Answer:
284 gm.

Question 3.
Write the name of two improved varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 4.
How much seed per acre of okra is required for sowing in February?
Answer:
15 kg per acre.

Question 5.
How much spacing is required between rows in the brinjal crop?
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 6.
Write the name of two varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 7.
When sowing of bottle gourd should be done?
Answer:
Feb-March, June-July, and November-December.

Question 8.
How much seed of cucumber is required per acre?
Answer:
1 kg per acre.

Question 9.
How much seed of muskmelon is required per acre?
Answer:
400 gram.

Question 10.
What is the sowing time of the sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid May to July.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What do you mean by vegetable?
Answer:
Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as salad or after cooking is called vegetable.

Question 2.
How much seed and area is required for raising nursery for transplanting one acre tomato ?
Answer:
100 gram seed is required for nursery raising in 2 maria area for transplanting in one acre.

Question 3.
How much fertilizers are used per acre for chilli crop ?
Answer:
10-15 ton well rotten farm yard manure, 25 kg. nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus and 12 kg potash can be used. This dose is for one acre.

Question 4.
How four crops of brinjal are raised in a year?
Answer:
Four crops of brinjal are raised in a year by sowing in October, November, February-March and July.

Question 5.
What are the sowing time and seed rate of okrg?
Answer:
Spring season crop is sown in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July. Seed rate is 15 kg (February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).

Question 6.
Give the reasons for the low availability of per capita’ per day vegetables in our country.
Answer:
The low availability of per capita per day vegetables in our country is due to

population explosion and
due to post-harvest losses which are nearly one-third of the total production of vegetables.

Question 7.
What is the ideal time for sowing and transplanting of the nursery of tomato?
Answer:
The ideal time for sowing the nursery of tomatoes is the second fortnight of July. Transplanting of seedlings is done in second fortnight of August.

Question 8.
How many days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd ?
Answer:
55-60 days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd.

Question 9.
Write two improved varieties and sowing time of muskmelon.
Answer:
Improved varieties of muskmelon are Punjab hybrid, Hara madhu and sowing time is February-March.

Question 10.
How can we get early and higher yield in cucumber ?
Answer:
We get early and higher yield in cucumber by growing under low tunnel polythene sheets.

Question 1.
Write name of summer vegetables and describe any one of them.
Answer:
Summer vegetables are – tomato, brinjal, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, bitter gourd, chilli, okra, summer squash, cucumber, long melon, squash melon etc.

Tomato

Improved varieties—Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.
Seed rate—100 gram seed is required for sowing nursery in 2 maria for transplanting in one acre.
Time of sowing—Sow nursery in the second fortnight of July.
Transplanting—Second fortnight of August.
Row spacing—120-150 cm.
Weed control—Spray stomp or sencor.
Plant spacing—30 cm.
Irrigation—First irrigation should be done immediately after transplanting and later irrigations should be done after 6-7 dhys interval.

Question 2.
Write a short note on improved varieties, sowing time, seed rate, and control of weeds in okra.
Answer:
Improved varieties. Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.
Sowing time. Spring season sowing is done in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July.
Seed rate. Seed rate per acre is 15 kg (for February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).
Weed control. 3-4 hoeings are needed or spray stomp.

Question 3.
What is the importance of vegetables in human diet?
Answer:
Vegetables have a very important role in the human diet. Vegetables contain a sufficient amount of nutrients like carbohydrates, minerals, proteins, vitamins etc. These nutrients are essential for the maintenance of good health. A large population of our country is vegetarian, therefore, importance of vegetables becomes more in our country. According to scientific research, a person should consume 284 gram of vegetable in a day. Vegetables include leafy vegetables (spinach, fenugreek, lettuce, saag etc.), root vegetables (carrot, radish, turnip), flower buds (cauliflower), fruit (tomato, brinjal) etc.

Question 4.
Describe cultivation of Bottlegourd.
Answer:

Improved varieties. Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.
Sowing time. February-March, June-July, November- December.
Harvesting. After 60-70 days of sowing, the crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 5.
How to raise a successful crop of ashgourd?
Answer:
Ash gourd belongs to
Improved Varieties—PAG-3
Sowing time—Feb-March and June-July.
Seed rate—2kg seed/acre
Method of sowing–Sow at least two seeds per hill on one side.
Spacing—Beds should be 3m wide and spacing should be 75-90 cm.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the seed rate for chilli?
Answer:
200 grams per acre.

Question 2.
What is the time of sowing of Nursery for chilli?
Answer:
End October to mid-November.

Question 3.
What is the time of transplanting the seedlings of chilli?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 4.
What is row spacing for chilli?
Answer:
75 cm.

Question 5.
What is plant spacing for chilli?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 6.
Write names of varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 7.
Write seed rate for tomato.
Answer:
100 gram per acre.

Question 8.
What is a time of sowing of the nursery for tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of July.

Question 9.
What is time of transplanting seedlings of tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of August.

Question 10.
What is row spacing for tomato?
Answer:
120-150 cm.

Question 11.
What is plant spacing for tomato?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 12.
Weed control is done in tomatoes by using
Answer:
Stomp, Sencore.

Question 13.
Write varieties of Brinjal.
Answer:
Punjab Neelam (round), B.H.-2 (Oblong), PBH-3 (small).

Question 14.
Write seed rate for brinjal.
Answer:
300-400 grams per acre.

Question 15.
Write row spacing for brinjal.
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 16.
What is plant spacing for brinjal?
Answer:
30-40 cm.

Question 17.
How is Okra sown?
Answer:
Sowing is done on ridges.

Question 18.
Write varieties of Okra.
Answer:
Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.

Question 19.
How is the Okra crop sown in February-March?
Answer:
On ridges.

Question 20.
How is the okra crop sown in June-July?
Answer:
On planes.

Question 21.
What is row spacing for okra?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 22.
What is plant spacing for okra?
Answer:
15 cm.

Question 23.
When is okra harvested?
Answer:
45-50 days after sowing.

Question 24.
Write improved varieties of summer squash.
Answer:
Punjab Chappan Kadoo.

Question 25.
Write time of sowing for summer squash.
Answer:
Mid-January to March and October-November.

Question 26.
What is the seed rate for summer squash?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 27.
How many seeds are sown at a place for summer squash?
Answer:
Two seeds at a place.

Question 28.
When is summer squash ready for harvesting?
Answer:
In 60 days.

Question 29.
Write varieties of Bottle gourd.
Answer:
Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.

Question 30.
Write time of sowing for bottle gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July, November-December.

Question 31.
When is the bottle gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
60-70 days after sowing.

Question 32.
Write varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 33.
Write time of sowing for bitter gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 34.
Write seed rate for bitter gourd.
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 35.
What is plant spacing for the bitter gourd?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 36.
How is bitter gourd sown in Kyaris (beds)?
Answer:
On both sides.

Question 37.
Write varieties of sponge gourd.
Answer:
Pusa chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.

Question 38.
What is a time of sowing for sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid-February to March.

Question 39.
What is seed rate for sponge gourd?
Answer:
2 kg seed per acre.

Question 40.
When is sponge gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 70-80 days of sowing.

Question 41.
Write varieties of ash gourd.
Answer:
PAG—3.

Question 42.
Write time of sowing for ash gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 43.
What is seed rate for ash gourd?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 44.
Write varieties of cucumber.
Answer:
Punjab Naveen.

Question 45.
What is seed rate for cucumber?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

Question 46.
Write varieties for long melon.
Answer:
Punjab long melon.

Question 47.
What is time of sowing for long melon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 48.
What is seed rate for long melon?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

Question 49.
Write about harvesting of long melon.
Answer:
After 60-70 days of sowing.

Question 50.
Write varieties of squash melon.
Answer:
Tinda-48.

Question 51.
What is time of sowing for squash melon?
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 52.
What is seed rate for squash melon ?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 53.
When is squash melon ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 60 days of sowing.

Question 54.
Is muskmelon a vegetable or fruit ?
Answer:
It is a vegetable.

Question 55.
What is time of sowing for muskmelon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 56.
What is sedd rate for muskmelon ?
Answer:
400 gram per acre.

Question 57.
What is plant spacing for muskmelon?
Answer:
60 cm.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which nutrients are found in vegetables?
Answer:
Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins, etc.

Question 2.
Write about fertilizers for chillis.
Answer:
Apply 10—15 ton well rotten farmyard manure, 25 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 12 kg potash per acre.

Question 3.
Write about irrigation for chillis.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

Question 4.
Write irrigation requirements for tomatoes.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

Question 5.
Write about the method of sowing for brinjal.
Answer:
Brinjal is sown in 10-15 raised beds in one maria.

Question 6.
Give the method of sowing of summer squash.
Answer:
Summer squash is sown in 1.25 m wide beds and two seeds are sown per hill at a distance of 45 cm on both sides of beds.

Question 7.
Write about the cultivation of cucumbers. Improved varieties, time of sowing, seed rate.
Answer:

Improved varieties—Punjab Naveen.
Time of sowing—February-March.
Seed rate—One kg per acre.

Question 8.
Write about the cultivation of long melon.
Answer:

Improved varieties—Punjab long melon-1.
Time of sowing—February-March.
Seed rate—One kg per acre.
Harvesting—After sowing 60-70 days.

Question 9.
Write about the cultivation of squash melon.
Answer:

Improved varieties—Tinda-48.
Time of sowing—February-March, June-July.
Seed rate—1.5 kg seed per acre.
Method of sowing—Sow seeds on both sides of 1.5 m wide beds at a spacing of 45 cm.
Harvesting—Fruits are ready for picking after 60 days of sowing.

Question 10.
Write about the cultivation of sponge gourd.
Answer:

Varieties—Pusa Chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.
Time of sowing—Mid February to March, Mid May to July. Method of sowing—Sow in 3 m wide beds with a spacing of 75-90 cm.
Seed rate—2 kg seed per acre.
Harvesting—70-80 days after sowing.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about the cultivation of muskmelon.
Answer:
Muskmelon is a vegetable scientifically but we consider it as a fruit.

Varieties: Punjab hybrid, Hara Madhu, Punjab Sunehri.
Time of Sowing: February-March.
Seed Rate: 400-gram seed per acre.
Method of Sowing: Sow in 3-4 m wide beds.
Plant Spacing: Plant to plant spacing is 60 cm.
Irrigation: Water the crop every week in summer at the time of fruit maturity. Avoid direct contact of water with fruit.

Question 2.
Write about the cultivation of Chilli.
Answer:

Varieties: Punjab Surkh, Punjab Guchhedar, and Chilli hybrid-1.
Seed Rate: 200-gram seed per acre.
Sowing Nursery: Sow nursery in one maria and the seed is sown in the nursery during the end of October to mid-November.
Transplanting: It is done in February-March.
Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows is 75 cm and plant to plant spacing is 45 cm.
Fertilizer: 10 to 15 tonnes of well rotten farmyard manure is required, 25 kg Nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 20 kg potash per acre are also required.
Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 7-10 days in summer.

Question 3.
Write about the cultivation of Brinjal.
Answer:

Varieties: Punjab Neelam (Round fruited), BH-2 (oblong fruited), and PBH-3 (small fruited)
Seed Rate: 300-400 grams for one acre.
Method of Sowing: Nursery is sown in 10-15 cm raised beds of one maria.
Crops of Brinjal: We can get four crops of brinjal in one-year i. e., by sowing nursery in October, November, February, March, and July.
Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows 60 cm and in plants 30-45 cm.
Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 6-7 days.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Summer Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Seed rate for tomatoes is
(a) 100 gram per acre
(b) 500 gram per acre
(c) 100 gram per acre
(d) None
Answer:
(c) 100 gram per acre

2. Punjab Barkat is a variety of :
(a) Ghia
(b) Bitter gourd
(c) Tomato
(d) Chilli.
Answer:
(a) Ghia

3. Variety of Bitter Gourd :
(a) Punjab Kareli-1
(b) Punjab Chappan Kaddu
(c) Punjab Neelam
(d) P.A.G.-3.
Answer:
(a) Punjab Kareli-1

4. Seed rate for Muskmelon (per acre) :
(a) 200 gram
(b) 700 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 400 gram.
Answer:
(d) 400 gram.

5. Punjab Naveen is a variety of :
(a) Petha
(b) Ghia
(c) Tomato
(d) Cucumber
Answer:
(d) Cucumber

True/False:

1. Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, and vitamins.
Answer:
True

2. For maintaining good health, the consumption of 504 grams of vegetables per person per day is essential.
Answer:
False

3. Leaf vegetables are – spinach, fenugreek, lettuce (salad), saag.
Answer:
True

4. Root vegetables are – carrot, radish, turnip.
Answer:
True

5. Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as a salad or after cooking is called a vegetable.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Major ……………….. vegetables are chilli, brinjal, okra, bitter gourd, squash melon, tomato, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, long melon etc.
Answer:
Kharif (summer)

2. Seed rate for chiili for sowing nursery in one maria is ………………..
Answer:
200 gram

3. Seed rate for sowing nursery of brinjal is ……………….. per acre.
Answer:
300-400 gram

4. Punjab Gucchedar is a variety of ………………..
Answer:
Chilli

5. Varieties of ……………….. are – Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmini.
Answer:
Okra

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Science Chapter 3 Networking

Computer Guide for Class 9 PSEB Networking Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………………………. is a group of two or more computers.
(a) Network
(b) Internet
(c) Wireless
(d) Topology
Answer:
(a) Network

2. ………………………………. is the normal computer system that is connected to the network for sharing of resources.
(a) Server
(b) Client/Node
(c) LAN
(d) WAN.
Answer:
(b) Client/Node

3. …………………………. is a device that allows you to connect multiple computers to a single network device
(a) HUB
(b) BUS
(c) Ring
(d) Star.
Answer:
(a) HUB

4. In ………………………… network, a single cable is shared by all the devices and data travel only in one direction.
(a) Single Ring
(b) Dual ring
(c) MAN
(d) LAN.
Answer:
(a) Single Ring

5. ………………………… prepares information and sends it.
(a) Protocol
(b) Receiver
(c) Sender
(d) Hub.
Answer:
(c) Sender

2. True/False

1. LAN covers a large geographic area.
Answer:
False

2. In full-duplex, information can move in both directions.
Answer:
True

3. Protocols are rules under which data transmission takes place.
Answer:
True

4. The network does not provide security to us.
Answer:
False

5. The efficiency of the network is increased with the increase of computers.
Answer:
False.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name any four Network topologies.
Answer:
The main types of Network Topologies are as under:

Bus topology
Ring topology
Star topology
Tree topology
Mesh
Hybrid topology

Question 2.
Define the computer that is used for networking.
Answer:
A computer network is an interconnected collection of a group of two or more autonomous computers that are linked together to share information and resources. Here autonomous means, there is no master and slave relationship and all computers are equal and free to act independently. The computer network enables to share the resources. Basically, the computer network is a collection of computers, printers, and other equipment, which are connected together so that they can communicate with each other. The components in a network system are normally connected together through a cable, however, the connection may be wireless.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Routers.
Answer:
A Router is a* network device that typically operates at the network layer of the OSI model. A Router performs its job by examining the network layer data packet (Ethernet Frame) and forwarding the packet to other devices based on IP Addresses. Both switches and bridges function using the addressing system, also known as MAC addresses. Each port of a network switch is in a separate collision domain and therefore Switches are used to divide a big collision domain into multiple smaller collision domains

Question 4.
Write a note on Hub.
Answer:
Hub is a device that splits a network connection into multiple computers. Hubs were the common network infrastructure devices used for Local Area Network (LAN) connectivity. Hubs function as the central connection point for Local Area Network (LAN). Hubs are designed to work with Twisted pair cabling and normally use an RJ45 jack to connect the devices. Network devices (Servers, Workstations, Printers, Scanners, etc) are attached to the hub by individual network cables. Hubs usually come in different shapes and different numbers of ports.

Question 5.
What are the two types of ring topologies?
Answer:
In a ring topology, all computers are connected via a cable that loops in a ring or circle. A ring topology is a circle that has no start and no end and terminators are not necessary for a ring topology. Signals travel in one direction on a ring while they pass from one computer to the next, with each computer regenerating the signal so that it may travel the distance required.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Network? Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the network.
Answer:
Computer networking is the practice of interfacing two or more computing devices with each other for the purpose of sharing data. Computer networks are built with a combination of hardware and software components.

Advantages of Network :

File Sharing. The major advantage of a computer network is that it allows file sharing and remote file access.
Resource Sharing. Resource sharing is another important benefit of a computer network.
Inexpensive Set-Up. Shared resources mean a reduction in hardware costs. Shared files mean a reduction in memory requirement, which indirectly means a reduction in file storage expenses.

Disadvantages of Network :

Security Difficulties. Since there is already a huge number of people who are using computer networking in sharing some of their files and resources, your security would be always at risk.
Presence of Computer Viruses and Other Malware. There are instances that the stored file you have in your gadget is already destroyed because there are already viruses that corrupt your file.

Question 2.
Write information about the parts of computer networks.
Answer:
A Data Communication system has the following components :

Message: It is the information or data to be communicated. It can consist of text, numbers, pictures, sound or video, or any combination of these.
Sender: It is the device/computer that generates and sends that message.
Receiver: It is the device or computer that receives the message. The location of the receiver computer is generally different from the sender’s computer. The distance between sender and receiver depends upon the types of networks used in between.
Medium: It is the channel or physical path through which the message is carried from the sender to the receiver. The medium can be wired like twisted-pair wire, coaxial cable, fiber-optic cable, or wireless like a laser, radio waves, and microwaves.
Protocol: It is a set of rules that govern the communication between the devices. Both sender and receiver follow the same protocols to communicate with each other.

