PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Critical Thinking InText Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 7

Question 1.
What are your hobby and favorite task?
Answer:
I love to play and watch cricket.

Question 2.
What do you do to fulfill your task?
Answer:

  • Whenever I get a chance, I like to play cricket.
  • Whenever any match is telecasted on television, I watch it and try to gain something by watching the match.

Question 3.
Do you face any problems while performing your hobby?
Answer:
Yes, I face many problems while performing my hobby.

Question 4.
Does your hobby affect your study?
Answer:
No, I give equal time to my study and hobby and do not let my hobby affect my study.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Question 5.
Have you ever discussed with your teacher about hobbies?
Answer:
Yes, they know my hobby and always motivate me to perform better.

Question 6.
Do you sometimes face some problems while performing your hobby because of which you have left it mid-way? How do you feel at that time?
Answer:
During exams, I cannot play 6r watch cricket. I feel sad at that time. But I prepare hard for my exams and get good marks.

Question 7.
How do you, feel after completing your favorite task, or do you feel satisfied enough?
Answer:
Whenever my favorite task is completed, I feel satisfied.

Textbook Page No. 9

Activity

Question 1.
Write a few lines about the student in your class, who is liked by all the teachers.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
By comparing yourself with that person, write down about his character traits that you would like to instill in yourself.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Question 3.
Write a few lines on anything productive you have done.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Textbook Page No. 11

Question 1.
Which is your favorite T.V. channel?
Answer:
NDTV News.

Question 2.
Which is your favorite T.V. Show?
Answer:
Prime Time is my favorite show.

Question 3.
Do you like comedy genre movies or action movies?
Answer:
Comedy movies.

Question 4.
Do you listen to the news?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 5.
Do you read the newspaper?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 6.
Which things do you prefer reading from the newspaper?
Answer:
Daily News, Games news.

Question 7.
Can you listen to your favorite songs in front of your parents?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 8.
Do you play video games on your phone?
Answer:
No.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Question 9.
Do you lie to your parents by telling them that you have to do the homework?
Answer:
No.

Question 10.
Do you start using tik-tok, PUBG, Instagram after doing your homework from your phone?
Answer:
No.

Question 11.
For how much time do you use social media every day?
(a) Less than 30 minutes / 45 minutes
(b) One hour
(c) One to two hours
(d) More than two hours.
Answer:
(a) Less than 30 minutes / 45 minutes.

Question 12.
At what time do you use social media?
(a) After waking up in the morning
(b) While going to school
(c) While eating
(d) At night
Answer:
(d) At night

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Guide Critical Thinking Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. In Which stage of life, we live in the world of dreams?
(a) Childhood
(b) Young age
(c) Old age
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Childhood.

2. Hobbies make us …………………
(a) Lazy
(b) Strong
(c) Weak
(d) Cartoonist
Answer:
(b) Strong

3. We can fulfill our dreams with
(a) determination
(b) concentration of mind
(c) hard work
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

4. What do hobbies give us?
(a) Livelihood
(b) change in personality
(c) Patience and contentment
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

5. Walt Disney had a hobby of making ………. in his childhood.
(a) food
(b) cartoon
(c) bridge
(d) building
Answer:
(b) cartoon

6. Which of these thinkings is positive?
(a) Good thinking
(b) positive
(c) Hardworking habit
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

7. Which of these is a negative feeling?
(a) Unenthusiastic
(b) Fear
(c) Avoid learning
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

8. The modernization of ………….. has made the whole world our home.
(a) Media
(b) Thinking
(c) Transport
(d) No one
Answer:
(a) Media.

Fill in the Blanks:

1. …………….. have an important place in our lives.
Answer:
Books

2. In ………….. we live in the world of dreams.
Answer:
childhood

3. Because of ……………… the world has shrunk to a great extent.
Answer:
media

4. We must not waste the valuable ………………..
Answer:
time

5. We must not adopt ………….. by discarding books.
Answer:
media

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (x) Statement:

1. Books provide us with valuable information.
Answer:

2. We can get good results from the media.
Answer:

3. Books are of no importance in life.
Answer:
x

4. We must use media wisely.
Answer:

5. We must have negative thinking.
Answer:
x

Match the Following:

(A) (B)
Right Thinking World of Dreams
Fear of Failure Positive Thinking
Internet Negative Thinking
Books Media
Childhood Information

Answer:

(A) (B)
Right Thinking Positive Thinking
Fear of Failure Negative Thinking
Internet Media
Books Information
Childhood World of Dreams

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
At what age of life, we live in the world of dreams?
Answer:
In childhood, we live in the world of dreams.

Question 2.
What hobbies make us?
Answer:
Hobbies make us strong, create a good personality and help us to have a better understanding of life.

Question 3.
What is the benefit of determination and concentration?
Answer:
Determination and concentration help us to fulfill our dreams.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Question 4.
What hobby did Walt Disney have in his childhood?
Answer:
Walt Disney had a hobby of making cartoons in his childhood.

Question 5.
How did Walt Disney use his free time?
Answer:
In his spare time, he pursued his hobby which made him a famous cartoonist.

Question 6.
How can we achieve higher goals?
Answer:
We can achieve higher goals with positive comparisons.

Question 7.
What happened with a comparison full of jealousy?
Answer:
It hurts us.

Question 8.
What is the advantage of positive comparison?
Answer:
It develops positive thinking in us.

Question 9.
What is the disadvantage of negative comparison?
Answer:
Negative comparison hurts us.

Question 10.
Why do we feel the whole of the world is our home?
Answer:
Due to the modernization of media, we feel the whole of the world is our home.

Question 11.
What is the advantage of proper use of media?
Answer:
We get good information and become modern.

Question 12.
Should we give up books?
Answer:
No, we should always have books with us.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by critical thinking?
Answer:
While living in society, we think and observe a lot many things. While doing this we face many things or events and make an opinion about them. But when we are making opinions about anything, we must think that is it possible on the basis of reason. If not, we must change over opinion. In this, the opinion or thinking made on the basis of reason is known as critical thinking.

Question 2.
What hobbies and preferences make us?
Answer:
Every Individual has his hobbies and preferences and we do a lot of many efforts to fulfill these hobbies. When we make many efforts to fulfill our hobbies, it makes us man with strong determination. This determination helps us to fulfill our dreams. Many times, those hobbies help us to earn our livelihood. Adopting any hobby shape our personality and instills many traits such as patience and contentment.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of positive and negative comparisons?
Answer:
Comparison is of two types-positive and negative. We do positive comparisons with anyone, we try to learn and move forward to achieve great success in life. But if the comparison is negative then we will feel jealous and will hurt ourselves. Negative comparison leads us on the way to pessimism. We must save ourselves from negative comparisons.

Question 4.
Show through a picture the advantages of Positive Comparison.
Answer:

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking Img 1

Question 5.
Show through a picture the disadvantages of Negative comparison.
Answer:

PSEB 10th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking Img 2

Question 6.
How can we teach each other good or constructive?
Answer:
Our thinking is our greatest asset. It is the thinking what we have. If we are not satisfied with it, we do not adopt positive thinking. We always think about the which we don’t have. It creates jealousy among us and stops all-around development as well. We must leave such negative thinking and adopt positive thinking. We must learn good from others and must teach and learn constructive behavior.

Question 7.
How can we create a happy and healthy society?
Answer:
In the present modern times, the whole world has become like a village. The world has become much smaller due to the modernization of media. But we must use media wisely. We must make our thinking critical and try to find answers to the questions moving around us. With this, we can live a happy and healthy life. If everyone will live a happy and healthy life, we can definitely create a happy and healthy society.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the story of birds given in the chapter.
Answer:
There lived a Crow in a forest and he was completely satisfied. One day, after looking at a Swan, he started thinking that how fair and the white swan is and he is so black. That’s why no one likes him. Crow discusses the same with the Swan. Then swan tells him that he also thought about the same and when he looked at a parrot, he believes the parrot is the happiest bird in creation. Then the crow approached the parrot. They told crow that he also thought the same but when he met peacock, he changed his mind. Then crow approached the peacock and told him about his beauty. The crow told the peacock that how lucky he is. People keep his feathers at home. After listening to this, the peacock becomes sad and told crow that he also thought the same but his beauty has become a hurdle in the way of his freedom. He is kept in the zoo. I could be happy if I will be a free bird. This story tells us that whatever a person has, must remain satisfied with that.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

Question 2.
What do we learn from this chapter?
Answer:

  • An individual must have critical thinking and must fight a battle to fulfill your dreams.
  • Individuals have their hobbies and likings and make them strong and determinant. Many times, they become a source of livelihood for us.
  • If we compare ourselves with anyone, this comparison must be constructive and positive. With positive comparison, we can achieve great heights but with a negative attitude, only jealousy will be there.
  • We must be satisfied with the things we have. We must not think about what we don’t have and we must not even think about it. That’s why we must have a positive attitude towards life.
  • No two individuals are the same. There must be some difference between them. We must learn from these differences to move forward.
  • The modernization of media has made the world smaller. But we must use media wisely to create a happy and healthy society.
  • We must continue using books for entertainment along with media.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow :
Dear students, after going through the question stated above you will be able to know that your hobbies or your favorite task not only make you feel more comfortable, happy, and content but also give you the courage, hope, and ability to pursue your dreams. This enthusiasm and mindfulness show you the right path and way to pursue your dreams. Dear students, your hobby not only makes you feel happier but can also become a reason for your success in the future, remember with the right guidance and hard work, you can become a perfectionist in your career. Maybe your hobbies will become your career in. this competitive world. Pursuing your hobby with sheer determination not only fill you with contentment, but also improve your personality, and helps you have a better understanding of life, instills good personality traits such as patience and contentment. Students you have all heard about Walt Disney. He was fond of making cartoons during childhood by polishing his talent with hard work, he, later on, became one of the greatest cartoonists in the world.

1. What do hobbies and likings give us?
Answer:
Hobbies and likings give us peace of mind and make us a person with great determination.

2. What is the advantage of determination and concentration of mind?
Answer:
Determination and concentration of mind lead us on the way to fulfilling our dreams.

3. If we connect hobby with skill, What will happen?
Answer:
If we connect hobbies with skills, it becomes a source of livelihood for us.

4. Who was Walt Disney?
Answer:
Walt Disney was a famous cartoonist of the world.

5. How do hobbies and likings affect our personality?
Answer:
Hobbies and likings shape our personality and instill good personality traits in us such as patience and contentment.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Dairy Farming Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1 -2 words:

Question 1.
Give the number of cows and buffaloes in Punjab.
Answer:
17 lakh cows and 50 lakh buffaloes.

Question 2.
Give the name of the best cow breed.
Answer:
Sahiwal is the best Indian milk breed.

Question 3.
How much milk is required for a healthy person daily?
Answer:
250 gram.

Question 4.
How much milk is produced by Red Sindhi?
Answer:
1800 kg per lactation.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Question 5.
What is the optimum dry-off period of a pregnant cow?
Answer:
60 days before the expected date of calving.

Question 6.
Give daily green fodder requirement for 400 kg heavy cow or buffalo?
Answer:
35 kg green fodder.

Question 7.
At what age bodyweight of heifer is 300 kg?
Answer:
At the age of 18 months.

Question 8.
What is the average lactation milk yield of Murrah buffalo?
Answer:
Average 1700-1800 kg.

Question 9.
Where one should contact for dairy farming training?
Answer:
Deputy Director (Dairy Development), Krishi Vigyan Kendra of concerned District, GADVASU Ludhiana.

Question 10.
Name the buffalo breeds in Punjab.
Answer:
Murrah, Nili Ravi.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Give characteristics of the Sahiwal breed.
Answer:
Characteristics of Sahiwal breed :

Characteristics Details
Native It belongs to Montgomery (Pakistan)
Body size Body size medium to large
Colour Light red to red color
Bullocks Lethargic and slow in work
Milk yield Average lactation milk yield in 1800 kg
Fat in milk 5%

Question 2.
What do you know about Holstein Friesian Breed?
Answer:
Characteristics of Holstein Friesian :

Characteristics Details
Native Holland, now available in almost all countries.
Colour Black-white or red.
Body size These are the heaviest animals giving highest milk yield. Long body with large udder.
Average lactation milk yield 5500-6500 kg.
Fat in milk 3.5-4%.

Question 3.
How a best cow can be selected?
Answer:

  • 305 days lactation milk yield should be 4000 kg.
  • Peak yield should be 19-20 kg.
  • First time calving age should be 30 months.
  • Service period should be 2-4 months.
  • Dry off period before calving should be 2 months.

Question 4.
Give management aspect of cow after calving.
Answer:
Animal should be offered one bucket of warm water with 50 gm of common salt after calving. Give the following twice for 4 days-cooked ground wheat dalia in 54 kg jaggery. Milk the cow within 2 hours of calving. High yielder cow should not be milked completely for the first 2-3 days after calving.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Question 5.
Give the characteristics of a good floor in animal shed.
Answer:
An animal requires 5-7 feet (150-210 cm) long and 4 feet (120 cm) wide space for standing. There should be proper slope from manger towards gutter for effective drainage of water. Floor should be pucca made of bricks and cement but it should be non- slippery. There should Jbe corrugations in the floor. If there is open space it should be brick laden.

Question 6.
What is a concentrate ?
Answer:
Concentrate is a mixture. It consists of cereals, oil seed cakes and other biproducts of cereals. It provides energy and protein to the animals. These can be prepared in two ways. One is leguminous fodder consists of berseem, lucerne, cowpeas, which contain 13-15% of protein. The other contains 16-18% protein which is prepared from non-leguminous fodder e.g. maize, oats, bajra etc.

Question 7.
How cow dung should be managed ?
Answer:
Remove the cow dung daily and take it away from the shed to put it in a pit. The pit should be of the size 20 x 14 x 4 feet. Start filling it from one side and cover the filled part with soil. This prevents wastage of nutrients from the dung. Use well rotten prepared farm yard manure for the fields.

Question 8.
How milk utensils can be cleaned ?
Answer:
Wash the utensils 2-3 times with fresh water. Disinfect the utensils using suitable chemicals. Steaming for 2-3 minutes also disinfects the utensils. Sodium and Calcium hypochloride can also be used for disinfection. Wash the utensils with fresh water again to remove any traces of chemicals left in the utentsils after disinfection.

Question 9.
Give detail of management of calves.
Answer:
Calf should be cleaned using a clean dry cloth. Naval cord should be cut after keeping 4 inches using sterlized scissor. Till the sheding off of the Naval cord, it should be dressed with tincture of Iodine or Dettol for 2-3 times everyday. Feed the calf within 2 hours of birth on colostrum. In case its mother is dead, feed the calf with warm mixture of one litre cow milk, 5 ml castor oil, 5 ml cod liver oil and one egg. Feeding of calf starter should be started when it is 15 days of age and then start feeding on succulent green fodder daily.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Question 10.
Give precautions during milking.
Answer:

  • Milking should be done in a separate room.
  • Milking should be done in a clean and calm place.
  • Wash the teats with Dettol or potassium permanganate before milking.
  • Milking should be done by full hand method and avoid the use of thumb for milking.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
Write a note oir management of dairy animals.
Answer:
1. Space Requirement: There is a need of 120-140 square feet space for every adult animal. Out of which 42 sQuestion feet should be covered and 85 sQuestion feet should be open.

2. Floor and Drainage: An animal requires 5-7 feet (150-210 cm) long and 4 feet (120 cm) wide space for standing. There should be proper slope from manger towards gutter for effective drainage of water. Floor should be pucca made of bricks and cement but it should be non-slippery. There should be corrugations Tn the floor. If there is open space it should be brick laden. ’

3. Walls: There should be wall all around the shed.

4. Roof: There should be roof at a height of 10 feet. It can be made from brick and wooden battons. Roof can be covered with plastic sheets to avoid leakage during rains. ‘

5. Water Manger: Water manger height should be 2 feet for adult animals and 1 feet for young calves.

6. Silo pit. It is a pit for silage making: It should be near chaff cutter at higher elevation than ground level to prevent rain water entering into it.

7. Management of Cow Dung: Cow dung should be removed from the shed on daily basis and fill it in a pit. Cover the pit with solid after filling it with cow dung.

8. Disinfecting shed: Disinfect the shed by using 4% phenyl solution. Wash the walls and floor where phenyl was sprayed after six hours with water.

9. Summer and Winter Management: Plant trees around the shed and give bath to animals for 3-4 times in a day in summer. Install fans and cooler in the shed.

Keep animals under the roof in winter and give more energetic ration during winter.

Question 2.
Give important tips for feeding of dairy animals.
Answer:

  1. Feed them according to their need and only that much which is necessary.
  2. Feed should be given at proper time, concentrate should be given to them before milking or during milking in equal quantity.
  3. There should be no sudden change in concentrate.
  4. Feed, if it is grains it should be in the form of dalia.
  5. Give chopped fodder of Napier bajra, Bajra, Maize etc.
  6. One kg dry fodder can replace 5-6 kg of fresh green fodder. Good quality green fodder can save concentrate.
  7. Excess feeding can result in bloat and indigestion.
  8. Mix some amount of chopped wheat straw in lush green legume or green fodder to avoid bloat and indigestion.
  9. Feed silage after milking otherwise a bad smell will appear in the milk.

Question 3.
Write a note on management of fresh milk.
Answer:
1. Handling of fresh milk. Take out the milk from the milk parlour immediately after milking to avoid mixing of smell of the shed in the milk. Also remove the animals from the milk parlour so that it may remain clean. Strain the milk using iron or plastic sieve or muslin cloth. This is done to remove any unwanted material like hairs, dust, insects, straw or fodder particles from the milk. After every straining, wash the sieve and disinfect it with suitable substance. This will decrease bacterial load in the milk. And milk can be preserved for a long time.

2. Cold Storage. Store the milk below 5°C to prevent the growth of bacteria. If milk is not stored at such temperature, it will clot and is of no use. Milk should reach the milk collection centre with in 2-3 hours of milking.

Question 4.
Write a note on disbudding of calves.
Answer:
Disbudding gives a beautiful look to the animal. This also avoids hurting during any fight between two animals. Animals need
less space if disbudded and can be kept in loose housing system. Disbudding should be done at the age of 15-20 days and 7-10 days in case of cow calves and buffalo calves respectively. Disbudding is done with red hot iron method. Apply antiseptic cream on the wound till complete healing.

Question 5.
Give details about purchase of a dairy animal.
Answer:
Before purchasing a dairy animal it should be milked regularly for three times. It should have a wedge shaped body from top, front and hind side, its skin should be thin. Udder must shrink after milking and there should be no hard lumps present in the udder. Purchase animal after second or third lactation. It is better if it has female calf.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the age of good quality breed of buffalo for first lactation?
Answer:
36-40 months.

Question 2.
What is the gap between two lactation for a good breed buffalo?
Answer:
15-16 months.

Question 3.
What is average lactation milk yield in case of Hariana breed?
Answer:
1000 kg.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Question 4.
What is the average lactation milk yield in case of Tharparkar breed?
Answer:
1400 kg.

Question 5.
Within how many hours cow should be milked after calving?
Answer:
Within 2 hours.

Question 6.
How much extra concentrate should be given to milch animals which is less than five years of age?
Answer:
0.5 to 1.0 kg.

Question 7.
How much should-be the height of the water manger for young chives?
Answer:
1 to 1.5 feet.

Question 8.
Write native place of Nili Ravi?
Answer:
Montgomeri (Pakistan).

Question 9.
How much is the 305 days lactation milk yield?
Answer:
It is 2500 kg for buffalo and 4000 kg for cow.

Question 10.
What should be the age of buffalo at first lactation?
Answer:
36 months.

Question 11.
What should be the age of cow at first lactation?
Answer:
30 months.

Question 12.
Which breed of cow is used for cross breeding?
Answer:
Jersey.

Question 13.
After how many milkings a dairy animal should be purchased?
Answer:
After 3 regular milkings.

Question 14.
Write about size of horns and udder of Sahiwal.
Answer:
Horns are short and udder is large.

Question 15.
How much is average lactation milk yield and fat per cent for Hariana breed?
Answer:
Average lactation milk yield is 1000 kg and fat is 4%.

Question 16.
How much is average lactation milk yield and fat per cent for Sahiwal?
Answer:
1800 kg., fat 5%.

Question 17.
Where does Red Sindhi belong?
Answer:
Sindh (Pakistan)

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Question 18.
Name the cow breed which belongs to Kutch (Gujarat)?
Answer:
Tharparkar.

Question 19.
Write about average lactation milk yield dhd fat for Holstein-Friesian breed.
Answer:
5500-6500 kg., fat 3.5-4%.

Question 20.
Where does Jersey breed of cow belong?
Answer:
Jersey in England.

Question 21.
Write about average lactation milk yield and fat for Jersey.
Answer:
3000-5000, fat 5%.

Question 22.
In dairy animals 8% energy requirement is met from what?
Answer:
Carbohydrates.

Question 23.
When should disbudding be done in buffalo calves?
Answer:
At the age of 7-10 days.

Question 24.
When should disbudding be done in cow calves?
Answer:
At the age of 15-20 days.

Question 25.
Vaccination is done in calves to prevent which diseases?
Answer:
Foot and mouth diseases, hemorrhagic septicemia etc.

Question 26.
How much time is required to complete milking?
Answer:
For one animal it is 6-8 minutes.

Question 27.
What should be the direction of cow shed?
Answer:
East-West.

Question 28.
How much space is required by adult animal.
Answer:
120-140 square feet.

Question 29.
What is average lactation milk yield in case of buffalo in India?
Answer:
500 kg.

Question 30.
What is average lactation milk yield in case of buffalo in Punjab?
Answer:
1500 kg.

Question 31.
What is average lactation milk yield for Murrah and fat% in milk?
Answer:
1700-1800 kg, 7% fat.

Question 32.
How much milk yield is obtained from dairy animals annually?
Answer:
94 lakh tonnes.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

Question 33.
How much per capita milk is produced in Punjab?
Answer:
937 gram per capita per day.

Question 34.
How much milk is produced by indigenous breeds of cows?
Answer:
The average lactation milk yield is 1000 to 1800 kg.

