Class 9 – Page 31 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India: Physiographic Units

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India: Physiographic Units Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2a India: Physiographic Units

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB India: Physiographic Units Textbook Questions and Answers

Map Work:

Show on the outline map of India :
(i) Karakoram, Pir Pajal, Shiwalik, Satpura, Patkai Bam, Khasi and Garo mountain Ranges.
(ii) The mountain Peaks of Kanchanjunga, Godwin-Austin, Dhaulagiri, Guru Shikhar and Anai Mudi.
(iii) Any five passes and three plateau regions.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of India Map.

Objective Type Questions:
Answer the following questions in a single word to one sentence length :

Question 1.
Name any two physiographic region of India.
Answer:
On the basis of physiography, India can be divided in five parts :

Himalaya Mountain,
Northern Plains,
Peninsular Plateau,
Coastal Plains,
Indian Islands.

Question 2.
If you visit Guru Shikhar, in which mountain range you shall be there?
Answer:
Mount Abu (Aravali Mountain).

Question 3.
What is the length and breadth of Northern Plains of India?
Answer:
The length of northern plains is 2400 km and breadth is 150-300 km.

Question 4.
In how many categories the India archlipelogos are divided in?
Answer:
Indian islands are mainly divided in two parts- Andaman-Nicobar islands and Lakshdweep islands.

Question 5.
Which of following is not a part of plains?
(i) Bhabar
(ii) Bhangar
(iii) Khayal
(iv) Kallar.
Answer:
(iii) Khayal.

Question 6.
Which among the following is not a lake?
(i) Saddle
(ii) Sambar
(iii) Chilka
(iv) Vembanand.
Answer:
(i) Saddle.

Question 7.
Which of the following is odd?
(i) Sharda
(ii) Kaveri
(iii) Gomati
(iv) Yamuna.
Answer:
(ii) Kaveri.

Question 8.
Which of the followinis not a range of Himalayas?
(i) Rakashposhi
(ii) Dafla
(iii) Zaskar
(iv) Nilgiri.
Answer:
(iv) Nilgiri.

Short Answer Questions :
Give short answers for the following Questions :

Question 1.
Write a note on the formation of a Himalaya.
Answer:
Millions of years ago, the Himalayas were occupied by a geosyncline known as Tethys. It was sandwiched between two long and large landmasses—Angara land on the north and Gondwana land on the south. The Tethys sea stretched over the Northern plains in east-west direction. For millions of years, sediments were deposited in Tethys sea. These sediments were folded to form the Himalayas. The landmasses of Angara land and Gondwana land drifted slowly towards each other. The horizontal forces worked from two opposite directions resulting in compression. It led to sinking of the ‘Tethys Sea”.

The Indian plate was driven northwards and pushed beneath the Eurasian plate. When the two plates came closer, the Tethys sea’s crust fractured. The sediments buckled and folded to form the mighty fold mountains of the Himalayas. It has been observed that the “Himalayas are still rising”.

Question 2.
Describe the Khadar plains. How are they different from the Bet areas?
Answer:
Khadar is a plain made up with new alluvial soil. This plain is made up of deposition of sediments of Himalayan rivers which spread over the region. This soil is quite fertile. Such plains with same soil are called Bet in Punjab. So, Bet is the local name of plains with Khadar soil.

Question 3.
Write a note on the Central Himalayas.
Answer:

Lesser Himalaya is also known as Himachal or Central Himalaya. Its average height is 3500′ metres to 5000 metres and breadth of the mountains of this range is 60-80 km.
Ranges. This part of Himalaya has many ranges such as Pir Panjal and Naga Tibha in J&K, Dhauladhar and Kumaon in Himachal, Mahabharat in Nepal, Kumaon and Mussoorie in Uttrakhand and Thimpu in Bhutan.
This region of Himalaya has many beautiful places where people come and enjoy for sometime such as Shimla, Srinagar, Mussoore, Nainital, Darjeeling etc.

Question 4.
What is the difference between Eastern and Western Ghats?
Answer:

Western Ghats	Eastern Ghats
1. The Western ghats form a continuous chain from Gulf of Cambay to Kanyakumari.	1. The Eastern ghats form a discontinuous chain of low hills from Orissa to Coromandel coast.
2. These consist of Sahyadri, Nilgiris, Annamalai and Cardamom hills.	2. The Eastern ghats are known by local names.
3. The main passes in Western ghats are: Thai ghat, Bhor ghat and Pal ghat.	3. There are wide gaps in Eastern ghats, through which rivers flow.
4. The average height of Western ghats is 1000 metres. The highest peak is Anaimudi (2965 metres) in Kerala.	4. The average height of Eastern ghats is 450 metres. These merge with western ghats in Nilgiris.

Question 5.
Describe the Indian Archipelagos and write the names of the Islands.
Answer:
There are 267 Indian islands and they can be divided in two parts :
1. Andaman & Nicobar islands. These islands form two major groups in Bay of Bengal. These are Andamans and Nicobar islands. These islands extend between 6° and 14° N latitudes for a distance of 600 kms. These islands are 214 in number. The Nicobar group consists of 15 islands extending between 6° N to 10° N latitudes. Ten-degree channel separates the Andaman group of islands from the Nicobar group. These islands form a union territory of India with Port Blair as its capital. Indira Point in the Nicobar islands is the southernmost point of the Indian Union. These islands form the summits of the submerged hills of the ocean floor.

2. Lakshadweep islands. These islands are situated in the Arabian Sea and lie 320 km off the coast of Kerala between 8° and 12° North latitudes. These are coral islands.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Bhabar and Terai.
Answer:

Terai	Bhabar
1. Terai is a broad long zone south of Bhabar plain.	1. Bhabar is a long, narrow plain along the foothills.
2. It is a marshy damp area covered with thick forests.	2. It is a pebble studded zone of porous beds.
3. It is 20-30 kms. wide.	3. It is 8-16 kms. wide.
4. Many streams re-emerge here from the Bhabar area.	4. Streams are lost in the region due to porous rocks.
5. It is suitable for agriculture.	5. It is unsuitable for agriculture.

Long Answer Questions:
Answer the following questions in detail :

Question 1.
Explain in detail mountain ranges of peninsular plateau.
Answer:
The Deccan Plateau is the oldest structure of India. It is the core of the geology of India. It is surrounded by oceans on three sides. Therefore it is often called Peninsular plateau. It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq. km. The average altitude of the’plateau varies from 600 to 900 metres. Its limits are formed by the Aravallis in the North, Rajmahal Hills and Shillong plateau in the East. The southernmost point is known as Kanyakumari. It is an ancient, stable, hard block formed by Igneous and Metamorphic rocks. It was a part of Gondwana land.

Division of Peninsular Plateau. A series of low hills, known as Satpura ranges between 21° N to 24° N latitudes divides the Peninsular plateau into two parts :
(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Deccan Plateau

(a) Malwa Plateau. The Malwa plateau covers a large part of central highlands. It extends from Aravallis in the West to Ganges valley in the North and East, and Vindhyas in the South. The Aravallis are residual mountains or Relict Mountains. Its highest peaks sire Mt. Abu (1158 metres) and Guru Shikhar (1722 metres). This plateau includes Bundelkhand, Baghelkhandand, Chambal valley. The Vindhyan plateau consists of long, narrow ridges made up of quartzite rocks. It extends upto Mahadeo Hills, Kaimur range, Maikal range, Rajmahal hills in the East. In the East lies Chotta Nagpur plateau drained by Damodar river. This plateau is the storehouse of minerals of India.

(b) Deccan Plateau. This plateau lies South of Narmada river. It is surrounded by mountain ranges on three sides-Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and Satpuras. Narmada and Tapti valleys are rift valleys between Satpuras and Vindhyas. Karnataka Plateau lies between Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Deccan plateau is a tilted plateau with a general eastward slope. It covers an area of about 70 lakh sq. km. Its average height varies between 500 metres to 1000 metres. The rivers have divided this plateau into many sub-divisions.

N. W. Deccan plateau is made up of lava and is known as Deccan trap.
1. Western Ghats. Western Ghats extend from Tapti valley up to Kanyakumari for about 1500 kms. It has three passes-Thal ghat, Bhor ghat and Pal ghat. These ranges rise abruptly from the coast. Short swift streams flow towards the west and do not form deltas. The average height is about 1200 metres. Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery rivers rise from Western ghats and flow towards East.

2. Eastern Ghats. Eastern Ghats extend for about 800 kms from Mahanadi valleys upto Nilgiris. These are not continuous ranges. Rivers form wide gaps. Javadi, Shevroy and Nallamalai hills are found in the Southern part.

3. Nilgiris. Western ghats and Eastern ghats join together to form a knot known as Nilgiris. Anai Mudi (2698 metres) is the highest peak. Anaimalai, Palni, and Cardamom Hills are found in the southern part.

Question 2.
Describe the formation of Ganga-Brahmputra plains and write their regional distribution.
Answer:
Northern Plain of India :
This great plain extends in between the Himalayas and the Peninsular plateau extending from Punjab Plains to Assam Valley. It is 2400 km. long and 240 to 320 km wide. Its average height is 150 metres. It covers an area of 7.5 lakh sq. km.

It is an alluvium filled trough. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought from the Himalayas by the Ganga, Sutlej and by the. rivers of the peninsular plateau. Therefore it is called an alluvial plain. It is a dead flat lowland. The maximum height is 283 metres near Ambala. It has fertile alluvial soils of Khadar and Bangar. It is agriculturally a very productive part of India.

Division of Northern Plain :

Bhabar and Terai. It is a long, narrow zone along the foothills. It is a pebble studded zone. Swampy areas occur in Terai.
Punjab Plain. This plain has a slope in the South-West direction. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments by Ravi, Beas and Sutlej rivers. Chos (Seasonal streams) cause soil erosion in the foothills of Shivalik.
Ganga Plain. This plain has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought by the Ganga and its tributaries. It can be divided into three regions :
(1) upper Ganga plain,
(2) middle Ganga plain and
(3) the lower Ganga plain. It occupies an area of about 3.5 lakh sq. km. Sunderban Delta is formed in the lower Ganga plain. This fertile delta is the largest delta of the world.
Brahmaputra Plain. This plain is situated in the eastern part and is often known as Assam valley. The Brahmaputra river forms a large delta in Bangladesh. The river forms a narrow, deep gorge called ‘Dihang gorge’ which is 12,000 metres deep.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Coastal plains are spread along with Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal. They can be divided in two parts-Western coastal plains and Eastern coastal plains.

Western Coastal Plain	Eastern Coastal Plain
1. West Coast is a narrow alluvial plain with a width of 50-80 kms. It is uneven and wet.	1. The Eastern Coast has a wide plain with well developed delta 80 to 120 km. wide. It is level and dry.
2. Beautiful lagoons are found on the Malabar Coast.	2. The Eastern Coast has only two or three lagoons.
3. The short swift rivers do not make any deltas on the Western Coast. The Tapti and Narmada make estuaries.	3. The large rivers make wide deltas on the Eastern Coast. Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery make well-developed deltas.
4. Kandla, Mumbai, Marmagao, Mangalore and Cochin are major ports on West’coast.	4. Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Paradeep and Kolkata are major ports on the East coast.
5. Western Coastal plains receive rainfall in summer season due to advancing monsoon winds.	5. Many of the Eastern coastal plain areas recieve winter rainfall due to retreating monsoon winds.

Question 4.
Differentiate between the advantages of Himalayan mountains and Peninsular plateau.
Answer:
Himalaya mountain and Deccan plateau are the twq important physiographic divisions of India. Both these make India prosperous in their own way. Their comparison of advantages is given below :

Advantages of Himalaya Mountain :

Rainfall: The monsoon winds coming from the Indian ocean get struck with Himalaya and give lot of rainfall to the region. They also give rainfall to the northern plains.
Many rivers: Almost all the rivers flowing in northern India originate in Himalaya mountain such as Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej, Brahmaputra. These are perennial rivers and the melting snow of Himalaya gives water to such rivers.
Fruit and Tea: The slopes of Himalaya are quite productive for producing tea and different types of fruit.
Useful Wood. Dense forests are there on Himalaya. These forests are our wealth. Wood obtained from these forests is quite useful for us and many industries are dependent upon them. This wood is also used for construction of houses as well.
Good grasslands: Many green grasslands are available on Himalayas. Many tribal communities rear animals on such grasslands.
Places of entertainment: There are many beautiful valleys in the Himalayan region. Kashmir valley is such beautiful valley which was known as heaven on earth. The valleys of Kullu and Kangra in Himachal Pradesh and Kumaon in Uttrakhand are other major valleys of this region. People often visit such places to relax.

Advantages of Deccan Plateau :

Deccan plateau is rich in mineral resources. 98% of the country’s mineral wealth is available in the region. Coal, iron, manganese etc. many minerals are available in this region.
Its soil is quite useful for the growth of cotton, tea, rubber, sugarcane, coffee, spices etc.
Its rivers form many waterfalls which are quite useful for the production of hydroelectricity.
This region is quite famous for the forests of saal, sagvan, chandan etc.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide India: Physiographic Units Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The height of Mount Everest is
(a) 9848 m.
(b) 7048 m.
(c) 8848 m.
(d) 6848 m.
Answer:
(c) 8848 m.

Question 2.
Jog waterfall is on:
(a) Ganga river
(b) Sharavathi river
(c) Yamuna river
(d) Chenab river.
Answer:
(b) Sharavathi river.

Question 3.
Most of the part of Himalaya is spread in:
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Tibet
(d) Bhutan.
Answer:
(c) Tibet.

Question 4.
Himalaya mountain originated from:
(a) Tethys sea
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
(a) Tethys sea.

Question 5.
The part between Ravi and Reas rivers is known as:
(a) Bist Doab
(b) Peninsular Plateau
(c) Chaj Doab
(d) Malabar Doab.
Answer:
(a) Bist Doab.

Question 6.
Konkan plain is spread
(a) From Daman to Goa
(b) From Mumbai to Goa
(c) From Daman to Bengaluru
(d) From Mumbai to Daman.
Answer:
(a) From Daman to Goa.

Question 7.
Major peak of Western Ghats is :
(a) Guru Shikhar
(b) Vabulamals
(c) Konkan Shikhar
(d) Mount Kg.
Answer:
(a) Guru Shikhar.

Question 8.
The plain made by Sutlej, Brahmaputra and Ganga river system is known as:
(a) Southern plain
(b) Eastern plain
(c) Northern plain
(d) Tibetan plain.
Answer:
(c) Northern plain.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The average height of Trans Himalaya is ________ metres.
Answer:
6000

Question 2.
________ is the highest peak of the world.
Answer:
Mount Everest

Question 3.
The end point of Indian peninsular plateau is ________
Answer:
Kanyakumari

Question 4.
Thai ghat, Bhor ghat and ________ are the passes of western ghats.
Answer:
Pal Ghat

Question 5.
Chilka lake is India’s largest ________ lake.
Answer:
saline

Question 6.
________ river becomes a boundary between two parts of a great plateau.
Answer:
Narmada

Question 7.
________ Himalaya is the longest and highest range of India.
Answer:
Great

Question 8.
Malabar coast is spread from Goa to ________
Answer:
Mangalore

Question 9.
The plain of Chhattisgarh is made by ________ river.
Answer:
Mahanadi.

True/False:

Question 1.
Trans Himalaya is also known as Tibetan Himalaya.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Most of the places of entertainment of Himalaya are situated in Great Himalaya.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Kaveri and Krishna played a very important role in the formation of northern plains.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
There are 3 passes in western ghats: Thai Ghat, Bhor Ghat and Pal Ghat.
Answer:
True.
Question 5.
Western Ghats are also knwon as Suhadris.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the size of the Himalayan Mountain range?
Answer:
Himalayas are a convex curve. Its central part is bent along Indo-Nepalese border and looks like a bow.

Question 2.
How did Himalayan mountain regions originate?
Answer:
Himalayas have arisen out of Tethys sea.

Question 3.
Name the major peaks of Trans Himalayas.
Answer:
The main peaks are Mount Kg, Godwin Austin, Hindon Peak, Broad Peak Geyserabam, Rakaposhi, Harmush.

Question 4.
Which mountain peaks are found at the height above 8000 metres in Greater Himalayas?
Answer:
Mount Everest (8848 metres),Kanchenjunga (8598 metres), Makalu (8481 metres), Dhaulagiri (8172 metres), Manalasu, Naga Parbat and Annapurna.

Question 5.
Name the young and old moutains of India.
Answer:
Himalayas are young mountains. Old mountains include Aravallis, Vindhyas, Satpuras.

Question 6.
Where are rift valleys located in India?
Answer:
Rift valleys are found over peninsular India like Narmada and Tapti valleys.

Question 7.
What is meant by delta?
Answer:
A triangular shaped land formed in the lower course of a river is called a delta.

Question 8.
Name some important deltaic regions of India.
Answer:
The main deltas are: Ganga Brahmaputra, Godawari Delta, Kaveri Delta, Krishna Delta and Mahandi Delta.

Question 9.
Which passes are found in the Himalayan Mountains?
Answer:
The main passes in Himalayas are Burzel, Zojila, Nanak La, Chang La, Khurnak La, Baralg., Shipki La, Nathula, Takla Kot.

Question 10.
Name the important mountain ranges of lesser Himalayas.
Answer:

Pir Panjal in Kashmir
Dhauladhar to Kumaon in H.P.
Mahabharat ranges in Nepal
Mussorie in U.P.
Thimpu in Bhutan.

Question 11.
Which hill stations and valleys are found in Lesser Himalayas?
Answer:
Shimla, Dun, Path Doon, Kothri Doon, Udhampur, Kotli.

Question 12.
Name the main Doon valleys of our country.
Answer:
Dehra Dun, Patli Doon, Kothri Doon, Udhampur, Kotli.

Question 13.
Name the major Eastern off-shoots of Himalayas.
Answer:
Patkoi Bum, Garo, Khasi, Jaintia, Tripura. .

Question 14.
Which landform features formed by rivers are found in the Great Northern plains?
Answer:
Alluvial cones, Fans, Meanders, River terraces, Natural leaves and Flood plains.

Question 15.
Which inter-fluves are formed in the North-Western Plains?
Answer:

Bari Doab (Majha),
Bist Doab (Doaba),
Malwa,
Haryana Plains.

Question 16.
What is the size of the Brahmaputra plain?
Answer:
Brahamputra plain is 640 km long and 90-100 km wide. This narrow plain slopes from N.East to West.

Question 17.
What is the extent of Aravalli mountain range? Give the name of its highest peak.
Answer:
Aravallis extend from Delhi to Gujarat. It is 725 km long. Guru Shikhar 1722 metres high is the highest peak.

Question 18.
Name the major peaks of western ghats.
Answer:

Vania Mala (2339 metres),
Kudremukh (1849 metres),
Pushpagiri (1714 metres),
Kalsubai (1646 metres).

Question 19.
Name the southern mountains of the Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Javadi, Gingee, Shevroy, Kalaimalais, Panchmalais, Godumalai are the hills of Eastern ghats.

Question 20.
Which hill stations are found in the Deccan plateau’s hilly region?
Answer:
Doda Beta, Ootacumand (Udagmandlam), Kodaikanal.

Question 21.
Name the Islands in the Arabian sea.
Answer:
This group of islands is called Lakshadweep. It includes Amini Divi, Central (Lacca deep), Minicoi in South.

Question 22.
Where is the Southern frontier point of India located?
Answer:
Indira Point (Near Great Nicobar).

Question 23.
Give any three uses of the coastal plains to the entire country.
Answer:

Natural Bays and Ports are found.
Many lagoons are found.
It is a rich fishing ground.

Question 24.
Which river becomes a boundary between two large Indian plateaus?
Answer:
Narmada River.

Question 25.
Which are the Island groups of India and where are they situated?
Answer:
Andaman Nicobar and Lakshdweep are two Island groups and they are situated in Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea respectively.

Question 26.
Which range of Himalaya is called Shiwalik?
Answer:
Outer Himalaya range.

Question 27.
Which rivers played an important role in the formation of Northern plains of India?
Answer:
Sutlej, Brahmaputra and Ganga river system.

Question 28.
What do you call the coastal region from Goa to Mangalore?
Answer:
Malabar Coast.

Question 29.
From where to where the Konkan coast is stretched?
Answer:
Konkan coast is stretched from Daman to Goa.

Question 30.
Which region of India is quite rich in mineral resources?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any two proofs of Himalayas’ successive upliftment.
Answer:
Himalayas were formed about 400 lakh years ago in the Tethys sea. Rivers continued depositing sediments in the Tethys sea between the Tibet and Indian Plateau. Both the plates—Eurasian and Indian—drifted towards each other. It resulted in folds in sediments and began to rise. The Himalayas are still rising. Thus the Himalayas were formed due to this uplift.