Question 3.
Write about the types of networks.
Answer:
Ahead are the types of computer networks :

Local Area Network (LAN)
This is one of the original categories of network, and one of the simplest. LAN networks connect computers together over relatively small distances, such as within a single building or within a small group of buildings.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 1

Wide Area Network (WAN)
This is another of the original categories of network, and slightly more complex in nature. WAN networks connect computers together over large physical distances, remotely connecting them over one huge network and allowing them to communicate even when far apart. The Internet is a WAN and connects computers all around the world together.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 2

Metropolitan Area Network
This is a network that is larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN and incorporates elements of both. It typically spans a town or city and is owned by a single person or company, such as a local council or a large company.

Question 4.
What are the methods of data transmission?
Answer:
The way in which data is transmitted from one place to another is called data transmission mode. It is also called the data communication mode. It indicates the direction of the flow of information. Sometimes, data transmission modes are also called directional modes.

Types of Data Transmission Modes
Different types of data transmission modes are as follows :

Simplex mode
Half-duplex mode
Full-duplex mode

1. Simplex Mode. In simplex mode, data can flow in only one direction. In this mode, a sender can only send data and cannot receive it. Similarly, a receiver can only receive data but cannot send it. Data sent from computer to printer is an example of simplex mode.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 3

2. Half-Duplex Mode. In half-duplex mode, data can flow in both directions but only in one direction at a time. In this mode, data is sent and received alternatively. It is like a one-lane bridge where two-way traffic must give way in order to cross the other.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 4

3. Full-Duplex Mode. In full-duplex mode, data can flow in both directions at the same time. It is the fastest directional mode of data communication. The telephone communication system is an example of a full-duplex communication mode. Two persons can talk at the same time. Another example of the fully-duplex mode in daily life is automobile traffic on a two-lane road. The traffic can move in both directions at the same time.
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 3 Networking Img 5

PSEB 9th Class Computer Guide Networking Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks

1. Process of error for data communication is called …………………………………..
(a) Delivery
(b) Accuracy
(c) Protection
(d) Protocol.
Answer:
(b) Accuracy

2. …………………………. receive information.
(a) Sender
(b) Receiver
(c) Protocol
(d) Medium.
Answer:
(b) Receiver

3. Graphical representation of Network devices is called.
(a) Topology
(b) Network
(c) Ring
(d) Cable.
Answer:
(a) Topology

4. …………………. Topology uses common wire.
(a) Ring
(b) Star
(c) Bus
(d) Tree.
Answer:
(c) Bus

True or False

1. A node is a workstation that is connected to a computer.
Answer:
True

2. MAN is a network that spreads in a city.
Answer:
True

3. Data transfer rate is in Giga Bytes per second.
Answer:
False

4. NIC connects servers and workstations.
Answer:
True

5. URL means Uniform resource locator in the network.
Answer:
True

6. 1 GBPS = 1,000,000,00
Answer:
False

7. Air has an unguided transmission medium.
Answer:
True

8. A hub helps you to connect to a network.
Answer:
True

9. Bandwidth is the capacity to transfer signals.
Answer:
True

10. Available copy of a file can be used in a computer network, in case of availability of multiple copies.
Answer:
True

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Network.
Answer:
A network is a set of devices connected by physical media links. A network is recursively is a connection of two or more nodes by a physical link or two or more networks connected by one or more nodes.

Question 2.
What is a LAN?
Answer:
LAN is short for Local Area Network. It refers to the connection between computers and other network devices that are located within a small physical location.

Question 3.
What is a node?
Answer:
A node refers to a point or joint where a connection takes place. It can be a computer or device that is part of a network. Two or more nodes are needed in order to form a network connection.

Question 4.
Describe Network Topology.
Answer:
Network Topology refers to the layout of a computer network. It shows how devices and cables are physically laid out, as well as how they connect to one another.

Question 5.
How does a network topology affect your decision in setting up a network?
Answer:
Network topology dictates what media you must use to interconnect defaces. It also serves as the basis on what materials, connector, and terminations that is applicable for the setup.

Question 6.
What is WAN?
Answer:
WAN stands for Wide Area Network. It is an interconnection of computers and devices that are geographically dispersed. It connects networks that are located in different regions and countries.

Question 7.
Define star topology.
Answer:
Star topology consists of a central hub that connects to nodes. This is one of the easiest to set up and maintain.

Question 8.
What advantages does fiber optics have over other media?
Answer:
One major advantage of fiber optics is that is it less susceptible to electrical interference. It also supports higher bandwidth, meaning more data can be transmitted and received. Signal degrading is also very minimal over long distances.

Question 9.
What is the difference between a hub and a switch?
Answer:
A hub acts as a multiport repeater. However, as more and more devices connect to it, it would not be able to efficiently manage the volume of traffic that passes through it. A switch provides a better alternative that can improve the performance especially when high traffic volume is expected across all ports.

Question 10.
Define networking.
Answer:
Networking refers to the interconnection between computers and peripherals for data communication. Networking can be done using wired cabling or through wireless links.

Question 11.
What is mesh topology?
Answer:
Mesh topology is a setup wherein each device is connected directly to every other device on the network. Consequently, it requires that each device have at least two network connections.

Question 12.
What is the difference between logical and physical topology?
Answer:
Logical topology: The logical topology defines how the media is accessed by the hosts. It is used to describe the arrangement of devices on a network and how they communicate with one another. It is also referred to as Signal Topology.

Physical topology: The physical topology defines the actual layout of the wire i.e. media. It is concerned with the physical layout of the network; how the cables are arranged; and how the computers are connected. The physical topology of a network refers to the configuration of cables, computers, and other peripherals.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is physical, and wireless media used in networking?
Answer:
Physical media:

Twisted pair cable – consists of two independently insulated wires twisted around each other
Coaxial cable – consists of an insulated center wire grounded by a shield of braided wire Fiber optic cable – contains hundreds of clear fiberglass or plastic fibers
ISDN line – a special digital telephone line that transmits and receives information at very high speeds

Wireless media:

Microwave system – transmits data via high-frequency radio signals through the atmosphere
Satellite system – receive signals from the earth, amplify them, and then transmit back these signals to the appropriate locations on the earth.
Cellular technology – uses antennae resembling telephone towers to pick up radio signals within a specific area.

Question 2.
What are the various disadvantages of networking?
Answer:
Disadvantages of computer networks :
Computer networks are very helpful when it comes to sharing resources and saving time and money but this technology has some disadvantages too. The most common disadvantages of computer networks are as follows :

1. Expensive: The first and foremost disadvantage of computer networks is that they are expensive to purchase and maintain. The cabling and installation of a large-sized computer network are very costly.

2. Data Security: Special security measures are needed to stop users from using programs and data that they shouldn’t have access to. The proper permissions must be issued to various users according to their nature of work. The proper password validation check must be applied for the authorization and authentication of the user.

3. Manager dependence: The complex networks require a network manager to keep it running. The major problem with networks is that their efficiency is very dependent on the skill of the network manager. A badly managed network may operate less efficiently than non-networked computers. Also, a badly run network may allow external users into it with little protection against them causing damage.

4. Vulnerable to hackers and viruses: Computer networks are very vulnerable to hackers and viruses. For example, if the network is poorly implemented, improper communication may take place. This may lead to the situation in which the private or important mails can be seen by other users or hackers and this may result in loss of privacy or corrupt information system. Secondly, the virus on one system in a network can affect the whole computer network and could prove fatal for the organization.

5. Social problems: Computer networks pose social problems when people post offensive views about sensitive issues like religion, sex, and politics. The newsgroup or bulletin boards allow people«to exchange messages freely on the network. This could lead to a problem because” they are not restricted to post materials on any subject including deeply offensive views regarding religion, caste or creed, etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 1 Kharif Crops Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 1 Kharif Crops

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Kharif Crops Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Name two Kharif bowls of cereal.
Answer:
Paddy, Maize, Jowar.

Question 2.
Name two important varieties of rice.
Answer:
P.R.-123, P.R.-122.

Question 3.
Give seed requirement of desi cotton hybrid for one acre.
Answer:
1.5 kg seed per acre.

Question 4.
Name one major insect pest of maize.
Answer:
Maize borer

Question 5.
Name two diseases of sugarcane?
Answer:
Red rot, Red stripe, wilt, etc.

Question 6.
Name two Pulse crops.
Answer:
Moong, Mash, Arhar.

Question 7.
Give seed rate of maize for one acre.
Answer:
It is 7 kg for pearl popcorn and 8 kg per acre for other varieties. For fodder crop, it is 30 kg per acre.

Question 8.
Give sowing time of cotton.
Answer:
1 April to 15 May.

Question 9.
Name one intercrop in sugarcane.
Answer:
Summer Moong or Summer Mash.

Question 10.
Name two fodder crops.
Answer:
Maize, Bajra, Guara.

(B) Answer In one-two sentence:

Question 1.
What is crop rotation?
Answer:
Different types of crops which are sown in a sequence in the field in one year is called crop rotation, e.g. Paddy-wheat, Paddy- Potato-Sunflower, etc.

Question 2.
Name two rice-based crop rotations.
Answer:
Rice-wheat/Berseem, Rice-wheat-sathi maize/sathi moong. Rice-Potato-Sathi Moong/Sunflower.

Question 3.
What are the deficiency symptoms of zinc in rice?
Answer:
Due to the deficiency of zinc, seedlings remain stunted and tillerless. Lower leaves become rusty, near the base. The central vein of leaves changes color and leaves ultimately dry up. To avoid and control this malady, apply 25 kg zinc sulfate per acre at the time of puddling.

Question 4.
Write sowing method of maize.
Answer:
Maize is sown from the last week of May to the end of June, can be sown in the second fortnight of August. Row spacing should be 60 cm and plant spacing should be 20 cm. Use 7 kg seed per acre for pearl popcorn and 8 kg for other varieties.

Question 5.
Give control of Its in Maize.
Answer:
It’s can be controlled by using Atrataf within 10 days of sowing.

Question 6.
Why puddling is done in Paddy?
Answer:
Paddy needs a lot of water. Due to puddling, the water holding capacity of the field increases to a large extent. The rate of evaporation of water is decreased. It also helps to prevent the growth of weeds. Transplanting, of paddy, becomes easy.

Question 7.
Give seed requirement of sugarcane.
Answer:
The seed rate for cane crops is twenty thousand, three budded sets or four budded sets 15 thousand, or five budded sets-12 thousand for one acre.

Question 8.
Write time and method of sowing for Autumn sugarcane.
Answer:
Autumn sugarcane is sown from 20 September to 20 October and sowing is done in rows with a spacing of 90 cm.

Question 9.
Give the method of defoliation in moong for combined harvesting.
Answer:
If combine is to be used to harvest the Moong crop, then at the time when 80% of pods are mature, Gramoxone is sprayed to make the leaves and stem dry i.e. for defoliation.

Question 10.
Write method of weed control in rice.
Answer:
Swank and Motha weeds grow in rice. Hoeing should be done twice manually by hands, use paddy weeder for inter-culture. After 15 and 30 days of transplanting pull out the weeds from the fields. Suitable herbicides should be used at the proper time in the required amounts. Herbicides that can be used are Machete, Refit, Top- star, Arozin, etc. use Algrip for a gorilla, Sanni, etc.

Question 1.
Discuss the use of fertilizers in rice.
Answer:
The fertilizer requirement for rice for an acre is 50 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 12. kg potassium. Potassium dose should be applied on a soil test basis. Divide nitrogen dose into three parts. Apply one part of nitrogen and a whole of phosphorus and potassium (if needed) before the last puddling. The remaining two parts of nitrogen are broadcasted in two equal splits at three and six weeks after transplanting. If rice is sown after wheat which had received a recommended supply of phosphorus, then there is no need to apply phosphorus for rice crops.

Question 2.
Explain direct seeding of rice.
Answer:
Rice should be sown directly in only medium to heavy soils. In light (sandy) soils there occurs deficiency of iron in the crop and the yield is reduced.
Time of sowing: Suitable time for direct sowing is the first fortnight of June.
Seed rate: Seed requirement is 8-10 kg per acre.
The depth and row spacing: Seed should be sown at a depth of 2-3 cm using a paddy drill and row spacing should be 20 cm. Early maturing variety of Paddy should be used for direct sowing.
Weed control: Use stomp within 2 days of sowing. If after 30 days of sowing, swank, and motha are seen in the crop then use nominee gold. Segment herbicide is used to control broadleaf weeds.
Fertilizers: Apply 60 kg nitrogen per acre in three equal splits. Broadcast nitrogen after two, five, and nine weeks of sowing.
Irrigation: Keep watering the crop at 5-10 days intervals.

Question 3.
Give details of seed treatment in cotton.
Answer:
Seed rate for B.T. varieties is 750 grams, for non-B.T. hybrid varieties 1 kg, for normal varieties 3 kg, for desi cotton varieties it is 1.5 kg and for simple varieties, it is 3 kg per acre. Use the adviced chemicals for seed treatment. For prevention from Jassid use Gaucho or Cruiser.

Question 4.
Discuss preventive measures for lodging in sugarcane.
Answer:
We should make efforts to prevent the lodging of sugarcane crops because frost has a bad effect on fallen crops. To prevent lodging, we should earth up heavily the crop before the outset of monsoon, nearly the end of June. Prop the crop at the end of August or at the beginning of September.

Question 5.
For which crops and why sulfur is essential?
Answer:
Sulfur is essential for oilseed crops. Single superphosphate is used as a source of phosphorus because it contains sulfur also. If this fertilizer is not available, use gypsum as a source of sulfur.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the time of sowing for the Kharif (Sawani) crop?
Answer:
June-July or in Monsoon.

Question 2.
When is Sawant or Kharif crop harvested?
Answer:
In October-November.

Question 3.
How can you categorize the Kharif crop?
Answer:
Three categories of Kharif crops :

Cereals
Pulses and Oilseed crops
Cotton, Sugarcane, and fodder.

Question 4.
Name Kharif cereal crops.
Answer:
Paddy, Basmati, Maize, Bajra (Sorghum).

Question 5.
Which country is the highest producer of Paddy?
Answer:
China

Question 6.
Which state of India is the highest producer of Paddy?
Answer:
West Bengal.

Question 7.
What is another name for Paddy?
Answer:
Rice and Jeeri, Dhaan, Jhonna.

Question 8.
How much area is occupied by Paddy crop in Punjab?
Answer:
28 lakh hectare.

Question 9.
How much is the average yield of Paddy in Punjab?
Answer:
60 quintal per hectare.

Question 10.
Which Karqha is used to level the field before Puddling it for the Paddy crop?
Answer:
Laser Karahd.

Question 11.
What is the seed rate for Paddy?
Answer:
It is 8 kg per acre.

Question 12.
Which chemical is used to control broadleaf weed like Gorilla in Paddy?
Answer:
Algeria or Segment.

Question 13.
Which device is used to save water for irrigation of Paddy crop?
Answer:
Tensiometer.

Question 14.
What type of soil is suitable for direct sowing of paddy?
Answer:
Medium to heavy soil.

Question 15.
What is used if there is a deficiency of zinc in Paddy and what is its quantity used?
Answer:
Zinc sulfate, 25 kg per acre.

Question 16.
What should be the moisture content for storing rice in godowns?
Answer:
12%,

Question 17.
Name varieties of Basmati.
Answer:
Punjab Basmati-3, Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509, Pusa Punjab Basmati-1121.

Question 18.
What is the time of sowing, for raising the nursery of Paddy?
Answer:
Nursery sowing for Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509 is done in the second fortnight of June and for other varieties, it is done in the first fortnight of June.

Question 19.
What happens to Paddy if excess nitrogen is applied to it? (high doses of nitrogen)
Answer:
It causes excessive vegetative growth and plants attain more height. This causes lodging of the crop and yield is reduced.

Question 20.
Which country is the highest producer of maize?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 21.
Which state of India is the highest producer of maize?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 22.
How much area of land is occupied by maize crop in Punjab?
Answer:
1 lakh 25 thousand hectares.

Question 23.
What is the average yield of maize in Punjab?
Answer:
15 quintals per acre.

Question 25.
How much rain is suitable for maize?
Answer:
50 to 75 cm.

Question 25.
What type of soil is suitable for maize?
Answer:
Well-drained medium to heavy (loam and silty loam).

Question 26.
Give seed rate for Pearl popcorn (maize variety).
Answer:
7 kg per acre.

Question 27.
Give varieties of maize for normal use.
Answer:
PMH-1, PMH-2.

Question 28.
Name special purpose varieties of maize.
Answer:
Punjab sweet corn-1, Pearl popcorn.

Question 29.
What is the time of sowing for maize?
Answer:
Maize can be sowed from the last week of May to the end of June and in the second fortnight of August.

Question 30.
What are row spacing and plant spacing for maize crops?
Answer:
60 cm, 22 cm.

Question 31.
Which weedicide is more effective for Its in maize?
Answer:
Strata.

Question 32.
What is sown in the Helds of maize crop to prevent weeds?
Answer:
Rawang (grams).

Question 33.
Which herbicide is used to control dila/motha (common sedge)?
Answer:
2, 4-D.

Question 34.
How much irrigation is required for normal maize?
Answer:
4-6 irrigations are needed.

Question 35.
Which state in India is the highest producer of pulses?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 36.
How much area is occupied by Moong crop in Punjab?
Answer:
5 thousand hectares.

Question 37.
What is the yield of Moong in Punjab?
Answer:
350 kg per acre.

Question 38.
Which type of soil is not suitable for Moong?
Answer:
Saline-alkaline or waterlogged soils are not suitable.

Question 39.
What is the seed rate for Moong?
Answer:
8 kg per acre.

Question 40.
Give the time of sowing for Moong,
Answer:
The first fortnight of July.

Question 41.
What are row spacing and plant spacing for moong crop?
Answer:
Row spacing is 30 cm and plant spacing is 10 cm.

Question 42.
Which herbicides are used to control weeds in Moong?
Answer:
Treflan or Basalin.

