PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by neutralization reaction? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
It is a chemical reaction in which acids reacts with base to form salt and water. It is known as neutralization reaction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
Process of neutralization

Experiment: Take a solution of dilute sodium hydroxide in a beaker. Add few drops of phenolphthalein in this solution. Its colour changes to pink. Take a burette filled with dilute hydrochloric acid. Fix it vertically on a stand as shown in Fig. Place a beaker under it. Add the hydrochloric acid slowly to the beaker with the help of burette and go on swirling the beaker slowly. When the colour of solution disappears then stop adding acid to beaker. Now there is no effect of Red to Blue litmus to the solution. Now there is only salt and water in the beaker which is neutral to litmus. This is known as neutralization reaction.

Example:
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O

Question 2.
Write briefly chemical properties of acids.
Answer:
Acids have several chemical properties :
1. Reaction with metals. Acids reacts with active metals. Zinc, Magnesium, Iron, Mangenese etc. reacts with them to produce hydrogen gas.
Zn(s) + dil. H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mg(s) +dil.2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Fe(s) + dil. H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mn(s) + dil. HNO3 (aq) → Mn(NO3)(aq) + H2 (g)

2. Reaction with metals carbonate and metal bicarbonate. Acids reacts with metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate to produce C02.
Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
K2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2O + CO2

3. Reaction with bases. Acids reacts with base to show neutralization. They produce salt.
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O

4. Reaction with sulphites and bisulphites. Acids react with metal sulphite and bisulphite to produce SO2 gas.
CaSO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O +SO2 (g)
NaHSO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + SO2(g)

5. Reaction with metal sulphides and hydrogen sulphides. Acids react with metal various metal sulphide and hydrogen sulphides to produce H2S gas.
FeS + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2 S(g)
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

6. Reaction with metal Chlorides. When metal chloride heated with acids the reaction takes place.
NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl (g)
NaCl + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HCl (g)

7. Reaction with metal nitrates. Concentration acid reacts with metal nitrate.
NaNO3 +H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HNO3
NaNO3 + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HNO3

8. Reaction with metal oxides. Metal oxides reacts with dilute acids to form salts of
Na2O + 2HNO3 → 2NaHO3 + H2O
CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O

Question 3.
Write in brief chemical properties of bases/alkalis.
Answer:
Important chemical properties of bases/alkalis are given below :
1. Reaction with metals, Bases react with some metals to produce hydrogen gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

2. Reaction with air. Some bases react with CO2 present in air.
2NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3
2KOH + CO2 → K2CO3

3. Reaction with acids. Bases react with acids to produce salts.
NaOH+ HCl → NaCl + H2O
Fe(OH)2 + 2HCl → FeCl2 + 2H2O
Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + 2H2O

4. Reaction with salts. Salts of copper, iron, Zinc etc. react with bases and produce insoluble metal hydroxides.
ZnSO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + Zn(OH)2
CuSO4 + 2NH4OH → (NH4)2SO4 + Cu(OH)2
FeCl3 + 3NaOH → 3NaCl + Fe(OH)3

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 4.
What is the importance of pH in everyday life?
Answer:
pH has very important role in our life :
1. In animal world. Many of the processes in our body occur within the pH range of 7-0 to 7-8. We can survive only in this narrow range. pH value of our blood, tears, saliva is nearly 7-4. Survival will become impossible if this value becomes less than 7-0 or more than 7-8. When pH of rain water decreases from 7-0 to 5-6 or less then it is called acid rain. WThen acid rain flows to the rivers then pH value of river water lowers. Survival of aquatic life in such rivers become difficult.

2. For plants. For healthy growth of plants a specific pH range of soil is required. If soil becomes more basic or acidic, produce badly affected.

3. Digestive system. Our stomach produces HCl, which without harming us help in the digestion of food. Duiing indigestion the stomach produces too much of acid. This causes pain and irritation in the stomach. To get rid of this pain, bases are used which are called antacids. For this weak base like milk of magnesia is used.

4. Tooth decay. If pH value of the mouth is lower than 5-5, then tooth decay begins. Our teeth are made up of calcium phosphate which is hardest substance in our body. It is not soluble in water but starts decaying when pH of the mouth is lower than 5-5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by .degradation of sugar and food particles. To get rid of this we should use basic tooth paste. This will neutralize the acid and tooth decay can be prevented.

5. Relief from insect stings. When some insects sting us, they leave a special type of acid in our body. Bees, ants etc. leave methanoic acid in our body by their sting. To get relief from pain, mild base like baking soda is rubbed on the stung area.

6. Safety from special plants. Plants like nettle have stingging hair. By touching them we feel pain similar to insect sting. This pain is due to methanoic acid. Conventionally, one can get relief by rubbing leaves of dock plant on the stung area.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are indicators? How do indicators are categorized? Explain.
Answer:
Those substances which change their colour in acidic and basic solutions, are called indicators.
Indicators are categorized into two types on the basis of their special properties and characteristics.

  1. Indicators which give colour to acids and basic medium.
  2. Indicators which give smell to acids and basic medium.

1. Colour giving indicators :
(A) Litmus solution: Litmus solution is purple dye which is obtained from Lichen plant. This is available as red or blue solution and also in the form of litmus paper. Blue litmus turn to red in the presence of acids and Red litmus turns to blue in the presence of basic media. Litmus is neither acidic nor basic by itself.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

(B) Turmeric: Turmeric change to red-brown colour in the presence of bases. That is why vegetable stain on the clothes becomes red brown when washed by applying soap which is alkaline.

(C) Phenolphthalein: This is synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of bases.

(D) Methyl orange: This is also synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of acidic medium and yellow in the presence of bases.

2. Olfactory indicators: Chopped onion, vanilla essence and clove oil change smell in the presence of acids and bases act as olfactory indicators.

Question 2.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we mix an acid or base with water, the number of H+/OH~ ions per unit volume decreases, it is called dilution. By dilution, acids and bases are ionized.

Question 3.
Give characteristics of acids.
Answer:

  • They are sour to taste.
  • They turn blue litmus to red.
  • Their solution is not like soap solution.
  • They produce hydrogen gas when reacts with metals.
  • They react with carbonates to produce carbon dioxide.
  • Acid react with bases to produce salts and water.

Question 4.
Give four uses of acids in our everyday life.
Answer:

  1. Vinegar is used in cooking food and acts as preservative and used in pickles.
  2. HCl in our stomach destroys the harmful bacteria, which reach there with our food.
  3. Tartaric acid is used to prepare baking soda.
  4. Carbonic acid is used in soft drinks.

Question 5.
What are the harmful effects of acids in everyday life?
Answer:

  • They can destroy living cells.
  • Concentrated acids can badly damage the skin and soft organs.
  • These can damage eatables.

Question 6.
Differentiate between strong acids and weak acids.
Answer:

Strong acids Weak acids
1. These get completely dissolved in water and produce H+ ions and negative ions. 1. These do not completely dissociate into H+ ions and negative ions.
2. Equilibrium is not established. 2. Equilibrium is established between ions and undissociated ions.
3. Example: H2SO4, HNO3. 3. Example: H2CO3, CH3COOH.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
Differentiate between strong base and weak base.
Answer:

Strong base Weak base
1. These get completely dissolved in water to produce OH ions. 1. These are partially soluble in water.
2. Example: NaOH, KOH 2. Example: Ca(OH)2, Mg(OH)2.

Question 8.
Categorize the following compounds as strong and weak acids and bases,
(i) HCl
(ii) H2SO4
(iii) CH3CHOOH
(iv) HCN
(v) NH4OH
(vi) H3PO4
(vii) NaOH
(viii) Ca(OH)2
(ix) KOH
(x) H2CO3
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

Question 9.
What is the reason for electric conduction in acids? Explain.
Answer:
Acids produce H+ ions. Due to ions acids can conduct electricity. This conduction takes place in water solution.
HCl + H2O → H3O + +Cl
HNO3 +H2O → H3O+ +NO3

Question 10.
What happens when a base is dissolved in water? Explain it.
Answer:
Bases when dissolved in water give hydroxide OH ion. The water-soluble bases are called alkalis.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

Question 11.
Why are bases not touched or tasted?
Answer:
Bases have a bitter taste like soaps and are harmful to skin. They are harmful when touched or tasted.

Question 12.
Write uses of alkalies/bases.
Answer:

  • These are used to make soap.
  • These are used in basic batteries.
  • These are used in making antacids.
  • Used in Petrol refining and paper industry.
  • To remove stains of grease from cloths.
  • To make hard water, soft.

Question 13.
Give normal characteristics of bases.
Answer:

  • They are bitter to taste.
  • They are soapy to touch and are harmful for skin.
  • These turn litmus to blue.
  • These turn turmeric to red brown colour.
  • These react with acids to produce salts and water.
  • They turn phenolphthalein solution to pink.

Question 14.
What is difference between alkali and base?
Answer:
Those alkalies which are soluble in water are called bases. This means all bases are alkalies but all alkalies are not bases, e.g. Ferric hydroxide [Fe(OH)3] and cupric hydroxide [Cu(OH)2] are alkalies but are not bases since these are not soluble in water.

Question 15.
What are the sources to get common salt (NaCl)? Explain.
Answer:
We can get common salt from following sources :

  • Sea water: A huge amount of salt is dissolved in sea water. Salt in obtained from sea water through salt shallows. Solar heat and air help in the evaporation of sea water. We get salt.
  • Mineral salt: Deposits of solid salt are found in many parts of the world. These beds of rock salts were formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. This salt is mined similar to the mining of coal. These rocks are found in Mandi (Himachal Pradesh), Khewra (Pakistan). Due to impurities this salt is brown in colour.
  • From Lakes: Salt is obtained from Sambher lake in Rajasthan, great salt lake in America, Lake Elton in Roose etc. This salt in obtained by evaporation.

Question 16.
Write characteristics of common salt.
Answer:

  • Colour and state: It is colourless crystalline substance which melts at 820°C.
  • Solubility: Salt is soluble in water.
  • Effect of heat: On heating salt a cracking sound is produced due to breaking of ‘ salt crystals.
  • Hygroscopic: Salt absorb moisture from the air, This is due to presence of magnesium and calcium chloride.

Reaction with sulphuric acid. Salt reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to produce HCl gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

Reaction with silver nitrate. Salt reacts with silver nitrate to form white precipitates of silver chloride.
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3

Question 17.
Give uses of common salt.
Answer:

  • Salt is important constituent of our food.
  • This is used as preservative in many eatables.
  • It is used in soap, pottery industry.
  • It is used in making freezing mixture.
  • It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder, caustic soda, hydrochloric acid, washing soda, Baking powder etc.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 18.
What is chlor-alkali process? Give pictorial representation of the products of this reaction. Give their uses.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Important products of chior-alkali process.

When current is passed through aqueous solution of salt gets dissociated and sodium hydroxide is produced. This is known as chlor-alkali process because the products in this reaction are chlorine (chlore) and sodium hydroxide (base)
2NaCl(aq)+ 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

All these products are very important and useful in industry medicine, home and cosmetics etc. Chlorine and hydrogen are the by products of this process.

Question 19.
How is bleaching powder prepared? Give its common characteristics and uses.
Answer:
Bleaching powder is obtained by the reaction of chlorine with slaked lime.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9
To manufacture bleaching powder at large scale, we have a special tower there is a hopper at the top of tower, slaked lime is added through this hopper. At the bottom hot air and chlorine gas are blown. Chlorine moves upwards and is absorbed completely by slaked lime and bleaching powder is produced.