Question 35.
What is fat percent in milk produced by Hariana, Sahiwal and Red Sindhi breeds?
Answer:
Hariana-4%, Sahiwal-5%, Red Sindhi-5%.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What could be done to increase milk production?
Answer:
This can be done by increasing the number of milk giving animals and by making them able to produce more milk. For producing high milk yielding animals, cross breeding is done and exotic bulls are used.

Question 2.
For economical farming, write qualities which dairy animals should have?
Answer:

Quality parameter Cow Buffalo
Lactation milk yield for 305 days in kg 4000 2500
Peak yield in kg 19—20 12—13
Age at first calving in months 30 36
Any off period before calving in months 2 2

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details about an exotic breed of cow (Jersey)?
Answer:

Characteristics Details
Native place England (Jersey)
Colour brown to brownish red colour
Body short statured
Average milk yield 3000-5000 kg
Fat 5%

Question 2.
Write about two breeds of buffaloes found in Punjab.
Answer:

  • Murrah: It basically belongs to Rohtak (Hariana). Its horns ’ are curled. Its colour is black. Switch of tail may be black. Its neck and head are slim, udder is large and teats are long. Its weight may be 430 kg. Average lactation milk yield is 1700-1800 kg with 7% fat.
  • Nili Ravi: This breed belongs originally to Montgomery (Pakistan). It is of black colour but forehead is white. Its legs are white under knees, tail is white also. It is known as Panj-Kaliani. It is medium statured breed with short horns which are curled and it also has blue eyes. Average lactation milk yield is 1600-1800 kg.

Question 3.
Write characteristics of indigeneous breeds of cows.
Answer:

Characteristics Hariana Red Sindh Tharparkar
Native Rohtak, Hisar, Karnal, Gurgaon in Hariana Sindh (Pakistan) Sindh (Pakistan) Kutch (Gujarat), Jodhpur, Jaisimer in Rajasthan
Size and Colour White to light grey, medium size with long legs, compact body, tight skin medium size, dark red, corn- pact body, short legs, loose skin medium size white or greyish colour compact body, short legs, large udder
Males good and strong Medium size helpful in farming, strong
Average milk yield 1000 kg 1800 kg 1400 kg
Fat 4% 5%

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Dairy Farming Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Gap between two lactations for a good breed buffalo is :
(a) 15-16 month
(b) 24-25 month
(c) 4-5 month
(d) 6-7 month
Answer:
(a) 15-16 month

2. Native place of Jersey breed is :
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) England
(d) Sindh
Answer:
(c) England

3. First time calving age should be :
(a) 30 month
(b) 10 month
(c) 50 month
(d) 100 month
Answer:
(a) 30 month

4. Daily green fodder requirement for 400 kg heavy cow or buffalo is :
(a) 50 kg
(b) 400 kg
(c) 35 kg
(d) 100 kg
Answer:
(c) 35 kg

5. Milk requirement for a healthy person on daily basis is :
(a) 250 gram
(b) 500 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 700 gram
Answer:
(a) 250 gram

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Dairy Farming

True/False:

1. Nearly 70% population in Punjab lives in villages.
Answer:
True

2. Dual purpose breeds are Tharparkar and Hariana.
Answer:
True

3. Indigeneous breeds of cows have average lactation milk yield varying from 1000 kg to 1700 kg.
Answer:
False

4. There are 17 lakh cbws and 10 lakh buffaloes in Punjab.
Answer:
False

5. Holstein-Friesian is highest milk giving exotic breed of cow.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Feed milk to calf and avoid …………….
Answer:
sucking

2. Milking should be complete in ……………. with full hand method.
Answer:
6-8 minutes

3. Preserve the milk at 5°C. It prevents the growth of …………….
Answer:
bacteria

4. Average lactation milk yield of Indian breeds of buffalo is ……………. at National level.
Answer:
500 kg

5. Clean the milk ……………. properly.
Answer:
containers

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
As per Rigveda name of Punjab was:
(a) Harappa
(b) Sapt Sindhu
(c) Panchnand
(d) Pentapotamia.
Answer:
(b) Sapt Sindhu.

Question 2.
Chinese traveller:
(a) Chanakya
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Hieun Tsang
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Hieun Tsang.

Question 3.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire?
(a) 1849 AD.
(b) 1887 A.D.
(c) 1889 A.D.
(d) 1901 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1849 A.D.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
Which doab is the least fertile among these?
(a) Chaj
(b) Sind Sagar
(c) Rachna
(d) Bari Doab.
Answer:
(b) Sind Sagar.

Question 5.
The name of region between Ghaggar and Yamuna is :
(a) Malwa
(b) Bangar
(c) Majha
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Bangar.

Question 6.
The Malwa region lies between which two rivers?
(a) Sutlej and Yamuna
(b) Sutlej and Ghaggar
(c) Ghaggar and Yamuna
(d) Sutlej and Beas.
Answer:
(b) Sutlej and Ghaggar.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
________ civilization flourished in Punjab.
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 2.
Penta means ________ and Potamia means
Answer:
five, rivers.

Question 3.
Punjab can be divided into ________ parts.
Answer:
three.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
________ region is located between the rivers of Chenab and Jehlum.
Answer:
Chaj Doab.

Question 5.
The founder of Sikh Religion was ________
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji.

Question 6.
Punjab was reorganised in ________ on the basis of language.
Answer:
1 November, 1966.

Question 7.
The height of Mount Everest is metre.
Answer:
8848.

III. Match the following :

Question 1.

A

B

1. Rigveda (a) Sub mountainous Area
2. Sulaiman (b) North-Western Mountains
3. Bangar (c) Tsekai
4. Shivalik (d) Sapt Sindhu
5. Hieun Tsang (e) Ghaggar and Yamuna.

Answer:

A

B

1. Rigveda (d) Sapt Sindhu
2. Sulaiman (b) North-Western Mountains
3. Bangar (e) Ghaggar and Yamuna.
4. Shivalik (a) Sub mountainous Area
5. Hieun Tsang (c) Tsekai

IV. Differentiate between the following :

Question 1.
Malwa and Bangar
Answer:
Malwa: The area spread between Sutlej and Ghaggar rivers is called Malwa. Major cities of this region are Ludhiana, Patiala, Nabha, Sangrur, Faridkot, Bhatinda, Fazilka etc.

Bangar: This region is situated between Ghaggar and Yamuna rivers. Its major cities are Ambala, Panipat, Kurukshetra, Jind, Rohtak, Karnal, Gurugram etc. In this region, there is one historical area where many decisive wars were fought.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 2.
West Punjab and East Punjab
Answer:
West Punjab and East Punjab : In 1947, at the time of Independence, Punjab was divided into two parts- West Punjab and East Punjab. Western side of Punjab was Muslim dominated area and become a part of newly made country Pakistan. East Punjab became a part of India. In 1947, 13 districts went over to Pakistan and rest 16 districts remained in Indian Punjab.

Question 3.
Pass and Doab
Answer:
(a) Pass. A pass is a gap or break in high, rugged terrain such as a mountain ridge. Through these, mountain can be crossed.
(b) Doab. The territory between two rivers is known as the Doab. Plains of Punjab are made up of Five Doabs.

Question 4.
Himalayas and Sub-mountainous region
Answer:
(a) Himalayas. The Himalaya means Him + Alaya i,e. Land of Ices The mountains of Himalaya are in series in Punjab. According to height, these mountains are divided into three parts, The Greater Himalayas, the Middle Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas.

(b) Sub-Mountainous Region (Terai Region). In the south of Pir Panjal range of Himalayas, there situated the foothills of Shivalik and Kasauli mountains. This region is known as Terai area of Punjab or sub-mountainous region. The average height of such mountains is 1000-3000 feet.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 5.
Chaj Doab and Bist Jalandhar Doab.
Answer:
(a) Chaj Doab. The region between rivers Chenab and Jehlum is called Chaj Doab. Major cities of this region are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.

(6) Bist Jalandhar Doab. The area situated between rivers Beas and Sutlej is Bist Jalandhar Doab. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the famous cities of this Doab.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the word ‘Punjab’?
Answer:
The word Punjab is a combination of two Persian words-Punj and Aab. The meaning of Punj is five and Aab is rivers. So, its literal meaning is the land of five rivers.

Question 2.
What name Greeks had given to Punjab?
Answer:
The Greeks called Punjab as Pentapotamia in which penta means five and potamia means rivers. So, it is the land of five rivers.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Sapt Sindhu?
Answer:
During the Vedic age, Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu because it was the land of seven rivers.

Question 4.
Punjab was divided into which two parts in 1947?
Answer:
In 1947, Punjab was divided into Western and Eastern parts. Western side went over to Pakistan and Eastern side remained in India.

Question 5.
Name any two passes located in North-West boundary of Punjab.
Answer:
Khyber pass, Kurram, Tochi etc. are the passes located in North-West boundary of Punjab.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 6.
When and in how many parts was Punjab divided on the linguistic basis?
Answer:
On 1st November, 1966, Punjab was divided into two states on linguistic basis and these were Punjab and Haryana.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Throw light on the different historical names of Punjab at the different times.
Answer:
The names of Punjab were changed from time to time :

  1. During Rig vedic age, Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu (the land of seven rivers).
  2. In the epics, The Ramayana, Mahabharata and Puranas, the name of Panchnand was mentioned for Punjab.
  3. Greeks gave the name Pentapotamia (Penta-five, potamia-five rivers) to Punjab.
  4. Taki tribe gave Punjab the name Taki province or Taki.
  5. Chinese traveller Hieun Tsang called Punjab as Tseh-Kia.
  6. During the times of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, Punjab was called as Lahore Province.
  7. The Mughal Emperor Akbar gave Punjab this name. Word Punjab is made up of two persian words Punj and Aab. Punj means five and Aab means water.
  8. In 1849 A.D., the British captured it and gave it the name of Punjab Province.
  9. In 1947 A.D., with the division of country, Punjab was divided into western and Eastern Punjab. But in both the countries, it is known with the name of Punjab.

Question 2.
Why is it necessary to study geographical characteristics of Punjab in order to study the history of Punjab?
Answer:
To study the history of any region, it is necessary to study its geographical characteristics. Punjab’s ways of living, eating, habits, wearing habits, nature of people and ideas, to an extent, are affected by its geographical characteristics. Its fertile plains became the Cradle of Civilisation. During hard times, it became the battle field where lakhs of people sacrificed their lives. Many times, its rivers guided the invaders. Its forests are also important. Many a times the victims of Mughal atrocities took shelter in its forests. Its fertile plains motivated many invaders to attack India. In this way, the geographical features of Punjab are very important.

Question 3.
Why is Punjab called the Gateway of India?
Answer:
Due to western branches of Himalaya, Punjab has acted as a gateway of India. It is not so difficult to cross the passes of these mountain ranges. Except Bolan pass, all other passes connect Afghanistan with Punjab. That’s why all the invaders from Aryans till Iranians, attacked India from this side. First of all, they had to struggle with the people of Punjab. They moved forward only after defeating Punjabis. In this way, Punjab played a role of gateway of India.

Question 4.
What were the causes of the spread of Islam in Punjab?
Answer:
The major reason of the spread of Islam in Punjab is that all the invaders first settled in Punjab. They asked the local people to adopt Islam. Muslim rulers commited atrocities on Hindus who stop following Islam. People of other far off regions, who initially adopted Islam, left it and came back to the fold of Hinduism but this was not the case with Punjabi’s because foreigners resided over here. Consequently Islam received great success in Punjab. One of another reason of the spread of Islam in Punjab was that the people were fed up with the complexity of vedic religion, caste system etc.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 5.
In what way the physical features of Punjab affected the economic life of people?
Answer:
The physical features of Punjab gave strength ‘to the economic life of the people. From the ages, each year, Himalayan rivers bring new soil and nutrients and spread them all along the plains. Consequently plains of Punjab were considered the most fertile land in the country. Due to fertile land, people had a bumper crop and they became prosperous. These rivers also irrigated its land. The Himalayas rivers are perennial and this become a boon for agriculture. With the help of wood from the forests of the Himalayas, many furniture and sports industries were developed over here. People get many other things from the mountains which helped in the development of industries.

VII. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the geographical characteristics of Punjab.
Answer:
The study of Punjab from geographical point of view is quite interesting. From this point of view, Punjab can be divided into three parts :

  1. The Himalayas and North-West Mountains.
  2. The Sub-Mountains region-Terai region.
  3. The Plains.

1. The Himalayas and North-West Mountains. This physical part of Punjab is given ahead :
(a) The Himalayas. There are a number of Himalayan ranges in Punjab. These ranges can be divided into three parts on the basis of their average height, which are-the Great Himalayas, the Middle Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas.
1. The Great Himalayas. In the east, the mountain ranges of the Great Himalayas reach upto Nepal and Tibet. In its western part, it is again called the Great Himalayas. The Great Himalayas separate the Punjab regions of Lahul-Spiti and district of Kangra from Kashmir. The scenic Kulu Valley and Rohtang Pass are situated in these ranges. These ranges rise from 5851 metres to 6781 metres. These mountain ranges are always covered with snow.

2. The Middle Himalayas. They are popularly known as the Pangi mountain ranges. These ranges start from Rohtang Pass. They separate the Valleys made by the rivers Chenab and Ravi. Their average height is 2155 metres.

3. The Outer Himalayas. The ranges of outer Himalayas run between Chamba and Dharmshala. They reach from Kashmir to Rawalpindi, Jhelum and Gujarat districts. Their average height is 923 metres. These ranges are also know’n as Dhauladhar ranges.

(b) North-West Mountains. The North-West Mountains form the western part of the Himalayas in Punjab. These mountains include the Kirthar and Sulaiman ranges. They have nothigh rising ranges. The most important feature of these ranges is the presence of a number of passes in them. Among these passes, the Khyber Pass is the most important. This pass became a gateway for most of the invaders.

2. The Sub Mountainous region-Terai region. There situated Terai region between the higher ranges of the Himalayas and plains of Punjab. They are also known as Sub-Mountainous regions. Their width is 160 km-320 km and their height is 300-900 metres. Due to the existence of many Valleys, this region seems different from the ranges of Himalaya. Form areas of Sialkot, Kangra, Hoshiarpur, Gurdaspur and Ambala are included in it. Normally it is a mountainous region. That’s why there is quite less production over here. At many places, land has been made ready to cultivate potato, paddy and maize. To live, people have to do quite a lot of hard work. This hard work has made them healthy.

3. The Plains. The plains of Punjab are divided into two regions. The Eastern Plain and the Western Plain. The plains surrounded by Yamuna and Ravi rivers are called the Eastern plains. They are very fertile and densely populated. The plains between Ravi and Indus rivers are called Western plains.

They are less fertile as compared to the Eastern plains.
(a) Five Doabs. The territory between two rivers is called Doab. The plains of Punjab consist of five doabs.

  1. The Sindh Sagar Doab: The region situated between the rivers Indus and Jhelum is called the Sindh Sagar Doab. It is not a very fertile region. Jhelum and Rawalpindi are the important cities of this Doab.
  2. Rachna Doab: This area is situated between the rivers Ravi and Chenab, is quite fertile. The important towns of this Doab are Gujranwala and Shekhupura.
  3. Bist-Jalandhar Doab: This Doab consists of the plains situated between the rivers Beas and Sutlej. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the leading cities of this Doab.
  4. Bari Doab: The territory between the rivers Beas and Ravi is called the Bari Doab. It is also a fertile region. It is popular as Majha as it refers in central location of the area in Punjab. The two most famous cities of Punjab, namely, Amritsar and Lahore, are situated in this Doab.
  5. Chaj Doab: The territory between the Chenab and Jhelum is called Chaj Doab. The important cities of this Doab are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.

(b) Malwa and Bangar. The wide plain situated between the rivers Sutlej and Yamuna is a part of Punjab. The plain can be divided into two parts namely, Malwa and Bangar.
1. Malwa: The area extending from the banks of river Sutlej to the banks of river Yamuna is called Malwa. Ludhiana, Patiala, Nabha, Sangrur, Faridkot, Bhatinda etc. are the prominent cities of Malwa. The area is known in Punjab as Malwa and the people belonging to this area are called Malwais. The area got its name from the name of a republican tribe called Malava, which’ lived here during ancient period of Indian history.

2. Bangar or Haryana: This region extends from river ghaggar to river Yamuna. Ambala, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Rohtak, Karnal, Gurgaon, Faridabad and Hissar are the prominent cities of this area. This area has great historical importance because numerous battles which influenced the course of Indian history were fought here.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 2.
Discuss the impact of physical features of Punjab on its political and religious sphere.
Answer:
Punjab is one of the most fertile land. Its ideal location has given its history a distinctive face. Moreover, history of any place takes birth from its geography. Punjab’s history is not an exception.

Its people have achieved great success in political and religious fields.
1. Impact on Political Sphere. The background of the Indian political history was prepared on the lands of Punjab. Almost all the initial invaders entered India from the North-West direction. The brave people of Punjab faced them. Most of the important and decisive wars were fought here. Chandragupta Maurya established first large kingdom in India but its base was prepared at Punjab. First of all, he provoked Punjabi’s against the Greek rule, recruited soldiers and prepared the programme to conquer India. The first Kingdom of Harshvardhana was Thaneshwar (near kurukshetra) and was in Punjab.

2. Impact on Religious Sphere. Many religious movements started in India which are of great importance in the Indian history. Chishti, Suharvardi, Sufi sects etc. originated here which spread in different parts of the country. On this sacred land, Sikhism was originated. Guru Nanak Dev Ji was the founder of Sikhism. After him there came 9 Gurus who gave Sikhism a distinctive indentity. Punjabis gave many sacrifices in the interest of humanity. The Sikh religion flourished rapidly in Punjab.

Question 3.
Discuss the impact of foreign invasion on the people of Punjab.
Answer:
The people of Punjab faced lot many foreign invaders. They also tolerated the people who came with the foreign invaders and settled over here. Due to continuous wars, a feeling of bravery and fearlessness came in them. They never lived at place for a very long time. With the advent of many people from foreign countries, their culture, ways of living, religion, language etc. became the part of Punjab. Many of the traits of the Muslim culture got assimilated in the Punjabi culture.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Punjab was annexed into the British Empire in ______________
(a) 1947 A.E),
(b) 1857 A.D.
(c) 1849 A.D.
(d) 1889 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1849 A.D.

Question 2.
Punjab was divided in two parts on the basis of language in ___________
(a) 1947 A.D.
(b) 1966 A.D.
(c) 1950 A.D.
(d) 1971 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1966 A.D.

Question 3.
________ river acted as a boundary between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and the British.
(a) Sutlej
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Beas.
Answer:
(a) Sutlej.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
Presently which river acts a boundary between India and Pakistan?
(a) Ravi
(b) Chenab
(c) Beas
(d) Sutlej.
Answer:
(a) Ravi.

Question 5.
Shah Jaman attacked India (Punjab) in ________
(a) 1811 A.D.
(b) 1798 A.D.
(c) 1757 A.D.
(d) 1794 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1798 A.D.

Question 6.
Who made Delhi as the capital of India?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Curzon.
Answer:
(c) Lord Hardinge.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Punjab was called Sapt Sindhu during period.
Answer:
Vedic

Question 2.
The territory between two rivers is known as the ________
Answer:
Doab

Question 3.
The Mughal Emperor Akbar divided Punjab in ________ provinces.
Answer:
two

Question 4.
Under Maharaja Ranjit Singh, Punjab was called ________ as a province.
Answer:
Lahore

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 5.
During the Ramayana and Mahabharata age, Punjab was called ________
Answer:
Tsehkia

Question 6.
Alexander attacked India in ________ B. C.
Answer:
326.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is it not correct to use the word Punjab after the partition of India?
Answer:
Before partition, Punjab was a land of five rivers but after independence, three rivers went over to Pakistan and only two (Beas and Sutlej) remained in present Punjab.

Question 2.
What was the impact of Indian partition on Punjab?
Answer:
With the Indian partition, Punjab was divided in two parts.

Question 3.
In how mahy parts, can Punjab be divided from geographical point of view? Name them.
Answer:
From geographical point of view, Punjab can be divided into three parts :

  1. The Himalaya and its North-Eastern mountains,
  2. Sub-Mountainous region,
  3. The plains.

Question 4.
What type of area would Punjab be had the Himalayas not been there?
Answer:
If the Himalayas had not been there in the north of Punjab,it could have been dry and cold.

Question 5.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Doab’?
Answer:
Territory between two rivers.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 6.
What is the area between the rivers Sutlej and the Ghaggar called? What are the inhabitants of this area called?
Answer:
The region between the rivers Sutlej and Ghaggar is known as Malwa and people living in this region are called Malwais.

Question 7.
How was the Doab Bist Jalandhar named? Write the names of any two famous cities of this area.
Answer:

  1. Doab Bist Jalandhar is the region between the rivers Beas and Sutlej. By joining the first letters of the names of the rivers Beas and Sutlej, the word Bist is formed
  2. Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur are the two famous cities of this region.

Question 8.
Why is the Doab Bari called Majha? What are the residents of this area called?
Answer:
The Bari Doab is situated in the central Punjab. The word Majha means inner or the centre and that is why it is called the Majha. The people living in this region are called Majhels or Majahis.

Question 9.
Which Mughal ruler had divided the Punjab into two provinces?
Answer:
The Mughal ruler Akbar divided the Punjab into two provinces.

Question 10.
By what name was the Punjab called during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Punjab was called ‘Lahore Kingdom’ during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

Question 11.
When did the British annex Punjab?
Answer:
The British annexed Punjab in 1849.

Question 12.
When did the division of Punjab take place on linguistic basis?
Answer:
Punjab was divided in two states namely, Punjab and Haryana in 1966 on Linguistic basis.

Question 13.
Name any four major tribes which invaded Punjab after crossing the passes of the north-west ranges of Himalayas.
Answer:
The four main tribes were the Aryans, Sakas, Greeks and Kushans.

Question 14.
In which two parts are the plains of Punjab divided?
Answer:
The plains of Punjab are divided in two parts namely Eastern plains and Western plains.

Question 15.
Which two rivers have remained in the Indian Punjab?
Answer:
Sutlej and Beas.

Question 16.
What was Punjab called during Ramayana and Mahabharata ages?
Answer:
Panchnand

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 17.
Which Governor-General made Delhi the Capital of India?
Answer:
Lord Hardinge.