Question 2.
Do we find any similarities between Himalayan mountain and the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
The following similarities are found between the Himalayas and the Southern plateau.

The Himalayas came into existence due to presence of the Southern plateau.
The hills, faults and folds of the southern peninsula have been formed due to pressure from the Himalayas.
Many minerals are found in both areas.
Forests are found in both areas for use in the country.

Question 3.
Are the Himalayan mountains still in youth or young stage?
Answer:
There is no doubt about the fact that Himalayas are still young fold mountains. They have been folded out of sediments deposited by rivers. Folds were formed in sediments due to the drifting of two blocks on either side. It increased the height of Himalayas. Himalayas are still rising. These mountains were formed at a later stage as compared to other mountains. So these are called young mountains.

Question 4.
Which alluvial plains have been formed in the Great Himalayas?
Answer:
The following are the alluvial plains included in Northern great plain:

Khadar plains
Bangar plains
Bhabar plains
Terai plains
Barren plains.

Question 5.
Write a geographical note on the Thar Desert.
Answer:
Thar Desert extends from southern borders of Punjab and Haryana to Rann of Kutch (Gujarat). It is a plain and arid area. Aravallis form its eastern boundary. It has international boundary of Pakistan in the West. It is 640 km. long and 300 km. wide. In ancient period, this region was under sea. Proofs show that this desert was once a fertile area. But due to low rainfall and deforestation, it has been changed into areas of sand dunes.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India Physiographic Units 1

Question 6.
What could be the different divisions of Indian islands on the basis of location? Explain with examples and diagrams.
Answer:
On the basis of location, Indian islands can be divided into the following two groups:

Islands situated away from the coast. There are about 230 islands found in groups. Such Coral islands exist in Arabian Sea and are called Lakshdweep islands. Amandivi, Lakshadweep, Minicoy are other islands. Andaman-Nicobar islands, Norcadam, Barren islands are found in Bay of Bengal.
Islands situated near the coast. The new moor islands Sorat, Wheeler islands are found near Ganges delta. Other islands are Bhasara, Diu, Palmbam, Mandapam, Elephanta.

Question 7.
What is the contribution of coastal plains to entire country?
Answer:
(t) Coastal plains are known for rice, dates, coconuts, spices, ginger, cardamoms, etc.
(ii) It leads in the international trade.
(Hi) High grade fishes are caught in these coastal areas,
(iv) Beaches along Goa, Mumbai, Tamilnadu are a great attraction for the tourists,
(v) Salt is prepared on the marshy areas of west coast.

Question 8.
‘The western coastal plains of India are not only narrow, but are also without Deltaic deposit. Explain.
Answer:
The western coastal plain is narrow. It has no deposition of sediments.

There are not many rivers which fall into Arabian sea. The western ghats are not well dissected. Most of large rivers fall into Bay of Bengal and deposit sediments on plateau.
The rivers are swift and short. So the rivers (Narmada, Tapti) do not make any deltas ; but estuaries are formed.

Question 9.
What is the contribution of the Himalayan Region to the development of the country as a whole?
Answer:
The following are the advantages of the Himalayas to India:

Useful Rivers. All the important rivers such as the Ganga, the Yamuna, the Satluj, the Brahamputra etc. rise in the Himalayas.
Useful Wood. On account of heavy rainfall, dense forests are found in the Himalayas. Teak, deodar and pine are some of the trees, the wood of which is of great use.
Minerals. Many types of minerals are found in the Himalayas.
Fruits and Tea. The slopes of the Himalayas are very favourable for the growth of various fruits and tea. Assam is known for good quality of tea.
Fodder and Medicinal Herbs. Many varieties of medicinal herbs and grasses for fodder grow over most of the parts of Himalayas.

Question 10.
How does the peninsular plateau affect the other physical region of India?
Answer:

Peninsular India is a part of old Gondwana land. The rivers rising out of it helped in the formation of Himalayas. After that it helped in the formation of Northern plains.
On both sides of the plateau, there are many dams. These dams provide water for irrigation to the plains and power for industries.
The forests of this area meet the needs of the other parts of the country.

Question 11.
Differentiate between
(i) Terai and Bhabar
Answer:
Difference between Terai and Bhabar region :

Terai	Bhabar
1. Terai is a broad long zone south of Bhabar plain.	1. Bhabar is a long narrow plain along the foothills.
2. It is a marshy damp area covered with thick forests.	2. It is a pebble-studded zone of porous beds.
3. It is 20-30 kms wide.	3. It is 8-16 kms wide.
4. Many streams reemerge here from the Bhabar area.	4. Streams are lost in the region due to porous rocks.
5. It is suitable for Agriculture.	5. It is unsuitable for Agriculture.

(ii) Bangar and Khadar
Answer:
Difference between Bangar and Khadar :

Bangar	Khadar
1. The older alluvium of the high plain is called Bangar.	1. The younger alluvium of the flood plain is called Khadar.
2. This area stands above the level of the flood plain.	2. Flood water spreads a new layer over it every year.
3. It is composed of calcarous Kankars and clay. (Dahia)	3. It is composed of fertile alluvium. (Bet)

(iii) Chos and wasteland
Answer:
Difference between Chos and Wasteland :

Chos	wasteland
1. The seasonal streams flowing down the Shiwaliks are called Chos.	1. Wasteland include Ravines formed by chos.
2. These deposit sand and make the soil infertile.	2. These are not fit for agriculture.
3. These are active during rainy season along Shiwaliks.	3. These are also called Badland.

(iv) Estuarty and Delta.
Answer:
Difference between Estuary and Delta :

Estuary	Delta
1. An estuary is a funnel shaped channel at the mouth of a river.	1. A delta is a triangular shaped land formed at the mouth of a river.
2. An estuary is a long narrow channel.	2. A delta resembles the Greek letter delta (∆).
3. Narmada and Tapti rivers make estuaries on the West coast.	3. Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta is the biggest delta in the world.

Question 12.
Throw some light on the surface features of Great Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himalayas extend from Indus Valley to Dihang Gorge in the East. Its main characteristics are:

It is the longest and the highest mountain range of the country. It includes old rocks of granite, gneiss crystalline metamorphic rocks.
It has Mount Everest 8848 metres high, the highest peak of the world.
The peaks of the Himalayas are always snow-covered.
Many passes make routes across it.
It includes important valleys of Kathmandu and Kashmir.

Question 13.
Explain in brief about the Great plains in India.
Answer:
The great plains of India are also known as Satluj-Ganga plains. Alongwith Himalaya mountains, they are spread from west to east direction. They are spread from Rajasthan to Assam. Except few of its western desert region, whole of the northern plain is quite fertile. It is formed by the alluvium brought about by the perennial rivers. That is why, they are also called Alluvium plains.

It can be divided in four parts :

Punjab-Haryana plains
Thar desert plain
Ganga plain and
Brahmaputra plain. Northern plains are quite helpful in the progress of the country. Many crops are grown here which make India a self-sufficient country.

Question 14.
Compare Western and Eastern Coastal plains.
Answer:

Western Coastal Plain	Eastern Coastal Plain
1. West coast is a norrow alluvial plain with a width of 50-80 kms. It is uneven and wet.	1. The Eastern coast has a wide plain with well developed delta 80 to 120 km., wide. It is level and dry.
2. Beautiful lagoons are found on the Malabar coast.	2. The Eastern coast has only two or three lagoons.
3. The short swift rivers do not make any delta on the western coast. The Tapti and Narmada make estuaries.	3. The large rivers make wide (jeltas on the Eastern coast. Mahanada, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery make well develped deltas.

Question 15.
Compare Deccan Plateau with Indo-Gangetic Plains.
Answer:

Deccan Plateau	Indo-Gangetic Plains
1. Location. It is a triangular plateau bounded by Vindhyas, Western ghats and Eastern ghats.	1. It is an alluvial plain stretching from Punjab to Assam valley.
2. Relief. The relief of this plateau is uneven. Its average height above sea level is more than 600 metres.	2. This is a level plain about 200 metres high above sea level.
3. Climate. The climate here is hot and humid.	3. Here the summers are hot and winters are cold.
4. Crops. Jowar, Bajra, Spices and Groundnut are grown here.	4. Rice, Wheat, Cotton and Sugarcane are mostly grown here.
5. Rivers. Cauvery, Mahanadi, Godavari, Narmada and Tapti are main seasonal rivers here.	5. Ganga, Yamuna and Brahmaputra are the main perennial rivers.

Question 16.
What do you mean by Trans Himalayas?
Answer:
Trans Himalayas. These mountains lie beyond the great Himalayas. These include Karakoram, Ladakh, Kailash and Zanskar ranges, K₂ or Mt, Godwin Austin (8611 metres) i.e. Baltro Glacier (60 km.) and Siachen Glacier (72 km.) Most of its part is in Tibet. That’s why it is also known as Tibetan Himalaya. Its total length is 1000 km and breadth is 40 km. Its average height is 6000 metres. K₂ is the second highest peak of the world.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India Physiographic Units 2

Question 17.
Write a note on Outer Himalayas.
Answer:
Shiwalik Ranges. The southernmost range of the Himalayas is known as the Shiwaliks or outer Himalayas. Its average height is less than 1000 metres. Although these extend from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh, yet these are not continuous ranges. These are made of loose, unconsolidated sediments broguht down by rivers. Soil erosion by chos is at its worst in this region. In between the Shiwaliks and the lesser Himalayas, longitudinal valleys called Duns are found such as Dehradun.

Question 18.
Which mountain ranges constitute the Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra marks the easternmost geographical limit of the Himalayas. The Himalayas, making a hairpin bend, extend southward. The mountains situated along the eastern boundary of India are called Purvanchal. These mountains are of medium height. These include Patkoi and Naga Hills in the north, Lushai hills in south, Mizo hills in Mizoram. These also include Garo, Khasi, Jaintia hills in Meghalya. These mountains are less spectacular than western mountains.

Question 19.
Divide Northern plain into four regions based on variations in relief.
Answer:
On the basis of relief, the Northern plain is divided into four sections :
Bhabar plain. It is located in the foothills of mountains. Rivers are lost in this section.
Terai plain. South of Bhabar, lies the Terai belt. The rivers reappear in this swampy and marshy region.
Bangar plain. The flood plain formed by old alluvium is called Bangar plain.
Khadar plain. The new young deposits of flood plain is called Khadar.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Divide the relief of India and explain in detail any one region.
Answer:
India is divided into following physiographic divisions :

Himalayan Ranges
Northern Great Plain
Peninsular India
Coastal Plains
Indian Islands.

Himalayan Ranges. The Himalayas are spread over the northern boundary of India like an arc, from west to east. The length of these mountains is about 2500 kilometres and breadth is between 250 to 400 kilometres. Mount Everest (8,848 metres) is the highest peak of the Himalayas.

The Himalayas can be divided into three parts :
1. Northern Kashmir Himalayas. The north-western part of the Himalayas is known as the Kashmir Himalayas. Karakoram, Laddakh, Zaskar and Kailash are the main ranges of the Kashmir Himalayas.

2. Main Himalayas. Main Himalayas consist of the following :

Greater Himalayas or Himadri. This range spreads from East to West. Mount Everest (8,488 metres), the highest peak of the world lies in the range. Jojila, Jailpa la and Lingshila are some of the important passes in this range.
The Himachal Range or Lesser Himalayas. The average height of this range is 3500 to 4500 metres and its breadth is 60 to 80 kilometres. Hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie and Nainital are situated on this range.
Shiwaliks or Outer Himalayas. The average height of these hills is 900 to 1200 metres and breadth is only 10 to 50 kilometres.

3. Off-shoots of the Himalayas. The Himalayas turn to the south on the eastern and western flanks. They are respectively known as the Eastern and the Western Himalayas in the east and the west.
(a) Eastern Himalayas. The Himalayas consist of the famous hills of Patkoi, Naga and Manipur. They are very low hills and are fully covered with forests.
(b) Western Himalayas. In the West, Suleman and Kirthar ranges are dominant. They have many important passes like Khyber, Tochi and Bolan.

Question 2.
Write a note on the origin and structure of the Himalayas. Are they still rising?
Answer:
Millions of years ago, the Himalayas were occupied by a geosyncline known as Tethys. It was sandwiched between two long landmasses: Angara land on the north and Gondwana land on the south. The Tethys sea stretched over the Northern plains in east-west direction. For millions of years, sediments were deposited in Tethys sea. These sediments were folded to form the Himalayas. The land masses of Angara land and Gondwana land drifted slowly towards each other. The horizontal forces worked from two opposite directions resulting in compression. It led to sinking of the Tethys sea.

Question 3.
Give a detailed description of the size, origin and regional division of India’s Northern plain.
Answer:
Extent. This great plain extends in between the Himalayas and the Peninsular plateau. It is 3200 km long and 150 to 300 km wide. Its average height is 150 metres. It covers an area of 7.5 lakh sq. km.

Formation. It is an alluvium filled trough. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought from the Himalayas by the Ganga, Satluj and other rivers.

Main Characteristics :

It is a dead flat lowland. Its maximum height above sea level is 263 metres.
It has a gentle gradient.
It has a huge depth of alluvium.
A large number of rivers flow in this plain dividing it into Doabs.
It has fertile alluvial soils namely Khadar and Bangar soils.

Division of Northern Plain :

Bhabar and Terai. It is a long, narrow zone along the foothills. It is a pebble-studded zone. Swampy areas occur in Terai.
Punjab Plain. This plain has a slope in the South-West direction. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments by Ravi, Beas and Sutlej rivers. Chos (seasonal streams) cause soil erosion in foothills of Shivaliks.
Ganga Plain. This plain has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought by the Ganga and its tributaries. It can be divided into three regions: upper Ganga plain, middle Ganga plain and the lower Ganga plain. It occupies an area of about 3.5 lakh sq. km. Sunder Ban Delta is formed in the lower Ganga plain.
Brahmaputra Plains. These plains are situated in the Eastern part and are often known as Assam valley. The Brahmaputra river forms a large delta in Bangladesh.

The Great Indian Desert plain of the west. This covers the western part of the Aravali mountains. This region has a sandy land, so it is also known as the Thar desert. This region gets very little rainfall, due to which the agriculture is not developed here. There are many saltwater lakes like the Sambhar, Didwana and Panchpadra, from which salt is extracted.

The formation of Northern Plain.
The northern plain lies in between the Himalayas and the peninsular India. It has been formed by the filling of the depression formed by Tethys sea. The Himalayan rivers after eroding the Himalayas deposited huge amount of silt and deposition in the ever shrinking Tethys sea. This depression has been filled gradually to form northern plain or the Indo-Gangetic plain. The Himalayan rivers have deposited silt to form Ganges delta in Bangladesh. Due to continuous deposition, the delta is still advancing towards sea.

Question 4.
Compare and contrast the geomorphological features of the Himalayas with those of the Indian plateau.
Answer:

The Himalayas	Indian Plateau
1. The Himalayas are young new fold mountains.	1. The Indian plateau is an ancient crystalline tableland.
2. These mountains have been formed due to folding by different earth movements.	2. This plateau has been formed as a horse.
3. The relief features show young age of the Himalayas.	3. The plateau is old and well dissected.
4. Parallel mountain ranges are formed in the Himalayan region.	4. Rift valleys are formed due to faulting.
5. These mountains are the loftiest mountain system of the world with the highest mountain peak Mt. Everest 8848 mts. above sea level.	5. It is an old eroded crystal rock with the highest peak Anaimudi 2695 mts. above sea level.
6. These mountains extend in an arc.	6. This plateau is triangular in shape.
7. Deep gorges and U-shaped valleys are formed.	7. Narrow deep river valleys are formed on the plateau.
8. These have been formed out of Tethys sea in Mesozoic period. (276 million years ago.)	8. This plateau has been lifted out of the sea in the preCambrian period. (1600 million years ago.)
9. It is made up of sedimentary rocks.	9. It is made up of igneous rocks.

Question 5.
Write a note on the following :
(i) Vindhyachal
Answer:
Vindhyachal. This range extends from east to west in the north of river Narmada. It separates Northern India from Southern India. Its average height is 300 metres. It starts from Gujarat in the west and goes upto Bihar in the east passing through the Vindhya Pradesh.

(ii) Satpura
Answer:
Satpura. This mountain range spreads between the Narmada and the Tapti rivers. They extend from Gujarat in the west to Amarkantak in the east. Dhupgarh (1350 metres) is the highest point of these ranges.

(iii) Aravali Hills
Answer:
Aravali Hills. Aravali mountain range is extended from Delhi to Gujarat in 800 km. Their direction is southwest and now these are small residue parts of hills. Their highest peak is Mount Abu. (1722 m.)

(iv) Nilgiri Hills.
Answer:
Nilgiri Hills. The western and eastern ghats join each other in the south where they are known as the Nilgiris. Doda Betta (2637 metres) is the highest peak in the Nilgiri. They are also known as the Blue mountains.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

January 8, 2024January 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

PSEB 9th Class Science Guide Atoms and Molecules Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A 0.24 g sample of a compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition Of the compound by weight.
Answer:
Weight of compound = 0.24 g
Weight of Boron = 0.096 g
Weight of oxygen = 0.144 g
∴ % age of B = \(\frac{0.096}{0.24}\) × 100
= \(\frac{96}{240}\) × 100 = 40
% age of O = \(\frac{0.144}{0.240}\) × 100 = 60

Question 2.
When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?
Answer:
3.00 g of carbon combines with 8.00 g of oxygen to produce 11.00 g of carbon dioxide
C + O₂ → CO₂
When 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. This is based upon the law of constant compositions.

Question 3.
What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.
Answer:
Polyatomic ions. A group of atoms carrying a charge (+ve or -ve) is called a polyatomic ion.
Examples: \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\), \(\mathrm{SO}_{3}^{2-}\), \(\mathrm{NH}_{4}^{+}\) etc.

Question 4.
Write the chemical formulae of the following :
(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 1

Question 5.
Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds:
(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate
Answer:
(a) Quick lime (CaO). The elements present in it are calcium and oxygen.
(b) Hydrogen bromide (HBr). The elements present in it are hydrogen and bromine.
(c) Baking powder (NaHC0₃). The elements present in it are sodium, hydrogen, carbon and oxygen.
(d) Potassium sulphate (K₂S0₄). The elements present in it are Potassium, Sulphur and Oxygen.

Question 6.
Calculate the molar mass of the following substances:
(a) Ethyne, C₂H₂
(b) Sulphur molecule, S₈
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P₄ (Atomic mass of phosphorus is 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HNO₃
Answer:
(a) Molar mass of ethyne, C₂H₂ = 2 × 12 + 2 × 1 = 24 + 2 = 26 g
(b) Molar mass of sulphur molecule, S₈ = 8 × 32 = 256 g
(c) Molar mass of Phosphorus molecule, P₄ = 4 × 31 = 124 g
(d) Molar mass of hydrochloric acid, HCl = 1 + 35.5 g = 36.5 g
(e) Molar mass of nitric acid, HNO₃ = 1 + 14 + 3 × 16 = 1 + 14 + 48 = 63g

Question 7.
What is the mass of:
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na₂S0₃)?
Answer:
(a) Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atoms = 14 g
(b) Mass of 1 mole of A1 atoms = 27 g
Mass of 4 moles of A1 atoms = 4 × 27 = 108 g
(c) Mass of 1 mole of sodium sulphite, Na₂SO₃
= 2 × 23 + 32 + 3 × 16
= 46 + 32 + 48 = 126 g
∴ Mass of 10 moles of Na₂SO₃ = 10 × 126 = 1260 g

Question 8.
Convert into moles:
(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 2

Question 9.
What is the mass of:
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?
Answer:
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms:
Mass of 1 mole of oxygen atoms = 16 g
Mass of 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms = 0.2 × 16 = 3.2 g
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules:
Mass of 1 mole of water molecule (H₂O) = 18 g
∴ Mass of 0.5 mole of water molecules = 0.5 × 18 = 9 g

Question 10.
Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur(S₈) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.
Answer:
Mass of solid sulphur (S₈) = 16 g
Mass of 1 mole of sulphur (S₈) = 8 × 32 = 256 g
No. of molecules in 16 g of solid sulphur = 16/256 × 6. 023 × 10²³
= 3.76 × 10²² molecules

Question 11.
Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide.
(Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element.
The atomic mass of Al = 27 u)
Answer:
Mass of 1 mole of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) = 2 × 27 + 3 × 16 = 54 + 48 = 102 g
1 mole of Al₂O₃ contains Al³⁺ ions = 2 × 27 = 54 g
or 102 g of Al₂O₃ contains Al³⁺ contains = 54 g
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 3

Science Guide for Class 9 PSEB Atoms and Molecules InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that these observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass.
Sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water.
Answer:
Sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water.