Characteristics :

  • Bleaching powder is light yellow coloured powder, It has a sharp smell of chlorine.
  • It is soluble in water, but not completely.
  • It reacts with CO2 of air and loose its chlorine.
    CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2
  • It reacts with acids
    CaOCl2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + Cl2
    CaOCl2 +H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + Cl2

Uses

  • It is used in paper and textile industry.
  • Used to disinfect drinking water to make it free from germs.
  • It is used to make unshrinkable work.
  • It is used for preparing chloroform.
  • It acts as oxidising agent.

Question 20.
Write chemical formula for washing soda. When its crystals are open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
Chemical formula for washing soda is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When its crystals are left open in air then due to efforescence nine molecules of water are lost in the air.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 .H2O + 9H2O

Question 21.
What happens when solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated? Give chemical reaction for the equation.
Answer:
When sodium hydrogen carbonate solution is heated then carbon dioxide gas is produced and sodium carbonate is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 22.
What is common name of the compound CaOCl2? Name the substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder?
Answer:
Common name of compounds CaOCl2 is bleaching powder. The substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder is slaked lime [Ca(OH)2],

Question 23.
If during the preparation of plaster of Paris the process of heating is not controlled then which substance is formed?
Answer:
Temperature should be maintained at 373 K during the preparation of plaster of Paris. If temperature is not controlled then unhydrated calcium sulphate (CaSO4) is produced which do not have the properties of plaster of Paris. This is known as dead burnt Plaster.

Question 24.
Explain preparation, properties and uses of baking soda (NaHCO3).
Answer:
Chemical formula for baking soda is NaHCO3 and its chemical name is sodium bicarbonate. It is formed when CO2 is passed through aqueous solution of Na2CO3.
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O → 2NaHCO3

It can also be prepared from sodium chloride.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 11
Properties: When it is heated it swells and becomes light. On heating it produces CO2. It is soluble in water.

Uses :

  • It is used in the preparation of baking powder.
  • It acts as antacid in case of acidity in the stomach.
  • It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Question 25.
Explain the following processes.
(i) Deliquescence
Answer:
Deliquescence: When some compounds absorb moisture from air and change to solution then this process is called deliquescence.
e.g. common salt is deliquescence.

(ii) Bleach.
Answer:
Bleach: When some gas or compound decolourises something, this is known as bleach, e.g. bleaching powder or chlorine is used for this purpose.

Question 26.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through fresh lime water?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is passsed through fresh lime water in small quantity then insoluble calcium carbonate is formed and colour of lime water turns to milky.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 12
If excess of CO2 is passed through this solution, calcium carbonate change to soluble bicarbonate and milkiness disappears.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 13
If this solution is heated again, milky colour again appears because calcium bicarbonate again change to calcium carbonate.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 14

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 27.
What is pH scale? How does it respresent acidic and basic nature of a solution? Represent whole range of pH and [H3O]+.
Answer:
A scale which is used to know the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution is called pH scale. Here ‘p’ stands for ‘potenz’ a German word which means power. We can measure from zero to 14 on this scale. Zero represents strongest acid, and 14 represents strongest base. pH is such a number which represents acidic or basic nature of a solution. More is the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution less is its pH value. If a solution is neutral its pH value is 7. If pH is lower than 7 then solution is acidic and if pH is more than 7 then solution is basic. Normally pH can be found by using universal pH indicator paper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 15

Question 28.
Are salt crystals really dry? Explain.
Answer:
Copper sulphate crystals which seems to be dry contains water of crystallization. These seem to be dry hut are not. When we heat the crystals then this water is removed and colour of salt become white. When salt is made wet its colour again change to blue.

Fixed number of molecules of water present in unit formula of salt is called water of crystallization. In unit formula of copper sulphate, there are five molecules of water. Formula for hydrated copper sulphate is CuSO4. 5H2O. In Na2CO3.10H2O there are 10 molecules of water.

Gypsum is another salt which contains water of crystalization. There are two molecules of water in it.
Its formula is CaSO4.2H2O.

Question 29.
How is washing soda prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) is obtained from sodium chloride. By heating soda, we get sodium carbonate. By recrystallization of sodium carbonate, washing soda is obtained. This is a basic salt.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 16
Sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate are useful in several industrial processes.

Uses of washing soda :

  • Sodium carbonate is used in glass, soap and paper industry.
  • It is used in the manufacturing of sodium compound such as Borax.
  • It is used in cleaning agent for domestic purpose.
  • It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.

Question 30.
What is efflorescence? Name one compound which shows efflorescence? Explain your answer with an equation.
Answer:
The phenomenon of losing some part of water of cyrstallization into air from a crystal is called efflorescence. This phenomenon takes place on heating or some times spontaneously. Washing soda contain water of crystallization hence its formula is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When it is placed in open then it loose its 9 molecules of water and single hydrate is left.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3.H2O + 9H2O

on heating it looses all of its water.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 + 10H2O

Question 31.
A baker found that a cake prepared by him is small in size and hard. Which constituent, he forgot to add, due to which cake can become soft and big. Give reason.
Answer:
Baker forgot to add baking powder. When baking powder (a mixture of sodium bicarbonate and Tartaric acid) is added to cake and on heating tartaric acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to produce carbon dioxide. This carbon dioxide makes the cake to swell and cake becomes light. Baker, definitely forgot to add baking powder that is why cake is small and hard.

Question 32.
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then its properties change. C02 present in air reacts with it due to which calcium carbonate and chlorine gas are produced. Properties of bleaching are lost.
CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 33.
What are the important uses of bleaching powder?
Answer:

  • It is used to bleach cotton cloths, linen and wood pulp.
  • It is used to disinfect drinking water and to make it free of germs.
  • It is used to make chloroform.
  • Unshrinkable wool is prepared using bleaching powder.
  • It acts as oxidizing agent in Laboratories and in industry.

Question 34.
Name the compounds used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position. How is it prepared?
Answer:
The compound used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position is plaster of paris. It is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4. \(\frac{1}{2}\)H2O). It is prepared at a temperature of 373 K by heating gypsum.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 17

Question 35.
Write important uses of Plaster of Paris.
Answer:

  • It is used in making toys, moulds, ceramic, containers etc.
  • It is used for making material for decoration and statues.
  • In hospitals it is used by doctors to set fractured bones and by dental doctors for creating mould to make dentures.
  • Used in buildings, to give plane look to walls and ceiling.
  • Material used by fire fighters.
  • It is used to stop leakage of gases in Laboratories.

Question 36.
Many people complaint about gas problem in stomach. What is main reason for this? Why do they use ‘milk of magnesia’ to get relief from this?
Or
What are antacids?
Answer:
A juice is secreted in the stomach which contains enzyme pepsine and hydrochloric acid. Enzyme pepsine is active in acidic medium. When hdyrochloric acid is produced in excess quantity, then we get burning and pain in the stomach, which is known as acidity.

Those substances which are used to neutralize this acid are called antacids. Usually people take a mild base like milk of magnesia for this purpose. It neutralizes the excess acid and provide relief.

Question 37.
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become shiny when rubbed with lemon? Why?
Answer:
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become dull due to coating of copper oxide. Citric acid present in lemon react with it to form salt, which can be easily washed with water. Brass and copper surface becomes shiny.

Question 38.
For the safety of teeth what type of toothpaste should be used. Why?
Or
How does change in pH-value helps in tooth decay?
Answer:
Bacteria present in mouth produce acid by degradation of sugar and food particles. This reduces the pH value of mouth which causes tooth decay. After foods we should used basic tooth pastes to prevent tooth decay. Mild bases present in it neutralizes the excess acid. This reducing the chances of tooth decay.

Question 39.
What is the remedy for sting of Nettle plant? Write.
Answer:
Nettle is a herbaceous plant found in jungles. Its leaves have stinging hair. These hair cause painful sting if touched accidentally. This pain is due to the secretion of methanoic acid by stinging hair in the body. To get rid of this pain leaves of dock plant are rubbed on the area of sting. Leaves of dock plant have base in them. This plant often grows beside the nettle plant. It neutralizes the acidic effect and gives relief from pain.

Question 40.
What is acidic rain? How is the pH of soil can be measured?
Answer:
Some of the gases like SO2, SO3, NO2 etc. present in the atmosphere gets dissolved in rain water and fall on earth in the from of acid is called acid rain. This corrodes some of the metals and marble.

pH value of soil can be measured by using paper soaked in universal indicator. This way we can know the nature of soil as acidic or basic. When pH value of rain water is less < than 5-6 then it is called acid rain. To know the pH value of soil, it is dissolved in water in a test tube and its filter is tested with universal indicator pH paper.

Question 41.
Is human life possible on venus planet?
Answer:
No, human life is not possible on venus plant the atmosphere of venus is covered with thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid. If there is a rain is presence of water, it will be acidic and the existence of human life will be impossible.

Question 42.
Magnesium is treated with dil. H2SO4. The gas evolved is collected as shown below. Name the method used for collection of gas and the gas produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 18
Answer:
Downward displacement of water. The gas produced is hydrogen.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 43.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 19
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect thses nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence do not produce H+(aq) ions although they contain hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 20
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

1 — Cathode
2 — Anode

Question 44.
Observe the figure and answer the following:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 21
(i) What are 1 and 2?
Answer:
1-Soap bubble filled with hydrogen 2-Burning of hydrogen gas with a pop sound

(ii) Write down the reactions taking place in test tube.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 22

Question 45.
In the pH paper shown in figure given below, pH of lemon juice is 2.2 and that milk of magnesia is 10. What is its significance?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 23
Answer:

  • Lemon justice is acidic because pH is less than 7.
  • Milk of magnesia is basic because pH is more than 7.

Question 46.
Which gas is being produced during reaction in the test tube? How does this gas react with Calcium Hydroxide/Lime water?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 24
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO2).
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 25

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What makes food sour?
Answer:
Presence of acids.

Question 2.
What is the reason of bitterness?
Answer:
Presence of bases.

Question 3.
What is the reason of acidity in stomach?
Answer:
excess of HCl acid.

Question 4.
What is the effect of acid on litmus?
Answer:
Blue litmus changes to red.

Question 5.
What are olfactory indicators?
Answer:
Some substances which change their smell in acidic or basic medium are called . olfactory indicators.

Question 6.
Give three examples of olfactory indicators.
Answer:
Chopped onions, clove coil, vanilla essence.

Question 7.
Which gas is produced when Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas.

Question 8.
Which gas is produced when metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates react with acid?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 9.
What happens when CO2 is passed through lime water?
Answer:
Lime water turns milky.

Question 10.
Why milkiness of lime water disappear when excess of CO2 is passed through it?
Answer:
Due to formation of Ca(HCO3)2 which is soluble in water.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 11.
Write the name and colour of the compound formed when copper oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
Blue-green copper chloride.

Question 12.
Which name is used for metal oxide?
Answer:
Alkaline oxide.

Question 13.
What is the nature of non-metal oxide?
Answer:
Acidic nature.

Question 14.
Why does current flow in acids?
Answer:
Due to ions.

Question 15.
Which ion is produced in acidic solution?
Answer:
Hydrogen ion (H+).

Question 16.
What is used to dry, moist gas?
Answer:
Calcium chloride.

Question 17.
How do we represent hydrogen ion?
Answer:
H+(aq) or hydronium ion (HgO+).

Question 18.
Which ions is produced by bases in water?
Answer:
Hydroxide (OH) ion.

