Class 9 – Page 27 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1. Name two breeds of pig.
Answer:
White Yorkshire, Landrace.

Question 2.
How many piglets can be produced by a female pig in a year?
Answer:
20-24 in a year.

Question 3.
How many times does a female pig produce piglets?
Answer:
Twice a year.

Question 4.
How much protein should be in the feed of a dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15%.

Question 5.
What is the weight of rabbits at age of 12 weeks?
Answer:
1 to 1.5 kg in 3 months (12 weeks).

Question 6.
Name the breeds of goat.
Answer:

Indigenous – Beetal, Jamnapari.
Exotic – Saanen, Alpine, Boer.

Question 7.
Name the breeds of sheep.
Answer:
erino, Corridale.

Question 8.
Name the native place of Beetal goat.
Answer:
Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarn taran, and Ferozepur.

Question 9.
Name the native place of Jamnapari breed.
Answer:
Western Uttar Pardesh.

Question 10.
Name the age of castration of male pigglets.
Answer:
At the age of 3-4 weeks.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Explain the difference between indigenous and exotic breeds of pig.
Answer:
Local indigenous breeds of pigs have a poor growth rate and piglets produced are also less in number.
Exotic breeds grow rapidly and also produce more piglets per year.

Question 2. Explain about economic feeding of pigs.
Answer:
Leftover vegetables in the market, hotel, hostel, etc.; restaurant waste, sugarcane, press mud, buttermilk (Lassi), etc. can be given to pigs as feed.

Question 3.
What is the composition of feed of pigs?
Answer:
Piglets should be given 20-22% protein, and roughage should not be more than 5%. Growing pigs should be given 16-18% protein and adults should also be given 2-3 kg green fodder.

Question 4.
Write the qualities of a good goat.
Answer:
Good quality goat is selected on the basis of its lactation milk for 120 days. It should be able to produce first kidding up to the age of 2 years. It should be high yielding and its body should belong. The udder should be large and teats medium-sized pointing forward. It should have soft shiny hair.

Question 5.
Name the wool and meat-type breeds of rabbits.
Answer:

Breeds of rabbit for wool – German Angora, British Angora, Russian Angora.
Breeds of rabbit for meat – Grey Giant, Soviet Chinchilla, White Giant, Newzealand white.

Question 6.
Which type of feed is liked by rabbits?
Answer:
Rabbit is a vegetarian animal. It likes to eat Napier bajra, bajra, cowpea, guinea grass, berseem, green leaves and vegetables etc.

Question 7.
Give a description of nest or box used for rabbit.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animal can be kept in a cage of size 2x2x1 feet.

Question 8.
How many times rabbit produces kitten annually and what is the total number of kittens produced?
Answer:
Rabbit can give birth to 5-7 young ones at one time and can give birth 6-7 times in a year. Thus giving birth to 30-50 young . ones in a year.

Question 9.
What is the wool yield of various breeds of rabbits?
Answer:

Breed of Rabbit	Wool
Russian angora	215 gram
British angora	230 gram
German angora	530 gram

Question 10.
What is the protein content in rabbit feed?
Answer:
Protein should be 12-15% in the feed of a dry female and for a milking female protein should be 16-20% in the feed.

Question 1.
What are the basic points for profitable piggery?
Answer:

Selection of breed.
Select healthy male and female animals.
Providing balanced feed.
Optimum management e.g. for shed, health management against diseases.
A healthy sow should have tight skin, soft hair, bright eyes, strong legs, and 12 teats.
Mating should be done at the age of 8-9 months and when the weight of the sow is about 90 kg.
Get the piglets castrated at the age of 3-4 weeks if they are meant for meat (pork).

Question 2.
Give details of shed for pigs.
Answer:
Shed should be at higher elevation than the ground level. It should not be costly, but it should be comfortable. For a growing pig 8 square feet, for a dry, female 10-12 square feet space is enough. 20 young animals can be reared in 160 square feet space. Ten sows (females pigs) can be kept in one room. There should be guard railing in the room of sows to prevent crushing of newborn piglet under the mother pig. Railing should be 10-12 inch high and should be away from the wall by 10-12 inches.

Question 3.
Write a note on sheep and goat shed.
Answer:
Sheds should be open and airy. The flooring should be damp proof. Length of shed should be in East-West’direction. A goat or sheep needs only 10 square feet of space. Lamb requires 4 square feet space. There should be wall 5-6 feet high all around the shed or barbed wire to prevent stray animals entering into the shed. Plant deciduous shady trees like mulberry, poplar, dharek etc. around the shed.

Question 4.
Give composition of rabbit feed.
Answer:
Feed of Rabbit includes cereals, pulses, green and dry fodder, carrots, cabbage, legumes and kitchen waste. Feed is given in pellet form to reduce respiratory problems and wastage of feed. Dry female should be given 12-15% protein in its feed whereas milking female should be given 16-20% protein in its feed. Rabbit can be given a concentrate which is mixture of wheat, maize, bajra, meat meal, rice polish, ground nut cakes, minerals mixture and common salt etc. Rabbits like to take cowpea, Guinea grass, spinach, green leaves and vegetables, napier bajra, berseem etc. Rabbits consume water also which is 10% of its body weight. Therefore there should be proper arrangement of drinking water.

Question 5.
Give details of cages used for rabbits.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animals can be kept in 2x2x1 feet cages. Weaned kitten are also kept in cages. One cage can be used to keep 20 young animals. Males and females should be kept separately.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about size and colour of White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
Size, medium, colour, white.

Question 2.
Which breed of pig is popular in north India?
Answer:
White Yorkshire.

Question 3.
Landrace breed of pig is Native of which country?
Answer:
Denmark.

Question 4.
When does a healthy female pig come in heat for the first time?
Answer:
At the age of 5-6 months.

Question 5.
How much protein should be present in the feed of growing pigs?
Answer:
16-18%.

Question 6.
How much space is required by a growing pigs?
Answer:
8 square feet.

Question 7.
How much space is required by a non-milking female pig?
Answer:
10-12 sQuestion feet.

Question 8.
What should be the height of railing of the room of female pig?
Answer:
10-12 inch.

Question 9.
Which animal is called poor man’s cow?
Answer:
Goat.

Question 10.
Name Indigenous breeds of goat.
Answer:
Beetal, Jamnapari.

Question 11.
How many days of milk is the basis of selection of a goat?
Answer:
120 days.

Question 12.
What is gestation period for goat/sheep?
Answer:
145-157 days.

Question 13.
What should be the direction of shed?
Answer:
East-West.

Question 14.
How much space is required by sheep or goat?
Answer:
10 square feet.

Question 15.
How much space is required by youngone of sheep or goat (i.e. lamb)?
Answer:
4 square feet.

Question 16.
How many times youngones are produced by goat/ sheep in a year?
Answer:
Three times.

Question 17.
How many times a female rabbit gives birth in a year?
Answer:
6-7 times.

Question 18.
How much is the average age of rabbit?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 19.
Name wool types of Rabbit.
Answer:
Russian Angora, German Angora.

Question 20.
Name meat types of rabbit?
Answer:
Soviet chinchilla, grey giant.

Question 21.
How much protein should be present in feed of dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15 %.

Question 22.
How much protein should be present in feed of milking female rabbit?
Answer:
16-20%.

Question 23.
How much green fodder and feed is eaten by a 6 week old rabbit?
Answer:
100 gram green fodder and 50 gram feed.

Question 24.
At what age wool can be taken for the first time from a rabbit?
Answer:
At the age of 4 months.

Question 25.
How much wool do we get from a rabbit in a year?
Answer:
500-700 gram.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
It is white colored medium-sized breed of pig. It has long body and erected ear.

Question 2.
Write about Landrace breed of pig.
Answer:
It is an exotic breed. Its colour is white, body is long and has drooping ears. It originally belongs to Denmark. Its meat has less fat.

Question 3.
Write about female pig when it comes to heat.
Answer:
Female pig comes in heat at the age of 5-6 months for the first time. But mating should be done when female attains a weight of 90 kg and is of 8-9 months old.

Question 4.
Write about health of female pig (sow).
Answer:
It should be healthy with soft and tight skin. It should have soft hair. Its eyes should be bright. It should have strong legs and 12 teats.

Question 5.
How much space is required by pigs?
Answer:
Growing pigs need 8 square feet space whereas dry female needs 10-12 feet space.

Question 6.
Why is guard railing fixed in the room of sow?
Answer:
This is put to prevent the crushing of the newborn piglets under their mother.

Question 7.
Write about the beetle breed of goat.
Answer:
It is black brownish with white spots on it. its ears are long, drooping and twisted. Its forehead is convex. It has large udder. First kidding occurs at an age of 18 months. It is found in Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarantarn, and Ferozepur.

Question 8.
Write about Jamnapari breed of goat.
Answer:
It is white in color and sometimes light brown. It has a long body and legs are also long. It has brown spots on the head and face. Its ears are long flat and drooping. The nose is convex. It gives a beautiful look and is found in Western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 9.
Write about shearing of wool in the case of rabbits.
Answer:
First-time wool cutting can be done at the age of 4 months. Wool should be at least 2 inches long. At the age of one year, maximum wool yield can be obtained. Annual production from one animal is 500-700 gm of wool.

Question 10.
Write about getting training about the rearing of sheep/goats, rabbits, etc.
Answer:
One can get training from the Deputy Director (Animal husbandry) of the concerned district, Rishi Vigyan Kendra, GADVASU Ludhiana.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details about breeds of goat.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Write details about the breeds of pigs.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. White Yorkshire is breed of :
(a) Hen
(b) Pig
(c) Cow
(d) Sheep
Answer:
(b) Pig

2. Breed of goat is :
(a) Saanen
(b) Boer
(c) Beetal
(d) Marino
Answer:
(d) Marino

3. Males which are for mutton purpose should be castrated at the age of:
(a) 2 month
(b) 10 month
(c) 15 month
(d) 20 month
Answer:
(a) 2 month

4. Female pig can give birth to piglets per farrowing :
(a 25-30
(b) 10-12
(c) 20-25
(d) 30-40
Answer:
(b) 10-12

5. Female rabit can become pregnant at the age of ……………….. for the first time :
(a) 3-4 month
(b) 6-9 month
(c) 15-20 month
(d) 12-13 month
Answer:
(b) 6-9 month

True/False:

1. Reproduction in pigs is very rapid and they also eat less.
Answer:
True

2. Healthy female pig comes in beat at the age of 3-4 months for the first time.
Answer:
False

3. In a shed of 160 square feet, 10 young pigs can be reared.
Answer:
False

4. Indigenous breeds of goat are-Beetal, Jamnapari.
Answer:
True

5. Breeds of sheep are-Marino, Corridale.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Female pig can give birth twice in a year and can produce ……………… piglets per farrowing.
Answer:
10-12

2. Gestation period of sheep and goat is same and is ……………. days.
Answer:
145-157

3. Female rabbit can become pregnant at the age of …………………… months for the first time.
Answer:
6-9

4. Annual wool yield from Russian, British and German Angora is respectively 215, 230, …………… grams.
Answer:
530

5. Average age of rabbit is ………………….. years.
Answer:
5

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Poultry Farming

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 8 Poultry Farming Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 8 Poultry Farming

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Poultry Farming Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
At what age hen starts laying eggs?
Answer:
After 160 days.

Question 2.
Name two breeds of meat-type poultry.
Answer:
IBL-80 Broiler and White Plymouth Rock.

Question 3.
What is the average egg weight?
Answer:
55 gram.

Question 4.
Which hen gives white eggs?
Answer:
White Leghorn.

Question 5.
How many eggs are produced by Rhode Island Red annually?
Answer:
180 eggs.

Question 6.
Which gas is produced in poultry litter?
Answer:
Ammonia.

Question 7.
Which device is used to give heat to chicks?
Answer:
Brooder.

Question 8.
What is the height of the poultry shed?
Answer:
10 feet.

Question 9.
What is the size of the cage for two birds?
Answer:
15 inches long and 12 inches wide.

Question 10.
Whether feed consumption increases or decreases in the winter season?
Answer:
Increases.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What is meant by poultry?
Answer:
The meaning of poultry is the rearing of birds (all types) to fulfill the economical needs of human beings. It includes chicken, turkey, ducks, geese, Japanese quails, emu, etc.

Question 2.
Give details of local desi breeds of layers.
Answer:
Breeds of the hen.

Sutlej Layer: Punjab Layer-1 and Punjab Layer-2 are two types of this breed. It lays 255-265 eggs annually. The average weight of one egg is 55 grams.
IBL-80 Broiler: It is a breed of hen which is reared for meat purposes. It weighs 1350-1450 grams at the age of 6 weeks.

Question 3.
Compare White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red hens.
Answer:

White Leghorn Hen	Rhode Island Red Hen
Its egg color is white.	Its egg color is brown.
It lays 220-250 eggs annually.	It lays 180 eggs annually.
It eats less.	It eats more.
Its meat is not tasty. It is egg giving breed.	It is used for meat purposes.

Question 4.
Which nutrients are required for the growth of birds?
Answer:
Birds require about 40 feed nutrients. These nutrients can be divided into 6 classes i.e. carbohydrates, proteins, fat, minerals, vitamins, and water.

Question 5.
Explain poultry shed.
Answer:
Sheds of hen must be made at a higher elevation and they should be connected with road so that the transport of eggs, feed, and poultry litter is made easy. Rainwater should not collect around the shed.

Question 6.
Explain poultry management in summer.
Answer:
Birds don’t have sweat glands in their body and they have enough feathers so they face difficulty in summers. Plant mulberry trees and grass should be around the shed. Sprinkle water on the roof of the shed as this reduces the temperature of the shed in the summer. Sidewalls shouldn’t be more than 1 to 1.5 feet high. The wire mesh net is a must on the side walls. A thick layer of straw should be spread on the roof of the shed. In extremely hot conditions sprinkle water on the hens with a spray pump. Change the water regularly and increase the number of waterers in the shed.

Question 7.
What is the importance of poultry litter management?
Answer:
Keep the litter dry always. Many diseases are caused by wet litter. Thus ammonia gas is produced which causes difficulties for birds and as well as humans.

Question 8.
Name the breeds reared for meat purposes.
Answer:
IBL-80 Broiler, Rhode Island Red, and White Plymouth Rock are the main breeds of hen which are reared for their meat.

Question 9.
Give details of the IBL-80 breed.
Answer:
This breed is reared for meat purposes. It weighs 1350:1450 grams in six weeks.

Question 10.
How poultry feed is prepared?
Answer:
It contains maize, broken rice, wheat, rice polish, groundnut cake, fish meal, limestone, and common salt, etc. Antibiotics are also added to their poultry feed.

Question 1.
Give details of exotic poultry breeds.
Answer:

White Leghorn: The egg of this breed is white. It lays 220-250 eggs annually. Its meat is not tasty. It is of small size and eats less feed.
Rhode Island Red: Its egg color is red. It lays 180 eggs annually. It eats more and it is reared for its meat.
White Plymouth Rock: It lays 140 eggs annually. Its egg color is brown and its weight is more than 60 grams. Its chick attains a bodyweight of 1 kg at the age of 2 months.

Question 2.
Explain the feed nutrients of poultry.
Answer:
For proper growth and egg production, birds need 40 types of feed nutrients. Deficiency of any nutrient may cause deterioration in health and egg production. These nutrients can be classified into six categories, carbohydrates, protein, fat, minerals, vitamins, and water.

Question 3.
What is the difference between summer and winter management of poultry?
Answer:
Summer management. Birds don’t have sweat glands in their body and they have enough feathers so they face difficulty in summers. Plant mulberry trees and grass should be around the shed. Sprinkle water on the roof of shed as this reduces the temperature of the shed m the summer. Side walls shouldn’t be more than 1 to 1.5 feet high.

Wire mesh net is must on the side walls. A thick layer of straw should be spreaded on the roof of the shed. In extreme hot conditions sprinkle water on the hens with spray pump. Change the water regularly and increase the number of waterers in the shed.

Winter Management. When temperature is below 0°C in winter it has bad effect on birds. If suitable temperature is not maintained in the shed then birds can eat 3-5 kg feed extra. Cover windows with curtains and stir the litter twice a week.

Question 4.
From where poultry training can be attained?
Answer:
Before starting a poultry farm, one should get proper training first. One can contact Deputy Director (Animal husbandary), GADVASU, Ludhiana or Krishi Vigyan Kendra of concerned district for this purpose.

Question 5.
Write a note on management of chicks.
Answer:
Chicks should be purchased from an approved and trusted hatchery. Keep young chicks in a brooder which is a device used to give warmth to the chicks. Keep the chicks in light for 24 hours for the first 6-8 weeks and give them balanced good quality feed.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How many eggs are given by Sutlej Layer in a year?
Answer:
255-265 annually.

Question 2.
What is average body weight of IBL-80 broiler at the age of 6 weeks?
Answer:
1230-1450 gram.

Question 3.
At what age hen starts laying eggs?
Answer:
At the age of 160 days:

Question 4.
What is the weight of egg given by Sutlej layer?
Answer:
Approximately 55 gram.

Question 5.
Write types of Sutlej layer.
Answer:
Punjab layer-1, Punjab layer-2

Question 6.
Give name of breeds of hen found in world?
Answer:
White Leghorn, Rhode Island Red, White Plymouth Rock.

Question 7.
How many eggs are given by White Leghorn?
Answer:
In a year about 220-250 eggs.

Question 8.
What is the colour of eggs given by Rhode island red?
Answer:
These are brown in colour.

Question 9.
How many eggs are given by white plymouth rock?
Answer:
About 140 eggs annually.

Question 10.
How many feed nutrients are required by hens?
Answer:
They need 40 feed nutrients.

Question 11.
In how many classes feed nutrients are divided which are required by hens?
Answer:
Six classes i.e. carbohydrates, proteins, fat, minerals, vitamins and water.

Question 12.
What should be the increase in protein, minerals and vitamins in feed of hen in summer?
Answer:
About 20-30%.

Question 13.
Wet litter leads to production of which gas?
Answer:
It leads to production of ammonia.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which of the birds are reared to fulfil the economical needs of human beings?
Answer:
Chicken, turkey, ducks, geese, emu, Japanese quails etc. are the birds which are reared to fulfil the economical needs of human beings.

Question 2.
Why do birds find it hard to beair hot season of summer?
Answer:
Birds do not have sweat glands but have enough of feathres and thus they find it hard to bear hot season of summer.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Poultry Farming Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Hen start laying eggs in :
(a) 50 days
(b) 160 days
(c) 500 days
(d) 250 days.
Answer:
(b) 160 days

2. Device which is used to keep chicks warm is called :
(a) microwave oven
(b) Brooder
(c) angeethi
(d) Tava
Answer:
(b) Brooder

3. Which gas is produced from little?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Helium
Answer:
(c) Ammonia

4. Colour of egg obtained from Rhode island, red is:
(a) Khaki
(b) White
(c) Black
(d) Orange
Answer:
(a) Khaki

5. Average weight of egg obtained from Sutlej layer is :
(a) 10 gram
(b) 20 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 55 gram
Answer:
(d) 55 gram

True/False:

1. ‘Poultry’ is a word that includes all types of birds that are reared to fulfill their economical needs.
Answer:
True

2. Sutlej Layer is a type of breed of hen that gives about 255-265 eggs annually and the weight of the egg is 55 grams. A hen starts laying egg at the age of 160 days.
Answer:
True

3. White Leghorn is an exotic breed that lay 100-200 eggs annually.
Answer:

4. Rhode Island Red gives about 180 eggs annually, egg is of brown colors.
Answer:
True

5. IBL – 80 Broiler is a breed of hen which is reared for meat purpose. At the age of 6 weeks its body weight becomes 1350-1450 gram.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Device which is used to keep chicks warm is called ……………..
Answer:
brooder

2. A Hen needs …………….. foot space.
Answer:
2 sq

3. Birds cannot sweat because they don’t have …………….. in the skin.
Answer:
sweat glands

4. White Plymouth Rock gives …………….. eggs annually and chick weight at the age of two months is 1 kg.
Answer:
140

5. Hens require about …………….. feed nutrients in their feed. Feed is divided into 6 parts i.e. carbohydrates, proteins, fat, minerals, vitamins, and water.
Answer:
40

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Milk Products and their Marketing

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 7 Milk Products and their Marketing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 7 Milk Products and their Marketing

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Milk Products and their Marketing Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
What is the yield of Khoa from cow milk?
Answer:
We can. get 200-gram otKhoa from one-kilogram cow milk.

Question 2.
What is the yield of Khoa from buffalo milk?
Answer:
We can get 250 grams of Khoa from one kilogram of buffalo milk.

Question 3.
What is the yield of Paneer from cow milk?
Answer:
We can get 180 grams of Paneer from one-kilogram cow milk.

Question 4.
What is the yield of Paneer from buffalo milk?
Answer:
We can get 250 grams of Paneer from one-kilogram buffalo milk.

Question 5.
Write the names of fermented milk products.
Answer:
Dahi, Lassi.

Question 6.
What is the fat percentage in cow milk?
Answer:
At least 4%.

Question 7.
What is the solids-not-fat (SNF) percentage in cow milk?
Answer:
8.5% (SNF).

Question 8.
What is the fat percentage in buffalo milk?
Answer:
6% fat.

Question 9.
What is the solids-not-fat (SNF) percentage in buffalo milk?
Answer:
9% S.N.F.

Question 10.
What is the fat percentage of intoned milk?
Answer:
There is 3% of fat available in toned milk.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What is the importance of milk in the human diet?
Answer:
Milk has high nutritive value and is easily digestible. Milk is a balanced diet and it is very significant amongst the vegetarian population. Nutrients like fat, protein, vitamins, bone-forming minerals are present in milk.

Question 2.
Which are the nutrients present in milk?
Answer:
Milk contains body-building proteins bone-forming minerals like calcium etc., vitamins, proteins, fats, etc. all the nutrients are present in milk.

Question 3.
Which milk products are being prepared on a commercial scale?
Answer:
Khoa, Paneer, Dahi, etc., and many sweets are prepared using Khoa and Paneer. Some other milk products prepared at the commercial level are standardized milk, toned milk, yogurt, skin milk powder, butter, ice cream, etc.

Question 4.
What is the shelf-life of Khoa?
Answer:
Khoa can be preserved for 13 days at room temperature and for two and a half months in a cold store.

Question 5.
How Ghee can be preserved for a long time?
Answer:
Ghee can be stored under sealed pack conditions in lacquered tin containers at 21°C and can be stored for 6-12 months. Moisture content should be low in Ghee.

Question 6.
What is the shelf-life of Paneer?
Answer:
If Paneer is prepared properly, it can be stored in a refrigerator for two weeks. Depending upon the method adopted to prepare Paneer it can be stored for 2-4 days to 5-6 months.

Question 7.
From where the training for the preparation of milk products can be obtained?
Answer:
From Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana, National Dairy Reeeardll Institute, Karnal (Haryana), Guru Angad Dev Vettfdnajy, and Animal Sciences University, Ludhiana.

Question 8.
Give the legal standards of double-toned milk and standardized milk.
Answer:

Milk Type	S.N.F. (%)	Fat (%)
Double Toned Milk	9%	1.5%
Standardized Milk	8.5%	4.5%

Question 9.
How Khoa can be preserved?
Answer:
The Khoa can be preserved by keeping it at low temperature in polythene bags for up to 13 days at room temperature and up to 75 days (two and half months) in cold storage.

Question 10.
Which are the sweets prepared from Khoa?
Answer:
Gulab Jamun, Burfi, Kalakand, Peda, etc. are the sweets that can be prepared from Khoa.

Question 1.
What are the advantages of selling milk products?
Answer:
Raw milk can spoil easily that is why milk products are prepared so that milk can be preserved for a longer time. As compared to milk, the milk products can be sold at higher prices and farmers can get more profit. Milk products are less voluminous than milk and have less weight than milk and the transportation cost is also less. There are no middlemen in marketing milk products and that is why profit is more. Family members also get self-employment at home.

Question 2.
What is a method of Paneer preparation?
Answer:
Some drops of lactic or citric acid are mixed (in natural or chemical form) in boiled hot milk which gets coagulated, whey is drained, and Paneer is obtained. This Paneer is pressed to get a single lump. This is stored in the refrigerator for two weeks.

Question 3.
Write the method of khoa preparation?
Answer:
Milk is heated continuously in a Karahi (Iron Pan) and constantly stirring-cum-scrapping is done by using Khunti (scrapper) till it reaches a semi-solid (doughy) stage. Then the contents of the pan are removed from the fire and worked up to make a solid mass known as Khoa-pat. We can get 200 grams of Khoa from 1 kg cow milk and 250 gram of Khoa from 1 kg of buffalo milk.