Question 43.
How much land is occupied by the Mash crop in Punjab?
Answer:
2 thousand hectares.

Question 44.
What is the average yield of Mash in Punjab?
Answer:
180 kg acre.

Question 45.
Which soil is not suitable for the Mash crop?
Answer:
Saline-alkaline or water-logged soils.

Question 46.
What is the seed rate for Mash?
Answer:
6-8 kg per acre.

Question 47.
What is the time of sowing of Mash in the Sub-mountainous region?
Answer:
15 to 25 July.

Question 48.
What is a time of sowing of Mash in regions other than the Sub-mountainous region?
Answer:
Last week of June to the first week of July.

Question 49.
What is row spacing for Mash?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 50.
Which pesticide is used in Mash?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 51.
Which country is the highest producer of Soyabean?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 52.
Which state of India is the highest producer of Soyabean?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh.

Question 53.
Give Soyabean based crop rotation cycle.
Answer:
Soybean—Wheat/Barley.

Question 54.
Name varieties of Soyabean.
Answer:
SL-958, S.L.-744.

Question 55.
Give the time of sowing for Soyabean.
Answer:
First fortnight of June.

Question 56.
What is row spacing for Soyabean?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 57.
Which herbicide is used to control weeds in Soyabean?
Answer:
Stomp, primate.

Question 58.
Name insects/pests which attack Soyabean?
Answer:
Hairy caterpillar and whitefly.

Question 59.
Which crop is a pulse as well as oilseed?
Answer:
Soybean.

Question 60.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of oilseed?
Answer:
The United States of America.

Question 61.
Which state in India is the highest producer of oilseeds?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 62.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of groundnut?
Answer:
China.

Question 63.
Which the State Of India is the highest producer of groundnut?
Answer:
Gujarat.

Question 64.
How much area is occupied by groundnut in Punjab?
Answer:
15 thousand hectares.

Question 65.
Give average yield of groundnut in Punjab.
Answer:
7 kg per acre.

Question 66.
Name a crop rotation cycle involving groundnut.
Answer:
Groundnut-wheat.

Question 67.
Name varieties of groundnut.
Answer:
S.G.-91, S.G.-84.

Question 68.
Give seed rate for groundnut.
Answer:
38-40 kg seed (Kernel) per acre.

Question 69.
What is the time of sowing for rainfed groundnut?
Answer:
With the advent of the monsoon.

Question 70.
What is the time of sowing for irrigated groundnut crops?
Answer:
From end April to end May.

Question 71.
Which herbicides are used to control weeds in groundnut?
Answer:
Treflan, Stomp.

Question 72.
Name Kharif fodder crops.
Answer:
Maize, Jowar, Bajra.

Question 73.
Which country in the world is the highest producer of cotton?
Answer:
China.

Question 74.
Which state of India is the highest producer of cotton?
Answer:
Gujarat.

Question 75.
How much area is under the cotton crop?
Answer:
5 lakh hectare.

Question 76.
What is the average yield of cotton in Punjab?
Answer:
230 kg lint per acre.

Question 77.
Which type of soil is not suitable for cotton?
Answer:
Sandy, saline, or water-logged.

Question 78.
Give normal varieties of cotton.
Answer:
L.H.-2108.

Question 79.
Give seed rate for BT cotton.
Answer:
750 gram per acre.

Question 80.
Name a hybrid variety of desi cotton.
Answer:
PAU 626 H.

Question 81.
Give the time of sowing for cotton.
Answer:
1 April to 15 May.

Question 82.
Give row spacing for cotton.
Answer:
67 cm.

Question 83.
Name herbicides used to control weeds in cotton.
Answer:
Treflan, stomp, gramoxon, Roundup.

Question 84.
Which country is the highest producer of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 85.
Which state in India is the highest producer of Sugarcane?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 86.
How much area is occupied by sugarcane crop in Punjab?
Answer:
80 thousand hectares.

Question 87.
What is the average yield of sugarcane in Punjab?
Answer:
280 quintals per acre.

Question 88.
How much sugar is obtained from sugarcane?
Answer:
9%.

Question 89.
What type of soil is suitable for sugarcane?
Answer:
Medium to heavy soil.

Question 90.
Name early maturing varieties of spring cane.
Answer:
CoJ-85, CoJ-83.

Question 91.
What is the seed rate if four budded sets are used for a cane?
Answer:
15 thousand per acre.

Question 92.
What is the seed rate for the cane on the basis of weight?
Answer:
30 to 35 quintals per acre.

Question 93.
What is the time of sowing for a cane?
Answer:
Mid-February to end March.

Question 94.
Name herbicides to control weeds in cane crops.
Answer:
Strata, Senior.

Question 95.
Name varieties of Autumn cane.
Answer:
CoJ-85, CoJ-83.

Question 96.
What is a time of sowing for an autumn cane?
Answer:
20 September to 20 October.

Question 97.
Which weedicide should be used if Raya or wheat is intercropped in the autumn cane?
Answer:
Isoproturon.

Question 98.
Which herbicide is used in cane crop if summer moong and summer mash is intercropped?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 99.
How much green fodder is required for an adult animal per day?
Answer:
40 kg green fodder.

Question 100.
Name Kharif fodder crop.
Answer:
Bajra, Maize, Jowar, Napier Bajra, Guniea Grass, Guara, etc.

Question 101.
How many days, Maize, Kharif fodder take to become available for harvesting?
Answer:
50-60 days.

Question 102.
Name the variety of maize, a Kharif fodder.
Answer:
J-1006.

Question 103.
What is the time of sowing for fodder maize?
Answer:
The first week of March to mid-September.

Question 104.
Which pest attacks the fodder maize?
Answer:
Maize borer.

Question 105.
Which fodder is liked by animals?
Answer:
Jowar.

Question 106.
Name varieties of Jowar?
Answer:
S.L. 104.

Question 107.
What is the sed rate of Jowar?
Answer:
20-25 kg per acre.

Question 108.
What is the time of sowing for early maturing Jowar?
Answer:
Mid-March.

Question 109.
What is a suitable time for sowing for Jowar?
Answer:
Mid-June to middle July.

Question 110.
What is row spacing for Jowar?
Answer:
22 cm.

Question 111.
If a mixture of Guara and Jowar are sown together which herbicide is used ?
Answer:
Stomp.

Question 112.
Write time of harvesting of Jowar?
Answer:
65-80 days, from boot to milk stage.

Question 113.
Give crop rotation cycle consisting of Bajra.
Answer:
Bajra-Maize-Bersem.

Question 114.
Give varieties of Bajra.
Answer:
PHBF-1, FBC-16.

Question 115.
Give seed rate for Bajra.
Answer:
6-8 kg seed per acre.

Question 116.
Give the time of sowing for Bajra.
Answer:
March to August.

Question 117.
What is the method of sowing for Bajra?
Answer:
Bajra is sown by the broadcasting method.

Question 118.
Which herbicide is used to control weeds in Bajra?
Answer:
Atrataf.

Question 119.
What do you know about the irrigation of Bajra?
Answer:
Normally 2-3 irrigations are required.

Question 120.
After how many days Bajra is harvested?
Answer:
After 45-55 days.

Question 121.
Give diseases of Bajra.
Answer:
Green ear, grain smut.

Question 122.
Write insects pest which attacks Bajra.
Answer:
Root bug, grasshopper.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give details of climate and soil for cultivating Paddy.
Answer:
Paddy needs high temperature, excess moisture and excess of water. Medium to heavy soil is suitable. It can also grow in alkaline and acidic soil.

Question 2.
Give details of seed rate and seed treatment for paddy.
Answer:
8 kg seed per acre is needed for raising the nursery. To save crops from disease, seeds should be treated with recommended fungicides, soak the seed for 8 to 10 hours in recommended chemicals.

Question 3.
How will you control broadleaf weeds in Paddy?
Answer:
Broadleaf weeds like Gorilla, sunny etc. grow in paddy. Use Algrip or segment after 15-20 days of transplanting.

Question 4.
Why is green manure used?
Answer:
Leguminous plants are used for green manure e.g. Pulse crops, Sunhump, dhaincha, etc. These crops help in the fixation of nitrogen in the soil. Green manure crop is cultivated and it is mixed into the soil of the field. This helps in the increasing of humus and- makes the soil more fertile.

Question 5.
Discuss the harvesting and storing of Paddy.
Answer:
The crop can be harvested when ears are nearly ripe and the straws change color to yellow. Produce can be stored in godown when the moisture content is not more than 12%.

Question 6.
Give the time of nursery sowing for Basmati.
Answer:
For Pusa Punjab Basmati 1509, the time of nursery sowing is the second fortnight of June and for Punjab Basmati-3 and Pusa Basmati-1121, it is the first fortnight of June.

Question 7.
What is the time of transplanting seedlings of Basmati?
Answer:
For Pusa Punjab Basmati-1509, the time of transplanting is the second fortnight of July and for Punjab Basmati-3 and Pusa Basmati-1121, it is the first fortnight of July. Transplanting is done in a puddled field. Transplant 33 plants per square meter.

Question 8.
Give details about climate and soil for maize.
Answer:
Maize requires a moist and hot climate from germination to flowering. If there is less moisture and a very high temperature at the time of flowering, it may damage the foliage. This causes dryness (desiccate) of the pollen and proper pollination does not take place, it results in a poor grain setting. 50 cm to 75 cm rain is suitable for maize. Well-drained, medium to heavy soil is suitable.

Question 9.
What do you know about the irrigation of maize?
Answer:
Maize requires 4-6 irrigations, but it depends on the rainfall. Proper care should be taken to irrigate during the pre-tasselling and silking stages.

Question 10.
What do you know about harvesting Maize?
Answer:
When husk covers become dry and brown even when the stalks and leaves are somewhat green, the crop is ready to harvest. Moisture content should not be more than 15% in the grains.

Question 11.
What do you know about climate and soil for Moong?
Answer:
The hot climate is suitable for Moong. This crop can bear more heat and extra dryness as compared to other pulses. Saline and waterlogged soils are not suitable for this crop.

Question 12.
Give details of land preparation and- application fertilizers for Moong.
Answer:
Prepare the land by giving 2-3 ploughings and level the soil using plank. At the time of sowing apply 5 kg nitrogen a^id 16 kg of phosphorus by drilling.

Question 13.
Explain how to control weeds in Moong?
Answer:
To control weeds one or two hoeings should be done. Use Treflan or Basalin to control weeds before sowing. Use stomp within two days of sowing.

Question 14.
Discuss the harvesting of moong.
Answer:
When nearly 80% of pods are mature, moong can be harvested by using a sickle. Thresher can be used to thresh moong. If combined is to be used to harvest moong, spray gramophone to make leaves and stem dry when about 80% of pods are mature.

Question 15.
What do you know about climate and soil requirements for Mash?
Answer:
For this crop hot and moist climate is found to be suitable. Nearly all types of soils can be used to grow mash, but saline-alkaline or water-logged soil are not suitable for this crop.

Question 16.
What do you know about improved varieties, land preparation and control of weeds for Mash ?
Answer:

Improved Varieties: Mash-114, Mash-338.
Land preparation: Plough two or three times and then use Suhaga to leveler.
Weed Control: Hoeing should be done after one month of sowing or use stomp within 2 days of sowing.

Question 17.
What is the time of sowing for Mash?
Answer:
The time of sowing for Mash in sub-mountainous regions is from 15 to 25 July and in other regions, it is the last week of June to the first week of July. The rainfed crop should be sown with the onset of the monsoon. Sowing should be in rows with spacing 30 cm.

Question 18.
What do you know about the irrigation and harvesting of Mash?
Answer:

Irrigation: Normally Mash crop does not need irrigation. But in summer it needs irrigation.
Harvesting: When leaves fall off and pods change color to greyish black, then crop fs ready to harvest.

Question 19.
What do you know about climate and soil for soybean?
Answer:
It needs a hot climate. It can be grown in all types of soils but well-drained, non-saline/alkaline, fertile soil is more suitable for its cultivation.

Question 20.
Write about improved varieties, crop rotation, and land preparation for soybean.
Answer:

Crop rotation: Soyabean-Wheat/Barley.
Improved varieties: S.L.-958, S.L.-744.
Land preparation: Plough twice and use sugar for leveling.

Question 21.
Write about the seed rate, seed treatment, and method of sowing for Soyabean.
Answer:
The seed rate is 25-30 kg per acre. Treat the seed with recommended chemicals. If Soyabean is being sown for the first time, apply bacterial culture to the seeds. Row spacing should be 45 cm.

Question 22.
What do you know about weed control in Soyabean?
Answer:
Hoeing should be done twice to control weeds. Hoeings should be done after 20 and 40 days after sowing. Use stomp after 1-2 days of sowing or use primate after 15-20 days of sowing to control weeds.

Question 23.
Write about the fertilizer application for Soyabean.
Answer:
Apply 4 tonnes per acre of farmyard manure (FYM) before sowing Soyabean. Apply 13 kg nitrogen and 32 kg phosphorus per acre at the time of sowing.

Question 24.
Write about the irrigation of Soyabean.
Answer:
Soybean normally needs 3-4 irrigations. At the time of pod-filling, one irrigation is necessary. In case there is rain, then there is no need for irrigation.

Question 25.
What do you know about the harvesting of Soyabean?
Answer:
When all leaves fall off and pods change their color, crop is ready for harvesting. For storing, moisture content should not be more than 7%.

Question 26.
What do you know about insects/pests and diseases of Soyabean?
Answer:
Hairy caterpillar and whitefly attack Soyabean crop. The disease which affects the crop is the yellow mosaic virus.

Question 27.
What do you know about climate and soil for groundnut?
Answer:
For rainfed crops, nearly 50 cm of rain is a must in July, August, and September. Light to Medium type soils is suitable for groundnut.

Question 28.
Write about improved varieties, land preparation, and crop cycle for groundnut.
Answer:

Improved varieties: S.G.-99, S.G.-84.
Land preparation: Prepare the land by plowing it twice.
Crop cycle: Groundnut-Rabi crops.

Question 29.
Write about seed rate, seed treatment method of sowing for groundnut.
Answer:
Use recommended chemicals for seed treatment. The seed rate is 38-40 kg seed (Kernels) per acre. Sow after Rauni in 30 x 15 cm spacing.

Question 30.
Write about the application of fertilizers in groundnut.
Answer:
Groundnut needs 6 kg nitrogen, 8 kg phosphorus, and 10 kg potash per acre. Potash should be applied after testing the soil. Use superphosphate for phosphorus. It has sulfur also which is necessary for oil seed crops. If phosphorus is not required then 50 kg Gypsum per acre should be applied.

Question 31.
Write about weed control in groundnut.
Answer:
Hoeing is done after 3 and 6 weeks. To control weeds spray stomp after two days of sowing or spray Treflan and sow the crop the same day.

Question 32.
Write about irrigation of groundnut.
Answer:
Depending on rain, groundnut requires 2 or 3 irrigations. If there is less rain then irrigate at the time of flowering. Apply one or two irrigations depending upon rain at the time of pod formation.

Question 33.
Write about harvesting (digging), insects/pests, and diseases of groundnut.
Answer:

Digging of groundnut: Crop is ready to harvest when uniform yellowing of the leaves takes place and old leaves fell off.
Insects/Pests and diseases: Hairy caterpillar, white grub, Aphid, etc. can attack the crop. Collar rot, Root-knot, and Tikka, etc. are its diseases.

Question 34.
Write about climate and soil for cotton.
Answer:
Cotton can grow well in hot and dry climates. Cotton can grow on all types of soil but saline, water-logged soil is not suitable.

Question 35.
Write about varieties of cotton and crop cycle.
Answer:
Crop Cycle (rotation) : Ahpos-wheat/Barley, Kapas- sunflower, Kapas-Raiya, cotton-senji/Barseem/oats.
Improved varieties

B.T. Varieties—NSC-855, Ankur- 3028, MRC-7017, RCH-650.
Non-B.T. hybrid—LH-144.
Normal varieties—LH-2108.
Desi hybrid varieties—PAU-626H.
Desi Normal varieties—FDK-124, L.D.-694.

Question 36.
Write about seed rate and seed treatment.
Answer:
Seed rate: For one-acre seed rate is :

B.T. cotton: 700 gram
Non-B.T. hybrid cotton: 1 kg.
Normal variety : 3 kg.
Hybrid desi cotton: 1.5 kg.
Desi Normal variety : 3 kg.

Seed should be treated with recommended chemicals. To save it from Jassid use Gaucho or cruiser.

Question 37.
Write about the time and method of sowing for cotton.
Answer:
Time: 1 April to 15 May.
Row spacing: 67 cm.
Plant spacing: For normal varieties, it is 60 cm. For BT and non-BT hybrid varieties, plant spacing is 75 cm. For desi cotton it is 45 cm, for desi cotton hybrid varieties, it is 60 cm.

Question 38.
Write about weed control in cotton.
Answer:
Hoeing is done to control weeds. 2 to 3 hoeings are enough. First time hoeing is done before first irrigation. We can use a cultivator attached to the tractor or can use a trial driven by a bullock. Its/chapatti, Madhana/Makra can be controlled by using Stefan before sowing or spray stomp within 24 hours of sowing and hoeing should be done after 45 days or use one of gramophone and round up and spray directly on weeds by using safety hood.

Question 39.
Write about fertilizer application for cotton.
Answer:
Normal varieties: 30 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre.
B.T. and non-B.T. Ijybrid Varieties: Apply 60 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre. Apply potash after testing the soil. Apply all amounts of phosphorus at the time of sowing and half nitrogen at the time of thinning and remaining nitrogen at the time of flowering.