Question 19.
What is base?
Answer:
Alkalies which are soluble in base.

Question 20.
What should we do to dilute an acid?
Answer:
We should add acid to water slowly and not vice versa.

Question 21.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we add acid or base in water, concentration of ions (HgO+/OH) per unit volume decreases, this is known as dilution.

Question 22.
What is name of mixture of various indicators?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 23.
What is that which show different colour at different concen-tration of hydrogen ion in a solution?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 24.
What is pH scale?
Answer:
To know the strength of H+ ion in a solution a scale is used known as pH scale.

Question 25.
What is p in pH?
Answer:
‘p’ means ‘potenz’.

Question 26.
What is the range of pH scale?
Answer:
0 to 14.

Question 27.
What is pH value of neutral solution?
Answer:
pH value is 7.

Question 28.
If pH value of solution is less than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Acidic solution.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 29.
If pH value of a solution is more than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Solution is basic.

Question 30.
What is the value on pH scale for lemon juice?
Answer:
Nearly 2.2.

Question 31.
What is the value on pH scale for pure water?
Answer:
7

Question 32.
What is the value on pH scale for milk of magnesia?
Answer:
10.

Question 33.
What is the value on pH scale for sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Nearly 14.

Question 34.
What is pH range in which our body works?
Answer:
Our body works in the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.

Question 35.
What is pH value of acid rain?
Answer:
It is less than 5.6.

Question 36.
In which type of river survival of aquatic animals is difficult?
Answer:
When acid rain water flows to the river.

Question 37.
What surrounds the venus planet?
Answer:
Thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid.

Question 38.
Which acid is produced in our stomach?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid.

Question 39.
What is produced in the stomach when there is indigestion.
Answer:
Excess of HCl.

Question 40.
What is used for treating excess of acid in the stomach?
Answer:
Antacids (mild bases).

Question 41.
When does tooth decay begin?
Answer:
When pH value in less than 5.5.

Question 42.
Teeth are made up of which substance?
Answer:
Calcium phosphate.

Question 43.
Why do we feel pain due to bee sting?
Answer:
Due to acid.

Question 44.
Which substance is applied on the stinging area which gives relief from pain?
Answer:
Weak base like baking soda.

Question 45.
What do the stinging hair of nettle plant secret?
Answer:
Methanoic acid.

Question 46.
What is the remedy for sting of herbaceous plant Nettle?
Answer:
Rub leaves of dock plant.

Question 47.
Which acid is there in vinegar?
Answer:
Acetic acid.

Question 48.
Which acid is there in lemon, orange?
Answer:
Citric acid.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 49.
Which acid is in curd and milk?
Answer:
Lactic acid.

Question 50.
What is main source of salt?
Answer:
Sea water.

Question 51.
What is exothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat is produced.

Question 52.
What is endothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat in absorbed are called endothermic reactions.

Question 53.
Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current, why?
Answer:
In sodium chloride, Na+ and Cl- ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction and ions can’t move freely. Hence solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current.

Question 54.
In which state chemical reactions take place easily.
Answer:
Gaseous or liquid state.

Question 55.
What is solute?
Answer:
It is a compound, which in aqueous solution, dissociate into positive and negative ions.

Question 56.
What is a strong electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is 30%, is called strong electrolyte.

Question 57.
What is weak electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is less than 30% is called weak electrolyte.

Question 58.
Which acids are obtained from animals?
Answer:
Organic acids.

Question 59.
Who gave pH scale and when?
Answer:
pH scale was given by Danish Chemist Soren Sorensen in 1909.

Question 60.
Concentration of which ion is important in every Biological and many industrial processes?
Answer:
Concentration of hydrogen ion.

Question 61.
What is the reason for burn feeling in stomach and chest? How to get rid of this situation?
Answer:
When excess of hydrochloric acid is produced in stomach, then we feel burn feeling in stomach and chest. We can be relieved by taking baking soda.
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2

Question 62.
What is baking powder?
Answer:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and tartaric acid.

Question 63.
If we do not use tartaric acid in baking powder for making a cake. How will the cake taste?
Answer:
It will be bitter due to sodium carbonate.

Question 64.
Which chemicals are used in fire extinguishers?
Answer:
Sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.

Question 65.
Which gas is produced in soda acid fire extinguisher?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 66.
Which compound is used to make water free of germs?
Answer:
Bleaching powder (CaOCl2).

Question 67.
Name chemical name of quick lime.
Answer:
Calcium oxide (CaO).

Question 68.
Name the deliquescent present in salt.
Answer:
Magnesium chloride (MgCl2).

Question 69.
What type of smell is given by bleaching powder?
Answer:
Smell of ehlorme gas.

Question 70.
Sometimes eyes become red after swimming in a swimming pool why?
Answer:
Due to excess of bleaching powder in water.

Question 71.
When did Egyptions used plaster of paris?
Answer:
They used it 5000 years ago.

Question 72.
How did the Egyptions prepare plaster of Paris?
Answer:
They heated Gypsum in open air.

Question 73.
What was the use of Plaster of Paris for Egyptions?
Answer:
They used to fix rocks with it as cement for their monuments.

Question 74.
What is the relation of ‘Paris’ in plaster of Paris?
Answer:
In the beginning Gypsum was obtained from Montmarti in Paris, thus paris is related with it.

Question 75.
What is heated to which temperature from preparing plaster of Paris?
Answer:
Plater of Paris is obtained from gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) by heating it to 373 K.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
pH of an acidic solution is:
(A) >7
(B) <7
(C) 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(B) <7

Question 2.
Neutral solution has pH:
(A) 7
(B) >7
(C) < 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(A) 7

Question 3.
Common name of NaCO3. 10H2O is :
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Baking powder
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Washing soda.
Answer:
(D) Washing soda.

Question 4.
Acid and base react to form salt and water. This reaction is called:
(A) Washing soda.
(B) Chioro-alkali
(C) Reduction
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(D) None of these.

Question 5.
What is used for plastering fractured bones?
(A) Cement
(B) Gypsum
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Soda.
Answer:
(C) Plaster of Paris

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Toothpaste used for cleaning teeth is :
(A) Acidic
(B) Neutral
(C) Basic
(D) None.
Answer:
(A) Acidic

Question 7.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is :
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10
Answer:
(D) 10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The common name of CaOCl2 is ______
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 2.
The sodium compound used for softening hard water is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 3.
The common name of Na2CO3.10H2O is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 10-15 words :

Question 1.
When was Ranjit Singh born? What was his father’s name?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was born on November 13, 1780 at Gujranwala. Sardar Mahan Singh was his father. He was the chief of the Sukerchakiya Misl.

Question 2.
Who was Mehtab Kaur?
Answer:
Mehtab Kaur was Ranjit Singh’s wife. She was the daughter of Gurbax Singh and grand daughter of Jai Singh of Kanheya Misl.

Question 3.
Which Era is termed as the Patronage of Trio?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a minor when his father, Mahan Singh died. Therefore, from 1792 to 1797 A.D., the reins of the Sukarchakiya Misl remained in the hands of Raj Kaur (his mother), Sada Kaur (his mother-in-law) and Dewan Lakhpat Rai. This period is called the period of Trio.

Question 4.
Why did the residents of Lahore invite Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore?
Answer:
Lahore was ruled by three Bhangi sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these sardars. So – they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore.

Question 5.
Name the Sardars who were against Ranjit Singh in the Battle of Bhasin.
Answer:
Gulab Singh of Amritsar. Sahib Singh of Gujrat, Jodh Singh of Wazirabad and -Jassa Singh of Ramgarhia Misl were opposed to Ranjit Singh in the Battle of Bhasin.

Question 6.
Why did Maharaja Ranjit Singh attack Amritsar and Lohgarh?
Answer:
Amritsar had become the religious capital of the Sikhs. Similarly Lohgarh had military importance. Ranjit Singh attacked Amritsar and Lohgarh to capture them.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 7.
Of which Misl was Tara Singh Gheba the leader?
Answer:
Tara Singh Gheba was the leader of Dallewalia Misl. He was a very brave and powerful Misl Chief.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Write about Ranjit Singh’s childhood and education.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was the only son of his parents. In his childhood, he was brought up with great care. When he was five years old, he was sent for receiving education to the Dharmshala of Bhai Bhagu Singh at Gujranwala. But he showed no interest in studies. He, therefore, remained unlettered throughout his life. Thus most of his time was spent in hunting and other amusements. In his childhood, he had become a good swordsman and a horseman. He had been the victim of smallpox in his childhood. Thus, due to this terrible disease, he lost his left eye.

Question 2.
Describe the events of bravery of Ranjit Singh’s childhood.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh had all the qualities of a brave warrior. He was just 10 years old, when he began to fight in the battles along with his father and fought very bravely. At the age of 11, one day he, while hunting, Hashmat Khan, an enemy of his father finding him all alone, attacked him. Ranjit Singh faced Hashmat Khan very bravely and killed him on the spot. These events show the bravery of Ranjit Singh in his childhood.

Question 3.
Describe the events of occupation of Lahore by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore at the very first opportunity. In those days, Lahore was under the rule of three Bhangi sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these sardars. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore. Ranjit Singh lost no time in attacking Lahore with a large army. On hearing the news of the attack, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh fled away. Only Chet Singh feebly resisted Ranjit Singh’s army. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 4.
Write the significance of the conquest of Amritsar.
Answer:
The importance of the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh was as under:

  • It was the religious capital of the Sikhs. Its occupation raised the prestige of Ranjit Singh.
  • As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, the military power of Ranjit Singh increased.
    The fort of Lohgarh proved to be a boon for Ranjit Singh. He got the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan.
  • Ranjit Singh got the services of Akali Phool Singh and his 2000 Nihang comrades. Because of the extraordinary courage and bravery of the Nihangs, Ranjit Singh won many glorious victories.
  • As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh’s name and fame spread far and wide. Many Indians gave up the jobs of the East India Company and got employment with Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Many European soldiers also joined the army of the Maharaja.

Question 5.
How did Maharaja Ranjit Singh occupy friendly Misls?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a great diplomat. He befriended the rulers of Ahluwalia, Kanahiya and Ramgarhia Misls. Finding a suitable opportunity, he captured these Misls.

Following is the description of the conquests of these Misls by Ranjit Singh:

  1. Occupation of the Kanahiya Misl. The Kanahiya Misl was led by the mother- in-law of Ranjit Singh. In 1812 A.D., Ranjit Singh got from her many regions of this Misl except Wadni.
  2. Capture of the Ramgarhia Misl. The leader of this Misl was Jodh Singh Ramgarhia. He died in 1815 A.D. and Ranjit Singh merged all his territories in his state.
  3. Ahluwalia Misl. In 1826 A.D., Ranjit Singh broke his relations with Fateh Singh of Ahluwalia Misl. As a result, he captured many territories of Ahluwalia Misl. But in 1827 A.D., they became Mends again.

Question 6.
Write the consequences of the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The conquest of Multan was an important military achievement of Ranjit Singh. The significance of this victory can be known from the following facts :
1. A Death blow to the Afghan Power. It is aptly said that “the conquest of Multan ended the Afghan influence in the Punjab.” Ranjit Singh completely smashed the power of the Afghans.

2. Commercial and Strategic Advantages. The victory of Multan was also important from the commercial as well as military point of view. Trade with Sindh and Afghanistan began to be carried on through this route. Consequently, the trade in Punjab made much progress. In addition to this, Multan was situated on the route from Delhi to Kandhar.