Question 4.
What are the legal standards for di£^milks?
Answer:
Following are the legal standards for SiffetenriT 41ks

Cow milk should have 4% fat and 8.5% SNF (SolTds-not-fat)
Buffalo milk should have 6% fat and 9% SNF (Solids-not- fat).
The legal standards for other fluid milk products are as under:
Toned milk should have 3.0% fat and 8.5% SNF.
Double-toned milk should have 1.5% fat and 9.0% SNF.
Standardized milk should have 4.5% fat and 8.5% SNF.

Question 5.
Which are the points to be kept in mind for successful marketing of milk products?
Answer:

We have to adopt hygienic conditions of milk during the processing of milk.
We have to maintain the legal standards of milk.
Farmers can prepare milk products that can be easily prepared and sold in the market.
There should be a proper linkage between farmers (milk producers) and the city market.
Farmers should sell their milk and milk products through cooperative societies to avoid middlemen.
Farmers should adopt the latest and modern techniques for processing milk.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why transportation of milk products is easy?
Answer:
Milk products are less in weight as compared to milk.

Question 2.
For how many days can we preserve Khoa at room temperature?
Answer:
For 13 days.

Question 3.
What is added to boiled hot milk to get Paneer?
Answer:
Citric Acid or lactic acid.

Question 4.
What is the reason for the spoiling of Ghee?
Answer:
Exposure to light, air, and water.

Question 5.
Which of the sweets can be prepared from Paneer?
Answer:
Rasgulla, Chhana murki.

Question 6.
Where is National Dairy Research Institute located?
Answer:
In Karnal (Haryana).

Question 7.
What is the fat percentage present in toned milk?
Answer:
3.0%.

Question 8.
What is the amount of S.N.F. intoned milk?
Answer:
8.5%.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
For whom milk is an essential part of the diet?
Answer:
Pregnant women, children, youngsters, adults, and also patients.

Question 2.
What is the advantage of selling milk products?
Answer:
We get more profit from milk products as compared to milk.

Question 3.
How is 50% of the total milk produced, consumed?
Answer:
50% of the total milk produced is consumed in the making of commonly used milk products.

Question 4.
What are the milk products made from milk?
Answer:
Khoa-based sweets, Chhana sweets, Kheer, Kulfi, Ice-cream, Toned milk, Makhan, etc.

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
Write methods to prepare and preserve Ghee.
Answer:
Ghee is prepared from heating the Makhan or Cream. We can preserve Ghee by properly packing it. Don’t allow it to expose to light, air, and water and that is why it should be packed in sealed containers. Ghee with high moisture tends to spoil faster.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Milk Products and their Marketing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. We can get ……………. khoa from one kg milk of cow.
(a) 200 gram
(B) 500 gram
(c) 700 gram
(d) 300 gram.
Answer:
(a) 200 gram

2. Fat percentage in cow milk is :
(a) 4%
(b) 50%
(c) y2%
(d) 70%
Answer:
(b) 50%

3. Fat in toned milk is :
(a) 54%
(b) 3%
(c) 10%
(d) 25%.
Answer:
(b) 3%

4. Paneer obtained from one kg of buffalo milk is :
(a) 100 gram
(b) 50 gram
(c) 520 gram
(d) 250 gram
Answer:
(d) 250 gram

5. Percentage of SNF in double toned milk is :
(a) 3%
(b) 1%
(c) 9%
(d) 2%
Answer:
(c) 9%

True/False:

1. Milk products are—Khoa, Paneer (Cheese), Ghee, Dahi (curd), etc.
Answer:
True

2. We can get 200 grams of Khoa and 80 grams of Paneer from one-kilogram cow milk.
Answer:
False

3. Milk has high nutritive value like protein, calcium for bones, and other minerals.
Answer:
True

4. Milk is not a boon to mankind. Milk is ideal and unique food for mankind.
Answer:
False

5. Buffalo milk should have 6% of fat and the value of solid not-fat (S.N.F.) should be 9%.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. ……………….. institutes play important role in the marketing of milk.
Answer:
Co-operative

2. Types of milk are – Toned milk, double toned milk and ………………..
Answer:
standardized milk

3. We can earn more profit by preparing different milk ………………..
Answer:
products

4. Raw milk can ……………….. easily. Therefore, milk can be processed and preserved for a long time by preparing different milk products.
Answer:
spoil

5. We can get 250 grams of Khoa and ……………….. of Paneer from one kg buffalo milk.
Answer:
250 grams

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Fundamental Rights of Citizen

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Fundamental Rights of Citizen Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Fundamental Rights of Citizen

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Fundamental Rights of Citizen Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Indian Constitution provides fundamental rights to its citizens.
Answer:
Six.

Question 2.
Right to free and compulsory education to children of age group 6-14 is granted under _________ article by _________ constitutional amendment.
Answer:
21 A, 86th.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Child labour is banned under :
(i) Right to freedom
(ii) Right to equality
(iii) Right against exploitation
(iv) Right to constitutional remedies.
Answer:
(iii) Right against exploitation.

Question 2.
A secular state means :
(i) A state that recognises only one religion.
(ii) A state that has no religion.
(iii) A state that has multi religions.
(iv) A state that doesn’t establish any one religion.
Answer:
(ii) A state that has no religion.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) statements :

Question 1.
Rights are those essential conditions of life without which-no one can lead a full happy life.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Secularism means people are free to follow any religion.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which part of the Constitution Fundamental Rights are incorporated?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are incorporated in Part-Ill of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Which power has been conferred on Indian judiciary for the protection of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Indian judiciary is given the power to issue writs for the protection of fundamental rights under Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 3.
Give the name of the bill in which Bal Gangadhar Tilak had demanded some rights for Indians from the British.
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilk asked for the Swaraj Bill.

Question 4.
In which report equal rights for women were demanded from Britishers?
Answer:
Nehru Report.

Question 5.
What is reasonable claim recognised by the society and enforced by the state called?
Answer:
They are called Fundamental Rights.

Question 6.
When and under which amendment the right to property was excluded from the list of fundamental rights?
Answer:
In 1978 through 44th Constitutional Amendment, right to property was excluded from the list of fundamental rights.

Question 7.
Name any two fundamental rights which have been provided to the foreigners also.
Answer:
Right to Freedom, Right to Equality before Law, Right to Freedom of Religion.

Question 8.
Under which article, right to education has been enlisted in the list of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Article 21-A.

Question 9.
From which article to which article fundamental rights have been enlisted (enumerated) in the Constitution?
Answer:
Articles 14-32.

Question 10.
Under which article provision has been made against the evil of untouchability?
Answer:
Article 17.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief ‘Right to Equality’.
Answer:
Right to equality is the base of democracy which is given under Articles 14-18 of the Constitution.

Article 14 says that everyone is equal in front of law.
Article 15 says that there shall be no discrimination with any one on the basis of religion, caste, colour, race, gender etc.
Article 16 says that equal opportunities will be provided in matters of public employment.
Article 17 has abolished untouchability in the country.
Article 18 says that no titles will be provided except military or educational titles.

Question 2.
Write a note on ‘Power of Judicial Review’.
Answer:
Judicial review is the power given to judiciary according to which it can review any law made by the Parliament and state legislative assemblies. If that law is against the basic structure of the Constitution, it can declare that law unconstitutional and illegal (null and void). It can even declare any clause of that law illegal. Courts can declare only that law unconstitutional which comes in front of it in the form of a case.

Question 3.
What provisions have been made in Indian Constitution for freedom of judiciary?
Answer:

The judges of Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President. Hence there is no scope of Executive’s interference.
Judges can only be removed by the Parliament through the process of impeachment which in itself is quite a difficult process.
Except Financial Emergency, the salary of the judges can never be reduced or stopped.
After retirement, judges are given handsome pension.

Question 4.
Explain in brief ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’.
Answer:
Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28). Articles 25-28 deal with the right to freedom of religion, Right to freedom of religion has been guaranteed to all persons residing in India. Art. 25 provides that subject to public order, morality and health, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion.

Art. 28 prohibits imparting of religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out -of State funds.

Question 5.
Which liberties have been given to the Indian citizens under Article 19?
Answer:
Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22). Articles 19-22 of the Constitution guarantee to the citizens Rights of Freedom. Article 19 guarantees six freedoms viz.

Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression;
Right to assemble peacefully and without arms;
Right to form Associations;
Right to move freely throughout the territory of India;
Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
Right to practise any profession. Articles 20 to 22 guarantee personal liberty.

Question 6.
Write a note on Right against Exploitation.
Answer:
The Constitution of India recognises the dignity of the individual and protects him against any form of exploitation either by the State or by the privileged class in the Society. Traffic in human beings (Article 23) i.e. selling and buying of human beings and begar (forced labour) are prohibited. The Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory or mine (Article 24). Children are the future of the country; hence they must be protected against any form of exploitation.

Question 7.
‘How our fundamental rights are fundamental in nature? Explain.
Answer:
There is great importance of the Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution. The Fundamental Rights ensure the fullest physical, mental and moral development of every citizen and provide those basic freedoms and conditions which alone can make the life worth-living. The Fundamental Rights safeguard the individual by putting restriction on the arbitrariness of the Government.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the nature of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Part III of Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental Rights for the Indian citizens.

Following are the main features of Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution.
1. All Citizens are equally entitled to the Fundamental Rigths. The
Constitution declares that rights contained in Part III are to be enjoyed by all the citizens of India. There can be no discrimination.

2. Fundamental Rights are not Absolute. Fundamental rights are not absolute. The Constitution imposes certain restrictions on these rights.

3. Fundamental Rights can be suspended. Fundamental Rights can be restricted or suspended as the circumstances demand.

4. Fundamental Rights are Justiciable. These are justiciable. Art. 32 of the Constitution provides that if state or any other authority encroaches upon the rights of a person, the later can move to the Supreme Court and the High Courts for the enforcement of his rights.

5. No Natural Right is enumerated in the Constitution. The Indian Bill of Rights is not based on the theory of natural rights. Our Fundamental Rights have been specified in the Constitution. A Right which is not incorporated in Part III is not fundamental right.

6. These can be Amended. Fundamental Rights can be amended by the procedure given in Article 368. According to this Article, only Parliament is competent to amend the provisions of the Fundamental Rights with two-third majority of the total membership of the Parliament.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the provisions made under Articles 20-22.
Answer:
The Right to Freedom is regarded as the most fundamental right. Articles 19 to 22 deal with this right. Article 19 provides six freedoms: freedom of speech and expression; freedom of assembly; freedom of association; freedom of movement; freedom of residence and settlement; freedom of profession, occupation, trade or business. These freedoms are not absolute. The guarantee of each of these freedoms is limited by the Constitution.

Personal Liberty. Articles 20-22 aim at protecting the individual’s life and personal liberty.
(a) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law.
(b) No person shall be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law.
(c) No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
(d) The State shall not deny to any person equality before law.
(e) No person can be arrested in an arbitrary manner, nor can he be detained for an indefinite period.
(f) The Constitution also provides some safeguards to persons arrested under the preventive detention law.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the provisions made under Articles 25-28 with reference to the right to freedom of religion.
Answer:

Under Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution, citizens are given freedom of religion. Article 25 gives citizens the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Article 26 gives every one the freedom to manage religious affairs.
Article 26 gives the citizens freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
Article 28 gives the freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions. It also says that [28(1)] no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of state funds.

Question 4.
What do you know about right to constitutional remedies? Explain in brief.
Answer:
Right to Constitutional Remedies is the most significant right mentioned in the Constitution. This right is often described as the most fundamental of all the Fundamental Rights. Because all other rights given under part-III of the Constitution would become meaningless without this right. Our other rights are not only implemented by this right but safeguarded also. That is why many constitutional experts describe this right as the heart and soul of Fundamental Rights.

VII. Match the following:

Question 1.

Activity	Mach Options
(a) Article 15	(i) Freedom to profess any Religion, Freedom to Belief
(b) Article 23	(ii) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Article 32	(iii) Right to Free and Compulsory Education
(d) Article 22	(iv) prohibition of Discrimination
(e) Article 21A	(v) Prevention of Forced Labour and Traffic in Human beings
(f) Article 25	(vi) Rights to Prisoners of Conscience.

Answer:

Activity	Mach Options
(a) Article 15	(iv) prohibition of Discrimination
(b) Article 23	(v) Prevention of Forced Labour and Traffic in Human beings
(c) Article 32	(ii) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Article 22	(vi) Rights to Prisoners of Conscience.
(e) Article 21A	(iii) Right to Free and Compulsory Education
(f) Article 25	(i) Freedom to profess any Religion, Freedom to Belief

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Fundamental Rights of Citizen Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What is required for humans?
(a) Violence
(b) Ignorance
(c) Rights
(d) Unemployment.
Answer:
(c) Rights.

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given in part _________ of the Constitution.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth.
Answer:
(c) Third.

Question 3.
How many fundamental rights are given in the Constitution?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8.
Answer:
(b) 6.

Question 4.
Right to Freedom is given under Articles _________
(a) 14-18
(b) 19-22
(c) 23-24
(d) 25-28.
Answer:
(b) 19-22.

Question 5.
Right to Equality is given under Articles _________
(a) 14-18
(b) 19-22
(c) 23-24
(d) 25-28.
Answer:
(a) 14-18.

Question 6.
Articles _________ give us right against exploitation.
(a) 14-18
(b) 19-22
(c) 23-24
(d) 25-28.
Answer:
(c) 23-24.

Question 7.
Right to freedom of religion is given under Articles _________
(a) 23-24
(b) 25-28
(c) 14-18
(d) 19-22.
Answer:
(b) 25-28.

Question 8.
Right to constitutional remedies is given under Article _________
(a) 32
(b) 31
(c) 30
(d) 29.
Answer:
(a) 32.

Question 9.
Article _________ of the Constitution has abolished untouchability.
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18.
Answer:
(c) 17.

Question 10.
Which type of State is India?
(a) Secular State
(b) Hindu State
(c) Muslim State
(d) Sikh State.
Answer:
(a) Secular.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
In _________ A.D., Bal Gangadhar Tilak asked the British to pass Swaraj Bill.
Answer:
1895

Question 2.
In 1946 A.D _________ supported to give fundamental rights to Indian citizens.
Answer:
cabinet mission

Question 3.
Right to property was made a legal right with _________ constitutional amendment.
Answer:
44th

Question 4.
Right to education is kept under article _________
Answer:
21-A

Question 5.
_________ is abolished with Artick 17.
Answer:
untouchability

Question 6.
Article _________ gives us equality before law.
Answer:
15

Question 7. Right to constitutional remedies is given under article
Answer:
32.

True/False:

Question 1.
Rights create obstacles in life.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given under Articles 14-32.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Article 15 prohibits any type of discrimination.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Under Article 19, the freedoms are given to the citizens.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
We don’t have freedom to choose occupation.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Article 24 is for the protection of children.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are rights?
Answer:
Humans need certain facilities for their development and such facilities are called rights.

Question 2.
Give one definition of rights.
Answer:
According to Bosanquet, “A right is a claim recognized by the society and enforced by state.”

Question 3.
Give an important fact of rights.
Answer:
Rights are given by society and enforced by state.

Question 4.
Give one feature of rights.
Answer:
Rights are the claims of independence to do any work which one gets from society.

Question 5.
What are legal rights?
Answer:
Legal rights are the rights which are sanctioned by the state and that person is punished who tries to disobey them.

Question 6.
Give two important political rights of citizens.
Answer:

Right to vote
Right to contest elections.

Question 7.
Give meaning of fundamental rights.
Answer:
The legal rights explained in the Constitution are called fundamental rights.

Question 8.
Why are rights necessary for an individual?
Answer:
Because they greatly help in all-round development of an individual.

Question 9.
In which part and articles of the Constitution .fundamental rights are mentioned?
Answer:
In 3rd part and under 12-35 Articles.

Question 10.
How many fundamental rights are given to the Indian citizens?
Answer:
Six fundamental rights (after 44th amendment).

Question 11.
With which fundamental right articles 14-18 are related?
Answer:
Articles 14-18 are related to the right to equality.

Question 12.
Under which articles, right to freedom is given?
Answer:
Right to freedom is given under articles 19-22.

Question 13.
Under which articles, right to freedom of religion is given?
Answer:
Articles 25-28.

Question 14.
Under which articles, the right against exploitation is given?
Answer:
Articles 23-24.

Question 15.
What do you mean by right to constitutional remedies?
Answer:
According to Article 32, if any one’s rights are violated then under this right, one can approach court to get his rights.

Question 16.
Give one feature of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Fundamental rights are justiciable and one can approach court if they are violated.

Question 17.
What do you mean by equality before law?
Answer:
It means that every one is equal in front of law and mo one can be discriminated on any basis.

Question 18.
Which titles can be given to the Indian citizens?
Answer:
Educational and Military titles.

Question 19.
Name any two freedoms given under Article 19.
Answer:

Freedom of speech and expression.
Freedom to form association.

Question 20.
Give one feature of right against exploitation.
Answer:
No one can force any one to do begar and no one can sell ahd purchase humans.

Question 21.
What is meant by right to freedom of religion?
Answer:
People are free to adopt, profess and propagate any religion arid they are free to establish religious institutions.

Question 22.
Name any two fundamental rights which make India a sec ular state.
Answer:

Under right to equality, all the citizens are given equal rights.
All the Indians are free to adopt any religion.

Question 23.
What is meant by cultural and educational right?
Answer:
Minorities are free to protect their language, script and culture and are free to establish educational institutions.

Question 24.
Name any two writs which can be filed in the Supreme Court to implement fundamental rights.
Answer:

Habeas Corpus
Mandamus.

Question 25.
With which constitutional amendment, the right to property was made the legal right?
Answer:
44th constitutional amendment.

Question 26.
Is there any limitation on fundamental rights?
Answer:
Yes, the Constitution has kept certain restrictions on fundamental rights. Parliament can limit them with the constitutional amendment.

Question 27.
What is meant by Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
Habeas Corpus is a Latin word that means “Let us have the body”.

Question 28.
What do you mean by Mandamus?
Answer:
Mandamus is a Latin word which means ‘We command’.

Question 29.
With which Article the Parliament is stopped to restrict fundamental rights?
Answer:
With Article 13, the Parliament is stopped from restricting fundamental rights.

Question 30.
Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during emergency?
Answer:
The right of individual freedom cannot be suspended even during emergency.

Question 31.
With which constitutional amendment the right to education was included in fundamental rights?
Answer:
With 86th constitutional amendment.

Question 32.
Who appoints the chief justice of India and other judges of Supreme Court?
Answer:
They all are appointed by the President.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Rights.
Answer:
Rights are those conditions of social life without which human personality cannot develop. The rights are recognised by the state. According to Bosanquet, “A right is a claim recognised by society and enforced by the state.”

Question 2.
Give two features of rights.
Answer:

Rights are possible only in society: There is no existence of rights out of society and they are not required as well.
Rights are limited: Rights cannot be unlimited and they are restricted powers which are necessary for individual development.

Question 3.
Give two definitions of rights.
Answer:

According to T.H. Green, “Rights are those powers which are necessary for the fulfilment of man’s vocation as a moral being.”
According to Wilde, “A right is a reasonable claim to the freedom in the exercise of certain activities.”

Question 4.
Give types of rights.
Answer:
Rights are of three types: Natural, Moral, and Legal.

Natural Rights: These are the rights which one gets from nature itself.
Moral Rights: Moral rights are based on one’s moral values. Such rights don’t have any legal sanction.
Legal Rights: Legal rights are sanctioned by the state. Law of the state implements such laws.

Legal rights are of four types:

fundamental rights,
social rights,
political rights and
economic rights.

Question 5.
Give two features of the fundamental rights given in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

Detailed rights. Fundamental rights given in. the Constitution are quite wide in scope. Citizens are given 6 fundamental rights and each right is explained in detail.
Right are for all the citizens. Fundamental rights given in the Constitution are for all citizens and no discrimination takes place while providing these rights.

Question 6.
What is meant by fundamental rights?
Answer:
Such legal rights which are given in the Constitution are known as fundamental rights. These are such rights which one gets right away after his birth and which are considered necessary for individual development. Citizens of India, U.S.A., Japan, France and other democratic countries are given fundamental rights.

Question 7.
Explain any two fundamental rights given to the Indian citizens.
Answer:

Equality before Law. Equality before law means that all are equal before law and that the law does not discriminate against any one on the grounds of birth, wealth, caste, creed, religion, etc. Equality before law ensures the rule of law in the country.
Right to Freedom of Religion. Right to Freedom of Religion means that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion.

Question 8.
Write down the names of Fundamental Rights given in our Constitution.
Answer:
Part III of our Constitution mentions the following Fundamental Rights :

Right to Equality
Right to Freedom.
Right against Exploitation.
Right to Freedom of Religion.
Cultural and Educational Rights.
Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 9.
Why was the Right to Property deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
Right to Property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights because the right to property created obstacle in the goal of the achievement of socialist pattern of society. The word ‘Compensation’ was a great stumbling block. The Supreme Court struck down the Anti-Zamindari Laws. Hence by 44th Amendment, Right to Property was deleted.

Question 10.
Mention any two conditions under which ‘Fundamental Rights’ can be restricted.
Answer:

During the proclamation of emergency caused by external aggression or armed rebellion, the President can by order suspend Fundamental Rights and their enforcement in the courts of law.
During emergency caused by internal disturbance, Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended in the disturbed area.

Question 11.
Give any two demerits of the fundamental rights given in the Constitution.
Answer:

Too much restriction. So many restrictions have been kept on the fundamental rights that their importance is reduced. There are so many restrictions on these rights that it is quite difficult for the citizens to understand the facilities given to them.
Lack of economic rights. Fundamental rights are also criticised on the base that no economic right is given in them. But in socialist countries, they are given to the citizens.

Question 12.
Why are rights necessary to the individuals?
Answer:
Rights are necessary to the individuals because man can develop all his mental, physical and spiritual qualities only if he is given certain rights and privileges by the State. Each State gives certain rights to the citizens which are essential for the development of the personality of the individuals. In brief, we can say that rights are essential for all round development of the individuals.

Question 13.
Differentiate between fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy.
Answer:

Fundamental rights are justiciable but directive principles are not. Fundamental rights can be implemented by the courts but not the directive principles.
The objective of fundamental rights is political democracy but the objective of directive principles is economic democracy.
Fundamental rights are the rights of people but directive principles are duties of the state.
Fundamental rights can be restricted but directive principles cannot be restricted.

Question 14.
What provisions are kept under Articles 23 and 24?
Answer:
The Constitution of India recognises the dignity of the individual and protects him against any form of exploitation either by the State or by the privileged class in the Society. Traffic in human beings (i.e.) selling and buying of human beings and begar (forced labour) are prohibited. The Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory or mine. Children are the future of the country ; hence they must be protected against any form of exploitation.

Question 15.
According to the right to constitutional remedies, which orders judiciary can issue?
Answer:
The Supreme Court and High Courts can issue five types of writs under Article 32 of the Constitution.

These writs are:

Writ of Habeas Corpus,
Writ of Mandamus,
Writ of Quo-Warranto,
Writ of Prohibition,
Writ of Certiorari.

Question 16.
Which provisions are kept under Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
1. Article-29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part’thereof having distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have right to conserve the same.

2. Article-30 provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The State shall not in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority.

Question 17.
What is meant by Mandamus?
Answer:
‘Mandamus’ is a Latin word which means ‘We command’. Mandamus is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform an act, which falls within its duty. This writ does not apply to the President and the Governors.

Question 18.
Why are Fundamental Rights enumerated in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are included in the Constitution to uphold the dignity of the individual. The object of enshrining Fundamental Rights in the Constitution is to sustain the proposition that the system of government recognised by the Constitution embodies the concept of limited government (i.e.) a government of laws and not of men. Another very important reason for the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India is to create a climate of trust and confidence in the minds of minorities living in the country.

Question 19.
Explain the idea of equality before law.
Answer:
The meaning of equality before law is that every one is equal in front of law and no one is given special rights. No one is above the law of land. Everyone, irrespective of his/her position, is under law and he can be tried in the court of law.

Law will not discriminate with any one on any basis. Another meaning of equality before law is under normal circumstances, everyone will be treated equally.

Question 20.
Explain the right to freedom of speech and expression.
Answer:
Everyone is given the freedom of speech and expression. Anyone can express his views by giving speech or in writing. Freedom of press, giving speech are the methods of freedom of expression. But if any one will try to raise question mark on the sovereignty or integrity of the country, provoking violence or give speech to provoke the people to work against the state, it is strictly prohibited.

Question 21.
Explain the meaning of Writ of Quo-warranto.
Answer:
The writ of quo-warranto is used to prevent illegal assumption of any public office or usurpation of any public office by anybody. For example, a person of 60 years is appointed to fill a public office whereas the retirement age is 55. Now the appropriate High Court has a right to issue a writ of quo-warranto against that person and declare the office vacant.

Question 22.
Explain the Right to Education.
Answer:
In December, 2002, 86th constitutional amendment was passed and Article 21A was added in the Constitution. Under this Article, right to education was kept. Under this system, arrangements were made that all the children within the age group of 6 to 14 years must have the fundamental right of education. Along with this, arrangements were also made that it is the responsibility a of the parents to provide such opportunities to their children, with which they can get education. Government will also’make arrangements for providing education to the children above 6 years.