Question 18.
Name any two passes situated in the western ranges of the Himalayas. ,
Answer:
Khyber and Tochi.

Question 19.
When did Delhi become the Capital of India?
Answer:
In 1911 A.D.

Question 20.
When did Alexander attack India?
Answer:
In 326 B.C.

Question 21.
When did Shah Zaman attack India (Punjab)?
Answer:
In 1798 A.D.

Question 22.
Which river acted as the boundary between the British and Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
River Sutlej.

Question 23.
Presently, few parts of which river act as a boundary between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
Ravi.

Question 24.
Which was the Capital of Punjab during the times of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Lahore.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 25.
Why are the plains of Punjab called Real Punjab? Give any one reason in support of the claim.
Answer:
The plains are fertile and are the main cause of prosperity of Punjab.

Question 26.
Name any four Doabs of the plains of Punjab.
Answer:
Bist Jalandhar Doab, Bari Doab, Rachna Doab and Chaj Doab.

Question 27.
Name the rivers which surround the Malwa region in Punjab?
Answer:
The rivers Sutlej and Ghaggar surround the Malwa region.

Question 28.
Name any four cities of Punjab where decisive historical wars were fought?
Answer:
Terain, Panipat, Peshawar and Thanesar.

Question 29.
What name do we give to Pakistani Punjab?
Answer:
Western Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four advantages of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The following are the main four benefits of the Himalayan mountains.

  1. The rivers of Himalayan flow during the whole year. They make the land of the Punjab fertile.
  2. There are dense forests in the Himalayan mountains. These forests provide many herbs and large quantities of wood.
  3. The high snow-covered peaks of the Himalayas protect India from the attacks of foreign invaders from the North.
  4. The Himalayan mountains check the monsoon winds and help in bringing rains.

Question 2.
Write briefly about any three Doabs.
Answer:

  1. The Sindh Sagar Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Indus and Jhelum. It is not a fertile region for farming.
  2. The Chaj Doab. This Doab is the region between the rivers Chenab and Jhelum. The important cities of this Doab are Gujarat, Bhera and Shahpur.
  3. The Rachna Doab. It is the region between the rivers Ravi and Chenab, which is a very fertile region. Gujranwala and Shekhupura are the important towns of this Doab.

Question 3.
How did the rivers of Punjab affect the course of its history?
Answer:
The rivers of Punjab always stopped the march of the invaders of India. When the rivers were in flood in the rainy season, they expanded in the vast area and it became impossible to cross them. Undoubtedly, it was the reason that Alexander was held back for many days on the banks of river Jhelum before crossing it, because it was in flood. These rivers proved insurmountable hurdles for many invaders. The rivers of Punjab had also been used as the natural boundaries for administrative purposes. The Mughal rulers divided the areas of the administrative units like Sarkars, Parganas, and Subas by adopting the rivers as the boundaries. The rivers of Punjab had made its land fertile and brought its people wealth and prosperity. Had the rivers not brought the alluvial soil from the high mountains to the plains, Punjab would not have any fertile land.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 4.
Give information about the boundaries of Punjab in different periods of Indian history.
Answer:
The boundaries of the Punjab territory varied from time to time throughout its history.

  1. According to the Rig Veda, the boundaries of Punjab included the regions covered by the rivers Indus. Jhelum Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and Saraswati.
  2. During the Mauryan and Kushan periods, the boundaries of Punjab extended upto the Hindukush mountain ranges and Taxila.
  3. During the Sultanate period (1206-1526), the boundaries of Punjab extended from Lahore to Peshawar. During the Mughal period (1526-1707), the Punjab was diyided into two provinces, namely, Lahore Suba and Multan Suba.
  4. During the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the boundaries of Punjab extended from the river Sutlej to Peshawar.
  5. The British named the territory of Lahore kingdom of Maharaja Dalip Singh (Son of Maharaja Ranjit Singh) as the Punjab after annexing it to the British Indian Empire.
  6. After the partition of India, a major part^f the Punjab was transferred to Pakistan.
  7. On the basis of language, Punjab was divided into three states, namely Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 5.
How did the Himalayan mountains influence the history of Punjab?
Answer:
The Himalayas influenced the history of Punjab in the following manner :

  1. Punjab-The Gateway of India: Punjab remained the Gateway of India for centuries since ancient times due to the North-Western mountain ranges of the Himalayas. The foreign invaders crossed the passes of these ranges to invade India.
  2. The Problem of the North-West Frontier: The security of North-West Frontier of India had always remained a major problem for the rulers of India. Those rulers, who failed to ensure the security of North-West Frontiers, suffered heavy losses.
  3. Protection against Foreign Invasions: It was impossible to cross the high ranges of the Himalayas from north. Consequently, Punjab remained secure in the north for a long time since nobody could invade from the northern side.
  4. Economic Prosperity: The rivers, originating in the Himalayas, replenished her plains with fertile soil from year to year. Consequently, the plains of Punjab were counted among the most fertile lands of the world.

Question 6.
What role did the Punjab play in the history of India?
Answer:
The Punjab played an important role in the history of India due to its special geographical location. It became the cradle of Indian civilization. The oldest ancient culture (Indus Valley Civilization) flourished in the Punjab. The Aryans made it the centre of their political sway. They composed their sacred books like the Vedas, Puranas, Mahabharata, Ramayana etc, in the Punjab. Punjab was the the Gateway of India. All the invaders during medieval period came to India by passing through Punjab. Hence, people of Punjab had to fight numerous battles to hold back the advancing invaders. Apart from this, Punjab was the birthplace of Hinduism and Sikhism. Guru Nanak Dev Ji gave his divine message on this very land. It was here that Guru Gobind Singh Ji created the Khalsa Panth and successfully resisted the Mughal oppression. Banda Singh Bahadur and Maharaja Ranjit Singh hold prominent places in the history of India.

Question 7.
Give a brief description of the geographical division of Punjab keeping in view the history of Punjab.
Answer:
The geographical features of Punjab can be divided into three parts, keeping in view the history of Punjab.

  1. Himalayas and the North-West Mountain ranges.
  2. The Terai region (foothills).
  3. The Plains.

The mighty Himalayas form the boundary of Punjab in the north. The high rising peaks of the Himalayas are always covered With snow. The Himalayas have three ranges which run parallel to one another. There are numerous passes in the North West ranges through which the invaders, traders and religious preachers had been coming to India since ancient times. The second geographical division of Punjab is Terai region. It is sandwiched between the mountains and the plains of Punjab. The population in this region is small. The most important geographical division of Punjab is its plains, which are very fertile. They extend from river Indus in the northwest to river Yamuna in the south-east. It is formed by the soil deposited by the rivers from the Himalayas. It is the cause of the prosperity of Punjab since the ancient times.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Question 8.
How did the geographical features of Punjab influence the history of Punjab?
Answer:
Each geographical feature of Punjab has influenced differently the history of Punjab.

  1. The passes of the North-West Mountain Ranges of Himalayas allowed passage to many invaders. Hence the security of the North-west region remained a major problem for every ruler. On the other hand, the snow capped high rising peaks of the Himalayas in the parts of Punjab provided perfect security from all the possible invaders from the northern side.
  2. The distinctive culture of Punjab is a gift of the Himalayas standing in the North and West of Punjab.
  3. The prosperity and wealth of Punjab had always attracted the greedy invaders. Consequently. Punjab had to face their invasions frequently.
  4. The Terai region provided shelter to the Sikhs during their hard times. The Sikhs saved themselves and courageously faced the oppressive rulers.

Question 9.
Who annexed Punjab to the British Empire and when? Describe the role of the Punjab in the freedom struggle of India.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), the Governor-General of India, annexed the Punjab to the British Indian Empire in 1849. Punjab made a commendable contribution to the freedom struggle of India. Baba Ram Singh started the Kuka Movement in Punjab. He was the first to oppose the British rule. The people of Punjab began the freedom struggle during the 20th century by starting, Gaddhar Movement, Gurudwara Movement, Babbar Akali Movement, Naujwan Sabha (Martyr Bhagat Singh’s Movement), Akali Movement, Praja Mandal Movement etc. Martyr Bhagat Singh sacrificed his life on the gallows for the sake of his motherland. The heroes of freedom struggle like Madan Lai Dhingra, Kartar Singh Sarabha and Udham Singh laid down their lives for the freedom of India. Ultimately, in 1947, India became free.

Question 10.
Describe the main features of Mountain Valleys (Tilhat) or Terai region (foothills) in Punjab.
Answer:
The Terai region of Punjab is situated below the hills of Himachal Pradesh and of Punjab. This region is 308 to 923 metres high above sea level. It presents a different look from the rest of the Himalayan regions in Punjab because of its meadows and valleys. The areas of Sialkot, Kangra, Hoshiarpur, Gurdaspur and some areas of Ambala district are parts of this region. It is mostly a hilly area. Consequently, the region is not much fertile. The waterborne diseases rapidly spread here during the rainy season. It has a small population. The people of the region are forced to work hard for their livelihood. This hqrd life has made them strong and sturdy.

Question 11.
How far have the plains influenced the history of Punjab?
Answer:

  1. Punjab had always remained a prosperous .state because its plains are fertile. The wealth and prosperity of Punjab always attracted greedy invaders from outside Punjab.
  2. Many historic battles were fought in the plains of Punjab. Peshawar, Kurukshetra, Thanesar, Sirhind, Bhatinda, Bhera, Kari, Terain, Panipat etc. witnessed major decisive battles. The three major decisive battles, the Battles of Panipat took place in Punjab.
  3. The people of Punjab were made to fight numerous battles because of the geographical location of the plains of Punjab. They suffered numerous atrocities at the hands of invaders. For example, Timur was notorious for his inhuman atrocities, which he inflicted on the people of Punjab.
  4. The people of Punjab developed the qualities of bravery and courage due to their involvement in frequent wars which they were made to fight.
  5. The Aryans developed Hinduism in Punjab. During the medieval period, this very land had the honour of being the birthplace of Guru Nanak Dev Ji who gave his spiritual message in a very simple language.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 1 Punjab: Physical Features and its Impact

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“The Himalayas have deeply influenced the history of Punjab.” Justify this statement with your arguments.
Answer:
The Himalayas stand high like a huge wall on the northern side of Punjab. The Himalayas have deeply influenced the history of Punjab :
1. Punjab: The Gateway of India. The Punjab had remained the Gateway of India for centuries because of the North-West ranges of Himalayas. First of all, the Aryans from Iran crossed the North Western mountain passes and invaded India. They faced strong opposition of the people of Punjab. But they ultimately settled in this region.

2. The Problem of North-West Frontier: The protection of North-West Frontiers had always remained a major problem for the Indian rulers. The Indian rulers were forced to spend a large amount of money for the protection of these frontiers.

3. Protection against the attacks of foreigners: The Northern ranges of the Himalayas are very high and always remain covered with snow. Therefore, Punjab remained safe from the attacks of the foreigners from the northern side.

4. Economic Prosperity: The Punjab has remained a prosperous region due to the Himalayas. The rivers of Himalayas replenished the upper soil of its land. Consequently, Punjab plains were counted among the most fertile regions of the world.

5. The Trade Relations with Foreign Countries: The passes in the North-West ranges served as trade routes to the foreign countries. The merchants from West Asian and Central Asian countries visited India by these trade routes. The Punjabi traders also visited their countries.

6. Distinctive Culture of Punjab. The Persians, Arabs, Turks, Mughals, and Afghans came to India crossing the passes of the North-West Himalayas. Their different languages like Arabic, Persian, Turkish, etc. mixed with Sanskrit-based local languages and dialects. This fusion of different cultures gave birth to the distinctive culture of Punjab which is now full of Indian and foreign features.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Name the Act to control the quality of seeds.
Answer:
Seed Control Order 1983.

Question 2.
Name the Act of controlling the quality of fertilizers.
Answer:
Fertilizers Control Order, 1985

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Question 3.
Name the places where laboratories for checking the quality of fertilizers are located?
Answer:
Ludhiana and Faridkot.

Question 4.
Name the Act to control the quality of insecticides.
Answer:
Insecticides Act-1968.

Question 5.
Who gives advice to Government of India regarding implementation of insecticide act 9
Answer:
Central Insecticide Board.

Question 6.
Name the places where laboratories to check quality of insecticides are located?
Answer:
Ludhiana, Bathinda, Amritsar.

Question 7.
Who gives permission to import pesticides from foreign countries?
Answer:
Central Registration Committee.

Question 8.
Under Insecticide Act who is declared as Insecticide Inspector?
Answer:
ADO (Agricultural Development Officer) is declared as Insecticide Inspector.

Question 9.
To whom shall you file a complaint against a dealer who sells low quality fertilizer?
Answer:
Chief Agricultural Officer.

Question 10.
Name the item for which TL label is used?
Answer:
For seeds it is labelled as truthfully labelled (TL).

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Why the quality control of fertilizers is important?
Answer:
Fertilizers play an important role in the agriculture. It is given to the crop so that the plants can develop properly. If fertilizers are not of good quality, it will badly affect the growth of the plants. All the hard work will go in vain. Therefore, Quality Control of Fertilizers is very important.

Question 2.
Why the quality .control of seeds is important?
Answer:
If seeds are not of good quality the produce will also be of lower quality and yield is also less. All the hard work will go in vain and farmer will not get expected price and profit. Therefore, seeds should be of good quality.

Question 3.
Name the commodities related to agriculture which are included under Essential Commodities Act?
Answer:
Government of India has included three main commodities : seeds, fertilizers and insecticides under Essential Commodities Act.

Question 4.
Name the laws which are implemented to control the quality of seeds, fertilizers and insecticides?
Answer:
For seeds it is Seed Control Order-1983, for fertilizers it is Fertilizer Control Order-1985, for insecticides it is Insecticides Act-1968.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Question 5.
What are the rights of seed inspector for controlling the quality of seeds?
Answer:
Seed Inspector can check stock, sale, purchase and ask for the information about the, seeds in the store from the dealer. He can search the seed store or shop. He can take samples of seeds and send them to the testing laboratories. If some fault is found he can ban the sale of the seeds. He can take possession of the documents related to seeds and can check them. In case shop keeper is found guilty, inspector can cancel the licence of the shop-keeper.

Question 6.
What are the rights of a farmer under Seed Control Order?
Answer:
Under this act, rights of the farmers who purchase the seeds are protected and secured. In case of low quality, fake or damaged seeds, farmer can get compensation for his expenditure occurred on seeds. If buyer feels that crop failure has occurred due to the low quality of seeds sold to him’by the seed dealer; he can file written complaint against the dealer to the Seed Inspector.

Question 7.
What evidence is required to file a complaint against dealer who sold low quality seeds ?
Answer:
Following evidences are required to file a complaint against dealer who sold low quality seeds :

  • Receipt or bill given by dealer at the time of purchase of seeds.
  • Label, tagged on the bags of seed.
  • Empty seed bag or container or packet.
  • Sample taken from purchased seeds.

Question 8.
Name the law for assurance of quality of fertilizers. Name the officer of agriculture department deputed for the proper implementation of this act.
Answer:
The law for assurance of quality of fertilizers is Fertilizer Control Order-1985. The implementation of this order in Punjab is done by Director, Department of Agriculture through Agriculture Officer and Agriculture Development Officer (ADO).

Question 9.
To check the quality of insecticides, what are the important actions taken by an Insecticide Inspector ?
Answer:
Insecticide inspector can do inspection of insecticide shops, godowns, sale centres and other related places which fall under his jurisdiction. He can collect samples of insecticides and send them to laboratories located at Ludhiana, Bathinda and Amritsar for investigation. He can check the stock to know about the expiry date of the chemicals sold by the dealer. He can also verify the weight and other such related facts. He can cancel the licence in case the dealer is found guilty of breaking the laws.

Question 10.
Write about Article-7 of Seed Act.
Answer:
This act is related to the selling of seeds. This act protects the rights of the farmers and prevents the dealer to sell low quality or damaged seed. Under Article-7 of the Seed Act, dealer can sell only notified seeds.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
Why is it important to control the quality of seeds, fertilizers and insecticides?
Answer:
For profitable farming three important things are required which are seeds, fertilizers and insecticides. All these three commodities are equally very important in profitable farming. These all should be of good quality. Fertilizers play an important role in the agriculture. It is applied so that the plants can develop properly. If fertilizers are not of good quality, it will badly affect the growth of the plants. All the hard work will go in vain. Therefore, Quality Control of Fertilizers is very important. If seeds are not of good quality the produce will also be of lower quality and yield is also less. All the hard work will go in vain and farmer will not get expected price and profit. Therefore, seeds should be of good quality. If these three are not of good quality then expenditure occured by profit is not upto the expectation, these will not be able to control the weeds, insects etc. Insects will damage the crop. It is very important to control the quality of seeds, fertilizers and insecticides.

Question 2.
How the quality of insecticides is controlled with the help of Insecticide Act?
Answer:
This act was passed in 1968 and was implemented in whole of the country. This act was implemented to check adulteration and discrepancies in the insecticides. According to this act, outdated expired and packs or bottles weighing less of insecticides cannot be sold. Government of Punjab has given authority to provide licence to dealers to the Chief Agriculture Officer at district level. ADO is declared as insecticide inspector who can check shops, godowns and sale centres of insecticides and can collect sample for sending to laboratories for investigation. Laboratories are located at Ludhiana, Amritsar, Bathinda. Those who are found flouting the act, legal action can be taken against them and their licence can be cancelled.

Question 3.
Describe the five main articles of seed control order?
Answer:
1. Right to give licence: According to this order, the state Government can appoint any officer who is suitable according to government as licence officer and also decide his jurisdiction area. In Punjab this right is given to department of Agriculture.

2. Seed Inspector: Under this act, State Government has appointed Agriculture Development Officer as seed inspector and also notified their jurisdiction and powers. Seed inspector can ask for any type of information from the dealer e.g., he can check stock of seeds, purchase of seeds, sale of seeds etc. Seed inspector can take samples of seeds and can check the seed shops. He can send the samples to the seed testing laboratories. If the dealer is found to flout the laws, seed inspector can restrict the sale of the seeds and can also take documents related with seeds in his possession. He can write to licence officer for cancelling of the licence of the dealer.

3. Rights of Farmers: Under this act, rights of the farmers who’ purchase the seeds are protected and secured. In case of low quality, fake or damaged seeds, farmer can get compensation for his expenditure on seeds. If buyer feels that crop failure has occured due to the low quality of seeds sold to him by the seed dealer; he can file written complaint against the dealer to the Seed Inspector.

Following evidences are required to file a complaint against dealer who sold low quality seeds :

  • Receipt or bill given by dealer at the time of purchase of seeds.
  • Label, tagged on the bags of seed.
  • Empty seed bag or container or packet.
  • Sample taken from purchased seeds.

4. Law regarding sale of seeds: Article-7 of the Seed Act, allows sale of only notified seeds. Seeds should be properly packed and labelled. Pack of seeds should have attached with it a label of certified seeds or truthfully (TL) seeds.

5. Certification of Seeds. Producer of the seeds if wants can get certification for the seeds produced by him.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Question 4.
What are the rights that are enjoyed by the farmers under Seed Control Order ?
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 5.
Name three products required for the development of agriculture and also give a brief description about their quality control.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
When was Seed Control Act passed?
Answer:
1983.

Question 2.
When was Fertilizer Control Act passed?
Answer:
1985.

Question 3.
Who implements Seed, fertilizer, pesticide related acts in Punjab?
Answer:
Department of Agriculure, Punjab.

Question 4.
Which quality label is attached with the sealed packets, containers or bags of seeds?
Answer:
T.L. (Truthfully Labelled) or Certified seeds.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
When was Insecticide Act passed?
Answer:
This act was passed in 1968 and was implemented in whole of the country.

Question 2.
To whom Punjab Government has given the authority to give license to the dealer for selling insecticides?
Answer:
Punjab Government has given the authority to Chief Agriculture Officer of respective districts to give license to the dealer for selling insecticides.

Question 3.
Which points should be kept in mind while purchasing insecticides?
Answer:
Farmer should get receipt of the purchased insecticide. Containers and bottels containing insecticides should be porperly sealed. Farmer should check the expiry date on the container. In case of any doubt or problem contact Agriculture Development Officer or Chief Agriculture Officer.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Fertilizer Control Order 1985? How is it helpful in the Quality Control of Fertilizers?
Answer:
Fertilizer Control Order-1985 was made for assuring quality and correct weight of the fertilizers and also to prevent sale of adulterated fertilizers. It also prevents the sale of low-quality and non-certified fertilizers. Dealer has to get license for sale of fertilizers from the Chief Agriculture Officer of the district.

For checking the quality of fertilizers, monitoring is done at various levels. Dealers are not allowed to sell the fertilizers which are below specific standards. Competent authorities have been given proper rights to check the quality of fertilizers. They can check and inspect the fertilizer factories and dealers or shopkeepers which fall under their jurisdiction. If needed inspectors can take samples of fertilizers and send them to testing laboratories. Those dealers or shopkeepers who defy the law, their license can be cancelled and legal action can be taken against them.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Fertilizer testing laboratories are located at:
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Jalandhar
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Ludhiana

2. Insecticide testing laboratories are located at:
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Bathinda
(c) Amritsar
(d) All correct
Answer:
(d) All correct

3. Seed control order was made in:
(a) 1980
(b) 1983
(c) 1950
(d) 1995
Answer:
(b) 1983

4. Insecticide Act was made in :
(a) 1950
(b) 1968
(c) 1990
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1968

5. Fertilizer control order was made in :
(a) 1985
(b) 1968
(c) 1995
(d) 1989
Answer:
(a) 1985

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 5 Quality Control of Seeds, Fertilizers and Insecticides

True/False:

1. For profitable farming main commodities required are seeds, fertilizers, and insecticides.
Answer:
True

2. Insecticides Act was not made in 1968.
Answer:
False

3. Government of India has made certain laws under the Essential Commodities Act.
Answer:
True

4. These acts are Seed Control Order, Fertilizer Control Order, Insecticides Act.
Answer:
True

5. Under article 7 of the Seed Act, notified seeds can not be sold.
Answer:
False

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Fertilizer testing laboratories are located at …………….. and ……………..
Answer:
Ludhiana, Faridkot

2. Fertilizer Control Order was made in …………….. which is used to prevent adultration, low quality and non-certified fertilizers, and to ensure quality and corrupt weight of fertilizers.
Answer:
1985

3. Insecticides samples are sent to the laboratories located at Ludhiana, Bathinda, …………….. for testing.
Answer:
Amritsar

4. Central Insecticide Board gives advice to …………….. to implement the laws.
Answer:
government

5. Central Registration Committee provides registration for the …………….. of agrochemicals and also provides permission for their import and export.
Answer:
manufacturing

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Social History of Clothing Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Cotton cloth is made up of
(a) Cotton
(6) Animal Skin
(c) SilkWorms
(d) Wool.
Answer:
(a) Cotton.