3. Increase in the Revenue. The victory of Multan also increased the income of Ranjit Singh. It is estimated that Ranjit Singh received an income of about 7 lakh rupees a year only from the Multan town.

4. Increase in the Prestige of Ranjit Singh. With the victory of Multan, the fame of Ranjit Singh spread in all the four corners of the Punjab.

Question 7.
Describe thle battle of Attock.
Answer:
An understanding was reached between Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan of Kabul in 1813 A.D. It was decided that Ranjit Singh would send 12 thousand soldiers to help Fateh Khan for the conquest of Kashmir and Fateh Khan, in return, would give him one- third of the conquered territories in addition to the booty of war. Besides, Ranjit Singh promised to help Fateh Khan in his conquest of Attock, whereas Fateh Khan would help Ranjit Singh in the conquest of Multan.

The combined forces of Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan conquered Kashmir with great ease but Fateh Khan did not fulfil his promise. He did not pay him anything out of the money looted by him by the conquest of Kashmir. Ranjit Singh attacked Attock in a fury (according to the treaty, Fateh Khan was to occupy Attock). His commander-in-chief Azizuddin took Attock from Jahandad Khan and gave him one lakh rupees and a big jagir. Fateh Khan could not tolerate this. He attacked Attock with a big army immediately. A furious battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Hazro near Attock. The Sikhs came out victorious in this battle.

Question 8.
Write about the question of Sindh.
Answer:
The Sindh region, being situated on the South-western front of Lahore, had a great military importance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government understood well the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent one of its navigators Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission, so that he could not judge the intentions of the British. Although the nature of this Mission was friendly, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 9.
What was the question of Shikarpur?
Answer:
On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh was waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe attacked the border regions of Lahore kingdom. Ranjit Singh tried to capture Shikarpur by holding the Amirs of Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent troops to check Ranjit Singh from occupying Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh had to withdraw his forces.

Question 10.
Write about the events related to Ferozepur.
Answer:
The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the relations between Ranjit Singh and the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D. Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him capture it. The British Government itself occupied Ferozepur in 1835 A.D. and after three years, made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

Answer the following questions in about 100-120 words :

Question 1.
How did Ranjit Singh conquer the weak Misls?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a shrewd politician. He befriended the rulers of powerful Misls. He started occupying the territories of weak misls with their help. From 1800 to 1811 A.D., he conquered the following Misls :
1. Conquest of Akalgarh (1801 A.D.). In 1801 A.D. after the battle of Bhasin, Dal Singh of Akalgarh (maternal uncle of Ranjit Singh’s father) and Sahib Singh of Gujarat started preparations for the attack on Lahore. When Ranjit Singh, came to know about it, he attacked Akalgarh and made Dal Singh a prisoner. Soon after this, Dal Singh was released and he died after some time. Ranjit Singh annexed his territory into his Kingdom. He gave a small tract of land to the widow of Dal Singh.

2. Occupation of Chaniot (1802 A.D.). Chaniot was under Jassa Singh, son of Karam Singh. In 1802 A.D., with the help of Fateh Singh Ahluwalia, Maharaja Ranjit Singh attacked Chaniot. Jassa Singh was defeated and Ranjit Singh occupied Chaniot.

3. Conquest of Malwa by Ranjit Singh (1806 A.D.). In 1806 A.D., there arose a quarrel between Raja Sahib Singh of Patiala and Raja Jaswant Singh of Nabha on the question of the Doladhi village. Jaswant Singh, through the medium of Raja Bhag Singh of Jind, invited Ranjit Singh to settle their dispute. Ranjit Singh attacked the Malwa region. He brought twenty thousand horsemen with him. Fateh Singh Ahluwalia stood by the Maharaja in capturing the Doladhi village, Ranjit Singh proceeded towards Patiala. He got a large amount of Nazrana from the rulers of Patiala, Nabha and Jind. On his way back, Ranjit Singh also occupied Ludhiana, Raikot, Jagraon and Ghungrana.

In 1807 A.D. Ranjit Singh attacked Malwa for the second time. The Raja of Patiala, Sahib Singh and his wife Aas Kaur were on bad terms. Ranjit Singh got a chance to interfere in their internal affairs. On reaching Patiala, he got a heavy amount as ‘Nazrana’ from Sahib Singh of Patiala. After this, he captured the areas of Naraingarh, Wadni, Zira and Kotkapura. He also got Nazrana from the rulers of Kaithal, Shahbad, Ambala, Kalsian and Malerkotla.

4. Conquest of the Dallehwalia Misl. The leader of the Dallehwalia Misl, Tara Singh Gheba was quite powerful. So Ranjit Singh could not conquer this Misl while he was alive. After Tara Singh’s death in 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh defeated his widow at Rahon and captured all the territories of the Dallehwalia Misl.

5. Conquest of Sialkot (1808 A.D.). Jeewan Singh was the ruler of Sialkot. Maharaja Ranjit Singh demanded the territory of Sialkot from him. On his refusal, Ranjit Singh attacked Sialkot. Jeewan Singh surrendered. Maharaja merged Sialkot into his kingdom.

6. Conquest of Gujpat. At the time of Ranjit Singh’s, attack on Lahore, its Bhangi ruler Sahib Singh had run away’. Now he was ruling over the regions of Jalalpur, Islamgarh and Gujrat. The income from these regions was very high. To conquer them, Ranjit Singh attacked Sahib Singh. Sahib Singh was defeated. Ranjit Singh granted him a Jagir and annexed all his territories to his kingdom.

7. Conquest of Karorsinghia Misl. Kahan Singh ruled over Karorsinghia Misl. Ranjit Smgh asked him to come to his court. On his refusal, Ranjit Singh seized all his territories.

8. Conquest of the Fazalpuria Misl. Budh Singh ruled over the Fazalpuria Misl and it was spread on either side of the river Sutlej. Ranjit Singh first asked him to surrender. But when he refused, Ranjit Singh forcibly merged all his territories into his kingdom in 1811 A.D. These regions included Doab, Jalandhar, Hetpur and Patti.

9. Conquest of the Nakai Misl. This Misl was also ruled by the ruler of Karorsinghia Misl, Kahan Singh. When in 1807 A.D. Ranjit Singh defeated him, he also captured the Nakai Misl along with the Karorsinghia Misl.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Kashmir by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Kashmir, for its charming beauty and green scenery, was known as the ‘Paradise on Earth’. Naturally, Ranjit Singh was lured to capture it. He wanted to make his kingdom a heaven on the earth.

For this, he made the following efforts :
1. Pact with Kabul and Wazir Fateh Khan. In 1811-12 A.D. Ranjit Singh’s forces captured Bhimbar and Rajauwri near Kashmir. Now they wanted to attack the Kashmir valley. But at the same time Fateh Khan, the Wazir of Kabul also planned to capture Kashmir. Both Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan met at a place known as Rohtas on the banks of the Jhelum in 1813 A.D. A treaty was concluded between the two according to which the combined forces of both the parties would attack Kashmir.

According to it, Ranjit Singh was to get Rs. 9 lakhs from the spoils of the war and Fateh Khan was also to help him in the conquest of Multan. After the terms were settled, a 12000 strong Sikh force under the command of Dewan Mohkam Chand advanced towards Kashmir from the side of Jhelum along with the forces of Kabul. But Fateh Khan did not want, that any credit for this expedition should go to the Sikh army. He left the Sikh forces behind and himself with his army entered the Kashmir valley. Atta Mohammad Khan of Kashmir faced the enemy at a place named Shergarh. Fateh Khan, without the help of Sikh forces, defeated Atta Mohammad Khan. But Ranjit Singh wras not such a man as to bear all this rebuff.

2. Attack on Kashmir. In June 1814, Ram Dayal, a grandson of Diwan Mohkam Chand was given the command of the Kashmir expedition. The Sikh forces attacked Kashmir. At that time, Azim Khan, the brother of Fateh Khan was the Subedar of Kashmir. He made preparations to face this invasion. The forces under the command of Ram Dayal passed through the Pir Panchal Pass and entered the Kashmir valley. Azim Khan attacked the Sikh forces. The Sikh soldiers had to face misfortunes. Even then Ram Dayal faced the enemy bravely. At last, both the parties started negotiations for peace.

3. Occupation of Kashmir 1819 A.D. After the conquest of Multan in 1818 A.D., the Sikh forces were much encouraged. So Ranjit Singh began to plan the third invasion of Kashmir. Azim Khan the Subedar of Kashmir had gone to Afghanistan. Ranjit Singh thought of availing of this opportunity and under the command of Misar Dewan Chand sent 12000 Sikh soldiers to Kashmir. The second contingent under Kharak Singh, (Ranjit Singh’s son) was also sent to Kashmir and the third contingent under Ranjit Singh himself also set out for Wazirabad. Misar Dewan Chand reached Bhimber and captured Rajauri, Pir Panchal and Poonchh. After this, the Sikh forces entered Kashmir. Jabbar Khan faced the Sikh army at Sopavan. On the 5th July 1819, the Sikh army captured the forts of Sri Nagar, Shergarh and Agungarh. Thus Ranjit Singh came out victorious and consequently he annexed Kashmir in 1819. Ranjit Singh appointed Diwan Moti Ram, the son of Diwan Mohkam Chand, as the Governor of Kashmir.

Importance. The conquest of Kashmir is important due to the following reasons:

  • The victory of Kashmir increased the prestige of Ranjit Singh,
  • Kashmir was a good source of income and its annexation brought Ranjit Singh an annual income of Rs. 36 lakh,
  • The conquest of Kashmir put an end to the power and prestige of the Afghans.

Question 3.
Describe the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The territory of Multan was important both from the military and commercial viewpoint. The story of the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh is briefly given as under :
1. First Expedition. It was in 1802 A.D. that Ranjit Singh attacked Multan for the first time. Muzzaffar Khan ‘“the Nawab of Multan” gave a heavy amount of money to Ranjit Singh and agreed to pay an annual tribute. Thus Ranjit Singh returned home without a battle but with a huge sum of money.

2. Second Expedition. Muzzaffar Khan had agreed to pay an annual tribute to Ranjit Singh but he did not send Nazrana to him. Consequently, Ranjit Singh launched his second expedition against Multan in 1805 A.D. But when Ranjit Singh received the news that the Maratha chief Jaswant Rao Holkar, after being defeated by the British, had entered Punjab, he had to return to Lahore.

3. Third Expedition (1807 A.D.). In 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh sent his third expedition against Multan. The Sikh army captured some territory of Multan. But the Nawab of Bahawalpur acted as a mediator and a peace treaty was concluded between them.

4. Fourth Expedition. On February 24, 1810, the army of Maharaja occupied some parts of Multan. On February 25, the Sikh forces besieged the fort of Multan. But on the one hand, the food supplies of the Sikhs were being exhausted rapidly and on the other hand, Dewan Mohkam Chand also fell ill. Under these circumstances, Ranjit Singh was forced to lift the siege of the fort.

5. Fifth Expedition (1816 A.D.). In 1816 A.D. the Maharaja sent Akali Phoola Singh along with a large army to collect the revenue from the rulers of Multan and Bahawalpur. He was able to occupy the suburbs of Multan. The Nawab of Multan, therefore, concluded a pact with Akali Phoola Singh.