Question 23.
What is meant by independence of judiciary?
Answer:
The meaning of independence of judiciary is that the judges must be free, impartial and without any fear or pressure. Judges can only do impartial justice when they are not under any type of pressure. Judiciary must not be kept under legislature and executive and they must not have any right to interfere in the normal functioning of judiciary.

Question 24.
Write a short note on Supreme Court as the protector of Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Constitution makes the Supreme Court the ultimate guardian of Fundamental Rights and liberties of the people. Rights of the people have no meaning if they are not backed and upheld by judiciary. It is both the jurisdiction as well as the responsibility of Supreme Court to issue orders, directions and writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus. Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari, or any of them for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. However, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. State High Courts have also been given similar powers.

Question 25.
What steps have been taken to make independent Judiciary in India?
Answer:

In India method of the appointment of the judges is deviced in such a way that only able persons could become the judges.
The judges of Supreme Court and High Courts are given a very good salary.
The judges are kept in service for a pretty long period.
Legal qualifications have been prescribed to become the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
Judiciary has been given vast powers in India.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Rights? Explain its features.
Answer:
Humans need certain facilities for their development. They get these facilities only in society and such facilities are called rights. In simple words, rights are those facilities and opportunities which are very much necessary for the development of one’s personality. These rights are sanctioned by society. In other words, rights are those facilities with which we get authority to do or not to do any work.

Different authors have defined rights and their definitions are :

According to Green, “Rights are those powers which are necessary for the fulfilment of man’s vocation as a moral being.”
According to Bosanquet, “A right is a claim recognised by the society and enforced by state.”
According to Prof. Laski, “Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek to be himself at his best.”

Features:

Rights are possible only in society.
Rights are sanctioned by society.
Rights are claims of human beings.
Rights are logical and moral.
Rights are not unlimited.
Rights are used in public welfare.
Duties are also attached with rights.

Question 2.
Write an essay on ‘Fundamental Rights’ as incorporated in our Constitution.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights enumerated in the Indian Constitution are the most elaborate in the world. The Constitution of India provides for Fundamental Rights by developing a complete and separate Part (Part III) and classifies them under six categories. Six Fundamental Rights are as follows :
1. Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18.)
The Constitution declares all the citizens of India to be equal in the eyes of law. Law provides equal protection to all. The positive concept of equality is that special privileges of all kinds should be abolished. Untouchability is abolished.

2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22).
Articles 19-22 of the Constitution guarantee to the citizens Rights of Freedom. Article 19 guarantees six freedoms viz.

Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression;
Right to assemble peacefully and without arms;
Right to form Associations;
Right to move freely throughout the territory of India;
Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
Right to practise any profession. Articles 20 to 22 guarantee personal liberty.

3. Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24).
The Constitution of India recognises the dignity of the individual and protects him against any form of exploitation either by the State or by the privileged classes in the society. Art. 23 provides that traffic in human beings and begar (forced labour) and similar other forms of forced labour are prohibited.

Art. 24. prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in any factory, mine or any other hazardous (dangerous) employment.

4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28).
Articles 25-28 deal with the right to freedom of religion, Right to freedom of religion has been guaranteed to all persons residing in India. Art. 25 provides that subject to public order, morality and health, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion.

Art. 28 prohibits imparting of religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.

5. Cultural and Educational Rights. (Articles 29 and 30.)
Under Articles 29 and 30, the Constitution guarantees certain cultural and educational rights. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.

The Constitution protects the interests of the minorities in India. The Constitution provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

6. Right to Constitutional Remedies. (Article 32.)
Art. 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.

Question 3.
Discuss the Right to Equality as given in the Constitution.
Answer:
Right to Equality is the cornerstone of democracy: The Right to Equality is covered mainly by Articles 14-18. The

Right to Equality means :
1. Equality Before Law. Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees all persons equality before law and equal protection of law within the territory of India. There can be no discrimination between one citizen and another on the basis of caste, class, creed, sex or any of them. This ensures the Rule of Law in the country.

2. No Discrimination: Art. 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. The same Article provides that all the citizens shall have access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment, the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, etc.

3. Equality of Opportunity. The Constitution guarantees equality of opportunities for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for or discriminated against, in respect of any employment or office under the State.

4. Abolition of Untouchability. Untouchability has been a bane of the Indian society. Social Justice is impossible to achieve where untouchability is practised in any form. Article 17 abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form is forbidden.

5. Abolition of Titles. Art. 18 provides that no title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State. The Constitution prohibits citizens of India from accepting any title from any foreign country.

Fundamental Rights of Citizen PSEB 9th Class SST Notes

While living in society, people enjoy many facilities such as equality, expression of speech, to move anywhere, to adopt any occupation, to follow any religion etc. Such facilities are called rights.
We can say that the rights are such genuine demands of an individual or group of individuals which are recognized by society and state.
To give citizens a happy life and to maintain dignity of individuals, our Constitution has given us few rights which are known as fundamental rights. These are given in the 3rd part and under Articles 12-35 of the Constitution.
Our rights are quite lengthy and extensive, positive and negative, they are limited but justiceable and they cannot be violated.
Initially the Indian citizens were given seven fundamental rights out of which right to property was deleted in 1978 through 44th constitutional amendment and was made a legal right Consequently this number came down to six.
In 2002, through 86th constitutional amendment, children were given Right to Education (RTE) and it was kept under Article 21 A.
We are given six fundamental rights and these are :
(i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
(ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
(iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
(iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
(v) Cultural and Educational Right (Articles 29-30)
(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedy (Articles 32)
In our country, many provisions are kept to maintain security and independence of judiciary. This is done so that judiciary must give its decisions without any fear.
Our courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) are given the power of judicial review. It means that the judiciary can check any law made by legislature. If it feels that the law made by legislature is against the basic structure of the Constitution, it can declare that law illegal (null and void).
The power of judicial review is given so that the different organs of government must work according to their jurisdiction and according to the spirit of Constitution.
Fundamental Rights are fundamental because they are very much necessary for the all-around development of an individual.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Democracy and Election Politics Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the
Answer:
President.

Question 2.
First Lok Sabha Elections were held in _________
Answer:
1952.

Question 3.
Elected Member of Parliament is known as _________ in India.
Answer:
M.P.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
People’s representatives are
(i) Appointed
(ii) Elected by the people for a specific period
(iii) Permanently elected by the people
(iv) Selected by the President.
Answer:
(ii) Elected by the people for a specific period.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the pillar of Democracy?
(i) Political Parties
(ii) Fair and free elections
(iii) Poverty
(iv) Adult Suffrage.
Answer:
(iii) Poverty.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) Statements :

Question 1.
There is a Multi Party System in India.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The function of Election Commission is to direct, to control and to supervise the election.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the designation of the elected representatives of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
They are called Panch.

Question 2.
What is the designation of the elected representatives of the State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
They are designated as M.L.A.

Question 3.
Give the names of the election methods.
Answer:
Direct elections and Indirect elections.

Question 4.
Name the election method by which President and Vice President of India are elected.
Answer:
They are elected by indirect elections. They are elected by the representatives of the people.

Question 5.
Which institution is responsible for holding elections in India?
Answer:
Election Commission is responsible for holding elections in India.

Question 6.
Enumerate any two features of Indian Electoral System.
Answer:

Elections in India are conducted on the basis of adult franchise.
One candidate is elected from one electoral constituency.

Question 7.
Where can the petition regarding election dispute be filed?
Answer:
Election dispute related petition can be filed in the High Court.

Question 8.
Describe any two functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

Election Commission prepares voters’ list and even changes it from time to time.
Election Commission gives recognition to different political parties.

Question 9.
How many seats are there in Punjab for State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
There are 117 seats in Punjab State Legislative Assembly.

Question 10.
Who conducts the election process in India?
Answer:
The election process in India is conducted by the Election Commission in India. .

Question 11.
Who appoints the election commissioner and deputy election commissioners?
Answer:
They are appointed by the President of India.

Question 12.
What is the tenure of the office of the Chief Election Commissioner and Deputy Election Commissioners? °
Answer:
They are appointed for a period of 6 years or’till they attain the age of 65 years whichever comes earlier.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the significance of election in democratic countries.
Answer:

Without election, democracy is not possible. Without election, rule of the people is neither possible nor desirable.
Without election it is not possible to select the representatives. It is not possible for all the people to sit at one place and select the representatives on the basis of knowledge and education. Hence elections are needed for a democratic system.

Question 2.
Draw the flow chart of the stages of election process.
Answer:

Demarcation of the constituencies
Declaration of date of election
Filing of the nomination form
Withdrawal of nomination form
Election campaign
Closure of canvassing
Polling of votes
Counting of votes
Declaration of results.

Question 3.
What is meant by election campaign?
Answer:
After the last date of the withdrawal of nomination papers, all the candidates are given minimum of 20 days for canvassing. It is called election campaign. During the time of election campaign, all the candidates campaign for themselves to get maximum votes. Political parties and candidates announce their election manifesto to impress the public. Big promises are made with the public. Election campaign comes to an end 48 hours before the beginning of elections.

Question 4.
What do you mean by booth capturing?
Answer:
Enclosure of polling booth by one person or a group, forcing the polling staff to surrender, forcible possession on the polling booth is called booth capturing. According to law if anyone forcibly does so he will get minimum of 6 months of imprisonent and fine and the punishment can be increased upto 2 years. If any government official does so, he will get imprisonment of one year along with fine. This punishment can be increased up to 3 years.

Question 5.
Describe the role of political parties in election.
Answer:
In a train called democracy, political parties act as its wheels without which elections are not possible. We cannot think democracy without political parties. Whichever type of government is there, political parties are always there. It hardly matters whether a dictatorship like North Korea is there or a democratic set up like India, political parties are always there. In India, there is multiparty system. In India, there are 7 National parties and about 58 regional parties. If one counts all the political parties registered with the Election Commission, this number reaches up to 1700.

Question 6.
Name any four National Political Parties.
Answer:

Indian National Congress
Bhartiya Janta Party
Bahujan Samaj Party
Communist Party of India.

Question 7.
Name any four Regional Political Parties.
Answer:

Shiromani Akali Dal (Punjab)
Shiv Sena (Maharashtra)
Aam Aadmi Party (Delhi and Punjab)
Telugu Desham Party (Andhra Pradesh.)

Question 8.
How can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed from his office?
Answer:
The tenure of Chief Election Commissioner is 6 years or age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier but he can be removed even before the completion of his term. If both the houses of Parliament pass a censure motion with two-third majority and send that motion to the President, who can then remove him from his post.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the salient features of Indian Electoral System.
Answer:
The main features of Indian Electoral System are :

Universal Adult Franchise: In India the system of universal adult franchise has been adopted for the election of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than eighteen years of age has the right to exercise his/her vote in election of members of the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies.
Direct Election: The Constitution provides for the system of direct election of the members of the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly of every state by the eligible voters.
Joint Electoral System: The Constitution of India provides for a system of joint electorates. Under the joint electorate system every voter in constituency is entitled to participate in electing representative from the constituency.
Single Member Constituency: The Constitution of India provides for a single member constituency. For this purpose the entire country is divided in 543 contituencies. Belonging voters elect their representatives. But only one representative represents his/her constitutency.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the function of Election Commission.
Answer:

Election Commission supervises, directs and controls the elections. Such elections include elections to Parliament, the legislature of every state and to the offices of the President and Vice-President.
Election Commission prepares electoral rolls and delimitations of constituencies. It also considers the objections raised in this regard. Revision of electoral rolls takes place before every general elections.
Election Commission appoints returning officers and assistant returning officers to conduct the election.
Election Commission allots election symbols to political parties and to the independent candidates.
The Election Commission is responsible to conduct free and fair election.
The Election Commission is authorised to recognise a political party.
The Election Commission fixes the timetable for the election.
The Election Commission prepares a code of conduct for all political parties and candidates and independent candidates who. are contesting election.
All election results are announced by the Election Commissioner.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the stages of Election Process.
Answer:
India is a democratic country. But India has adopted indirect democracy. The administration is run by the representatives of the people, who are elected for a fixed term. In India election procedure is as follows :

Constituencies: The first important task in election is delimitation of constituencies.
List of Voters: First, a temporary list of voters is prepared. If anybody’s name is excluded in the list, he can ask for inclusion of his/her name. But such a request is to by made within a fixed time.
Appointment: Senior and Junior staff for election purposes are appointed and supervised.
Polling Station: In each constitutency polling stations are established and fixed number of voters are directed to cast their votes there.
Filing of the Nomination Papers: After the appointment of the date of election, nomination papers are field in favour of candidate.
Withdrawal of Nomination: Candidates are allowed to withdraw their name from election. But this is to be done befsore the last date for withdrawal.
Scrutiny and Objections: On the fixed date nominations papers are scrutinised and those papers, which are not proper, are rejected and the names of eligible candidates are announced.
Propaganda. With the announcement of election, political parties and independent candidates start propaganda and try to influence the voters.
Polling: On the day of the polling, holiday is declared so that each voter can cast his vote. At polling booth voters are given ballot paper and the voter stamps against the name of the candidate, whom he/she wants to vote. After that the voter puts the ballot paper in the ballot box.
Counting of Votes: On the fixed date, ballot boxes are opened in the presence of the representatives of the candidates and votes are counted. A candidate getting the highest votes is declared elected. If a candidate fails to get one-sixth of the votes then he loses his security also.

Question 4.
Write a note on the importance of Elections.
Answer:
The election system is a political device through which a democratic state creates among its citizens a sense of involvement and participation in public affairs. The importance of election is as under :

Elections give chance to voters to take part in the political affairs of the country.
The election serves as a plebiscite, referendum or a mandate. Elections are the instruments for choosing the leaders and also determining the will of the people. Through election voters approve or reject the policies of the government.
Rosenan uses the term support-building as an all-embracing function of election. Through election legitimacy of the government is established.
Elections provide political stability.
Another important function of the elections is to bring the individual citizen into closer contact with the political system. It gives them the feeling that they are important part of the political system of the country.
Elections provide a means of protection to every voter.
Elections provide education to the voters. In fact, elections are training grounds for the people in the art of government.
Elections serve important functions in the area of political recruitment and training.
Elections are important agencies of political communications between the people and the government.
In a democratic state, elections are the means through which the will of people is expressed. Voters decide who shall govern them. Conflicts are decided by ballots and not by bullets.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Democracy and Election Politics Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What type of democracy exists in India?
(а) Representative Democracy
(b) Direct Democracy
(c) Monarchical Democracy
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Representative Democracy.

Question 2.
After how many years elections in India are held for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
(a) 2 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 7 years.
Answer:
(c) 5 years.

Question 3.
What is the age to cast vote in India?
(a) 15 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 25 years.
Answer:
(b) 18 years.

Question 4.
Election Commission has members.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(c) 3.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Vice President.
Answer:
(a) President.

Question 6.
How many Lok Sabha elections have been conducted till today?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 16.
Answer:
(d) 16.

Question 7.
When were first elections held in India?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1955.
Answer:
(c) 1952.

Question 8.
When were 16th Lok Sabha elections held in India?
(a) 2006
(b) 2008
(c) 2007
(d) 2014.
Answer:
(d) 2014.

Question 9.
Name the state which used voter’s card for the first time.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Haryana.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_________ are of great importance in a democratic country.
Answer:
Elections

Question 2.
Chief Election Commissioner is appointed for_______ years.
Answer:
Six

Question 3.
Elections of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are held after _________ years.
Answer:
Five

Question 4.
There are _________ national parties in India.
Answer:
Seven

Question 5.
The elected members of Municipalities are known as _________
Answer:
Municipal Councillors

Question 6.
Election Commissioners are appointed by the _________
Answer:
President.

True/False:

Question 1.
Prime Minister can remove Chief Election Commissioner.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Elections are conducted by the government.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Elected members of Lok Sabha are known as M.L.A.S.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The function of amending voters’ list is of the Election Commission.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Election Commission gives sanction to political parties.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which system of government was adopted in India in 1950?
Answer:
Democratic form of government.

Question 2.
Which representative system is adopted in India?
Answer:
Regional Representative System.

Question 3.
After how many years elections for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly are held?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 4.
How many members of Lok Sabha are elected by the people?
Answer:
543.

Question 5.
Give one condition of democratic elections.
Answer:
Every one has the right to cast one vote and value of each vote is same.

Question 6.
Give one demerit of electoral competition.
Answer:
It leads to the creation of factionalism in the constituency.

Question 7.
What do you understand by general election?
Answer:
When election takes place after a fixed term, it is called general election. It is a democratic method used for choosing people’s representatives.

Question 8.
What is mid-term election?
Answer:
When the general election is held before the completion of term, it is called mid-term election.

Question 9.
What is by-election?
Answer:
When election is held to fill a particular seat, it is called by-election.

Question 10.
Give one feature of the Indian election system.
Answer:
Integrated election system is adopted in India.

Question 11.
Who is a voter in India?
Answer:
One who is of the age of 18 years and is registered with the election commission is a voter.

Question 12.
What is meant by voters’ list?
Answer:
The list in which names of voters’ of a constituency are given is known as Voters’ List.

Question 13.
Can Election Commission derecognise any political party?
Answer:
Yes, Election Commission can derecognise any National or regional party if they are unable to fulfil the required conditions.

Question 14.
In which part and Articles of the Constitution, the mention of Election is given?
Answer:
15th part and Articles 324-329A.

Question 15.
How many members does Election Commission have?
Answer:
Election Commission has 3 members-Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

Question 16.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President.

Question 17.
Give the tenure of Election Commissioners.
Answer:
They are appointed for a time period of 6 years.

Question 18.
Give one functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Election Commission conducts elections in the country and prepares voters’ list.

Question 19.
What is the importance of Election Symbol?
Answer:
Many of the Indian voters are illiterate. That’s why, just by looking at election symbol, they can cast their vote to their candidate.

Question 20.
What is meant by Election Petition?
Answer:
If any candidate uses wrong means to win election, opposition parties can file a case in the High Court and this is known as election petition.

Question 21.
Who hears the dispute related petition to election?
Answer:
The petition related to the dispute of election is heard in the High Court or the Supreme Court.

Question 22.
Give one demerit of the Indian election system.
Answer:
Communalism greatly affects the election process which is an obstacle in the way of social progress.

Question 23.
Give one way of bringing reforms in Elections.
Answer:
Those who try to capture booths must be severely punished.

Question 24.
In which year the first elections were held in India?
Answer:
In 1952.

Question 25.
Give one election-related reforms done by the Indian Government.
Answer:
Through 61 constitutional amendment, the age of casting vote was changed from 21 to 18 years.

Question 26.
Which methods are used for election campaigning?
Answer:
Election manifesto, meetings, door to door campaigning etc.

Question 27.
When does election campaign end?
Answer:
48 hours before the election.

Question 28.
Who conducts election in the country?
Answer:
Election Commission.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any three qualities of the Indian voter.
Answer:

He must be the citizen of India.
He must be of the age of 18 years or more.
His name must be in the voters’ list.

Question 2.
Tell something about the nature of elections in India.
Answer:

Due to 16 general elections in the country, election-related consciousness has aroused among the people.
Now people have started taking interest in elections.
Voters have come to know about the policies and programmes of political parties.

Question 3.
Write a short note on election symbols.
Answer:
Election Commission allots symbols to political parties participating in elections. These symbols are identification of political parties. In India maximum voters are illiterate. So by recognising election symbol they choose their favourite party and give vote to that party.

Question 4.
How does the independence of Election Commission affect the functioning of Indian democracy?
Answer:
To conduct elections in the country, the Constitution has arranged for an independent Election Commission. The independence of Election Commission has greatly affected Indian democracy. Its independence has given great contribution in strengthening and making Indian democracy a successful democracy. Due to its independence, it has been able to conduct free and fair 16 Lok Sabha elections. Only due to independent and impartial elections, people have great faith in democracy.

Question 5.
Explain two reforms to change the election process in India.
Answer:
Following reforms are necessary in the Indian election process:

Impartiality: Elections must be conducted in a fair manner. Sitting government must not have any interference in election and it must not use official machinery to win elections.
Expenses: People spend much more money than the fixed amount to win elections. It must be stopped.

Question 6.
What do you ‘mean by the cancellation of election?
Answer:
The meaning of cancellation of election is that if during campaigning, any candidate dies due to some reason, election for that constituency stands cancelled. In 1992, a change was rpade in the People’s Representative Act and it was said that in case of death of any independent candidate, election will not be cancelled.

Question 7.
Explain any two stages of the election process in India.
Answer:
Given below are the two stages of the election process in India :

Electoral Notification: The election process is formally set into motion by a presidential announcement calling upon electors to elect their representatives to the Lok Sabha. At the same time the Election Commission issues notification specifying the timetable for nominations, scrutity, withdrawals and polling.
Filing of Nomination Papers: The Election Commission fixes last date for filing the nomination papers for election. The nomination papers of the candidates are filed with the returning officer appointed by the Election Commission.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give five arguments in favour of adult franchise in India.
Answer:

In democracy, power lies within the hands of the people. That’s why on the basis of equality, every one should have the right to vote.
The impact of laws is same on all the citizens. That’s why all the citizens must have the right to vote.
The right to vote is very much necessary for individual development.
The government elected through adult franchise is more powerful because it is a type of government which is elected through the constitutional means.
Adult franchise encourages political consciousness and people get political education with adult franchise.

Question 2.
Explain different methods of election campaign.
Answer:
As soon as Election Commission issues notification for the date of polling, different political parties and independent candidates start their election campaign within prescribed rules.

The following are the important techniques of election campaign :
1. Election Manifesto. Every main political party and sometimes independent candidates issue Election Manifesto. Election Manifesto is a document which contains the policies and programme of political parties. By comparing the election manifesto of the various political parties voters can understand the views and policies of different parties on different issues.

2. Public Meetings and Processions. Members of different political parties and candidates arrange public meetings and processions by which they try to persuade the voters in their favour through their speeches and personality. For example, Mr. Narender Modi, in his election campaign in 2014 of 45 days, addressed 285 scheduled public meetings, reaching out in person to more than 50 million people.

3. Wall-paintings’, Posters and Big Leaflets etc. Wall-paintings, posters etc. are other important techniques of election-campaign which not only make colourful different walls of cities, but also print the minds of common men.

4. T.V. and Radjo. In the present age, the most sophisticated way of campaigning is to broadcast speeches of leaders of political parties on T.V. and Radio. In 1977, it was started for the first time in India and the system continues till date.
5. Door to Door Canvassing. In this technique the leaders of different political parties go from door to door or area to area canvassing for their candidates.

6. Slogans. It is a very popular and influential technique of election campaign. In 1971, ‘Garibi Hatao’ and in 1980, ‘Indira Lao Desh Bachao’ were very popular slogans of Congress (I).

7. Flags and Banners. Flags and banners are another method of election campaign.

8. Loudspeakers and Gramophones. Different party-workers and candidates arrange different types of vechicles and fit loudspeakers and gramophones on them for noisy canvassing from mohalla to mohalla.

Question 3.
Write five reasons of less people’s participation in elections in India.
Answer:
Indian democracy is the largest democracy in the world. During the 16th Lok Sabha elections in 2014, the number of voters stood at more than 81 crore 40 lakhs. But many voters in India do not cast their vote.

The reasons for less people’s participation are given below :

Illiteracy: A large number of Indian population is illiterate. An illiterate person cannot understand the meaning of voting right and he even hardly knows how to cast his caste to the best candidate.
Poverty: Poor people cannot even think of contesting elections. They don’t even understand the importance of their vote and are even ready to sell their vote.
Unemployment: A lot many individuals are unemployed. They don’t understand the value of their vote and generally sell their vote to the candidate whosoever wish to buy it.
Non-participation in politics: People do not participate in political activities as they consider it a wastage of time.
Election booths situated at far off places: Many a time election booths are situated at far off places and people don’t like to move to such places only to cast their vote.

Question 4.
Explain the composition of the Election Commission.
Answer:
In the Election Commission, there can be a Chief Election Commissioner and few more other members. This number is fixed by the President. In 1989, Congress government appointed two more election commissioners but the government of National Front changed this decision. On 1st October, 1993, two new Election Commissioners, M.S. Gill and G.V.G. Krishnamurthy were appointed and an important step was taken for making it a three member Commission. In December 1993, the Indian Parliament passed a bill and made it a multi member Commission. The Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners (total of 3) are appointed by the President.

Question 5.
Mention main drawbacks in Indian electoral system.
Answer:
Following are the major drawbacks in Indian electoral system :
1. The distortion df Seat-Vote Ratio. The first and foremost defect of the present electoral system is that there is no relationship between the votes secured by a party and its stsrength in the Assembly or the Parliament. The number of seats secured by a particular party is not proportionate to the votes polled in their favour.