Question 2.
Who thought of the artificial fibre first?
(a) Marie Curie
(b) Robert Hook
(c) Loius Subab
(d) Lord Curzon.
Answer:
(b) Robert Hook.

Question 3.
In which century did the people of Europe wear clothes according to their social status, class and gender?
(a) 15th Century
(b) 16th Century
(c) 17th Century
(d) 18th Century.
Answer:
(d) 18th Century.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
The traders of which country began to import the Indian ‘Chintz’ (Chheent) cloth?
(a) China
(b) England
(c) Italy
(d) France.
Answer:
(b) England.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Archaeologists found the needles of ivory near ___________
Answer:
kostyonki

Question 2.
Silkworms are nurtured on ___________ trees.
Answer:
mulberry

Question 3.
The remains of ___________ clothes have been found in Egyptian, Babylonian and Indus Valley Civilizations.
Answer:
woollen

Question 4.
Industrial Revolution began in ___________ continent.
Answer:
Europe

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 5.
Swadeshi Movement began in ___________ A. D.
Answer:
1905.

III. Match the Columns:

Question 1.

A

B

1. Partition of Bengal (i) Rabindranath Tagore
2. Silk Clothes (ii) China
3. National Anthem (iii) 1789
4. French Revolution (iv) Mahatma Gandhi
5. Swadeshi Movement (v) Lord Curzon.

Answer:

A B
1. Partition of Bengal (v) Lord Curzon.
2. Silk Clothes (ii) China
3. National Anthem (i) Rabindranath Tagore
4. French Revolution (iii) 1789
5. Swadeshi Movement (iv) Mahatma Gandhi

IV. Difference between:

Question 1.
Woollen Cloth and Silk Cloth.
Answer:
Woollen Cloth and Silk Cloth.

  • Woollen Cloth: Wool is made of fibre which is made up of particular cells of the skin. Wool is taken from sheep, yaks, goats, rabbits, etc. Meriho wool is considered the best wool. The remains of woollen clothes were found from the Egyption, Babylonian and Indus Valley Civilizations. It refers that people also wore woollen Clothes.
  • Silk Cloth: Silk Cloth is made from the fibres prepared by silkworms. Actually, a silkworm prepares a cocoon for its security which is made of its Saliva, Silkthread is prepared from this cocoon. Mostly silkworms are nurtured on mulberry trees. China was the first country to develop the technique of making Silk Cloth.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 2.
Cotton Cloth and Artificial Fibre.
Answer:
Cotton Cloth and Artificial Fibre.

  • Cotton Cloth. Cotton cloth is made up of Cotton. Indians are wearing cotton clothes since ages. There are some historical evidences that reveal us that people in olden times were cotton clothes. Many cotton clothes have been found while excavating the sites of Individually civilisation. Rigvedic Hymns also refer to cotton.
  • Artificial Fibre. An Englishman, Robert Hook, thought of making artificial fibre. Later on, a french scientist also wrote about it, but did not give it a material shape. In 1842, another Englishman Louis Subab invented a machine to make cloth from artificial fibre. Artificial fibre, mulberry, rubber, alcohol, fat, raisins and some other vegetations are used to prepare artificial fibre. Cotton is widely used in India and Terrycot is made from polyster.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was used by human beings to cover their bodies in the primitive age?
Answer:
Early humans used leaves, bark of trees and animal skin to cover their bodies.

Question 2.
How many types of fibres are used to make the clothes?
Answer:
Four types of fibres are used to make the clothes-Cotton, Woollen, silky and artificial.

Question 3.
Which type of sheep is to be the wool considered to be the best for woo!?
Answer:
Merino Sheep.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
In which country did women first raise their voice to wear clothes of their choice?
Answer:
France.

Question 5.
From which country England used to import cotton before industrial Revolution?
Answer:
India.

Question 6.
Name the Indian leader who initiated the Khadi movement.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 7.
The people of Namdhari Sect wear clothes of which colour.
Answer:
White colour.

VI. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why did human beings feel the need of clothing?
Answer:
Clothing of a person shows his mental, intellectual and economic state. Clothing is not only used to cover the body but it also indicates about one’s cultural and social status in society. That’s why humans felt the need of clothing.

Question 2.
How is silk cloth prepared?
Answer:
Silk cloth is made from the fibres prepared by Silkworms. Actually, a silkworm prepares a cocoon for its security which is made of its Saliva. Silk thread is prepared from this cocoon. Mostly silkworms are nurtured on Mulberry trees. China was the first country to develop the technique of making ‘Silk Cloth.’

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 3.
What was the impact of Industrial Revolution on Clothing?
Answer:
During eighteenth-nineteenth centuries, Industrial Revolution exerted a great impact on the social, political and economic structure of the whole world. It led to the change in ideas and life style of the people and consequently change came in the clothing of the people.

Due to the cloth production on machines, cloth became cheap and much more cloth came in the market. As a results plenty of cloth with various designs was available at affordable price. That’s why people started wearing more clothes. Before this, cloth was expensive and people wore less number of clothes.

Question 4.
How did world wars influence the clothing of women?
Answer:
In twentieth century, many European women stopped wearing luxurious clothes because upper-class women mixed with other classes. Consequently, social barriers were eroded and women began to look similar. Clothes got shorter during the First World War (1914-1918) our of practical necessity. By 1917, lots of women in Britain were employed in ammunition factories. They wore a working uniform of blouse and trousers. Bright colours faded from sight and only sober colours were worn as the war dragged on.

Therefore, clothes became plainer and simpler. Skirts became shorter. Gradually, trousers became a vital part of Western women’s clothing, giving them greater freedom of movement. By the twentieth century, new schools for children emphasised the importance of plain dressing and discouraged ornamentation. Gymnastics and games entered the school curriculum for women. As women took to sports, they had to wear clothes that did not hamper movement. Whey they went out to work they needed clothes that were comfortable and convenient.

Question 5.
What do you know about Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The core philosophy was to use indigenous coarse cloth, shoes and other articles as part of self-respect and also to hit British economic interests. This gave a fillip to the indigenous industries and there was a significant revival in handlooms, silk-weaving and other traditional artisan crafts.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 6.
Write a note on the efforts made for the preparation of the national dress.
Answer:
By the end of 19th century, national consciousness started spreading among Indians. The Indians started thinking about those cultural symbols which could express national unity. Artists started finding the national art style. Poets wrote national songs. For the symbolic identity of the Nation, many scholars emphasized on developing the national dress. During the decade of 1870, Tagore family of Bengal started preparing the designs of national dress for males and females. Rabindranath Tagore suggested that instead of mixing the Indian and European dresses, the designs of Hindu and Muslim clothes should be mixed. In this way, Achkan (a long buttoned coat) was considered the most suitable dress for the Indian men.

Efforts were made to prepare a design while keeping in mind the traditions of different regions. At the end of the decade of 1870, Jnanadanandini Devi, wife of Satyendranath Tagore, the first Indian ICS officer, returned from Bombay to Calcutta. She adopted the Parsi style of wearing the Sari pinned to the left shoulder with a brooch and worn with a blouse and shoes. This was very quickly adopted by Brahmo. Samaji women. It was given the name of Brahmika Sari. This style gained acceptance before long among Marathis and Uttar Pradesh Brahmas, as well as non-Brahmas.

But these efforts were not completely successful. Even today, the females of Gujarat, Kerala and Assam wear different types of sarees.

Question 7.
Write a note on the clothing of Punjabi women.
Answer:
In Punjab, men wore Kurta-Pyjama and women wore suit i.e. Salwar Kameez. Most of the males wore turbans on their heads. There was a time when they wore Turre Wali Pagri and even starched Pagris. Earlier they wore single layered Pagris but now it has changed into double on centre stiched Pagri.

People wear red, pink and orange turbans at the time of marriage. White or light coloured turbans are used at the time of mourning. ‘Chadras’ and ‘Kurtas’ have been replaced wih Pant-Shirt with different types of shoes.

Earlier Punjabi women wore long Kurtas which is now changed to Salwar Kameez. They cover their head with dupatta. They also use dupatta for ‘Ghunghat’. To beautify the dupatta, embroidery, mirror work, gotta and Mukaish are also used. Even suits are embroided and painted in different beautiful designs. Urban women wear suits and sarees with blouse. They also wear ornaments such as Mohran, Tikka, Jhunks, Nose Pin, Rings, Earrings, Bangles, Hair clips etc. Now, under the influence of western cutlure, they have started wearing jeans and tops.

VII. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the fibres used for making clothes.
Answer:
With the invention of new fibres, people started different types of clothes. Due to change in weather and under the influence of cultural, social, political, economic and religious trends, there came continuous changes in the clothing of people which is continued even till today.

To know about the history of clothing, it is necessary to know abo different fibres whose description is given below :

  1. Woollen Cloth: Wool is made of fibre which is made up of particular cells of the skin. Wool is taken from sheep, yaks, goats, rabbits, etc. Merino wool is considered the best wool. The remains of woollen clothes, were found from the Egyption, Babylonian and Indus Valley civilizations. It refers that people also wore woollen clothes.
  2. Silk Cloth: Silk cloth is made from the fibres prepared by silkworms. Actually, a silkworm prepares a cocoon for its security which is made of its saliva, silkthread is prepared from this cocoon. Mostly silkworms are nurtured on mulberry trees. China was the first country to develop the technique of’making silk cloth.
  3. Cotton Cloth: Cotton cloth is made up of cotton. India are wearing cotton clothes since ages. There are some historical evidences which reveal us that people in olden times were cotton clothes. Many cotton clothes have been found while excavating the sites of Indus. Valley civilisation. Rigvedic Hymns also refer to cotton.
  4. Artificial Fibre: An Englishman, Robert Hook, thought making artificial fibre. Later on, a French scientist also wrote about it, but did not give it a material shape. In 1842, another Englishman Louis Subab invented a machine to make cloth from artificial fibre. Artificial fibre, mulberry, rubber, alcohol, fat, raisins and some other vegetations are used to prepare artificial fibre. Cotton is widely used in India and Terrycot is made from polyster.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 2.
What were the impacts of Industrial Revolution on the clothing of common people? Discuss in detail.
Answer:
Dining eighteenth-nineteenth centuries, industrial revolution exerted a great impact on the social political and economic structure of the whole world. It led to the change in ideas and life style of the people and consequently change came in the clothing of people.

Due to the cloth production on machines, cloth became cheap and much more cloth came in the market. As a result, plenty of cloth with various designs was available at affordable price. That’s why people started wearing more clothes.

Industrial Revolution had following impacts on the clothing of common people.
1. Impact on the Clothing of Common People. In the 18th century, people wore clothes according to their social status, class or gender. There was a great difference between the wearing style of males and females. Women wore skirts with high heel sandals. Men wore nakties. The clothing pattern of upper classes was different from that of the common people. But the French Revolution of 1789 A.D. ended all the priviledges of the Nobles or aristocrats. Consequently, every one started wearing colourful clothes. French people began to wear red cap as a symbol of liberty. Thus colourful clothes became fashionable everywhere in the world.

2. Impact on the Clothing of Women. In the European countries, from childhood, girls were tightly laced up and dressed in stays. The effort was to restrict the growth of their bodies, contain them with small moulds. Tightly laced, small-waisted women were admired as attractive, elegant and graceful.
(а) Clothing thus played a part in creating the image of frail, submissive Victorian women.
(b) But the changes related to clothing of women were not accepted.
(c) Around 1830, many women organizations, started demanding democratic rights for women. With the spread of the suffrage movement, clothing reforms started in the 13 British colonial of America.
(d) Press and literature highlighted the wrong effects of tight clothing and diseases caused by them.
(e) Many women organisations in America criticised the traditional
clothing because they believed that if clothes were comfortable and convenient, then women could work, earn their living and become independent.
(f) In the 1870s, the National Woman Suffrage Association headed by Mrs. Stanton, and the American woman suffrage association dominated by Lucy Stone both campaigned for dress reform.

Question 3.
Write down the impacts of the Swadeshi Movement on the clothing of Indian People.
Answer:
The Swadeshi movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal. The government’s decision to partition. Bengal had been made public in December 1903. An immediate and spontaneous protest followed. During the first two months following the announcement, 500 protest meetings were held in East Bengal alone. This was the phase, 1903 to mid 1905, when moderate techniques of petitions, memoranda, speeches, public meetings and press campaigns held full away. The government remained unmoved and the decision to partition Bengal was announced on 19 July, 1905. The Swadeshi movement now galvanized into a powerful national movement under the leadership of Lala Lajpat Rai (Punjab), Bipin Chandra Pal (Bengal) and B. G. Tilak (Maharashtra). On 7th August meeting, the famous boycott resolution was passed. Boycott of Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt was urged. Among the chants of Bande Mataram, huge bonfires of foreign cloth was lit; people voluntarily gave away foreign clothes, shoes, liquor etc. to Congress workers. The Calcutta’s Collector of Customs in September 1906 noted a 22% fall in the quantity of imported cotton piece goods, 44% in cotton twists and yarns.

When Mahatma Gandhi gave stress on using Khadi, many Indians started boycotting the British cloth and it lead to the popularisation of Khadi. Khadi became the symbol of national unity.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
Write a detailed note on the clothing of the Punjabi people.
Answer:
In Punjab, men wore Kurta-Pyjama and women wore suit i.e. Salwar Kameez. Most of the males wore turbans on their heads. There was a time when they wore Turre Wali Pagri and even starched Pagris. Earlier they wore single layered Pagris but now it has changed into double on centre stiched Pagri.

People wear red, pink and orange turbans at the time of marriage. White or light coloured turbans are used at the time of mourning. ‘Chadras’ and ‘Kurtas’ have been replaced wih Pant-Shirt with different types of shoes.
Earlier Punjabi women wore long Kurtas which is now changed to Salwar Kameez. They cover their head with dupatta. They also use dupatta for ‘Ghunghat’. To beautify the dupatta, embroidery, mirror work, gotta and Mukaish are also used. Even suits are embroided and painted in different beautiful designs. Urban women wear suits and sarees with blouse. They also wear ornaments such as Mohran, Tikka, Jhunks, Nose Pin, Rings, Earrings, Bangles, Hair clips etc. Now, under the influence of western cutlure, they have started wearing jeans and tops.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Social History of Clothing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Those laws are known as ___________ which tried to control the behaviour of those considered socially inferior, preventing them from wearing certain clothes.
(a) Sumptuary laws
(b) Corn laws
(c) Cloth laws
(d) Red Cap laws.
Answer:
(a) Sumptuary laws.

Question 2.
___________ was a type of fur which was wore by Royal people.
(a) Sumptuary
(b) Ermine
(c) Corn
(d) Corset.
Answer:
(b) Ermine.

Question 3.
___________ was the political symbol of Red Cap in France.
(a) Symbol of brotherhood
(b) Symbol of Equality
(c) Symbol of liberty
(d) Symbol of economic equality.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
___________ was a lady wear, meant to confine and shap her waist.
(a) Sumptuary
(b) Ermine
(c) Corn
(d) Corset.
Answer:
(d) Corset.

Question 5.
Suffrage movement was launched in ___________
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) U.S.A.
Answer:
(a) England.

Question 6.
Anything essential to maintain life and growth is called
(a) Pableum
(b) Corset
(c) Necessity
(d) Chapkan.
Answer:
(a) Pableum.

Question 7.
___________ was the leader of National Woman Suffrage Association in 1870.
(a) Mrs. Cripps
(b) Mrs. Stanton
(c) Mrs. Stanford
(d) Mrs. Henry.
Answer:
(b) Mrs. Stanton.

Question 8.
___________ was the leader of American woman Suffrage Association during 1860’s.
(a) Mrs. Stanton
(d) Amelia Bloomer
(c) Lucy Stone
(d) Mrs. Stanford.
Answer:
(c) Lucy Stone.

Question 9.
Rational Dress Society started in England in
(a) 1870
(b) 1881
(c) 1876
(d) 1879
Answer:
(b) 1881.

Question 10.
___________ was an Indian cotton cloth printed with design and flowers.
(a) Chintz
(b) Floral
(c) Phenta
(d) Chapkan.
Answer:
(a) Chintz.

Question 11.
___________ was a type of hat.
(a) Chintz
(b) Phenta
(c) Floral
(d) Chapkan.
Answer:
(b) Phenta.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 12.
In the year ___________ Europeans were forbidden from wearing Indian clothes at official functions.
(a) 1830
(b) 1834
(c) 1832
(d) 1836.
Answer:
(a) 1830.

Question 13.
___________ was a long button cout considered the most suitable dress for men during the colonial period.
(a) Chintz
(b) Phenta
(c) Chapkan
(d) Corset.
Answer:
(c) Chapkan.

Question 14.
___________ divided Bengal in 1905.
(a) Lord Earnest
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Lord Curzon.

Question 15.
Gandhiji adopted loins cloth in
(a) Oct. 1920
(6) Sept. 1919
(c) Oct. 1918
(d) Oct. 1921.
Answer:
(d) Oct. 1921.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 16.
Who said these words, “the King had enough on for both of us”?
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(6) Mahatma Gandhi.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
___________ movement is the movement for the rights to vote for women.
Answer:
Suffrage

Question 2.
Chintz was a type of ___________
Answer:
cloth

Question 3.
Lord ___________ partitioned Bengal in 1905.
Answer:
Curzon

Question 4.
___________ was a great supporter of Swadeshi Movement.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 5.
___________ propagated the principles of the Swadeshi Movement through his speeches and newspapers.
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

True/False:

Question 1.
Some men wear Fifty under the Pagri.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In the rural areas, men used to wear a Parna.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Achkan is a long buttoned skirt.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 4.
Sumptuary laws were passed in France.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Industrial revolution first started in England.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were known as sumptuary laws?
Answer:
The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered socially inferior, preventing them from wearing certain clothes.

Question 2.
What was ermine?
Answer:
A type of fur which was wore by Royal people.

Question 3.
What was the political symbol of Red Cap in France?
Answer:
It was a symbol of liberty.

Question 4.
What was Corset?
Answer:
It was a lady wear, meant to confine and shape her waist.

Question 5.
What were stays?
Answer:
In England, from childhood girls were tightly laced up and dressed in stays. The purpose was to restrict the growth of their bodies.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 6.
Where was the Suffrage movement launched?
Answer:
In England.

Question 7.
Who was the leader of National Woman Suffrage Association in 1870?
Answer:
Mrs Stanton.

Question 8.
Who was the leader of American Woman Suffrage Association during 1860?
Answer:
Lucy Stone.

Question 9.
Who was Ameila Bloomer?
Answer:
She was a dress reformer.

Question 10.
When was Rational Dress society started in England?
Answer:
In 1881.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 11.
In which country traditional feminine clothing were criticised on a variety of grounds?
Answer:
In America.

Question 12.
What was Chintz?
Answer:
This was Indian Cotton Cloth printed with design and flowers.

Question 13.
Who were first Indians to adopt western-style clothing?
Answer:
Parsis.

Question 14.
What stands for phenta?
Answer:
It was a hat.

Question 15.
When were Europeans forbidden from wearing Indian clothes at official functions?
Answer:
In the year 1830.

Question 16.
Which Governor-General insisted that Indians take their shoes off when they appear before him?
Answer:
Lord Amherst.

Question 17.
What was Chapkan?
Answer:
It was a long button coat considered the most suitable dress for men during the colonial period.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 18.
When did Curzon proclaim partition of Bengal?
Answer:
In the year 1905.

Question 19.
How did Gandhi changes his dress in London?
Answer:
He cut of the tuft on his head and dressed in a western suit.

Question 20.
Which type of dress Gandhi followed as a lawyer in South Africa?
Answer:
He wore Western style clothes.

Question 21.
When did Gandhi adopt loins cloth?
Answer:
In October 1921.

Question 22.
Who said “the king had enough on for both of us”?
Answer:
Gandhiji said while entering in Birmingham palace.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the Sumptuary laws in France?
Answer:
There were different dresses for different sections of society. From 1294 to the time of the French Revolution in 1789, the people of France were expected to strictly follow what were known as ‘sumptuary laws’. The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors, preventing them from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain foods and beverages and hunting in certain areas. In medieval France, the items of clothing a person could purchase per year was regulated, on the basis of income and social rank. The material to be used for clothing was also legally prescribed. Only royalty could wear expensive materials like ermine and fur or silk, velvet and brocade. Other classes were prevented from clothing themselves with materials that were associated with the aristocracy.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 2.
Give any two examples of the ways in which European dress codes were different from Indian dress codes.
Answer:
As we know that dress is the part of a culture. For this reason clothings convey certain meaning through its style and wearing. When European traders first began visiting India, they were distinguished from the Indian ‘turban wearers’ as the ‘hat wearers’. These two headgears not only looked different, they also signified different things. The* turban in India was not just for protection from the heat but was a sign of respectability, and could not be removed at will. In the Western tradition, the hat had to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect. This cultural difference created misunderstanding. The British were often offended if Indians did not take off their turban as a mark of respect when they met colonial officials. Many Indians wore the turban to assert their regional or national identity.

Another paradox related to the wearing of shoes. At the beginning of the nineteenth century, it was customary for British officials to follow Indian etiquette and-remove their footwear in the courts of ruling kings or chiefs. Some British officials also wore Indian clothes. But in 1830, Europeans were forbidden from wearing Indian clothes at official functions, so that their cultural identity was not undermined.