Mass of sodium carbonate = 5.3 g
Mass of ethanoic acid = 6.0 g
Total mass of the reactants = 5.3 + 6.0 = 11.3g
Mass of carbon dioxide = 2.2 g
Mass of water = 0.9 g
Mass of sodium ethanoate = 8.2 g
Total mass of the products = 2.2 + 0.9 + 8.2 = 11.3 g

Since total mass of the reactants = Total mass of the products
Hence, the Law of Conservation of Mass is true.

Question 2.
Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen?
Answer:
One g of hydrogen gas reacts with oxygen = 8 g
3 g of hydrogen gas will react with oxygen = 3 × 8 = 24 g

Question 3.
Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of cosnervation of mass?
Answer:
Law of conservation of mass is based upon the postulate that atoms are indivisible particles and can neither be created nor destroyed during any chemical reaction.

Question 4.
Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?
Answer:
Atoms of various elements combine in simple whole-number but the fixed ratio to form compound atoms (molecules).

Question 5.
Define the atomic mass unit.
Answer:
One atomic mass unit is a mass unit and it is equal to 1/12th of the mass of an atom of carbon-12.
1 a.m.u. = 1.66 × 10^-27 kg

Question 6.
Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?
Answer:
This is because atoms are very-very small. The radius of an atom is of the order of 10^-10 m.

Question 7.
Write down the formulae of
1. Sodium oxide
2. Aluminium chloride
3. Sodium sulphide
4. Magnesium hydroxide.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 4

Question 8.
Write down the names of the compounds represented by the following formulae,

Al₂ (S0₄)₃
CaCl₂
K₂S0₄
KN0₃
CaCO₃

Answer:

Aluminium sulphate
Calcium chloride
Potassium sulphate
Potassium nitrate
Calcium carbonate.

Question 9.
What is meant by the term chemical formula?
Answer:
Chemical formula. The chemical formula of a substance indicates its constituent elements and number of atoms of each combining element present in One molecule of it.

Question 10.
How many atoms are present in ;
1. H₂S molecule
2. \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion
Answer:
1. An H₂S molecule represents
(a) two atoms of hydrogen and
2. A \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion represents
(a) one atom of P
(b) three atoms of O.

Question 11.
Calculate the molecular masses of H₂, O₂, Cl₂, CO₂, CH₄, C₂H₆, C₂H₄, NH₃, CH₃OH.
Answer:

Molecular mass of H₂ = 2 × 1 = 2u
Molecular mass of 0₂ = 2 × 16 = 32 u
Molecular mass of Cl₂ = 2 × 35.5 = 71.0 u
Molecular mass of C0₂ = 1 × 12 + 2 × 16 = 12 + 32 = 44 u
Molecular mass of CH₄ = 12 + 4 × 1 = 12 + 4 = 16 u
Molecular mass of C₂H₆ = 2 × 12 + 6 × 1 = 24 + 6 = 30 u
Molecular mass of C₂H₄ = 2 × 12 + 4 × 1 = 24 + 4 = 28 u
Molecular mass of NH₃ = 14 + 3 × 1 = 14 + 3 = 17 u
Molecular mass of CH₃OH = 12 + 3 × 1 + 16 + 1 = 12 + 3 + 16 + 1 = 32 u

Question 12.
Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na₂O, K₂C0₃.
(Given atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, C = 12u and O = 16 u)
Answer:

Formula unit mass of ZnO = 65 + 16 = 81 u
Formula unit mass of Na₂O = 2 × 23 + 16 = 46 + 16 = 62 u
Formula unit mass of K₂C0₃ = 2 × 39 + 12 + 3 × 16 = 78 + 12 + 48 = 138 u

Question 13.
If one mole of carbon atoms weigh 12 gram. What is the mass (in grams) of 1 atom of carbon?
Answer:
1 mole of carbon has mass = 12 g
Mass of 1 atom of carbon = \(\frac{12}{6.023 × 10}\)
= 1.99 × 10^{– 23}g

Question 14.
Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or 100 grams of ion (given atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?
Answer:
Atomic mass of sodium = 23 u
1 mole of sodium has mass = 23 g
No. of moles of sodium in 100 g = \(\frac{100}{23}\)
∴ No. of atoms of sodium in 100 g
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 5
∴ 100 g of sodium has more atoms.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings

May 25, 2024January 6, 2024 by Veer

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings

PSEB 9th Class Science Guide Matter in Our Surroundings Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Convert the following temperature to the Celsius scale:
(a) 293 K
(b) 470 K.
Answer:
(a) 293 K = 293 – 273 = 20°C
(b) 470 K = 470 – 273 = 197°C

Question 2.
Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale:
(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C.
Answer:
(a) 25°C – 25 + 273 = 298 K
(b) 373°C = 373 + 273 = 646 K

Question 3.
Give reason for the following observations:
(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.
Answer:
(a) This is because naphthalene sublimes i.e. it directly changes into vapour without melting.
(b) This is because the molecules of perfume are moving with very high velocities (i.e. diffusion) in all the directions.

Question 4.
Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles-water, sugar, oxygen.
Answer:
The increasing order of intermolecular forces of attraction is Oxygen < Water < Sugar.

Question 5.
What is the physical state of water at:
(a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 100°C?
Answer:
(a) At 25° C, water is liquid.
(b) At 0° C, water is solid (Ice).
(c) At 100° C, water is gas (Steam).

Question 6.
Give two reasons to justify that:
(a) Water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.
Answer:
(a) At room temperature water is liquid because the attractive forces between the molecules of water are small and can move from one point to another.
(b) An iron almirah is solid because the molecules are held together by strong intermolecular attractive forces and the molecules or particles are very close to each other.

Question 7.
Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature ?
Answer:
Ice at 273 K is more effective in cooling than water at 273 K, this is because in ice, the molecules have lower energy as compared to the particles in the liquid water at the same temperature (273 K) and require latent heat of fusion for melting.

Question 8.
What produces more severe bums: boiling water or steam?
Answer:
Steam produces severe burns as compared to boiling water. This is because in steam the molecules have higher kinetic energy than in boiling water.

Question 9.
Name A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram showing state change-
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings 1
Answer:
A – Fusion
B – Vaporisation
C – Condensation
D – Solidification
E – Sublimation
F – Sublimation

Science Guide for Class 9 PSEB Matter in Our Surroundings InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following are matter?
Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink, smell of perfume.
Answer:
Chair, air, almonds, cold drink, smell of perfume.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the following observations:
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.
Answer:
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches us several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food we have to go close. This is because the rate of diffusion of a gas increases with the increase in temperature. In hot food, the rate of diffusion is large but in cold food, the rate of diffusion is slow.

Question 3.
A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool, which property of matter does this observation show?
Answer:
The diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool because in water the attractive forces between the molecules are small.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?
Answer:
The characteristics of the particles of matter are:

The particles of matter have vacant spaces between them.
The particles of matter are always in motion.
There are attractive forces between the particles of matter.

Question 5.
The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density, (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.
Answer:
The increasing order of density is
Exhaust from chimneys < air < cotton < chalk < honey < iron.

Question 6.
(a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.
(b) Comment upon the following:
rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.
Answer:
(a) Differences in the characteristics of states of matter:

Characteristics	Solid	Liquid	Gas
1. Vacant spaces	Very small	Small	Very large
2. Attractive forces between particles	Very large	Small	Negligible
3. Compressibility	Negligible	Low	High
4. Rigidity	High	Low	Not rigid
5. Density	High	Low	Very Low
6. Energy	Small	Large as compared to solid	Very high

(b) Rigidity: It is the property by virtue of which a substance can retain its shape when a force is applied to it. Solids possess the property of rigidity.

Compressibility: The property by virtue of which the volume of a substance can be decreased by applying force or pressure on it. Gases have high compressibility because of large vacant spaces between the molecules of a gas.
Fluidity: It is the property by virtue of which the molecules of one substance can flow from one point to another. Liquids and gases possess fluidity.
Filling a gas container: A gas fills the container because there are negligible attractive forces between the molecules of a gas and the molecules of a gas move with very high velocities in all possible directions.
Shape: It is the definite geometrical arrangement of constituent particles of a substance. Solids have definite shapes.
Kinetic energy: It is the energy possessed by a particle due to its motion.
Density: Density of a substance is the mass per unit volume. Its units are g/cc or kg/m³.

Question 7.
Give reasons:
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which if is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same in solid block of wood we need a Karate expert.
Answer:
(a) This is because in a gas the attractive forces between the molecules are negligible and molecules of a gas move with very high speeds in all possible directions.
(b) This is due to the hits or bombardments of the molecules of a gas against the walls of a container.
(c) This is because it has a definite mass, volume and shape.
(d) This is because in air, the attractive forces between the particles are negligible but in a solid block of wood, there are large attractive forces between the constituent particles.

Question 8.
Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.
Answer:
Ice floats over water because ice has lower density than liquid water. This is because in ice for a given mass volume is more as compared to in liquid water.

Question 9.
Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale:
(a) 300 K
(b) 573 K?
Answer:
(a) 300 K = 300 – 273 = 27°C.
(b) 573 K = 573 – 273 = 300°C.

Question 10.
What is the physical state of water at:
(a) 250°C
(b) 100°C?
Answer:
(a) Gas
(b) Gas

Question 11.
For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state?
Answer:
This is because the heat supplied is used to overcome the attractive forces between the particles i.e., there is change in potential energy.

Question 12.
Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
Answer:
The atmospheric gases can be liquefied by cooling under pressure.

Question 13.
Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?
Answer:
On a hot dry day due to increase in temperature and lesser humidity the evaporation of water will be faster.

Question 14.
How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?
Answer:
This is because the water comes out from the pores of earthen pot (matka) and it evaporates. Due to evaporation it causes cooling.

Question 15.
Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
Answer:
This is because the particles of acetone or petrol or perfume gain energy from our palms and surroundings and evaporate causing cooling.

Question 16.
Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?
Answer:
Because a saucer provides more surface area than a cup for evaporation of liquid into vapour and it causes a more cooling effect.

Question 17.
What type of clothes should we wear in summer?
Answer:
White cotton clothes.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

January 10, 2024January 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Population

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Population Textbook Questions and Answers

Map Work :

Question 1.
Show in the outline map of India :
(i) State and Union territory with highest population.
(ii) State and Union territory with lowest population.
(iii) State and UTs with population density more than 1000 per square km.
(iv) State and UTs with population density less than 100 per square km.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of India Map.

Question 2.
(i) Prepare a chart of occupational structure of Punjab with the help of your teacher and put on the wall of your classroom.
Answer:Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.
(ii) Prepare a chart of sex ratio of Punjab (district wise) and discuss with your subject teacher.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Objective Type Questions :

Question 1.
Which state has highest population as per census 2011 among the followings :
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Bengal
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(6) Bihar.

Question 2.
Shifting the place of the residence is known as :
(a) Dwelling
(b) Independence
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Migration.
Answer:
(d) Migration.

Question 3.
What percentage of Population was agricultural workers in Punjab as per census 2011?
(a) 35.5
(b) 40.5
(c) 30.5
(d) 27.5
Answer:
(a) 35.5.

Question 4.
What is meant by female foeticide?
Answer:
Killing of female foetus in the womb of mother is called female foeticide. It reduces sex ratio in the country.

Question 5.
Which factors are necessary to find out the nations socio-economic development?
Answer:
Literally, health, income etc. are the necessary elements to know about the social and economic developoment of the country.

Question 6.
How percentage of increase in population is calculated?
Answer:
It can be calculated by a formula :
\(\frac{\text { No. of Literate persons }}{\text { Total population }}\) × 100

Question 7.
When do we celebrate the World Population Day?
Answer:
World Population Day is celebrated on 11 July.

Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
Write a note on the position of India in terms of population in the world?
Answer:
According to Census survey of 2011, India’s population was 1,21,05,69,5.73 means more than 121 crore. If we look at the expected data of 2016, it has reached upto 132 crores. Presently, the total population of the world is 742 crore. India’s geographical area is 32 Lakh 87 thousand sq. km. and India is at seventh place in the world. But India’s place is second from population’s aspect and around 17.2% people of the world live in India. It means every sixth person in the world is Indian.

Question 2.
The citizen of Punjab shall be on what rank, in terms of density of population, literacy rate and sex ratio.
Answer:

Punjab is at 15th place from populations aspect and its population is 2,77,43,338.
The Density of population in Punjab was 551 persons per sq. km. in 2011 which was 484 persons in 2001.
Sex ratio in India was 1000 : 895 in 2011 which is actually quite less. Child sex ratio in Punjab was 1000 : 846 in 2011.
Punjab’s literacy rate is 75.8% and it holds 15th place in India.

Question 3.
What are the main reasons of migration?
Answer:

Migration in search of employment.
Migration to find land for agriculture.
Migration for religious freedom.
Migration in the hope of more income.
Migration due to some pressure or any other reason.
People migrate for political freedom.
Migration to do marriage.
Rural people migrate to urban areas in search of better facilities.

Question 4.
How do we calculate literacy rate? How Punjab is behind many states in India in terms of literacy rate?
Answer:
According to Census of India, one who can* read and write in any Indian language is a literate person. In 1991, it was decided that children below the age of 7 years will be considered illiterate. This decision was followed even in 2Q01 and 2011 Census. There is a formula to know about literacy rate and this is :
Literacy Rate = \(\frac{\text { No. of Literate persons }}{\text { Total population }}\) × 100

If we look at Punjab’s position in terms of literacy rate then Punjab is at 14th place as its literacy rate is 75.8%. It is quite less in comparison to many other states such as Kerala (94%), Mizoram (91.3%), Goa (88.7%), Tripura (87.2%) etc.

Question 5.
Write a note on the distribution of rural-urban population in Punjab?
Answer:
Total population of Punjab is 2,77,43,338 out of which 1,03, 99,146 persons live in urban areas and 1,73,44,192 persons live in villages. In this way 37.5% people live in towns and 62.5% people live in villages. Urban population in 2001 was 33.9% which increased to 37.5% in 2011. Actually due to many factors, urban population is increasing such as more facilities, more opportunities of education and employment. During this period, there came great urbanisation in Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar district in which 54.8% people live in cities. In Taran Taran, only 12.7% live in urban areas and 87.3% people live in villages. So, we can say that gradually urban population is increasing.

Question 6.
Describe the National Population Policy 2000.
Answer:
While keeping in mind many objectives, Indian Government in 2000, made National Population Policy whose major aims are given below :

Compulsory and free education upto the age of 14 years.
To reduce the number of students who leave their education at primary and secondary level.
To reduce infant mortality rate upto 30 per 1000.
To reduce maternal mortality rate less than 100 per 1,00,000.
To give preference to small family.
To encourage girls to not to marry before the age of 18.
To give stress on delievering children from trained individuals.
To achieve the target of stable population till 2045.

Long Answer Questions :
Answer the following questions in detail :

Question 1.
What are the -specific problems adolescents may face?
Answer:
When a child crosses the age of 10 years, he enters the adolescent age. This age remains till 19 years. In this age, many physical and mental changes come in a child because of which he/she faces many problems which are given below :

Child Marriage. This custom still prevails in many parts of the country and children with less than prescribed age group gets married. It reduces their physical and mental development. They are even unable to get proper education.
Child Labour. A large portion of Indian population still lives below poverty line. That’s why children are forced to do any work to maintain their ‘house. They come under pressure in very early age to earn money when there is a time to take education.
Drug Addiction. In this age, children very quickly adopt a wrong path and many children become drug addicts. Their future gets spoiled.
Inadequate Diet. This is the age when children need good and healthy diet for proper physical and mental development. But due to poverty or any other reason, they are unable to get nutritious diet. It creates an obstacle in their allround development.
Problem of Dropouts from Schools. This is the age when children take education and make their future. But it has been seen many parents withdraw their children from schools even before secondary level. They are forced to earn money which becomes a major problem for them.

Question 2.
Discuss situation of India and Punjab from migration point of view.
Answer:
Population of an area never remains the same. Birth rate and death rate plays an important role in increasing or decreasing population. But migration also plays an important role in this. But question arises that what is Migration? Actually the meaning of migration is when people leave one place to another place to live over there. This mobility or movement can be temporary as well as permanent
1. India’s Position. There is no denying the fact that many Indians migrate to foreign countries. North Indians prefer to migrate to the countries such as U.S.A., Canada, England, Australia, Germany etc. South Indians prefer to migrate to Gulf Countries. Actually everyone wants to earn more money and that’s why they migrate to western countries. The value of currency of western countries is much higher as compared to Indian currency. Consequently, Indians get attracted towards these countries. Doctors, Engineers, I.T. Professionals always try to migrate to earn more money. That’s why many Indians migrate each year to different countries.

2. Punjab’s Position. Like other Indians, Punjabi’s also prefer to mirgrate. A number of males of Jalandhar Doab region have already migrated to western countries and then they took their families with them. Their favourite destinations are Australia, U.S.A. Canada and England. They get attracted towards Dollars and leave no earth and stone to migrate from India.

If Punjabis are migrating to other countries then many people are also coming to Punjab. These are .those migrated labourers who come from the states like U.P. Bihar etc. to earn more money. They either work in industries or in agricultural fields. In 2011, around 21,30,262 people came to Punjab which become 8.7% of the total population of Punjab.

Question 3.
Describe the population density of India.
Answer:
The distribution of population in India is very unequal. According to 2011 census the total population of India is 121 crores and the density of population is 382 persons per sq. kilometre. The density of population varies according to relief, climate and the agricultural productivity of the land. The density of population depends on the amount of rainfall. The areas of sufficient rainfall can support a large number of people.

1. Densely populated areas. These areas have a density of more than 400 persons per sq. kilometre. The high density areas makes a girdle round the Deccan plateau. Right from Satluj-Beas plain to Brahmaputra valley, the density of population is very high.
(а) West Coastal Plain. Kerala has 860 persons per sq. kilometre density of population.
(b) The East Coastal Plain. Tamil Nadu has a density of 555 persons per. sq. kilometre.
(c) The Northern Plain. It includes West Bengal (1028), Bihar (1106) , Uttar Pradesh (829), Punjab (551).
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 1

Factors favouring high density.

Sufficient rainfall
Fertile river valleys and deltas
2 to 3 crops of rice in a year
Healthy climate
Rich in minerals and power resources.

2. Moderately populated areas. These include the areas with a density between 200 to 400 persons per sq. kilometre. These areas are surrounded by Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Haryana (573) Maharashtra (365), Andhra Pradesh (308), Karnataka (349), Gujarat (308), Orissa (270), Goa (394), Assam (398) have a moderate density.

Factors for moderate density.

Agriculture is not developed due to thin and rocky soils.
Rainfall is uncertain
Means of transportation are not developed.
Some areas have high density of population due to irrigation, lava soils and mineral resources.

3. Sparsely Populated Areas. These areas have a density less than 200 persons per sq. kilometre.
(a) North-Eastern India. This region includes Meghalaya (132), Manipur (115), Nagaland (119), Sikkim (86) and Arunachal (17).
(b) Rajasthan Desert. Rajasthan has a density of 200 persons per sq. kilometre.
(c) Western Himalayas. It includes Jammu and Kashmir (124), Himachal Pradesh (123).

Question 4.
Discuss Indian population from health and population fronts.
Answer:
1. Health. Health is considered as one of the important aspect of population structure which affects the development process of a country. Due to continuous government efforts, people’s health is continuely improving. In 1951, death rate was 25 per 1000 but in 201 h, it reduced to 7.9 per thousand. In the same way average age in 1951 was 36.7 years which also increased to 65.2 years in 2011.

This important change came due to many factors such as health of people, security from many diseases, using modern facilities etc. Government has opened up thousands of hospitals, dispensaries, health centres to provide better health services to the people. Even then health is a major cause of concern for us. Per capita calorie consumption is still quite less. A large portion of our population is still unable to get nutritious food. Clean drinking water and basic health facilities are still a distinct reality for large number of people. To remove such problems, a proper population policy is required.

2. Occupation. The percentage of working population in economy is an important indicator of development. Division of population on the basis of different occupations is called occupational structure. People are actually engaged in different occupations which are divided in three parts—primary, secondary and tertiary.
(а) Primary occupations. It includes agriculture, pastoralism, fishing, mining etc.
(b) Secondary occupations. It includes industries, construction etc.
(c) Tertiary occupations. It includes those people who give their services to the people such as administration, banking, insurance sectors etc.