6. Final Expedition (1818). (i) The Sikh forces under the command of Dewan Bhawani Dass, attacked Multan but could not succeed, (ii) In January 1818 the Sikh army consisting of 20,000 soldiers under the command of Misar Dewan Chand attacked Multan. Nawab Muzzaffar Khan with 2,000 soldiers entered the fort. After capturing the city, the Sikh soldiers laid a siege to the fort. At last, Sohan Singh along with his few chosen companions was -successful in entering the fort through the Khizri gate. Thus the Sikhs finally captured Multan in 1818. The civil administration was entrusted to Sukh Dayal and the work of the supervision of the military administration was assigned to Baj Singh. Jamadar Khushal Singh was appointed as the Chief Police Commissioner. Dewan Sawan Mai was appointed as the Subedar of Multan.

Importance:

  • With the victory of Multan, the fame of Ranjit Singh spread to all the four corners of the Punjab,
  • The victory of Multan gave a death blow to the Afghan power.
  • The victory of Multan strengthened the economic position of Ranjit Singh. The trade in Punjab made much progress,
  • The Muslims of Sindh and Bahawalpur were separated permanently from each other. In future, they would not be in a position to forge a united front against Ranjit Singh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 4.
Describe the conquest of Peshawar by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Peshawar had special strategic importance as it was situated on the north-western frontier of the Punjab. Because of its geographical situation, it had great importance from military point of view.

After Multan’s conquest, Ranjit Singh paid his attention to Peshawar. He wanted to capture Peshawar.
1. First Expedition against Peshawar in 1818 A.D. Lawlessness was prevailing in the state of Kabul. Ranjit Singh exploited this situation. He, alongwith Akali Phoola Singh and Hari Singh Nalwa, marched towards Peshawar. His army was greatly opposed by the Khatak tribe. But the Sikh soldiers defeated it and captured the forts of Khairabad and Jahangira. Next, the Sikh forces advanced towards Peshawar. At that time, Yaar Mohammad Khan was the ruler of Peshawar. On November 20, 1818 A.D. Ranjit Singh was able to occupy Peshawar without any difficulty. But he realised that in order to annex Peshawar to his kingdom, he lacked sufficient power. Therefore, he appointed Jahandad Khan, the ex-Governor of Attock, as the Governor of Peshawar and himself returned to Lahore.

2. Second Invasion of Peshawar. When the Sikh forces returned to Lahore, Yaar Mohammad Khan fell upon Jahandad Khan and compelled him to run away. Ranjit Singh sent a force of 12,000 soldiers under the command of prince Kharak Singh and Misar Diwan Chand to attack Peshawar. But Yaar Mohammad Khan did not deem it proper to fight against the Sikhs and accepted Ranjit Singh’s suzerainty.

3. Third Invasion of Peshawar. In the meantime, Azim Khan the new Wazir of Kabul attacked Peshawar. In January, 1823, he defeated Yaar Mohammad Khan and occupied Peshawar. When Ranjit Singh came to know about it, he despatced a big army under his able generals including Hari Singh Nalwa, Prince Sher Singh and Attar Singh Atariwala. Azim Khan declared a Jehad or crusade against the Sikhs. On March 14, 1823 A.D. fierce battles took place between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Naushehra and Tibba, (also called Tibba Tehri). Akali Phoola Singh lost his life in this battle. Then the Sikh forces saw Ranjit Singh himself in the battle-field. His presence there awakened the spirit of self-confidence among the Sikh soldiers. Soon the Sikhs defeated Azim Khan.

4. Crushing the revolt of Sayyed Ahmed. Sayyed Ahmed a Wahabi leader organised a big army and declared Jehad (a religious war) against the Sikhs. Ranjit Singh firmly resolved to crush this revolt. In 1829 A.D. Sayyed Ahmed attacked Peshawar. Yaar Mohammad, who was under the Maharaja, could not face him. In the meantime, prince Sher Singh defeated Sayyed Ahmad in the battle of Balakot.

5. Annexation of Peshawar to the kingdom of Lahore. After 1831 A.D, Maharaja Ranjit Singh planned to bring Peshawar under his control. In 1834, he sent a large army under prince Naunihal Singh, Hari Singh Nalwa and General Ventura to conquer Peshawar. They besieged the fort and the city. But the Sikh army met with no opposition and it captured the city. Ranjit Singh annexed Peshawar to his kingdom and appointed Hari Singh Nalwa as the Governor of Peshawar.

6. Unsuccessful attempts by Dost Mohammad to recover Peshawar. In 1834 A.D. Dost Mohammad Khan, the Amir of Kabul, resolved to get back Peshawar from the Sikhs. Hari Singh Nalwa was engaged in getting the fort of Jamrud repaired. This fort could prove to be a danger to Dost Mohammad Khan. That is why he sent an army of 18000 men under the command of his son, Muhammad Akbar against the Sikhs. A fierce battle was fought between them. At last the Sikhs came out victorious.

Question 5.
On what issues did Ranjit Singh and the British not agree?
Answer:
There were three main issues on which tension arose between Ranjit Singh and the English. These matters were the question of Sindh, the question of Shikarpur and the question of Ferozepur.
1. The Question of Sindh. Among the issues which created differences and bitterness between Ranjit Singh and the British, the problem of Sindh has a special place. Being situated on the South-western frontier of kingdom of Lahore, the territory of Sindh had a great military significance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government also knew quite well the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So, it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent its political agent of Lahore Col. Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission so that he could not judge the real intentions of the British. Although the nature of this Mission was friendly, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

2. The Question of Shikarpur. On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh was waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe made attacks on the border regions of kingdom of Lahore. Ranjit Singh tried to occupy Shikarpur by holding the Amirs-mf Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also closely watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent a military regiment under the command of Captain Wood to Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh was asked to retreat. Since Ranjit Singh was not powerful enough to face the British forces, he thought it wise to withdraw.

3. The Question of Ferozepur, 1835 A.D. The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the bilateral relations of Ranjit Singh and the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D, Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him capture it. The British Government itself captured Ferozepur in 1835 A.D., and after three years made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Activity:

Question 1.
In the given map Punjab, show the place of important conquests of Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Name any four important conquests of Ranjit. Singh.
Answer:
Conquests of Peshawar, Lahore, Multan and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What was the name of the father of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Mahan Singh.

Question 3.
When did Ranjit Singh conquer Lahore?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

Question 4.
Name any four territories conquered by Ranjit Singh before 1812 A.D.
Answer:
Lahore, Amritsar, Sialkot and Jalandhar.

Question 5.
Name any four Misls conquered by Ranjit Singh.;
Answer:
Faizalpuria Misl, Krorsinghia Misl, Nakai Misl and Kanhaiya Misl.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 6.
Which was the first Misl?
Answer:
Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl.

Question 7.
When did Ranjit Singh conquer Kashmir?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Kashmir in 1819 A.D.

Question 8.
Name any one powerful Misldar who extended hand of friendship towards Ranjit Singh instead of opposing him.
Answer:
Sada Kaur of Kanhaiya Misl.

Question 9.
What was the importance of conquest of Lahore by Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
By this conquest, he was able to occupy the capital of the Punjab.

Question 10.
Why was Ranjit Singh eager to conquer Multan?
Answer:
If Ranjit Singh could occupy Multan, the Muslim states could not forge a united front against him.

Question 11.
Mention any one benefit of conquest of Multan to Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The conquest of Multan ended the Afghan influence in the Punjab.

Question 12.
Why was Ranjit Singh so eager to conquer Peshawar? (Give one reason.)
Answer:
It was necessary for Ranjit Singh to capture Peshawar for the stability of his kingdom.

Question 13.
Write down any one main cause of the Sikh victory in the battle of Naushehra.
Answer:
The Sikhs fought this battle with a greater religious fervour than the Muslims,

Question 14.
Mention any one clause of the treaty of Amritsar (1809 A.D.).
Answer:
The river Sutlej would be the boundary between the kingdom of Ranjit Singh and the British territories.

Question 15.
Write down one disadvantage to Ranjit Singh from the Treaty of Amritsar.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh suffered a diplomatic defeat and had to put his pride in his pocket.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 16.
Write down one advantage to Ranjit Singh by the Treaty of Amritsar.
Answer:
The infant kingdom of Ranjit Singh was saved from the British danger because of this treaty.

Question 17.
What was the main advantage for the British by the treaty of Amritsar?
Answer:
The British had no worries about the problems of the North-west region.

Question 18.
What is called the period of “Guardianship of the Triad” or Truine?
Answer:
During the minority of Ranjit Singh, there were three regents who had all the powers of state in their hands.

Question 19.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Ranjit Singh.

Question 20.
Who ruled Amritsar at the time of its invasion by Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Mai Sukhan.

Question 21.
What was the name of father of Ranjit Singh? What was the name of his Misl?
Answer:
Mahan Singh, the chief of the Sukherchakya Misl.

Question 22.
According to Dr. N.K. Sinha what was the policy of Ranjit Singh towards the British?
Answer:
Sinha has called it the policy of “yielding, yielding and yielding”.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 23.
Between whom the Tripartite Treaty was negotiated in 1839 A.D.?
Answer:
The British, Shah Shuja and Ranjit Singh.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Ranjit Singh was born in _________ at _________
Answer:
1780 A.D., Gujranwala

Question 2.
Ranjit Singh invaded Lahore in and easily occupied it by defeating the _________ chiefs.
Answer:
1799, Bhangi

Question 3.
Amritsar has become the_________capital of the Sikhs.
Answer:
religious

Question 4.
Ranjit Singh had been the victim of in his childhood. Due to this terrible disease he lost his _________
Answer:
Smallpox left eye

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 5.
In 1809 a treaty was signed between Ranjit Singh and the _________
Answer:
British

Question 6.
From 1828 to 1839 the relations between the British and Ranjit Singh started _________
Answer:
deteriorating

Question 7.
Tension arose between the British and Ranjit Singh on the matters of _________ and Ferozepur.
Answer:
Sindh, Shikarpur.

True or False :

Question 1.
The relations between Ranjit Singh and the British always remained cordial.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Ranjit Singh died in 1839.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 3.
Ranjit Singh did not conqure weak Misls.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of their Bhangi chiefs. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore.
Answer:
True.

Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Tripartite Treaty (a) 1839
2. Multan (b) 1805
3. Peshawar (c) 1834
4. Kashmir (d) 1818
5. Amritsar (e) 1819

Answer:
1, (a)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (e)
5, (b).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the coronation of Ranjit Singh,
Answer:
The coronation of Ranjit Singh took place with great pomp and show on the eve of Baisakhi at Lahore on April 12, 1801 A.D. He gave his government the name of Sarkar Khalsa. Ranjit Singh did not wear any crown. He issued his coins in the name of Guru Nanak Sahib and Guru Gobind Singh Ji. Thus, Ranjit Singh recognised Khalsa as the supreme power. Imam Baksh was appointed as the kotwal of Lahore.

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Dera Jat by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
In order to conquer Dera Ghazi Khan, Ranjit Singh sent an army under Jamadar Khushal Singh in 1820 A.D. He captured Dera Ghazi Khan after defeating the Afghan ruler, Zaman Khan. Ranjit Singh gave this territory to the Nawab of Bahawalpur in lieu of a heavy amount to be given to him every year as a tribute. Ranjit Singh conquered Dera Ismail Khan and Mankera. Ranjit Singh took the territory of Mankera from its Nawab Ahmed Khan and made him the governor of Dera Ismail Khan.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 3.
Describe any four early conquests of Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Given below is the description of the four early conquests of Ranjit,Singh:
1. Conquest of Lahore. Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore at the very first opportunity. The Bhangi chiefs Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh escaped from Lahore. Only Chet Singh defied Ranjit Singh. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

2. Battle of Bhasin. The Sikh and the Muslim rulers of the surrounding areas were terrified at the victory of Ranjit Singh at Lahore. They decided to confront. Ranjit Singh by forming a powerful united front. A battle was fought at Bhasin in 1800 A.D. Ranjit Singh came out victorious in this battle without any bloodshed.

3. Conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh conquered Amritsar after the death of Gulab Singh. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh, was the ruler of that territory at that time. Mai Sukhan offered resistance for sometime but she gave way afterwards. In this way, Amritsar was merged in the territory of Ranjit Singh.

4. Relations with other Sikh Misls. Now Ranjit Singh also occupied the territories of Dallewala and Nakkai Misls.

Question 4.
Discuss the conquest of any four Misls by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh decided to capture the independent Sikh Misls. He befriended the rulers of Ahluwalia, Kanahiya and Ramgarhia Misls. He started occupying the territories of weaker Misls with their help.

A brief account of his conquest of these Misls is as given below:

  • Ranjit Singh defeated Dal Singh of Akalgarh in 1802 A.D. and merged his territory into his kingdom,
  • After the death of the ruler of Dallewalia Misl Sardar Tara Singh Gheba in 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh conquered most of his territories.
  • In the very next year, he defeated Jeewan Singh, the ruler of Sialkot and merged his territories into his kingdom,
  • He annexed the territories of Sardar Kahn Singh of Nakai Misl and those of Sardar Sahib Singh of Gujrat in 1810 A.D.

Question 5.
What were the important provisions of the Treaty of Amritsar?
Answer:
On April 2, 1809, A.D. Ranjit Singh signed the Treaty of Amritsar with the English. The main provisions of this treaty were:

  1. Both the governments shall maintain friendly relations with each other.
  2. The English would not interfere in the affairs of the territory to the north of the Sutlej and Ranjit Singh would not interfere in the affairs of the territory to the south of the Sutlej.
  3. The British government recognised Ranjit Singh as the most favoured power. He was assured that the English would have no concern with his state nor with the citizens of his kingdom. None would keep forces more than what was absolutely necessary.
  4. Ranjit Singh would keep only that much army in the south of the Sutlej which was necessary for the maintenance of law and order.
  5. If any party to the treaty violated its provision, the treaty would be considered cancelled.

Question 6.
What was the significance of the Treaty of Amritsar (1809)?
Answer:
The Treaty of Amritsar was signed between the English and Maharaja Ranjit Singh on April 25, 1809 A.D. This treaty was important from the historical point of view for the English as v/ell as the Sikhs. But opinions differ regarding the importance of this treaty. Due to this, the English and the Maharaja gained something but the Maharaja -was also a loser in some respects. The greatest desire of the Maharaja was to become the sole ruler of all the Sikhs. But his dream was shattered due to this treaty. He could never exercise his control over the states of Malwa. This treaty gave a terrible blow- to the power and prestige of Ranjit Singh.

This treaty extended the boundaries of the British rule from the Yamuna to the Sutlej. Because of its close vicinity to Ranjit Singh’s kingdom, the British government could keep a more strict watch over the foreign policy and the military activities of the Maharaja. Of course, the treaty was also useful to the Maharaja. The infant state of Punjab was saved from being destroyed. Besides, Ranjit Singh got an opportunity to extend the frontiers of his kingdom in other directions. Therefore, he greatly extended the boundaries of his state in the north-western region.

Question 7.
Discuss the importance of the battle of Naushehra (Four points only).
Answer:

  1. Nazim Shah was defeated by the Sikhs in the battle of Naushehra. He made his sons swear that they would avenge this defeat. Thus, there started between the Afghans and the Sikhs an enmity which continued for a long time.
  2. The Sikhs won a name for their bravery in the battle of Naushehra. After the battle of Haidru, Naushehra was the second place at which the Sikhs had thoroughly routed the Afghans in a battle in the plains. Consequently, the Sikhs developed self-confidence and adopted even more aggressive policy against the Afghans.
  3. As a result of this battle, the prestige of Ranjit Singh rose very high. His power was acknowledged throughout the Punjab. Besides, due to his victory in the battle of Naushehra, the Maharaja’s hold on the Afghan territories between the Indus and Peshawar became stronger.
  4. The Afghan power in the north-west of India was thoroughly eliminated after this battle.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 8.
Write a short note on the Tripartite Treaty (The British, Shah Shuja and Ranjit Singh).
Answer:
In 1839 A.D., Russia was advancing towards Asia. The British feared that Russia might attack India through Afghanistan. So they wanted to establish friendship with Afghanistan. The British sent Col. Burns to Kabul so that he could negotiate a friendship treaty with Amir Dost Mohammad of Kabul. Dost Mohammad demanded that the British should hand over to him the province of Peshawar after acquiring it from Ranjit Singh. But friendship of Ranjit Singh was most essential and important for the British. So, they did not accept this term of Dost Mohammad and signed a treaty with Shah Shuja, a brother of Dost Muhammad. Ranjit Singh was also a party to this treaty. This treaty is known as the Tripartite treaty.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the main victories of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Following is the description of the conquests of Lahore, Amritsar, Attock, Multan and Kashmir by Ranjit Singh :
1. Conquest of Lahore. The conquest of Lahore was the first important achievement of Ranjit Singh. In those days, Lahore was under the rule of three Bhangi Sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these Sardars. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore. Ranjit Singh lost no time in attacking Lahore with a large army. On hearing the news of the attack, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh escaped from Lahore. Only Chet Singh offered some resistance to Ranjit Singh. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

2. Conquest of Amritsar. Ranjit Singh conquered Amritsar after the death of Gulab Singh Bhangi. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh was the ruler of that territory at that time. Ranjit Singh demanded the fort of Lohgarh situated at Amritsar and the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan. But Mai Sukhan refused. Ranjit Singh attacked Amritsar. Mai Sukhan put up resistance for sometime but she gave way afterwards. In this way, Amritsar was annexed to the kingdom of Ranjit Singh.

3. Conquest of Attock. An understanding was reached between Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan of Kabul in 1813 A.D. Accordingly, it was decided that Ranjit Singh would send 12 thousand soldiers to help Fateh Khan in the conquest of Kashmir and Fateh Khan in return would give him one-third of the conquered territories in addition to the booty received from thfere. Besides, Ranjit Singh promised to help Fateh Khan in his conquest of Attack, whereas Fateh Khan would help Ranjit Singh in the conquest of Multan.

The combined forces of Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan conquered Kashmir with great ease but Fateh Khan did not fulfil his promise. He also did not give anything out of the wealth plundered by him from Kashmir. Ranjit Singh attacked Attock in fury (according to the treaty, Fateh Khan was to occupy Attock). Ranjit Singh’s minister Azizuddin took Attock from Jahandad Khan and gave him one lakh rupees and a big jagir. Fateh Khan could not tolerate this. He attacked Attock with a big army immediately. A fierce battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Hazro near Attock. The Sikhs came out victorious in this battle.

4. Conquest of Multan. The territory of Multan was important both from the military and commercial points of view. Ranjit Singh attacked Multan six times till 1818 A.D. But every time, the Pathan ruler of Multan, Muzzaffar Khan would save his skin by offering him heavy Nazrana. Ranjit Singh determined to occupy Multan and annex it to his kingdom. In 1818 A.D. he sent 25 thousand soldiers under Misar Dewan Chand and his own eldest son Kharak Singh to invade Multan. The Sikh army besieged the fort of Multan. Muzzaffar Khan fought the Sikh army bravely. But he was killed in the battle and Multan was occupied by the Sikhs.

5. Conquest of Kashmir. Fateh Khan, the Wazir of Afghanistan, had not given Ranjit Singhs his share of booty after the conquest of Kashmir. Now Ranjit Singh sent an army under Ram Dyal to conquer Kashmir. Ranjit Singh himself accompanied Ram Dyal to fight this battle but the Sikhs could not achieve success. He again sent an expedition under Misar Dewan Chand and prince Kharak Singh. Zabar Khan, the new governor of Kashmir, advanced to face the Sikh army but was badly defeated at Supin.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh, What was its importance?
Answer:
After the death of Gulab Singh Bhangi, his son Gurdit Singh became the ruler of Amritsar. He was a minor. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh, therefore, looked after the affairs of the state. Ranjit Singh was finding an opportunity to conquer Amritsar. In 1805 A.D., he found this opportunity. He requested Mai Sukhan to give him the famous Bhangi Gun ‘Zamzama’ because the Sukarchakia Misl had played a major role in capturing that gun from Ahmed Shah Abdali in 1764. Ranjit Singh also demanded Lohgarh Fort. It is said that Jodh Singh Ramgarhia, son of Jassa Singh Ramgarhia, counselled Mai Sukhan to hand over the gun to Ranjit Singh. But she did not agree. Maharaja Ranjit Singh wanted to capture Amritsar at any cost.

The demand for the gun was only an excuse to invade Amritsar. He attacked Amritsar and captured Lohgarh. Sada Kaur and Fateh Singh Ahluwalia helped Ranjit Singh in this conquest. The Maharaja came out victorious. Thus, he occupied Amritsar and the Fort of Lohgarh. As proposed by Jodh Singh, Ranjit Singh gave Mai Sukhan and Gurdit Singh a small Jagir for their maintenance. Akali Phoola Singh of Amritsar, who was a great warrior, alongwith his 2000 Nihang followers joined the army of Ranjit Singh.

Importance of the Conquest of Amritsar :
Following is the importance of the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh :

  1. It was the religious capital of the Sikhs. Ranjit Singh became the master of this historic city of the Sikhs.
  2. As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, the military power of Ranjit Singh increased. The Fort of Lohgarh proved a boon for the Maharaja. He also got the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan.
  3. Ranjit Singh acquired the services of Akali Phoola Singh and his 2000 Nihang followers. Because of the extraordinary courage and bravery of the’ Nihangs, Ranjit Singh achieved many glorious victories.
  4. As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh’s name and fame spread far and wide. Many’ Indians left the service of the East India Company and got employment with Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Many Europeans also joined the army of the Maharaja.

Question 3.
Describe the relations of Ranjit Singh with the British from 1809-1839 A.D.
Answer:
On 25th April, 1809 A.D., the Treaty of Amritsar was signed between the British and Ranjit Singh. Although this treaty had ended the possibility of an immediate armed conflict, yet it could not end the feelings of doubt and fear growing in the minds of both powers.

After this treaty, until 1839 A.D., the Anglo-Sikh relations had to pass through the following stages:
Period of mutual distrust and suspicion (1809-1811). from 1809 to 1811 A.D. both Ranjit Singh and the British Government looked upon each other with distrust and suspicion. Both sides had imaginary fears against each other. Each of them had engaged spies to know about the military and diplomatic strategies of the other.

But gradually this mutual distrust lessened and by 1812 A.D. it was almost over.

Anglo-Sikh relations from 1812 to 1822 A.D. During the decade of 1812 to 1822 A.D., mutual cooperation and friendly relations existed between the British and Ranjit Singh.
1. Ranjit Singh’s refusal to help Nepal. In 1815 A.D. when a Gorkha Vakil came to seek help from the Maharaja against the British, he clearly refused. In the. first British-Nepal war (1814-15A.D.), the Maharaja, by helping the British, proved his friendship with them. Likewise, when in 1821 A.D. the representative of Appa Sahib Maratha came to seek help against the British, the Maharaja refused him blankly. On the other hand, the British made no interference in the affairs of Ranjit Singh in the North-west of the Sutlej.