Question 3.
Suggest reasons why women in nineteenth century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to the more convenient Western clothing. What does this show about the position of women in society?
Answer:
It was the fact that women in the 19th century continued wearing Indian dress whereas man switched over to convenient western clothing. This happened only in the upper echelons of society.

Some of the reasons for this are the following :

  • In the 19th century, Indian women were confined to the four walls as the purdah system was prevalent. They were required to put on traditional dresses.
  • The position of women in the society was very low. Most of them were uneducated and did not attend schools or colleges. Therefore, no need was felt to change their style of clothing.
  • On the other hand upper class Indians were western educated and picked up western habits like western style of clothing. Those who were businessmen or officials imitated the British style of clothing for the sake of comfort, modernity and progress.
  • The Parsis were the first Indian to adopt western style of clothing as it was a mark of modernity, liberalism and progress. Some people had two sets of cloths. They put on western clothes for offices and business work and Indian clothes for social functions.

Question 4.
Winston Churchill described Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘Seditious Middle Temple Lawyer now posing as a half naked fakir’. What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?
Answer:
Winston Churchill was an imperialist by nature and believed in the superiority of whitemen. He called Mahatma Gandhi because under Gandhi’s leadership the Congress launched Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience movement which were aimed at the’British rule. Gandhiji put on western clothes by practising as a lawyer in India and South Africa. Later on, he changed to loin clothes. He did so to identify himself with the peasants of India who were scantily dressed. But Mr Churchill saw it as a sign of inferiority and in order to denegrade called him a half- naked fakir. Churchill could not understand Gandhiji’s depth of love for his countrymen who could not afford full clothes. Gandhiji dress was a sign of simplicity, purity and of poverty of millions of Indian. Even whgn Gandhiji went to England for the Second Round Table Conference in 1931, he refused, to compromise and wore it even before King George V at the Buckingham palace.

Question 5.
What was the impact of the French Revolution on the distinctions created by Sumptuary laws?
Answer:
The French Revolution ended the distinctions created by Sumptuary laws. Both men and women began wearing clothing that was loose and comfortable. The colour of France-blue, white and red-became popular as they were a sign of the patriotic citizen. Other political symbols also became a part of dress. These included red cap of liberty, long trousers and revolutionary cockade pinned on a hat. The simplicity of clothing was meant to express the idea of equality.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 6.
Styles of clothing emphasised differences between men and women. Clarify the statement.
Answer:
Its true that the styles of clothing emphasised differences between men and women. Right from the childhood, women in Victorian England were groomed to be docile and dutiful, submissive and obedient. The ideal woman was one who could bear pain and suffering. While men were expected to be serious, independent, strong and aggressive, women were seen as delicate, frivolous, passive and decile.

Norms of clothing reflected these ideals. From childhood, girls were tightly laced up and dressed in stays. The effort was to restrict the growth of their bodies, contain them within small moulds. When slightly older, girls had to wear tight fitting corsets. Tightly laced, small-waisted women were admired as elegant, attractive and graceful. Clothing thus played a part in creating the image of frail, submissive Victorian women.

Question 7.
Many women of Europe believed in the ideals of womanhood. Explain it with the help of an example.
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that many of the European women believed in the ideas of womanhood. The ideals were in the air they breathed, the education they received at school or at home and the literature they read. Right from childhood, they grew up to believe that having a small waist was a duty of woman. For a woman, suffering pain was essential. To be seen as attractive, they had to wear the corset. The torture and pain this inflicted on the body was to be accepted as normal.

Question 8.
According to women’s magazine, low tight dress and corsets caused deformities. What were the views of doctors regarding this?
Answer:
Many women’s magazines wrote about the deformities caused by tight dress and corsets. These deformities are given below :

  • Such tight dresses and corsets caused deformities and illness among young girls.
  • Such clothing restricted body growth and hampered blood circulation.
  • With such clothes, muscles remained under developed and the spine got bent.

Doctors reported that many women were regularly complaining of acute weakness, felt languid and fainted frequently.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 9.
The white settlers on the east coast of America, criticised the traditional dresses of women. Why?
Answer:
The white settlers on the east coast of America, criticised the traditional dresses of women on many grounds. They believed that :

  • Long skirts swept the ground and collected filth and dirt.
  • The skirts were voluminous. They were difficult to handle.
  • Skirts hampered the movement of women. They prevented women from working and earning.

They believed that the reform of dress would change the position of women. If clothes were comfortable and convenient, women could wear, earn their living and become independent.

Question 10.
How did the Industrial Revolution in Britain proved disastrous for the Indian clothing industry?
Answer:
Before the industrial revolution in England, India had made cotton cloth was in great demand everywhere. During the seventeenth century, one fourth of the world’s cotton cloth was made in India. In 18th century, only Bengal had 10 lakh weavers. But industrial revolution mechanised the weaving process. Consequently Indian cotton started exporting to England and the products made there started coming to India. Indian cloth was unable to compete the mechanised product and its demand reduced to a great deal. As a result, large number of weavers become unemployed and the cotton textile centres such as Murshidabad, Surat etc. declined.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi’s dream of clothing the nation in Khadi appeal only to some sections of Indians?
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing 1
It was Gandhiji’s dream to cloth the whole nation in Khadi but it was not possible for those following his foot steps.

Some others did find it necessary. Here are some examples:

  • Nationalists such as Motilal Nehru gave up his expensive. Western-style suits and adopted the Indian dhoti and kurta. But these were not made of coarse cloth.
  • Those who had been deprived by caste norms for centuries were attracted to Western dress styles. Therefore, unlike”, Mahatma Gandhi, other nationalists such as Babasaheb Ambedkar never gave up the Western style suit. Many Dalits began to wear three piece suits and shoes and sdcks on all public occasions, as a political statement of self-respect.
  • A woman who wrote to Mahatma Gandhi from Maharasthra in 1928 said, “My husband says khadi is costly. Belonging as I do to Maharashtra, wear a sari nine yards long (and) the elders will not hear of a reduction (to six yards.)”
  • Other women, like Sarojini Naidu and Kamala Nehru, wore coloured saris with designs, instead of coarse, white homespun.

Question 2.
There came many changes in the designing and material of clothing during the eighteenth century why?
Answer:
During the eighteenth century, there came many changes in the designing and material of clothing due to following reasons.

  • The French Revolution ended the Sumptuary Laws.
  • The priviledges of Monarchy and the ruling class also ended.
  • The colours of France-Red, Blue and white-became the symbols of patriotism and that’s why clothes made up of these colours became popular.
  • To give importance to equality, people started wearing normal clothes.
  • People had different interests for clothes.
  • The sense of beauty among women brought changes in clothing.
  • Economic condition of the people also brought changes in clothing.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 3.
Give a brief description of the movement started during 1870’s in the U.S.A. for bringing reform in the clothing of women.
Answer:
During the decade of 1870’s ‘National Women Suffrage’ Association and ‘American Suffrage Association’ started a movement for bringing reform in women’s clothing. ‘Stanton’ was the leader of the former organisation and ‘Lucy Stone’ was the leader of the later organisation. The argument was simplify dress, shorten skirts and stop using corsets. On the both sides of Atlantic, there started a movement for rational dress reform. The reformers were unable to get any quick success in changing social values. They had to face ridicule and hostility. Conservatives opposed them every where. They argued that the women who gave up traditional dressing, no longer looked beautiful. They have lost their grace and feminity. Due to the continuous attacks by the conservatives, many women reformers again adopted the traditional clothes.

However, by the end of the nineteenth century, change was clearly visible. Under a variety of pressures, ideals of beauty and styles of clothing were both transformed. People started accepting the ideas of reformers which they had earlier opposed. New values come up with the changing times.

Question 4.
Give a description of the changes came in the clothing of Britain from Seventeenth century till the early years of the 20th Century.
Answer:
Before the seventeenth century, most ordinary women in Britain possessed very few clothes made of flax, linen or wool. They were quite to clean.

Indian Chintzes. After 1600, trade with India brought beautiful, cheap and easy to maintain indian Chintzes. Many European women could buy it easily end now increase the size of their wardrobes.

Industrial Revolution and Cotton Textile. In the nineteenth century, during the industrial revolution, there began mass production of cotton textile in Britain. It was exported to different parts of the world, including India. Now cotton clothes were easily accessible to almost all the groups on Europe. In the beginning of twentieth century, artificial fibres made clothes cheaper still and easier to wash and maintain. Change in the weight and length of clothes. In the late 1870’s heavy, restrictive underclothes, were gradually discarded. Now clothes got lighter, shorter and simpler. Yet untill 1914, clothes were ankle length. By 1915, the length of the skirt was dramatically reduced to mid-calf.

Question 5.
What was the British’s reaction towards Indian turban and Indian’s reaction towards British hat and why?
Answer:
In different cultures, particular items of clothing most often convey contrary meanings. These contrary meanings often leads to misunderstanding and conflict.

Styles of clothing in British India changed through such conflicts. We can take example of the turban and the hat. When European traders starting coming to India, they were easily distinguished with their hat. On the other side Indians were known for their turban or headgear. They both were not only looked different, but they also signified different things. The turban in India was not just for protection from the heat but was a sign of respectability. On contrary to this, in the western, tradition, the hat had to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect. Their cultural difference creating misunderstanding. The British were often offended if Indians did not take off their turban when they met colonial officials.

Question 6.
Explain the famous case of the ‘Shoe Respect’ rule in 1862 A.D
Answer:
Indians were not allowed to wear the shoes while entering the court. In 1802, a famous case of the ‘Shoe Respect’ rule came forward is Surat Courtroom. Manockjee Cowasjee Entee, an assessor in the Surat Fouzdaree Adawlut, refused to take off his shoes in the court of the sessions judge. The judge insisted that he take off his shoes as that was the Indian way of showing respect to superiors. But Manockjee remained adamant. He was barred entry into the courtroom. He, then, sent a letter of protest to the governor of Bombay.

The British insisted that Indians took off their shoes when they entered a sacred place or home. That’s why they should do so when they enter the courtroom. Then, Indians argued that taking off shoes in sacred places and at home was linked to two different questions. One there was the problem of dirt and filth. Shoes collected dirt and filth. This dirt could not be allowed into clean spaces. Secondly leather shoes and the filth that stuck under it were seen as polluting. But public buildings like the courtroom were different from home. But there was no solution to the problem. However it took many years before shoes were permitted into the courtroom.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing

Question 7.
Write a note on Swadeshi movement initiated in India.
Answer:
Swadeshi movement was initiated in opposition to the partition of Bengal. Although the sense of nationalism was working behind this but the actual reason was the politics of clothing.

Initially people were appealed that they must boycot every foreign product and the start their own industries for the manufacture of goods such as matchboxes and cigrettes. People of the movement vowed to cleanse themselves of the colonial rule. The use of Khadi was made a patriotic duty. Women were urged to throw away their silk and glass bangles and wear simple shell bangles. Rough homespun was glorified in songs and poems to popularise it. The change of dress appealed largely to the upper castes as poor people could not afford the new products. After 15 years, many among the upper classes also returned to wearing European dress. Its major reason was that it was almost impossible for the Indian goods to compete with the cheap British goods.

Despite its limitations, the experiment with Swadeshi gave Mahatma Gandhi important ideas about using cloth as a symbolic weapon against the British rule.

Question 8.
Explain Mahatma Gandhi’s experiment with clothing.
Answer:
From time to time, Mahatma Gandhi changed his clothing. He was born in a Gujarati Bania family and he usually wore a shirt with dhoti or pyjama and sometimes a coat. In London, he adopted the western suit. On his return, he continued to wear western suits, topped with a turban.

Soon he decided that dressing unsuitably was a more powerful political statement. In Durban in 1913, Gandhiji shaved his head and appeared in a lungi kurta. He stood to protest against the shooting of Indian coal miners. On his return to India in 1915, he adopted a dress like a Kathiawadi peasant. In 1921, he adopted the short dhoti, the form of dress he wore until his death.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 Social History of Clothing 2
He did not want to adopt this clothing for the rest of his life. He wanted to experiment with a dress for a month or two. But soon he saw this as his duty to the poor and he never wore any other dress. He rejected the well-known clothes of the Indian ascetic and adopted the dress of the poorest Indian. Through this, he became a symbol of nationalism.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Marketing of Farm Produce Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1. Is the efficient marketing of produce start before or after harvesting of the crop?
Answer:
Before harvesting.

Question 2.
What is the major job of the Market Committee for the farmers?
Answer:
To protect the interests of the farmers.

Question 3.
If there is faulty weighment of produce to whom the farmers should complain?
Answer:
Higher officials of the Market Committee.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Question 4.
Before the farmers bring their produce in the market what are the two major issues to be taken care of?
Answer:

  • Moisture content should not be more than the prescribed limit.
  • Cleaning of produce.

Question 5.
Name the agency which has established bulk handling units at Mandi Gobindgarh, Moga, and Jagraon.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India (FCI).

Question 6.
Which form is to be procured by the farmers from the commission agents after the weighment of produce?
Answer:
J-Form.

Question 7.
What are different sources of market information about the prices of different kind of farm produce?
Answer:
TV, Radio and Newspaper etc.

Question 8.
What is basis on which the government procurement agencies quote the prices of agricultural produce in regulated market?
Answer:
On the basis of moisture content.

Question 9.
In the case of doubtful weighment of the produce what per cent of produce is rechecked for test weighment free of cost?
Answer:
10% of the produce free of cost.

Question 10.
Which Act, gives right to the farmers for test weighment of the produce?
Answer:
Under Market Act 1961.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What are different issues relating to the farming on which the expert needs to be consulted?
Answer:
For sowing, hoeing, irrigation, right combination of chemical fertilizers, use of weedicides and insecticides, harvesting and threshing etc. experts needs to be consulted.

Question 2.
What points are to be taken care of in choosing the crops for cultivation?
Answer:
Farmers should choose such crops which can produce more monetary benefits, they should sow best quality variety of the crop.

Question 3.
Before bringing produce to the market what major factors are to be examined?
Answer:

  • Moisture content should be according to the prescribed limits.
  • Bring the crop after grading.
  • Weigh the product before bringing it to the market.

Question 4.
What factors should be taken care of while disposal of farm produce in the market?
Answer:
Farmer should supervise his produce at the time of cleaning, weighing and at the time of auction. This is done to avoid any losses in the form of price. If farmer finds the offered price to be less than his expectations, he can refuse to sell his produce. In case of any problem in the disposal of his produce he can contact the higher officials of the Market Committee.

Question 5.
What are advantages of disposing of the produce at the bulk handling units/silos?
Answer:
Advantages of disposing of the produce at the bulk handling units/silos are

  • on-the-spot payment in cash.
  • time is saved and bag filling and weighment is done without paying i.e. no market charges.
  • produce is saved from losses occuring due to natural calamities like rain, storms, etc.

Question 6.
Why the supervision of the produce is important in the market?
Answer:
It is commonly seen that palledars mix produce of one farmer with the produce of other farmer and sometimes they mix- the produce with waste material. This causes losses to the farmers. Therefore, supervision of the produce is important in the market.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Question 7.
What are advantages of the knowledge of prices of produce in different markets?
Answer:
Depending on the produce volume arrivals in the market prices keep fluctuating. Farmers should remain informed about the prices in the nearby markets, so that they can sell their produce when rates are higher.

Question 8.
What are two major functions of the Market Committee?
Answer:

  • Main job of the Market Committee is to protect the interests of the farmers in the market.
  • Market Committee coordinates the auction process.
  • It also ensures the right weighment of the produce.

Question 9.
What is meant by Grading?
Answer:
Produce is categorised in different groups based on size, colour, little damaged, etc. one can earn higher profits by grading or categorizing the produce.

Question 10.
What are the advantages of taking J-Form?
Answer:
Farmers should get J-Form after the sale of the produce. This form contains all the details about the weight of the produce, price and total charges are mentioned, name of purchaser etc. This form also helps in getting bonus later on announced by Government and fudging of the market fees by the commission agents can be saved.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences :

Question 1.
Write Short note on Public intervention in marketing.
Answer:
In olden times farmers were totally dependent on the lenders or businessmen. They usually paid less amount to the farmers for their produce. Now government has set certain laws which help the farmers against such loot. Government has established Market Committees and Cooperative societies. Farmers are getting right price for their produce because government announces MSP for wheat and rice etc. In case of any doubt farmer can get weighed his produce again free of cost. Government has established mechanical handling units. Farmer can get Form-J from the purchaser after selling his produce. This form helps the farmer to avail bonus announced by the government.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Question 2.
Give a brief account of Cooperative Marketing.
Answer:
Farmers can get right price for their produce by cooperative marketing. These societies usually act as commission agencies. These societies are formed by farmers themselves. These help the farmers to get good price of their produce. Through these societies farmers can get their payments from the purchaser easily and quickly. These societies help the farmers by providing other facilities; e.g. loans, fertilizers, insecticides are provided to the farmers at lower interest rate and subsidized rates.

Question 3.
What are advantages of grading of the produce ?
Answer:
Graded produce can be sold at higher price. Good part of the produce can be sold separately. The other part of the produce which may be little damaged or may not be looking good can be sold differently. If damaged produce is placed below the good crop and sold in this way. For few days we can sell such produce but later on it will badly affect our goodwill and purchaser will always have doubt on the quality of our produce. If we sell our produce honestly, purchaser will wait for us and we can survive in the market for longer time.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on mechanical handling units.
Answer:
The Punjab Mandi Board has established some mechanical handling units in some of the mandies. These help in the cleaning of produce, bag filling and weighment by mechanical methods within no time. If labourers are to_do this work, it takes hours to finish the work. Farmer has to spend very low time in such units. Payment is done on the spot. Food Corporation of India has set up bulk handling units for storage and handling of grains of wheat on large scale at Moga, Gobindgarh and JJagraon. Farmers can sell their produce directly here. Payment is done on the same day, there are no market charges, produce is also saved from natural calamities; like rain, storms etc.

Question 5.
What are advantages of efficient marketing of farm produce?
Answer:
Crop growing requires lot of time and hard work, farmers should get proper price for their produce. For this, marketing plays an important role. Farmers should take care of the marketing from the time they sow their crop. Farmers should cultivate such crops which can bring more monetary benefits. Best quality seed of improved variety of the crop which can bring more benefit, should be sown. Take care of the growing crop. Farmers should take expert opinion for sowing, hoeing, application of fertilizer, irrigation, harvesting etc. Bring the produce in the market after grading and weighing. Try to reach the market in time so that produce can be sold on the same day.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How can we get right price of our produce?
Answer:
By taking care of the marketing of the produce.

Question 2.
When does the right marketing start?
Answer:
From the time of sowing.

Question 3.
What should be moisture content in the produce?
Answer:
It should be according to the prescribed limits.

Question 4.
Where should the farmer be at the time of cleaning, weighment and auction?
Answer:
He should be near his produce.

Question 5.
What type of crops should be cultivated ? Which can bring more benefits?
Answer:
Cultivate those crops which are in demand and can be sold easily and at good price.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Question 6.
Should farmers collect information about nearby market before going to market for selling his produce?
Answer:
Yes, he should collect information about the market.

Question 7.
Is there any need to take care of for proper marketing or not?
Answer:
It is very important to take care of the marketing.

Question 8.
Why should farmer weigh his produce before going to sell it in the market?
Answer:
This helps the farmer to know how much money he may get in the market.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to get form-J ?
Answer:
Form-J contains the details of earning, expenditure etc. and farmer can get an idea of total.

Question 10.
If farmer is not getting right price for his produce, to whom he should complain?
Answer:
He should take the help of market inspector.

Question 11.
What is the benefit of grading of the produce?
Answer:
We can get higher price by grading our produce.

Question 12.
What should a farmer do to make his goodwill?
Answer:
Farmer should sell his produce with honesty to make his goodwill.

Question 13.
What is the meaning of the marketing of the produce?
Answer:
To get higher and proper price for the produce in the market.

Question 14.
What is the requirement to get best quality produce?
Answer:
Treated best quality improved seeds and good management.

Question 15.
How much extra a farmer can earn if produce is sold by grading?
Answer:
10 to 20%.

Question 16.
When should the produce be brought to the market?
Answer:
In the morning.

Question 17.
If we harvest before proper ripening of the erop, what happens?
Answer:
Grain shrinks and quality deteriorates.

Question 18.
What-happens if harvesting is done late i.e. delayed?
Answer:
Grain loss occurs and yield becomes less.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Question 19.
Where is the grading assistant posted?
Answer:
In the market.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by proper method to store the produce?
Answer:
Proper method 4;o store the crops means all the things involving hoeing, use of insecticides, pesticides, fertilizers, watering, harvesting and threshing etc. Expert opinion should be taken to do all these activities.

Question 2.
What should a farmer do to get more price for his produce?
Answer:

  • Farmer should bring his produce in the market after weighment.
  • He should grade his produce in different categories before bringing it to the market.
  • Moisture content in the grains or products should be according to the prescribed value.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What points should be kept in mind to sell the produce in the market?
Answer:

  • The farmer should supervise his produce at the time of cleaning, weighment and auction.
  • If farmer is facing some problem in the disposal of his produce or if he does not get proper price for his produce, he should contact the higher officials of the market.
  • At the time of weighment farmers should check the legal marks of approval by the government on the balance and on the weights.
  • Farmer should get receipt after selling his produce.