The proportion of people engaged in different occupations is different in developed and developing countries. In developed countries, more people are engaged in secondary and tertiary sectors. But in developing countries, more people are engaged in primary sector. In India, 53% people are engaged in primary sector, 13% in secondary sector and 20% in tertiary sector. During recent times, this number has witnessed a continues change due to development of industrialization and urbanization.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Population Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
India stands at___________place in the world from population point of view.
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Ninth.
Answer:
(a) Second.

Question 2.
How much of India’s population lives in Punjab?
(a) 1.3%
(b) 2.3%
(c) 3.2%
(d) 1.2%.
Answer:
(b) 2.3%.

Question 3.
How much of India’s population lives in rural areas?
(a) 70%
(b) 75%
(c) 78%
(d) 68%.
Answer:
(d) 68%.

Question 4.
Punjab’s densities of population in 2011 was
(a) 888
(b) 944
(c) 551
(d) 933.
Answer:
(c) 551.

Question 5.
In 2011, how many females were there behind every 1000 males?
(a) 943
(b) 933
(c) 939
(d) 894.
Answer:
(a) 943.

Question 6.
Which Indian state has highest density of population?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(b) Bihar.

Question 7.
Which Indian state has least density of population?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Sikkim
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland.
Answer:
(c) Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
What was sex ratio of Punjab in 2011?
(a) 943
(b) 866
(c) 872
(d) 895.
Answer:
(d) 895.

Question 9.
Which Indian district has highest population?
(a) Thane
(b) Uttar Chaubis Pargana
(c) Dibang Ghati
(d) Anjah.
Answer:
(a) Thane.

Question 10.
Which of these is the reason of migration?
(a) Search of employment
(b) Religious Freedom
(c) Political Freedom
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
In 2011, India’s total urban population was ___________
Answer:
35 crore

Question 2.
In rural areas, the percentage of labourers is _________
Answer:
40%

Question 3.
In 2011, India’s density of population was _________ persons per sq.km.
Answer:
382

Question 4.
The percentage of labourers in India is _________
Answer:
37.50

Question 5.
_________ state has maximum percentage of labourers.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh

Question 6.
The population in the age group of 15-65 years is
Answer:
58.4.

True/False :

Question 1.
India holds first place in the world from population point of view.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Population in mountainous and desert regions is quite dense.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
In poor countries, more population comes in the age group of 10-14 years.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
India’s sex ratio is quite less.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Natural growth in population depends upon the difference in birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Density of Population?
Answer:
An average number of people living in square kilometres is known as density of population.

Question 2.
Which is the major factor affecting population distribution in India?
Answer:
Agricultural productivity.

Question 3.
Name any two parts of India with a dense populations.
Answer:
Upper Ganga Valley and Malabar region.

Question 4.
Which areas of India has less density of population?
Answer:
North-eastern states, western Rajasthan, few parts of Gujarat etc.

Question 5.
What are the adverse consequences of increasing population in urban areas?
Answer:
Pressure on available resources and public facilities.

Question 6.
What is meant by sex ratio?
Answer:
Number of females after every 1000 males in any area is called sex-ratio.

Question 7.
What is meant by working population?
Answer:
Working population is that population which is engaged in different occupation to earn money.

Question 8.
What is dependent population?
Answer:
All those children and old age persons come in dependent population who cannot earn and are dependent on working population.

Question 9.
Give reason of decreasing death rate.
Answer:
The spread of health services by the government.

Question 10.
Name the Indian state with least population.
Answer:
Sikkim.

Question 11.
What is the density of population in India?
Answer:
382 persons per sq.km.

Question 12.
What is the density of population in West Bengal?
Answer:
1028 persons per sq.km.

Question 13.
Which state has highest density of population?
Answer:
Bihar.

Question 14.
Which state has highest population in India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 15.
What is density of population in Delhi?
Answer:
11297 persons per sq.km.

Question 16.
What was sex ratio in India in 2011?
Answer:
943 persons after every 1000 males.

Question 17.
Which state in India has highest literacy rate?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 18.
Which state has lowest density of population?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 19.
What is the most important and valuable resource of a country?
Answer:
The people of the country healthy, mentally as well as physically is the biggest natural source of a country.

Question 20.
What were the causes of slow increase in population before independence?
Answer:
The causes of this normal growth are epidemics, wars and famines which increase death rate.

Question 21.
What was the population of India in the year 1901?
Answer:
The population of India was 23,83,96,327 (23.8 Crore) in the year 1901.

Question 22.
What is the population of India in the year 2011?
Answer:
The population of India was 121 crores in the year 2011.

Question 23.
What is rank of India in the world from the point of view of populations?
Answer:
India ranks second in world (after China) in the view of population.

Question 24.
Write the name of the states with highest and lowest population.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh has the highest population (19.9 crore) and Sikkim has the lowest population to (6 lakh) in India.

Question 25.
Name the states which have a population of more than 5 crores.
Answer:
There are 10 states of India in which population is more than 5 crores.

Question 26.
What was the population of Punjab in the year 2011 and what is the rank of Punjab from the population point of view?
Answer:
The population of Punjab was 2.77 crores in the year of 2011 and Punjab ranks 15th in the country in the view of population.

Question 27.
What percentage of population of India lives in Punjab?
Answer:
Almost 2.3 percent of total population of country live in Punjab.

Question 28.
How many cities are there in India with a population of more than one lakh?
Answer:
There are 302 cities in India with the population of more than one lakh.

Question 29.
How much per cent of population of our country live in plains?
Answer:
40% of population of the country lives on the plains.

Question 30.
How much percentage of population of the country lives in villages?
Answer:
More than 68% of population of the country lives in the villages.

Question 31.
What is the average density of population in our country?
Answer:
The average density of population in India is 382 persons per square kilometres.

Question 32.
Name the states having highest and lowest density of population.
Answer:
Bihar is the state with highest density of population (1102) and Arunachal Pradesh is the state with lowest density of population (17) in India.

Question 33.
What is the density of population in Punjab?
Answer:
The density of population is 551 persons per square kilometre in Punjab. Question 34. Which union territory has the highest.density of population? Answer:National Capital Area Delhi has the largest density of population (11297).

Question 35.
Name the elements that determine the age structure.
Answer:
The factors which determine the age structure are :

Fertility
Mortality
Migration.

Question 36.
What is percentage of population that fall in the 0-14 years age group in our country?
Answer:
37.2% of population is found in the country with the age of 0-14 years.

Question 37.
What percentage of population falls in the 15-64 years age group in our country?
Answer:
58.4% of population is found in the country with the age group of 15-65 years.

Question 38.
What do you understand by sex ratio?
Or
What is meant by sex ratio?
Answer:
The number of women per thousand men is sex ratio.

Question 39.
What is sex ratio of the population of the year 2011?
Answer:
The sex ratio is 943 females for 1000 males in India according to 2001 census.

Question 40.
What are the rural and urban sex ratio?
Answer:
The sex ratio is 939 in rural areas and is 894 per thousand men in urban areas in the year of 2011.

Question 41.
Give two reasons decreasing sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Female foeticide and lower status of females in India.

Question 42.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Number of births behind every 1000 persons in a particular area is called birth rate.

Question 43.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Number of deaths behind every 1000 persons in a particular area is called birth rate.

Question 44.
What is migration?
Answer:
When a person leaves his geographical area moves to other area to live is called migration.

Question 45.
What is adolescent age?
Answer:
Age between 10-19 years is called adolescent age.

Question 46.
Give one problem of adolescent age.
Answer:
Many physical changes come in this age and children feel quite awkward.

Question 47.
Why migrant labourers come to India?
Answer:
To earn money by working in industries and in agricultural fields.

Question 48.
From which states did migrant labourers come to Punjab?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal etc.

Question 49.
Which district of India have highest and lowest population?
Answer:
Highest Population: Thane (Maharashtra)- 1,10,60,148 persons.
Lowest Population: Dibang Ghati (Arunachal Pradesh)-8004 persons.

Question 50.
What is literacy rate in India?
Answer:
In 2011, literacy rate in India was 74.04%.

Question 51.
Which district of Punjab has highest sex ratio?
Answer:
Hoshiarpur-1000: 961.

Question 52.
Which district of Punjab has highest literacy rate?
Answer:
Hoshiarpur-84.16%.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Census Survey? Write a note on it.
Answer:
Indian government conducts counting of population after every ten years which is called census survey. In this, information is collected about the age, sex, house, literacy rate etc. First census in India was held in 1872 and after this, census is held in the first year of each decade. The census of 2011 was 15th census survey in which? 2200 crore were spent and 27 lakh officer conducted this survey.

Question 2.
What is the difference between Regional distribution of Population and density of population?
Answer:
Distribution of population refers to a place or area, but density of population refers to a ratio. Distribution reflects a pattern of population. It shows Whether population is scattered or concentrated at a place. But density of population shows size of population ratio between men and land.

Question 3.
What are the factors that affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
Population in India is not evenly distributed many factors are responsible for this.

Fertility of the soil. The states in which there is a large fertile area the density of population is high. U.P. and Bihar are such states.
Amount of rainfall. The density of population is higher in regions of abundant rain. In northern India the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from east to west. The density of population also goes on decreasing in the same direction.
Climate. Wherever the climate is congenial the density of population will be high. In Assam even though there is abundant rainfall but the density of population is low because the climate is unhealthy. The malaria is always there is an epidemic form.
Developed means of transportation. With the development of means of transportation the business makes rapid progress and the density of population increases. The reason for high density of population in U.P., Bihar and West Bengal is the development of means of transportation.

Question 4.
Why is India known as country of villages?
Answer:
There is no doubt that India is a country of-villages.

Most of people live in villages.
3/4th of population lives in rural areas.
There are more than 5 lakh and 50 thousand rural settlements but 71% of urban population lives in 302 towns.
About 40.1% of labourers live in rural areas and 30.2% of labourers live in urban areas.

Question 5.
What are characterisitc features of regional distribution of population?
Answer:
Characteristics :
1. The distribution of population is uneven in India. There is dense population in river valleys and coastal plains. There is space population in hilly, deserts areas and drought affected areas, 16% of the area of the country, in the Northern plains only 3% people of India live. 94% of population lives on an area of 18% in plains. Only 2% population lives on an areas of 6% in Rajasthan.

2. Most of the people live in villages. Only 31% people live in urban areas.

3. A large part of minorities live in sensitive border area. Along the N.W. border of India. Sikhs in Punjab and Muslims in J & K. form a majority community. Along the borders of China and Burma, in the North East, mostly Christians are found. It has created many political economic and social problems.

4. On the one hand, there is concentration of population in river valleys and coastal areas but deserts, hilly areas are sparsely populated. It looks like a demographic divide.

Question 6.
What do you mean by density of population? Tell something about density of population in India.
Answer:
Persons living in a square kilometre is called density of population. How many persons live in a particular area, will be known only by looking at density of population. According to Census survey of 2011, population density in India was 382 persons per sq.km. There are many Indian states where density of population is quite high such as Bihar (1106), West Bengal (1028), Kerala (860), Uttar Pradesh (829), Punjab (551) etc. But there are few states in which there is quite less density of population such as Nagaland (119), Sikkim (86), Mizoram (52), Arunachal Pradesh (17) etc. Delhi’s density of population is 11297 which is highest among all the union Territories.

Question 7.
Write a note on population Growth.
Answer:
Population of a place or a country never remains the same but it changes from time to time. That’s why when positive changes come at a particular place on a particular time, it is called population growth. This population growth can be due to many reasons such as birth rate, death rate, migration of people etc. The population growth of India between 2001 to 2011 was 17.68% and that of Punjab was 13.9%. Population growth can be calculated with a formula :
Population Growth = \(\frac{\text { Pure growth in Ten Years }}{\text { Total population }}\) × 100

Question 8.
Name few factors responsible for population growth.
Answer:
Many factors are responsible for population growth such as:

If birth rate is more than death rate then population increases.
If girls get married at an early age then there is a possibility of population growth.
If climate is positive for life then also there will be an increase in population.
Universality of marriage is also responsible for population growth.

Question 9.
Write a note on Age composition.
Answer:
The process of dividing population of a place, state or country in different age groups is called age composition. Generally, whole of the population is divided in three groups. In first group, people with the age of 0-14 years are included. In the second group, people with the age of 15-84 years are included which is known as working class. Third group includes people with the age of 65 years or above which is known as dependent group. First and third group are dependent upon second group for their needs. Dependency ratio can be expresses with a formula :
Dependency Ratio = \(\frac{\text { No. of children }+\text { No. of old Age people }}{\text { No. of Adults }}\) × 100

Question 10.
What is sex-ratio? Explain sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Number of females behind 1000 males in a particular area is known as sex ratio. In 2011, sex ratio in India was 1000 : 943 means there were 943 females behind every 1000 males. Sex ratio in India was always low. Only Kerala (1084) and Puducherry (1037) has positive sex ratio but it is negative in other states. In Punjab (895) and Haryana (879), it was quite less. If we want to know about the status of women in any society, we must look in for sex ratio of that place. But during last few decades, it is continuely improving due to official efforts.

Question 11.
What are the causes of low sex Ratio in India?
Answer:
The sex ratio of India is 943 per thousand males. There is a general declining trend in sex ratio. The ratio in 1901 was 972. It was declined to 934 in 1981. This decline has been due to social evils in our society.

In our society, female child is neglected. Male population dominates in our society. There is high death rate among females. Death rate is particularly high among married women. Women labour migrates to some mining and industrial centres. It also results in declining sex ratio.

Question 12.
What is the Sex ratio of States of North India?
Answer:
There is an adverse sex ratio in Northern India. The number of females is less than that of males. It is clear from sex ratio in Bihar (916), Rajasthan (926), Punjab (895), U.P. (898), and Haryana (877). (The lowest Sex Ratio in India).

Question 13.
What is the importance of Economic Structure of population?
Answer:
Importance

We come to know the percentage of people engaged in productive \york.
It shows the cultural composition of population which determines the stage of development of a country.
It marks the backward areas of the country so that proper planning can be done.

Question 14.
Why is it necessary to study the structure of population?
Answer:
It is necessary to study the structure of the population of a country due to :
1. We need different components of population such as age structure, sex ratio, occupational structure for the economic and social planning of a country.

2. The different aspects of population have a close relationship with developoment on the one hand. These are affected by population and on the other hand these affect population and development. For example, if the percentage of children and old age people is high in age structure, a country has to spend more on education and health facilities. On the other hand, a high percentage of working age group encourages the economic development of a country.

Question 15.
What are the importance of study of age structure?
Answer:
These are the advantages of study of age structure of population :
1. By determining the 0-14 age group the govt, knows that there is need of expenditure on education, health and social services. So new schools, health centres and community centres are opened.

2. We know the number of eligible voters in the country which is vital for a democracy. There should be 58% voters per age group, but actually there are 60% of voters in the country.

Question 16.
Write about the needs of adolescents in adolescent age.
Answer:

Adolescents must get good and balanced diet.
They must be given proper environment and proper education.
They must be informed about physical changes.
Parents and society must talk with them with great love and affection.
Efforts must be made to save them from drug addiction.
They must be provided with proper guidance for a good future.

Question 17.
What is the role of society, teachers and parents in making future of adolescents?
Answer:

Parents can provide good education and environment to their children to give them a bright future.
Parents can show them the way to make their children better citizens, to remain away drugs etc.
Teachers can motivate their students to become good citizens by giving them proper education.
Social, Religious and Political leaders can motivate their students to move on a right path.

Question 18.
Write a note on gender based structure of Punjab.
Answer:
Punjab’s total population is 2,77,43,338 out of which 1,46,39,465 are males and 1,310,3873 are females. Their sex ratio is 1000 : 895. It means that after every 1000 males, there are 895 females which is quite less. This is 875 in cities and 907 in village which is little bit more in comparison to 2001. Sex ratio of Hoshiarpur district (961) is at the top and then it comes Shaheed Bhagat Singh Nagar (954)), Jalandhar (915) and Roop Nagar (915). Bathinda (868) has the lowest sex ratio. Then it comes the number of Fathegarh Sahib (871). During last decade, this sex ratio has increased due to strict official efforts.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 2

Question 19.
Throw a light on the occupational structure in Punjab.
Answer:
Agriculture is the major occupation of the people of Punjab and that’s why most of the population is engaged in agriculture or related acitvities. Out of total workers of Punjab, 35.5% are engaged in agriculture or related activities 3.9% people are engaged in household industries. Rest of the 60.5% people are engaged in other activities. In the districts of Sri Muktsar Sahib and Mansa, most of the workers are engaged in agriculture but in Ludhiana and Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar, very few people are engaged in agriculture but rest are busy in industrial and service sector. A number of Punjabi’s have migrated to other countries in search of employment.

Question 20.
Give cause of Declining Sex Ratio.
Answer:

People want to have a boy child and they never hesitate to abort the female foetus. It leads to decline in sex ratio.
Sex ratio declines with increase in female foeticide.
Sex ratio declines with the custom of killing new born girls i.e. female infanticide.
Emigration of males from one place to another also leads to decline in sex ratio.
In traditional societies birth of girl is considered as a curse because of which boys are preferred over girls. It also leads to decline in sex ratio.

Question 21.
Give consequences of Declining Sex Ratio.
Answer:

Declining Sex ratio leads to increase in violence against women.
The custom of polyandry encouragement with declining sex ratio.
Declining sex ratio leads to lower social status of women.
Health of women deteriorates with it.
Trade of women also takes place with declining sex ratio.

Question 22.
Which are the states those have high density of population?
Answer:
There is dense population in Northern plains, western coastal plain, Eastern Coastal plain (Deltas). These area have fertile soils and facilities of irrigation. So the population is dense. As we go westward, the rainfall goes on decreasing and the density of population also decreases. That is why the density of population in West Bengal is greater than that in Haryana and Punjab. Kerala has also high density because two or three crops can be grown due to high rainfall.

Question 23.
What are the causes of high density of population in plains?
Answer:
The density of population is high in plains. This is due to :

The Northern plain is fertile.
It has high rainfall.
It has many big industrial centres.
The means of transport are developed.
Coastal plain has the facilities of fishing and foreign trade.

Question 24.
What are the areas of low density of population?
Answer:
Thar Desert, Eastern Himalayas and Chotta Nagpur plateau are sparsely populated areas.

The soils are infertile or sandy or stony.
The means of transport are not developed.
The climates is not healthy. It is either too hot or too cold. Himalayas get heavy rainfall.
Industries are not developed in these areas except Chotta Nagpur plateau.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the state wise structure of sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Sex ratio means the number of females per 1000 males. Now a days, women have equal rights with men. In developed countries, the number of women is equal to number of men. In some countries sex ratio is 1050. The average sex ratio in developing countries is 964. In India, in 2011, sex ratio was 940, and is one of the lowest in the world.

State-wise sex ratio. Sex ratio is not uniform in all states. Only one state, Kerala, has sex ratio of 1084 and Puducherry (1036) (Above the average). In other states, sex ratio is less than average.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 3
It is clear that Northern States have low sex ratio and it is a matter of concern.

Question 2.
List factors influencing distribution of population.
Answer:
The following factors influence the distribution of population :
1. Fertility of the soil. The states in which there is a large fertile area, the density of population is high. U.P. and Bihar are such states.

2. Amount of rainfall. The density of population is higher in regions of abundant rain. In northern India, the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from east to west. The density of population also goes on decreasing in the same direction.

3. Climate. Wherever the climate is congenial, the density of population will be high, In Assam even though there is abundant rainfall but the density of population is low because the climate is unhealthy. The malaria is always in an epidemic form.

4. Developed means of transportation. With development of means of transportation the business makes rapid progress and the density of population increases. The reason for high density of population in U.P., Bihar and West Bengal is the development of means of transportation.

5. Industrial development. At places where the factories are located, the density of population also increases. The reason is that people like to live in those areas where industrial development takes place. They can carry on their business more easily in such areas, and they have better chances of earning more money. That is why the density of population is high in Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata.

Question 3.
Write an essay on problem of population increase in India and also enlighten the solution to this problem.
Answer:
India’s population is growing rapidly, and creating some problems.
1. Low standard of living. Indian people have low standard of living as compared that of Europeans. About 48% people live below poverty line. They do not have full meals. It results in low production capacity.

2. Deforestation. The forests are cleared rocklessly to meet the growing needs. It has resulted in problems of soil erosion floods, pollution and loss of forest- wealth.

3. Lack of pastures. India has only 4% land under pastures. If this land is used for other purposes, it will result in shortage of fodder for cattles.