2. Question of Wadni. In the beginning of 1822 A.D., there was some bitterness in the mutual relations of the British and Ranjit Singh regarding Wadni, a village situated in the south of the Sutlej. During his cis-Sutlej expedition in 1808 A.D., Ranjit Singh handed over this region to his mother-in-law Sada Kaur in exchange for twelve thousand rupees. But in 1820 A.D., Ranjit Singh imprisoned Sada Kaur and recaptured Wadni. Rani Sada Kaur sought the help of the British. The British resident at Ludhiana sent a British regiment that occupied Wadni. The Maharaja expressed his annoyance to the Governor-General. So in 1823 A.D. the Governor-General again accepted the suzerainty of Ranjit Singh over Wadni.

3. Cordiality again. Ranjit Singh tried his level best to maintain friendly relations with the British. In 1825-26 A.D., the chief of Bharatpur sought Ranjit Singh’s military help but the Maharaja refused. In 1826 A.D. Maharaja Ranjit Singh fell ill. On his request, the British Government sent Dr. Murray to Lahore. As a result, friendly relations were restored between the two sides for some time.

The estrangement of relations again. From 1828 to 1839 A.D. the relations between the ruler of Lahore and the British Government started deteriorating.

During this period, the following events created tension between them :
1. Increasing Power of Ranjit Singh. During the last ten years, Ranjit Singh had greatly increased his power by conquering Multan, Kashmir, Deraj at and Peshawar, etc. The British Government was jealous of the increasing power of Ranjit Singh. So, on the one hand, the British Government started adopting the policy of encircling the kingdom of Lahore from different directions. On the other hand, it pretended friendship with the Maharaja.

2. The Question of Sindh. Among the issues which created differences and bitterness in the relations, between Ranjit Singh and the British, the issue of Sindh was very complex. This region being situated in the South-west of Lahore, had a great military significance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government also well understood the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So, it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent one of its officers Alexander Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a Commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission, so that he could not judge the real intentions of the British. Although it seemed to be a friendly mission, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

3. Meeting at Ropar between Ranjit Singh and William Bentinck. (Imp.) The Governor-General Lord William Bentinck very well knew about the doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh. The fear of Russian attack on India was also spreading fast. The British Governor-General did not want that in that hour of crisis their relations with the Maharaja should deteriorate. Instead, he wanted that the relations with the Sikh ruler should be cemented and he should also know about the increasing influence of the British in Sindh. To achieve this purpose, on October 1831 A.D., Lord William Bentinck met the Maharaja at Ropar. But at the same time, he sent Col. Pottinger to make a commercial treaty with the Amirs of Sindh.

The negotiations between the Governor-General and Ranjit Singh were still going on in Ropar, when an important treaty was signed between the British and the Amirs of Sindh by the efforts of Col. Pottinger. Ranjit Singh returned disappointed from the meeting at Ropar.

4. The Question of Shikarpur. On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh had been waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe attacked the border regions of Lahore Kingdom. Ranjit Singh tried to occupy Shikarpur by holding the Amirs of Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent a military regiment under the command of Captain Wood to Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh was asked to retreat. Since Ranjit Singh was not powerful enough to fight against the British, he thought it wise to withdraw.

5. The Question of Ferozepur, 1835 A.D. The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the relations of Ranjit Singh with the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D. Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him occupy it. The British Government itself captured Ferozepur in 1835 A.D. and after three years made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

6. Tripartite Treaty. In 1839 A.D., Russia was advancing towards Asia. The British feared that Russia might attack India through Afghanistan. So they wanted to establish friendship with Afghanistan. The British sent Col. Burns to Kabul so that he could negotiate a friendship treaty with Amir Dost Mohammad the ruler of ‘ that country. Dost‘Mohammad was willing to sign the treaty on the condition that the British should hand over to him the province of Peshawar by taking it from Ranjit Singh. But friendship of Ranjit Singh was most essential and important for the British. So, they did not accept this term of Dost Mohammad. On his part, Dost Mohammad entered into a treaty with Russia. It was a big challenge for the British. They made an agreement with Shah Shuja, the former ruler of Afghanistan.

Ranjit Singh was also a party to this agreement. It is known as the Tripartite Treaty. Ranjit Singh signed this treaty but he did not sign an important clause of it. It was, “That the armies of the British can attack Kabul by passing through Punjab.” But Ranjit Singh was afraid that the British would certainly violate this clause. So in the last years of his reign, he tried to take many steps against the British. But, Ranjit Singh died in 1839 A.D.

It is a fact that from 1809 A.D. to 1839 A.D. Ranjit Singh adopted the policy of maintaining a friendship with the British. He had decided that he will not fight with the British, whatever sacrifice he might have to make. Keeping in view his yielding policy on every occasion before the demands of the British, Dr. N.K. Sinha has called it the policy of “yielding, yielding, and yielding.”

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
Who was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Kharak Singh was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. He was not a worthy son of his father. He was a pleasure-loving ruler.

Question 2.
Why were the Sikhs defeated in the battle of Mudki?
Answer:
The Sikhs lost the battle of Mudki because of the following reasons :

  • Lai Singh escaped from the battle-field when the Sikh army was about to win.
  • As compared to the English, the Sikhs had very small military resources.

Question 3.
When was the battle of Sabhraon fought and what was its result?
Or
When was the battle of Sabhraon fought?
Answer:
The battle of Sabhraon was fought on February 10, 1846. Because of the treachery of Teja Singh and Lai Singh, the Sikhs lost the battle. As a result, the English army crossed the Sutlej river without any hurdle.

Question 4.
What was the matter of Suchet Singh’s treasury?
Answer:
Dogra Sardar Suchet Singh was in the service of Lahore Darbar. At the time of his death, he was at Ferozepur. He left behind fifteen lakh rupees there. Because he had no issue, the Lahore Darbar claimed its right on this amount. But the English Government wanted to take this matter to the court.

Question 5.
Write about the ‘Cow Row1’.
Answer:
On April 21, 1846 a herd of cows blocked the way of a European gunner at Lahore. The gunner attempted to kill the cows. Hearing this news, the Hindus and the Sikhs rose against the English. .

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 6.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire? Who was the Governor-General of India at that time?
Answer:
The Punjab was annexed to the British Empire in 1849. Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General at that time.

Question 7.
What steps were taken by Chattar Singh against the Britishers?
Answer:
The British charged Chattar Singh, the governor of Hazara that he was the head of the conspiracy for the expulsion of the British from the Punjab. The British officer Canora refused to obey the orders of Chattar Singh unless backed by Captain Abbot. Canora not only refused to obey Chattar Singh’s order, but also ordered his Havaldars to fire upon Sikh soldiers and shot dead two of them. In retaliation, the Sikh infantry shot dead Canora. Captain Abbot accused Chattar Singh of murder of Canora. This convinced Chattar Singh that Abbot might go to the extent of ruining him. Chattar Singh decided to resign. He had no choice but to rise in revolt against the British.

It was thus mainly due to the intrigues of Captain Abbot that Chattar Singh was forced to rise in revolt against the British on 11th September, 1848. He and his son went over to the side of Dewan Mul Raj against the British. Sher Singh also won the support of the major portion of the Sikh troops.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
According to the Treaty of Lahore, a contingent of British forces was kept at Lahore for the protection of the Maharaja and the citizens of Lahore. But with the passage of time, Lord Hardinge planned to keep the English troops at Lahore. Maharani Jindan agreed to it. So a meeting of the Sardars and the Ministers of the Lahore Darbar was called, In it, only those terms of the Governor-General were announced on the basis of which the ministers of the Darbar agreed to keep the English troops at Lahore even after 1846 A.D. Thus the British entered into another treaty with the Sikhs on December 12, 1846 A.D. This treaty is known as the Treaty of Bhairowal.

Question 2.
Write any four terms of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
Following were the four main provisions of the Treaty of Bhairowal :

  1. The administration of Lahore was entrusted to a body of eight Sikh Sardars who were the supporters of the English. They were to carry on this duty till the maturity of Maharaja Dalip Singh.
  2. The Governor-General appointed a British Resident at Lahore.
  3. The Council of Regency was to work according to the advice of the British Resident.
  4. Rani Jindan was ousted from the Punjab. She was given a pension of one lakh rupees annually.

Question 3.
Write about the importance of the Bhairowal Treaty.
Answer:
The Treaty of Bhairowal has great importance in the history of the Punjab and India.

  1. By this treaty, the British became the real masters of Punjab. The British Resident was given unlimited powers. Henry Lawrence was appointed as the first British Resident at Lahore.
  2. According to this treaty, Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was first interned at Sheikhupura and then sent to Benaras.

Question 4.
After the First Anglo-Sikh war, why did the British not annex Punjab to their empire? White any three causes.
Answer:
The English did not occupy the Punjab after the First Anglo-Sikh War for the following reasons.

  1. The Sikh forces lost the battles of Mudki, Ferozeshah and Sabraon but Lahore, Amritsar and Peshawar were still under them. Had the English occupied the Punjab, they would have to face the Sikh forces there.
  2. Had the British occupied the Punjab, they would have to spend much money for the establishment of peace and order in the Punjab,
  3. Lord Hardinge did not annex the Punjab because he was of the new that the state would prove a good buffer state between Afghanistan and British India.
  4. According to Lord Hardinge, Punjab was not economically profitable state at that stage. Hence the Treaty of Bhairowal was then entered into with the Sikhs.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 5.
After the Treaty of Bhairowal how did the British treat Queen Jindan?
Answer:
The Treaty of Bhairowal deprived Rani Jindan of her political rights. She was ousted from the Lahore Darbar. She was arrested and sent to Sheikhupura. She was first given a pension of 1,50,000 rupees annually. It was reduced from 1,50,000 to 48,000 rupees annually. Thereafter, she was exiled to Benaras. Thus she was badly treated by the English. As a result, the Sikhs were annoyed and rose against the English.

Question 6.
What do you know about Maharaja Dalip Singh?
Answer:
Maharaja Dalip Singh was the last Sikh ruler of Lahore State. At the time of the First Anglo-Sikh War, he was a minor. According to the Treaty of Bhairowal of 1846, a Council of Regency was formed to run the administration of the Lahore Darbar. It was to run the administration till the maturity of Maharaja Dalip Singh. But the Sikh forces lost the Second Anglo-Sikh War. As a result of it, Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned and given a pension of 50,000 pounds annually and sent to England. Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Answer the following questions in about 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Discuss the causes of the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The First Anglo-Sikh War was fought in 1845-46. Following were its causes :
1. The British policy of Encirclement of the Lahore Kingdom. Ever since the time of Ranjit Singh, the British were making schemes for the conquest of the Punjab. They had built cantonments around the Sikh kindgom. Politically and diplomatically, they had half encircled the Sikh kingdom. They had already occupied Ferozepur and established a military cantonment there. They had brought Sindh and Shikarpur under their sphere of influence. After Ranjit. Singh’s death, their dream of conquering Punjab acquired more clear and definite shape. Naturally, such designs of the British alarmed the Sikh army in particular and the people of the Punjab in general.

2. Anarchy in the Punjab. Soon after the death of Ranjit Singh in 1839 A.D., there prevailed anarchy in the Punjab and within a span of about four years, many of his sons and relatives were put to sword. Now the Khalsa army was all powerful and it became a problem for the Lahore Durbar to keep it under control. With the army being all in all, nobody’s life was safe. All the important chiefs and courtiers were afraid of the Khalsa army. It was in their best interest to engage the army in some war so as to weaken its power.