Question 2.
What points should be kept in mind by farmers to earn more profit?
Answer:

  • Cultivate those crops which are in demand and can be sold easily and at higher price.
  • Sow after knowing the best quality improved varieties.
  • Protect the crop and preserve the produce properly.
  • Take expert opinion for various activities, like hoeing, use of insecticides, pesticides, fertilizers, irrigation, harvesting, and threshing, etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Marketing of Farm Produce Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Produce should he brought to the market :
(a) at night
(b) in the morning
(c) in the evening
(d) while it is raining.
Answer:
(b) in the morning

2. Effect of late harvesting is :
(a) Grain loss occur
(b) Nothing happen
(c) We get more profit
(d) All wrong
Answer:
(a) Grain loss occur

3. Correct statement is :
(a) Produce should be brought to market after grading.
(b) Market act 1961 gives right to the farmers for test weighment of the produce.
(c) Farmers should get form J
(d) All correct
Answer:
(d) All correct

4. Farmers can earn extra if produce is sold by grading :
(a) 10-20%
(b) 50%
(c) 1%
(d) 40%.
Answer:
(a) 10-20%

True/False:

1. If marketing is done in a proper way one can earn more income.
Answer:
True

2. Sowing, hoeing, irrigation, use of weedicides and insecticides etc. should be done with the expert opinions.
Answer:
True

3. For good marketing, one should take care of the crop from the time of sowing.
Answer
True

4. Get form and receipt from the purchaser so that farmer could know their gains and investment.
Answer:
True

5. Farmers should not keep and get the information and knowledge of the markets near them.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 4 Marketing of Farm Produce

Fill in the Blanks:

1. After threshing, ……………… the produce.
Answer:
weigh

2. Produce should be marketed through ……………… societies.
Answer:
cooperative

3. Punjab Mandi Board has set up ……………… units in Punjab in some of the man dies.
Answer:
mechanical handling

4. Bulk handling units have been established by ……………… at Mandi Gobindgarh, Moga, and Jagraon for storage and handling of wheat on large scale.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India

5. ………………. can be known from Radio, T.V., and Newspapers, etc.
Answer:
Rates

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Food Security in India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
To make available food at affordable prices to the poorer section, the government has started __________ system.
Answer:
Public Distribution

Question 2.
A big famine occurred in 1943 in __________ State of India.
Answer:
West Bengal

Question 3.
The malnutrition prevails more among __________ and __________
Answer:
Women, Children

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
__________ card is issued to the very poor people.
Answer:
Rations

Question 5.
__________ is the price announed by the government for agricultural products.
Answer:
Minimum Support Price.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which card is issued to the people living below poverty line?
(a) Antyodoya Card
(b) BPL Card
(c) APL Card
(d) CPL Card.
Answer:
(b) BPL Card.

Question 2.
__________ is an indicator of food security.
(a) Milk
(b) Water
(c) Hunger
(d) Air.
Answer:
(c) Hunger.

Question 3.
What is the price announced by the government for agricultural products known as?
(a) Minimum Support Price
(b) Issue Price
(c) Minimum Price
(d) Fair Price.
Answer:
(a) Minimum Support Price

Question 4.
Besides Bengal Famine in which other state did famine occur?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Punjab
(c) Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(c) Odisha.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 5.
Which Cooperative provides milk and milk products in Gujarat?
(a) Amul
(b) Verka
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) Sudha.
Answer:
(a) Amul.

III. True/False :

Question 1.
Availability of food means there is no food production within the country.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Hunger is an indicator of food security.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Ration shops are also known as Fair Price shops.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
Milk-fed, Punjab is India’s largest marketing cooperative.
Answer:
False.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
What do you mean by food security?
Answer:
Food security means that food is available to every individual. All people should have access to basic food and they can afford to buy the food.

Question 2.
Explain the need for food security.
Answer:
The need for food security is due to continuous and rapid growth in population.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Famine?
Answer:
Famine means extreme scarcity of food.

Question 4.
Give two examples of epidemics.
Answer:

  1. Smallpox epidemic in India in 1974.
  2. Plague in India in 1994.

Question 5.
In which year Famine of Bengal occurred?
Answer:
In 1948.

Question 6.
How many people were killed during the Famine of Bengal?
Answer:
The famine killed thirty lakh people in the Famine of Bengal.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 7.
Who were the main sufferers during famine?
Answer:
Women and children were the main sufferers during famine.

Question 8.
Who gave the term ‘entitlement’?
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen.

Question 9.
Who are food insecure people?
Answer:
Landless people, traditional artisians, petty self-employed workers.

Question 10.
Name the states where food insecure people exist in large number.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand, Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh etc.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Green Revolution?
Answer:
The green revolution refers to a set of research and the development of technology transfer initiatives occurring between the 1930s and the late 1960s, that increased agricultural production worldwide, particularly in the developing world, beginning most markedly in the late 1960s. The initiatives resulted in the adoption of new technologies.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through FCI. It is created in order to distribute foodgrains, in deficit areas and among weaker sections of society at an affordable price. In other words, a buffer stock is a system that buys and stores stocks at times of good harvests to prevent prices falling below a target range and release stocks during bad harvests .to prevent prices rising above a target range.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 3.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Public distribution system means the regulated and controlled distribution of essential goods among people. Under this system, essential consumer goods are provided to people at fair prices through government agencies. PDS ensures supply of essential commodities through a network of fair price shops. At present, there are about 4.50 lakh fair price shops in India, out of which about 3.60 lakh shops are operating in rural areas and 0.90 lakh shops are operating in urban areas.

Question 4.
What is Minimum Support Price?
Answer:
Minimum support price is the price at which government purchases crops from the farmers and not at the market price. The MSP helps to support the farmers and thus ensures that they produce the required foodgrains in the country.

Question 5.
What do you mean by seasonal hunger and chronic hunger?
Answer:
Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food production. This happens in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labourers, who get less work during rainy season. On the other hand chronic hunger is a consequence of having persistently inadequate diet in terms of quantity and quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of very low income, and in turn, inability to buy food even for survival.

Question 6.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stocks are created by the government to distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer sections of society at a price lower than the market price. This also helps in solving the problem of shortage of food during bad harvest season or during period of calamity.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Issue price?
Answer:
The price at which the procured and buffer stock foodgrains are sold through the PDS is called as issue price. The issue price is higher than MSP but lower than the market price of the grains.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 8.
Explain the role of cooperatives in providing food.
Answer:
The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. Mother Dairy is providing milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate while Amul is another cooperative in milk and milk products. Academy of Development Science has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grains banks in different regions.

VI. Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India 1
What do you observe in picture?
Bengal Famine
Answer:
People are poor, unhealthy, and undernourished, without shelter and facing natural calamities like drought and famine.

Question 2.
Can you say that the family shown in the picture is a poor family? If yes then why?
Answer:
Yes, the family shown in the picture is a poor family because they have nothing to eat. They are facing acute hunger and ill health.

Question 3.
Discuss with your teacher about the source of livelihood of the people.
Answer:
In this situation only some government help or outside help can provide relief to these people for the livelihood.

Question 4.
What type of help can be given to victims of calamity at relief camps?
Answer:
Victims of calamity at relief camps can be given food, water, clothes, medicines and shelter first of all. After that rehabilitation programmes can be started.

Question 5.
Graph Production of foodgrains in India (Million Ton)
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India 2
Source: Economic Survey 2011-12, 2013-14 and Agriculture Estimates, a look 2004.

Study the graph and answer the following questions :

In which year did India achieve the target of producing nearly 200 million tonnes of foodgrains?
Answer:
In the year 2000-01, India achieved the target of producing nearly 200 million tonnes of foodgrains.

Question 6.
In which year did India have the highest production of foodgrains?
Answer:
India had the highest production of foodgrains in the year 2016-17.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 3.
Has the production of foodgrains continuously increased during 2000-01 to 2016-17?
Answer:
No, the production of foodgrains has not continuously increased during 2000-01 to 2016-17.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Food Security in India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the dimension of food security?
(a) Accessibility
(b) Availability
(c) Affordability
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Who are prone to food insecurity?
(a) SCs
(b) ST
(c) OBCs
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
When was RPDS launched?
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1999.
Answer:
(b) 1992.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
When was a famine of Bengal occur?
(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1951
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 1948.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ means accessibility, availability and affordability of food to all people at all times.
Answer:
Food Security

Question 2.
__________ has made India self-sufficient in wheat and rice.
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 3.
__________ is the price announced by the government before the sowing season.
Answer:
MSP

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
__________ hunger is related to cycles of food production.
Answer:
Seasonal

Question 5.
__________ emphasised the term ‘Entitlement’.
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen.

True/False:

Question 1.
Accessibility means food within the reach of every person.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Right to Food Act, 2013 provides food security.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
National food for work programme was started in 2009.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 4.
MSP is the price announced by the government.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is hunger?
Answer:
Hunger is another aspect of food insecurity. It is not just an expression of poverty. It brings about poverty.

Question 2.
On what factors does food security depend?
Answer:
Food security depends on the PDS.

Question 3.
When was Rationing System introduced in India?
Answer:
The rationing system was introduced in India in 1940s, after the disastrous Bengal famine occurred.

Question 4.
What is ‘Entitlement’?
Answer:
Entitlement would give a certain right to the citizens and place the state under obligation to meet the food needs of the hungry masses.

Question 5.
What is ADS?
Answer:
ADS means Academy of Development Science.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 6.
What are the dimensions of ‘food security’?
Answer:

  1. Availability of food,
  2. Accessibility of food,
  3. Affordability of food.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on :
(i) Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS).
Answer:
Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS). It was launched in 1992 in 1700 blocks in the country to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas.

(ii) Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
Answer:
Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). It was launched in June, 1997 to adopt the principle of targeting the poor in all areas. It was for the first time that a differential price policy was adopted for poor and non-poor.

Question 2.
Explain, what do you mean by :
(i) A Famine
Answer:
A Famine. A Famine is characterised by widespread deaths due to starvation and epidemics caused by forced use of contaminated water or decaying food and loss of body resistance due to weakening from starvation.

(ii) Buffer Stock?
Answer:
Stock. Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. The minimum support price is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives, to the farmers for raising the production of their crops.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 3.
How is food security affected during a natural calamity?
Answer:
Due to a natural calamity, total production of foodgrains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas. As a result, the prices go up and some people cannot afford to buy food. If such calamity happens in a very widespread area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation. A massive starvation might make a turn of famine.

Question 4.
Who are food-insecure?
Answer:
A large section of people suffer from food and nutrition insecurity in India. The worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill paid occupations and casual labour market.

Question 5.
What is minimum support price? What is the impact of procurement of food at enhanced minimum support price?
Answer:
The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre announced price for their crops. This price is called minimum support price.

The increased foodgrains procurement at enhanced minimum support price is the result of the pressure exerted by leading foodgrain “producing states. Increase in MSP has induced farmers, particularly in surplus states to divert land from production of coarse grains, which is the staple food of the poor.

Question 6.
In which ways is ‘buffer stock’ used to ensure food security?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India. It ensures food security by following ways :

  1. It distributes foodgrains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price.
  2. It also helps resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during periods of calamity.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 7.
Explain the different categories of people in India who suffer from food and nutrition insecurity.
Answer:
A large section of people suffer from food and nutrition insecurity in India. The worst affected categories of the people include landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill paid occupations and casual labour market.

Question 8.
What is the function of Co-operative Society? Give example of two Co-operative Societies and their contribution in ensuring food security.
Answer:
The Co-operative Societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. Mother Dairy and Amul Milk Products are examples of Co-operative societies. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate decided by Government of Delhi. In Gujarat, Amul Milk Products has brought about the white revolution in the country.

Question 9.
What is Buffer Stock? Why is the buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI).

  • To distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas.
  • To sell among the poorer strata of society at a lower price.
  • To resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.
  • To maintain food security.

Question 10.
Why was the rationing system revived?
Answer:
The introduction of rationing in India dates back to the 1940s against the backdrop of the Bengal famine. The rationing system was revived in the wake of an acute food shortage during 1960’s prior to the Green Revolution. In the wake of the high incidence of poverty levels, as reported by the NSSO in the Mid-1970’s, three food intervention programmes were introduced :

  1. PDS (Public Distribution System)
  2. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services)
  3. FFW (Food-for-Work).

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 11.
Describe how the Public Distribution System in India has become more targeted over the years?
Answer:
The Public Distribution System in India has become more targeted over the years because it has failed to achieve its goals. Instances of hunger are prevalent despite overflowing granaries. FCI godons are overflowing with grains, with some rotting away and some being eaten by rats. PDS dealers are sometimes found resorting to malpractices like diverting the grains to open market to get better margin, selling poor quality grains at ration shops, etc.

Question 12.
Why self-sufficiency in foodgrains is necessary for every country?
Answer:
Self-sufficiency in foodgrains is necessary for every country due to the following reasons :

  1. In self-sufficient country, food security is not affected even during natural calamities.
  2. It will reduce the depending on foreign countries for the imports of food- grains.
  3. It will maintain price stability in the country and control black marketing.

Question 13.
What is subsidy? Should subsidies be continued in the country?
Answer:
Subsidy is an economic advantage to the people. Under subsidy, government provide goods and services below the market price. For the development of the country these subsidies must be curtailed as these are imposing very heavy burden on the government exchequer. These subsidies are misused in the country and deserving people are not getting it. Basically they are making great hindrances in the path of development So they must be stopped as soon as possible in the country.

Question 14.
State the role of cooperatives in food security.
Answer:
The cooperatives are playing an important role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low-priced goods to poor people. For example, out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94% are being run by cooperatives. In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at affordable rate decided by the Government of Delhi. These are a few examples of many more cooperatives running in different parts of the country ensuring food security to different sections of the society.

Question 15.
What is meant by the ‘National Food-for-Work’ programme?
Answer:
Food-for-Work was launched on 14 Nov. 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country with the objective of providing guaranteed wage employment to every household whose adult volunteers do unskilled manual work for minimum 100 days in a year. It is implemented as a 100 percent centrally sponsored scheme and the foodgrains are provided to the states free of cost. For the implementation of this program, the Parliament has passed a new bill known as ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Bill 2005’ in August 2005.

The collector is the nodal officer at the district level and has the overall responsibility of planning. For 2004-05,₹ 2,020 crore had been allocated for the programme in addition to 20 lakh tonnes of foodgrains.

Question 16.
Differentiate between the two dimensions of hunger. Where is each type of hunger more prevalent?
Answer:
The two main dimensions of hunger are chronic and seasonal dimensions. Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income and in turn inability to buy food even for survival.

Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labour. Each type of hunger is prevalent in rural areas.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 17.
Explain briefly the measures adopted by India after Independence to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
Answer:
After independence, Indian policymakers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in the ‘Green Revolution’ especially in the production of wheat and rice. The increase in foodgrains was, however, disproportionate. The highest rate of growth was achieved in Punjab and Haryana, where foodgrain production jumped from 7.23 million tonnes in 1964-65 to reach an all time high of 30.33 million tonnes in 1995-96. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, on the other hand, recorded significant increases in rice yield.

Question 18.
How has the Public Distribution System (PDS) proved to be most effective in furthering food security in India?
Answer:
Public Distribution System is the most important step taken by the Government of India towards ensuring food security. In the beginning the coverage of PDS was universal with no discrimination between the poor and non-poor. Over the years, the policy related to PDS has been revised to make it more efficient and targeted. In 1992, Revamped Public Distribution System was introduced in 1,700 blocks in the country. The target was to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas.

Question 19.
Explain the dimensions of food security.
Or
Describe the dimension of food security.
Answer:
Food security, has the following dimensions :

  1. Availability of Food,
  2. Accessibility of Food
  3. Affordability of Food.

1. Availability of Food. It means food production within the country, food imports and the previous years’ stock stored in government granaries.

2. Accessibility of Food. It means food is within reach of every person.

3. Affordability of Food. It implies that an individual has enough money to buy sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet one’s dietary needs.

Question 20.
What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Answer:

  • During the disaster or calamity food supply is adversely affected.
  • During disaster or natural calamity like earthquake, drought, flood, etc., there is widespread failure of crops.
  • During calamity/disaster the price goes up.
  • Black-marketing and hoarding is also one of major factors responsible for high price rise during calamity.
  • During calamity or disaster situation of starvation may appear.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 21.
What will happen if there is no food security?
Answer:
If there is absence of food security, following problems will arise :

  • Due to natural calamity there will be shortage of food and prices go up. At high prices, some people cannot afford to buy food. It may cause a situation of starvation.
  • It will increase black marketing and people will be exploited to a large extent.
  • The poorest section of the society might be food insecure most of times,
  • A massive starvation might take a turn of famine.

Question 22.
Why is food security essential? How is food security affected during disaster?
Answer:
The poorest section of the society might be food insecure most of the times while persons above the poverty line might also be food insecure when country faces a disaster like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, etc.

During the time of natural calamity, total production of foodgrains decreases, which creates shortage of food in the affected areas. Due to shortage of food, the prices go up. At a high price, some people cannot afford to buy food. If such disaster happens in a very wide area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the issue of Food Security in India.
Answer:
“Food security implies access by all people at all times to sufficient quantities of food to lead an active and healthy life.”
“Hunger is intolerable in the modern world in a way could have been in the past, because it is so unnecessary and unwanted.”-Amartya Sen and John Dreaze.

Good security is basically understood in terms of food availability, stability and accessibility. Ensuring availability of food implies efficient domestic production and internal trade to make enough food available for the entire population. It calls for taking appropriate preemptive measures to ensure stability during harmful seasonal and inter-annual instability of food supplies. However, despite food being abundantly available, it may not be within easy access to certain sections of society.

Hence enhacing people’s purchasing power to buy food where it is not produced or’making it available at subsidised rate through the public distribution system and employment programs provides a safety net and ensures accessibility to adequate and safe food given the critical situation in India, food security needs to be understood also in terms of vulnerability of certain sections of the society who are physically and mentally pre-occupied with getting the next meal. It entails intervening sensitivity to make opportunities available to such section so that they can overcome exploration, injustice and discrimination.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 2.
Explain Public Distribution System.
Answer:
The network of Public Distribution System (PDS) was introduced to supply essential commodities at the subsidised price and it was considered as an essential element of Government’s safety net to the poor. After Bengal famine in 1943, the system of rationing for equitable distribution of foodgrain was introduced in India. After independence, the Government of India decided to extend the system was gradually designed to meet to basic food requirements of all consumers. In order to distribute essential food items fair price shops were opened in all states.

The Public Distribution System (PDS) evolved as a system of management of scarcity and food distribution of foodgrains at affordable Prices. Over the years, PDS has become an important part of Government’s policy for management of good economy in the country. PDS is supplemental in nature and is not intended to make available the entire requirement of any of the commodities distributed under it to a household or a section of the society.

PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and the State Governments. The central Government, through FCI, has assumed the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains to the State Governments. The operational responsibility including allocation within State, identification of families below the poverty fine, issue of Ration Cards and supervision of the functioning of FPS, rest with the State Governments. Under the PDS, presently the commodities namely wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene are being allocated to the States/UTs for distribution. Some State/UTs also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such as pulses, edible oils, iodized salt, spices, etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Flower Cultivation Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Which is the major cut flower crop?
Answer:
Gladiolus.

Question 2.
Which is the major loose flower crop?
Answer:
Marigold.

Question 3.
How much area is under flower crops in Punjab?
Answer:
The area under cultivation of flowers in Punjab is around 2160 hectares out of which 1300 hectares area is under fresh flowers.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 4.
What are different types of flowering crops being cultivated in Punjab?
Answer:
Divided into two categories :

  • Loose flowers
  • Cut flowers.

Question 5.
When Gladiolus corms are planted in the field?
Answer:
September to mid-November.

Question 6.
Which month is suitable for making Chrysanthemum cuttings?
Answer:
End June to mid-July.

Question 7.
How Gerbera is propagated?
Answer:
Through tissue culture.

Question 8.
Which color of the rose is widely grown for loose flower production?
Answer:
Red Rose.

Question 9.
Which flowers are used for the extraction of oil?
Answer:
Flowers of Tuberose, Motia (Jasmine).

Question 10.
Which flower is generally grown in protected conditions?
Answer:
Gerbera.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Define cut flowers and name the major cut flower crops under cultivation.
Answer:
These are flowers that are cut with long stems or branches. Some of the major cut flowers are Gladiolus, Gerbera, Chrysanthemum, Rose, and Lilium.

Question 2.
How Gladiolus spikes are harvested and stored?
Answer:
Gladiolus flower spikes are harvested when the basal floret is half or fully open. These cut spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in a cold store.

Question 3.
How the roses are propagated?
Answer:
Propagation of rose plants can be done

  • by T-budding for cut flower varieties
  • from stem cuttings for loose flowers.

Question 4.
Which months are suitable for raising the nursery of Marigold crop?
Answer:
For rainy season nursery is raised during last week of June to first week of July. For winter it is done in mid September and foT summer first week of January.

Question 5.
What is the planting time for winter season marigold?
Answer:
In winter season marigold is sown during the mid September.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 6.
Write harvesting stages of the following flowers :

  1. Gladiolus
  2. Rose as cut flower
  3. Motia.

Answer:

  1. Gladiolus. Harvesting is done when the basal floret is half or fully open.
  2. Rose as a cut flower. It is harvested at the tight bud (closed) stage.
  3. Motia. These are harvested at the unopened flower buds stage.

Question 7.
What is plant spacing in African and French marigolds?
Answer:
For African marigold spacing is 40 x 30 cm and for French marigold, spacing is 60 x 60 cm.

Question 8.
What is planting time of Gerbera ? For how many years Gerbera crop gives flowers?
Answer:
Planting time for Gerbera is September to October. This crop once planted can produce flowers for three years.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 6

Question 9.
Write names of loose flowers and write their uses.
Answer:
Loose flowers are Rose, Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These flowers are used for making garlands, used for worshipping God and for other decorative purposes.

Question 10.
Which is the appropriate soil for Jasmine production?
Answer:
Light to heavy soil with good drainage are appropriate soils for Jasmine.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
What is the importance of flowers in human life?
Answer:
Flowers are very important in human life. These make the world around us beautiful and colourful. Flowers play an important role in cultural and customary events. During marriage ceremonies, birthdays, flowers are used to complete some customs and are also used for decorative purposes. Devotees present flowers to their gods in the temples and other religious places to show their respect, faith and devotion. Chief guests are welcomed by presenting flowers to them in the form of bouquets or garlands. Women use flower as part of their make up. Flower cultivation has become economically beneficial for the farmers. Thus flowers play an important role in our life.

Question 2.
What is the difference between cut flowers and loose flowers? Give examples.
Answer:

  • Loose flowers: These flowers are harvested without stem. Examples of such flowers are Marigold, Motia, Chrysanthemum etc. These are used for making garlands, for worshipping gods and for other decorative purposes.
  • Cut flowers: These flowers are harvested with a long stem or branch attached with them. These are marketed as such with stem. These are usually used for making bouquets e.g.Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera, Rose, Lilium etc.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on importance and cultivation of motia.
Answer:
It is one of the main flower among fragrant flowers. These flowers are used to extract fragrant oil. These are also used for worshipping gods.
Climate. Summer season and dry climate is suitable for their growth.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 5

Soil. Light to heavy soils with good drainage are suitable. Appearance of flower. Flowers appear during the months of July—August.
Harvesting. Unopened flower buds are harvested for marketing.