4. Pressure on population. Land is a limited source and cannot be increased. It is leading a pressure of population on land. It will decrease the productivity of the land.

5. Lack of minerals. Industries are developed to meet the growing needs of people. So more minerals are used. These reserves will exhaust soon.

6. Environment. Population growth has an adverse effect on environment. Clear water and air is a problem. Oxygen is also decreasing.

Solutions:

Family planning should be adopted,
People should be explained the significance of small families by films, songs, plays,
Illiteracy should be abolished so that people should understand harms of growing population.
Female education should be increased, marriageable age of girls be increased.

Question 4.
Write a note on population distribution in Punjab.
Answer:
Punjab’s total population is 2,77,43,338 and this population lives in 12,581 villages and 217 big small cities. Few areas of Punjab has more concentration of population and few areas have less concentration. Cities like Ludhiana and Amritsar have more population i.e. 16 Lakhs and 11 Lakhs respectively. But the population of few cities is in thousands. On the basis of population density Punjab can be divided in four parts and these are :
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 5
1. Areas with less density of population. In first category, those districts are included where population density is less than 400 persons per square kilometre. Sri Muktsar Sahib is included in this category whose population density is 348 which is quite less than other districts.

2. Moderate density of population. Those districts are included in this category which has a population density of 401-500 persons per sq. km. It includes many districts such as Taran Taran, Hoshiarpur, Faridkot, Shaheed Bhagat Singh Nagar, Moga, Faridkot, Barnala, Bathinda, Sangrur, etc.

3. More density of population. The third category includes the districts of Patiala, Fatehgarh Sahib, and Roop Nagar where the density of population is between 501-600 persons per sq. km.

4. Extreme Density of population. It includes such districts whose density of population is more than 600 persons per sq. km. The districts of Amritsar, Gurdaspur, Ludhiana, Jalandhar, Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar are included in this category. Ludhiana’s density of population is 978 which is the highest in Punjab. Then comes the number of Amritsar (928) Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar (909) and Jalandhar (836).

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

January 10, 2024January 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following quotes carefully and answer the given questions : The Indian Republic is a large country with a large geographical spread. India is a distinct geographical unit, in which a distinct culture has developed. It is the seventh largest country in the world. Where as in terms of population, it ranks second in the world after China. It is clear from this that 17.5% (2011 data) population is on 2.4% of the total geographical area of the world. On the northern border of China, there are mountain ranges of the Great Himalayas which extend parallel to each other. She makes India a separate territory from Asia. The vast fertile plains of the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers provide food security to our country. The peninsular plateau is a storehouse of natural minerals. Surrounded by many major rivers, lakes and vast oceans on all three sides of the world, India holds the status of an independent landform or subcontinent.
(A) What is the place in the world in terms of area and population of India?
Answer:
India ranks seventh in the world in terms of area. In terms of population, India is second.

(B) Why is India called the sub-continent?
Answer:
India is located to the South of the continent of Asia. Part of Asia is a distinct geographical entity. It is separated from the rest of Asia by the Himalayan mountains. India has been given the status of a sub-continent due to its’ features. The Indian sub-continent consists of countries other than India including Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives etc.

Question 2.
Plains of Punjab-Haryana-These plains are spread over an area of about 640 Kilometres from northwest to south-east. Their average width is up to 300 km. The total area of this ground is up to 1.75 lakh km. This plain is made up of alluvial deposits of Indus and its tributaries: Sutlej, Beas and Ravi. There are five Doabs of this ground, including Bist Doab (Beas and Sutlej), Bari Doab (Beas and Ravi), Rachna Doab (Ravi and Chenab), Chaj Doaba (Chenab and Jehlum) and Sindh-Sagar Doab (Jehlum, Chenab and Sindhu (middle) area of the river).
(A) Write about the extension of the plain of Punjab-Haryana?
Answer:
The plain of Punjab-Haryana has spread about 640 km from North-West to South-East. Its average width is 300 km. Its total area is 1.75 lakh square kilometres.

(B) How did these plains become? Write the names of its doabs.
Answer:
This plain is formed by the accumulation of alluvium of Indus and its tributaries; Sutlej, Beas and Ravi. There are five Doabs of this plain, Bist Doab (Beas and Sutlej), Bari Doab (Beas and Ravi), Rachna Doab (Ravi and Chenab), Chaj Doab (Chenab and Jehlum) and Sindh-Sagar Doab (Jehlum, Chenab and Indus River of middle area.)

Question 3.
The plains of the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers are one of the largest plains in the world. These plains are about 2,400 km long and 150 to 130 km wide. These plains are made of alluvial soil. In millions of years, this fertile plain has been created due to the deposition of alluvium in a very large basin situated in Giripad, Himachal. Many plains are also built-in these plains such as Alluvial fans, alluvial cone, crooked or meandering rivers, natural leaves, flood plains etc. Most of the Terai Region of Punjab, Uttarakhand has been cut into forests and made into arable land.
(A) How was India’s vast northern plains formed?
Answer:
The vast plains of India have been formed by the deposition of alluvial soil brought by the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. These deposits occurred in a huge basin in Girpad in the Himalayas.

(B) Name the main landforms of these plains.
Answer:
Many landscapes are found in these plains, like alluvial fans, alluvial cone, meanders, crooked or erosive flow, rivers, natural leaves, flood plains etc. Most of the Terai Region of Punjab, Uttarakhand has been cut into forests and made into arable land.

Question 4.
A network of rivers and canals flowing in an area is called water flow. Nature has given India hundreds of big and small rivers. It is very important for students to understand some facts related to water flow, such as Doab, water separator and drainage pattern etc. The area between the two rivers is called Doab. Any elevated area, such as a mountain or high land that divides two water streams, is called a water divide. The water flowing over any part of the earth creates many different forms which are called drainage forms.
(A) What is the meaning of water flow?
Answer:
The network of rivers and canals flowing in an area is called water flow. This means that the network of all the rivers or canals flowing in a particular area is called water flow.

(B) Who is called Doab?
Answer:
The area between two rivers is called Doab. This means that the area or plain between two rivers is called Doab.

(C) Explain the meaning of water divide.
Answer:
The elevated area, such as a mountain or a high land that divides two water streams is called a water divide.

Question 5.
Rivers have been of great importance throughout human history. The Indus Valley civilization is an example of this. Water has attracted humans since ancient times. Our life depends on water only. The survival or absence of population is dependent on water. Folk songs, stories, folk-dances, agriculture are all dependent on water. Water is the most important natural resource. For livelihood, water is very important everywhere in agriculture, irrigation, hydroelectric construction, industiral area, construction and homes. Internal water ways are possible only due to rivers.
(A) What is the importance of rivers in our life?
Answer:

Rivers give us drinking water. This water is purified to make it potable.
Many multipurpose projects are put on these rivers which not only provide electricity but also provide water for irrigation.
Many civilizations flourish on the banks of these rivers. Indus valley civilization is an example of this.
Rivers bring alluvial soil from the mountains in which our plains become fertile.

(B) What is an internal waterway?
Answer:
Many rivers flow in India and many of these rivers go and merge in some sea. But there are some rivers that cannot reach the sea and dissolve on the way. All these are called internal waterways.

Question 6.
Human life is greatly influenced by climate. Man is completely subject to climate at every stage of life, including food, clothes, design of homes, health work, employment etc. In cold climate regions, hot things are used in food such as tea, coffee and hot food. Colder substances like lassi, ice, sorket etc. are used more, in countries with hot climate. Warm clothes such as coats, sweaters (Woollen garments), jackets, blankets etc. are used in cold countries. Homes are open and ventilated in areas with hot climates. The roofs of houses in hilly areas are sloping. Fruits like apples, almonds, cherries in cold winter. Climate and crops of sugarcane, cotton, rice, jute etc. are grown in hot climatic regions.
(A) How is human life affected by climate?
Answer:
Human life is greatly influenced by climate such as:

Our food habits are affected by climate such as hot things are eaten in cold areas,
Our clothes are also affected by climate such as wearing warm clothes in cold areas,
The structure and size of our houses are also affected by climate such that houses in hot areas are open and ventilated,
People living in cold and mountainous areas are physically stronger.

(B) Which crops grow in cold and hot climate areas?
Answer:

Fruits like apple, almond, cherry are grown in cold climate areas.
Crops like cotton, sugarcane, rice, wheat, jute etc. are grown in areas with hot climate.

Question 7.
Natural vegetation is a boon for humans or for the provincial economy. There is an acute need for its protection and development. We are aware that the situation of Punjab in this region is not favourable as only 6.07 percent of the forests are found here. The other part of the ground is being used’for the development of agriculture, industry, roads and railways, villages and cities. In terms of population, the area of Punjab is much less than the average of the country. The state’s population and pollution rate are constantly increasing. Therefore, there is a great need to increase the area under vegetation. To accomplish this goal, more and more trees should not be planted in the arable land.
(A) What is the benefit of natural vegetation to us?
Answer:

We get oxygen from natural vegetation which gives us clean air.
We get many types of wood from natural vegetation which makes our furniture.
Many types of herbs are found from natural vegetation which are used in making many types of medicines.
There is no land degradation due to natural vegetation.

(B) Why should we increase the area of natural vegetation?
Answer:

We should increase natural vegetation to increase fresh air.
It is necessary to increase the forests to meet its wood requirements.
It is necessary to increase the area of natural vegetation to save land degradation.
To give good life to the coming generations, natural vegetation needs to be more and more.

Question 8.
If we want to live our life comfortably and think the same for future generations then we should protect our forests properly. Planting of plants is called afforestation. We can plant saplings or barren land or non-agricultural land without converting them into forests. You can improve the deteriorating state of forests by planting 311 social forests, agricultural forests, commercial forests. The government should make every effort to awaken the people regarding the importance of forests and cooperation for their protection. Laws should be strictly enforced by the Forest Department and punish the culprits for cutting down trees, either illegally or without adopting the right method.
(A) What are the benefits of forests?
Answer:

Forests control the climate compact, forests prevent temperature rise in summer and increase the temperature in winter.
The roots of dense forests help in reducing the speed of flowing water, thus reducing the speed of flowing water, thus reducing the outbreak of floods.
The roots of trees strengthen the soil tightness and prevent soil erosion.
The soil gets green manure in the form of bacteria due to dry leaves falling.

(B) How can we save the dwindling forests?
Answer:

We can imporove the deteriorating state of forests continuously by dividing forests into different parts.
People should be awakened from time to time for the benefits and care of the forests.
Cutting of forests should be declared as a legal offence and strict punishment should be given to those who cut down trees without proper law.
People should be constantly encouraged to plant new trees.

Question 9.
In our country, the girl is worshipped on one side and on the other side, she tries to take away her right to live. But now the time has come when we have to get rid of the priority of men and children have to understand the gift of nature without any gender discrimination. In future, we can not imagine a society without women. Misconceptions about women need to be changed. By punishing the guilty, the law has to be strictly enforced. We must end shameful and illegal acts such as female feticide and forced abortions.
(A) What is the meaning of female feticide?
Answer:
When it is found out about a pregnant woman that she is having a daughter in her womb, she is killed in the womb or the woman is miscarried. This process is called female feticide.

(B) Why female feticide is done?
Answer:

Dowry has to be given at the time of marriage of the girl. That’s why people don’t want girls. So they commit female feticide.
It is written in religious texts that to attain liberation one must have a boy. So they kill the female fetus.
Use of modern techniques has promoted female feticide.
People also commit female feticide in order to gain respect in society.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 10 Coping with Stress

January 8, 2024January 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 10 Coping with Stress Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 10 Coping with Stress

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Coping with Stress InText Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 58

Question 1.
Am I also Stressed?

Statements	Yes/always	Sometimes	Never
My friends tell me that I worry a lot.
When I am stressed I get very angry and frustrated.
I suffer from examination fever.
I keep wondering what others will say about me.
I have a stomachache before going to school.
I find more work to do in less time.
I can’t concentrate on my work due to nervousness.
I have a headache for no reason.
On being anxious I get nervous and sweat a lot.
I worry about the future.
I can’t take sleep before the exam.
I feel dizzy while answering the questions of the teacher.

Answer:

Statements	Yes/always	Sometimes	Never
My friends tell me that I worry a lot.		✓
When I am stressed I get very angry and frustrated.		✓
I suffer from examination fever.		✓
I keep wondering what others will say about me.	✓
I have a stomachache before going to school.
I find more work to do in less time.			✓
I can’t concentrate on my work due to nervousness.		✓
I have a headache for no reason.		✓
On being anxious I get nervous and sweat a lot.		✓
I worry about the future.	✓
I can’t take sleep before the exam.		✓
I feel dizzy while answering the questions of the teacher.			✓

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Guide Coping with Stress Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. ………………. is a condition that is not according to the expectation of our mind and body.
(a) Stress
(b) Happiness
(c) Hardness
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Stress

2. Why does any student comes in stressed?
(a) Family atmosphere
(b) Relations with friends
(c) Future tension
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

3. Which of these is a type of stress?
(a) Good
(b) bad
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) No one.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

4. What is the advantage of good stress?
(a) Motivates to do work
(b) Helps in Concentrating
(c) Helps in moving forward
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

5. What is the loss of bad stress?
(a) Becomes an obstacle in work
(b) Unable to concentrating
(c) Feeling dizziness
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

6. Which of these diseases is caused by stress?
(a) Heartbeat increases
(b) Headache
(c) Anger
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

7. ……………. can have a bad effect on our behavior, physical and mental health.
(a) Stress
(b) Vomiting
(c) Liquor
(d) No one
Answer:
(a) Stress

8. Which of these diseases is caused by stress?
(a) AIDS
(b) Heart disease
(c) cancer
(d) No one
Answer:
(b) Heart disease

9. Stress reduces our …………….. strength.
(a) physical
(b) Mental
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) No One
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

10. Which of these is a bad aspect of stress?
(a) An individual stops doing work.
(b) He is suffered from many diseases
(c) An individual runs from responsibility
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

11. How can we stay away from stress?
(a) Be positive
(b) Develop any habit
(c) Give preference to work
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Stress can be as well as for us.
Answer:
good, bad

2 causes heart disease to an individual.
Answer:
Stress

3. Stress is an aspect of our life.
Answer:
natural

4. Students face many in their life.
Answer:
problems

5. We must remain to stay away from stress.
Answer:
positive

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (x) Statement:

1. Fatigue comes due to stress.
Answer:
✓

2. Stress has no effect on our mental health.
Answer:
x

3. Students are under stress of getting more marks.
Answer:
✓

4. An individual feels dizziness because of stress.
Answer:
✓

5. One is unable to concentrate on his work due to stress.
Answer:
✓

Match the following:

(A)	(B)
Stress	Stay away from stress
Heart disease	Dizziness
Student	Stress
Removal of stress	Fear of marks
Develop a hobby	Positive thinking

Answer:

(A)	(B)
Stress	Dizziness
Heart disease	Stress
Student	Fear of marks
Removal of stress	Positive thinking
Develop a hobby	Stay away from stress

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is Stress?
Answer:
Any situation which is not according to the expectations of our mind is called stress. ‘

Question 2.
How pan stress is reduced?
Answer:
By understanding its cause and finding the solution, stress can be reduced.

Question 3.
Why do we become stressed?
Answer:
When we start considering any problem as pressure, we become stressed.

Question 4.
Give one reason for stress.
Answer:
We come in stressed when our aspirations are not fulfilled.

Question 5.
How do we come in stress whom compared with others?
Answer:
When we observe that others are becoming more successful, we come in stressed.

Question 6.
What is the impact of stress on an individual?
Answer:
Stress weakens our physical and mental state.

Question 7.
What disease is caused by stress?
Answer:
Stress causes heart disease and blood pressure can go up.

Question 8.
What is the wrong aspect of stress?
Answer:
It stops us from doing work and never lets us fulfill our responsibilities.

Question 9.
Why do students come under stress?
Answer:
The fear of failure, getting fewer marks, not getting the first position in class, etc. are the causes because of which students come under stress.

Question 10.
What should we do to reduce stress?
Answer:
Slowly close your eyes, open eyes after five minutes, or take deep breaths to reduce stress.

Question 11.
How can students reduce stress?
Answer:
By doing morning walks or by doing yoga, students can reduce stress.

Question 12.
How can we increase the concentration of the mind?
Answer:
Close your eyes, relax your body and try to focus on a particular thing. It helps in increasing concentration.

Question 13.
How many types of stress are there?
Answer:
Stress is of two types – good or bad.

Question 14.
What is the advantage of good stress?
Answer:
It motivates us to do work, helps in concentration of mind and to develop in life.

Question 15.
What is the loss of bad stress?
Answer:
It becomes an obstacle in work, cannot let us focus on work and an individual feels dizzy.

Question 16.
On what stress can have a bad effect?
Answer:
Stress can have a bad effect on our behavior, physical and mental health.

Question 17.
How can we stay away from stress?
Answer:
We can stay away from stress with the help of stress management.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on the condition of stress.
Answer:
Stress is a type of situation which is not according to our mind. It is a situation of mind which we consider a burden. For example, if we become late in doing any work, we come in stressed. Stress can create positive as well as negative conditions for an individual. If we come to know about the reason for stress, we can easily find its solution. But if we are unable to find the reason, the problem becomes a burden for us. It depends upon us that how can we take stress as a helper or a problem.

Question 2.
Give four reasons for stress.
Answer:

We have many aspirations and if they are not fulfilled, we come under stress.
Few people have a natural tendency to remain under stress.
People are under pressure at work and become victims of their boss’s anger. That’s why they come in stressed.
The family situation of many individuals is not good and they always remain in tension.

Question 3.
What are the effects of stress?
Answer:

Stress weakens our physical and mental strength and heartbeat fastens as well.
He can’t sleep and starts sweating more. He gets fat. Many diseases can be caused such as stomachache, headache, heart disease, increase in blood pressure, etc.
We lose a lot of energy in fighting the diseases and we are not able to relieve stress.
The worst part of stress is that it lets us run away from our responsibilities and prevents us from working.

Question 4.
What can students do to avoid stress?
Answer:

We can play with our family members and friends to reduce stress.
They can go out for outings in the natural environment to reduce tension.
We can work with family members, cooperate with them, help them in removing tension.
They can go out for a morning walk, do yoga and take a balanced diet to reduce stress.

Question 5.
Discuss types of Stress.
Answer:
Stress is of two types and these are good stress and bad stress. Good stress can have many advantages such as it motivated us to do work, it helps us in concentrating on particular things and helps in to move forward. Bad stress can have many losses such as if it remains there for a long time, it becomes an obstacle in the way of our work, it never let us concentrate and we feel dizziness.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What are the reasons for stress?
Answer:

We come in stressed due to our family situations or neighborhood conditions.
If anyone is treated by peers about our short stature or any part of the body, one can come under stress.
One can come under stress due to adverse circumstances in the country.
We have many aspirations and if they are not fulfilled, we Come under stress.
Few people naturally remain under stress.
Few people are under the pressure of work and due to pressure from management, they remain under stress.
If anyone is suffered from any disease or someone has taken a loan from anyone, he remains under stress.
We come in stressed if we are compared with others.

Question 2.
Which diseases are caused by stress?
Answer:
Stress can cause many diseases such as :

Anger
Fatigue
Irritability
Depression
Constantly running of a particular thought
Dizziness
Indigestion
Headache
Weight gain or loss
Nail-biting
Eating more or less
Increased heartbeat
Difficulty in concentration
Increased or reduced sleep
Excessive sweating due to nervousness
Unwillingness to do work.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow :
Dear children, the most interesting thing about stress is that it can be avoided and that too by adopting some simple methods. The important thing here is that stress management is more focused on learning how to deal with stress without harming ourselves than on the ways to eliminate it. Just as the effects of stress vary from person to person, in the same way each person has a unique way to deal with it. However, today we will talk about some common techniques that will help you in your student life.

1. What is Stress?
Answer:
Stress is our physical or mental response to changes in the environment or challenging situations.

2. Is everyone coming under stress?
Answer:
Yes, everyone comes under stress. No matter you are a child, an adult or in old age, everyone comes under stress.

3. What should we do when we are under stress?
Answer:
We must do stress management means we must find methods to reduce or remove tension or stress.

4. Which techniques can be used to reduce stress?
Answer:
Many techniques can be used to reduce stress such as taking deep breaths, closing your eyes and focus, remaining positive, etc.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

January 10, 2024January 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Climate Textbook Questions and Answers

Map Work :

Question 1.
Show on the outline map of India :
(i) Direction of Summer Monsoons.
(ii) Direction of Winter Monsoons.
(iii) Two regions receiving more than 200 cm. rainfall.
(iv) Two regions receiving rainfall between 100-200 cm.
(v) Two regions receiving rainfall between 50-100 cm.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of India Map.