2. Money Power. Another important drawback of Indian electoral system is the growing influence of money in elections. The expenses incurred on elections are so huge that parties tend to give ticket to a millionaire. The high cost of electioneering has resulted in corrupt practices.

3. Independent Candidates. Independent candidates are also proving headache for Indian electoral system. These candidates join hands with any particular party according to opportunity.

4. Role of Caste. Right from the selection of a candidate by a party to the election of a legislator by the voters the caste factor plays a key role.

5. Misuse of Public Media. It is being alleged that the Congress was using the governmnt monopoly in radio and television for the party. This thing has gone a long way in helping the party in power by projecting its image. These public media have thus been abused.

6. Importance of Individual Candidates. The existing system of election gives more importance to the individual candidates than the political party. The result is that these important individuals dictate their terms for remaining in the party.

7. Defect in Single Member Constituency System. Election on the basis of single-member constituency system results in tension and bitterness among different sections of the population.

Question 6.
Examine the major suggestions for electoral reforms.
Answer:
Following remedies are suggested to improve the Indian Electoral System.

The present electoral system of single-member constituencies should be replaced by system of proportional representation.
Strict action should be taken against those who indulge in booth capturing and bogus voting.
There should be a provision for recall.
The elections including the polling should be so conducted that the people are in a position to exercise their franchise freely, without intimidation, coercion, interference, undue inducement by political parties and others.
The number of polling booths in a constituency should be increased.
The electoral rolls should be open for additions and deletions every three months after the general revision is completed.
Every effort should be made to check the role of money in elections.
Election petitions should be disposed of expeditiously. ‘
The state must share election expenses.
Ministers and other officials must not misuse the official machinery.
Eligible voters should be given identity cards.
The Election Commission has suggested that election need not be countermanded on the death of any candidate.
Every political party, registered with the Election Commission, should publish its accounts annually.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Physical Education Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When Indian Olympic Association came into existence?
Answer:
In 1927.

Question 2.
Who was the first president of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. Dorab Ji Jotsi.

Question 3.
Who was the first Assistant Secretory of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. J.D. Sondhi.

Question 4.
The Office Bearers of Indian Olympic Association are elected after five years. (Right or Wrong.)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
Write any more work of I.O.A.
Answer:
To organise competition of different games and provide the information to International Olympic Committe.

Question 6.
What do you mean I.O.A.
Answer:
International Olympic Association.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Question 7.
What stands for I.O.C?
Answer:
International Olympic Committee.

Question 8.
Write the name of one Sports Federations of your choice.
Answer:
Basket Ball Federation of India.

Question 9.
Name any two Indian Sport Federations which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:

Indian Hockey Federation.
All India Football Association.

Question 10.
Write any one objective of Indian Olympic Committee.
Answer:
To promote Olympic Movement and patronise Amateur sport.

Question 11.
Where were the first modern Olympic games held?
Answer:
They were held in Athens, Greece in 1981.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about C.K. Naidu Trophy.
Answer:
C.K. Naidu Trophy:
This tournament is organised by the Schools Games Federation of India every year. The trophy is named after a very outstanding and famous cricket player C.K. Naidu. This competition is for school boys and is conducted on knock-out basis. The losing team goes out of the tournament.

Question 2.
What do you know about Ranji Trophy?
Answer:
Ranji Trophy:
A meeting of sports lovers was held at Shimla in 1934 under the presidentship of Sir Sikandar Hyat. A proposal to conduct National Level Cricket Competition was discussed in this meeting. Maharaja Sir Bhupinder Singh of Patiala decided to donate a trophy in the name of Mr. Ranjit Singh, who was very outstanding cricketer, for the national level cricket tournament.

This competition is organised every year by the Cricket Control Board. It is organised on inter-state level on league basis. The winner teams of the states from their zone again play on knock out basis. The state of Maharashtra (Bombay) have won this trophy more than fifteen times. The Railways Sports Board also participate in the tournament.

Question 3.
Write few lines regarding Santosh Trophy.
Answer:
Santosh Trophy:
The king of Kooch Bihar Maharaja Santosh donated a trophy for National Football Competition which became very famous as Santosh Trophy. This tournament is organised by one of the members of Indian Football Association every year. All the different. states of India, Railways and Senior teams participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Bengal has won this trophy many times and Punjab won this championship in 1970 at Jalandhar.

Question 4.
What do you know about Rovers Cup?
Answer:
Rovers Cup:
This Football tournament is organised every year by Rovers Cup Tournament Committee. All good teams from different parts of the country participate in this competition which is organised as knock out cum league basis.

Question 5.
Write regarding Subroto Mukerjee Cup.
Answer:
Subroto Mukerjee Cup:
It is also known as Junior Durand Competition. This tournament is organised to commend the sweet memory of Air Marshall Subroto Mukerjee. This tournament is organised every year in Delhi by Durand Committee. In this tournament upto Sixteen year old players can take part. The very outstanding players of this tournament awarded scholarships by the Govt, of India.

Question 6.
Write a note on Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship)
Answer:
Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship):
Indian Hockey Association organised first National Hockey Championship in 1927. This competition is famous as National Hockey Competition. A citizen of Newzealand named Mooris presented a shield for the winners of National Competition in 1935. This competition was organised after every two years from 1928-1944.

In 1946 the Punjab state won this championship and the shield of this competition was lying with the then secretary of Mr. Bakshish Ali Sheikh. After the partition of India in 1947 this shield remained in Pakistan. After the partition the owners of “The Sports and Pastime” and “The Hindu” and Chennai (Madras) donated a new cup for this competition in the honour of Chief Editor Late Sh. Ranga Swami.

For this reason National Hockey Championship is known as Ranga Swami Cup Tournament. Since 1947, National Hockey Championship has been organised every year. Uttar Pradesh won this championship for first time and Punjab had an honour to win this championship in 1949. This competition was earlier organised on knock out basis but these days it is organised on League cum Knock out basis.

Question 7.
What do you know about Agha Khan Cup?
Answer:
Agha Khan Cup:
Maharaja Agha Khan had donated a cup in 1860 for the first time for the competition. This tournament became famous as Agha Khan Cup after his name. The Charlier Regiment won this cup permanently in 1912. Maharaj Agha Khan donated another cup for the competition. The winning team of this championship is awarded the same cup these days. The Bombay Gymkhana had an honour to win this cup for the first time. The Punjab Police won this Agha Khan cup in 1948. This tournament is organised by the Agha Khan tournament Committee. The most outstanding teams of India participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised as knock out basis.

Question 8.
Write about Bombay Gold Cup or All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition.
Answer:
Bombay Gold Cup:
Bombay state got prepared a Gold Cup worth 10,000/- from its provincial funds and donated it for the competition which became famous as Bombay Gold Cup Tournament. This competition is organised by the Bombay (Now Maharashtra) Hockey Association every year. Lousit Anion Club Bombay won this prestigious cup the first time. Punjab Hawks had an honour to win this cup in 1928. This competition is organised on knock cum league basis.

All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition:
This tournament originated in 1964 in the sacred memory of Late Prime Minister Sh. Jawahar Lal Nehru. In the sacred memory of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru this tournament was named Nehru Hockey Competition. This competition is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams participate in this tournament. Uttar Pradesh had the honour to win the inaugural championship. The prize distribution is performed by the President of India every year in this competition.

Question 9.
Write a note on the following:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition
2. Beigton Cup.
Answer:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition:
Nehru Hockey Tournament Committee organises this Junior Hockey Competition every year in Delhi. In this competition only 14-16 year old players can take part. The outstanding teams of different states participate in this tournament. The Education Dept, of Govt, of India gives scholarship to all outstanding sports persons. The final match of this tournament is played on 14th November on the birthday of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

2. Beigton Cup:
This is the oldest competition of our country which was organised for the first time in 1895. This cup was donated by Legal Advisor Sh. T.D. Beigton of Bengal. For this reason this tournament is known as Beigton Cup Tournament. Naval V.A.C. won this cup on the first occasion, Unfortunately this original cup was stolen from Railway Institute Asansole but Railway Institute has donated another same type of cup for the competition which is awarded to the winners of this tournament even today. This competition is organised every year by the West Bengal Hockey Association on knock out basis. Very outstanding teams take part in this competition. Punjab Police got an opportunity to win this cup in 1966.

Question 10.
What do you know about Durand Cup Competition?
Answer:
Durand Cup:
This cup was donated by the Foreign Secretary of British India Mr. Mortimor Durand in 1895 for the competition of British soldiers. Firstly this competition was played at Shimla. The name of this tournament was Shimla Tournament. This competiton was organised in Delhi after 1950. The Regiment of Black Begh won this cup permanently in 1899.

Afterwards Mr. Mortimor donated another cup for this competition. In this tournament after 1931, civilians teams also started taking part along with military teams. Patiala Tigers got opportunity to participate in this tournament as civilian team. This tournament is organised every year on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams of the country and abroad participate in this tournament.

Question 11.
Write a note on sports competitions in India.
Answer:
Everybody possesses a spirit of competition. This spirit inspires him to take steps forward for his progress in his life. This spirit also helps him to get honours in his life. The competitions were held in Ancient India, some of which were in very bad taste. In combat a player used to kill his opponent. But with the passage of time the spirit of brotherhood emerged in sports competitions. The competition satisfied the emotions of person these days. In these competitions he can get skill and become experts.

He become successful in his best performance in the field of sports. These competitions not only provide recreation but also make him healthy. In Ancient times. Horse Riding, Archery, Javelin throwing and wrestling were most popular activities. The competition of these events were organised. With the passage of time and due to the Britishers contact with Indians the game of Hockey, Foot Ball and Cricket became popular and national level competition of these games are organised these days.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in detail about Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Athens in 1896. Mr. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olymplic games. India took part in Olympic in 1900. The Indian Olympic Association. The Indian Olympic Association was founded in 1927. It came into existence with the efforts of Sh. A.G. Neohren and Mr. H.C. Buck. Its first President was Mr. Dorabji Tata. Mr. G.D. Sondhi was its Assistant Secretary. This Association has been working since 1927, and is affiliated to International Olympic Association.

Selection of Office Bearers:
The office bearers of this Association are selected for four years.,Nobody can hold a post for more than eight years. In other words, nobody can participate in the election for more than two terms. National Sports Federations and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective International Sports Federations. The National Federations have state-level bodies in their respective games such as State Olympic Association, etc. They control the organization of tournaments in states.

Working:
Its office bearers are elected every fourth year.
The following are the members of its Executive Council:

President
Seven Vice-Presidents
One General Secretary
Two Assistant Secretaries
One Honorary Treasurer
Five members are elected from among the representatives of State Olympic Associations.
Nine members are elected from among the representatives of National Federation/Associations and Service Sports Control Board.

The members of this association are elected for four years. No office bearer can hold his post for more than two consecutive terms or eight years.

Functions of Indian Olympic Association:

To organise Amateur Sport competition in India and conform them to the international Olympic Committee.
To make plans. To make short term and long term plans with the help and co-operation of State Olympic Association for non professional players.
To use Olympic Flag and the motto on behalf of India and settle all issues regarding dispute of any state Olympic Association and follow the Olympic chart.
To establish different state Olympic Associations in all states and supervise their expenditure.
To allow All Associations of different games to participate in international competitions and give financial assistance for these competitions.
This committee insists that every year Olympic week must be celebrated in the month of August. The Olympic movement and its Philosophy must be popularised among Indians.

Question 2.
Describe the main Objectives of Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Objectives:
This Association has been constituted with the following objectives in view:
1. For the progress of the Olympic Movement and development of Amateur Games.

2. For the encouragement and promotion of physical, moral and cultural education of the youth in order to make them good and healthy citizens of high character.

3. For enforcing all rules formulated by International Olympic Association.

4. To protect and enforce the right of the use of Olympic flag and insignia only by the association. To ensure that both remain confined to Olympic games.

5. To function fully like a government organization, and take hold of all the matters pertaining to the Olympic games in the country.

6. To apprise the countrymen with the value and importance of Amateur games.

7. To control all Indian sports teams and their organization with the co-operation of Indian Sports Federations and Associations the teams which fall under International Olympic Committee and which participate in Olympic games and such other games.

8. To enforce rules with the co-operation of national sports federations, and associations.

9. To maintain the high ideals of sports and promote the interest of the people in Olympic games and those games which are under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

10.To control all matters relating to India’s Participation in the Olympic games and those games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

11.To arrange with the co-operation of national sports federations and associations economic assistance, transportation, care and welfare of those Indian teams which take part in the Olympic games and other games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

12. It certifies Indian players participating in international competitions as regards to their amateur level.

13. It promotes the people’s interest in Olympic games, and towards this objective it forms Olympic Association in each state and a National Amateur Sports Federation.

14. It acts as a mediator between National Sports Federation and Indian Govt, for financial assistance.

15. It affiliates the state-level Olympic Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation. The state level Olympic

16. Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation send their annual reports to the International Olympic Association.

17. It initiates disciplinary action against that Federation that brings dishonour through some improper deed.

18. It will do anything to promote Amateur Sports and games.

Question 3.
What do you know about Olympic Chart?
Answer:
Olympic Chart:
All sports competitions at the national and international levels are organized under the supervision of National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association. There is no discrimination of caste, colour, and creed, etc. in it. But the Olympic Chart is silent over the question of governmental intervention in case National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association function in a way as to hurt the interests of sports in the country.

But the members of the International Olympic Committee have time and again said that the government which provides funds to various sports organization should remain vigilant as to how these funds are being utilized. The government can supervise the functioning of all sports bodies. The International Federation seeks the views of the government when National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to perform their duties, or when opposite Federations come into being.

The government of the country in which international games such as Asian Games are being held holds such responsibility. The government should provide adequate financial help to federations so that sports and games may be developed in the country. It should not remain a silent spectator if National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to discharge their duties properly, such as in the fair selection of teams and their training. Keeping in view these points, the government has framed certain guidelines for these sports bodies, but it is pity that many a time these guidelines are totally ignored.

Question 4.
Describe the functions of All Indian Sports Federations or State Sports Associations.
Answer:
All Indian Sports Federation and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective international sports Federation. All sports Federations have established their State Associations in all states of India just like state Olympic Association.

Functions:
1. To Conduct Competitions: To conduct senior and juniors sports competitions every year at district, state and national levels.

2. Planning: To frame a One-year and Four-year plans to prepare a national team.

3. To arrange equipment:
To arrange equipment and other essential items to raise the standard of games. If some items are to be imported from abroad, these are to be got through Indian Olympic Association or Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala with the help of Union Education Ministry.

4. Attendance of Selectors: It ensures the attendance of its selectors at the Senior or Junior level competitions at the state or national level.

5. Prepare and Publish List of Probabilities: To prepare and publish national and international probabilities.

6. To appoint National Coach: Each National Federation/ Association will appoint a National Coach.

7. Help in Selection of National Teams:
It will help Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.) to select national teams for international competitions.

8. To Frame Rules of Games: In co-operation with Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala, it frames rules of games.

9. Training of Umpires and Coaches:
It helps Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala and Indian Olympic Association in the training of umpires and coaches.

10. To Prepare a Panel of Selectors: It prepares a panel of selectors purely on merit basis.

11. Selection of Office Bearers:
The selection of its office bearers should be done according to the constitution of the Federation. At the time of selection it should invite one observer each from Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.)

12. Settling Disputes:
If there is some dispute in some Sports Federation, it is referred to I.O.A. or I.I.C.S. Its decision has to be obeyed. If there is some dispute between Indian Olympic Association and National Sports Federation, it is referred to and decided by All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.).

13. Audit of Accounts: It is the responsibility of the Federation to present the audited report of its accounts in time.

Question 5.
Write the names of different Associations of India which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Associations.
Answer:
Federations or Associations Regarding Different Games or Sports. The various Federations or Associations of different games or sports are as follow:

The Indian Hockey Federation, 1925
The All India Football Federation, 1937
The Swimming Federation of India, 1940
The Amateur Athletic Federation of India, 1544
The Wrestling Federation of India, 1948
The Volleyball Federation of India, 1951
The Basketball Federation of India, 1950
The National Rifle Association of India, 1953
The Gymnastic Federation of India, 1951
The Indian Amateur Boxing Federation, 1958
The National Cycle Federation, 1938
The Board of Control for Cricket in India, 1926
The All India Tennis Association, 1920
The Table Tennis Federation of India, 1938
The All India Badminton Association, 1934
The Indian Hand Ball Association, 1969-70
The Archery Association, 1968
The Kabaddi Federation of India, 1951-52
The Indian Polo Association, 1892
The Indian Weight Lifting Federation, 1935
The Indian Billiards Association, 1940
The Indian Squash Racket Association, 1953

In addition to the above Federations and Associations, there are some national level sports bodies which have their own identity-

The Service Sports Control Boards, 1919 (restructured in 1945)
School Games Federation of India, 1954
Inter Varsity Sports Control Board.
The Railway Sports Control Board.
All India Police Sports Council Board.

Similarly, there are associations of different games in different states. They are affiliated to National Sports Federation/Association. Their chief functions are to organise Inter-District sports competitions in their respective states, organize coaching camps, and ensure the participation of state teams in national level competitions.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

January 20, 2024January 19, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

PSEB 9th Class Science Guide Structure of the Atom Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare the properties of electron, proton and neutron.
Answer:

Particle	Charge (e)	Mass (m)	Charge/Mass (e/m)
Electron	– 1.6022 × 10¹⁹C	9.109 × 10²⁸g	– 1.76 × 10⁸
Proton	+ 1.6022 × 10^-19C	1.672 × 10^-24g	+ 9.58 × 10⁴
Neutron	Zero	1.675 × 10^-24g	Zero

Question 2.
What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson model of atom?
Answer:
Limitations of J.J. Thomson model of atom

It could not explain stability of the atom.
It could not explain hydrogen spectrum.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom?
Answer:
Limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom

It can’t explain stability of the atom.
It can’t explain hydrogen spectrum.

Question 4.
Describe Bohr’s model of atom.
Answer:
The main points of Bohr’s model of atom are:
1. An atom has three types of particles called fundamental particles. These are electrons, protons and neutrons.
2. The protons and neutrons are present in the nucleus, present in the centre. The electrons are present around the nucleus and at very large distances from it. There is a large vacant space between the nucleus and the electrons.
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 1
3. An atom is electrically neutral as the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.
4. The electrons are revolving around the nucleus in fixed circular paths which are called energy levels or energy shells or orbits. The energy levels or energy shells can be counted in two ways 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 or as K, L, M, N, O, P. The counting starts from the centre outwards.
5. The various energy levels are arranged in order of increasing energy. The order of energy is 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 < 5 or K < L < M < N < O ………..
6. The energy of an electron in an atom is quantised.
7. There is no change in the energy of the electrons as long as they keep on revolving in the same energy level.
8. The angular momentum of an electron in an atom is quantised.
9. The change in energy can take place only when the electron jumps from one energy level to the other. If the electron gains energy from outside, it jumps from lower energy to the higher energy level. If the electron jumps from higher energy level to the lower energy level, it loses energy.

Question 5.
Compare all the proposed models of atom given in the chapter 3 of the text.
Answer:
Comparing Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model and Bohr’s model of atom.
A. Thomson’s model of atom.
1. According to Thomson, an atom may be regarded, a uniform sphere of positive electricity (protons) in which negatively charged electrons are embedded like the seeds in a watermelon.
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 2
2. The total positive charge is equal to the total negative charge on all the electrons so that atoms on the whole is electrically neutral.

B. Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom.
The main features of Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom are:

Atom has a dense, heavy, positively charged central part called nucleus.
The electrons are present at very large distances from the nucleus.
The total positive charge on the nucleus is equal to the total ~ve charge on all the electrons so that atom on the whole is electrically neutral.
The electrons are revolving around the nucleus so that attractive force of the nucleus is balanced by the centrifugal force (just like planets revolve around the sun).
It is different from Thomson’s model, because in Thomson’s model of atom, the total mass, positive charge and electrons are uniformly distributed

C. Bohr’s model of atom. Described in given above.

Question 6.
Summarize the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements.
Answer:
The various rules for writing the electronic configuration of first elements are:
1. The energy levels or energy shells are filled in order of increasing energies. The electrons first enter the K shell (n =

which is closest to the nucleus. This is followed by L shell (n = 2), M shell (n = 3) and so on. Here V represents the number of the shell.
The maximum number of electrons in any shell is given as 2n² (n = No. of shells).
The outermost energy shell cannot have more than 8 electrons. The next inner shell called penultimate shell cannot have more than 18 electrons.
It is not necessary that an energy level or shell is fully filled before the filling in the next energy level starts. In fact filling of electrons in a new shell starts when any shell contains 8 electrons.

Question 7.
Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.
Answer:
Valency: It is the combining capacity of an atom of the element and is numerically equal to the number of electrons present in the valence shell of an atom (if the no. of electrons is 1 to 4) or eight minus the number of electrons present in the valence shell of an atom (if the no. of electrons is more than 4).
e.g. Silicon (₁₄Si) has electronic configuration = 2, 8, 4
∴ its valency = 4 (No. of electrons in its valence shell)
Oxygen (₈O) has electronic configuration = 2, 6
∴ its valency = 8 – 6 = 2 (8 – No. of electrons in the valence shell)

Question 8.
Explain with examples

Atomic number
Mass number
Isotopes
Isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes.

Answer:

Atomic number. It is the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom of an element.
Mass number. It is the sum of total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom.
Isotopes. These are the atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different mass numbers.
Isobars. These are the atoms of different elements having same mass number but different atomic numbers.

Uses of isotopes:

\({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reaction.
\({ }_{27}^{60} \mathrm{Co}\) isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.
\({ }_{53}^{131} \mathrm{I}\) isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre.

Question 9.
Na⁺ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.
Answer:
Na has atomic number =11
∴ Na atom has electrons =11
Na⁺ ion has electrons = 11 – 1 = 10
The electronic configuration of Na⁺ = 2, 8
∴ In Na⁺, K and L-shells are completely filled.

Question 10.
If bromine atom is in the form of say two isotopes 35 Br (49.7%) and 35 Br (50.3%), then calculate the average mass of bromine atom.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 3

Question 11.
The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u, what are the percentages of isotopes g X and “X in the sample?
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 4

Question 12.
If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.
Answer:
Z = 3

Atomic no. of element = 3
No. of electrons in one atom of the element = 3
Atomic no. of the element (Z) = 3
Its electronic configuration = 2, 1
Hence its valency = 1 (No. of electrons in the valence shell.)
The name of the element = Lithium.

Question 13.
Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 5
Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?
Answer:

Mass no. of X = 6 + 6 = 12
Mass no. of Y = 6 + 8 = 14
The two species are isotopes because they have same atomic number but different mass numbers.

Question 14.
For the following statements write T for True and F for False.
(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of proton.
(d) Isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine.
Answer:
(a) F
(b) F
(c) T
(d) F.

Put tick (✓) against correct choice and cross (×) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17

Question 15.
Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of :
(a) Atomic Nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron
Answer:
(a) Atomic Nucleus (✓)
(b) Electron (×)
(c) Proton (×)
(d) Neutron (×)

Question 16.
Isotopes of an element have:
(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers.
Answer:
(a) the same phvsicul properties (×)
(b) different chemical properties (×)
(c) different number of neutrons (✓)
(d) different atomic numbers (×)

Question 17.
Number of valence electrons in Cl⁺ ion are:
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18
Answer:
(a) 16 (×)
(b) 8 (×)
(c) 17 (×)
(d) 18 (×).

Question 18.
Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?
(a) 2, 8
(b) 8, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 8
(d) 2, 8, 1.
Answer:
(d) 2, 8, 1.

Question 19.
Complete the following table:

Atomic Number	Mass Number	Number of Neutrons	Number of Protons	Number of Electrons	Name of the Atomic Species
9	–	10	~	–	–
16	32	–	–	–	Sulphur
–	24	–	12	–	–
–	2	–	1	–	–
–	1	0	1	0	–

Answer:

Atomic Number	Mass Number	Number of Neutrons	Number of protons	Number of Electrons	Name of the Atomic Species
9	19	10	9	9	Fluorine
16	32	16	16	16	Sulphur
12	24	12	12	12	Magnesium
1	2	1	1	1	Deuterium
1	1	0	1	0	Protium

Science Guide for Class 9 PSEB Structure of the Atom InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are canal rays?
Answer:
A beam of rays or stream of particles which travel in a direction away from anode, towards cathode, when any gas taken in a discharge tube is subjected to the action of high voltage under low pressure are called canal rays.

Question 2.
If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?
Answer:
No, it will not carry any charge.

Question 3.
On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.
Answer:
Thomson’s model of atom.
1. According to Thomson, an atom may be regarded as a uniform sphere of positive electricity (protons) in which negatively charged electrons are embedded like the seeds in a watermelon.
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 6
2. The total positive charge is equal to the total negative charge on all the electrons so that atoms on the whole is electrically neutral.

Question 4.
On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom which sub-atomic particle is present in the molecule of an atom?
Answer:
Proton.