Question 40.
Write about irrigation and picking of cotton.
Answer:
Cotton needs 4 to 6 irrigations depending upon rain. First irrigation is applied after 4 to 6 weeks of sowing and after that irrigation is applied at a gap of two or three weeks. Picking Pick clean and dry bolls within 15-20 days so as to get a proper price from the mandi.

Question 41.
Write about insects/pests of cotton.
Answer:
Insects/pests which can damage the crop are Aphid, Jassid, Millibug, Pink bollworm, Tobacco caterpillar, American bollworm, Whitefly, etc.

Question 42.
Which insects do not attack and which attack B.T. cotton?
Answer:
American Bollworm does not attack B.T. cotton because B.T. cotton is genetically modified by the insertion of genes from a bacteria, which produces a protein, which acts as a poison for the bollworm. Sucking Pests and Tobacco caterpillars can attack.

Question 43.
Write about climate and soil requirements for sugarcane.
Answer:
The hot climate is suitable for sugarcane, medium to heavy soil is suitable. This crop can bear saline and alkaline soil to some extent.

Question 44.
Write about improved varieties and crop rotation for spring sugarcane.
Answer:
Crop rotation—Paddy/Maize/Cotton-Raya-Sugarcane- Ratoon-Ratoon II-Wheat.
Improved varieties

Early maturing—CoJ-85, CoJ-83,
Mid season varieites—CoPB-91 and CoJ-88
Late maturing—CoJ-89

Question 45.
Write about land preparation for soil.
Answer:
Four to six hoeings are required. Use sugar after every hoeing. Hoeing should be done up to a depth of 45-50 cm, this is beneficial for the crop since it breaks the hard layer under the soil. Water retention ability is increased. Roots can go deep.

Question 46.
Write about seed selection and seed rate on the basis of weight.
Answer:
Use the top two-thirds portion for sowing. Use 30 to 35 quintal per acre seeds on the basis of weight.

Question 47.
Write about time and method of sowing.
Answer:
Time of sowing—Mid February to end March.
Method of sowing—Plant in rows with spacing of 75 cm and give planking and then water it. One more irrigation should be applied after 4-5 days.

Question 48.
What do you know about inter-crops in SHgarcane?
Answer:
Between two rows of sugarcane, inter-crop a row of summer moong or mash. This way we can get an additional yield of 1 to 2 quintals per acre for these crops. These crops help in increasing the. fertility of the soil and also do not affect the cane yield.

Question 49.
What do you know about fertilizer application for cane crops?
Answer:
FYM (Farm Yard Manure)—Apply 8 tonnes of FYM per acre before 15 days of sowing.
Nitrogen Fertilizer—For plant crops apply 60 kg nitrogen and for Ratoon crops use 90 kg of nitrogen per acre.
Phosphorus fertilizer—Based on soil testing, if a deficiency of phosphorus is found, apply 12 kg phosphorus per acre.
The deficiency of Potash usually does not occur in Punjab.

Question 50.
Give the method to apply fertilizers for sugarcane?
Answer:

Fertilizer	Method to apply
Nitrogen	Apply the first half nitrogen dose with the first irrigation after germination to the planted crop. The remaining half dose is to be applied in May or June. Apply three doses in equal quantity to the ratoon crop in February, April, and May.
Phosphorus	Apply full dose at the time of planting. Phosphorus is drilled rows at the time of cultivation in February.

Question 51.
Write about weed control in sugarcane.
Answer:
To control weeds, two three hoeings are required. We can spread trash between the cane rows to suppress weeds and conserve soil moisture. We can use Atrataf or sensor within two-three days of planting. For Climbing vel and Broadlife weeds use 2, 4-D. In case of summer Moong or summer Mash is sown in sugarcane then stomp herbicide should be used instead of above said herbicides.

Question 52.
Write about irrigation requirements for sugarcane.
Answer:
Climate is hot and dry from April to June. Therefore, irrigate the crop at intervals of 7-12 days. During winter, irrigation should be applied at monthly intervals.

Question 53.
Write improved varieties, time of sowing, and method of sowing for the autumn cane.
Answer:

Improved varieties—CoJ-85, CoJ-83.
Time of sowing—20th September to 20th October.
Row spacing-—90 cm spacing.

Question 54.
Write about intercropping and weed control for the autumn cane.
Answer:
Intercropping. Potato, wheat, toria, cabbage, Raya, gobhi Sarson, gram, pea, radish, garlic etc. Weed control. If wheat or Raya is sown in cane use isoproturon and in case garlic is sown then apply stomp.

Question 55.
Write about the time of sowing and sowing method for fodder crop Maize.
Answer:
Time of sowing. From the first week of March to mid-September.
Row spacing—30 cm.

Question 56.
Write about fertilizer requirements for fodder crop maize.
Answer:
At the time of field, preparation applies 10 tonnes of farmyard manure per acre. Apply 23 kg nitrogen and 12 kg phosphorus per acre.

Question 57.
Write about weed control in fodder maize.
Answer:
Use Atrataf for controlling weeds. Apply within two days of sowing the crop. It can also be used when the crop is at the 2-3 leaves stage. In case of maize and cowpea are sewn together then stomp can be used within two days of sowing.

Question 58.
Write an improved variety of sorghum, field preparation, seed rate, and treatment of seed.
Answer:
Field preparation. One plowing using harrow and two ploughings with a cultivator followed by planting.
Improved variety. SL 44 Seed rate and treatment. 20-25 kg seeds per acre. Use recommended fungicides for the treatment of seeds.

Question 59.
How to control weeds in sorghum?
Answer:
Use Atrataf within two days of sowing. It is helpful in controlling seasonal weeds like its sit/chupati. I guara and sorghum are sown together stomp can be sprayed within two days of sowing.

Question 60.
Write about crop rotation, improved variety, field preparation for Bajra.
Answer:

Crop rotation—Bajra—Maize-Berseem.
Improved Varieties—PHBF 1, FBC 16
Field preparation. 2-3 ploughings are needed.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give details of agricultural practices for Bajra.
Answer:
Do it yourself.
Question 2. Write about nursery sowing of paddy.
Answer:
The optimum sowing time for the nursery is 15th to 30th May. At the time of field preparation mix 12-15 ton well rotten farmyard manure per acre. Fertilizers that are applied at the time of sowing are 12 kg nitrogen, 10 kg phosphorus, 13 kg zinc per acre. Treated seeds with recommended fungicides are spread on a thick layer of 7-8 cm wet gunny bags and are also covered by wet gunny bags. This helps in pre-germination. Keep the gunny bags wet by sprinkling water on them. Seeds germinate in 24 to 36 hours. Sow these germinated seeds by the broadcast method of sowing. The seed rate is 8 kg per acre for nursery raising. To prevent weeds use Butachlor or soft herbicide. After 15 days of sowing apply 12 kg nitrogen per acre. Seedlings are ready when they are 20-25 cm tall or have 6-7 leaves.

Question 3.
How to use a mechanical transplanter for transplanting rice?
Answer:
This is a new technique to transplant rice. For this purpose, the nursery is grown on perforated polythene sheets which are of the size of the transplanter frames. Iron frames are placed over it and soil is filled in the frames up to the top surface. Pre-germinated seeds are spread on this soil in the frames and are covered with a thin layer of soil. Sprinkle water on the soil. The frame is lifted carefully and the required number of -such mats are prepared by the same procedure. Mats are kept wet by sprinkling water on a daily basis. For 200 mats nearly 10-12 kg seed is required, which are needed for transplanting for one acre.

Question 4.
Write about the cultivation of rice (Basmati).
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
Write about the cultivation of Maize.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 6.
Write about the cultivation of Moong.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 7.
Write about the cultivation of Mash.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Kharif Crops Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Kharif cereal crops are :
(a) Maize
(b) Rice
(c) Sorghum
(d) All correct
Answer:
(d) All correct

2. Time of sowing for cotton is :
(a) 1 April to 15 May
(b) 1 January to 15 January
(c) December
(d) June
Answer:
(a) 1 April to 15 May

3. Seed rate for pearl popcorn is :
(a) 7 kg per acre
(b) 20 kg per acre
(c) 25 kg per acre
(d) None
Answer:
(a) 7 kg per acre

4. Time of harvesting of Kharif crop is :
(a) January-February
(b) October-November
(c) April-May
(d) Whenever

5. State which is at the top position in India in the production of pulses is :
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

True/False:

1. Varieties of Basmati rice are Punjab basmati-3, Pusa Punjab basmati-1509, Pusa basmati-1121.
Answer:
True

2. In the production of Maize, the United States of America is at the top position in the world whereas Andhra Pradesh is at the top position in India.
Answer:
True

3. Moong requires a cold climate.
Answer:
False

4. Soyabean belongs to both pulses as well as oilseed categories.
Answer:
True

5. Disease which can affect Soyabean yellow mosaic virus.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Harvest the Moong crop when about ………………. are mature.
Answer:
80% of pods

2. Maize needs an environment which is considerable……………….. from the germination to flowering.
Answer:
moist and warm

3. Soyabean requires ………….. climate.
Answer:
warm

4. High doses of …………… application to basmati should be avoided.
Answer:
nitrogen

5. Seed rate for Soyabean is …………… seed per acre.
Answer:
25-30 kg

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Forest Society and Colonialism Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In which continent did the Industrial Revolution begin?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Australia
(d) North America
Answer:
(b) Europe.

Question 2.
Imperial Forest Research Institute is situated in
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Dehradun
(d) Abohar.
Answer:
(c) Dehradun.

Question 3.
Who is considered as the founder of modern forestry in India?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Dietrich Brandis
(c) Captain Watson
(d) Lord Hardinge.
Answer:
(b) Dietrich Brandis.

Question 4.
The wood of which tree is considered to be the best for ship building?
(a) Babul
(b) Oak
(c) Neem
(d) Teak.
Answer:
(d) Teak.

Question 5.
Munda Movement occured in which area?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Chota Nagpur
(c) Madras
(d) Punjab.
Answer:
(b) Chota Nagpur.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
______, ______ and ______ are very important resources for Man.
Answer:
Forest, Water, Land

Question 2.
The term ‘Colonialism’ has been derived from the Latin word ______
Answer:
Colonia

Question 3.
In Europe ______ was used for ship building.
Answer:
Oak

Question 4.
Birsa Munda was arrested from ______ on 8th August, 1895.
Answer:
Chalkat

Question 5.
______ is known as traditional method of cultivation.
Answer:
Jhoom (shifting)

III. Match the Columns :

Question 1.

A	B
Birsa Munda	2006
Ship Building	Babul
Jand	Dharti Baba
Forest Right Act	Khajri
Malabar Hills	Teak

Answer:

A	B
Birsa Munda	Dharti Baba
Ship Building	Teak
Jand	Khajri
Forest Right Act	2006
Malabar Hills	Babul

IV. Difference between :

Question 1.
Reserved Forests and Protected Forests
Answer:
Reserved Forests and Protected Forests

Reserved Forest. Reserved forests were used for the commercial production of wood. Farming and animal grazing was completely banned in such forests.
Protected Forests. There were certain restrictions on using these forests for farming and animal grazing. People had to pay some taxes for using these forests.

Question 2.
Scientific Forestry and Natural Forests
Answer:

Scientific Forestry. Scientific forestry was a method of forest department in which old trees were cut down and new trees were planted in straight rows.
Natural Forest. Many trees grow automatically due to climate and the fertility of soil. They do not grow with any human interference and grow randomly.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term Forest Society?
Answer:
Forest society is the group of people whose livelihood depends upon the forests and they live within or around forests.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term Colonialism?
Answer:
Colonialism is a process in which any powerful country occupies the natural and human resources of the country or an area in a direct or indirect manner and uses them for its own interest.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons Of deforestation.
Answer:

Expansion of agriculture.
Cultivation of commercial crops.

Question 4.
Which kind of wood was used to build Indian ships?
Answer:
Teak.

Question 5.
Name the ancient Indian emperor who prohibited the killing of animals.
Answer:
King Ashoka.

Question 6.
Which trees were planted on the Nilgiri hills?
Answer:
Babul.

Question 7.
Write down the name of four commercial crops.
Answer:
Cotton, Jute, Tea, Coffee, Rubber etc.

Question 8.
Which slogan was given by Birsa Munda?
Answer:
Self-rule in’ his own country (Abua Desh Mai Abua Raj).

Question 9.
Which community of the people prevented the king of Jodhpur from felling the trees by their sacrifice?
Answer:
Bishnoi Community.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Colonialism? Give an example.
Answer:
Colonialism is a process in which any powerful country occupies the natural and human resources of the country or an area in a direct or indirect manner and uses them for its own interests. The British occupation of India is the perfect example of the colonialism.

Question 2.
What is the relationship between forest and livelihood of the people?
Answer:
Forest tribes have been dependent on the forests for their livelihood and survival for centuries. They do hunting of birds and animals, fishing in ditches, ponds, etc. in and around the forests. They do cultivation on hilly slopes and nearby plains. They work as causal labourers in the forest department and in mines available near their place of living.

They hunt deer, jackal, sambhar, fox, wild goat for the purpose of eating. They do fishing and also catch turties and crabs for eating. They also hunt various kinds of birds like titir, hater, bageri, etc.

They do the collection of edible, roots, shoots, leaves, flowers and fruits. Fruits collected are generally Jamun, Mahua, Bair, Katahal, Amla, Imli etc. The varieties of roots, shoots, flowers, etc. collected vary from region to region.
There are other minor forest products that are collected for selling in the market or for using as folk medicine. They are seeds of Imli. Babul, Jamun, Mahua, Harer, Bahera, Honey, Lac, etc.

These include rope making, mat making broom making, basket making etc. During the off season, basketry and rope making from bamboo, Khajur, tar, etc. provide gainful engagement.

They rear animals for the purpose of eating flesh and milk and performing agriculture. They also sell them in the market. They rear goats for flesh and earn money by selling them in the market. They also rear hen, cock, ducks, etc. to get their eggs and flesh. They even sell them in the market for cash. Cows and buffaloes are reared to get milk and calves. Calves were sold to get money. Calves and buffaloes are also used to till the land.

Question 3.
How forests were used for the expansion of railways?
Answer:
During 19thf century, India was industrially lagging behind. Therefore, in the development of transportation, wood played a vital role. The first railway track was laid in 1853 in India. Wood was used as fuel to run locomotive and sleepers were required for tracks to hold them together tightly. As per estimate around 2000 sleepers were required to lay down only a mile of railway jjrack. Thus, it can be said that, in the decline of forest resources, railway played a vital role in India.

Question 4.
Describe the different categories of forests according to the Forest Law of 1878.
Answer:

The 1878 Act divided forests into three categories
(i) Reserved forests,
(ii) Protected forests,
(iii) Village forests.
The best forests were called reserved forests. Villagers could not take any thing from these forests, even for their own use.
For house building or fuel, they could take wood from protected or village forests.

Question 5.
What is the state of forests in Contemporary India?
Answer:
India is a land of saints. There had been a great relation between the saints and forests. That’s why there had been a tradition of protecting forests and its wildlife. King Ashoka on one of his inscription, engraved that no animal will be killed or sacrificed in his empire. Even those animals which are not consumable were protected as well such as parrot. Except this there had been a tradition of not firing the forests. Many people still worship a number of trees and forests. Many tribes consider trees as their totam, so they consider them sacred.

Question 6.
Write a note on ‘Jhoom System’.
Answer:
Before Colonialism, there had been a type of traditional agriculture called Jhoom Cultivation or Shifting Cultivation. According to this system of Cultivation, some part of forest was fired or cut down to clear the land. After Monsoon, the crop was sown which was cut down in October-November. A good crop was taken for next 2-3 years. When its productivity reduced then trees were planted again so that it can retain its fertility. Such forests were ready after few years. For agriculture, tribals moved to other places.

VII. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the causes of deforestation? Explain.
Answer:
With the advent of industrial revolution, the demand of raw material and food grains was increased. It also increased the demand of wood. Tnere was a continuous cutting of forests. That’s why the life of people living in forests was greatly affected. The European countries started looking towards those countries/ including, India, which were quite rich in natural resources. That’s why the Dutch, Portuguese, French and the British started cutting forests in their respective Colonies,

In short, the reasons of deforestation under Colonialism are given below.
1. Railways. During 19th century, India was industrially lagging behind. Therefore, in the development of communication wood played a vital role. The first railway truck was laid in 1853 in India. Wood was used as fuel to run locomotives and sleepers were required for tracks to hold them together tightly. As per estimate around 2000 sleepers were required to lay down only a mile of railway track. Thus, it can be said that, in the decline of forest resources, railway played a vital role in India.

2. Ship-building. As we know that wood is the raw material which is used in ship-building. In the 19th century, sea was the main route of trade and commerce. By 19th century, oak forests in England started disappearing. This created a severe problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy. For this reason in 1820. a timber search teaHa was sent to explore the forest resources in India. Within a decade, trees were being felled on a massive scale because vast quantities of timber were exported from India to England.

3. Agricultural Expansion. After the advent of the European especially the British, the exploitation of forest area increased. In order to supplement the need of food for the increasing population led t<J the rapid expansion of agricultural land. There were numerous reasons for this. They thought the forest as useless and so encouraged agriculture for revenue as well as to increase their income. Due to the increase in the demands of commercial crops required for industries, thus, the production increased as well as the cultivation area between 1880 and 1920 rose by 6.7 million hectares indicating progress in agriculture.

4. Commercial farming. The British Government accorded the Indian forestry the status of commerce for her own interests. Earlier forest was a means for the instenance of life and entertainment. But the colonial power used it for its own interest and exploited the forest commercially. They gave encouragement to the cash crops like jute, tea, rubber, sugar, cotton etc. These crops were in great demand in Europe to feed its growing urban population as well as increase its industrial production.