Question 2.
Class Activity :
(i) Check in the newspapers of March, which regions of Punjab got more than average rainfall. Discuss in your class, the effect of rainfall over underground water, with help of your teacher.
(ii) Note the timings of sunrise and sunset with the help of newspapers in the month of August and discuss ‘Position of Sun and Earth’ with the help of your teacher.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Objective Type Questions :
Answer the following questions in a single word to one sentence length :

Question 1.
What is the reason of winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu?
(a) South-West Monsoon
(b) North-East Monsoon
(c) Local reasons
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) North-East Monsoon.

Question 2.
Which city among the following gets maximum average rainfall?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Dharamshala
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Kolkata.
Answer:
(c) Mawsynram.

Question 3.
Which among the following is reason for winter rainfall in Punjab?
(a) Trade winds
(b) Western cyclone
(c) Polar winds.
(d) Mountains
Answer:
(b) Western Cyclone

Question 4.
‘Tsunami’ is a word from which language?
(a) French
(b) Japanese
(c) Punjabi
(d) English.
Answer:
(b) Japanese.

Question 5.
Lines joining places with equal rainfall in a map are known as?
(a) Isotherms
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isobars
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Isohyets.

Question 6.
What is Loo?
Answer:
Loo is a local wind. It is very hot and dry wind which blows during the day time in Northern India.

Question 7.
What is climatology called in Punjabi?
Answer:
Mausam Vighaan.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘Monsoon’?
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ is said to be derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ meaning season. Monsoon winds are those seasonal or periodic winds which change their direction with the season.

Question 9.
What is the relationship of temperature and pressure?
Answer:
They have quite deep relation with each other. Increase in temperature leads to low air pressure and decrease in temperature leads to high air pressure.

Question 10.
Name the places with minimum and maximum rainfall in India.
Answer:
Places with highest rainfallMawsynram, Cherrapunji.
Places with lowest rainfall – Western Rajasthan, Kutch region of Gujarat, Ladakh region in Jammu and Kashmir.

Short Answer Questions :
Give short answer for the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain difference between weather and climate.
Answer:

Weather	Climate
1. Weather stands for actual atmospheric conditions for a short period (a day or a week).	1. Climate is the aggregate of atmospheric conditions for a longer period (say 30-50 years).
2. The weather changes from daytoday thus, cannot be generalised.	2. The climate is everlasting and static. It does not change so frequently.
3. Weather depends upon the dominant element at a particular time say Rainfall, temperature etc.	3. Climate is the composite picture of all the elements spread over a longer period.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Ferrel’s law?
Answer:
Coriolis force is an artifact of the earth’s rotation. Once air has been set in motion by the pressure gradient force, it undergoes an apparent deflection from its path, as seen by an observer on the earth. This apparent deflection is called the coriolis force and is a result of the earth’s rotation. As air moves from high to low pressure in the northern hemisphere, it is deflected to the right by the coriolis force. In the southern hemisphere, air moving from high to low pressure is deflected to the left by the coriolis force.

Question 3.
Indian rainfall is neither systemic nor specific. Explain.
Answer:
Indian rainfall is irregular and uncertain. It will be clear by the given ahead points :
1. Summer monsoon is the rain-bringer in India. The weather in S.W. monsoons is highly variable. It does not rain continuously throughout the period of summer monsoons. There are frequent ‘breaks’ or spells of dry weather, some of them lasting several days. This breaks the continuity of rain by S.W. monsoons.

2. The summer monsoons do not have great amount of moisture to give heavy rainfall. The amount of rainfall is increased by tropical depressions, convectional system, and jet stream. These cyclones are irregular and have a fluctuating pattern. The frequency of these cyclones determines the height of rainy season. The absence of these leads to a dry spell.

3. The number of rainy days sometimes increase and sometimes decrease. Some years, it is heavy rainfall, but some years get light rainfall. The start and end of monsoons is early or late. Some areas get high rainfall some areas remain dry.

Question 4.
What is the difference between wind vane and Anemometer?
Answer:
1. Wind Vane. A wind vane is an instrument for showing the direction of the wind. A typical wind vane has a pointer in front and fins in back. When the wind is blowing, the wind vane points into the wind. Reading the wind vane is easy. Whichever direction the fin is pointing will indicate where the wind is coming from.

2. Anemometer. An anemometer is a device used for measuring the speed of wind; and is also a common weather station instrument. It consists of four hemispherical cups mounted on horizontal arms, which are mounted on a vertical shaft. The air flow’past the cups in any horizontal direction turns the shaft at a rate that is roughly proportional to the wind speed. So, counting the turns of the shaft over a set time period produced a value proportional to the average wind spreed for a wide range of speeds.

Question 5.
Write a note on winter rainfall in India.
Answer:
The north plains of India receive winter rainfall ranging between 20 and 50 mm. This rainfall is caused due to the invasion of westerm disturbances (Cyclones). These cyclones originate in West Asia and the Mediterranean Sea. The westerly jet streams steers these cyclones into India during winter. The north west plains get rainfall and the hilly areas get snowfall. In the sameway Tamil Nadu also gets winter rainfall due to retreating monsoon and by the North East monsoon during the winter.

Question 6.
Orographic rainfall is a typically mountainous phenomenon. Explain.
Answer:
Orographic rainfall is produced when moist air is lifted as it moves over a mountain range. As the air rises and cools, orographic clouds form and serve as the source of the precipitation, most of which falls upwind of the mountain ridge. Some also falls a short distance downwind of the ridge and is sometimes called spillover. Because this type of rainfall comes due to mountains, that’s why it comes only in the mountainous region.

Question 7.
Write a note on :
(i) Jet stream,
Answer:
Jet stream. A jet stream is a fast flowing wind blowing in narrow zone in the upper atmosphere. The Himalayas divide the jet stream into two parts. A westerly jet stream is placed south of the Himalayas in the winter season. An easterly jet stream is developed at about 25°N in summer. It is believed to be responsible for the sudden outbreak of Monsoons in the Northern India. This is responsible for widespread storms, thunders and rainfall over India in just 8 to 10 days.

(ii) Isotherms,
Answer:
Isotherm. Isotherm are the line drawn on a map or chart joining points with the same temperature. Isotherms are commonly used in meteorology to show the distribution of temperature at the earth’s surface or on a chart indicating constant level or constant pressure.

(iii) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
Answer:
Dry and wet bulb thermometer. It is an instrument used to measure the relative humidity of the atmosphere. It consists of a thermometer with a bulb that is wet or moist and one that is kept dry. The relative humidity is calculated from the difference in readings of the thermometers when water evaporated from the wet bulb, decreasing its temperature. Humidity in the air is always given in percentage.

Question 8.
Natural calamities cause loss of‘life and property’. In this statement what do you mean by ‘life and property’?
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that whenever any natural disaster occurs, it often leads to the loss of life and property. Here the meaning of life is many people die with the disaster. The meaning of property is many cattle and birds die along with loss of lots of money.

Long Answer Questions :
Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
On what factors does climate of a place depend?
Answer:
The climate of India is mainly based on the following, facts:
1. Latitude. The places which are situated near the equator have high temperature whereas the places away from the equator do not have high temperature.

2. Altitude. The higher you go, the cooler it is. That is why the mountainous regions are cooler than plains.

3. Distance from the sea. The places near the sea have equable climate. Neither the summers are very hot nor the winters are cold, whereas in the parts away from the sea, the summers are hot and winters are cold.

4. Winds. The winds have a great affect on the climate of India. The winds coming from the sea are full of moisture and they cause heavy rain. On the other hand, the winds that come from the land are dry winds and cause no rain.

5. Direction of the mountains. Wherever the mountains are located in the way of the winds, the winds are forced to rise against the mountains and cause rainfall. For example, when the moisture laden monsoon winds strike against Himalayas they cause heavy rain in West Bengal and Assam. On the other hand, the Aravah mountains run parallel to the direction of the monsoon that blow from the Arabian Sea and there is no rain in Rajasthan.

6. Nature of the soil. Sand gets heated and cooled quickly. The land is sandy in Rajasthan. That is why, the temperature is of extreme type there.

7. Slope of the land. If the land slopes towards the sun the rays of the sun will fall vertically and the temperature will be high. On the contrary if the land slopes away from the sun the rays of the sun will be slanting and the temperature will be low.

8. Forests. The regions with dense forests receive heavy rain, because the winds blowing over these forests gain moisture from the leaves of the trees, lose temperature and cause rain.

Question 2.
Explain the types of rainfall in detail.
Answer:
There are mainly three types of rainfall and these are :

Convectional Rainfall
Orographic Rainfall
Cyclonic Rainfall.

1. Convectional Rainfall. On equator, sunrays fall directly throughout the year and that’s why this area remains hot throughout the time.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 1
Due to lot of heat, air pressure reduces to a great extent. When the land warms up, it heats the air above it.
This causes the air to expand and rise. As the air rises, it cools and condenses. If this process continues then rain falls. This type of rainfall is very common in tropical areas. Such rainfall does not last for a very long time because due to less air pressure, rising air is unable to take much of the moisture with it.

2. Orographic Rainfall.
Such rainfall is produced when moist air is lifted as it moves over a mountain range. As the air rises and cools, orographic clouds form and serve as the source of precipitation, most of which falls up wind of the mountain ridge.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 2
Some also falls a short distance downwind of the ridge and is sometimes called spillover. Such rainfall occurs only in mountains.

3. Cyclonic Rainfall.
Cyclonic or Frontal rain occurs when two air masses meet and form a ‘front’. The warmer, moisture-laden air rises over the colder air as a ‘warm front’. As the air rises it cools, and its relative humidity increases, clouds form as water vapour condenses, and then there is fall of rain. During winters, north and north-west India receives rainfall because cyclones occur in the Mediterranean sea and comes toward India such rainfall is quite useful for the crops of Punjab.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 3

Question 3.
Name the instruments used for collecting information about various aspects of climate, write in short about all of them?
Answer:
Many instruments are used for collecting information about various aspects of climate and these are given below :
1. Maximum and minimum thermometer. Such a thermometer is used to know about the temperature of a place. If we want to know about the climate of a place, we must know about its temperature. It consists of a U-shaped glass tube with two separate temperature scales set along each arm of the U. One of these is for recording the maximum temperature encountered and the other for the minimum temperature. The arms of the U-shaped tube terminate in sealed glass bulbs. Temperature is measured in centimetre grade or degrees of Fahrenheit.

2. Aniriod Barometer. Aniriod Barometer is a scientific instrument used in meteorology to measure atmospheric pressure. Instead of having a pool of mercury that the atmosphere pushes down or, they have a sealed, air-tight metal box inside. As the air pressure rises or falls, the box either squashes inward a tiny bit or flaxes outward. A spring is cunningly attached to the box and as the box moves in and out in response to the changes in air pressure, the spring expands or contracts and moves the pointer on the dial. The dial is marked with numbers, so you can read the air pressure instantly.

3. Dry and wet bulb thermometer. It is an instrument used to measure the relative humidity of the atmosphere. It consists of a thermometer with a bulb that is wet or moist and one that is kept dry. The relative humidity is calculated from the difference in readings of the thermometers when water evaporated from the wet bulb decreasing its temperature. Humidity in the air is always given in percentage.

4. Rain Gauge. Rain Gauge is used to measure rainfall and the amount of liquid precipitation over a set period of time. Basically it looks like a transparent cylinder with markings. You can read the amount of rainfall in inches or millimetres. It consists of a collector funnel and mechanism to recieve and measure the collected water.

5. Anemometer. An anemometer is a device used for measuring the speed of wind and is also a common weather station instrument. It consists of four hemispherical cups mounted on horizontal arms, which are mounted on a vertical shift. The air flow pass the cups in any horizontal direction turns the shaft at a rate that is roughly proportional to the wind speed. So, counting the turns of the shaft over a set time peirod produces a value proportional to the average wind speed for a wide range of speeds.

6. Wind Wane. A wind wane is an instrument for showing the direction of the wind. A typical wind wane has a pointer in front and fins in back. When the wind is blowing, the wind wane points into the wind. Reading the wind wane is easy. Whichever direction the fin is pointing will indicate where the wind is coming from.

Question 4.
What bad effects do natural disasters bring to human lives? Explain.
Answer:
The bad effects of natural calamities is given below :

Physical Loss. Natural calamity such as an earthquake can destroy buildings service sector. It can lead to breaking of dams which can further led to more destruction.
Death. Earthquake, Tsunami etc. can lead to the death of thousands of people specially people living near the epicentre. Deaths occur more at the places where there is more density of population.
Public Health. Thousands of people can be wounded along with broken bones and even the spread of epidemics.
Problem in Water Supply. Breaking down of dams and even water supply system can lead to obstacles in water supply.
Electricity and Communication. All the communication systems and electric system can get destroyed which can lead to the stand still of the national economy.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Climate Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of these seasons do not occur in south India.
(a) Summer
(b) Rainy
(c) Winter
(d) Autumn.
Answer:
(c) Winter.

Question 2.
Cyclonic Rainfall in West Bengal is known as
(a) Kal Baisakhi
(b) Monsoon
(c) Loo
(d) Tsunami.
Answer:
(a) Kal Baisakhi.

Question 3.
Hot and dry wind blowing in north India during summer is known as
(a) Tsunami
(b) Monsoon
(c) Kal Baisakhi
(d) Loo.
Answer:
(d) Loo.

Question 4.
____________ is the most affected area by the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoon.
(a) Chennai
(b) Amritsar
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Shimla.
Answer:
(c) Mawsynram.

Question 5.
____________is majorly affected by the retreating monsoon.
(a) Chennai
(b) Shimla
(c) Delhi
(d) Amritsar.
Answer:
(a) Chennai.

Question 6.
____________ and are two months mostly affected by rain in the whole India.
(a) June, July
(b) July, August
(c) August, September
(d) June, August.
Answer:
(b) July, August.

Question 7.
When did Tsunami come?
(a) 26 Dec. 2004
(b) 26 Dec. 2006
(c) 25 Nov. 2003
(d) 25 Nov. 2002.
Answer:
(a) 26 Dec. 2004.

Question 8.
____________ is used to know about the air pressure.
(a) Rain Gauge
(b) Aniriod Barometer
(c) Wind wane
(d) Anemometer.
Answer:
(b) Aniriod Barometer

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Most of the rainfall (75-90%) in India occur during the months from June to
Answer:
September

Question 2.
Rainfall coming with western disturbances is useful for crops.
Answer:
Rabi

Question 3.
Mango shower is useful for the crop of
Answer:
Flowers

Question 4.
____________ coast gets winter rainfall in India.
Answer:
Coromandal

Question 5.
____________ climate is there in the coastal regions of India.
Answer:
Moist

Question 6.
____________ is used to measure moisure moisture in air.
Answer:
Dry and wet bulb thermometer

Question 7.
Around people died in many Indian state due to Tsunami.
Answer:
10,500.

True/False :

Question 1.
India has hot climate.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Indian climate is very much influenced by monsoon winds.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The distribution of rainfall is same in all the parts of India.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
There is a feature of Monsoon type of rainfall that there is no dry spell in it.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Summer season in India is the lengthiest in all the seasons.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Temperature is measured with Aniroid Barometer.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Wind speed is measured with Anemometer.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which land form of India acts as a powerful climatic divide?
Answer:
Himalaya mountain acts as a powerful climatic divide.

Question 2.
Which part of India gets rainfall due to western disturbances and for which crop is it useful?
Answer:
North India gets rainfall due to western disturbances and it is useful for rabi crop.

Question 3.
When India gets maximum rainfall?
Answer:
India gets maximum rainfall (75-90%) during the months from June to September.

Question 4.
Give one feature of retreating monsoon.
Answer:
At this time, low pressure area of monsoon becomes weak and it is replaced by high pressure area.

Question 5.
Name two branches of South-West monsoon in India.
Answer:
Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 6.
Which part of India has maximum temperature in the beginning of summer season (March)?
Answer:
In the beginning of summer season, southern plateau has maximum temperature.

Question 7.
Which place gets maximum rainfall in the world?
Answer:
Mawsynram gets maximum rainfall in the world.

Question 8.
Which coast of India gets rainfall during winters?
Answer:
Coromandal Coast.

Question 9.
What type of climate does Indian coastal regions have?
Answer:
Equitable climate.

Question 10.
From which word, the word Monsoon originated?
Answer:
The word monsoon originated from the Arabian word Mausim.

Question 11.
What is the average rainfall in India?
Answer:
118 cm of rainfall.

Question 12.
In which part of India, temperature remains high throughout the year?
Answer:
Southern part of India.

Question 13.
What do we call to cyclonic rainfall in West Bengal?
Answer:
Kal Baisakhi.

Question 14.
What do we call to the local hot wind blowing in north India during summer season?
Answer:
It is called Loo.

Question 15.
Which hills get maximum rainfall in India?
Answer:
The Hills of Meghalaya.

Question 16.
What is the annual rainfall Mawsynram gets?
Answer:
1141 cm.

Question 17.
Name any two factors affecting climate of India?
Answer:

Distance from equator
Nearness to Indian ocean
Air pressure system
Land form.

Question 18.
Name two places each with minimum and maximum temperature during winter season.
Answer:

Minimum Temperature-Amritsar and Leh
Maximum Temperature-Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 19.
Name the coldest and hottest places in India during the summer season.
Answer:

Coldest place-Leh, Shillong
Hottest place-North-West plains of India.

Question 20.
What are Kal Baisakhi?
Answer:
The destructive cyclones are called Kal Baisakhi in West Bengal.

Question 21.
What is meant by Mango Shower?
Answer:
North-East Monsoon gives rain in coastal areas of Kerala and Karnataka at the end of summer season. It is called Mango Shower.

Question 22.
At which places do the Monsoon winds coming from Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal meet?
Answer:
The Monsoon winds from Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal meet in Punjab and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 23.
Name the types of rainfall.
Answer:
Three types – Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfal and Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 24.
Why do Orographic rainfall fall continuously and for a long time?
Answer:
Monsoon winds continuously move from sea to land because of which orographic rainfall fall continuously and for a long time.

Question 25.
Which rainfall is good for the crops of Punjab?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall of winters is good for the crops of Punjab.

Question 26.
What is monsoon burst?
Answer:
When monsoon, all of a sudden, gives rainfall, it is called monsoon burst.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Loo?
Answer:
Loos are hot dusty winds caused by low pressure in hot season. These are very hot and are called Loo in local language.

Question 28.
Which instruments are used to check climate or weather?
Answer:
Maximum and minimum thermometer, Aniriod Barometer, Dry and wet bulb thermometer, Rain Gauge, Anemometer, Wind Wane etc.

Question 29.
Give major types of natural calamity.
Answer:
Natural calamity comes in different forms such as earthquake, tsunami, cyclone, flood, drought, volcanic eruption etc.

Question 30.
When and in which year did Tsunami come in Indian states?
Answer:
Tsunami came in December, 2004 in Andeman Nicobar, Coast of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala etc.

Question 31.
What type of destruction was caused by Tsunami?
Answer:
It caused death of thousands of persons and damage of property as well.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the traditional names according to Indian system of Seasons.
Answer:

S.No. Season	Indian Traditional Names
1. Winter Season	Mixture of Basant and winter
2. Summer Season	Hot Season
3. Rainy Seaspn	Rainy Season
4. Season of retreating monsoons	Sharad Season

Question 2.
Mumbai is colder than Nagpur. Why?
Answer:
Nagpur is situated away from sea. Whereas Mumbai is situated on the sea shore. There is equable type of climate in Mumbai due to effect of sea. Therefore there is less cold.

In the opposite of it, Nagpur is situated far away from sea and free from sea effect. Therefore, extreme type of climate is found here.

Therefore, Nagpur is colder than Mumbai in winter.

Question 3.
Most of the average Annual rainfall in India comes in just four months of the year.
Answer:
In India, rainfalls mostly from mid-June to mid-September. The Monsoon winds coming from sea blow over India in these four months. There vapour laden winds give heavy rainfall in India.

Question 4.
Mawsynram receives maximum rainfall in the world.
Answer:
Mawsynram is situated on southern part with of Garo and Khasi hills. It is situated at the head of a Funnel shaped hill. One branch of Monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal give rainfall here. Due to the strange position of these waves Mawsynram had become the place in world with highest rainfall.

Question 5.
Kolkata receives 145 cm of rainfall where as Jaisalmer receives only 12 cm of rainfall by the South West monsoon.
Answer:
The S. W. Monsoons, from Bay of Bengal, first of all strike in Kolkata in West Bengal. These moisture laden winds give a heavy rainfall of 145 cms here.