Question 5.
Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.
Answer:

Question 6.
What do you think would be the observation if the ∝-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of metal other than gold?
Answer:
Almost all the ∝-particles will pass undeflected and hardly any a-particle is deflected.

Question 7.
Name the three sub-atomic particles of an atom.
Answer:
These are:
(a) Electron
(b) Proton and
(c) Neutron

Question 8.
Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have?
Answer:
Atomic mass of Helium = 4 u No. of protons = 2
∴ No. of neutrons = 4 – 2 = 2

Question 9.
Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.
Answer:

Element	At. No.	Electronic Configuration
Element	At. No.	K	L	M
Carbon	6	2	4	1
Sodium	11	2	8	1

Question 10.
If K and L shell of an atom are full then what would be the total number of electrons in it?
Answer:

No. of electrons in K-shell = 2
No. of electrons in L-shell = 8
Total no. of electrons = 2 + 8 = 10

Question 11.
How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?
Answer:
Chlorine has the electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
∴ Valency of chlorine = 8 – 7 = 1
Sulphur has the electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6
∴ Valency of sulphur = 8 – 6 = 2
Magnesium has the electronic configuration = 2, 8 ,2
∴ Valency of magnesium = 2

Question 12.
If number of electrons in an atom are 8 and number of protons are also 8, then ;
1. What is the atomic number of the atom?
2. What is the charge on the atom?
Answer:
1. No. of protons = 8
∴ Atomic no. of the element = 8
2. Zero.

Question 13.
With the help of table 4.1 (given in Text Book) find out the mass number of oxygen and sulphur atom.
Answer:

Mass number of oxygen = 8 + 8 = 16
Mass number of sulphur = 16 + 16 = 32

Question 14.
For the symbols H, D and T tabulate three fundamental particles found in each of them.
Answer:

Symbol of element	Atomic number	Mass No.	No. of electrons	No. of protons	No.of Neutrons
H	1	1	1	1	0
D	1	2	1	1	1
T	1	3	1	1	2

Question 15.
Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 8

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships

January 20, 2024January 19, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Interpersonal Relationships InText Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No.13

The procedure of Activity:

Pictures 1 & 2 will be shown to the students. Then they will answer the questions related to these pictures shown to them.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships Img 1

Question 1.
What is the difference between these two?
Answer:
In picture 1 members of a family are laughing and celebrating a birthday. In picture 2, everyone is busy on his/her mobile and is not talking to each other which is wrong.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 3 Interpersonal Relationships Img 2

Question 2.
How do you treat your young ones? Choose your response from picture 3 or picture 4.
Answer:
Our treatment with young ones will be in picture 4. In picture 3, two girls are fighting and in picture 4, two boys and a girl are collectively doing work.

Textbook Page No. 14

Question 3.
When you obey and show respect to your elders how do they react to your response?
Answer:
Whenever I obey and show respect to my elders, they become very happy and give me many blessings.

Question 4.
Whenever you disobey or show disrespect to your elders then what is their reaction?
Answer:
Whenever I disobey or show disrespect to my elders, they become very angry and speak rudely as well.

Question 5.
What do we gain by giving respect to our elders?
Answer:
I feel very happy when I give respect to our elders. They love me and bless me and I feel blessed with this.

Textbook Page No. 18

Question 1.
If you were in the place of these girls what would you have done?
Answer:
If I were in the place of these girls, I would have talked with my parents and teachers as well. I could have made Manjot and Simranjot realize that they must not dare to do it again.

Question 2.
If you were in Anmol’s place, what would you do?
Answer:
I would be doing the same thing that Anmol has done. I would have told them that the act of theirs is wrong and they must not repeat the same thing.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Guide Interpersonal Relationships Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the character you like most in the play ‘live and let others live’ and why?
Answer:
I believe, Anmol is the best character in the play. Its reason is he handled the situation quite wisely. He was the eldest among all and he considered solving friend’s problems as his duty. He makes Manjot and Simranjit understand that we must not tease girls but be with them as friends. So, he handled the situation easily and wisely.

Question 2.
Should boys and girls have equal rights?
Answer:
Yes, both boys and girls should have equal rights. Even our constitution has given us the Right to Equality and it is said that there shall be no discrimination on the basis of sex. Instead of looking at social differences, both should be treated in equal terms.

Question 3.
Where you live your own life till now without caring for the Rights and liberty of others?
Answer:
Yes, till now, I lived my life for myself but after reading the play, I realized that I must do something for others as well. Now I will change my habit and will try to do something for others.

Question 4.
Do you come to know that we should let others live their own life too?
Answer:
Yes, now I realised that others have their own life too and they also have the right to live life like us. Everyone wants to live life according to his own wish and others don’t have any right to interfere in anyone’s life. What will happen if others will start interfering in our lives? That’s why we should let others live their lives according to their wish.

Question 5.
How you should treat your classmates?
Answer:
We should treat our classmates with friendly behavior which should be based upon equality. Along with this, we must understand the fact that others have their lives too and we must not interfere in their lives. Instead, we should live in cooperation with others.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Interpersonal Relationships Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. What should be there in a mutual relationship?
(a) Respect
(b) Love
(c) Sympathy
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

2. All the ……………. of the family are part of a family tree.
(a) members
(b) friends
(c) relatives
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) members.

3. Elder members of the family should be …………….
(a) respect
(b) jealousy
(c) ended
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) respect.

4. Where was Pooja standing?
(a) School
(b) Stage
(c) Home
(d) Road.
Answer:
(b) Stage.

5. Who misbehaved with Pooja and Komal?
(a) Manjot
(b) Simranjit
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Anmol.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

6. Pooja and Komal tell their problem to ……………….
(a) Manjot
(b) Teachers
(c) Family
(d) Anmol
Answer:
(d) Anmol

7. Who didn’t want to tell her problem to her family
(a) Pooja
(b) Anmol
(c) Komal
(d) Simranjit
Answer:
(a) Pooja

8. Which is the adolescent age ?
(a) 14-18 years
(b) 10-19 years
(c) 15-21 years
(d) 17-21 years
Answer:
(b) 10-19 years

9. Harassing girls is known as ……………….
(a) Eve, Teasing
(b) Adam Teasing
(c) Girls Teasing
(d) Women Teasing
Answer:
(a) Eve Teasing

10. Teasing boys are known as …………….
(a) Eve Teasing
(b) Adam Teasing
(c) Boys Teasing
(d) Male Teasing
Answer:
(b) Adam Teasing

11. Under Section ………………….. of Indian Penal Code, 1-9 years of imprisonment can be given for Eve Teasing.
(a) 519
(b) 509
(c) 529
(d) 539.
Answer:
(b) 509

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Harassing girls is known as …………………
Answer:
Eve Teasing

2. Harassing boys is known as ……………..
Answer:
Adam Teasing

3. ………………. and ………………… misbehaved with Komal and Pooja.
Answer:
Simranjit, Manjot

4. We must ……………. the elders.
Answer:
respect

5. We must ……………. the younger ones.
Answer:
love

Tick the Right (✓) or Strong (x) Statement:

1. We should live in love with family members.
Answer:
✓

2. Komal and Pooja did not tell their family about teasing by boys.
Answer:
✓

3. Anmol told a few things to Manjot and Simranjit.
Answer:
✓

4. There is no punishment for Eve Teasing.
Answer:
x

5. We must follow the concept of Live and Let Live.
Answer:
✓

Match the following:

(A)	(B)
Section 509	Love
Harassing girls	1-9 years of imprisonment
Harassing boys	Eve Teasing
Elders	Adam Teasing
Young ones	Respect

Answer:

(A)	(B)
Section 509	1-9 years of imprisonment
Harassing girls	Eve Teasing
Harassing boys	Adam Teasing
Elders	Respect
Young ones	Love

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What mutual relationships should be like?
Answer:
Mutual relationships should be full of love and respect.

Question 2.
Who is the inseparable part of the family tree?
Answer:
Family members are the inseparable part of the family tree.

Question 3.
Who is of great importance in our lives?
Answer:
Elders of the family have great importance in our lives.

Question 4.
Who are the main characters of the play given in the chapter?
Answer:
Komalpreet, Pooja, Simranjit, Manjot, and Anmol are the main characters of the play.

Question 5.
Who harassed Komal and Pooja?
Answer:
Simranjit and Manjot harassed the girls.

Question 6.
Why did Pooja did not tell the incident to her family?
Ans.
She feared that her family might scold her.

Question 7.
Why did Pooja have a fear that her family might scold her?
Answer:
Because she believed that boys can do anything and no one will say anything to them but parents are* always ready to scold girls.

Question 8.
Why did Pooja and Komal not tell the incident to teachers?
Answer:
Because if teachers will tell the incident to their family, they will not let them go to school.

Question 9.
Who was told about the incident by Pooja, and Komal?
Answer:
They told the incident to Anmol who is their well-wisher.

Question 10.
What did the girls tell Anmol?
Answer:
They told Anmol that Simranjit and Manjot harass them on the way.

Question 11.
What is adolescent age?
Answer:
The age of 10-19 years is known as the adolescent age in which children develop psychologically, socially, and emotionally.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Eve Teasing?
Answer:
Harassing girls is known as Eve Teasing.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Adam Teasing?
Answer:
Harassing boys is known as Adam Teasing.

Question 14.
What is the punishment for eve-teasing?
Answer:
According to Section 509 of I.P.C., there is a punishment of 1-9 years for eve-teasing.

Question 15.
What was the impact of Anmol’s discussion with Manjot and Simran?
Answer:
They both regretted their actions and apologized to the girls as well.

Question 16.
What did they all decide?
Answer:
They all decided that they will not do eve-teasing and Adam teasing.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the importance of a family tree in our lives?
Answer:
Just as roots, stems, flowers, branches, fruits, etc. are parts of a tree, so are family members. This family tree grows only when the elders love the young ones and younger ones respect the elders. Each family member has its own significance. This tree can only remain green if all live together with love. Only with the mutual love and respect of family members, the family grows and prosper. Family is of great importance in our lives and we are nothing without family.

Question 2.
Why didn’t Pooja tell the family and teachers about the incident of teasing?
Answer:
When Komal told Pooja that we should tell the parents and teachers about the incident, she refused to do as she was afraid of her family. The family will rebuke her and find her fault in the incident. She did not want to discuss the incident with teachers as well as they might approach her family which in turn will not let her go out of the house. That’s why they decided to handle the situation themselves.

Question 3.
Why did Pooja and Komal decide to tell Anmol about this incident?
Answer:
When Pooja and Komal were thinking about finding the solution to the issue, suddenly the name of Anmol come up in their minds. The reason was Anmol was their well-wisher and neighbor as well. Along with this, he was a good friend of Manjot and Simran as well. He considered both the girls as his sisters. That’s why they both believed that Anmol will sort out the issue very easily.

Question 4.
Why is adolescent age important?
Answer:
The age of 10-19 years is known as the adolescent age. This is the time when our mental, social and emotional development takes place. Human personality is also formed in this age. During this age, we must keep emotions in control and focus on our study or the time will be wasted. We need to focus on the career instead of looking for boys or girls. This is the time when we need to concentrate on making a career.

Question 5.
What did Anmol tell Manjot and Simranjit?
Answer:
When Manjot and Simranjit harassed the girls the girls decided to tell the incident to Anmol. Anmol told the boys that everyone wants to live with complete freedom. That’s why we must not interfere in girls’ lives. Teasing is not good for anyone. We must not become enemies but should cooperate with each other.

Question 6.
What was the impact of Anmol’s discussion with Manjot and Simran?
Answer:
When Anmol discussed the incident of teasing with Manjot and Simran then they realized that this is wrong. They promised not to repeat the same mistake again. They realized their fault and decided to follow the concept of ‘Live and Let Live. Both the boys apologized to the girls and become good friends.

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
What did we learn from this chapter?
Answer:
We learned many things from this chapter such as :

Family is just like a tree with many members in it. There should be mutual love and respect between the family members and they should cooperate with each other.
There should be no gender-based discrimination in society. Both must be given equal rights.
We need to make boys understand that girls also have their self-respect. We should not tease them. Instead, they should also be respected.
We must respect the elders of the family and live by cooperating with each other.
We must respect the existence of others in society and follow the idea of ‘Live and Let Live’.
In adolescent age, we should focus on career building and should not waste our time. We should do hard work to get success in life.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow :
The family tree continues to grow and there is a need that by doing, respect, and care we can make this family tree strong and green which means strong bonding within and with the society. Dear students! As a tree consists of Roots, Stem, Branches, Leaves, Flowers, and fruits, in the same way our family members can be represented in a family tree. Now let us try to make your own family tree. Paste maximum pictures of your family members from Paternal and Maternal too.

1. How should we behave with the elders of the family?
Answer:
We should behave with respect to the elders of the family and learn from their experiences.

2. How should we treat the younger ones of the family?
Answer:
We should treat younger ones with love as they learn everything from their elders.

3. What is the importance of family in our lives?
Answer:
Family is of great importance in our lives as, without family, there is no value in life. We cannot learn anything without family.

4. Do the little ones matter in the family?
Answer:
Yes, little ones matter in the family as they will become elders one day and run the family.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 2 Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society

January 20, 2024January 19, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 2 Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 2 Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society Textbook Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The class to which the writers belonged in the Muslim society was
(a) Upper Class
(b) Middle Class
(c) Lower Class
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Middle Class.

Question 2.
The worshippers of Goddess Durga were called
(a) Vaishnavas
(b) Shaivas
(c) Sunnis
(d) Shaktas
Answer:
(d) Shaktas.

Question 3.
What was Jaziya?
(a) Religious
(b) Tax
(c) Tradition
(d) Jewel.
Answer:
(b) Tax.

Question 4.
Who were Ulemas?
(a) Labourers
(b) Hindu religious leaders
(c) Muslim religious leaders
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Muslim religious leaders.

Question 5.
The event of Sachcha Sauda happened in ________
(a) Chuharkana
(b) Rai Bhoi
(c) Haridwar
(d) Sayyidpur.
Answer:
(a) Chuharkana.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The two sects of Islam are Sunni and ________
Answer:
Shia

Question 2.
________ worshipped the God Vishnu.
Answer:
Vaishnavas

Question 3.
The purpose of Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s life was the welfare of ________
Answer:
whole humanity

Question 4.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave a message of ________ at Kartarpur.
Answer:
Naam Japo, Kirat Karo, Vand Chhako (meditate, work and share)

Question 5.
During his stay at Sultanpur, Guru Nanak Dev Ji used to bathe in the ________ river
Answer:
Bein.

III. Match the following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Battle of Panipat	(i) Chuharkana
2. Sachcha Sauda	(ii) 1526 AD.
3. Guru Angad Dev Ji	(iii) Taiwandi
4. Birth of Guru Nanak Dev Ji	(iv) Bhai Lehna.

Answer:

A	B
1. Battle of Panipat	(ii) 1526 AD.
2. Sachcha Sauda	(i) Chuharkana
3. Guru Angad Dev Ji	(iv) Bhai Lehna.
4. Birth of Guru Nanak Dev Ji	(iii) Taiwandi

IV. Differentiate between the following :

Question 1.
Muslim Nobility and Muslim Middle Class.
Answer:
1. Muslim Nobility. The high ranking nobles, Iqtadars, Ulemas, etc. were counted among the members of this class. A noble held high rank in the Muslim government. He was addressed as ‘Malik’, ‘Khan’, ‘Amir’ etc. Iqtadars were basically big landlords. All the nobles had their personal armies, which they offered to Sultans for military purpose on demand. The life of a member of this class was .spent in luxury and merry-making. The upper class people lived in palaces or mansions. They indulged in drinking and kept numerous women for their different types of amusements. The Ulemas enjoyed great respect in the society. They had indepth knowledge of Quran and Arabic language. As a result, they wielded great influence in the Muslim royal courts.

2. Muslim Middle Class. The farmers, traders, soldiers, middle ranking government officers were included in the middle class. The Muslim scholars and writers were also counted among them. Their standard of living and social status were far better than the social status and economic condition of the Hindus.

Question 2.
Vaishnavas and Shaivas.
Answer:

Vaishnavas: People believing in Vaishnavism worshipped the incarnations of Lord Vishnu i.e. Lord Krishna and Lord Rama. These people were completely vegetarians.
Shaivas: People believing in Shaivism worshipped Lord Shiva. Most of these were hermits. People of Shaivism included Gorakhpanthi, Nathpanthi and Jogis.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the last ruler of the Lodhi Dynasty?
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of the Lodhi Dynasty.

Question 2.
Who invited Babur to attack Punjab?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi invited Babur to attack Punjab.

Question 3.
Which religious persons were given state patronage during the Lodhi period?
Answer:
The Ulemas and Sufi Sheikhs were given state patronage during the Lodhi period.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Jaziya?
Answer:
Jaziya was a type of tax which Mughal rulers collected from the non-Muslim population. It lieu of it, rulers took the responsibility of their protection.

Question 5.
What do you mean by pilgrimage tax?
Answer:
Pilgrimage tax was collected from non-Muslims. They gave this tax for visiting their pilgrimage places.

Question 6.
When and amongst whom was the Battle of Panipat fought?
Answer:
The first Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526 A.D. between Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 7.
Name the two sects of Muslim society.
Answer:
Shia and Sunni.

Question 8.
When and where was Guru Nanak Dev Ji born?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born in 1469 A.D. at Rae Bhoe Ki Talwandi. Now it is known as Nankana Sahib.

Question 9.
Name the parents of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The name of the mother of Guru Nanak Dev Ji was Mata Tripta and father’s name was Mehta Kalu.

Question 10.
Name any two Banis composed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Var Malhar, Var Assa, Japji Sahib, Barah Maha etc.

Question 11.
What are the travels of Guru Nanak Dev Ji called?
Answer:
The travels of Guru Nanak Dev Ji are called Udasis.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the condition of women in early 16th century.
Answer:
In the early 16th century, the condition of women was not good. They were considered lower than males. Their condition in their home was just like a servant. They had to live under the control of males. Few Rajput tribes considered girls a cause of sorrows and even killed them. Women did not enjoy a good status even in the Muslim society. Female was considered only a means of entertainment. They lived a pitiable life from birth till death.

Question 2.
What do you know about the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
1. God is One. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that there is one God. He was not different for different people and thus, could not be divided. He gave the message of one Supreme Formless or Supreme Onkar.

2. God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji preached that Supreme God is Formless, without attributes and absolute. The Supreme God has attributes, which cannot be explained in words. Guru Sahib further said that God is Self-Created and not bound by the laws of time. Hence, He cannot be presented in the form of an idol and worshipped.

3. God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. Guru Nanak Dev Ji explained that God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. He existed everywhere. He cannot be confined within the four walls of a temple or mosque.

4. God is Supreme. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is Supreme. He is incomparable. It is impossible to measure the depth of His grace and greatness.

5. God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that God is compassionate. He attends to his true seekers whenever they need Him.

Question 3.
Write a note on the middle class during the Lodhi period.
Answer:
Middle Class. The low ranking Qazis, soldiers, middle ranking government officials, traders etc. were members of this class. They enjoyed more freedom under the Sultanate rule as compared to other lower sections of the society and also a position of respect in the Muslim Society.

Question 4.
Which social evils did Guru Nanak Dev Ji oppose?
Answer:
Guru Ji believed that there is no place of external rituals in true religious reverence of devotion. That’s why Guru Ji strongly criticised irrational rites and performance of Yajnas and sacrifices in order to achieve God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji also did not accept the methods of Jogis. It had two major reasons-lack of reverence devotion in their behaviour towards God and disagreement towards social responsibilities in their Sanyasi life. Guru Ji did not accept Vaishnav Bhakti and did not give any place to incarnationism in his ideology. Except this, he also criticised the customs of Muslims.

Question 5.
Write a note on the Muslim society during the Lodhi period.
Answer:
1. Upper Class. The high-ranking nobles, Iqtadars, Ulemas, etc. were counted among the members of this class. A noble held high rank in the Muslim government. He was addressed as ‘Malik’, ‘Khan’, ‘Amir’, etc. Iqtadars were basically big landlords. All the nobles had their personal armies, which they offered to Sultans for military purpose on demand. The life of a member of this class was spent in luxury and merry-making.

2. Middle Class. The farmers, traders, soldiers, middle ranking government officers were included in this class. The Muslim scholars and writers were also counted among them. Their standard of living and social status were far better than the social status and economic condition of the Hindus.

3. Lower Class. The artisans, domestic servants, male and female slaves etc. formed the lower class of the Muslim society. The standard of living of this section of Muslim society was very low. They worked hard to earn their livelihood. The artisans like weavers, goldsmiths, ironsmiths, carpenters, cobblers, etc. could hardly earn two square meals by even putting in hardwork throughout the day. The domestic servants and slaves served the high class of the Muslim society.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe in detail about social and religious condition of society during Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s era.
Answer:
Social Condition. During 16th century, the social condition of Punjab was quite pitiable. There was discrimination in society. As compared to Hindus, Muslims were better positioned. There was no proper arrangement of education. People were forced to study Persian language. The condition of women was quite bad. The birth of a female child was considered a curse on the family. Due to prevailing superstitions and evils, this age was considered a dark age.

Following was the social and religious condition of Punjab during 16th century.
1. Position of Muslims. From 11th to 16th centuries, Punjab remained under the Muslim rulers. Under these rulers, many Muslims permanently started residing over here. They married with many females including prostitutes and slaves. Many of the low caste Hindus, due to the fear of Muslim rulers, and under the influence of Muslims, adopted their religion. During this time, many Mughals and Iranis settled in Punjab.

So, In the beginning of the 16th century, there was a sizeable amount of Muslims in Punjab. Most of them lived in towns. In the society of 16th century, Muslims were in a better position than Hindus. Its reason was the Muslim rule in Punjab. Muslims were appointed at higher official posts. They were always favoured in every espect. Upper-Class Muslims had certain privileges as well.

2. Classes of Muslim Society. The Muslim society of the sixteenth century in Punjab was divided into the following three classes :
1. Upper Class. The Afghan Amirs, Sheikhs, Qazis, Ulemas or religious leaders and powerful feudal lords etc. were included in this class. The ministers of the Sultans and high ranking civil and military officers also belonged to this section of the Muslim society. This section led a life of luxury and merry-making.

2. Middle Class and Lower Class:
Middle class: The low ranking Qazis, soldiers, middle ranking government officials, traders etc. were members of this class. They enjoyed more freedom under the Sultanate rule as compared to other lower sections of the society and also a position of respect in the Muslim society.

Lower class: The slaves, the domestic servants, artisans and eunuchs were included in this class. There were female slaves also. Their life was miserable.

3. Condition of Hindus. The condition of Hindu society in the sixteenth century Punjab was very miserable. Every Hindu was treated with suspicion. They were not appointed on high jobs in the government. The Jaziya and Toll tax (which were imposed only on non-Muslims) were forcibly collected from them. The government had imposed numerous restrictions on Hindu customs, traditions, festivals and dress. They were subjected to torture and humiliation to compel them to embrace Islam.

4. Status of Women. Following was the condition of women during the sixteenth century :
1. Miserable Condition. The condition of women in Punjab was pitiable in the beginning of the sixteenth century. They were rated as feeble, hopeless, weak and inferior to men. They were treated as slaves in their own homes. They were cursed to live in subordination to men. Among some of the Rajput clans, the birth of a girl was considered as an ill-omen and she was killed at the time of birth.

2. Evils. Many evils prevailed in the contemporary society which hindered the overall growth of women. Some of the worst traditions and customs were-Practice of Sati, Female infanticide, Child Marriage, Johar, Purdah System, Polygamy, etc.

3. Purdah System. The Purdah system was prevalent among both the Hindu and Muslim women. The Hindu women covered their faces with their chunnis or saris and Muslim women wore Burkas.

Polygamy. The custom of polygamy was very popular among the Muslims. The Emperor and high-ranking officers kept many women for their amusement and fun. Female education was totally neglected. Only the women of royal family received some education. The rest of women folk remained illiterate. There were other numerous restrictions on women.

Religious Condition : During 16th century, Hinduism was the major religion of Punjab. Their major principles were based on Vedas, Ramayana, Mahabharta, Upnishadas, Gita etc. Hinduism was divided into many sects :

Vaishnav Sect: Those who had faith in this sect worshipped Lord Vishnu and his incarnations Lord Rama, Lord Krishna etc. They were completely vegetarians.
Shaiv Sect:. The proponents of Shaivism worshipped Lord Shiva. Most of them were hermits which included Gorakhpanthi, Nathpanthi and Jogis.
Shakti Sect: The believers of Shakti sect worshipped Goddess Kali and Durga as incarnation of Shakti. They also performed animal sacrifice.

Many of them believed in magic. Many people worshipped their ancestors, Gugga Peer, Sheetla Mata etc. Except these in the mountainous regions of Punjab, there lived many people who believed in Buddhism and Jainism. They believed in non-violence.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the first Udasi of Shri Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji went first to the east and then to south on his first journey. He started his journey around 1500 A.D. Guru Sahib took along with him an ardent devotee, Mardana on his first journey. Mardana was a good player of Rabab (a stringed musical instrument).

Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the various places which are given below :
1. Sayyidpur. Guru Nanak Dev Ji reached Sayyidpur from Sultanpur Lodhi. In the beginning of his journey, Guru Sahib converted a carpenter Bhai Lalo. Guru Sahib refused to partake the food provided by Malik Bhago. Guru Sahib refused to take the food because Malik Bhago followed corrupt means and oppressed the poor to earn money.

2. Talumba. Guru Nanak Dev Ji reached Talumba in district Multan from Sayyidpur. Sajjan Thug, who pretended to be a religious man, lived there. Sajjan was basically a cunning man. Sajjan planned to play his dirty game with Guru Nanak Dev Ji. However, when Guru Nanak Dev Ji sang his hymns before going to bed, it deeply touched the heart of Sajjan. He fell at the feet of Guru Sahib and pleaded for forgiveness. Guru Nanak Dev Ji pardoned him and accepted him as his follower. After that, Sajjan stopped cheating the people and adopted the path of spreading the message of True Faith. The historian Teja Singh has rightly said, “The criminal’s den became a temple of God worship.”

3. Kurukshetra. Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Kurukshetra from Talumba. He found thousands of Brahmins, Saints, and Hindus gathered there on the occasion of solar eclipse. Guru Nanak Dev Ji addressed the congregation, where Guru Sahib laid stress upon the purity of soul in place of giving more importance to the outer purity or purity of physical existence. Guru Sahib taught them the path of honesty, love, and truth.

4. Panipat. Guru Sahib went to Panipat from Kurukshetra. Guru Sahib met Sufi Sheikh Ikul Kabir. The Sufi saint was highly impressed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji and became his follower.

5. Haridwar. Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled to Haridwar from Panipat passing through Delhi on his way. At Haridwar, Guru Nanak Dev Ji observed that the people were throwing water upwards facing the sun saying that they were sending water to their ancestors. In order to help the people to see reason, Guru Sahib started throwing water in the opposite direction. When the people inquired about the aim of his such action, Guru Sahib told them that he was watering his fields in the Punjab. The people tried to mock at his reasoning. Then, Guru Nanak Dev Ji sought to reason by questioning that when they could not accept that he could send water a few hundred miles away, then how could they justify their belief that their water offerings were reaching their ancestors millions of miles away? When no one came up with any answer, they became the followers of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

6. Gorakhmatta. Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited Kedarnath, Badrinath, Joshi Math etc. and finally reached Gorakhmatta. Guru Sahib met the followers of Saint Gorakh Nath. Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught that they could not attain moksha by piercing their ears, smearing their bodies with ashes, keeping sticks in their hands and abandoning their social responsibilities. The Yogis of Gorakhmatta were so impressed that they changed the name of the place to Nanakmatta.

7. Benaras. Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Benaras from Nanakmatta. Guru Sahib met Pandit Chaturdass in Benaras. The teachings and grace of Guru Nanak Dev Ji overwhelmingly impressed Pandit Chaturdass. He submitted before Guru Nanak Dev Ji along with all his followers and all of them became the devotees of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

8. Gaya. Guru Nanak Dev Ji continued his journey from Benaras and reached Gaya, the well-known place of pilgrimage of the Buddhists. Guru Nanak Dev Ji blessed numerous people of Gaya with his teachings and they became his followers.

9. Assam. Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled through Bihar and Bengal and reached Assam. At ‘Dhubri’, Guru Sahib met Shankar Dev. Guru Sahib met a beautiful magician woman named Nooran, whom Guru Sahib taught that the real beauty was of a pure character.

Guru Nanak Dev Ji continued his journey through Guwahati and Shillong and reached Syhlit. Guru Sahib met Sheikh Jalal at Syhlit. Sheikh Jalal was so impressed by his teachings that he became his follower.

10. Dacca, Cuttack and Jaganath Puri. Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Dacca from Kamrup. Guru Sahib had an exchange of ideas with numerous religious leaders there. From Dacca, Guru Sahib passed through Cuttack and reached Jagannath Puri in present Orissa. Guru Sahib watched the performance of aarti (worship of an Idol with lamps and cinders) of Idol of Lord Jagannath, the incarnation of God Vishnu. Guru Sahib preached to the people the uselessness of Idol worship. He preached that God is Omnipresent.

11. Journey of South India. Guru Nanak Dev Ji continued his journey to South India. Guru Sahib visited Guntur, Kanchipuram, Trincholopoly, Nagapatnam, Rameshvaram, Trivandrum, and Sri Lanka. The king of Sri Lanka, Shivnabh, was highly impressed by the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. He became his follower. His Queen and other people accepted him as their Guru. In Sri Lanka, Guru Nanak Dev Ji deputed one of his followers, Jhanda Bedi to continue to spread his message.

The Return Journey. On his return journey from Sri Lanka, Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited numerous small towns. Finally, Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited Kusali, Bycola, Anumadhyam, Pannar and Pakpattan. At Pakpattan, Guru Sahib met Sheikh Ibrahim, the tenth descendant of Sheikh Farid. Sheikh Ibrahim felt highly elated by listening to the divine talks of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. From Pakpattan, Guru Sahib went to Dipalpur and returned to Sultanpur.

Question 3.
What do you learn from the life of Shri Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The teachings and life of Guru Nanak Dev Ji served as ideals for all. Guru Sahib was strongly against the narrow views like irrational customs and rites, caste system, racialism, etc. Guru Sahib had deep faith in the True Name and existence of Supreme God and gave this message to all those who sought His grace.

The main teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji are given below :
1. The Greatness of God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views about God are as follow :

Faith in One Supreme God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji stressed that there is one Supreme God. Guru Sahib did not believe in the incarnation of God. Guru Sahib had called ‘Ram’, ‘Krishna’, ‘Buddha’ etc. as supreme beings but did not accept them as incarnations (Avtars) of God.
God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that God is Formless. According to him, God is Self-Created. Hence, God should not be worshipped in the form of idols made by man.
God is Omnipresent and Omnipotent. Guru Nanak Dev Ji preached that God is Omnipresent and Omnipotent. God is present in every living being. Everything exists only because of him.
God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji assured humanity that God was compassionate and generous. God comes whenever He is sought. The person, who attributes all his acts to the will of God, God Himself comes to his rescue.

2. The Recitation of True Name (Sat Nam). Guru Nanak Dev Ji stressed on the recitation of the True Name. Guru Sahib explained that as a person needed water for washing his body, he needed the recitation of the true name for the purification of his mind.

3. Importance of Guru. Guru Nanak Dev Ji considered the grace of Guru as most essential for reaching God. The Guru is like a ship which takes the follower across the sea of life. Guru Sahib said one could not realize God without the blessings of the Guru. The Guru is the ladder or a path to reach God.

4. Complete faith in the Principles of Right Conduct (Sat Karma). Guru Nanak Dev Ji told that a person passed through a cycle of births and deaths time and again as a result of the deeds performed by him. A person who did wrong deeds, took birth, again and again, to pay for his evil deeds. On the other hand, a person who performed pious deeds escaped the cycle of births and deaths and achieved moksha.

5. Stress on the life of a Householder. Guru Nanak Dev Ji favoured the life of a true householder. Guru Sahib gave the message that a person should live a right type of life on this earth and try to become pure. Guru Sahib showed by his personal example that a person could attain salvation while leading the life of a householder. Guru Sahib showed that a person could lead a detached and pure life even as a family man.

6. Faith in Love for Humanity. Guru Nan^k Dev Ji did not believe in social differences based on colour and race. To him, all the hujnan beings were the creatures of one and the same God. Hence they were all equal.

7. Criticism of Caste System. Guru Nanak Dev Ji strongly criticised the caste system. For him, no one was a Hindu, Muslim, low or high. According to him, there was fundamental equality and unity among all the castes and religions.

8. Social Service. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the person who did not love and respect all the creations of God, could never achieve God. Guru Sahib asked his followers to serve the society and love humanity selflessly. For him, love for humanity was love for God.

9. Criticism of Idol Worship. Guru Nanak Dev Ji criticised idol worship in very strong terms. According to him, it was useless to worship God in the form of an idol made by a man. For him, the right way to worship God was to recite His Name with full devotion and to realise His presence all around.

10. Criticism of Yajnas, Sacrifices, and Irrational Ceremonies. Guru Nanak Dev Ji strongly criticised irrational rites and performance of yajnas and sacrifices in order to achieve God. According to him, superficial presentations to God had no place in the worship of God.

11. Attainment of Supreme Bliss (Sach Khand). According to the Guru Sahib, the main aim of life of a human being is the attainment of Supreme Bliss or Sach Khand. The Sach Khand is that state of mind under divine grace wherein all the troubles and fears of a person disappear. A devotee becomes fearless and his troubled mind gets peace. In such a state of mind, the person gets a glimpse of the Supreme Being.

12. Emphasis on Life of Virtue. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message to people to |ead a virtuous life. Guru Sahib gave the following principles for an ideal life : (0 Speak the truth, (ii) Do not steal. (Hi) Live a life of piety, (iv) Never hurt the feelings of fellow beings.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Contemporary Society Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Bibi Sulakhni, wife of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, lived in .
(a) Batala
(b) Amritsar
(c) Bhatinda
(d) Kiratpur Sahib.
Answer:
(a) Batala

Question 2.
Who founded the city of Kartarpur?
(a) Guru Angad Dev Ji
(b) Guru Nanak Dev Ji
(c) Guru Ram Dass Ji
(d) Guru Arjan Dev Ji.
Answer:
(b) Guru Nanak Dev Ji

Question 3.
Sajjan Thag met Guru Nanak Dev Ji at
(a) Patna
(b) Sialkot
(c) Talumba
(d) Kartarpur.
Answer:
(c) Talumba

Question 4.
________ was the mother of Gurvr Nanak Dev Ji.
(a) Sulakhani Ji
(b) Tripta Ji
(c) Nanki Ji
(d) Bibi Amro Ji.
Answer:
(b) Tripta Ji

Question 5.
Babur made Guru Nanak Dev Ji prisoner at :
(a) Sialkot
(b) Kiratpur Sahib
(c) Sayyidpur
(d) Pakpattan.
Answer:
(c) Sayyidpur

Question 6.
Babur defeated ________ in the battle of 1526 A.D.
(a) Daulat Khan Lodhi
(b) Behlol Lodhi
(c) Ibrahim Lodhi
(d) Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
(c) Ibrahim Lodhi

Question 7.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi from ________
(a) Sialkot
(b) Kiratpur Sahib
(c) Amritsar
(d) Pakpattan.
Answer:
(d) Pakpattan.

Question 8.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born in A.D.
(a) 1269
(b) 1469
(c) 1526
(d) 1360.
Answer:
(b) 1469

Question 9.
Who made Tatar Khan the Nizam of Punjab?
(a) Behlol Lodhi
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Daulat Khan Lodhi
(d) Sikander Lodhi.
Answer:
(a) Behlol Lodhi

Question 10.
________ is considered the most famous king of the Lodhi dynasty.
(a) Behlol Lodhi
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Daulat Khan Lodhi
(d) Sikander Lodhi.
Answer:
(d) Sikander Lodhi.

Question 11.
________ considered themselves the descendants of Bibi Fatima, daughter of Prophet Mohammad.
(a) Shaikh
(b) Ulema
(c) Sayyid
(d) Quazi.
Answer:
(c) Sayyid

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Babur conquered Punjab in ________ A.D.
Answer:
1526

Question 2.
Sayyids considered themselves descendants of ________, daughter of Prophet Mohammad.
Answer:
Bibi Fatima

Question 3.
Ibrahim Lodhi called ________ to Delhi to punish him.
Answer:
Daulat Khan

Question 4.
________ was made the Subedar of Punjab after Tatar Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi

Question 5.
The Muslim Amirs wore elongated headgear called ________
Answer:
Cheera

Question 6.
________ was the son of Daulat Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Dilawar Khan Lodhi

Question 7.
The incident when Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent? 20 to serve food to the saints is known as ________
Answer:
Sacha Sauda

Question 8.
________ was the wife of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Bibi Sulakhani

Question 9.
________ and were the sons of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Sri Chand and Lakhmi Chand

Question 10.
Var Malhar, Var Assa, ________ and ________ were four Banis composed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Japji Sahib, Barah Maha

Question 11.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born at ______________ village near Lahore.
Answer:
Talwandi

Question 12.
Gurudwara Panja Sahib is situated at ________
Answer:
Sialkot.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the controversy regarding the date of birth of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
According to Janam Sakhi (Biography) by Bhai Bala Ji, Guru Nanak Dev Ji was bom on the day of full moon in the month of Kartik (October-November) in 1469. The modem historians are of the view that he was born in the month of Vaisakh (Baisakhi season—April-May) and support the date April 15, 1469.

Question 2.
Which incident is known as Sacha Sauda?
Answer:
Gum Nanak Dev’s father gave him twenty rupees to start some business. Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent that money in feeding the hungry saints and this incident is famous as ‘Sacha Sauda’.

Question 3.
To which place did Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s wife belong? Write the names of their sons.
Answer:
Mata Sulakhani, wife of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, belonged to Batala (District Gurdaspur). They had two sons named Bhai Sri Chand and Bhai Lakshmi Chand.

Question 4.
What words were spoken by Guru Nanak Dev Ji after attaining Enlightenment? Explain their meaning.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that ‘No one is a Hindu or Muslim’. These were the first words, which Guru Nanak Dev Ji uttered after attaining enlightenment. The meaning of his message was that all the Hindus and Muslims were equal. It also meant that Hindus and Muslims had forgotten the real message of their respective religions.

Question 5.
What work was done by Guru Nanak Dev Ji at Sultanpur and under whom?
Answer:
At Sultanpur Lodhi, Guru Nanak Dev Ji worked as Bhandari (the store accountant) in a Lodhi Khana (government storehouse) of Subedar Daulat Khan Lodhi.

Question 6.
Name the four Banis composed by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The four main ‘Banis’ of Guru Nanak Dev Ji are: War Malhar’, War Assa’, ‘Japji Sahib’ and ‘Barah Maha’.

Question 7.
What did Guru Nanak Dev Ji preach at Kurukshetra?
Answer:
At Kurukshetra, Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that a person should lay stress more on the purity of his mind and soul than on mere purity of his physical appearance (carnal existence).

Question 8.
Write Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s visit to Benaras.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled to Benaras from Gorakhmatta. At Benaras, Pandit Chaturdass debated with him on idol worship. Pandit Chaturdass lost the debate. He was convinced by Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views. He surrendered himself to him and became his follower.

Question 9.
What did Guru Ji preach the Sidhas and Yogis at Gorakhmata?
Answer:
The Sidhas and Yogis smeared their bodies with ashes and led strange ways of life. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave them the message that they would not attain salvation by adopting useless customs like smearing their bodies with ashes, holding sticks, shaving heads, giving up social responsibilities, etc.

Question 10.
Explain Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views on God.
Answer:
According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the Supreme God was Formless, Omnipotent, Omnipresent and Eternal. He had both the forms of being absolute (Nirguna) and of (Saguna). The word Vanis is also used for Banis.

Question 11.
What type of sacred thread did Guru Nanak Dev Ji want?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji wanted a sacred thread of pure deeds. According to him, such a sacred thread never breaks, nor is stained.

Question 12.
What is the meaning of Sacha Sauda?
Answer:
The meaning of Sacha Sauda is pious deal or in other words a true kind of business. Guru Nanak Dev Ji made a pious deal by spending twenty rupees to feed the saints.

Question 13.
Where was Guru Nanak Dev Ji born?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born at Talwandi, a village 64 kilometres from Lahore.

Question 14.
Why was Guru Nanak Dev Ji sent to Sultanpur Lodhi?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was sent to his sister Nanki and brother-in-law Jairam to start any business.

Question 15.
Where was a new spirit of Brotherhood promoted by Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started preaching his message at Kartarpur.

Question 16.
Through which two institutions Guru Nanak Dev Ji started a new brotherhood?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started it through two new institutions of Sangat and Pangat.

Question 17.
What was the meaning of the Udasis of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The meaning of Udasis is those travels which Guru Nanak Dev Ji undertook.

Question 18.
What was the objective of the Udasis of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
To remove superstitions and to help humanity to adopt the right religious path.

Question 19.
Where is Gurudwara Panja Sahib situated?
Answer:
At Sialkot.

Question 20.
From where Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi? ,
Answer:
From Pakpattan.

Question 21.
At which place Babur imprisoned Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Sayyidpur.

Question 22.
In which of his creation, did Guru Nanak Dev Ji critise the attack of Babur on Sayyidpur?
Answer:
In Babur Vani.

Question 23.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji spend last 18 years of his life?
Answer:
At Kartarpur.

Question 24.
Where can we find the views of Guru Nanak Dev Ji about God?
Answer:
In Japji Sahib.

Question 25.
What is meant by Langar System?
Answer:
Having food by sitting at one place by every one without any discrimination.

Question 26.
Who was the first Guru of Sikhism?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 27.
When did Guru Nanak Dev Ji leave this world?
Answer:
On 22nd September 1539.

Question 28.
Describe any one influence of the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji on the people of Punjab.
Answer:
The people of Punjab started worshipping one God and the Idol worship declined.

Question 29.
Which invasion of Babur was compared to ‘Marriage party of Sins’ by Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The third invasion of Babur on India.

Question 30.
When and who founded Kartarpur?
Answer:
Kartarpur was founded in 1526 by Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 31.
Who gave the land for the establishment of Kartarpur?
Answer:
It was given by a person named Diwan Kirorimal Khatri.

Question 32.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji meet Sajjan Thag?
Answer:
At Talumba.

Question 33.
What was the impact of Sajjan Thag’s meeting with Guru Nanak Dev Ji on Sajjan Thag?
Answer:
When he came in contact with Guru Nanak Dev Ji, he left his wrong doings and started propagating the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 34.
How did the name of Gorakhmata change to Nanakmata?
Answer:
At Gorakhmata, Guru Nanak Dev Ji told Nath Yogis about the real objective of life and they accepted the greatness of Guru Ji. Then this place was called as Nanakmata.

Question 35.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji spend his last days?
Answer:
At Kartarpur.

Question 36.
Give any one teaching of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
God is one and we must worship Him.

Question 37.
What were Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s views about God?
Answer:
According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is One, Formless, Omnipresent and Omnipotent, and Compassionate.

Question 38.
What was the name of the mother of Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Mata Tripta.

Question 39.
To whom was Guru Nanak Dev Ji sent to take education?
Answer:
Pandit Gopal.

Question 40.
What the incident is known as in which Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent ₹ 20 to serve food to a group of Faqirs?
Answer:
Sacha Sauda.

Question 41.
Give the names of the sons of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Srichand and Lakshmichand.

Question 42.
When did Guru Nanak Dev Ji attain true knowledge?
Answer:
In 1499 A.D.

Question 43.
Who accompanied Guru Nanak Dev Ji during his first Udasi?
Answer:
Bhai Mardana.

Question 44.
Name of which place was changed to Nanakmata?
Answer:
Gorakhmata.

Question 45.
Where did Guru Nanak Dev Ji go during his second Udasi?
Answer:
In the north of India.

Question 46.
When did Guru Nanak Dev Ji start his third Udasi?
Answer:
In 1517 A.D.

Question 47.
Who did Guru Nanak Dev Ji meet at a place called Dhubri?
Answer:
Sant Shankar Dev.

Question 48.
Who was Behlol Khan Lodhi?
Answer:
Behlol Lodhi was the Sultan of Delhi from 1451 to 1489. He established Lodhi dynasty.

Question 49.
Describe any one quality of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was a good soldier.

Question 50.
Describe two shortcomings of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:

Ibrahim Lodhi himself was an Afghan (Pathan) but he failed to understand the freedom-loving nature and habits of the Afghans, his own tribesmen.
He abandoned the policy of his father and grandfather and tried to discipline the Afghans. He failed miserably in his policy.

Question 51.
When did Babur conquer Punjab and whom did he defeat in this battle?
Answer:
Babur won a victory in the first battle of Panipat in April 1526. He defeated Ibrahim Lodhi, the Delhi Sultan. ‘

Question 52.
Define the classes into which the Muslim society was divided.
Answer:
The Muslim society was divided into three classes:

Amirs (nobles), high ranking commanders, Ulemas and Sayyids (Muslim clergy)
Middle Class and
the Slaves.

Question 53.
Write the main terms of treaty between Alam Khan and Babur.
Answer:
The terms of the treaty signed between Alam Khan and Babur were as follow :

Babur would provide military help to Alam Khan to acquire the throne of Delhi.
Alam Khan would recognise the supremacy of Babur over whole of the Punjab.

Question 54.
What do you know about the Ulemas?
Answer:
The Ulemas were the leaders of Muslim religious class. They were scholars of Arabic and religious literature.

Question 55.
What was the difference between the food of the Hindu and the Muslim societies?
Answer:
The food of Amirs, high ranking military officers, Sayyids, Sheikhs, Qazis and Muslim priests was rich and non-vegetarian. But the food of the Hindus was simple and mostly vegetarian.

Question 56.
Who were the Sayyids?
Answer:
The Sayyids claimed themselves to be the descendants of Bibi Fatima, the daughter of Prophet Muhammad. This class is highly respected in the Muslim society.

Question 57.
Describe the Muslim Middle Class.
Answer:
The Muslim Middle Class consisted of middle ranking government officials, soldiers, traders and farmers.

Question 58.
Describe the dress of the Muslim women.
Answer:
The Muslim women wore shirts, ghaghras, and tight pajamas, covering their whole body. They covered their whole body with a cloak called Burka.

Question 59.
Describe the sources of entertainment of the Muslims.
Answer:
The main sources of entertainment of Muslim nobles, Amirs and military commanders were polo, horse riding, dance and music. The game of chess was equally popular among the Amirs and the poor sections of Muslim society.

Question 60.
Describe the superstitions observed by the Hindus.
Answer:
Before the times of Guru Nank Dev Ji, the Hindus of Punjab were victims of blind faith and superstitions.

Question 61.
What was the political condition of Punjab under the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi?
Answer:
The Punjab had been reduced to an arena of intrigues under the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 62.
Why did Ibrahim Lodhi summon Daplat Khan Lodhi to Delhi?
Answer:
Ibrahim summoned Dault Khan to Delhi to punish him.

Question 63.
Who made Tatar Khan the Nizam of Punjab?
Answer:
Behlol Lodhi.

Question 64.
Who is considered the most famous king of the Lodhi dynasty?
Answer:
Sikander Lodhi.

Question 65.
Who was made Subedar of Punjab after Tatar Khan?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi.

Question 66.
Name the younger son of Daulat Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Dilawar Khan Lodhi.

Question 67.
During his Punjab invasion of 1519 A.D., which areas were captured by Babur?
Answer:
Bajaur and Bhera.

Question 68.
When did Babur capture Lahore?
Answer:
1524 A.D.

Question 69.
Between whom the first battle of Panipat was fought?
Answer:
Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 70.
Who called themselves descendants of Bibi Fatima, daughter of Prophet Mohammad?
Answer:
Sayyids.

Question 71.
Who did justice related work?
Answer:
Qazi.

Question 72.
Who were at the lowest level in Muslim Society?
Answer:
Slaves.

Question 73.
What were Hindus considered before Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
Jimmy.

Question 74.
Name the religious tax imposed on Hindus.
Answer:
Jaziya.

Question 75.
Among whom the social evil of Sati prevailed?
Answer:
Among Hindus.

Question 76.
What was the name of elongated headgear which the Muslim Amirs wore?
Answer:
Cheera.

Question 77.
Why did Daulat Khan send his son Dilawar Khan to the Sultan of Delhi?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi had thought that the Sultan of Delhi would punish him severely.

Question 78.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi invite Babur to attack India?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi wanted to establish his own independent rule over Punjab.

Question 79.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi turn against Babur?
Answer:
Babur did not appoint him the ruler of the whole of the Punjab after his victory.

Question 80.
Where did Daulat Khan fight Babur?
Answer:
Daulat Khan fought a battle with Babur at Malout but was defeated.

Question 81.
Write down the words in which Guru Nanak Dev Ji described the political condition of the Punjab of early 16th century.
Answer:
The king was like a lion, judicial officers were dogs.

Question 82.
Why did Babur conquer Punjab?
Answer:
He wanted to occupy the throne of Delhi after conquering Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief the concept of God of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:

God is One. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that there is one God. He was not different for different people and thus could not be divided. He gave the message of one Supreme Formless or Supreme Onkar.
God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji preached that Supreme God is Formless, without attributes and absolute. The Supreme God has attributes, which cannot be explained in words. Guru Sahib further teaches that God is Self-Created and not bound by the laws of time. Hence, He cannot be presented in the form of an idol and worshipped.
God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. Guru Nanak Dev Ji explained that God is Omnipotent and Omnipresent. He existed everywhere. He cannot be confined within the four walls of a temple or mosque.
God is Supreme. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is Supreme. He is incomparable. It is impossible to measure the depth of His grace and greatness.
God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message that God is compassionate. He attends to his true seekers whenever they need Him.