Question 4.
Write a short note on transplanting, harvesting and yield of marigold.
Answer:
Marigold is one of the major loose flowers crop of our state. It is cultivated throughout the year. Soils of Punjab are found very appropriate for the cultivation of Marigold.
Sowing Nursery: For rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.
Varieties:L These are of two types—African and French.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 4

  • Spacing: For African variety spacing should be 40 x 30 cm and for French variety spacing should be 60 x 60 cm.
  • Flowering: Flowering starts after 50-60 days of transplanting.
  • Harvesting: Fully opened flowers are harvested.
  • Yield: Average yield in rainy season is 200 quintal per hectare and in winter it is 150 to 170 quintal per hectare.

Question 5.
How the following flowers are propagated?
1. Gladiolus
Answer:
Gladiolus. It is propagated by planting corms in the field.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

2. Tuberose
Answer:
Tuberose. These are propagated from underground bulbs.

3. Chrysanthemum
Answer:
Chrysanthemum. These are propagated by stem cuttings of plants. These are cut from old plants.

4. Gerbera.
Answer:
Gerbera. These plants are propagated through tissue culture.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How much area comes under fresh flower cultivation?
Answer:
1300 hectare.

Question 2.
What type of flowers are Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera?
Answer:
Cut flowers.

Question 3.
What type of flowers are Rose and Motia?
Answer:
Loose flower.

Question 4.
How Gladiolus plants are propagated?
Answer:
From corms.

Question 5.
What is the sowing time of corms of Gladiolus in the fields?
Answer:
From September to mid-November.

Question 6.
When can the cultivation of marigold be done?
Answer:
Throughout the year.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 7.
Which soil is good for the cultivation of Marigold?
Answer:
All soils of Punjab are suitable for the cultivation of Marigold.

Question 8.
Name the varieties of Marigold.
Answer:
African and French.

Question 9.
How much seed is required for raising seedlings for one acre?
Answer:
600 gram.

Question 10.
When is the nursery of Marigold sown for the rainy season?
Answer:
Last week of June to first week of July.

Question 11.
After how many days of transplanting Marigold the crop starts flowering?
Answer:
After 50-60 days.

Question 12.
What is the yield of Marigold in rainy season?
Answer:
Around 200 quintals per hectare.

Question 13.
What is the yield of Marigold in winter?
Answer:
150-170 quintal per hectare.

Question 14.
From which plants Chrysanthemum cutting are obtained?
Answer:
These are cut from old plants.

Question 15.
When the stem cuttings of Chrysanthemum are done?
Answer:
Last week of June to mid July.

Question 16.
When are stem cuttings of chrysanthemum planted in fields?
Answer:
Mid July to mid September.

Question 17.
Give plant spacing for Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
30 x 30 cm.

Question 18.
When does the flowers appear on the chrysanthemum?
Answer:
November-December.

Question 19.
At what height the cut stems are harvested above ground level?
Answer:
5 cm above the ground level.

Question 20.
When do we get rose flowers in Punjab?
Answer:
November to February-March.

Question 21.
What is the colour of Gerbera flowers?
Answer:
Red, orange, white, pink, yellow.

Question 22.
When are.Gerbera flowers planted?
Answer:
September to October.

Question 23.
How many types of Tuberose are there?
Answer:
Two types—single and double.

Question 24.
Which type of Tuberose is more fragrant?
Answer:
Single type.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 25.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 26.
When do the flowers of Tuberose appear?
Answer:
July-August.

Question 27.
Give yield of Tuberose.
Answer:
Cut flowers 80,000 or 2-2.5 tons of loose flowers per acre.

Question 28.
Name a fragrant giving flower.
Answer:
Motia.

Question 29.
What is the color of Motia flowers?
Answer:
White.

Question 30.
When do we get Motia flowers?
Answer:
April to July-August.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How to prepare bulbs of Gladiolus for planting in the next season?
Answer:
Corms are dug out from the soil after 6-8 weeks of harvesting the spikes. These corms are cleaned. These are dried in shade and are stored in a cold store for planting in the next season.

Question 2.
When is the nursery of marigold raised?
Answer:
Sowing Nursery. For the rainy season nursery is sown during last week of June to first week of July, for winter in mid September and for summer in first week of January. The seedlings are ready in a month of transplanting.

Question 3.
When are the cuttings for Chrysanthemum prepared?
Answer:
Stem cuttings are cut from the old plants which are known as mother stock from end June to mid July.

 

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 1

Question 4.
When do the flowers of Chrysanthemum appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Chrysanthemum flowers appear in November-December. For cut flower use, stems are harvested 5 cm above ground whereas for loose flowers fully opened flowers are harvested.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

Question 5.
When do the flowers of Rose appear and write about their harvesting?
Answer:
Rose flowers appear in November to February—March in Punjab. Cut flowers are harvested in tight bud stage and for loose flowers harvest in fully open stage.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 2

Question 6.
Write about types of Tuberose.
Answer:
Tuberose flowers are of two types—single and double. Single types are more fragrant and oil can be extracted from these flowers

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation Img 3

Question 7.
When are the bulbs of tuberose planted and when do the flowers appear?
Answer:
Bulbs are planted in February-March and flowers appear in July-August.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details of cultivation of Galdiolus.
Answer:

  • Gladiolus is main flower crop used as cut flower.
  • Seed: Gladiolus corms are used as seed.
  • Sowing time: September to mid-November.
  • Spacing: 30 x 20 cm
  • Harvesting: Spikes are harvested when basal floret is half or fully open.
  • Storing: Spikes can be stored by keeping them in water for nine days in cold store.
  • Next season seed: Dug out the corms from the soil from which flower spikes have been cut. Dug out these after 6-8 weeks after taking spikes. Clean and dry the corms in shade and store them in cold store of next season planting.

Question 2.
Write about cultivation of Chrysanthemum.
Answer:
Chrysanthemumilowers are used as cut flowers as well as loose flower. These can be planted is pots.

  • Preparing cuttings: Stem cuttings are prepared from old plants during last June to mid-July.
  • Sowing time: Cuttings are planted during mid-July to mid-September.
  • Plants spacing: 30 x 30 cm.
  • Appearance of flowers: November to December.
  • Harvesting: Cut flowers are harvested from 5 cm above the ground. But loose flowers are harvested when fully open.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Flower Cultivation Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. ……………….. is the main cut flower crop :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Gladiolus
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Gladiolus

2. Produce obtained for tuberose is ……………….. loose flowers per acre.
(a) 2-2.5 ton
(b) 5 ton
(c) 20 ton
(d) 1 ton.
Answer:
(a) 2-2.5 ton

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the ………………..
(a) Corms
(b) Grafting
(c) Leaves
(d) All
Answer:
(a) Corms

4. Loose flower is :
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Jasmine
(d) Gerbera
Answer:
(d) Gerbera

5. French flower is type of ………………..
(a) Marigold
(b) Rose
(c) Motia
(d) Gerbera.
Answer:
(a) Marigold

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 3 Flower Cultivation

True/False:

1. In Punjab, area under flower cultivation is 5000 hectares.
Answer:
False

2. In Punjab, area under fresh flower cultivation is 13000 hectares.
Answer:
False

3. Gladiolus is propagated from the corms.
Answer:
True

4. For raising nursery of one acre of marigold 600 gram seed is required.
Answer:
True

5. Tuberose flowers are used as loose and cut flowers for oil extraction.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. In Punjab, flower crops are mainly classified in ……………… categories, Loose flower, Cut flower.
Answer:
two

2. Cut flowers are harvested with their ………………
Answer:
long stems

3. Marigold is the main major ……………… crop of Punjab.
Answer:
loqse flower

4. Tuberose bulbs are planted during ………………
Answer:
February-March

5. Motia (Jasmine) flowers are of ……………… colored having good fragrance.
Answer:
white

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Poverty: Challenge Facing India Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
More than _________ of the world’s poor people live in India.
Answer:
one fifth

Question 2.
Poverty creates a feeling of _________ in the poor people.
Answer:
insecurity

Question 3.
_________ people require more calories than _________ people.
Answer:
Rural urban

Question 4.
Punjab state has succeeded in reducing poverty with the help of high _________ growth rates.
Answer:
Agricultural

Question 5.
_________ is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life.
Answer:
Poverty line

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 6.
_________ is a measurement of poverty.
Answer:
Relative poverty.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What is the number of people living in poverty in India?
(a) 20 crores
(b) 26 crores
(c) 25 crores
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 2.
Poverty ratio in _________ countries is less.
(а) Developed countries
(b) Developing countries
(c) Less developed countries
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(а) Developed countries

Question 3.
In India which state is the poorest state?
(a) Punjab
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(c) Odisha

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 4.
National income is the indicator of
(a) Poverty line
(b) Population
(c) Relative poverty
(d) Absolute poverty.
Answer:
(c) Relative poverty

III. True/False:

Question 1.
There is a rapid decrease in global poverty.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Disguised unemployment prevails in agriculture.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Educated unemployment prevails more in villages.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) estimates the increase in populations.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
Bihar and Odisha states are the most poor states.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
What is the meaning of relative poverty?
Answer:
Relative poverty refers to the distribution of national income across different individuals and households in the country.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of absolute poverty?
Answer:
Absolute poverty refers to the measure of poverty, keeping in view the per capita intake of calories and minimum level of consumption.

Question 3.
Name two indicators of relative poverty.
Answer:
Per capita income and national income are the two indicators of relative poverty.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line is the method to measure the minimum income required to satisfy the basic needs of life.

Question 5.
Name the criteria adopted by the Planning Commission of India to determine the poverty line.
Answer:
In India the Planning Commission of India determines the poverty line by his or her income or consumption level.

Question 6.
Name two indicators of poverty.
Answer:
Income and consumption are two indicators of poverty.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 7.
In poor families who suffers the most?
Answer:
In poor families childern suffer the most.

Question 8.
Name two poorest states of India.
Answer:
Odisha and Bihar are two poorest states of India.

Question 9.
How Kerala has reduced poverty in the state?
Answer:
Kerala has focused more on human resources development.

Question 10.
What has helped West Bengal in reducing poverty?
Answer:
Land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty in West Bengal.

Question 11.
Name two- states which reduced poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rates.
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana are the states which reduced poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rate.

Question 12.
How China and South-East-Asian countries are able to reduce poverty?
Answer:
In China and South-East-Asian countries poverty ratio declines as a result of rapid economic growth and investment in human resource development.

Question 13.
Give two causes of poverty.
Answer:

  1. Low economic growth.
  2. Heavy population pressure.

Question 14.
Name two poverty alleviation programmes.
Answer:

  1. Mahatama Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
  2. Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yozana (SGRY).

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 15.
Name the programme that provides free food to the Govt, school children.
Answer:
Minimum Needs Programme.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by poverty? Explain it.
Answer:
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get minimum basic necessities of life, like food, clothing, shelter, education and health facilities. Man struggles to fulfil these minimum basic needs. If the minimum basic needs are not fulfilled then there is less of health and efficiency among those living in poverty and the country. In other words, poverty is a state of being extremely poor.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Relative Poverty and Absolute Poverty.
Answer:
Relative poverty refers to the distribution of national income acr oss different individuals and households in the country. The economic conditions of different regions or countries is compared under relative poverty. On the other hand absolute poverty refers to the measure of poverty, keeping in view the per capita intake of calories and minimum level of consumption. It refers to income and consumption levels in a country.

Question 3.
What are the problems faced by the poor people?
Answer:
Some of the most important problems faced by the poor people are as follows :

  1. Social discrimination
  2. Housing
  3. Subculture of poverty.

After 67 years of planning India is still one of the poorest countries in the world. Some of the variables on which the poor differ for others are degree of participation in the labour force, kind of employment, characteristics of family, degree of knowledge of the larger society, awareness of political, social and economic rights.

Question 4.
Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India.
Answer:
The poverty line is estimated based on consumption levels in India. If a person has basic needs fulfilled which include minimum level of food, clothing, educational and medical needs, etc. These minimum consumptions are then calculated in rupees and total becomes the minimum income required to fulfil basic needs. A person is considered poor if his income level falls below the minimum level necessary to fulfil basic needs.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
Describe the major indicators of poverty.
Answer:
Keeping in view the different aspects of poverty, social scientists are trying to use a variety of indicators to measure poverty. Usually the indicator used to measure poverty are related to the level of income and consumption. But social scientists have also included social indicators like illiteracy level, malnutrition, lack of access to health care, lack of job opportunities and lack of safe drinking water. Social exclusion is another common indicator on which the analysis of poverty is based.

Question 6.
Describe the poverty trends in India since 1993-94.
Answer:
Percentage of people living below the poverty line has decreased in the last two decades. Though there is a decline in both rural and urban poverty but decline in rural poverty is less compared to decline in urban poverty.

In 1993-94, 403.7 million of people or 44.3% of population was living below the poverty line. The proportion of people below poverty line came down to 37.2% in 2004-05 and further to 21.7% in 2011-12.

Question 7.
Briefly describe the inter-state disparities in poverty in India.
Answer:
There is difference among the proportion of poor people in states. Estimates show that average Indian HCR was 21.7% in 2011-12 but states like Odisha and Bihar are the two poorest states with poverty ratio 32.6 and 33.7 respectively. In comparsion there has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana. These states have used agricultural growth and human capital growth to reduce poverty.

Question 8.
What are the three main causes of poverty in India?
Answer:
There are a number of causes for widespread poverty in India :
1. Low economic growth. India was under British rule for more than 100 years. British politics discouraged the traditional textile industries and small and cottage industries which were flourishing in India. This resulted in less job opportunities and low growth rate of incomes. Due to this overall poverty rate could not be reduced.

2. High Prices. Continuously rising prices have badly affected the poor. Rising prices take away a major portion of their income and thus make them more poor.

3. Low Productivity in Agriculture. Agricultural production is very low due to sub-divided and fragmented holdings, lack of capital, use of traditional methods of cultivation, illiteracy etc. It is the main cause of poverty in India.

Question 9.
Promotion of economic growth helps in reducing poverty. Explain.
Answer:
Stepping up the pace of growth is an ultimate solution to the problem of poverty in India. When the pace of growth increases, employment both in farms and industries increases. Greater employment lesser the poverty. Since the eighties India’s economic growth has been one of the fastest in the world. Economic growth provides opportunities and the resources needed to reduce poverty and help in economic development.

Question 10.
What are the main features of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005?
Answer:
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005 aims to provide 100 days of wage employment to every household. This ensures a regular, wage in rural areas and promotes sustainable development. l/3rd of proposed jobs have been reserved for women. The control of the state govt, will establish employment guarantee funds for the implementation of the scheme.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 11.
Explain any three poverty alleviation programmes undertaken by the Government of India.
Answer:

  1. Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY). It was launched with an objective to provide employment opportunity to the surplus workers and to develop regional, social and economic conditions.
  2. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY). It was started in 2000 aimed at improving the health, primary education, drinking water, housing and roads of the rural areas with additional central assistance.
  3. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). It was launched in the year 2000. Under this scheme poor families were identified and twenty five kilograms of foodgrains were made available to each family at a very subsidised rate of ₹ 2 per kg for wheat and ₹ 3 per kg for rice.

VI. Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss under what conditions the poor families of your village or city are living?
Answer:
In my village the poor families are living with irregular jobs, lack of good health, unhygienic living conditions and unable to send children to schools.

Question 2.
After reading the cases of rural and urban poverty, discuss the below-mentioned reasons of poverty and find out whether these are the reasons of poverty in both mentioned cases or not.
1. Landless family
Answer:
Landless family. In both the cases of rural and urban areas families have no land to cultivate.

2. Unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment. Unemployment forced them to do household chores at a very meagerable rates.

3. Big family
Answer:
Big family. Big size of the family is also the cause of poverty in both the cases.

4. Illiteracy.
Answer:
Illiteracy. Families are illiterate and even they are not sending their wards to school.

5. Poor health and undernourished
Answer:
Poor health and undernourished. They are sick people and cannot afford treatment. Their children are undernourished and items like shoes, soap and oil are luxury items for their families.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 3.
Graph Poverty ratio in selected states
im-1
(i) Looking at the graph name the five states with the highest percentage of poor people.
Answer:
Five states with the highest percentage of poor people are Bihar, Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

(ii) Name the states where estimates of poverty are less than 22% but more than 15%.
Answer:
They are West Bengal, Maharastra and Gujarat.

(iii) Name the states with the highest poverty percentage and with lowest poverty percentage.
Answer:
The state with the highest percentage of poverty is Bihar and with the lowest poverty percentage is Kerala.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Poverty: Challenge Facing India Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In 1993-94 the percentage of poor in India was :
(a) 44.3%
(b) 32%
(c) 19.3%
(d) 38.3%.
Answer:
(a) 44.3%.

Question 2.
Which is the poverty determination measure?
(a) Headcount ratio
(b) Sen’s Index
(c) Poverty Gap Index
(d) All of these.
Answer;
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Which country of the world has the highest per capita income in dollars term?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Switzerland
(c) Norway
(d) Japan.
Answer:
(c) Norway.

Question 4.
What type of poverty can make the comparison of two countries possible?
(a) Absolute Poverty
(b) Relative Poverty
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them.
Answer:
(b) Relative Poverty.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
In which State there is the highest poverty in India?
(a) Odisha
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) West Bengal.
Answer:
(a) Odisha.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_________ is the inability to get the minimum consumption requirements for life, health and efficiency.
Answer:
Poverty

Question 2.
_________ poverty is that poverty in which minimum physical quantities of national requirement are determined for a subsistence level.
Answer:
Absolute

Question 3.
In _________ poverty we compare the relative level of income of the population. It refers to poverty in relation to different classes, regions and other countries.
Answer:
Relative

Question 4.
There are _________ types of poverty.
Answer:
two

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 5.
_________ refers to that amount of purchasing power by which people can satisfy their minimum basic needs.
Answer:
Poverty.

True/False:

Question 1.
There are two types of poverty, absolute and relative poverty.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Poverty is the main problem of India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Head count ratio refers to the percentage of population below poverty line.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Rising population implies rising incidence of poverty in India.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Head count ratio and poverty incidence ratio are identical terms.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the proportion of world’s poor which live in India?
Answer:
One fifth of the world’s poor live in India.

Question 2.
How many children under the age of five die annually in India according to UNICEF?
Answer:
About 2.3 million children.

Question 3.
What was the percentage of population below poverty line in 2011-12 in India?
Answer:
21.7 per cent.s

Question 4.
Write the types of poverty.
Answer:
Types are:

  1. Absolute poverty
  2. Relative Poverty.

Question 5.
What is Calorie?
Answer:
Calorie is the energy given to a person by a full day’s food.

Question 6.
State the full form of NSSO.
Answer:
National Sample Survey Organisation.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do different countries use a different poverty line?
Answer:
Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level of development and its accepted minimum social norms. For example, a person not having a car in the United States may be considered poor. In India, owning of a car is still considered a luxury.

Question 2.
What is ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005’?
Answer:
The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts. Later, the scheme will be extended to 600 districts. Now this scheme is implemente. in all the districts of the country.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 3.
Give an account of Inter-state disparities of poverty in India.
Answer:
This proportion of poverty is not the same in every state. Although state level poverty has witnessed a secular decline from the level of early seventies, the success rate of reducing poverty varies from state to state.

In India, Odisha and Bihar continue to be the two poorest states with poverty ratios of 47% and 43% respectively, while poverty ratios of Jammu and Kashmir and Punjab is 3.5% and 6.2% respectively.

Question 4.
What is ‘National Food-for-Work Programme’ (NFWP)?
Answer:
National Food-for-Work Programme was launched in 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country. The programme is open to all rural poor who are in need of wage employment and desire to do manual unskilled work. It is implemented as a 100 per cent centrally sponsored scheme and foodgrains are provided free of cost to those districts.

Question 5.
What is ‘Rural Employment Generation Programme’?
Answer:
Rural Employment Generation Programme was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and in small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth Five Year Plan.

Question 6.
Write a short note on ‘Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana-(SGSY) and ‘Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY).
Answer:
1. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY). It was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy.

2. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY). It was implemented in 2000. Additional central assistance is given to states for basic service such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water and rural-electrification.

Question 7.
Write any two main features of the NREGA which help in alleviating poverty.
Answer:
Following are the main features of NREGA :

  1. This Act Provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in all districts. One third of the proposed jobs would be reserved for women.
  2. Under the programme, if an applicant is not provided employment within fifteen days he will be entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 8.
Name two social and two economic groups that are most vulnerable to poverty. When does the situation for such a group become more acute?
Answer:
Two social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty are Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe households. Similarly, among the economic groups, the most vulnerable groups are the rural agricultural labour households and the urban casual labour households.

The situation of such a group becomes more acute when women, elderly people and female infants are systematically denied equal access to resources available to the family.

Question 9.
Describe global poverty trends.
Answer:
The proportion of people in developing countries living in extreme economic poverty defined by the World Bank as living on less than $1 per day has fallen from 28 per cent in 1990 to 21 per cent in 2001. Although there has been a substantial reduction substantially in China and South-East Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and massive investments in human resources development.

Question 10.
What poverty really means to people?
Answer:
The official definition of poverty however captures only a limited part of what poverty really means to people. It is about a “minimum” subsistence level of living rather than a “reasonable” level of living. Many scholars advocate that we must broaden the concept into human poverty. Worldwide experience shows that with the increase in development, the definition of poverty also changes.

Question 11.
Explain any three features of Public Distribution System.
Answer:
Following are the features of PDS.

  1. It is used as an important activity of the state to ensure food security to the people, particularly the poor ones.
  2. The prices of the goods sold through PDS in fair prices shops will be less than that of the market price. The cost of this price difference will be borne by the government. This amount is known as subsidy.
  3. This system controls unscrupulous rise in prices for essential goods in the markets.