Jaisalmer lies to the west of Aravallis in Rajasthan. Aravallis lie parallel to S.W. Monsoons of Arabian sea. So these mountains fail to check S. W. monsoons. These winds move northward giving only 12 cms of rainfall.

Question 6.
Chennai receives most rainfall during winter season.
Answer:
Chennai is situated on Eastern coastal plain of India. It comes under the effect of North-East Monsoon winds. These winds move from land to sea. But while crossing the Bay of Bengal, these pick up moisture. After striking Eastern ghats, these give heavy rainfall in winter. In summer, it gets less rain as it is a rain shadow area.

Question 7.
What is the contribution of western Jet stream in bringing cyclonic rainfall?
Answer:
The west and central Asia remain under the influence of westerlies. A current of westerlies, known as jet stream blows north of the Himalayas, while its southern branch flows south of the Himalayas along 25° N latitude. This branch of jet stream helps in bringing the western disturbances to the Indian sub-continent during winter. These western disturbances originate in west Asia and near the Mediterranean Sea. The westerly jet travels eastwards and steers at least four or five such depressions in India during winter. These cause the needed rainfall on plains and snowfalls on Himalayas.

Question 8.
In spite of being close to the Arabian Sea, why does Rajasthan remain dry?
Answer:
The western part of Rajasthan is desert. It gets an annual rainfall less than 20 cms. This is due to the following reasons :

Rajasthan is under the influence of S.W. Summer monsoons. The Aravallis system lies parallel to the direction of S.W. monsoons coming from Arabian Sea. So this mountain system is unable to check these winds. So western Rajasthan is practically dry. The southern part get some rainfall.
This area lies at a great distance from the Bay of Bengal. The Bay of Bengal monsoons become dry and lose their moisture when they reach Rajasthan.
This area is away from the Himalayan region. So it does not come under the influence of monsoons giving rain in Sub-Himalayan region.

Question 9.
How does Himalayas act as a ‘climatic divide’ for India?
Answer:
The Himalayas act as a mountain wall to protect the sub-continent from the northern winds. These cold chilly polar winds cannot enter India, as these cannot cross the lofty Himalayas. So these mountains enable Northern India to have a tropical climate. Thus the Himalayas act as an effective climatic divide.

Question 10.
Distinguish between Mango showers and Kal Baisakhi.
Answer:
Mango Showers. Local rainfall in coastal areas of Kerala and Karnataka at the close of summer premonsoons is called Mango showers. It helps in early ripening of mangoes.

Kal Baisakhi. In summer, West Bengal and Assam get sharp showers by evening thunder-storms. These are called Kal Baisakhi. It means calamity of the month of Baisakh.

Question 11.
Name three characteristics of retreating monsoons.
Answer:
The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons,

The monsoon low pressure trough becomes weaker and is replaced by high pressure.
The effect of monsoons over Indian landmass begins to shrink.
The direction of surface winds starts reversing.

Question 12.
Why does the Pre-Monsoonal rainfall occur?
Answer:
In summer, equatorial low pressure shifts towards Tropic of Cancer. To fill this space, the S.E. trades cross the Equator and get a direction of S.W. winds due to rotation of the earth. On 1st June, when these winds reach west coast, moderate rainfall occurs on windward slope of west ghats. This is called pre-monsoonal rainfall.

Question 13.
Which elements affect the climate of India?
Answer:
The climate of India is mainly based on the following facts :

Distance from the equator. The places which are situated near the equator have high temperature whereas the places away from the equator do not have high temperature.
Height above sea level. The higher you go, the cooler it is. That is why the mountainous regions are cooler than plains.
Distance from the sea. The places near the sea have an equable climate. Neither the summers are very hot nor the winters are cold, whereas in the parts away from the sea the summers are hot and winters are cold.
Winds. The winds have a great affect on the climate of India. The winds coming from the sea are full of moisture and they cause heavy rain. On the other hand, the winds that come from the land are dry winds and cause no rain.

Question 14.
Give main features of Monsoon rainfall.
Answer:

Uncertain rainfall. Summer rainfall is quite uncertain. Sometimes monsoons start early resulting in floods. Often the onset of monsoons is delayed resulting in drought. The early or late retreat of monsoons also results in serious droughts.
Unequal distribution. The rainfall is unevenly distributed over the country. About 10% of the country gets more than 200 cms of rain while 25% of the country gets less than 75 cms of rain.
Heavy rainfall. Indian rainfall is heavy and downpouring type. It is often said, “It pours, it never rains in India”.
Relief rainfall. The amount of rainfall is determined by the presence of mountains. High mountains force monsoons to rise and or rain.

Question 15.
Write a note on winter season.
Answer:
The cold season lasts from December to February. The sun is over head at Tropic of Capricorn. The Indian sub-continent has winter season. January is the coldest month. The southern parts have warm conditions. (20°C) while low temperatures (10°C) are found in N.W. India.

High pressure is developed over N.W. part while a low pressure exists over Indian Ocean with the result winds blow from land to sea. The out-blowing winds are Westerly in Northern plain and North Easterly over the rest of the country.

The N.E. Monsoons are off-shore winds and are dry. But these winds pick up some moisture crossing Bay of Bengal and give rain to S.E. coast of India. Some cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea also bring a small amount of rain (10 to 20 cms.) to Northern plains. Night Frost is common in the N.W. parts.

Question 16.
Write a note on the Summer Season.
Answer:
The hot season lasts from March to May. As the sun’s rays fall vertical over ‘Tropic of Cancer, the temperature begins to rise’. The average temperature is above 30°C; the maximum temperature rises to 50°C in Barmer (Rajasthan). The daily range of temperature rises in inland areas. Intense heat results in the development of low pressure over N.W. India and Pakistan. A high pressure exists over Indian Ocean. S.W. Monsoons “begin to blow from sea to land. ‘Norwesters’ and ‘Loo’ blow over Northern plains. Some areas receive convectional rainfall. The west coast also starts receiving rainfall. Most of the country is dry in the pre-Monsoon period.

Question 17.
Why and how is Maximum and Minimum Thermometer used?
Answer:
Such a thermometer is used to know about the temperature of a place. If we want to know about the climate of a place, we must know about its temperature. It consists of a U shaped glass tube with two separate temperature scales set along each arm of U. One of these is for recording the maximum temperature encountered and the other join the maximum temperature. The arms of the U-shaped tube terminate in sealed glass bulb. Temperature is measured in centimetre grade or degrees of Fahrenheit.

Question 18.
Write a note on Aniriod Barometer.
Answer:
Aniriod Barometer is a scientific instrument used in meteorology to measure atmospheric pressure. Instead of having a pool of mercury that the atmosphere is down on, they have a sealed, air-tight metal box inside the air pressure rises or falls, the box either squashes inward a tiny bit or flexes outward. A spring is cunningly attached to the box and as the box moves in and out it response to the changes in air pressure, the spring expands or contracts and moves the pointer on the dial. The dial is marked with numbers so you can read the air pressure instantly.

Question 19.
Write a note on Rain Gauge.
Answer:
Rain Gauge is used to meausre rainfall and the amount of liquid precipitation over a set period time. Basically, it looks like a transparent cylinder with markings. You can read the amount of rainfall in inches or millimetres. It consists of a collector funnel and mechanism to recive and measure the collected water.

Question 20.
Give a brief description of Tsunami.
Answer:
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means a high sea wave. If Tsunami comes at a place, very high sea waves occur at that place. Their height goes upto 10 metre to 50 metre at sea shore. Their speed is quite high. In an open sea, they move at the speed of 400 km-1000 km per hour. Actually if earthquake comes under sea bed, it causes Tsunami. On 26 December, 2004, Tsunami came in South-East Asia which caused a great destruction. Around 10,500 people died in India and it caused a lost of? 10,000 crore to many Indian states.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the regional variations in the climate of India?
Answer:
1. Range of Temperature. There is a great variation in range of temperatures in different parts of India. Kerala and Andaman-Nicobar islands have a daily range of temperature i. e. 8° C. On the other hand in Thar Desert, if the day temperature is around 50° C, at night it may drop down very close to freezing point (0°C). The daily range of temperature is 50°C.

2. Direction of Rain Bearing Winds. Most of India gets rain in summer from S. W. Monsoons but, in winter Tamilnadu gets rain from N. E. Monsoons.

3. Form of Precipitation. Most of the country gets rain showers, while snowfall occurs in the Himalayas.

4. Amount of Rainfall. The annual rainfall is less than 10 cms in N. W. Himalayas and the Thar Desert, it exceeds 400 cms. in Meghalaya. Mawsynram gets 1,141 cms Rainfall.

5. Rainfall Regime i.e. Seasonal Distribution of Rainfall. There is a great variation in rainfall regimes in the country. Most of the country gets rain from advancing monsoons in summer. Tamilnadu gets rainfall in winter from N.E. monsoons. Some parts receive rainfall from retreating monsoons.

Question 2.
Give an account of the main reasons for the climatic variations in the country.
Answer:
There are great variations in the climate of India. It is not the same throughout the year due to:

Northern hilly region remains cold due to high altitude. Coastal areas have an equable climates. Interior areas have high temperatures.
Windward slopes get high rainfall but rain shadow areas are dry.
In summer, wind blow from sea to land. These moist winds give heavy rainfall. But as these move ahead, the rainfall goes on decreasing.
In winter the winds blow from land to sea. These winds are dry. Only S.E. coast of India gets rainfall. Other parts remain dry.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 4
Monsoons Advancing Season

Question 3.
Describe India’s rainy season in India.
Answer:
Rainy season is also called the South West Monsoon season. Its time period is from the June to mid September. The main characteristics of this season are :

A low pressure trough is developed in north-west India.
Winds enter into the country from sea and give heavy rainfall.
The winds filled with humidity move at the rate of 30 km per hour and spread into whole country within one month.
Indian peninsula divides Monsoon into two parts—Monsoon winds of Arabian Sea and Monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal.
Most of rainfall in Western ghat and North East area of India is done by monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal. There is more than 250 cm of rainfall on the winward slopes of western ghats. On the opposite, there is more than 50 cm of rainfall on leeward slopes. Therefore, due to the reason most of rainfall in Northeast states of India is highest and longer on hills of Eastern Himalayas. On the opposite the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from going East to West.

Question 4.
Give the main characteristics and effects of monsoon rainfall in India.
Answer:
Characteristics of rainfall in India : The average annual rainfall in India is about 110 cms. It is estimated that more than 85% of this rainfall is received in summer. The main characteristics of summer rainfall are as follows :

Monsoonal rainfall. Most of the rain is received from S.W. summer monsoons during the period mid-June to mid-September. It is seasonal rainfall.
Uncertain rainfall. Summer rainfall is quite uncertain. Some times monsoons start early resulting in floods. Often the on set of monsoons is delayed resulting in drought. The early or late retreat of monsoons also results in serious droughts.
Unequal distribution. The rainfall is unevenly distributed over the country. About 10% of the country gets more than 200 cms of rain while 25% of the country gets less than 75 cms of rain.
Heavy rainfall. Indian rainfall is heavy and downpouring type. It is often said, “It pours, it never rains in India”.
Relief rainfall. The amount of rainfall is determined by the presence of mountains. High mountains force monsoons to rise and or give rain.
No continuity of rainfall. Summer rain is characterised by breaks or dry spells.
Variable rainfall. Most of the areas have variable rainfall, as much as 30 cms. plus or minus. Due to variability in areas of low rain, famines result.

Question 5.
Tnspite of great monsoon unity in India, there exist many regional variations.’ Explain the statement.
Answer:
There is a monsoonal unity in India but the rainfall is not uniform in India. Some areas get very high rainfall while others get low; rainfall due to different reasons.

Location. Wind ward slopes get high rainfall. But leeward slopes are in rain shadow and are dry. N.E. plains, Himachal Pradesh and coastal region gets heavy rainfall. But most of Peninsular India gets low rainfall.
Direction of mountains. When the mountains face the on shore winds, they provide heavy rainfall. But when mountains lie parallel to direction of monsoons, these fail to check winds and do not give rainfall. Rajasthan is a desert due to this reason.
Direction of winds. Places where monsoons strike first, get heavy rainfall like Kolkata. But other places like Varanasi get low rainfall.
Distance from the sea. Places near the sea get heavy rainfall. But inland areas remain dry.

Question 6.
Describe the distribution of rainfal in India.
Answer:
Distribution of rainfall: The average annual rainfall of India is 115 cms. Regional variations in the distribution are found due to differences in the relief of the country. Rainfall is unevenly distributed throughout the country.

India can be divided into the following rainfall regions :

Areas of Heavy Rainfall. These areas get more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall. These include the Western Coast and the Western Ghats, Sub-Himalayas, and the N.E. parts of India.
Areas of Moderate Rainfall. These areas get annual rainfall of 100-200 cms. These include West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Eastern parts of U.P. and Madhya Pradesh and coastal plains of Tamilnadu.
Areas of Low Rainfall. These areas experience an annual rainfall of 50-100 cms. These include the western past of U.P., Haryana, Punjab, Gujarat, Peninsular plateau and Eastern Rajasthan.
Areas of Scanty Rainfall. These areas get less than 50 cms. of annual rainfall. These include Ladakh, S.W. Punjab, Southern Haryana, Western Rajasthan, Kutch and Thar Desert.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

January 8, 2024January 6, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

PSEB 9th Class Science Guide Is Matter Around Us Pure Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?
(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd
(f) Oil from water
(g) Tea leaves from tea
(h) Iron pins from sand
(i) Wheat grains from husk
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.
Answer:
(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Filtration
(d) Chromatography
(e) Centrifugation
(f) Separating funnel
(g) Filtration
(h) Magnetic separation
(i) Gravity separation
(j) Centrifugation

Question 2.
Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words0solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.
Answer:
Step 1: Boil some solvent (water ) in a pan.
Step 2: Put some solute (tea leaves) in a tea pot.
Step 3: Pour the boiling water into the tea pot and let it soak for a few minutes to form a solution.
Step 4: Stir the solution in the tea pot.
Step 5: Take some solute (sugar) into a cup.
Step 6: Filter the above solution obtained in step 4 using strainer and take this solution (filtrate) in the cup. Pour two tea-spoons of milk into the cup and stir it with a spoon. This gives us tea which is ready for drinking. The residue is left on the strainer because these are insoluble whereas sugar and milk are soluble solutes.

Question 3.
Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution).

Substances Dissolved	Temperature in K
Substances Dissolved	283	293	313	333	353
Potassium nitrate	21	32	62	106	167
Sodium chloride	36	36	36	37	37
Potassium chloride	35	35	40	46	54
Ammonium chloride	2.4	37	41	55	66

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?
Answer:
(a) Solubility of KN0₃ in water at 313 K = 62 g / 100 g of water
100 g of water contains KN0₃ at 313 K = 62 g
∴ 50 g of water will contains KN0₃ at 313 K = \(\frac{62}{100}\) × \(\frac{50}{1}\) = 31 g
∴ Amount of potassium nitrate needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 g of water at 313 K = 31 g

(b) On cooling the saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K to room temperature, the solution will become supersaturated at room temperature and some potassium chloride will settle down.

(c) Solubility of potassium nitrate at 293 K = 32g/100g of water
Solubility of sodium chloride at 293 K = 36g/100g of water
Solubility of potassium chloride at 293 K = 35g/100g of water
Solubility of ammonium chloride at 293 K = 37g/100g of water
Ammonium chloride has highest solubility at 293 K.

(d) (1) If the process of dissolution of salt in water is exothermic, its solubility decreases with the increase in temperature.
(2) If the process of dissolution of salt in water is endothermic, its solubility increases with the increase in temperature.

Question 4.
Explain the following giving examples:
(a) saturated solution
(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension.
Answer:
(a) Saturated Solution: A solution in which no more of the solute can be dissolved at the given temperature is said to be saturated at that temperature. For example 50 g of NaCl added to 100 ml of water.

(b) Pure substance: A pure substance is made of only one type of atoms or molecules. Pure substances have the same colour, taste, texture at the given temperature and presure. Pure substance has a fixed melting or boiling point at the constant pressure. Pure substance includes elements and compounds. For example, hydrogen gas, sodium chloride, water etc.

(c) Colloid: A substance is said to be in the colloidal state if its particle size lies between 1 to 100 nm. The colloidal solution is heterogeneous and consist of two phases i.e. dispersed phase or colloidal particles and dispersion medium in which colloidal particles are suspended e.g. colloidal solution of starch in water.

(d) Suspension: It is a heterogeneous mixture in which the particles of the solute don’t dissolve but remain suspended throughout the bulk of the material and the size of particles is more than 10^-7 m. The particles can be seen with naked eye.

Question 5.
Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture: soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.
Answer:

Soda Water – Homogeneous mixture
Wood – Heterogeneous mixture
Air – Homogeneous mixture
Soil – Heterogeneous mixture
Vineger – Homogeneous mixture
Filtered tea – Homogeneous mixture.

Question 6.
How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?
Answer:
Determine the boiling point of the given liquid. If its boiling point is 100°C at 1 atmosphere pressure it is pure water and if boiling point is above 100°C, it is impure water.

Question 7.
Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air
Answer:
(a) Ice
(b) Iron
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury

Question 8.
Identify the solutions among the following mixtures:
(a) soil
(b) sea water
(c) air
(d) coal
(e) soda water
Answer:
(b) sea water
(c) air and
(e) soda water

Question 9.
Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?
(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution.
Answer:
(b) Milk and (d) Starch solution because these are colloidal solutions.

Question 10.
Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures:
(a) sodium
(b) soil
(c) sugar solution
(d) silver
(e) calcium carbonate
(f) tin
(g) silicon
(h) coal
(i) air
(j) soap
(k) methane
(l) carbon dioxide
(m) blood
Answer:
(a) Sodium – Element
(b) Soil – Mixture
(c) Sugar solution – Mixture
(d) Silver – Elemei
(e) Calcium carbonate – Compound
(f) Tin – Element
(g) Silicon – Element
(h) Coal – Mixture
(i) Air – Mixture
(j) Soap – Mixture
(k) Methane – Compound
(l) Carbon dioxide – Compound
(m) Blood – Mixture

Question 11.
Which of the following are chemical changes?
(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle.
Answer:
(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Burning of a candle.

Science Guide for Class 9 PSEB Is Matter Around Us Pure InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by a pure substance?
Answer:
It is a material containing particles of only one kind having a definite set of properties. Pure substances include elements and compounds.

Question 2.
List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.
Answer:

Homogeneous mixture

Heterogeneous mixture

1. It consists a single phase.

2. It has a uniform composition throughout.

3. It has the same properties throughout the bulk.

4. There are no visible boundaries between its components.

5. Examples:
Sodium chloride dissolved in water, ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.

1. It consists two or more phases.

2. It does not have a uniform composition thoughout.

3. It does not have same properties throughout the bulk.

4. There are visible boundaries of separation between its components.

5. Examples:
Air, gun powder, iron filings, sand and sulphur.

Question 3.
Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.
Answer:
Same as given above.

Question 4.
How are true solution, colloidal solution and suspension different from each other?
Answer:

Property	True Solution	Colloidal solution	Suspension
1. Nature	Homogeneous	Heterogeneous	Heterogeneous
2. Particle size	Less than 1 am	1 to 100 nm	More than 100 nm
3. Diffusion	Diffuse rapidly	Diffuse slowly	Don’t diffuse
4. Filtrability	Paritcles can pass through ordinary filter paper as well as semipermeable membrane	Particles can pass through ordinary filter paper but not through semi-permeable membrane	Particles can’t pass through filter paper as well as semipermeable membrane
5. Appearance	Clear and transparent	Generally clear and transparent	Opaque
6. Tyndall effect	Don’t show	Show	May or may not show
7. Visibility	Particles are not visible	Particles can be seen only with ultramicroscope	Particles can be seen with naked eye or microscope.

Question 5.
To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.
Answer:
Mass of sodium chloride (solution) = 36g
Mass of water (solvent) = 100g
Total mass of solution = 100 + 36 = 136g
Mass percentage of solution = Mass of solute / Mass of solution × 100
= 36 / 136 × 100
= 26.47

Question 6.
How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25°C), which are miscible with each other?
Answer:
By distillation.

Question 7.
Name the technique to separate:

Butter from curd
Salt from seawater
Comphor from salt.

Answer:

By centrifugation.
By evaporation.
By sublimation.

Question 8.
What types of mixture are separated by the technique of crystallisation?
Answer:
The mixtures in which the substance is soluble in a suitable hot solvent whereas the impurities are insoluble.