Question 2.
Which places did Guru Nanak Dev Ji visit during his Second Udasi (travel)?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji passed through Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur and finally reached the present Himachal Pradesh. There, Guru Sahib visited Bilaspur, Mandi, Suket, JawalaJi, Kangra, Kulu, Spiti, etc. and made many people his followers. Guru Sahib then visited Tibet, Kailash Mountain and Amarnath Cave in Kashmir. After that, Guru Sahib also visited Hassan Abdal and Sialkot. From there, Guru Sahib came back to Sultanpur Lodhi.

Question 3.
Describe the Sacred Thread ceremony of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji had not yet completed his early education when it was decided to perform the sacred thread ceremony for Guru Nanak Dev Ji by his parents. A day was fixed for the ceremony as an auspicious day. All the relatives and Brahmins were invited. Pandit Hardyal recited the hymns (mantras) and asked Guru Nanak Dev Ji to sit before him and wear the sacred thread. Guru Nanak Dev Ji refused to wear the thread. Guru Sahib said that he did not need any such thread for his physical body but a permanent thread for his soul. Guru Sahib further stated that he needed such a thread that was not made of cotton yarn but of the yarn of right virtues.

Question 4.
What professions did Guru Nanak Dev Ji adopt in his early life?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji had started showing disinterest in his education and worldly affairs at a very young age. His father engaged him in cattle grazing to divert his interest to worldly affairs. While on cattle-grazing rounds, he remained engrossed in deep meditation and his cattle strayed into fields of the other people. Troubled by the complaints of neighbouring farmers, his father decided to put him in business. He gave him twenty rupees to start some business but Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent all the money in feeding the saints and wanderers. This incident of his life is popular as ‘Sachha Sauda’ or the Pious Deal.

Question 5.
Write about the places Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited during his first Udasi (travel).
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the following places during his first Udasi :

Guru Sahib went from Sultanpur Lodhi to Sayyidpur where Guru Sahib made Bhai Lalo his follower.
Then Guru Sahib visited Talumba, Kurukshetra and Panipat. Guru Sahib gave the message of doing right deeds to the people of those areas.
From Panipat, Guru Sahib reached Haridwar via Delhi. Guru Sahib preached against superstitions at those places.
Then Guru Sahib visited Kedarnath, Badrinath, Gorakhmatta, Benaras, Patna, Hajipur, Dhubri, Kamrup (Assam), Shillong, Dacca, Jaganath Puri and a number of places in South India. Finally, Guru Sahib came back from Pakpattan to Sultanpur Lodhi via Dipalpur.

Question 6.
Write about the important places visited by Guru Nanak Dev Ji during the third Udasi (travel).
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi from Pakpattan. He visited the following places during this Udasi :

Multan,
Mecca,
Madina,
Baghdad,
Tehran,
Qandhar,
Peshawar,
Hassan Abdal and
Gujarat.

Question 7.
Give details of the time spent by Guru Nanak Dev Ji at Kartarpur.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji laid the foundation of a new city on the banks of river Ravi in 1521. The city was called “Kartarpur” which means ‘a city of God’. Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent the last eighteen years of his life along with his family members at Kartarpur (now in Pakistan.)

Guru Ji’s work at Kartarpur.

During his stay at Kartarpur, Guru Nanak Dev Ji composed *Var Malhar’, War Majha’, War Assa’, ‘Japji Sahib’, ‘Patti’, ‘Onkar’, etc.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji started the practices of Sangat and Pangat at Kartarpur in a systematic manner. During a session of ‘Sangat’, the followers of the Guru (Sikhs) sat together and meditated and recited hymns of the Guru. In the session of a ‘Pangat’ all the followers of the Guru sat together and partook their meals from a common kitchen (langar). This practice is also called Langar system.
When Guru Nanak Dev Ji prepared himself for the final journey of his life, he appointed his most devoted follower, Bhai Lehna as his successor to Guru-gaddi. Bhai Lehna as Guru Angad Dev Ji became the second Guru of the Sikh religion.

Question 8.
Write on the Udasis (travels) of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji undertook travels to spread his divine message. Those travels are called the Udasis. It is said that Guru Nanak Dev Ji travelled from Kailash mountains in the north to Rameshwaram in the south and from Pakpattan in the west to Assam in the east. Guru Sahib also visited places outside India such as Sri Lanka, Mecca, Medina, and Baghdad. Guru Sahib spent twenty years of his life in Udasis. On his long tours, Guru Nanak Dev Ji came across many people of different religions and faiths. Those people had different rites and customs. Guru Nanak Dev Ji showed them the true religious path.

Question 9.
What is the social significance of the message given by Guru Nanak Dev Ji?
Answer:
The message of Guru Nanak Dev Ji had great social significance. His message is for all. Every man and woman can easily follow and understand his teachings. There is no place for caste system or discrimination on religious basis. His teachings gave a setback to the caste system and developed the feeling of brotherhood among the people. Guru Sahib always identified himself with the common man. Therefore, Guru Sahib strongly condemned the oppression, injustice, and corruption of contemporary society. Consequently, his teachings removed many evils of the society.

Question 10.
Describe in brief the main teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught us :

There is one God. He is omnipresent and omnipotent.
The caste distinctions are meaningless. The rich, poor, Brahmans, Shudras, all are equal.
The right conduct makes a man great.
God should be worshipped with a pure mind.
Guru Sahib gives much importance to True Guru. Guru Nanak Dev Ji regarded the Guru essential for the realisation of God. According to him,‘True Guru acts as a guide in the attainment of the true name of God. Guru is the ladder which enables a man to reach the true goal of his life.”
One should always earn one’s living by right means.
The status of a woman is high. She gives birth to great men. All the women are worthy of highest respect.

Question 11.
Describe the religious policy of Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
According to Muslim historians, Sikandar Lodhi was an intelligent ruler, who believed in welfare of his subjects and impartial justice. However, Dr. Indu Bhushan Banerjee strongly opposes this view. According to him, he did justice only to the Muslim section of his subjects. He was a highly oppressive ruler and adopted the policy of intolerance in case of his Hindu subjects. He demolished numerous temples and forcibly converted many Hindus to Muslim faith. Millions of Hindus became victims of his atrocities.

Question 12.
Describe the administration of Sikander Lodhi.
Answer:
Sikander Lodhi was a powerful ruler. He centralized his administration and kept all the nobles and feudal lords under his strict control. He appointed Daulat Khan Lodhi as Nazim of Punjab. The boundaries of Punjab extended from Bhera to Sirhind at that time. Dipalpur was an important Suba of the Punjab province. However, Dipalpur was under nominal control of Lodhi Emperor.

Sikandar Lodhi worked for public welfare and considered it his main duty to solve the problems of his subjects. Unfortunately, he adopted this policy only in case of his Muslim subjects. But he did not treat Hindus well.

Question 13.
Describe the revolts during the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
The following two major revolts took place against the rule of Ibrahim Lodhi.
1. The Revolt of Afghans (Pathans). Ibrahim Lodhi tried to discipline the freedom loving Afghan tribesmen. The Afghans did not tolerate it. They, therefore, rose in revolt under the leadership of Alam Khan, an uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi failed to crush their revolt.

2. Revolt in Punjab. Daulat Khan Lodhi was the governor of Punjab. He was also an uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi. He was annoyed by the stiff, obstinate and suspicious attitude of the Emperor Ibrahim Lodhi. As a result, Daulat Khan Lodhi decided to free himself from the control of the Emperor and started conspiring against him. He invited Babur, the ruler of Kabul, to invade India to achieve his own aim.

Question 14.
Why did Dilawar Khan Lodhi go to Delhi? How did Ibrahim Lodhi treat him?
Answer:
Dilawar Khan visited Delhi to meet Ibrahim Lodhi and to clarify his position regarding his relations with his father Daulat Khan. Ibrahim Lodhi threatened Dilawar Khan. He told Dilawar Khan that he would severely punish his father Daulat Khan for conspiring against him. Dilawar Khan was shown horrifying scenes of torture, which were inflicted on the rebels and afterwards, even he was imprisoned by the Sultan. Somehow, Dilawar Khan managed to escape from the prison of Ibrahim Lodhi. On reaching Lahore, he told his father Daulat Khan all the facts; the treatment meted out to him and happenings at Delhi. Daulat Khan got the message and also came to know the real intentions of Ibrahim Lodhi and decided to cross swords with him.

Question 15.
Describe the Sayyidpur attack of Babur.
Answer:
Babur marched towards Sayyidpur (Emnabad) after occupying Sialkot. A large army stationed at Sayyidpur offered a stiff resistance to the cavalry of Babur. However, Babur won the battle. The defeated army was mercilessly killed. The people of Sayyidpur were also subjected to cruelties. Many of them were made slaves. Guru Nanak Dev Ji described the cruel deeds of Babur in his ‘Babur Vani’.

Question 16.
Write about Babur’s invasion of India in 1524 A.D.
Answer:
In 1524, Babur attacked India for the fourth time. Alam Khan, the real uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi, appealed to Babur to help him in occupying the throne of Delhi. Even the governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi, another relative of Ibrahim Lodhi, had sought the help of Babur against Ibrahim Lodhi. Consequently, Babur, passing through Bhera reached Lahore. On reaching Lahore, Babur learnt that Daulat Khan had been driven out of Lahore by the army of Delhi before his arrival.

Babur immediately took revenge of the defeat of Daulat Khan by the army of Delhi.,In the meantime, misunderstanding developed between Daulat Khan Lodhi and Babur at Dipalpur. Daulat Khan was expecting that Babur would appoint him as the governor of Punjab after his victory. But Babur gave him only the territories of Jalandhar and Sultanpur. The disappointed Daulat Khan was infuriated. He ran away to hilly areas in order to raise an army to take revenge of his insult at the hands of Babur. However, the situation took a new turn when Babur entrusted Dipalpur to Alam Khan Lodhi and left for Kabul to strengthen his army and make more preparations for another invasion of India.

Question 17.
What efforts were made by Alam Khan to conquer Punjab?
Answer:
Babur entrusted the charge of Dipalpur to Alam Khan Lodhi at the end of his fourth expedition before returning to Kabul. Later, Alam Khan Lodhi planned to grab the whole of Punjab. However, his dream was shattered when Daulat Khan defeated him and turned him out of Punjab. Alam Khan Lodhi again went to seek protection of Babur. He signed a treaty with Babur. According to the terms of the treaty, Alam Khan Lodhi promised Babur to help him to occupy the throne of Delhi. Alam Khan assured Babur that after occupying Punjab, he would accept the suzerainty of Babur over Punjab. However, Alam Khan failed in his plans. Ultimately, Alam Khan helped Daulat Khan against Ibrahim Lodhi. This time again he failed to achieve his goal and all his plans to grab Punjab were ruined.

Question 18.
Describe the strategy of war between the army of Ibrahim Lodhi and of Babur at Panipat.
Answer:
The strength of the army of Ibrahim Lodhi on the battleground of Panipat was one lakh soldiers. It was divided into four sections :

Advance Wing
Centre Wing
Left Wing and
Right Wing.

There were 500 elephants also in his army.
Babur had arranged 700 carts before his army. The wheels of those carts were tied to each other with leather, leaving gaps between the pairs of carts. The artillery was arranged behind those carts. Behind the cannons, the front and the central wings, the army was stationed. The Left and Right Talughmas (invading platoons, which adopted guerilla technique of war) flanked the main army. At the back of such a layout stood the cavalry, ready to charge the enemy.

Question 19.
Write a note on the Amirs and Sardars.
Answer:
The Amirs and high-ranking commanders belonged to the upper section of the Muslim society. They were given ranks and titles. The commanders were paid in the form of land grants called ‘Iqtas’ from where they collected land revenue. They were free to spend land revenue as they liked.

The commanders always remained involved in wars. They were engaged in making plans to free themselves from the control of the Delhi ruler in one way or the other. They did not look after the local administration, which was a part of their official duty. They spent their wealth on a life of luxury and debauchery. They lived in big mansions with many wives. They had many male and female slaves.

Question 20.
Write about the religious leaders of the Muslims.
Answer:
There were two sections of Muslim high clergy,

Ulemas: They belonged to religious class of the Muslim society. They were authorities on Arabic and religious literature,
Sayyids: Apart from the Ulemas, there was a class of Sayyids in the Muslim religious society. They claimed themselves to be the descendants of Bibi Fatima, the daughter of Prophet Muhammad.

Both the Sayyids and the Ulemas had a thorough knowledge of the law governing the Muslim society.

Question 21.
Describe the condition of slaves and other low classes in the society.
Answer:

The lowest class in the Muslim society included persons like weavers, potters, labourers, slaves and eunuchs. The prisoners of war were made slaves. They were also exported to other countries.
The eunuch slaves were employed to serve the royal ladies in the harems.
The women slaves were like an object of amusement for satisfying the whims of the Amirs and high ranking commanders. Such women received shelter, food and clothing in return. Their condition of life depended upon the mercy of their owners.

Question 22.
What were the food habits of the Muslims?
Answer:
The food habits of Upper Section of Muslim Society. The upper section of Muslim society included Amirs, high ranking commanders, Sayyids, Sheikhs, priests and Qazis. They enjoyed delicious food, spices and chillies in excess. The ‘Pulao’ and ‘Korrma’ were their most favourite delicacies. Among sweets and desserts, they liked puddings of ground flour (Halwa) and syrups (sharbats). It was a normal habit with the members of the upper class to take drugs.

The Food of Common Muslims. The common Muslims were non-vegetarian. The baked cakes of wheat (chappati) and roasted meat were their staple diet. The cooked food was also available in the bazaars. Most of the Muslim artisans loved to take mashed curd (lassi) along with their meals.

Question 23.
Write about the dress of the Muslims.
Answer:

The Upper Class Muslims wore costly and gaudy dresses. Their clothes were made of silk and fine cotton. The Amirs wore elongated headgear (Paggadi). They called their headgear ‘Cheera’.
The Dress of the Slaves of the Nobles. They wore girdle (special cloth) covering abdomen. They kept a handkerchief and wore red sleepers. They wore ordinary headgears.
The Muslim Clergy. They wore cotton clothes. They wore headgears of seven yards long cloth. The Sufis wore loose gowns.
The Common Muslims. They wore shirts and pyjamas. They also wore shoes and socks.
The Muslim women. A Muslim woman wore shirt, ghaggra and narrow pyjama.

Question 24.
Describe the position of women in the Muslim society.
Answer:
A description of condition of the Muslim women in the sixteenth century is given below :

They did not enjoy a respectable position in the Muslim society.
The women belonging to high class lived in highly protected environment of harems. The slaves and concubines were provided to serve them.
The Pardah system was rigorously observed. However, this system was not strictly observed in the rural areas.
The women of the families of the common people working in the houses of upper class people lived in separate portions of the houses. Their portion was called Janan Khanna. They could come out of their dwelling houses only in Pardah.

Question 25.
Write about the caste system prevalent before Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The Hindu society was divided into different castes or classes before the times of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. The main castes were: Brahman, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudra.

Apart from these main castes, there were numerous sub-castes.

Brahmans. The Brahmans had become totally negligent of their duties and responsibilities towards the society and worked for their personal interests. They indulged in flattery of the ruling class to serve their own interests. They also had great influence on the common man. The common people were trapped in numerous superstitions due to the influence of Brahmans.
Kshatriyas and Vaishyas. The condition of the Kshatriyas and the Vaishyas was comparatively better.
Shudras. The condition of Shudras was very miserable. They were hated and treated as untouchables. There was no harmony between the upper castes and the lower castes in the Hindu society.

Question 26.
Discuss the political condition of Punjab of early sixteenth century.
Or
Describe the political condition of Punjab before Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
In the early sixteenth century, the condition of the Punjab was very deplorable. It was called Lahore province and was a part of the Delhi Empire in those days. The Sultans of Delhi (Behlol Lodhi to Ibrahim Lodhi 1451 to 1526) were despots. Anarchy spread in Punjab under their rule. The whole atmosphere was poisoned with conspiracies. There was naked dance of lawlessness in the whole of Punjab. The ruling class was busy in merry-making. The government officials were corrupt and openly neglected their duties. There was no hope of getting justice in such a situation. Guru Nanak Dev Ji said that justice had taken wings. Bhai Gurdas had also described the corruption and maladministration of this period.

Question 27.
What was the cause of struggle between Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi and Daulat Khan Lodhi in the beginning of the sixteenth century? What steps did Ibrahim Lodhi take to check Daulat Khan Lodhi?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi was the governor of Punjab during the reign of Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi. In name, he was subordinate to Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi but he was virtually acting as an independent ruler of Punjab. He won over Alam Khan Lodhi, the uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi, to his side through secret negotiations, wherein he assured Alam Khan Lodhi his help in acquiring the throne of Delhi. When Ibrahim Lodhi learnt about this secret plot, he summoned Daulat Khan Lodhi to Delhi. Daulat Khan sent his son Dilawar Khan Lodhi in his place to clarify his position. When Dilawar Khan Lodhi arrived in Delhi, Ibrahim Khan Lodhi imprisoned him. Somehow, Dilawar Khan managed to escape from the prison and reached back Lahore to join his father. Daulat Khan Lodhi invited Babur to invade India in order to take revenge upon Ibrahim Lodhi for his act.

Question 28.
Describe the struggle between Babur and Daulat Khan Lodhi.
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi invited Babur to invade India. Daulat Khan expected that Babur would appoint him the governor of Punjab after his victory. However, Babur gave him the territory of Jalandhar and Sultanpur only. As a result, he raised the banner of revolt against Babur. It soon led to a battle between them in which Daulat Khan and his son Ghazi Khan were defeated. After that, Babur returned to Kabul after entrusting his Indian possessions to Alam Khan. The moment Babur turned his back, Daulat Khan chased out Alam Khan, who at that time, represented Babur in Punjab, and declared himself the ruler of Punjab instead. Alam Khan visited Babur at Kabul and invited him to invade India. Babur again invaded India for the fifth time in 1525 and imprisoned Daulat Khan. Daulat Khan was later pardoned but he died soon after.

Question 29.
Describe the struggle between Babur, the King of Kabul, and Ibrahim Lodhi, Sultan of Delhi.
Or
Describe the first battle of Panipat. What was the significance of this battle in the history of Punjab?
Answer:
Babur marched towards Delhi after defeating Daulat Khan Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi also left Delhi with an army of one lakh soldiers to cross swords with Babur. They fought the battle at Panipat on April 21, 1526. Ibrahim Lodhi, the Sultan of Delhi, was defeated and killed in the battle. Babur, the Padshah of Kabul, reached Delhi with his victorious army and unfurled his flag of victory over Delhi. With that Delhi Sultanate came to an end and the rule of the Mughal dynasty began. Hence, the battle of Panipat decided the fate of Punjab and also of whole of India.

Question 30.
Describe the condition of the Hindu society of the sixteenth century Punjab.
Answer:
The condition of Hindu society in the sixteenth century Punjab was very miserable. Every Hindu was treated with suspicion. They were not appointed on high jobs in the government. The Jaziya and Toll tax (which were imposed only on non-Muslims) were forcibly collected from them. The government had imposed numerous restrictions on Hindu customs, traditions, festivals and dress. They were subjected to torture and humiliation to compel them to embrace Islam. Sikander Lodhi killed a Brahmin named ‘Bodhan’ because he had resisted conversion to Islam. It is also a part of local oral history that once Sikander Lodhi had planned to kill all the Hindus who had assembled at Kurukshetra in a religious fair. However, he refrained from executing his plans due to the fear of mass revolt of the Hindus against him.

Question 31.
Describe the various classes of sixteenth-century Muslim society.
Answer:
The Muslim society of the sixteenth century in Punjab was divided into following three classes :
1. Upper class. The Afghan Amirs, Sheikhs, Qazis, Ulemas or religious leaders, and powerful feudal lords, etc. were included in this class. The ministers of the sultans and high ranking civil and military officers also belonged to this section of the Muslim Society. This section led a life of luxury and merry-making.

2. Middle class. The low ranking Qazis, soldiers, middle-ranking government officials, traders etc. were members of this class. They enjoyed more freedom under the Sultanate rule as compared to other lower sections of the society and also a position of respect in the Muslim society.

3. Lower class. The slaves, the domestic servants, artisans and eunuchs were included in this class. There were female slaves also. Their life was miserable.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Throw light on the childhood of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Birth and Parentage. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was born on April 15, 1469. Mehta Kalu Ram was his father and Mata Tripta, his mother. His father belonged to Bedi caste of the Kshatriyas. Mehta Kalu Ram was a Patwari under Jagirdar Rai Bular of Talwandi. The name of the only sister of Guru Nanak Dev Ji was Bibi Nanaki who was elder to Guru Sahib.

His Childhood and Education. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was kind at heart since his childhood. Guru Sahib was easily moved by the pains and sorrows of the poor and downtrodden. Guru Sahib was sent to the school of Pandit Gopal at the age of seven. Guru Sahib learnt the Devanagri script and arithmetic within two years. Guru Sahib was sent to the school of Pandit Brij Lai to learn Sanskrit. Guru Sahib surprised Pandit Brij Lai with the right explanation of the word ‘OM’. According to the Sikh traditions, Guru Nanak Dev Ji had learnt Persian and Arabic from Maulvi Qutubudin.

The Ceremony of Sacred Thread. During the years of his early education, the parents of Guru Nanak Dev Ji decided to perform his sacred thread ceremony. All the relatives were invited on the occasion. After making preparations for the ceremony, Pandit Hardyal asked Guru Nanak Dev Ji to wear the cotton thread as the sacred thread. Guru Nanak Dev Ji refused to follow his instructions. Guru Sahib asked Pandit Ji to provide him with a thread not of cotton yarn but a thread which was made of right virtues.

Adopted Different Occupations. The father of Guru Nanak Dev Ji persuaded him to graze cattle in >order to divert his attention from spiritual activities to worldly activities. While on his cattle-grazing rounds, Guru Nanak Dev Ji usually lost himself in deep meditation and his unattended cattle used to destroy the fields of the other farmers. Troubled by the complaints of the neighbouring farmers, his father decided to engage him in business. He gave him twenty rtipees to start some business but Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent the entire amount on feeding the hungry saints and wanderers. This incident of his life is popular as ‘Sacha Sauda’.

Marriage. Mehta Kalu Ram became depressed on watching the other worldly nature of his son. He married Guru Sahib to Bibi Sulakhani, daughter of Mulraj of Batala from a Kashtriya clan. At the time of his marriage, Guru Nanak Dev Ji was fourteen years old. Bhai Sri Chand and Bhai Lakshmi Chand were born to them. Mehta Kalu Ram sent Guru Nanak Dev Ji to Sultanpur Lodhi to adopt some regular profession. Guru Nanak Dev Ji got employment in a storehouse of Faujdar Daulat Khan on the recommendation of his brother-in-law, Shri Jai Ram. Guru Sahib started helping the saints open-heartedly at the storehouse. A complaint was lodged with Daulat Khan against him. However, when the records of the store were verified, every account was found in perfect order. It brought him great respect and admiration for his honesty.

Enlightenment. Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the bank of river Kali Bein every morning to take a bath. Guru Sahib used to meditate every day at the time of bath. One morning, Guru Sahib went to take bath as usual, but disappeared for three days. During those days, Guru Sahib remained engaged in deep meditation and received the divine knowledge. Guru Sahib attained enlightenment and came to understand the mysteries of life. Guru Sahib was thirty years of age at that time.

Soon after, Guru Sahib started spreading the divine knowledge. His teachings were quite simple which attracted numerous people and they became his followers.

Question 2.
Describe the time period spent by Guru Nanak Dev Ji at Sultanpur Lodhi.
Answer:
Sometime between 1486-87, the father of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, Mehta Kalu Ram sent Guru Sahib to Sultanpur Lodhi with a hope to divert his attention to worldly affairs. Guru Sahib started staying with Shri Jai Ram, his brother-in-law, and the husband of his sister Bibi Nanaki.

Job with Lodhi Khana. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was well-versed in Persian language and arithmetic. Guru Sahib joined as Bhandari (the store accountant) in Lodhi Khana (storehouse), of a Faujdar under Daulat Khan Lodhi on the recommendation of Shri Jai Ram. Guru Sahib worked very honestly and sincerely. However, a complaint was lodged against him that he was distributing the store-goods among the saints and wanderers without keeping any record. When the records were verified everything was found in perfect order.

The Life of a Householder and Meditation. Guru Nanak Dev Ji also brought his family to Sultanpur Lodhi after sometime. Guru Sahib started living a simple and pure family life. It was his routine that Guru Sahib visited the river Kali Bein on the outskirts of the town to take bath and to meditate on the name of God. He gave a part of his earnings in charity to the needy.