Question 12.
How is poverty line fixed in India?
Answer:
While fixing the poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, foot-wear, educational and medical requirements are determined for subsistence. These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in rupees. The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calories requirement. The calories vary depending on age, sex and the type of work that a person does. The accepted average calories requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas. On the basis of these calculations, for the year 2000, the poverty line for a person was fixed at ₹ 328 per month for the rural areas and ₹ 454 for the urban areas.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 13.
Explain the following issues on the basis of textbook :
(a) Landless
Answer:
Landless: Landless is that person who does not own any land. Lakha Singh is treated as landless.

(b) Unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment: Unemployment is a situation in which those people who are able and willing to work at existing wage rate cannot get work. Ram Saran and Lakha Singh’s families are unemployed or under-employed.

(c) Size of families
Answer:
Size of Families: By the size of families we mean the number of persons in a family. Generally the size of poor families like Ram Saran and Lakha Singh are very large.

(d) Illiteracy
Answer:
Illiteracy: Person who cannot read and write is treated as illiterate poor person.

(e) Poor health/Malnutrition.
Answer:
Poor health/Malnutrition: Poor health means who have no access to health care and remain ill. Malnutrition means undernourishment.

Question 14.
Examine the concept of social exclusion of poverty.
Answer:
According to this concept, poverty must be seen in terms of the poor having to live only in poor surroundings with other people, excluded from enjoying social equality of better-off people in better surroundings. Social exclusion can be both a cause as well as a consequence of poverty in the usual sense. Broadly, it is a process through which individuals or groups are excluded from facilities, benefits and opportunities that other (their ‘betters’) enjoy. A typical example is the working of the caste system in India in which people belonging to certain castes are excluded from equal opportunities. Social exclusion thus may lead to, but can cause more damage than, having a very low income.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 15.
Examine the ‘Vulnerability’ to poverty.
Answer:
Vulnerability to poverty is a measure, which describes the greater probability of certain communities (say, members of a backward caste) or individuals (such as a widow or a physically handicapped person) of becoming or remaining poor in the coming years. Vulnerability is determined by the option available to different communities for finding alternative living in terms of asset’s, education, health and job opportunities. Further, it is analysed on the basis of the greater risks these groups face at the time of natural disasters, terrorism, etc. Additional analysis is made of their social and economic ability to handle these risks. In fact, vulnerability describes the greater probability of being more adversely affected than other people when bad time comes for everybody, whether a flood or an earthquake or simply a fall in the availability of jobs.

Question 16.
What are the main causes of poverty in India?
Or
Explain any three causes for the widespread of poverty in India.
Answer:
The main causes of poverty in India are the following :

  1. Underdeveloped Nature of the Economy. India’a economy is an underdeveloped economy. Its per capita income is low. Thus, its underdeveloped nature is closely associated with poverty.
  2. Rapid Growth of Population. Rapid growth of population in overpopulated countries like India is the main cause of poverty. In these countries, the national income increases but the per capita income remains more or less the same due to the increase in population.
  3. Casual Nature of Employment. Most of the Indian population lives in rural area. The nature of employment in rural, as well as urban areas, is casual and intermittent which is closely related to poverty.
  4. Predominance of Agriculture. Agriculture is the principal means of livelihood. It is the primary asset to rural people. Productivity of land is an important determinant of material well being, but the productivity of land in India is very low. Thus, people remain struck in poverty.

Question 17.
Explain any five measures to reduce poverty in India.
Or
How poverty can be removed in India?
Answer:
Following are the measures by which poverty can be reduced in India :
1. Population Control. Growing population is a major cause of poverty in India. So, it ig necessary to control it. Family planning programme should be implemented effectively to control population explosion.

2. Creation of More Employment Opportunities. Though it has been stated in our constitution that the government would provide employment opportunities to all, but unemployment is still a big problem in India. It is also responsible for poverty. Hence, it is essential to promote employment through intensive development technology.

3. Check on Price Rise. Price rise is also, responsible for poverty in India. It decidedly goes against the interests of the poor. So, price rise must be checked through proper, fiscal and monetary policies and other measures.

4. More Emphasis on Small, Rural and Cottage Industries. Small scale and cottage industries have not developed fully in India, It is essential to develop such industries as their development will help the poor. So, government should adopt effective methods to expand small scale and cottage industries which will increase the self-employment opportunities.

5. Stepping up Capital Formation. Low rate of capital formation is a major hindrance in the way of fast economic development. The rate of capital formation, therefore, must be increased. As it basically depends on the saving rate, ever possible effort should be made to increase savings and their mobilisation.

Question 18.
Explain five important anti-poverty measures undertaken by the Government of India.
Answer:

  1. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005. The act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts.
  2. National Food for Work Programme (NFWP) 2004. It was launched in 150 most backward districts of the country. It was open to all rural poor who were in need of wage employment.
  3. Prime Minister Rozgar Yogana (PMRY) 1993. The aim is to create self-employment opportunities for educated youth in rural areas and small towns.
  4. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) 1995. The aim is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
  5. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) 1999. It aims at bringing assisted poor families above the poverty line, by organising them into self-help groups through bank credit and government subsidy.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is poverty line Fixed in India?
Answer:
Following are the important method to fix the poverty line in India :

  1. In order to estimate the consumption cut-off, the private consumption expenditure is taken into consideration.
  2. In case of private consumption expenditure, both food and non-food items of rural and urban areas are taken into consideration.
  3. The per capita consumption of calories is considered for the food items. In case of non-food items, only socio-economic factors such as literacy level health, life expectancy, birth rate, death rate, etc., are shown. For this purpose, a Frequency distribution is constructed and class interval range denotes the level of calorie consumption. The lower class indicates lower level of calorie consumption whereas the higher class show higher range of calorie consumption.
  4. Every frequency counts the number of calories belonging to the respective consumption class.
  5. The Head Count Ratio is calculated to find out the percentage of poor and non-poor population for the rural and urban areas, particularly the Below Poverty Line population.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Economics Chapter 3 Poverty: Challenge Facing India

Question 2.
Suggest measures to remove poverty in India.
Answer:
Measures to Remove Poverty. Removal of poverty is a big problem before India. This problem should be solved as soon as possible. Unless we are able to provide the public all the necessities of life, our political freedom is useless and any development is also meaningless. The problem of poverty is a big danger to the unity of India. As we have seen, not only one reason but many like economic, social, and political reasons are responsible for it. So, we have to adopt many programmes, covering different aspects together, in order to remove poverty.

The following suggestions can be made to remove poverty :
1. Population Control. A growing population is a major cause of poverty in India. So, it is necessary to control it. A family planning programme should be implemented effectively.

2. Creation of More Employment Opportunities. Though it has been stated in our Constitution that, the government would provide employment opportunities to all, but unemployment is still a big problem in India. It is also responsible for poverty. Hence, it is essential to promote employment through intensive development technology.

3. Increase in Production. Industrial and agricultural production should be increased to remove poverty. Present capacity should be utilized fully and new techniques should be adopted. Proper coordination should be there between large-scale and small-scale industries. Superior seeds, manures, fertilizers, and modern methods of production should be adopted for agricultural development. Necessary irrigation facilities should be made available and social structures in rural areas should also be modified. Land reforms should be implemented sincerely. All these suggestions can be helpful in increasing agricultural and industrial production.

4. Check on Price Rise. Price rise is also responsible for poverty in India. It decidedly goes against the interests of the poor. So, price rises must be checked through proper fiscal and monetary policies and other measures.

5. More Emphasis on Small, Rural, and Cottage Industries. Small scale and cottage industries have not developed fully in India. It is essential to develop such industries as their development will help the poor. So, Govt. should adopt effective methods to expand small and cottage industries which will increase the self-employment opportunities for the poor.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Summer Vegetables Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Write the name of two varieties of chili.
Answer:
Punjab Surkh, CH-1.

Question 2.
How much is a requirement of vegetables per person per day for maintenance of good health?
Answer:
284 gm.

Question 3.
Write the name of two improved varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 4.
How much seed per acre of okra is required for sowing in February?
Answer:
15 kg per acre.

Question 5.
How much spacing is required between rows in the brinjal crop?
Answer:
60 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 6.
Write the name of two varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 7.
When sowing of bottle gourd should be done?
Answer:
Feb-March, June-July, and November-December.

Question 8.
How much seed of cucumber is required per acre?
Answer:
1 kg per acre.

Question 9.
How much seed of muskmelon is required per acre?
Answer:
400 gram.

Question 10.
What is the sowing time of the sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid May to July.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What do you mean by vegetable?
Answer:
Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as salad or after cooking is called vegetable.

Question 2.
How much seed and area is required for raising nursery for transplanting one acre tomato ?
Answer:
100 gram seed is required for nursery raising in 2 maria area for transplanting in one acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 3.
How much fertilizers are used per acre for chilli crop ?
Answer:
10-15 ton well rotten farm yard manure, 25 kg. nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus and 12 kg potash can be used. This dose is for one acre.

Question 4.
How four crops of brinjal are raised in a year?
Answer:
Four crops of brinjal are raised in a year by sowing in October, November, February-March and July.

Question 5.
What are the sowing time and seed rate of okrg?
Answer:
Spring season crop is sown in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July. Seed rate is 15 kg (February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).

Question 6.
Give the reasons for the low availability of per capita’ per day vegetables in our country.
Answer:
The low availability of per capita per day vegetables in our country is due to

  • population explosion and
  • due to post-harvest losses which are nearly one-third of the total production of vegetables.

Question 7.
What is the ideal time for sowing and transplanting of the nursery of tomato?
Answer:
The ideal time for sowing the nursery of tomatoes is the second fortnight of July. Transplanting of seedlings is done in second fortnight of August.

Question 8.
How many days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd ?
Answer:
55-60 days are required from sowing to harvesting in bitter gourd.

Question 9.
Write two improved varieties and sowing time of muskmelon.
Answer:
Improved varieties of muskmelon are Punjab hybrid, Hara madhu and sowing time is February-March.

Question 10.
How can we get early and higher yield in cucumber ?
Answer:
We get early and higher yield in cucumber by growing under low tunnel polythene sheets.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
Write name of summer vegetables and describe any one of them.
Answer:
Summer vegetables are – tomato, brinjal, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, bitter gourd, chilli, okra, summer squash, cucumber, long melon, squash melon etc.

Tomato

Improved varieties—Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.
Seed rate—100 gram seed is required for sowing nursery in 2 maria for transplanting in one acre.
Time of sowing—Sow nursery in the second fortnight of July.
Transplanting—Second fortnight of August.
Row spacing—120-150 cm.
Weed control—Spray stomp or sencor.
Plant spacing—30 cm.
Irrigation—First irrigation should be done immediately after transplanting and later irrigations should be done after 6-7 dhys interval.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 2.
Write a short note on improved varieties, sowing time, seed rate, and control of weeds in okra.
Answer:
Improved varieties. Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.
Sowing time. Spring season sowing is done in February-March and rainy season crop is sown in June-July.
Seed rate. Seed rate per acre is 15 kg (for February), 8-10 kg (March), 5-6 kg (June-July).
Weed control. 3-4 hoeings are needed or spray stomp.

Question 3.
What is the importance of vegetables in human diet?
Answer:
Vegetables have a very important role in the human diet. Vegetables contain a sufficient amount of nutrients like carbohydrates, minerals, proteins, vitamins etc. These nutrients are essential for the maintenance of good health. A large population of our country is vegetarian, therefore, importance of vegetables becomes more in our country. According to scientific research, a person should consume 284 gram of vegetable in a day. Vegetables include leafy vegetables (spinach, fenugreek, lettuce, saag etc.), root vegetables (carrot, radish, turnip), flower buds (cauliflower), fruit (tomato, brinjal) etc.

Question 4.
Describe cultivation of Bottlegourd.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties. Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.
  • Sowing time. February-March, June-July, November- December.
  • Harvesting. After 60-70 days of sowing, the crop is ready for harvesting.

Question 5.
How to raise a successful crop of ashgourd?
Answer:
Ash gourd belongs to
Improved Varieties—PAG-3
Sowing time—Feb-March and June-July.
Seed rate—2kg seed/acre
Method of sowing–Sow at least two seeds per hill on one side.
Spacing—Beds should be 3m wide and spacing should be 75-90 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the seed rate for chilli?
Answer:
200 grams per acre.

Question 2.
What is the time of sowing of Nursery for chilli?
Answer:
End October to mid-November.

Question 3.
What is the time of transplanting the seedlings of chilli?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 4.
What is row spacing for chilli?
Answer:
75 cm.

Question 5.
What is plant spacing for chilli?
Answer:
45 cm.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 6.
Write names of varieties of tomato.
Answer:
Punjab Varkha Bahar-1, Punjab Varkha Bahar-2.

Question 7.
Write seed rate for tomato.
Answer:
100 gram per acre.

Question 8.
What is a time of sowing of the nursery for tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of July.

Question 9.
What is time of transplanting seedlings of tomato?
Answer:
Second fortnight of August.

Question 10.
What is row spacing for tomato?
Answer:
120-150 cm.

Question 11.
What is plant spacing for tomato?
Answer:
30 cm.

Question 12.
Weed control is done in tomatoes by using
Answer:
Stomp, Sencore.

Question 13.
Write varieties of Brinjal.
Answer:
Punjab Neelam (round), B.H.-2 (Oblong), PBH-3 (small).

Question 14.
Write seed rate for brinjal.
Answer:
300-400 grams per acre.

Question 15.
Write row spacing for brinjal.
Answer:
60 cm.

Question 16.
What is plant spacing for brinjal?
Answer:
30-40 cm.

Question 17.
How is Okra sown?
Answer:
Sowing is done on ridges.

Question 18.
Write varieties of Okra.
Answer:
Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmani.

Question 19.
How is the Okra crop sown in February-March?
Answer:
On ridges.

Question 20.
How is the okra crop sown in June-July?
Answer:
On planes.

Question 21.
What is row spacing for okra?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 22.
What is plant spacing for okra?
Answer:
15 cm.

Question 23.
When is okra harvested?
Answer:
45-50 days after sowing.

Question 24.
Write improved varieties of summer squash.
Answer:
Punjab Chappan Kadoo.

Question 25.
Write time of sowing for summer squash.
Answer:
Mid-January to March and October-November.

Question 26.
What is the seed rate for summer squash?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 27.
How many seeds are sown at a place for summer squash?
Answer:
Two seeds at a place.

Question 28.
When is summer squash ready for harvesting?
Answer:
In 60 days.

Question 29.
Write varieties of Bottle gourd.
Answer:
Punjab Berkat, Punjab Komal.

Question 30.
Write time of sowing for bottle gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July, November-December.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 31.
When is the bottle gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
60-70 days after sowing.

Question 32.
Write varieties of bitter gourd.
Answer:
Punjab-14, Punjab Kareli-1.

Question 33.
Write time of sowing for bitter gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 34.
Write seed rate for bitter gourd.
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 35.
What is plant spacing for the bitter gourd?
Answer:
45 cm.

Question 36.
How is bitter gourd sown in Kyaris (beds)?
Answer:
On both sides.

Question 37.
Write varieties of sponge gourd.
Answer:
Pusa chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.

Question 38.
What is a time of sowing for sponge gourd?
Answer:
Mid-February to March.

Question 39.
What is seed rate for sponge gourd?
Answer:
2 kg seed per acre.

Question 40.
When is sponge gourd ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 70-80 days of sowing.

Question 41.
Write varieties of ash gourd.
Answer:
PAG—3.

Question 42.
Write time of sowing for ash gourd.
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 43.
What is seed rate for ash gourd?
Answer:
2 kg per acre.

Question 44.
Write varieties of cucumber.
Answer:
Punjab Naveen.

Question 45.
What is seed rate for cucumber?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

Question 46.
Write varieties for long melon.
Answer:
Punjab long melon.

Question 47.
What is time of sowing for long melon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 48.
What is seed rate for long melon?
Answer:
One kg per acre.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 49.
Write about harvesting of long melon.
Answer:
After 60-70 days of sowing.

Question 50.
Write varieties of squash melon.
Answer:
Tinda-48.

Question 51.
What is time of sowing for squash melon?
Answer:
February-March, June-July.

Question 52.
What is seed rate for squash melon ?
Answer:
1.5 kg per acre.

Question 53.
When is squash melon ready for harvesting?
Answer:
After 60 days of sowing.

Question 54.
Is muskmelon a vegetable or fruit ?
Answer:
It is a vegetable.

Question 55.
What is time of sowing for muskmelon?
Answer:
February-March.

Question 56.
What is sedd rate for muskmelon ?
Answer:
400 gram per acre.

Question 57.
What is plant spacing for muskmelon?
Answer:
60 cm.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which nutrients are found in vegetables?
Answer:
Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, vitamins, etc.

Question 2.
Write about fertilizers for chillis.
Answer:
Apply 10—15 ton well rotten farmyard manure, 25 kg nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 12 kg potash per acre.

Question 3.
Write about irrigation for chillis.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

Question 4.
Write irrigation requirements for tomatoes.
Answer:
Give first irrigation immediately after transplanting. Give irrigation after intervals of 7-10 days in summer.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Question 5.
Write about the method of sowing for brinjal.
Answer:
Brinjal is sown in 10-15 raised beds in one maria.

Question 6.
Give the method of sowing of summer squash.
Answer:
Summer squash is sown in 1.25 m wide beds and two seeds are sown per hill at a distance of 45 cm on both sides of beds.

Question 7.
Write about the cultivation of cucumbers. Improved varieties, time of sowing, seed rate.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties—Punjab Naveen.
  • Time of sowing—February-March.
  • Seed rate—One kg per acre.

Question 8.
Write about the cultivation of long melon.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties—Punjab long melon-1.
  • Time of sowing—February-March.
  • Seed rate—One kg per acre.
  • Harvesting—After sowing 60-70 days.

Question 9.
Write about the cultivation of squash melon.
Answer:

  • Improved varieties—Tinda-48.
  • Time of sowing—February-March, June-July.
  • Seed rate—1.5 kg seed per acre.
  • Method of sowing—Sow seeds on both sides of 1.5 m wide beds at a spacing of 45 cm.
  • Harvesting—Fruits are ready for picking after 60 days of sowing.

Question 10.
Write about the cultivation of sponge gourd.
Answer:

  • Varieties—Pusa Chikni, Punjab sponge gourd-9.
  • Time of sowing—Mid February to March, Mid May to July. Method of sowing—Sow in 3 m wide beds with a spacing of 75-90 cm.
  • Seed rate—2 kg seed per acre.
  • Harvesting—70-80 days after sowing.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about the cultivation of muskmelon.
Answer:
Muskmelon is a vegetable scientifically but we consider it as a fruit.

  • Varieties: Punjab hybrid, Hara Madhu, Punjab Sunehri.
  • Time of Sowing: February-March.
  • Seed Rate: 400-gram seed per acre.
  • Method of Sowing: Sow in 3-4 m wide beds.
  • Plant Spacing: Plant to plant spacing is 60 cm.
  • Irrigation: Water the crop every week in summer at the time of fruit maturity. Avoid direct contact of water with fruit.

Question 2.
Write about the cultivation of Chilli.
Answer:

  • Varieties: Punjab Surkh, Punjab Guchhedar, and Chilli hybrid-1.
  • Seed Rate: 200-gram seed per acre.
  • Sowing Nursery: Sow nursery in one maria and the seed is sown in the nursery during the end of October to mid-November.
  • Transplanting: It is done in February-March.
  • Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows is 75 cm and plant to plant spacing is 45 cm.
  • Fertilizer: 10 to 15 tonnes of well rotten farmyard manure is required, 25 kg Nitrogen, 12 kg phosphorus, and 20 kg potash per acre are also required.
  • Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 7-10 days in summer.

Question 3.
Write about the cultivation of Brinjal.
Answer:

  • Varieties: Punjab Neelam (Round fruited), BH-2 (oblong fruited), and PBH-3 (small fruited)
  • Seed Rate: 300-400 grams for one acre.
  • Method of Sowing: Nursery is sown in 10-15 cm raised beds of one maria.
  • Crops of Brinjal: We can get four crops of brinjal in one-year i. e., by sowing nursery in October, November, February, March, and July.
  • Plant Spacing: Spacing between rows 60 cm and in plants 30-45 cm.
  • Irrigation: Apply first irrigation after transplanting. Give water after every 6-7 days.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Summer Vegetables Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Seed rate for tomatoes is
(a) 100 gram per acre
(b) 500 gram per acre
(c) 100 gram per acre
(d) None
Answer:
(c) 100 gram per acre

2. Punjab Barkat is a variety of :
(a) Ghia
(b) Bitter gourd
(c) Tomato
(d) Chilli.
Answer:
(a) Ghia

3. Variety of Bitter Gourd :
(a) Punjab Kareli-1
(b) Punjab Chappan Kaddu
(c) Punjab Neelam
(d) P.A.G.-3.
Answer:
(a) Punjab Kareli-1

4. Seed rate for Muskmelon (per acre) :
(a) 200 gram
(b) 700 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 400 gram.
Answer:
(d) 400 gram.

5. Punjab Naveen is a variety of :
(a) Petha
(b) Ghia
(c) Tomato
(d) Cucumber
Answer:
(d) Cucumber

True/False:

1. Vegetables contain carbohydrates, proteins, minerals, and vitamins.
Answer:
True

2. For maintaining good health, the consumption of 504 grams of vegetables per person per day is essential.
Answer:
False

3. Leaf vegetables are – spinach, fenugreek, lettuce (salad), saag.
Answer:
True

4. Root vegetables are – carrot, radish, turnip.
Answer:
True

5. Any succulent part like fruit, leaf, stems, etc. of a plant which can be eaten fresh as a salad or after cooking is called a vegetable.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 2 Summer Vegetables

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Major ……………….. vegetables are chilli, brinjal, okra, bitter gourd, squash melon, tomato, bottle gourd, sponge gourd, long melon etc.
Answer:
Kharif (summer)

2. Seed rate for chiili for sowing nursery in one maria is ………………..
Answer:
200 gram

3. Seed rate for sowing nursery of brinjal is ……………….. per acre.
Answer:
300-400 gram

4. Punjab Gucchedar is a variety of ………………..
Answer:
Chilli

5. Varieties of ……………….. are – Punjab-7, Punjab-8, Punjab Padmini.
Answer:
Okra