Question 9.
Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:
(a) cutting of trees.
(b) melting of butter in a pan.
(c) rusting of almirah.
(d) boiling of water to form steam.
(e) passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases.
(f) dissolving common salt in water.
(g) making a fruit salad with raw fruits.
(h) burning of paper and wood.
Answer:
(a) Cutting of trees-Chemical change
(b) Melting of butter in a pan-Physical change
(c) Rusting of almirah-Chemical change
(d) Boiling of water to form steam-Physical change
(e) Passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases-Chemical change
(f) Dissolving common salt in water-Physical change
(g) Making a fruit salad with raw fruits-Chemical change
(h) Burning of paper and wTood- Chemical change

Question 10.
Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures.
Answer:
Some examples are:

Water – Pure substance
Milk – Mixture
LPG – Mixture
Bread – Mixture
Kerosene oil – Mixture
Air – Mixture
Paper – Mixture
Ink – Mixture
Curd – Mixture
Wood – Mixture
Ice – Pure substance
Soda Water – Mixture
Ice cream – Mixture
Butter – Mixture
Vanaspati ghee – Mixture
Lemon juice – Mixture

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 9 Effective Communication

January 8, 2024January 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 9 Effective Communication Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 9 Effective Communication

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Problem Effective Communication Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. …………….. means conveying one’s message to another.
(a) Communication
(b) Media
(c) Transport
(d) Movement
Answer:
(a) Communication

2. What is conveyed to others in communication?
(a) Message
(b) Views
(c) Information
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

3. Which of these express better personality?
(a) Expressing oneself in a better way
(b) Listening to others in a better way
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) No one
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

4. Which skill an individual must learn to have a good impact on his personality?
(a) Skill of movement
(b) Communication skill
(c) Art of painting
(d) No one
Answer:
(b) Communication skills.

5. ………………. beautifully shines our personality.
(a) Happy
(b) Sorrow
(c) Communicating
(d) Fighting
Answer:
(c) Communicating

6. Incomplete communication can create ………………..
(a) problems
(b) happiness
(c) fights
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) problems

7. What should be kept in mind while communicating with others?
(a) Pronunciation
(b) Speak slowly
(c) Stress on words
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

8. Why don’t we like someone?
(a) Due to his nature
(b) Due to his habits
(c) Due to his way of talking
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

9. What does affect our communication?
(a) Our behavior
(b) Our expressions
(c) Our nature
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

10. Speaking as well as …………… has its own importance.
(a) Body language
(b) Writing
(c) Reading
(d) No one
Answer:
(a) body language

11. Which of these is a source of body language?
(a) Hands
(b) Eyes
(c) Face
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Fill in the Blanks:

1. When we express ourselves without talking it is known as ……………
Answer:
body language

2. We can communicate our feelings through body language with the help of continuous …………..
Answer:
practice

3. ……………. made his pictures without speaking a word.
Answer:
Harlie Chaplin

4. The meaning of ……………… is the convey our views to others.
Answer:
communication

5. ………………. communication can create problems for us.
Answer:
incomplete

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (x) Statement:

1. Incomplete communication makes our personality better.
Answer:
x

2. We should keep in mind words while talking.
Answer:
✓

3. Practice speaking is a must.
Answer:
✓

4. There is no importance of body language.
Answer:
x

5. Effective communication is a symbol of a good personality.
Answer:
✓

Match the Following:

(A)	(B)
Communication	Good nature
Body language	Views
Good communication	Body parts
Incomplete communication	Good personality
Liking someone	Problems

Answer:

(A)	(B)
Communication	Views
Body language	Body parts
Good communication	Good personality
Incomplete communication	Problems
Liking someone	Good nature

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is meant by communication?
Answer:
Communication means conveying one’s idea, message, or information to another.

Question 2.
What is necessary for communication?
Answer:
Two or more individuals are necessary for communication.

Question 3.
How does communication express our personality?
Answer:
Means of communication such as good speaking and listening express our good personality.

Question 4.
How can we exert the impact of a good personality on others?
Answer:
By learning the skill of good communication, we can exert the impact of a good personality on others.

Question 5.
How can we enhance personality?
Answer:
Good communication can enhance personality.

Question 6.
What is the disadvantage of incomplete communication?
Answer:
The whole thing went away due to incomplete communication.

Question 7.
Why does incomplete communication happen?
Answer:
Maybe others have not heard you clearly and are unable to understand the whole thing.

Question 8.
What is the reason for incomplete communication?
Answer:
Our wrong pitch of words cannot convey the proper message to others.

Question 9.
What should we keep in mind while speaking?
Answer:
We must give proper stress to the pronunciation, pause, and emphasis on the words.

Question 10.
What can we do for proper and better listening?
Answer:
We can do practice for proper and better listening.

Question 11.
Why do we like someone?
Answer:
Maybe we like someone’s way of speaking or his nature.

Question 12.
Why do we dislike someone?
Answer:
Maybe we do not like his nature or way of speaking.

Question 13.
What is important in good communication?
Answer:
Good speaking and listening are important in good communication.

Question 14.
What does affect our communication?
Answer:
Our nature, expression of mind, etc. affect our communication.

Question 15.
What is important in good communication along with speaking?
Answer:
For good communication, body language along with speaking is also important.

Question 16.
What do you mean by Body language?
Answer:
When we express our feelings without speaking, it is called body language.

Question 17.
Which body parts are used to express one’s emotions?
Answer:
Hands, face, eyes on be used to express one’s emotions.

Question 18.
What other name is given to body language?
Answer:
Body language is also known as non-linguistic communication.

Question 19.
How can we become experts in expressing body language?
Answer:
With continuous practice, we can become experts in expressing body language.

Question 20.
For whom, body language is very important?
Answer:
Body language is very important for those who can speak or listen.

Question 21.
Who made many movies without using language?
Answer:
Charlie Chaplin made many movies without using language.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on communication.
Answer:
The meaning of communication is to convey one’s views, messages, or information to another and to read or listen to others’ views clearly. To complete the communication, two or more individuals are necessary. If we will express ourselves in a better way and will listen carefully to others, it shows the features of a good personality. Good communication is an art or skill which everyone must possess to have a good personality and to exert an impact on others.

Question 2.
Discuss effective communication.
Answer:
The meaning of communication is to tell one’s views clearly to others and to listen to their views carefully. If everyone will possess the skill of good communication, their personality will develop. Everyone must know the importance of effective communication because while living in society, we meet many people. We convey our views to them and listen to their views as well. We can exert an effective impact on them only when our communication will be effective or it will have a bad impact on them. That’s why we must have a technique of good communication. ‘

Question 3.
Give reasons for incomplete communication.
Answer:
There can be many reasons for incomplete communication :

Maybe others are not told about the whole story.
Maybe others are unable to understand the whole story.
Maybe less stress is given to a few words which made the communication incomplete.
Maybe you haven’t heard the whole story of others.
Maybe we spoke on a low pitch and others are unable to understand the things.

Question 4.
How can we do good communication?
Answer:
Good communication can be done in many ways :

We must focus on the pronunciation of words or stress on particular words.
Others must be told everything in its pure form.
Good speaking also needs good listening skills.
If we practice becoming a good listener, many problems can be solved. That’s why our interest and better understanding is a must.

Question 5.
Why do we like someone? Give reasons.
Answer:

We like someone because of his nature that his nature is very good.
Maybe his way of talking is good which we liked very much.
Maybe others falk at right time and we like it.
Maybe someone’s vocabulary is good and we are influenced by this.

Question 6.
Write a note on Body Language.
Answer:
We express ourselves with the help of communication in which our language, expressions, proper pronunciation are very important. It can affect our communication skills. But many times, we don’t use words to communicate and use our eyes, hands, fingers to do the same. It means that we use body parts to convey our message and when we do so, it is known as body language. It is also known as non-linguistic communication. In good communication, both body language and words are important.

Question 7.
How can we become an expert in using body language?
Answer:
Many times, we cannot use language and words to communicate with others. For example, for people who cannot speak or listen, body language can be used. Mainly eyes, hands, and other body parts are used to communicate. For this, it is a must to become an expert in using body language. One can become an expert in using body language and that is practice. With constant practice, we can communicate emotions with our body language.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What did we learn in this chapter in relation to communication?
Answer:

Communication means conveying one’s message or views to another person. Two or more persons are necessary for communication.
Ineffective communication both speaking and listening are necessary. Listening is also a skill.
If our way of communication is good, it can help in enhancing our personality.
There should be complete communication. Incomplete communication can create problems for others.
Good listening is a part of good communication. So, it is necessary for us to listen to others carefully.
Our likeness or disliking for someone depends upon the person’s nature, language, way of talking, etc.
There is another method of communication and that is through body parts. We can use eyes, hands, etc. to convey the message to others. It is known as body language.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow :
In this way with constant practice, we can also communicate emotions with our body language. This is one of the most effective ways to communicate because your personality is influenced by your body language before you speak. The greatest example of the importance and power of body language is the world-famous actor Charlie Chaplin. Charlie Chaplin has acted in all his films using his body language without speaking.

1. Except language, how can we express our feelings?
Answer:
We can use body parts to express our feelings such as hands, eyes, face.

2. What is meant by body language?
Answer:
When we convey our feelings to others without using language and by using body parts, it is called body language.

3. Who uses body language?
Answer:
Body language is mostly used by and for those who can’t speak or hear.

4. Which World famous actor used body language in his movies?
Answer:
World-famous actor Charlie Chaplin used body parts in his movies.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 8 Problem Solving Effective

January 8, 2024January 6, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Book Solutions Chapter 8 Problem Solving Effective Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Welcome Life Chapter 8 Problem Solving Effective

Welcome Life Guide for Class 9 PSEB Problem Solving Effective InText Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 47 and 48

Think and Find Solutions

Solve the following problems on the basis of your experience and techniques used in the lesson.

Question 1.
Sirat has been sad and anxious for a long time. He doesn’t seem to be interested in any work. Stuck in a problem, he can’t talk to anyone about it. What can you do to help him get out of this predicament?
Answer:
We can talk to him, can ask him about his problem, and try to find the solution to that problem. If required, we can talk to his elders and take, their help in finding a solution to his problem.

Question 2.
You have been following the same routine for a long time which makes you feel bored. You are not being able to give your 100% in the studies. How will you solve this problem?
Answer:
If such a situation occurs, I will leave my studies and take a break from my studies. I will entertain. myself in this break and after this, I will continue in my studies.

Question 3.
Your younger brother lacks self-confidence which makes him less self-reliant. What steps will you take to instill confidence in him?
Answer:
I will talk to my younger brother, discuss his problem and if required, I will remain with him. I will convince him that he can do anything. It will motivate him to get back his self-confidence which will help him to reach his destination.

Question 4.
Your friend spends all his time watching TV and on the phone. He doesn’t pay much attention to his studies. How can you be a source of inspiration to change his mind?
Answer:
I will tell my friends the demerits of spending a lot of time on.TV and phone. I will tell him that it will not help him to achieve his objective. I will make him understand that he needs to change his attitude towards elders as they shape our future. We can’t do anything without them. I will not use TV or mobile in front of time to set an example.

Question 5.
Your parents always compare you to other children. You don’t like it at all. All you need is to sit down with your parents and talk politely about this to solve your problem. Talk to them and write your experience.
Answer:
I don’t like when my parents compare me with other children. That’s why I will sit and talk with them that all the children are not the same. Everyone has a particular quality. I hope, they will understand it and my problem will be solved.

Question 6.
One of your classmates arrives late to school every day. As a result, he/ she receives daily reprimands from the teacher. He/She seems to have lost his/her identity. You know his/her predicament. What will you do to solve this problem?
Answer:
First of all, I will ask him about the reason for coming late to school and will try to solve his problem. I will tell him not to give any chance to teachers to scold him. Gradually, his problem will be solved and he will get respect in school.

Textbook Page No. 48

Question 1.
Make a list of the techniques you will use to solve a problem.
Answer:

First of all, we will find the root of the problem so that the solution can be found easily.
If the problem is big, we will talk to elders so that the problem can be eliminated.
If the problem is related to the school, teachers or principals can be contacted so that the problem can be solved quickly.

Question 2.
Make a list of two immoral things you will never do.
Answer:

I will never consume drugs and will stay away from the problems caused by them.
I will not be dishonest in my work and will never ask for bribes.

PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Guide Problem Solving Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. What type of change comes in students’ life?
(a) Views
(b) Decision making
(c) Living life
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

2. Due to changes in students’ life.
(a) We feel bound in mental and social bondages
(b) No bondage is felt
(c) We remain happy
(d) No one
Answer:
(a) We feel bound in mental and social bondages

3. Which of these problems is related to friends?
(a) Deceived
(b) Forcing to addiction
(c) Engaging in immoral work
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

4. Which of these problems is not related to friends?
(a) Domestic violence
(b) Being selfish
(c) Calling with the wrong name
(d) Not being trustworthy
Answer:
(a) Domestic violence

5. Which of these is a household problem?
(a) Domestic violence
(b) Right between parents
(c) Not getting love from siblings
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

6. Which of these is the school-related problem?
(a) Fear of papers
(b) Fear of study
(c) No interest in any subject
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

7. Which of these is a personal problem?
(a) No hobby
(b) Negative thinking
(c) Lack of punctuality
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

8. Problem is the problem until :
(a) No thinking is given to it 1
(b) No thinking is given to its solution
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) No one.
Answer:
(c) Both (a), and (b)

9. To whom we visit for the solution of our problem?
(a) Friends
(b) Siblings
(c) Parents
(d) Any stranger
Answer:
(c) Parents

10. There is a need to understand the rule of ………………….. for the solution of problems.
(a) SAFE HABITS
(b) SHARE HABITS
(c) SNARE HABITS
(d) SPHERE HABITS.
Answer:
(a) SAFE HABITS

Fill in the Blanks:

1. ……………. guide us all the times.
Answer:
Parents

2. We must adopt any ………………..
Answer:
hobby,

3. Hobbies increase ……………… in us.
Answer:
self-confidence

4. Life is a ……………
Answer:
whirl

5. …………….. should be used quite less.
Answer:
mobile phone

6. …………… increases when we constantly think about it.
Answer:
Tension

Tick the Right (✓) or wrong (x) Statement:

1. Adopting a hobby is not good.
Answer:
x

2. There is no need for a solution to any problem.
Answer:
x

3. We never come in tension.
Answer:
x

4. We must share our problems with the elders.
Answer:
✓

5. We must make a timetable.
Answer:
✓

Match the Following:

(A)	(B)
Problem	Friends
Solution of problem	Solution
Life	Advice of parents
Avoid	Whirl
Forcing to addiction	Mobile phone

Answer:

(A)	(B)
Problem	Solution
Solution of problem	Advice of parents
Life	Whirl
Avoid	Mobile phone
Forcing to addiction	Friends

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What type of changes comes in students’ life?
Answer:
Many changes come in students’ life such as views, ideals, methods of taking decisions, ways of living, etc.

Question 2.
What is the effect of changes on students?
Answer:
They start to feel bound in mental and social bondages.

Question 3.
Name a few problems related to friends.
Answer:
Cheating, being, selfish, forcing addiction, engaging in immoral activities, etc.

Question 4.
Name a few household problems.
Answer:
Domestic violence, the rift between parents, not getting lone with siblings, not spending time with parents, etc.

Question 5.
What school-related problems are faced by students?
Answer:
Fear of papers, no interest in studies, no interest in a particular subject, etc.

Question 6.
Name a few personal problems faced by students.
Answer:
Negative thinking, not being able to make the right decision, lack of punctuality, etc.

Question 7.
Till what time a problem is a problem?
Answer:
A problem is a problem until its solution is not discussed.

Question 8.
Who can help us solve the problem?
Answer:
Generally, we take the help of friends and siblings to solve the problem.

Question 9.
What is the rule of the solution to problems?
Answer:
Solution of problems can be found with the rule of SAFE HABITS.

Question 10.
Who guides us while solving any problem?
Answer:
Our elders guide us while solving any problem.

Question 11.
What is the advantage of adopting any hobby?
Answer:
It increases our self-confidence and art develops among us.

Question 12.
What are the advantages of making time table for students?
Answer:
Papers can be given on time, we learn punctuality, we can learn to make decisions, etc.

Question 13.
Why does a person gets stressed?
Answer:
When a person is engrossed in all thoughts, he becomes stressed.

Question 14.
What should we do to avoid depression?
Answer:
Take a break from the regular work and visit a new place.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the problem of students’ life?
Answer:
Students life is considered to be the best stage. At this stage, students face many problems. During this time, their views, decisions, lifestyle changes dramatically. Because of these changes they face a lot of mental and social constraints. At this moment, they feel that problems are coming from everywhere but no solution is coming from any side.

Question 2.
Tell a few problems related to friends.
Answer:

Many friends cheat us.
Many friends force us to become drug addicts.
Many friends engage us in immoral activities.
Many friends are not trustworthy.
Many call us with the wrong name.

Question 3.
What house-related problems are faced by students?
Answer:

Domestic violence is quite common.
There is a right between parents and they quarrel every time.
They do not spend time with profits as they don’t have time.
They do not get love from siblings.
They cannot discuss their problems with friends and hence get no solution to their problem.

Question 4.
Name the problems faced by students in school?
Answer:

Many students have a fear of tests or papers.
Many are not interested in studies and are always engaged in playing.
Many students have a fear of talking to the teachers.
Many students are not interested in a particular subject and waste their time.

Question 5.
Tell something about the personal problems of students.
Answer:

Many students have negative thinking and always think about something wrong.
Few students are not punctual and they quite often waste their time.
Many students are not able to make the right decision at right time. Hence they waste their precious time.
Few students lack self-confidence.
Many students spend more time on social media which is wrong.

Question 6.
What is the technique for solving the problems?
Answer:
The technique for solving the problems is SAFE HABITS or to understand the technique of SAFE-HABITS. It includes many habits such as sharing your problems with elders, adopting any hobby, following a timetable, enjoying every day, helping everyone do not waste their time on social media remain tension-free, taking a break to have self-realization, etc.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What problems are faced by problems?
Answer:
Students face many problems such as :

They have negative thinking and they always think in the wrong way.
They do not take the right decision at right time and quite often take wrong decisions.
They are not punctual and waste their time.
These days, many children spend their time on social media and do not care about their future.
Under the influence of their friends, many students, start to consume drugs and become drug addicts.
They face many household problems such as parents are not on good terms, with each other and they quite often fight with each other.
Both parents are working and they don’t have time. That’s why children are unable to spend their time with their parents.
Many times they are unable to share anything with elders and that’s why problems remain intact.
Many students have a fear of exams and they get fewer marks.
Many students are afraid of their teachers and are unable to. share their problems with them.

Question 2.
What is the rule of SAFE HABITS?
Answer:
A rule of SAFE HABITS is given to the solution of the problems of students and it is given below :

S (Share with Elder). Children must share their problems with elders to get their solutions.
A (Adopt a Hobby). They must adopt a hobby to spend their extra time.
F (Follow Time Table). Students must make a timetable and follow it strictly.
E (Enjoy every day). Pleasure and pain are part and parcel of life and we must enjoy everything. We will remain happy with this.
H (Help Everyone). Help others as much as you can. It helps in smoothing things.
An (Avoid Overuse). Students must not overuse social media. It must be used to increase knowledge only.
B (Be Stress-Free). Children must remain tension-free as much as they can. (viii) I (Imagine a Better Life). Children must think about a better life and must do an effort to achieve it.
T (Take a Break). Whenever children get bored of their regular routine, they must take a break and must do whatever they like.
S (Self Realization). Children must think about their work and by self-realization, they must try to improve it.

Source-Based Question:

Question 1.
Look at the picture and answer the questions that follow:
PSEB 9th Class Welcome Life Solutions Chapter 8 Problem Solving Effective Img 1

1. What problems are faced by children related to friends?
Answer:
Friends cheat them, they are selfish, force them to consume drugs, they are not trustworthy, engaged in immoral activities, etc.

2. What are the household problems faced by children?
Answer:
They cannot talk to parents, parents don’t have time, they cannot discuss anything with parents, domestic violence, etc.

3. What are the school-related problems faced by students?
Answer:
They have fear of tests, are not interested in studies and in a particular subject, cannot talk to teachers, etc.

4. Tell something about the personal problems of children.
Answer:
Having negative thinking, not punctual, no self-confidence, fear of the future, spending more time on social media, lack of punctuality, etc.

5. Discuss a few of the problems, related to society, faced by children?
Answer:
The existence of discrimination in society, lack of cooperation from anyone, quarrels with neighbors, etc.