Enlightenment. It is recorded in Janam Sakhis, that one morning, as per his routine, Guru Sahib want to take bath in the river Kali Bein. But Guru Sahib disappeared for the next three days. A rumour spread in the town that he had been drowned in the river. All his relatives and well-wishers started worrying about his well-being. However, Guru Nanak Dev Ji had spent those days in deep meditation and on attainment of enlightenment. Guru Sahib had planned to spread the divine knowledge during those days.

After three days, Guru Nanak Dev Ji again returned to Sultanpur Lodhi and kept a mystic silence for some days. When Guru Sahib was persuaded to speak, he uttered his first divine message, “Na Ko Hindu Na Ko Musalman”. Faujdar Daulat Khan, Qazi, and Brahmins sought the explanation of his message. Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught them that the Hindus as well as the Muslims had forgotten the true tenets of their religions. He said that there was no difference in being a Hindu or Muslim. All were equal before God. Thus, Guru Sahib started preaching his divine teachings with the message of brotherhood and humanity. In order to preach his divine message, Guru Sahib resigned from his worldly job and started his travels.

Question 3.
Describe the Udasis (Travels) of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
After attaining enlightenment, Guru Nanak Dev Ji decided to spread the divine message for the spiritual benefit of humanity. Guru Sahib resigned his job and started his journey dressed as a fakir. Guru Nanak Dev Ji wanted to spread the divine message for which he travelled far and wide. Guru Sahib visited the east, west, north and south of India and blessed the people with his sweet voice and simple teachings. It took him twenty years to complete the whole journey. The historians of the Sikh history call the travels of Guru Nanak Dev Ji as the ‘Udasis’ of Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Aims of the Udasis. The main aim of Guru Nanak Dev Ji to undertake the Udasis was to show the true divine path to misguided humanity. Apart from that, Guru Sahib also aimed at popularising the mode of meditation on God’s Name in order to realise Him. Guru Sahib also aimed at discouraging the irrational rites, customs and superstitions.

The Udasis (Travels or Tours) of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. A brief account of his travels divided into three journeys may be studied as under :
1. First Udasi. Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited the following places on his first journey.
(а) Guru Nanak Dev Ji went from Sultanpur Lodhi to Sayyidpur where he made Bhai Lalo his follower.
(b) Afterwards, Guru Sahib went to Talumba (where the cunning Sajjan lived), Kurukshetra, .and Panipat. Guru Sahib encouraged the people to do good deeds.
(c) Guru Nanak Dev Ji went to Haridwar from Panipat via Delhi. Guru Sahib criticized superstitions and useless ceremonies.
(d) Next, Guru Nanak Dev Ji visited Kedarnath, Badrinath, Benaras,
Gorakhmatta, Patna, Hajipur, Dhubri, Kamrup, Shillong, Dacca and South India. Finally, he came back to Sultanpur Lodhi from Pakpattan via Dipalpur.

2. Second Udasi. Guru Nanak Dev Ji passed through Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur and finally reached the present Himachal Pradesh. There he visited Bilaspur, Mandi, Suket, JawalaJi, Kangra, Kullu, Spiti etc. and made many people his followers. Guru Sahib then visited Tibet, Kailash Mountains and Amarnath cave in Kashmir. After that, Guru Sahib also visited Hassan Abdal and Sialkot. From there, Guru Sahib came back to Sultanpur Lodhi.

3. Third Udasi. Guru Nanak Dev Ji started his third Udasi from Pakpattan finally and reached Sayyidpur. During this journey,

Guru Sahib visited the following places :

Multan
Mecca
Madina
Baghdad
Tehran
Qandhar
Peshawar
Hassan Abdal and
Gujarat.

Question 4.
Explain in detail the concept of God according to Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The core of the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji is the praise of God (Nirankar). A simple description of the views of Guru Nanak Dev Ji on God is as follows :
1. There is One God. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave the message of “Ek Onkar” which means One Supreme God. It was the core of all his teachings. It was the gist of his teachings or Mool Mantar. The gist of all his divine preaching on the idea of God is represented in his main saying (Mool Mantar). Guru Sahib told that there is one God and He cannot be divided. This message had social and religious importance for the contemporary world. The Muslims prayed to God accepting Prophet Muhammad as His prophet. The Hindus worshipped numerous gods and goddesses by accepting each of them as Supreme form. In his teachings, Guru Sahib strongly denied the concept of the incarnation of Supreme God. On that account, Guru Sahib did not accept Ram, Krishna, Buddha, and Muhammad as the incarnations of Supreme God.

2. God is Formless and Self-Created. Guru Nanak Dev Ji declared that God is Formless. He does not have any shape or form (Nirguna) but there are different attributes of God also (Saguna). Hence, the exact perception of God remains beyond the reach of words. God is Self Created, not by time (Altai Purakh), eternal and timeless (Akal Murat). Hence, it will not help, if Supreme God is worshipped only in the form of an idol created out of the perception of a common man. Guru Sahib rightly claimed that an ignorant man did not have the capacity to perceive the real God and neither had the ability to perceive and represent the Supreme God in the form of an idol or a symbol.

3. God is Omnipresent and Omnipotent. According to Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God is omnipresent and omnipotent. Guru Sahib said that He is present everywhere. He cannot be confined within the four walls of a temple or mosque. One of his couplets when translated, elaborates thus, “Why to seek one that was created and dies. Seek the only one, who is eternal.”

The being, which is created, will die. The being, which is created, is bound by time. It has a beginning. The thing, which has a beginning, has an end also. However, the Supreme God is Self-Created, that is, he was not created and thus will not end with time. He is Akal Murat, that is not bound by time (start and end) and thus timeless (permanent).

4. God is Compassionate (Kind). Guru Nanak Dev Ji said that God is very kind. He helps whenever He is sought. He lives in the hearts of his believers. To Guru Nanak Dev Ji, God was personal and merciful. He helped them who had faith in Him in time of trouble and difficulty.

5. God is Supreme and Great. Guru Nanak Dev Ji declared that God is Supreme and Great. It was beyond the capabilities of human beings to understand his Supreme Existence. Only God knows what actually He is. Thus Guru Nanak Dev Ji said, . ‘He, The Great, knows, what can be known on being great.’ ‘A’rtoi sfS1′ tyufHf WJ TF<? W( I’ Many people had tried to explain the greatness of God but none had been successful in revealing His greatness in words.

6. Importance of his edicts (Hukam). The teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji were full of praise of “Hukam” (rules ordained by God) of God. According to Guru Sahib , every event in the universe takes place as ordained by God (Hukam). Guru Sahib suggested that humanity should accept the sweet will of God as revealed in His Hukam.

Question 5.
Describe the role of Guru Nanak Dev Ji as a teacher and the founder of the Sikh religion.
Answer:
(A) As a Great Teacher :
1. Preacher of Truth. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was a great teacher of humanity. Guru Sahib attained enlightenment in the thirtieth year of his life. Guru Sahib travelled widely to spread his message. Guru Sahib spread the gospel of Truth in every nook and corner of the Punjab. Everywhere, people were impressed by his personality and message. Guru Nanak Dev Ji taught to abandon the materialistic desires, selfishness, and greediness and enjoined upon his followers to lead a pious life. Guru Sahib taught those principles which he himself practised in his personal life.

2. A Guru for the Whole Humanity. The teachings of Guru Sahib were not meant for any particular community, place, or nation, rather they are for the whole world. Prof. K.S. Narang opines that his message was not just for one period of time. It is eternal. Guru Sahih’s teachings were so rational and complete that even modern rationalists cannot find any shortcomings in them. The main aim of his teachings was the welfare of the whole humanity. It was only with the spirit of the welfare of the whole humanity that Guru Sahib undertook hard journey to Burma, China, Tibet, Arabia, etc.

(B) As the founder of Sikh Religion: Guru Nanak Dev Ji founded the Sikh religion. There are some fundamental principles of Sikh religion which are found only in Sikhism but not in Hinduism or Islam. Fpr example, Guru Nanak Dev Ji started the institutions of Sangat and Pangat which were the important features of the new faith. Secondly, Guru Nanak Dev Ji did not appoint his son as successor to Guru-gaddi but gave it to his devotee Bhai Lehna. By this act, the Guru tradition became very significant and the Sikh religion was founded. The Sikh religion continued to develop during the period of next nine Gurus and the Sikh religion established itself as a full-fledged religion.

Question 6.
Describe the political condition of Punjab before Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
The political condition of the Punjab was very miserable before the times of Guru Nanak Dev Ji (i.e. in the beginning of the 16th century). Punjab was known as the Lahore Province (Suba) in those days and formed part of the Delhi Empire. However, the glory of the Delhi Empire had declined by that time. As a result, the Punjab administration was weak and inefficient.

The brief description of the political condition of Punjab in the beginning of the 16th century was as under :
1. Despotic Rule. In the beginning of 16th century, Punjab was ruled by despotic rulers. All the Delhi Sultans of this period from Behlol Lodhi to Ibrahim Lodhi, were despots. They believed in the doctrine of Divine Right of the King and considered themselves as the representatives of God on the earth. All the powers of the Empire were concentrated in their hands. How can one expect that rights of common man were safe during the rule of such despots?

2. Political Anarchy: The country had been reduced to an arena of intrigues during the reign of the Lodhis. The last years of the reign of Sikandar Lodhi witnessed revolts all over the Empire. During the reign of Ibrahim Lodhi, there were frequent revolts in his kingdom. All his commanders and courtiers were busy in conspiring against him. The provincial governors were either trying to establish their independent kingdoms or joining the camps of contenders to the throne of Delhi. Such a state of anarchy worsened the condition of Punjab. It was a historic fact that no ruler could effectively rule Delhi without his control over the Punjab. Hence, all the Subedars were watching the situation in Punjab keenly. The governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi, was making every effort to establish his independent control over Punjab. A spirit of revolt was rising among the people of Punjab due to the selfish policies of the incapable rulers.

3. Lawlessness: In the beginning of the 16th century, there was complete lawlessness in the Punjab. The ruling class was busy in merry-making. The government officers were corrupt. There was no hope for any one to get justice in such a situation. The condition of the period is also reflected in the sayings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. Guru Sahib Ji said that justice had taken wings. Guru Sahib Ji further revealed that there was not a single man who would do job without taking bribe. The ruler himself sought gratification to deliver justice. Sikandar Lodhi tried to deliver justice but he adopted this approach only for his Muslim subjects.

4. Wars: The Punjab was reduced to a battleground. Every ambitious noble was making efforts to establish his control over Punjab so that he could occupy the throne of Delhi. The intrigues and ambitions of military conynanders, Subedars, and courtiers led to numerous clashes. During the period, a tussle between Daulat Khan Lodhi and Ibrahim Lodhi continued for a long time. Babur invaded the Punjab five times during 1519-1526 A.D.

Question 7.
Describe Babur’s conquest of Punjab.
Answer:
The victory of Babur over Punjab was the outcome of the first battle of Panipat. It was fought in 1526 A.D. between Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi, the Sultan of Delhi. Babur won this battle and occupied Punjab.

Babur’s invasion. Babur left Kabul for India in November 1525, with his twelve thousand soldiers. He defeated Daulat Khan Lodhi at Lahore on his march towards Delhi. The Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodhi proceeded towards north-west along with an army of one lakh soldiers against Babur. His army was divided into four wings, namely, the advance guard, central division, right wing and left wing. There were five hundred elephants in his army. The rival armies stood face to face in the battlefield of Panipat.

Beginning of the Battle. There were no attack from either side for eight days. Ultimately, on April 21, 1526, the army of Ibrahim attacked Babur’s forces. Babur started his attack by continuously firing his cannons. It was a new situation and experience for the Delhi army. Immediately afterwards, the right and left Talugma wings of Babur’s army attacked Delhi army. It was followed by a strong charge of the middle wing of Babur’s army consisting of cavalry on the centre of Delhi army. In this manner, Delhi army was encircled from all sides. They could move neither forward nor retreat. The elephants of Ibrahim’s army were terrified and injured by the gunshots. They trampled their own soldiers of Delhi army under their feet. Within no time, the ground of Panipat was flooded with corpses of the killed soldiers. By the end of the noon, on the same day, the battle was over. The dead body of Ibrahim was found lying among numerous corpses of Rajput soldiers who were bodyguards of the dead Sultan. This battle completed the occupation of Punjab by Babur.

Question 8.
Describe in brief the intrigues of Daulat Khan Lodhi in Punjab.
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi was the son of Tatar Khan. Sikander Lodhi had appointed his reliable and near relative Tatar Khan as the governor of Punjab because of the sensitive situation in Punjab Province. After the death of Tatar Khan, his son Daulat Khan was appointed as governor of Punjab. During the lifetime of Sikander Lodhi, Daulat Khan remained loyal to Delhi Sultan but after the death of the Sultan, he started conspiring against the Delhi Sultanate with an aim to establish his independent control oyer Punjab.

1. Intrigues against Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi learnt about the plots of Daulat Khan Lodhi against him. He summoned Daulat Khan Lodhi to Delhi to clarify his position. But the Sultan Daulat Khan was guilty. Hence, he sent Dilawar Khan, his son, in his place to Delhi to represent him. Ibrahim Lodhi threatened Dilawar Khan. He tried to convey him the message that he could severely punish those who dared to conspire against him. Afterwards, he imprisoned Dilawar Khan. Somehow, Dilawar Khan managed to escape from the prison.^On reaching Lahore, he told Dault Khan about all the happenings.

Daulat Khan was quick to realise the danger of facing a real conflict with Ibrahim Lodhi. Therefore, first of all, he immediately declared himself as an independent ruler of Punjab. Further, in order to strengthen his position, he sought the help of Babur, the ruler of Kabul, and sent his son Dilawar Khan to him for negotiations. Dilawar Khan assured Babur of the full support of his father. Babur was desirous of becoming the ruler of India. He had earlier invaded India a couple of times with the same aim. Hence, he found his dream of ruling India becoming true, when he received the offer of Daulat Khan.

He marched towards India with full strength and easily occupied Lahore. However, when he proceeded further, he faced a strong opposition of the Afghan leaders. He ordered his army to indulge in loot and plunder at Lahore. Soon after, Dipalpur and Jalandhar were also looted. After conquering Punjab, Babur made Daulat Khan the Subedar of Jalandhar and entrusted the rest of Punjab to Alam Khan Lodhi, who was also made a representative or Vakil of Babur in India.

2. Daulat Khan’s Revolt against Babur. Daulat Khan had expected that Babur would declare him an independent ruler of Punjab. He was shocked and infuriated when Babur declared him the Subedar of Jalandhar only. He raised the banner of revolt against Babur along with his son Ghazi Khan. Babur easily crushed his revolt. Daulat Khan escaped to the hills of Shivaliks to save his life. When Babur left India, Daulat Khan came down from the Shivalik hills. He occupied a major portion of Punjab after defeating the armies of Alam Khan and Ibrahim Lodhi.

3. Defeat of Daulat Khan and his death. Babur was keeping an eye on the activities of Daulat Khan Lodhi. When he learnt that Daulat Khan had occupied Punjab again, he left Kabul in November 1525 to invade India. On reaching Lahore, he learnt that Daulat Khan Lodhi was camping at Malout near Hoshiarpur. Hence, Babur immediately attacked Malout. Daulat Khan was not able to resist the attack and lost the battle. He was imprisoned and sent to Bhera but he died before reaching there.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Source Based Questions and Answers

January 19, 2024January 18, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
We require a number of goods and services in our daily life. For example, we need food to satisfy our hunger, clothes to cover our body, houses for shelter, vehicles for transportation, television or radio for our entertainment, services of a doctor for treatment etc. These goods and services are called ‘means’ to satisfy our wants. When one of our wants is satisfied, there are other new wants that need to be satisfied. So our wants are unlimited and the means to satisfy these unlimited wants are limited and scarce. Man has to decide how to satisfy his maximum wants with available limited and scarce resources.
(а) What do you mean by Economics?
Answer:
Economics is a science concerned with the allocation of scarce means of resources in such a manner that consumers can maximize their satisfaction, producers can maximize their profits and society can maximize its social welfare.

(b) State the basic concepts of Economics.
Answer:
Following are the basic concepts of economics :

Goods. Goods are those visible things that satisfy human wants. Otherwise speaking, anything capable of satisfying a want is called a good. For example, radio, fan, mobile phone etc. are goods.
Services. In economics, besides goods, services such as teaching by teacher, treatment given by a doctor etc. also satisfy human wants. They don’t have physical existence.
Utility. Wants satisfying power of a good is called utility. In other words, utility is the ability of a good to satisfy a want.
Price. Price can be defined as the value of goods and services which can be expressed in terms of money.
Wealth. All those goods and services for which we have to pay a price for their consumption are called wealth.

Question 2.
In ordinary sense ‘Labour’ means any type of physical or mental work done for any purpose. But in economics ‘Labour’ means all human efforts, physical as well as mental, done for the sake of monetary gain. If a student plays a game for pleasure or a mother looks after her child out of affection, then these activities are not considered as labour because they have not done the work with the objective of earning money. But when a cricketer coach or a football coach gives coaching to players or a nurse attends to a child in hospital, such efforts are called ‘labour’ because these have been done to gain monetary remuneration.
(а) What is labour? State its features.
Answer:
Labour means all humans efforts, physical as well as mental, done for the sake of monetary gain.

Features:

It is the only active factor of production.
Supply of labour can be increased or decreased.
In India, labour is available in abundance.
Labour can be bought or sold.
Labour is mobile.

(b) Who will provide labour for farming?
Answer:
In the village, some families are small. Farmers, along with their families, use to cultivate their own fields. Thus, they themselves provide the labour required for farming. Besides this, some landless families work as labourers in the fields of big landlords to earn their living. Some farmers with very small landholdings have to give up their land to big landlords for the repayment of their loans taken from the big landlords. These farmers become landless and have to work in the fields of big farmers. In this way, big landlords and farmers with average landholdings engage labour for the work in the field.

Question 3.
Capital means all those man-made goods which are used in further production of goods. It is the produced means of production or in other words, it is used as an input in producing other goods. A building is not capital if it is used for private housing. But it is called capital if it is used for productive purpose. For example, a factory building, which is used for producing various goo^p is a capital. Money kept in the bank as deposits is capital because the bank lends the .money to producers who use it as capital although the depositor also gets interest on it. A T.V. set used in the reception of a company is capital but when used in a residential house is not capital.
(a) What is Capital? State its features.
Answer:
Capital means all those man-made goods which are used in further production of goods.

Features :

It is a man-made factor.
It is a secondary factor of production.
It is transferrable.
Capital involves depreciation.

(b) State need of capital in farming.
Answer:
Much money is needed to implement the modern farming methods, for instance: to buy seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, machine equipment etc. for agriculture.

Large and medium scale farmers earn more as compared to the small scale farmers. So these farmers, out of their own savings from farming, arrange for the capital needed in farming. Small scale farmers have to take loans on high rates of interest from the large scale farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders. Sometimes, they have to mortgage their houses or small landholdings to repay the loans. If they are unable to repay the loans, their property is seized. Government has opened special institutions such as RRBs, Cooperative Societies, Lands Development Bank and NABARD to provide capital to the farmers. To fulfil the need of capital, farmers have to take loans from these institutions.

Question 4.
Efforts made by a nation, an organization or any individual to raise their incomes are known as resources. Some resources like air, minerals, soil, water etc. are natural. These are used to satisfy human needs and are called ‘natural resources. The size of the population of a country along with its efficiency, educational qualities, productivity etc. is known as ‘human resources. Human resources is the most important resource because it makes the natural resources more useful. A country with highly educated and trained people can efficiently increase its productivity. Most of the developing and backward countries of the world are economically backward not because they lack natural resources but due to lack of quality in human resources.
(a) What is human capital formation?
Answer:
A country’s working population, with their existing productive skills and ability, contribute to the creation of the Gross National Product. This is referred to as human resources. So when investment in the form of education, training and medical care is made in human resources, human capital is formed which adds to the country’s Gross National Product which leads to the economic development of a country. Investment in human capital in the form of education and training yields higher incomes earned because of higher productivity by the more educated and better-trained people.

(b) Why is investment in human resources essential?
Answer:
Human Capital is superior to other resources like land and physical capital which are not useful at their own. Human resources can make use of land and capital. So, a large population is not a liability. It can be turned into a productive asset by investment in human capital. For example, by spending on education and health for all, training of industrial and agriculture workers in the use of modern technology etc. development of a country can be increased.

Question 4.
Unemployment refers to a situation in which people are willing to work at the current wages but cannot find work. The workforce population includes people from 15 years to 59 years. So, whenever a country’s unemployment is determined, persons who are not able to work, for example, patient, old people, small children, students etc. are not included. According to Statistics and Programme Implementation Department of Government of India’s National Sample Survey Report, the state of Kerala has the highest rate of unemployment and the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat have the lowest rate of unemployment.
(а) State the types of unemployment.
Answer:
There are many types of unemployment. We have unemployment in rural and urban areas, though the nature of unemployment differs in both areas. In case of rural areas there is seasonal and disguised unemployment. Urban areas have educated unemployment.

Seasonal unemployment means when people find jobs during some months and during remaining months they are unemployed. In the agriculture sector people remain employed during the sowing and harvesting season but after this for nearly 5 to 7 months they remain unemployed.

Disguised unemployment means more people are engaged in a particular work than required. Even if some men are relieved from work the total productivity will not decline.

In case of urban areas the rapidly increasing number of schools and colleges lead to educated unemployment as the job opportunities have not increased at the same rate.

(b) State the effects of unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment leads to the wastage of manpower resources. Unemployed people become a liability for society rather than an asset. Unemployment increases poverty. There is a feeling of hopelessness and despair among the youth as they are unable to financially support their family. The dependency of the unemployed on the working population adversely affects the quality of life of a society. There is a general decline in its health status and rising withdrawal from the school system. An increase in unemployment is an indicator of a weak economy. So unemployment is a serious problem because unemployed people have become a liability on society.

Question 6.
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get minimum basic necessities of life, like food, clothing, shelter, education and health facilities. Man struggles to fulfil these minimum basic needs. If the minimum basic needs are not fulfilled then there is loss of health and efficiency among those living in poverty in the country.
(a) State the measures of poverty.
Answer:
Poverty has two measurements

Relative Poverty. The economic conditions of different regions of countries is compared under relative poverty. Per capita income and national income are the two indicators of relative poverty.
Absolute Poverty. It refers to income and consumption levels in a country. If the daily intake of calories by a person is less than the required calories (2000-2500) per day then the person is absolutely poor.

(b) State the meaning of the poverty line.
Answer:
Poverty line is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life. It represents the capacity to satisfy the minimum level of human needs. People living below the poverty fine are considered poor.

Question 7.
The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas, though the calorie needs vary depending on age, sex and the type of work that a person does. Due to the hard work done by the people living in rural areas, they require more calories than the urban people.
(a) What are the indicators of poverty?
Answer:
Keeping in view the different aspects of poverty, social scientists are trying to use a variety of indicators to measure poverty. Usually, the indicators used to measure poverty are related to the levels of income and consumption. But social scientists have also included social indicators like illiteracy level, malnutrition, lack of access to health care, lack of job opportunities, and lack of safe drinking water. Social exclusion can be a cause as well as consequences of poverty. Sometimes people under social exclusion are deprived of equal opportunities.

(b) What are the income levels of measuring poverty line in India?
Answer:
(a) Lack of feeling of security in the backward classes is yet another indicator on which the analysis of poverty is based.
(b) On the basis of 2011-12 data, people below the consumption expenditure of? 816 per person per month in rural areas and? 1000 in urban areas are called poor.

Question 8.
Poor segment of the society needs food security at all times as the low purchasing power of the poor people does not allow them to buy food as per their requirements. There is a need for food security due to continuous and rapid growth in population. Besides this, during natural calamities like drought etc. production of food grain decreases because Indian agriculture mostly depends upon the monsoon. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas due to which prices go up. Many people are unable to buy food at high prices. If this situation continues for a long period, it may cause a situation of stravation.
(а) What is food security? What are its dimensions.
Answer:
Simply speaking food security means accessibility and affordability of food to all the people at all times.

Following are the main dimensions :

Availability of food means there should be food production within the country.
Accessibility of food means that sufficient quantity of food should be within the reach of people.
Affordability of food means that a person has enough money to buy sufficient food. Sufficient stocks of food should be maintained by the government to meet the shortage of food during natural calamities like drought, floods etc.

(b) Who are food insecure?
Answer:
There is a large segment of people who suffer from food and nutritional insecurity in India but the following people are more food insecure than others :

The landless people who depend on others for their food supplies.
Traditional artisans who provide traditional services.
Petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars.
In urban areas, the food insecure persons are those who are employed in all paid occupation and casual labour market. These workers are largely engaged in seasonal activities and are paid very low wages that just ensure their bare survival.
After a natural calamity people migrating from the affected areas are the most food-insecure people.
Malnutrition prevails more among women and children and they constitute a significant segment of the population affected by food insecurity.