5. Tea/Coffee Plantation. The land revenue was the main source of income of the colonial power. Natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their place/ one type of tree was planted in straight rows. This is known as plantation. To increase the income from land, they allotted vast forest areas to European plantation owners. As a result, this led to the reduction of forest areas. Gradually, plantation became a major source of income. There were a number of workers employed in this sector. For the accommodation of these workers forests had also to be cleared.

6. Adivasis and other peasant users. The British Government imposed certain Forest laws in India but Adivasis and other peasant users were able to dodge laws by inbous means. They stole wood from the forest and grazed their cattle stealthy. If they were caught they bribed the forest guards. Even women continued to collect firewood. The police officials and forest guards demanded favours from the Adivasis and peasant users for illegal falling of trees etc.

Question 2.
What was the impact of the forest laws on the forest society during the Colonialism? Explain.
Answer:
1. Shifting cultivators. One of the major impacts of European colonialism was on the practice of shifting cultivation or swidden agriculture. This is a traditional agricultural practice in many parts of Asia, Africa and South America. In shifting cultivation, parts of the forest are cut and burnt in rotation. Seeds are sown in the ashes after the first monsoon rains and the crop is harvested by October-November.

European foresters regarded this practise as harmful for the forests. They felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railway timber. When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber. Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes. Therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation. As a result, many communities were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations; while some resisted through large and small rebellions.

2. Nomadic and pastoralist communities. The, worst sufferers were nomadic and pastroralist communities. The British Government declared some forests as reserved, some others as protected. This limited their access to the forest. They could not graze their herds in forest and they could not collect forest produce like, fruits, roots and fuel and timber. For medicines, they could not collect the herbs. They had to give up hunting and fishing in the forest areas.

3. Effects on firms trading in timber and forest produce. The colonial , rule affected the timber trading in many ways. Firstly, the British Government enacted rules for forest reservation. Under this rule, people were not allowed to cut trees and collect timber from forest. Secondly, by the early 19th century, oak forests in England were disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for Royal Navy. Thirdly, now the people were not allowed to get other forest products like ivory, silk, coconuts, bamboo, spices, resins, gum etc. for trading. Fourthly, only a few European trading firms were given the right to trade in the forest products of particular areas. General firms had to suffer owing to this measure.

4. Effect on plantation owners. The concept of plantation agriculture emerged in India with the colonial rule. The owners of the plantation fields were mostly Europeans. Therefore, rules and regulations regarding the plantation were made by keeping in view the interest of the Europeans. Large areas of natural forests were also cleared to make way for tea, coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europe’s growing need for these commodities. The colonial government took over the forests, and gave vast areas to European planters at cheap rates. These areas were enclosed and cleared of forests and planted with tea or coffee. The planters were given a free hand to manage and regulate the farms. The labourers were exploited to the hilt and were paid low wages.

5. Effect on Kings/British officials engaged in Shikar. Under the colonial rule, the scale of hunting increased to such an extent that various species became almost extinct. The British saw large animals as signs of a wild, primitive and savage society. They believed that by killing dangerous animals the British would civilise India. They gave rewards for the killing of tigers, wolves and other large animals on the grounds that they posed a threat to cultivators. Over 80,000 tigers, 150,000 leopards and 200,000 wolves were killed for reward in period 1875-1925. Gradually, the tiger came to be seen as a sporting trophy. The Maharaja of Sarguja alone shot 1,157 tigers and 2,000 leopards up to 1957. A British administrator, George Yule, killed 400 tigers. Initially certain areas of forests were reserved for hunting. Only much later did the environmentalists and conservators begin to argue that all these species of animals needed to be protected and not killed.

Question 3.
Write a detailed note on Munda Tribe.
Answer:
Munda movement occupies an important place amongst the movements for tribal rights on land, water and forests. This movement was carried on under the leadership of Birsa Munda. The British were depriving the tribals from their water forests and land by making laws. Tribals worshipped forests as father and land as their mother. They were deprived of all these with the help of law. The Christian priest Doctor Notrate inspired the people to adopt Christianity and promised to give their lands back. But later on, the government did not fulfil the promise. With the help of his ideas, Birsa Munda organised the tribals,. First of all he included three aspects—social, economic and cultural, in his movement. He tried to educate the people to shun their superstitions. He connected the people by talking about the security of water-forest land or tribal rights on all these. Except these he also talked about protecting their culture by raising the slogan of saving the religion and culture.

In 1895, a movement was initiated to waive off forest related tax but the government completely refused it. Birsa Munda raised the slogan of ‘Self rule in his own country’ (Abua Desh Main Abua Raj) and started struggle against the British. On 8th August, 1895, Birsa was arrested from chalkat and imprisoned for two year. When Birsa got free from jail, there occured famine in the region. Birsa along with his people served the people and he started creating awareness amongst people. People started worshipping him as ‘Dharti Baba’. But there started confrontation between him and the government. That’s why in 1807 A.D. around 400 Munda rebels attacked the Khuti police station. In 1898 A.D., the rebels pushed back the British army in the region of Tanga river but the British army killed hundreds of tribals.

On 14th December, 1899, Birsa Munda declared a war agaiftst the British which by January 1900, spread in the whole region. The British announced the reward on Birsa. Few locals helped the British to arrest him and he was sent to a prison in Ranchi. He was poisoned over there and died on 9th June, 1900 A.D.. To prevent the anger of Munda tribe it was pretended that Birsa was died of cholera. His family members were tried in court and were given severe punishments.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Forest Society and Colonialism Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What do you mean by deforestation?
(a) Appearance of forests
(b) Reappearance of forests
(c) Burning of forests
(d) Disappearance of forests.
Answer:
(d) Disappearance of forests.

Question 2.
Construction of railway tracks in India created huge demand for
(a) Timber
(b) Iron
(c) Elephants
(d) Bamboos.
Answer:
(a) Timber.

Question 3.
Which plantation was the most important during the colonial period?
(a) Coffee
(b) Rubber
(c) Tea
(d) Tobacco.
Answer:
(c) Tea.

Question 4.
When was the Indian Forest Service set up?
(a) 1863
(b) 1864
(c) 1865
(d) 1866.
Answer
(6b) 1864.

Question 5.
Where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute set up?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Shimla
(c) Delhi
(d) Kathmandu.
Answer:
(a) Dehradun.

Question 6.
What were the best forests called?
(a) Protected forests
(b) Village forests
(c) Reserved forests
(d) Unreserved forests.
Answer:
(c) Reserved forests.

Question 7.
What is shifting cultivation called in Sri Lanka?
Answer:
(a) Chena
(b) Penda
(c) Jhum
(d) Podw.
Answer:
(a) Chena.

Question 8.
Which British officer was the most famous tiger hunter?
(a) Lord Reading
(b) George Yule
(c) John Kelvin
(d) Metcalfe.
Answer:
(b) George Yule.

Question 9.
Where is Bastar located?
(a) M.P.
(b) A.P.
(c) T.N.
(d) Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
(d) Chhattisgarh.

Question 10.
When did the first rebellion take place in Bastar?
(a) 1912
(b) 1910
(c) 1915
(d) 1940.
Answer:
(b) 1910.

Question 11.
When was the Indian Forest Act passed?
(a) 1865
(b) 1864
(c) 1871
(d) 1872.
Answer:
(a) 1865.

Question 12.
Which of these is the cash crop?
(a) Jute
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Cotton
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 13.
Who was the tribal leader of Chota Nagpur?
(a) Birsa Munda
(b) Sidhu
(c) Kanhu
(d) Alluri Sitaram Raju.
Answer:
(a) Birsa Munda.

Question 14.
Who was the leader of rebellion of Bastar in the British Rule?
(a) Gunda Dhur
(b) Kanhu
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Sidhu.
Answer:
(a) Gunda Dhur.

Question 15.
Who did implement scientific forestry in Indonesia?
(a) English
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) Russian.
Answer:
(c) Dutch

Question 16.
Which river flows across Bastar from east to west?
(a) Godawari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kauveri
(d) Indramati.
Answer:
(d) Indramati.

Question 17.
Which of these is the forest product?
(a) Silk
(b) Gum
(c) Wood
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
The first railway was started in ______ A.D.
Answer:
1853

Question 2.
______ live in forests.
Answer:
Tribals

Question 3.
Length of railway track in 1890 was ______ km.
Answer:
25000

Question 4.
______, ______ and ______ were major commercial crops.
Answer:
Tea, Coffee, Rubber,

Question 5.
Lord Dalhousie promoted the plantation of ______ in Malabar.
Answer:
teak

Question 6.
Indian Forest Act was amended in ______ A.D.
Answer:
1878.

True/False:

Question 1.
In 1878, four categories of forests were created.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
In 1906, The Imperial Forests Research Institute was formed at Dehradun.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Forest policy was formed in 1952 A.D.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Birsa Munda was born in 1857 A.D.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Birsa Munda died in 1900 A.D.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is deforestation?
Answer:
Disapperance of forest is called deforestation.

Question 2.
Define plantation.
Answer:
Mechanized farming of single species planted in straight lines on large fields.

Question 3.
When was Indian Forest Service set up?
Answer:
1864.

Question 4.
When and where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute set up?
Answer:
In 1906, at Dehradun.

Question 5.
When was the Indian Forest Act passed?
Answer:
1865.

Question 6.
How many wolves, tigers and leopards were killed between 1875 to 1925?
Answer:
2 lakh wolves, 1.5 lakh leopards, 80 thousand tigers.

Question 7.
Name any five forest products.
Answer:
Silk, gum, wood, bidi, ivory and hides.

Question 8.
Mention the length of railway tracks in India in 1946.
Answer:
765,000 km.

Question 9.
The disappearance of which tree caused problem of timber supply for Royal Navy?
Answer:
Oak.

Question 10.
Who was the First Inspector General of Forests in India?
Answer:
Dyetrich Brandis.

Question 11.
When was the Forest Act 1865 amended?
Answer:
It was amended twice-1878 and 1927.

Question 12.
What were the reserved forests?
Answer:
The best forests were called reserved forests. It was out of bound for villagers.

Question 13.
What were the three needs of villagers to be satisfied by forests?
Answer:
Fuel, fodder and leaves.

Question 14.
What is the use of Mahua tree?
Answer:
Oil for cooking and to light lamps can be pressed from the fruit of Mahua tree.

Question 15.
Name the tribal leader of Chottanagpur.
Answer:
Birsa Munda.

Question 16.
Where is Bastar located?
Answer:
Bastar is located in Chhattisgarh bordering Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Maharashtra.

Question 17.
Name the tribal communities of Bastar.
Answer:
Masia, Musria, Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras and Halbas.

Question 18.
Which river flows across Bastar from east to west?
Answer:
Indrawati.

Question 19.
What is mann?
Answer:
If people from a village in Bastar want to take some wood from the forest of another village they pay small fee called mann.

Question 20.
Who was Gunda Dhur?
Answer:
He was the leader of Bastar tribal movement in 1910.

Question 21.
Name three forest products.
Answer:
Dyes, gum and honey are three forest products.

Question 22.
For which type of crops the Indian forests were cleared to meet the demands of Europeans?
Answer:
For tea, coffee and rubber crops, the Indian forests were cleared to meet the demands of Europeans.

Question 23.
Who was appointed the First Inspector General of Forests in India?
Answer:
A German expert, Dietrich Brandis was appointed as the First Inspector General of forests in India.

Question 24.
When was Indian Forest Act passed?
Answer:
In the year 1865, India Forests Act was passed.

Question 25.
Where and in which year was the Imperial Forest Research Institute established?
Answer:
At Dehradun, in the year 1906, the Imperial Forest Research Institute was established.

Question 26.
What is shifting cultivation?
Answer:
In shifting cultivation, parts of forests are cut and burnt in rotation. A mixture of crops are grown on these plots.

Question 27.
How much percentage of total forest area of world disappeard between 1700 and 1995?
Answer:
9.3% of total forest area of world disappeared between 1700 and 1995.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the reasons for the expansion of cultivation in the colonial period?
Answer:
There were various reasons for the expansion of cultivation in the colonial period as :

The European powers encouraged the cultivation of commercial corps like cotton Indigo, Jute, tea, sugar, coffee, surgarcane, etc for feeding the’towns people and to supply raw materials for their home industries.
The British encouraged plantation agriculture like tea, coffee, and rubber as they were in great demand in Europe. Plantation farms were large and extensive employing scientific means to increase the produce.
It was the firm belief of the colonial masters that forests were unproductive and did not contribute in the income of the state. Therefore, cultivation had to be extended and encouragement at the cost of forest.

Question 2.
After 1820, Indian forests were cut down on a large scale. What were its reasons?
Answer:
During the decade of 1820, the British government needed of strong and durable timber. This increasing demand of timber and consequently deforestation had following reasons :

The British Royal Navy’s Ships were made with Oak tree. But the oak forests in England were disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy. So, Indian forests were explored and vast quantities of timber were being exported from India.
The spread of railway started during the decade of 1805’s. It increased the demand and need of timber. To run locomotives, wood was needed as fuel and to lay railway lines, sleepers, were necessary to hold the tracks together. As early as the 1850s, in the Madras Presidency alone, 35,000 trees were being cut annually for sleepers.
To continue with the wood’s supply, the British government gave contract to private companies and they out trees indiscriminately.

Question 3.
Under scientific forestry, which steps were taken for the forest management?
Answer:
Under scientific forestry, the following steps were taken for the forest management.

Natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down.
In their place, single type of trees was planted in straight rows which is , called plantation.
Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees and made working, plans for forest management.
They planned how much of the plantation area to cut every year. The area cut was then to be replanted so that it was ready to be cut again in some years.

Question 4.
There were conflicting interests of the colonial forest officials and villagers about forests. Clarify.
Answer:
It is true that they both had conflicting news regarding the usage of forests. Villagers needed wood for fuel, grass and leaves. So, they wanted the forests with mixed variety of trees.

On contrary to this, forest officials were in favour of such forests which could cater their needs of ship building and the expansion of railways. That’s why they wanted to plant strong and durable trees which could reach its height. That’s why they cleared the mixed forests and planted teak and Sal trees.

Question 5.
Forest Laws brought many difficulties for the villagers and local communities. Explain it.
Answer:
Forest products were the means of livelihood for the tribals and villages. But forest laws restricted them from cutting wood, collecting fruit and roots, animal grazing, hunting and catching fish. So, they were forced to steal wood from forest. If they were caught, they had to pay bribe to forest officials. Women who collected fuel wood were especially worried. It was also common for police constables and forest guards to harass people by demanding free food from them.

Question 6.
Why was shifting agriculture stopped? What was its impact on local communities?
Answer:
Shifting agriculture was stopped due to three major reasons :

European foresters regarded this practice as harmful for the forests. They felt that land was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railway timber.
When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.
Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes.
Impact. Many communities were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations, while some resisted through large and small rebellions.

Question 7.
Which new changes came in forestry after the decade of 1980?
Answer:
Forestry completely changed from the decade of 1980. Now forgot conservation was made the objective by local people instead of collecting wood from the forests. Government also came to know that public participation is necessary for forest conservation. That’s why dense forest from Mizoram till Kerala are safe in India. People consider their security as their duty, Some villagers care these forest themselves. Even every family gives duty for its security. So there is no role of forest guards in these forests. Now local communities and environments and thinking about giving new form to the forest management.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India? What were his views about forest management? What did he do for this?
Answer:
The first Inspector General of Forests in India was Dietrich Brandis. He was a German specialist. He had following views about forest management.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Forest Society and Colonialism 1

Brajidis realised that proper system had to be introduced to manage the forests and people had to be trained in the science of conservation.
Under this system, legal sanctions had to be implemented.
Rules about the use of forests had to be framed.
Forests could be preserved for timber production. Falling of trees and grazing had to be restricted.
Anybody who cut trees without following the system had to be punished.

To implement his ideas Brandis established Indian Forest Service in 1964 and helped in formulating the Indian Forest Act 1865. Imperial Forest Research Institutions was set up at Dehradun in 1905. The system they taught here was scientific forestry. Later on many people felt that this system is not scientific at all.

Question 2.
How did the tribal people use the products available in the forests?
Answer:
In forest areas, tribals use forest products, such as roots, leaves, fruits and tubers in many ways.

Fruits and tubers are nutritious to eat especially during the monsoon before the harvest has come in.
Herbs are used for medicine.
Wood is used for agricultural implements like yokes and ploughs.
Bamboo is used to make excellent fences. It is also used to make baskets and umbrellas.
A dried scooped out goured can be used as a portable water bottle.
Almost everything is available in forests such as
- Leaves can be stiched together to make disposable plates and cups.
- The Siadi (Bauhinia vahlii) can be used to make ropes.
- The thorny bark of Semur (silk cotton) tree is used to grats vegetables.
- Oil for cooking and to light lamps can be pressed from the fruits of mahua tree.

PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 MS Excel Part-II

January 17, 2024January 16, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 2 MS Excel Part-II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Computer Science Chapter 2 MS Excel Part-II

Computer Guide for Class 9 PSEB MS Excel Part-II Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

1 …………….. contains everything inside the chart window.
(a) Data markers
(b) Axis
(c) Chart area
(d) None of these.
Answer:
Chart area

2. …………….. feature allows you to set up certain rules.
(a) Data validation
(b) Pivot Table
(c) Char
(d) None of these.
Answer:
Data validation

3. …………….. in Excel allows you to try out different scenarios.
(a) Data validation
(b) Pivot Table
(c) Chart
(d) What if analysis.
Answer:
What if analysis

Question 4.
We can …………….. the worksheet window into separate panes.
(a) Hide
(b) Split
(c) Arrange
(d) None of these.
Answer:
Split

Questions 5.
By using …………….. you can keep rows or columns visible while scrolling.
(a) Hide
(b) Split
(c) Freeze Panes
(d) None of these.
Answer:
Freeze Panes

Question 6.
…………….. is a set of commands grouped together that you can run.
(a) Goal seek
(b) Macro
(c) What if analysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
Macro

2. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a Chart in MS Excel?
Answer:
Charts are used to display series of numeric data in a graphical format to make it easier to understand large quantities of data and the relationship between different series of data. To create a chart in Excel, you start by entering the numeric data for the chart on a worksheet. Then you can plot that data into a chart by selecting the chart type that you want to use on the Insert tab, in the Charts group.

Question 2.
Write down types of Charts in MS Excel.
Answer:
The list of charts in MS Excel

Column charts
Line charts
Pie charts
Bar charts
Area charts
XY (scatter) charts
Stock charts
Surface charts
Doughnut charts
Bubble charts
Radar charts

Question 3.
What is a Pivot Table?
Answer:
Pivot tables are one of Excel’s most powerful features. A pivot table allows you to extract the significance from a large, detailed data set. An Excel pivot table can summarize the data in the above spreadsheet, to show the number entries or the sums of the values in any data column. For example, the pivot table on the right shows the total sum of all sales, for each of the four salespeople, for the first quarter of 2016.

Question 4.
What is Data Tools?
Answer:
In Microsoft Excel Data Tools are simply tools that make it easy to manipulate data. Some of them are used to save your time by extracting or joining data and others perform complex calculations on data.

Question 5.
Define What-if analysis?
Answer:
What-if analysis is the process of changing the values in cells to see how those changes will affect the outcome of formulas on the worksheet.
Three kinds of what-if analysis tools come with Excel: scenarios, data tables, and Goal Seek. Scenarios and data tables take sets of input values and determine possible results. A data table works only with one or two variables, but it can accept many- different values for those variables. A scenario can have multiple variables, but it can accommodate only up to 32 values. Goal Seek works differently from scenarios and data tables in that it takes a result and determines possible input values that produce that result.

Question 6.
What is Goal Seek?
Answer:
The goal seeks function, part of Excel’s what-if analysis toolset, allows the user to use the desired result of a formula to find the possible input value necessary to achieve that result. Other commands in the what-if analysis toolset are the scenario manager and the ability to create data tables. This guide will focus on the goal seek command.

Question 7.
What is Macro?
Answer:
It allows you to perform multiple operations just by clicking a simple button or changing a cell value or opening a workbook etc. It enables you to work in a smart and efficient way. In terms of productivity, it is very productive as it reduces lots of manual work and gets things done very fast.

3. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a Chart? Write down the steps to create a chart in MS Excel.
Answer:
A simple chart in Excel can say more than a sheet full of numbers.
The followings are the steps to create charts in MS Excel

Click the Insert tab.
Click the chart type from the Charts section of the ribbon. The sub-type menu displays.
Click the desired chart sub-type. The chart appears on the worksheet.
If you want to create a second chart, click somewhere in the worksheet to “deselect” the current chart first, or the new chart will replace the current chart.

Question 2.
Write down the Elements of a Chart.
Answer:
Basic Elements of Excel Charts
The above chart is the basic charts in Excel, We can customize the charts by dealing with different Chart Element Objects and their properties. In this session we will focus on different elements of charts objects: Here is an examples Column Chart for the same data shown above :
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 MS Excel Part-II Img 1

And here I have marked the basic chart elements in Excel each element with different clor for understanding purpose. Most of the time we generally deal with Chart Area, Plot Area, Chart Title, Legends, X-Axis, Y-Axis, Data Labels Data Series, and Gridlines. Here is the pictorial representation of Chart Elements or Chart Objects in Excel:
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 MS Excel Part-II Img 2

Now will see each element of the Excel Chart in detail :

Chart Area
Chart area in Excel Charts is the largest element (portion) of the Chart. We can format the Chart Area and change its border and background colors to make the charts look more cleaner. Legends, Chart Titles, and Plot Areas are the three major child elements of Chart Area. Generally, we do not change the background color of the charts to make them look more professional. Charts look more cleaner with white or default background color. However, we can change the background color to suit the other parts of the excel sheets to make them consistent.

Basic Elements of Excel Charts – Plot Area
Plot Area is the second-largest element (portion) in Excel Charts. It covers the actual chart data area. We can access the Plot Area and Format it to suit our needs. It is the same as Chart Area, if your project needs different background color then we change it. Otherwise default background color (white) looks more cleaner.

Question 3.
What is Convert Text to Columns? Write down the steps to convert Text to columns.
Answer:
Sometimes we need to separate the contents of one Excel cell into separate columns. For this, you can use the ‘Convert Text to Columns Wizard’.

Open the worksheet that contains the text you would like to convert to columns.
Select the cells that you would like to convert.
On the Data tab, click Text to Columns in the Data Tools group.
Choose the format of your current data. Select Delimited if the text contains a character such as a comma, tab, space, or semi-colon to separate the various fields. Otherwise, select Fixed Width if there are a certain number of spaces between each field.
A preview of the data in columns appears below, according to the delimiter selected. Click Next.
You now need to choose the format for each of the columns. Select the column heading in the Data preview and then select a data type from the column data format options.
A preview of your selected data appears below. Click Next.
Select the type of character that separates the various fields. You can select as many as are applicable. If you would like to include your own characters that aren’t listed, select the Other checkbox and enter the specific character in the field provided.
Once you have selected the data type for each column, click Finish.
Your text will now appear in several columns, depending on the number of delimiters in the original list.

Question 4.
What is Data Validation? How to create a Data Validation Rule?
Answer:
Data validation allows you to control exactly what a user can enter into a cell. In our example, we can use data validation to ensure that the user chooses one of the three possible shipping options. To make things even easier, we can insert a drop-down list of the possible options. This kind of data validation allows you to build a powerful, fool-proof spreadsheet. Since users won’t have to type in data manually, the spreadsheet will be faster to use, and there’s a much lower chance that someone can introduce an error.

Data validation in Excel
Since we already have a list of shipping options in the Shipping worksheet, we’re going to tell Excel to use the data in that list to control which values a user can select. But before we do this, we actually need to name the cell range first. Naming cell ranges is one way to keep track of important cell ranges in your spreadsheet.
To create a data validation drop-down list:
Select the cell where you want the drop-down list to appear. In our example, that’s cell E6 on the Invoice worksheet.

On the Data tab, click the Data Validation command.
A dialog box will appear. In the Allow: field, select List.
In the Source: field, type the equals sign (=) and the name of your range, and then click OK. In our example, we’ll type =ShipRange.
A drop-down arrow will appear next to the selected cell. Click the arrow to select the desired option. In our example, we’ll select Standard. Alternatively, you can type the shipping option, but Excel will only accept it if it is spelled correctly.
The selected value will appear in the cell. Now that we’re searching for the exact name of a shipping option, our VLOOKUP function is working correctly again.

Question 5.
What is Protection? Write down the steps to protect a Worksheet.
Answer:
To prevent a user from accidentally or deliberately changing, moving, or deleting important data from a worksheet or workbook, you can protect Certain worksheet or workbook elements, with or without a password. You can remove the protection from a worksheet as needed.
Protect worksheet elements

1. Select the worksheet that you want to protect.
2. To unlock any cells or ranges that you want other users to be able to change, do the following:

Select each cell or range that you want to unlock.
On the Home tab, in the Cells group, click Format, and then click Format Cells.
On the Protection tab, clear the Locked check box, and then click OK.

3. To hide any formulas that you do not want to be visible, do the following:

In the worksheet, select the cells that contain the formulas that you want to hide.
On the Home tab, in the Cells group, click Format, and then click Format Cells.
On the Protection tab, select the Hidden check box, and then click OK.

4. To unlock any graphic objects (such as pictures, clip art, shapes, or Smart Art graphics) that you want users to be able to change, do the following:

Hold down CTRL and then click each graphic object that you want to unlock. This displays the Picture Tools or Drawing Tools, adding the Format tab.

5. On the Review tab, in the Changes group, click Protect Sheet.
6. In the Allow all users of this worksheet to list, select the elements that you want users to be able to change.

Question 6.
What is Split Worksheet? Write down the steps to split a worksheet.
Answer:
Split your worksheet to view multiple distant parts of your worksheet at once. To split your worksheet (window) into upper and lower parts (pane), execute the following steps.

Click the split box above the vertical scroll bar.
Drag it down to split your window.
Notice the two vertical scroll bars. For example, use the lower vertical scroll bar to move to row 49. As you can see, the first 6 rows remain visible.
To remove the split, double click the horizontal split bar that divides the panes (or drag it up),

PSEB 9th Class Computer Guide MS Excel Part-II Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the Blanks

1. …………….. means to stabilize an object.
(a) Hide
(b) View
(c) Freeze
(d) Pivot
Answer:
(c) Freeze

2. …………….. is a sequence of commands.
(a) Pivot
(b) Macro
(c) Tree
(d) Record.
Answer:
(b) Macro

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do I put the password to protect my entire Spreadsheet so data cannot be changed?
Answer:
Perform the followings steps :
1. Click Tools 2. Scroll down to Protection, then Protect Sheet 3. Enter a password, Click OK 4. Re-enter password, Click OK

Question 2.
What is the shortcut to put the filter on data in Microsoft Excel 2013?
Answer:
Ctrl+Shift+L is the shortcut key to s it the filter in data.

Question 3.
What are Freeze Panes and how do I do it?
Answer:
The followings are the steps to perform:
1. Row – Select the row below where you want the split to appear 2. Column – Select the column to the right of where you want the split to appear 3. Go to the Menu Bar 4. Click Windows and then click Freeze Panes.

Question 4.
How do I combine different chart types into my Excel spreadsheet?
Answer:
To combine chart types, follow these steps: 1. If the Chart toolbar isn’t already displayed, right-click any Toolbar and select Chart. 2. On the chart, click the series you want to change. 3. On the Chart toolbar, click the arrow next to the Chart Type button and then select the new chart type for the series (in our example, a line chart).

Question 5.
What is the Ribbon?
Answer:
The ribbon is an area that runs along the top of the application that contains menu items and toolbars available in Excel. The ribbon has various tabs that contain groups of commands for use in the application. The ribbon can be minimized or maximized by pressing CNTRL FI.

Question 6.
What is a Macro in Excel and how would you create an Excel Macro?
Answer:
Excel Macros as sets of instructions that a user records for repetition purposes. Users create macros for repetitive instructions and functions they perform on a regular, basis. To record an Excel macro, you need to select record macro from the developer’s tab and then record the instructions used in the worksheet. Macros can be triggered via a keyboard shortcut.

Question 7.
What is Chart in MS-Excel? Why is it important to you an appropriate chart?
Answer:
The chart is a medium to present the data in graphical visualization, and it is the most important insight of the data. To present the data with perfect visualization and appropriate information, we should always pre-decide on the information to be presented.

As appropriate charts lead to the right decision, it’s necessary to use relevant charts. Refer to the below process chart for appropriate charts :
PSEB 9th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 MS Excel Part-II Img 3

Question 8.
What is a Dashboard and what are the important things we should keep in mind while creating a dashboard?
Answer:
The dashboard is a technique used to present important information through graphical representation. It is helpful in presenting huge data on a single computer screen so it can be monitored with a glance. There are few things that should be taken care of while preparing the dashboards:

Minimum distraction
Simple, easy to communicate
Important data
Few Colors
Relevant graphs
The dashboard should be on a single computer screen.

Question 9.
How can you format a cell? What are the options?
Answer:
We can format a cell by using the “Format Cells” option and there are 6 options :

Number
Alignment
Font
Border
Fill
Protection

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is it possible to make Pivot Table using multiple sources of data? How?
Answer:
Yes, this is possible by using the data modeling technique.
Start with collecting data from various sources :

Import from a relational database, like Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, or Microsoft Access. You can import multiple tables at the same time.
Import multiple tables from other data sources including text files, data feeds, Excel worksheet data, and more. You can add these tables to the Data Model in Excel, create relationships between them, and then use the Data Model to create your Pivot Table.

Question 2.
How to use Data Modeling for creating Pivot Table?
Answer:
After creating relationships between tables, make use of the data for analysis.

Click any cell on the worksheet
Click Insert > Pivot Table
In the Create PivotTable dialog box, under Choose the data that you want to analyze, click Use an external data source
Click Choose Connection.
On the Tables tab, in This Workbook Data Model, select Tables in Workbook Data Model.
Click Open, and then click OK to show a Field List containing all the tables in the Data Model.

Question 3.
What is the IF function in Microsoft Excel?
Answer:
‘If function’ is one of the logical functions in Excel. We use this function to check the logical condition and specify the value whether it’s true or false. ‘If function’ has three arguments but only the first argument is mandatory and the other two are optional.

Question 4.
How can we merge multiple cells’ text strings in a cell?
Answer:
We can merge multiple cells text strings by using the Concatenate function and “&” function.
Example: We have three names: First Name, Middle name, Last name in 3 columns. To merge the names and make it a full name, follow the steps below :
Concatenate Function

Enter the formula in cell D2
=CONCATENATE(A2,” “,B2,” “,C2)

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Human Resources

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Human Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Human Resources

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Human Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
India stands __________ in the world as regards to the size of the population.
Answer:
Second

Question 2.
Uneducated people become a __________ for the society rather than an asset.
Answer:
Liability

Question 3.
The size of population of a country along with its efficiency, education qualification, productivity etc. is termed as __________
Answer:
Human resources

Question 4.
In __________ sector production activities are done by using natural resources.
Answer:
Primary

Question 5.
__________ activities helps in the production of goods and services :
Answer:
Economic.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Agriculture economy is an example of which sector?
(a) Primary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary.
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 2.
In agriculture sector there is unemployment for 5 to 7 months. Name this unemployment.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment.
Answer:
(b) Seasonal unemployment

Question 3.
What is the working age for population in India ?
(a) 15-59 years
(b) 18-58 years
(c) 6-60 years.
Answer:
15 – 59 years

Question 4.
How much is the population of India according to census 2011 ?
(a) 1210.19 million
(b) 130 million
(c) 121.19 million.
Answer:
1210.19 million.

III. True/False :

Question 1.
Working of a housewife in home is an economic activity.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
There is more disguised unemployment in cities.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
A country develops by investing in human capital.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The population of a country should be healthy for its economic growth.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
In India literacy rate increased from 1951 to 2011.
Answer:
True

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
Name two natural resources.
Answer:
Two natural resources are:

Air
Minerals.

Question 2.
How did countries like Germany and Japan make rapid economic development?
Answer:
The countries like Germany and Japan made rapid economic development only due to investment in human resources, specially in th6 field of education and health.

Question 3.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
Economic activities are those activities which are performed to earn money.

Question 4.
What are the two economic activities done by Gurpreet and Mandeep?
Answer:
Gurpreet works in the field and Mandeep gets a job in a private company.

Question 5.
Give two examples of secondary sector.
Answer:
Two examples of secondary sector are :

Manufacturing of jaggery from sugarcane.
Manufacturing of cotton cloth from raw cotton.

Question 6.
What are non-economic activities ?
Answer:
Non-economic activities are those activities which do not give income in return.

Question 7.
Give two determinants of the quality of population.
Answer:

Good education
Health of people.

Question 8.
Name the state with the highest literacy rate.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 9.
Name the step taken to provide elementary education to all children in the age group of 6 – 14 years.
Answer:
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.

Question 10.
What is the age limit of the work force population in India?
Answer:
15 – 59 years.

Question 11.
Name two programmes undertaken by the government of India to generate employment opportunities.
Answer:

Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SJGSY)
Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY).

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by human resources?
Answer:
The size of the population of a country along with its efficiency, educational qualities, productivity, etc. is known as human resources. Human resource is the most important resource because it makes the natural resources more useful. A country with highly educated and trained people can efficiently increase its productivity.

Question 2.
How human resources is superior to other resources like land and physical capital?
Answer:
Human capital is superior to other resources like land and physical capital which are not useful at their own. Human resources can make use of land and capital. So, a large population is not a liability. It can be turned into a productive asset by investment in human capital. For example, by spending on education and health for all, training of industrial and agriculture workers in the use of modern technology etc. development of a country can be increased.

Question 3.
What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?
Answer:

Economic Activities	Non-Economic Activities
1. All those activities which are performed to earn money are called economic activities.	1. All those activities which do not give income in return are non economic activities.
2. Economic activities add value to the national income.	2. Non economic activities do not add value to the national income.
3. Economic activities contribute to the flow of goods and services in an economy	3. They do not contribute to the flow of goods and services in the economy.
4. Examples. Mandeep doing a job in a private company, teacher teaching in a school	4. Examples. Housewives stitch their own suits, teacher teaches his son at home.

Question 4.
What is the role of education in human capital formation?
Answer:
Education is an important input for the growth of human capital. It provides new aspirations and develops values of life. Education contributes towards the growth of not only of a single person but also towards the growth of society as a whole. We get an opportunity to study in a school which helps us to become a good citizen and enables to earn a good salary in the future which in turn increases the national income and hence helps the economy to develop. Thus education plays a vital role in human capital formation.

Question 5.
What are the steps taken by the Government of India to spread education?
Answer:
The following steps are taken by the Government of India to spread education :

Number of educational institutions have been established.
The Primary school system has expanded to over more than 5,00,000 villages in India.
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ has been launched to provide compulsory elementary education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years.
Mid-day meal scheme has been implemented to improve the nutritional status of the children.
Navodaya Vidyalayas are being established in each district.
Vocational streams have been introduced to impart training to students for self-employment.

Question 6.
Explain the term unemployment. Which groups of people are not included while determining a country’s unemployment rate?
Answer:
The term unemployment refers to a situation in which people are willing to work at the current wages but cannot find work. The work force population includes people from 15 years to 59 years. Person beyond this age limit, people looking after the household chores, children, old people are not to be called unemployed as they all contribute to the flow of goods and services.

Whenever a country’s unemployment is determined, persons who are not able to work, for example, patients, old people, small children, students etc. are not included.

Question 7.
Give two reasons for unemployment in India.
Answer:

The rapidly increasing number of schools and colleges tend to increase unemployment as the job opportunities have not increased in the same rate.
Rapidly increasing population leads to unemployment in the country. In the rural areas there is seasonal and disguised unemployment. Urban areas have educated unemployment.

Question 8.
Distinguish between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment means more people are engaged in a particular work than required. Even if some men are relieved from work the total productivity will not decline. In India, 30 percent of the total working rural population is disguised unemployed.

Seasonal unemployment means when people find jobs during some months and during remaining months they are unemployed. In the agriculture sector people remain unemployed for nearly 5, to 7 months.

Question 9.
Why is educated unemployment rapidly increasing in urban areas?
Answer:
Unemployment is more in urban areas as compared to rural areas. In case of urban areas the rapidly increasing number of schools and colleges lead to educated unemployment as the job opportunities have not increased in the same rate.

Question 10.
How does literate and ill health affect the growth of the economy?
Answer:
The quality of population decides the growth rate of the economy. Literate population is an asset to the economy and ill health is a liability for the economy. Literate persons are important input for the grow of the economy. It provides new aspirations and develops values of life. Literate person contributes towards the growth of not only of a single person but also towards the growth of society as a whole. On the other hand ill health is a condition in which a person is not mentally and physically fit.

VI. Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Visit your village or your colony and find out:
(i) Whether the women in different houses work at home or go outside to work?
Answer:
In my village some of the women work at home and others go outside to work. They go to work in the fields, offices and for cleaning other’s house.

(ii) Their work is an economic or non economic activity?
Answer:
The women who are doing household chores are doing non-economic activities. On the other hand who work in the fields, offices and cleaning other’s house are doing economic activities.

(iii) Give two examples each of economic activity and non-economic activity.
Answer:
Economic activities,
(a) Raj doing a job in a multinational company
(b) Doctor serving the patients in a hospital.

Non-Economic activities,
(a) Domestic work done by housewife
(b) A teacher teaching his son at home.

(iv) Work done by your mother is an economic or non-economic activity.
Answer:
My mother is a teacher in a government school. So she is doing economic activity.

Question 2.
Literacy rates in India
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Human Resources 1
Study the graph and answer the following questions :
(i) Has literacy rate increased between year 1951 to year 2011?
Answer:
Yes, the literacy rate has increased between year 1951 to year 2011 as it is evident from the bar diagram.

(ii) In which year India crossed the literacy rate of 50%?
Answer:
In the year 2001, India crossed the literacy rate of 50%.

(iii) In which year India has the highest literacy rate?
Answer:
In the year 2011, India has the highest literacy rate.

(iv) In which year the literacy rate among the women is the highest?
Answer:
The literacy rate among the woman is the highest in the year 2011.

(v) Why literacy rate is low among the women as compared to the men of India? Discuss with your teacher.
Answer:
The literacy rate is low among the women as compared to men of India because people send their girl child in less number as compared to boy. They engage girls in household chores.

Question 3.
Table Health Services in India
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 2 Human Resources 2
Source: National Health Profile, 2010 D/O Ayush, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. National Health Profile, 2013.

Let’s Discuss
Read the table and answer the following questions :
(i) Number of dispensaries and hospitals increased in 1951-2010.
Answer:
It is clear from the table that the number of dispensaries and hospitals did not increase in 1951-2010.

(ii) Number of doctors increased in 2001-2013.
Answer:
Yes, the number of doctors increased in 2001-2016.

(iii) Number of beds qued in health institution 1951-2013.
Answer:
Yes, the number of beds qued in health institution increased in 1981-2016.

(iv) Visit your village or a nearby village dispensary and find out which facilities are provided and which are needed more.
Answer:
By visiting my village dispensary, it is found that there is a shortage of staff. Even doctor has not joined the dispensary. Only one pharmasist was looking after the dispensary. Other facilities were in good condition.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Human Resources Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Population can be for the economy.
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Both asset and ability
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both asset and ability

Question 2.
In which field, the investment formulates human capital?
(a) Education
(b) Health
(c) Training
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Which does indicate the human capital formation in India?
(a) Green Revolution
(b) I.T. Revolution
(c) Labour Revolution
(d) White Revolution.
Answer:
(b) I.T. Revolution.

Question 4.
Cooking the food, cleaning the clothes and utensils by Sheela is what kind of activity?
(a) Economic activity
(b) Non-economic activity
(c) Wealth activity
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Non-economic activity.

Question 5.
Agriculture, forestry and dairy come under which sector?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 6.
Construction and manufacturing comes under sector.
(a) Secondary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Primary
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Secondary.

Question 7.
Trade, transport, communication and banking etc. come under which sector?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Tertiary.

Question 8.
What is the life expectancy at birth in India?
(a) 66 years
(b) 70 years
(c) 55 years
(d) 15.8 years.
Answer:
(d) 15.8 years.

Question 9.
What is the crude birth rate per thousand in India?
(a) 26.1
(b) 28.2
(c) 20.4
(d) 35.1.
Answer:
(a) 26

Question 10.
What is the death rate per thousand in India?
(a) 9.8
(b) 8.7
(c) 11.9
(d) 25.1.
Answer:
(b) 8.7.

Question 11.
What was the literacy rate of India in 2001?
(a) 65%
(b) 75%
(c) 60%
(d) 63%.
Answer:
(a) 65%.

Question 12.
What type of unemployment exists in rural areas of India?
(a) Seasonal
(b) Disguised
(c) Both seasonal and disguised
(d) Voluntary.
Answer:
(c) Both seasonal and disguised.

Question 13.
What type of unemployment mainly remains in the urban areas?
(a) Seasonal
(b) Voluntary
(c) Disguised
(d) Educated.
Answer:
(d) Educated.

Question 14.
Shifting of labours from rural area to urban area in search of work is known as
(a) Migration
(b) Immigration
(c) Invention
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Migration

Question 15.
In which Held, the investment increases the production capacity of country?
(a) Land
(b) Physical capital
(c) Human capital
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 16.
Which one is the example of primary sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Communication
(d) Trade.
Answer:
(a) Agriculture.

Question 17.
Which one is the example of secondary sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Communication
(d) Banking.
Answer:
(b) Manufacturing.

Question 18.
Which one is the example of tertiary sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Banking
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Banking

Question 19.
In which year, India achieved the highest literacy rate?
(a) 2001
(b) 1991
(c) 2000
(d) 1981.
Answer:
(a) 2001.

Question 20.
What kind of people are the liability for the economy?
(a) Educated
(b) Healthy
(c) Unhealthy
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Unhealthy.

Question 21.
When was the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan launched in India?
(a) 2008
(b) 2010
(c) 2007
(d) 2005.
Answer:
(b) 2010.

Question 22.
Which is not associated with primary sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Forestry
(c) Education
(d) Mining.
Answer:
(c) Education.

Question 23.
Which of the following is not an activity of tertiary sector?
(a) Transport
(b) Banking
(c) Manufacturing
(d) Tourism.
Answer:
(c) Manufacturing.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
China stands __________ in the world as regards to the size of the population.
Answer:
First

Question 2.
Ill health people become a __________ for the society rather than an asset.
Answer:
Liability

Question 3.
Japan made investment in __________ resources.
Answer:
Human

Question 4.
Domestic work done by housewife __________ is activity.
Answer:
Non-economic

Question 5.
__________ had the lowest literacy rate in India in 2011.
Answer:
Bihar

Question 6.
According to census 2011 total literacy rate in India is __________ per cent.
Answer:
74.

True/False:

Question 1.
Literate and healthy population are liability.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
According to 2011 census. Literacy among men is 82.10 percent.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Average unemployment rate of India during the period of 1983 to 2011 remained at 9 percent.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Quality of population does not depend upon good health and education.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Mining and forestry are the activities of secondary sector.
Answer:
False.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which fields, does investment formulate human capital?
Answer:
In fields such as education, health, training etc. the investment formulates human capital.

Question 2.
What is unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation under which people are willing to work at the prevailing wages but are unable in find any work.

Question 3.
What type of unemployment exists in rural areas of India?
Answer:
In rural areas of India, both seasonal and disguised unemployment exist. Question 4. Which is the most labour absorbing sector of the Indian economy? Answer:Agriculture is the most labour absorbing sector of the Indian economy.

Question 5.
What is seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
When people work for a few months but are not able to find jobs during the remaining months of the year, it is called as seasonal unemployment.

Question 6.
What do you understand by ‘people as resources’?
Answer:
‘People as Resources’ is a way of referring to a country’s working people in terms of their existing productive skills and abilities.

Question 7.
What are market activities?
Answer:
Market activities involve remuneration to anyone who works, i.e., activities performed for pay or profit are called market activities.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the concept of Non-marketing activities?
Or
What are non-marketing activities?
Answer:
Non-marketing activities are those activities which do not involve remuneration to anyone who performs. These activities are performed for self¬consumption and are not for sale.

Question 9.
What are the two major determinants of earning?
Answer:
Two major determinants of earning for any individual are education and skill.

Question 10.
Which type of unemployment mainly exists in urban areas of India?
Answer:
Educated unemployment mainly exists in the urban areas of India.

Question 11.
Define the concept of migration.
Answer:
The concept of migration refers to the movement of people from one region to another in search of work or for better future prospects.

Question 12.
What are the various types of economic activities? Name them.
Answer:
There are two types of economic activities. These are :

Marketing activities
Non-marketing activities.

Question 13.
What is National Income?
Answer:
It is a sum of total goods and services produced in a country within a year.

Question 14.
What do you know about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Answer:
It is a scheme under which elementary education is to be provided to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.

Question 15.
Write any two types of urban unemployment.
Answer:
Two types of urban unemployment are :

Educated unemployment
Industrial unemployment.

Question 16.
What kind of people are a liability for the economy?
Answer:
Illiterate and unhealthy people are a liability for the economy.

Question 17.
Define the concept of’Birth Rate’.
Answer:
The Birth Rate refers to the number of live births for every 1000 population during a particular period of time.

Question 18.
What is ‘Death Rate’?
Answer:
The Death rate refers to the number of deaths per thousand population, during a particular period of time.

Question 19.
Cooking food, cleaning clothes and utensils by Sheela in her home is what kind of activity?
Answer:
It is a non-economic activity.

Question 20.
Trade, transport, communication and banking, etc., belong to which sector?
Answer:
They belong to the Tertiary sector.

Question 21.
What does CHC stand for?
Answer:
CHC stands for Community Health Centre.

Question 22.
What is the full form of GNP?
Answer:
The full form of GNP is Gross National Prodilct.

Question 23.
What does the acronym PHC stand for?
Answer:
The acronym PHC stands for Primary Health Centre.

Question 24.
Which sector is also known as the service sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is also known as the service sector.

Question 25.
Which state has the highest percentage of literacy in India?
Answer:
Kerala has the highest percentage of literacy in India.

Question 26.
What is the life expectancy rate of India?
Answer:
Life expectancy rate of India was 67.80 years in 2011.

Question 27.
What was death rate and birth rate of India in 2011?
Answer:
In 2011, death rate was 7.2 and birth rate was 22 per thousand in India.

Question 28.
What are the activities included in a primary sector?
Answer:
The primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming and mining.

Question 29.
Which factors are responsible for non-market activities?
Answer:
Factors such on processing of primary products, subsistence farming, etc., are responsible for non-market activities.

Question 30.
State one example of tertiary sector.
Answer:
Banking.

Question 31.
What was the literacy rate of India in 2011?
Answer:
The literacy rate of India was 74.04% in 2011.

Question 32.
On what factors does the quality of population depend?
Answer:
The quality of population depends upon the literacy level, health of an individual in terms of life expectancy and skills developed by the people of a country.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the quality of population.
Answer:
The quality of population depends upon the health of a person, life expectancy, skill formation acquired and the literacy rate. The quality of population decides the growth rate of the country. Literate and healthy people are an asset for the economy. On the other hand, illiterate and unhealthy people are a liability.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the importance of education.
Answer:
Education is important due to the following reasons :

Education is an important input for the growth of everyone.
It provides new aspiration and develops values of life.
It enhances the national income, cultural richness of the country.
It increases the efficiency of governance.
It helps in getting good job and salary.

Question 3.
Define unempolyment. What are its consequences?
Answer:
Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the existing wages cannot find jobs.

Following are the consequences of unemployment.

It leads to wastage of manpower resource.
It leads to increased overlead. As a result the dependence of unemployed on the working populatison increases.
Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy.
It increases many social evils among the young generation.

Question 4.
What is meant by disguised unemployment?
Answer:
In case of disguised unemployment people appear to be employed. They have agricultural plot where they find work. This usually happens among family members engaged in agricultural activity. The work requires the service of five people but engages eight people. If three people are removed, the productivity of the field will not decline. The field requires the service of five people and the three extra people are disguisedly unemployed.

Question 5.
What is meant by seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year. People dependent upon agriculture usually face such kind of problem. There are certain busy seasons when sowing, harvesting, weeding, threshing is done. Certain months do not provide much work to the people dependent on agriculture.

Question 6.
What is meant by educated unemployment?
Answer:
In case of urban areas educated, unemployment has become a common phenomenon. Many youth with matriculation, graduation and post graduation degrees are not able to find job. A paradisiacal manpower situation is witnessed as surplus of manpower in certain categories exsists with shortage of manpower in others.

Question 7.
State the meaning of market and non-market activities.
Answer:
Market activities involve remuneration to any one who performs i.e. activity performed for pay or profit. These include production of goods and services while the non-market activities are the production for self-consumption. There can be consumption and processing of primary product and own account production of fixed capital.

Question 8.
Define population as a human resource.
Answer:
This is the positive side of a large population that is often overlooked when we look only at the negative side, considering only the problems of providing the population with food, education and access to health facilities. When the existing ‘human resource’ is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, we call it ‘Human Capital Formation’.

Question 9.
What are the various activities undertaken in the secondary and tertiary sectors?
Answer:
In the secondary sector, the quarrying and manufacturing activities are done. In the tertiary sector trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, insurance, etc. activities are done.

Question 10.
State the role of health in human capital formation.
Answer:
Health plays a very important role in human capital formation. The health of a person helps him to realise his potential and the ability to fight illness. An unhealthy person becomes a liability for an organisation. Health is an indispensable basis for realising one’s well being.

Question 11.
What are economic activities? Explain.
Answer:
Economic activities are those activities that contribute to the flow of goods and services in the economy. These activities add value to the national income.

Economic activities have two parts

Market activities and
Non-market activities.

1. Market activities. It involves remuneration .to anyone who performs i.e., activity performed for pay or profit.
2. Non-market activities. Non-market activities are the production of goods for self-consumption. There can be consumption and processing of primary products and own account production of fixed assets.

Question 12.
Distinguish between market and non-market activities.
Answer:
Following are the main differences between market and non-market activities.

Market Activities	Non-market Activities
1. Market activities involve remuneration to any one who performs i.e., activity performed for pay or profit.	1. None market activities are the production of self consumption.
2. These include production of goods or services including government service.	2. These can be consumption, processing of primary product and own account .production of fixed assets.
3. A worker working in a mine, teacher teaching in a school etc. are some examples of market activities.	3. Processing of primary products, subsistence farming, etc. are non market activities.

Question 13.
(i) What is Gross National Product?
Answer:
Gross national product is the money value of all goods and services produced by the residents of the country. It includes all final goods and services produced by the residents of the country anywhere in the world.

(ii) Countries like Japan did not have any natural resources, still they are developed countries. Give reasons.
Answer:
(a) Japan has invested on human capital especially in the field of education and health.
(b) The skilled and trained people have made efficient use of other resources like land and capital.
(c) Efficiency and technology evolved by people have made these countries developed.

Question 14.
(i) Name any two types of unemployment which prevail in rural areas.
Answer:
(a) Disguised unemployment and
(b) Seasonal unemployment mostly prevails in the rural areas

(ii) Mention any four factors on which the quality of population depends.
Answer:
(a) Health
(b) Life expectancy
(c) Education
(d) Skill

(iii) Which sector (in the primary sector) is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy?
Answer:
Agriculture sector is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy.

Question 15.
(i) Mention any two activities which are included in the primary sector.
Answer:
(a) Fishing
(b) Mining

(ii) Mention any two activities which are included in the service sector.
Answer:
(a) Banking
(b) Insurance

(iii) Mention any two activities which are included in the secondary sector.
Answer:
(a) Quarrying
(b) Manufacturing.

Question 16.
(i) Name any four factors which can improve the quality of human resources.
Answer:
(a) Education
(b) Health
(c) Technology
(d) Training.

(ii) Name any four factors of production.
Answer:
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Entreprenuer.

Question 17.
What is ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’?
Answer:
‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’, is a step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of 6 – 14 by 2010. It is a time bound initiative of the central government in partnership with the states, the local government and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of elementary education.

Question 18.
(i) What types of unemployment are found in agriculture?
Answer:
Disguised and seasonal unemployment are found in agriculture.

(ii) State the meaning of disguised unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment is that type of unemployment under which people appear to be employed but they are not.

Question 19.
‘Improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of a country.’ Give reasons.
Answer:

Good health increases the efficiency of the worker.
An unhealthy worker becomes a liability for the country.
Healthy citizens are the basic factors of production.
The health of a person helps him to realise the potential and the ability to fight illness.

Question 20.
‘Investment in human capital yields a return just like investment in physical capital.’ Explain.
Answer:

Human capital increases the productivity of the workers.
Human capital adds to the quality of labour.
Educated, trained and healthier people can use natural resources in a better way.
A country can earn foreign exchange by exporting services of human resources.

Question 21.
Group the following activities into primary, secondary and tertiary activities.
Banking, insurance, dairy, quarrying, mining, communication, education, fishing, poultry farming, agriculture, manufacturing, forestry, tourism and trade.
Answer:

Primary	Secondary	Tertiary
1. Dairy	1. Quarrying	1. Banking
2. Mining	2. Manufacturing	2. Insurance
3. Fishing		3. Communication
4. Poultry Farming		4. Education
5. Agriculture		5. Tourism
6. Forestry		6. Trade

Question 22.
What are the objectives of the Tenth Five Year Plan with reference to education?
Answer:
Following are the main objectives of the Tenth Five Year Plan with reference to education.

The Tenth Five Year Plan endeavoured to increase the enrolment in higher education of the 18 – 23 year age group from the present 6-9 percent, by the end of the plan period.
The Tenth Five Year Plan also focuses on distant education, convergence of formal, non-formal, distant and IT education institutions.
The strategy focus on increasing access, quality, adoption of states-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology.

Question 23.
Define unemployment. What are the major types of unemployment prevailing in India?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which a person is willing to work at the prevailing wages, but does not find any gainful work.

Seasonal unemployment
Educated unemployment
Disguised unemployment
Structural unemployment
Technical unemployment.

Question 24.
What are the two types of unemployment which are prevailing in rural areas? Write any four factors responsible for this.
Answer:

Seasonal unemployment and
Disguised unemployment are prevailing in rural areas.

Causes :

Lack of diversification of agriculture.
Lack of capital.
Large families due to overpopulation.
Underdevelopment of cottage and small scale industries.

Question 25.
Distinguish between disguised unemployment and educated unemployment.
Answer:
Following are the main differences between disguised and educated unemployment :

Disguised Unemployment	Educated Unemployment
1. Disguised unemployment is that type of unemployment under which people appear to be employed, but they are not.	1. Educated unemployment is that type of unemployment under which people are educated but are unable to find a job.
2. It is mainly found in rural areas.	2. It is mainly found in urban areas.

Question 26.
Explain the employment scenario in the three sectors.
Answer:

Primary sector. In India, agriculture is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy. But it is facing disguised unemployment. It does not have any capacity to absorb more workers. So surplus workers are moving to the secondary and the tertiary sectors.
Secondary sector. In secondary sector, small scale manufacturing is also labour absorbing Industry. Cottage industry should also be set up in rural areas.
Tertiary sector. Tertiary sector is the most important sector which can help in removing the unemployment problem.

Question 27.
What is seasonal unemployment? What are the factor responsible for this unemployment?
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment is that type of unemployment in which a worker is employed during some parts of the year and remains without work during the rest of the year.

Causes

Lack of multiple cropping.
Lack of small scale and cottage industries in rural areas.
Lack of commercialisation of agriculture.

Question 28.
What is disguised unemployment? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment is a situation in which more workers are working in an activity than required. The people, who are actually engaged in such an activity appear to be employed, but are not fully employed. For example, if for the cultivation of one hectare land 12 workers are required, but instead of 12 workers, 20 workers are working. In this case, 8 workers are disguised unemployed. In such cases, even if the surplus workers are removed the production does not suffer.

Question 29.
Why is human capital the most important factor of production? Give three reasons.
Answer:
Human capital is the most important factor of production because:

Some production activities need literate people.
Some production activities need physical labour.
Human capital has only entrepreneurial ability.

Question 30.
How have countries like Japan become rich and developed? Explain three reasons.
Answer:

They have invested in human capital especially in the field of education and health.
They have efficiently used the other resources like land and physical capital.
They have developed the technology and efficiency.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the main problems of human capital formation in India?
Answer:
The following are the problems of human capital formation in India :
1. High cost of Human Capital Formation. In India the cost of human capital formation is very high. Due to high pressure of population, government is investing more in human capital but the returns are very low. Government is opening a large number of educational institutions. In this process high cost of human capital formation is creating problems.

2. Low Level of Adult Education and Agricultural Education. Another problem of human capital formation in India is the low level of adult and agricultural education. Adult education is helpful in changing the attitudes of people. There are only few programmes related to agricultural education. These problems resulted in low productivity.

3. Less Priority to Secondary Education. Government gives less priority to secondary education than primary education and the expenditure on primary education is also high which is unproductive. One can get efficiency in technical knowledge after secondary education. This attitude creates problems in human capital formation.

4. Total Stock of Human Capital Formation. India is a developing country, as a result, there remains great demand of human capital formation in every field. But the total stock of human capital formation is less, due to less resources which creates problems in the country.

Question 2.
Explain the role of human capital formation in economic development.
Answer:
Role of Human Capital Formation in Economic Development:
Economic backwardness is the main feature of underdeveloped countries and the main cause for this backwardness is the problem of human capital formation. But the economic development can be achieved by human capital formation.

There are the following advantages of human capital formation in economic development :
1. Increase in the Efficiency of Labour. Economic development can be attained through an increase in the efficiency of labour. The efficiency of labour is increased through human capital formation by investing in education, health, training, etc.

2. Training and Technical Knowledge. It is necessary for the labour to be trained and educated for economic development. Thus through human capital formation, the level of education, technical knowledge, efficiency, and health of the labour can be raised, and hence the path of economic development can be achieved.

3. To Enlarge the size of the Business. The size of a business can be enlarged by efficient entrepreneurs and innovators. An entrepreneur becomes efficient by investment in human capital and this efficiency ultimately leads to economic development.

4. Increase in Production. An increase in production leads to economic development. Human capital formation produces able and efficient persons who increase production.

5. Change in the Religious, Social, Cultural, and Institutional setup. For economic development change in religious, social, cultural, and institutional setup is necessary. These changes are only possible through human capital formation.

6. To Decrease Production Cost. Reduction in the production cost is essential for economic development. Human capital formation helps to decrease the production cost.
Thus the role of human capital formation in economic development is very significant.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 1 Self Awareness and Self Discipline

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 1 Self Awareness and Self Discipline Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 1 Self Awareness and Self Discipline

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Self Awareness and Self Discipline InText Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 1

Dear students! Have you ever thought?

Question 1.
Why can’t a fish fly?
Answer:
To fly, wings are required and fish don’t have the wings. That’s why a fish cannot fly.

Question 2.
Why can all the creatures not climb up a tree?
Answer:
Climbing trees requires a special ability in the body that is not found in all creatures. That’s why only those creatures can climb a tree that has this kind of ability.

Question 3.
Why has Sachin Tendulkar been popular for being a cricketer and not as a painter?
Answer:
Because Sachin Tendulkar did not have the qualities of becoming a painter but had the quality of playing cricket. That’s why, instead of becoming a painter, he become a cricketer.

Question 4.
Why did Lata Mangeshkar grow up to be a singer and not a writer?
Answer:
Because she did not have the quality of becoming a writer but had the quality of becoming a singer.

Answer them

1. I am ……………..
Answer:
Ramesh Kumar

2. My family members feel ……………… because of me.
Answer:
Happy

3. I am very happy when I ……………….
Answer:
When I get maximum marks and stand first in the class.

4. I always worry about …………………
Answer:
I am getting fewer marks in exams.

5. How do you deal with the people you don’t like?
Answer:
I try to talk very less with them.

6. Are all the people always happy with you? Why?
Answer:
Although I try to keep everyone happy and that’s why I always try to fulfill their expectations.

Textbook Page No. 2

Activity

Question 1.
You have to answer the questions asked about you on the following rating scale. Each question has three possible answers. You chose the most suitable answer for you.
PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 1 Self Awareness and Self Discipline Img 1
After answering the above questions. you have to analyze yourself. The components, you have answered with ‘Always’ are your strengths. You have to keep them up. Try to improve the aspects with the answers ‘Sometimes’. The traits for which your answer is ‘Never’ are definitely your weaknesses and you have to overcome them.

Answer:

S.No.	Questions	Always	Sometimes	Never
1.	I am Optimistic.	✓
2.	I adapt myself to changing situations easily.	✓
3.	I am a self-confident person.	✓
4.	I can easily do whatever I want to do.	✓
5.	I easily leave my impression on others.	✓
6.	I always perform my work with full devotion and dedication.	✓
7.	I happily accept my weaknesses.	✓
8.	I always help others in their work.	✓
9.	I am always ready to learn something new.	✓
10.	I always try my level best to remove my mistakes and weaknesses.	✓

Textbook Page No. 2 and 3

Now answer these questions with what you feel in the following situations :

Question 1.
If someone criticizes me.
Answer:
I give thought to it and try to correct my mistake.

Question 2.
When I see the progress of other students in my class.
Answer:
I feel happy that they are doing progress.

Question 3.
When I cannot make changes in things and situations according to my wish.
Answer:
I try to find the reason why I cannot change things.

Question 4.
I have set my goal for life and to achieve that goal.
Answer:
I will do more hard work to achieve the goal.

Question 5.
When I do something wrong.
Answer:
I try to do it again to make it correct.

Textbook Page No. 5

Dear students ! as you know we are a part of our society, just like the beads in a rosary. If a single bead is not good, it will change the grace of the rosary. Every person performs his duty towards society in his best possible responsible way. The development of this sense of responsibility starts at an early age. Childhood and adolescence are the foundation periods of life for the development of this trait of human personality. We know that we can perform our duty towards others well only if we know our responsibility towards ourselves. It is possible only if every aspect of our personality is developed well. So before learning our sense of responsibility towards others, we must take care of the development of various aspects of our personality like physical, emotional, and social development.

Question 1.
What do you know about the proper development of physical, emotional, and social development?
Answer:
Physical Development: When our physical and mental development is done properly according to age, it is called physical development.
Emotional Development: It means there exist every type of emotion within ourselves such as love, sympathy, sense of cooperation, etc.
Social Development: It means that an individual must contribute fully to the development of society. As man is a social animal, that’s why he must have this type of feeling.

Textbook Page No.5

Activity

Responsibility Towards Yourself

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 1 Self Awareness and Self Discipline Img 2
Answer:

I will do proper exercise to keep myself fit and healthy.

I will develop every type of feeling within myself for my emotional development.

I will live and cooperate with others and develop the feeling of cooperation.

Responsibility Towards Family

The person comes in contact with his family first. Family is such a social institution, where the person is born. He/She shares all his/her joys and sorrows with his/her family members. So he/she has certain liabilities and responsibilities towards the family members. Let us see

Question 1.
What is your responsibility towards your family?
Answer:
I will keep my family happy by fulfilling my duties and responsibilities. With this, I will become a better citizen of the country.

Textbook Page No. 6

Responsibility Towards School

Question 1.
What is your responsibility towards your school?
Answer:
Maintain discipline in school, not damage school’s property, cooperate with my friends and teachers, etc.

Question 2.
How will you fulfill your responsibility towards your school?
Answer:
I will remain with my friends, will follow rules made by the school, will not damage the school’s property, will obey the orders given by teachers, etc.

Responsibility Towards Society And Nation

Question 1.
What is your responsibility towards your society and nation? How will you perform it?
Answer:
My responsibility is to be a good citizen of the nation. For this, I will perform all the duties honestly and will not do anything against the laws of the land.

Answer the following questions in Yes or No :

1. If any of my family members is unwell. I always take care of him/her. (Yes/No)
Answer:
Yes

2. I help my mother with household works. (Yes/No)
Answer:
Yes

3. In school, I always keep in discipline even if the teacher is not in the classroom. I contribute to school beautification also. (Yes/No)
Answer:
Yes

4. Keeping in mind the convenience of the neighbors, I always listen to the music at a lower volume. (Yes/No)
Answer:
Yes

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Guide Self Awareness and Self Discipline Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Right from the ages, ……………….. is running to find his identity.
(a) Man
(b) Lion
(c) Elephant
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Man.

2. Man is a ………….. animal.
(a) Political
(b) Social
(c) Economic
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Social

3. The subconscious mind is more hidden than the visible part of the …………….
(a) individual
(b) personality
(c) brain
(d) mind
Answer:
(b) personality

4. The main motive of ……………. is to identify oneself.
(a) self-consciousness
(b) society
(c) personality
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) self-consciousness

5. Every individual Is always having a …………………..
(a) quality
(b) shortcoming
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b).

6. A person’s true identity is formed when he does not let his ……………… overwhelm him.
(a) quality
(b) shortcoming
(C) brain
(d) personality.
Answer:
(b) shortcoming.

7. ……………………. is very much necessary for us.
(a) Discipline
(b) Quality
(c) Shortcoming
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Discipline.

8. We must know the value of ………………
(a) society
(b) time
(c) brain
(d) discipline.
Answer:
(b) time.

9. There is a need to make a ………………. for the proper usage of time.
(a) plan
(b) personality
(c) house
(d) office
Answer:
(a) plan

10. How can we make the planning of time?
(a) By making a plan
(b) Dividing work on a priority basis
(c) By making tune table
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Fill in the Blanks:

1. We must make a time ………………
Answer:
table

2. We must know the importance of ……………
Answer:
time

3. ……………….. is a must in life.
Answer:
Discipline

4. First of all, an individual comes in contact with
Answer:
family

5. Family is an …………….. which always stands with us.
Answer:
institution

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (x) Statement:

1. We must know the importance of time.
Answer:
✓

2. Disciplined person gets success in life.
Answer:
✓

3. There is no importance of the feeling of responsibility.
Answer:
x

4. Man is not a social animal.
Answer:
x

5. Every individual has some qualities and shortcomings.
Answer:
✓

Match the Following:

(A)	(b)
Self Consciousness	Institution
Quality	Internal
Importance of time	Part of personality
Responsibility	Making time table
Family	Remain in discipline

Answer:

(A)	(b)
Self Consciousness	Internal
Quality	Part of personality
Importance of time	Making time table
Responsibility	Remain in discipline
Family	Institution

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Who is looking for his identity from the ages?
Answer:
Man is looking for his identity from the ages.

Question 2.
What is the actual motive of Self Consciousness?
Answer:
The actual motive of self-consciousness is to identify oneself.

Question 3.
What is important before you can properly coordinate with others?
Answer:
There is definitely a need to understand oneself.

Question 4.
Every person is born with few things within himself. Name anyone.
Answer:
Every person is born with natural qualities.

Question 5.
Do a person’s qualities come out automatically?
Answer:
No, there is a need to find qualities hidden within an individual.

Question 6.
How can we express ourselves?
Answer:
By finding our strength and improving it, we can express ourselves.

Question 7.
When a person’s true identity is formed?
Answer:
When we do not let our shortcomings overwhelm us and by doing cooperate with others.

Question 8.
What is required to create a person’s true identity?
Answer:
He needs to remain in Self-discipline to create his true identity.

Question 9.
Is nature work within the discipline?
Answer:
Yes, nature has a fixed time to do any work.

Question 10.
Tell one method of time management?
Answer:
We must make a timetable and work according to it.

Question 11.
How could we waste our precious time?
Answer:
When we don’t focus on work, we waste our precious time.

Question 12.
When does a sense of responsibility begin to develop?
Answer:
Right from childhood, a sense of responsibility begins to develop.

Question 13.
When can we fulfill our responsibility properly?
Answer:
When all the aspects of our personality are developed, we can say that we can fulfill our responsibility properly.

Question 14.
Who does the person first come in contact with?
Answer:
First of all, he comes in contact with his family.

Question 15.
Who stands with us in our bad times?
Answer:
Family stands with us in our bad times.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the chief purpose of having Self-awareness?
Answer:
Man is a social animal and he is running for ages to find his true existence. For his proper adjustment in society, he needs to properly understand himself. There are many hidden qualities in himself. A large part of his personality is hidden within him. That’s why the chief objective of having self-awareness is actually knowing this hidden part of his.

Question 2.
When a person’s true identity is formed?
Answer:
Every individual is having many qualities but with these qualities, there are few shortcomings as well. A person’s true identity in society is formed when he does not allow his shortcomings to overwhelm him. At the same time, he must not be jealous of others but always ready to cooperate with them. So, all this can happen if he keeps himself in the discipline.

Question 3.
Why is punctuality important?
Answer:
Time and punctuality are very important in a person’s life. Every work is done on time and every work should be done on time. It is said that if a task is not done on time then the task is in vain. Sometimes if work is not done on time, then both work and time become useless. Just as nature does everything on time, so we should do everything on time.

Question 4.
Showtime management through a picture.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 1 Self Awareness and Self Discipline Img 3

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
Explain the sense of responsibility.
Answer:
We all live in society and while living in society, we have many responsibilities towards society. It is expected of everyone to fulfill his responsibilities. Right from childhood, the sense of responsibility starts to develop. From childhood, we begin to develop the qualities we have and also the quality of responsibilities begins to improve. We can fulfill our responsibilities to others if our personality is fully developed. If our personality is well developed then we can fix the responsibilities as well. We also have many duties and responsibilities towards ourselves and we have to fulfill those duties so that we can develop physically, socially, and emotionally. If we develop properly, we will definitely be able to take responsibility.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow :
From the very beginning of civilization, man is struggling to find his identity. He has been wandering here and there for centuries in search of his true existence. As we all know, man is a social animal. For his proper adjustment in society, he needs to have proper coordination with others in order to understand others properly, it is necessary to know ourselves first, when we say that we know someone, actually it is not all true. What we see, is only a small part of one’s personality and most of the person is hidden in his/her unconsciousness. The person, sometimes even himself does not know his hidden self. The chief purpose of having self-awareness is actually knowing about this hidden part of us.

1. Why is a man wandering for centuries?
Answer:
For centuries, man is wandering here and there to find his true existence.

2. What type of animal is a man?
Answer:
Man is a social animal.

3. What is the objective of Self-awareness?
Answer:
The objective of Self-awareness is to actually know about oneself.

4. What is self-consciousness?
Answer:
Self-consciousness is a feeling in an individual to examine everything and to check whether the thing is right or wrong.

5. What is the subconscious mind?
Answer:
Much is hidden in the mind of a person about which he is hardly aware. That part of the mind is known as the subconscious mind.