3. Defeat of the British in the First Afghan War. In the First Afghan War, the English fought with Afghanistan from 1839 to 1842 A.D. The English suffered a defeat. This encouraged the Sikhs to wage a war against the British. They had begun to think that the English were not invincible. If the Afghans could teach them a lesson, why not the Sikhs who had humiliated the Afghans in the times of Ranjit Singh.

4. Annexation of Sindh to the British Empire. The British annexed Sindh to their Empire in 1843 A.D. This incident brought the imperialistic designs of the English in the limelight. It was clear that the English would now try to annex the Punjab. It was difficult for the English to maintain their control over Sindh unless they annexed the Punjab too.

The annexation of Sindh brought their aggressive designs to the forefront and the Sikhs naturally became suspicious of the English.

5. Ellenborough’s plan to capture Punjab. The British, in fact, had been planning to occupy the Punjab much before their war with the Sikhs actually began. After the annexation of Sindh to the British Empire, Lord Ellenborough planned to capture the Punjab. To materialise this plan, the English began to make elaborate military preparations. When the Sikhs came to know about the intentions of the British, the Sikhs also began to make preparations for War.

6. Military Activities of the British. The prevailing anarchy in the Punjab encouraged the English to start making elaborate military preparations. They began to station their army men in large numbers near the Sutlej.

It is said that on the boundaries of the Sutlej in 1836 A.D., there were only 2500 British soldiers. Their number rose to 14,000 in 1843. Besides this, the English had stationed a large number of their troops at Ferozepur, Ludhiana and Ambala. Not only that, the English had begun to collect boats to cross the Sutlej. All these activities of the English made the Sikhs more suspicious and they began to feel that the English wanted to grab the Punjab.

7. The dispute over the treasure of Suchet Singh. Dogra Sardar Suchet Singh was in the service of Lahore Darbar. At the time of his death, he was at Ferozepur. He left behind fifteen lakh rupees there. Because he had no issue, the Lahore Darbar claimed its right on this amount. But the English Government wanted to bring this matter to the court. At this the Sikhs rose in revolt against the English.

8. Dispute over Mauran Village. Dhanna Singh, a native of the village Mauran situated in the Nabha State, was in the service of Maharaja Ranjit Singh; who being pleased with him, wrote to Jaswant Singh the Raja of Nabha to grant him the village Mauran as Jagir. In return, the Maharaja granted him a number of villages for life to Jaswant Singh’s sister. After the death of Dhanna Singh, his son Hukam Singh succeeded him. But Devinder Singh, the new ruler of Nabha, sent his troops to the village and seized Hukam Singh’s property worth about two lakh rupees and occupied the village. The Lahore Darbar demanded the restoration of the village. But the English Government rejected the claim of the Lahore Darbar and said that Jaswant Singh’s grant to Dhanna Singh had been illegal.

9. Provocation of Major Broadfoot. The appointment of Major Broadfoot as the British Resident at Ludhiana in place of Mr. Clark added fuel to the fire. He was hard-headed and hot-tempered. Immediately after taking charge of his post, he declared that Maharaja Dalip Singh’s territories South of the Sutlej would be considered under British rule. This declaration aroused the anger of the Sikh chiefs beyond limit and they began to feel that a war with the British was unavoidable.

10. Plans of Lai Singh and Rani Jindan. Lai Singh and Rani Jindan planned to incite the Sikh army against the British. They made the Sikh army to think that the British were determined to capture Punjab after occupying Sindh.

11. Immediate Cause: Crossing of the Sutlej by the Sikhs. The excited Sikh forces made up their mind to settle their scores with the British. Thus, between December 11 and 14 in 1846 A.D., the Sikh soldiers in large numbers began to cross the Sutlej river. The English were already waiting for the Sikhs to first begin the war. As soon as the Governor-General Lord Hardinge got the information that the Sikh forces had crossed the Sutlej, he also declared a regular war against the Sikhs on December 18, 1845 A.D.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 2.
Write about the events related to the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The First Anglo-Sikh war began on December 18,1845 A.D. and ended on February 10, 1846 A.D. Following were the main events of this war:
1. The Battle of Mudki: Immediately after crossing the Sutlej, the Sikh army advanced towards Ferozepur.
It was led by Lai Singh. On the other side, the English forces under Sir Hugh Gough left Ludhiana to defend Ferozepur. On December 18, 1845, both the armies came into collusion with each other at Mudki, a place about twenty miles from Ferozepur.

The Khalsa army had 40,000 soldiers and 150 guns. The English army had 10,000 soldiers and 48 guns. When the victory of the Sikhs was in sight, Lai Singh, the commander of the Sikh army, deserted them and withdrew from the scene leaving the army all alone. Consequently, a victory was changed into a defeat and the Sikhs had to retreat from the battle-field. Although the English came out victorious in this battle, yet the war proved very costly to them also. About 215 of their soldiers were killed and about 657 were wounded. The Sikhs also suffered a heavy loss of life and 17 guns.

2. Battle of Ferozeshah. After the battle of Mudki, the English army advanced towards a place called Ferozeshah which was about 12 miles away from the Sutlej.

At this place the forces of Sir Hugh Gough were joined by another English contingent under Sir Johan Little. A fierce battle was fought between the two sides on December 21,1845 A.D. The Sikhs fought so bravely that the English forces became nervous. But here also the Sikh Commanders like Teja Singh proved traitors and left the Sikh army without a leader, with the result that the English forces advanced forward and occupied the Sikh positions on December 22. Thus because of the treachery on the part of the Sikh military commanders, another victory was converted into a defeat. About 8000 Sikh soldiers were killed in this battle and they lost about 73 guns. The English also suffered a heavy loss. Their 694 men were killed and about 1721 were wounded.

3. Battle of Baddowal. On January 21,1846, the Sikhs under the command of Ranjodh Singh Majithia crossed the river Sutlej and set the English military camp at Ludhiana on fire. In a fierce battle at Baddowal near Ludhiana, the Sikhs under the leadership of S. Ranjodh Singh defeated the British who were under the command of Sir Henry Smith.

4. Battle of Aliwal. Soon after the battle of Badowal, reinforcements reached the English. Ranjodh Singh tried to block the way of the English by attacking Jagraon and Ghungrana. But the English advanced and defeated the Sikhs at Aliwal on January 28, 1846 A.D.

5. Battle of Sabraon. The last and most decisive battle between the Sikhs and the English was fought on February 10, 1846 A.D. at Sabraon. The Sikhs fought the battle bravely and put the English army in trouble for sometime. The Sikh soldiers, unlike their treacherous commander Teja Singh, were prepared to conquer or die for the glory of the Khalsa. But while the soldiers did everything, the Sikh commanders with the honourable exception of Sham Singh Attariwala, remained inactive or proved traitors. In fact, the army commanders were not as much afraid of the Sikh defeat as of their victory. That is why, perhaps, they were hatching conspiracies after conspiracies.

Under such conditions, the Sikh soldiers suffered a great loss and about 8 to 10 thousand of them were killed. Sham Singh Attariwala also met a hero’s death in this battle. The English loss was 320 dead and 2,083 wounded.
The battle of Sabraon was decisive. After this victory, the British army crossed the Sutlej and occupied Lahore on February 20, 1846 A.D.

Question 3.
Discuss the terms of the First Treaty of Lahore.
Answer:
On 9th March, 1846, the Treaty of Lahore was signed between the British and the Lahore Durbar. Its main terms were as under:

  1. All the Sikh territories lying south of the river Sutlej were handed over to the British.
  2. The -Jullundur (Jalandhar) Doab was likewise annexed by the British to their own dominions.
  3. An indemnity of one and a half crore rupees was imposed upon the Lahore Darbar, which it was not able to pay. So it had to hand over to the British in lieu of it all the hill areas between the rivers Sutlej and Beas, and also Kashmir and Hazara.
  4. The Darbar would disband the rebellious forces, keeping only 20,000 infantry and 12,000 cavalry. Thirty four guns which the British had lost to the Sikhs, were restored to them.
  5. The British troops would be allowed a free passage through the Punjab when necessary.
  6. Dalip Singh was recognised as minor king of Lahore, Maharani Jindan was to be his Regent and Lai Singh the Prime Minister of the Lahore kingdom.
  7. An adequate British force would be stationed at Lahore for the protection of the Maharaja. The force would be recalled in December 1846.
  8. The British Government would respect the bonafide rights of the Jagirdars in Lahore Darbar territories.
  9. The British would be at liberty to retain any part of the state property in the forts situated in the ceded territories by paying for it a fair compensation.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 4.
Explain the Treaty of Bhairowal.
Answer:
According to the Treaty of Lahore, the English army was to withdraw from the Punjab after December, 1846 A.D., but in view of the troubled conditions of the Punjab and being afraid of the Sikh army, many Sikhs and people of other classes did not want that the English should withdraw from the Punjab. So, another treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs on December 16, 1846 A.D. which is called the Treaty of Bhairowal. This treaty was signed with the English by Maharani Jindan and the ruler of the Lahore Darbar.

Following were its main terms :

  1. The administration of Lahore was entrusted to a council of eight Sikh Sardars who supported the English. They were to carry on this duty till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a minor.
  2. The Governor-General appointed a British Resident as the head of this Council.
  3. The Council of Regency was to work on the advice of the British Resident.
  4. Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was given a pension of 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) lakh rupees annually.
  5. For the protection of the Maharaja, and the establishment of law and order, the British forces would stay in Lahore.
  6. The Lahore Darbar would pay Rs. 22 Lakhs a year to meet the expenses of the British forces which would continue staying in Lahore.
  7. Besides at Lahore, the British troops could be stationed in Sikh fortresses, the occupation of which the Governor-General might feel necessary for the protection of the Maharaja’s interests.
  8. The terms of this treaty would be considered valid till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a minor.

Importance: The Treaty of Bhairowal has great importance in the history of the Punjab and India

  • With this treaty, the English became the real masters of the Punjab. The British Resident was given unlimited powers. Henry Lawrence was appointed as the first British Resident at Lahore.
  • According to this treaty, Rani Jindan was ousted from Lahore. She was first interned at Sheikhupura and then sent to Benaras.

Question 5.
Write the causes of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War was fought in 1848-49. The English came out victorious in it. As a result, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Following were the main causes of this war:
1. Restlessness of the Sikh Soldiers. The Sikh soldiers had to suffer a defeat in the
First Anglo-Sikh War. But they knew it well that their defeat was not because they were in any way weaker than the English soldiers but it was due to the treachery of their commanders. Now they wanted to wipe off that disgrace by fighting another war with the English.

2. British Policy of Speedy Reforms. In order to increase their influence in the Punjab, the English, especially Henry Lawrence, the English Resident at Lahore, tried to bring about some social reforms. Laws were framed one after other to end the practice of Sati, to ban the killing of female children and to effect changes in the Zamindari system. Although these reforms were desirable, yet they were brought about in such a haste that the people took them as an undue interference in their religious and social life.

3. Harsh Treatment with Lai Singh and Rani Jindan. The harsh treatment which the English meted out to Rani Jindan enraged the Sikhs. Their anger further increased when the Queen Mother, Rani Jindan was dubbed as a conspirator. She was first sent to Sheikhupura and then exiled to Benaras. The pension of Rani Jindan was reduced from Rs. 1^ lakhs to 48,000 rupees in the first instance and then to? 12,000 annually. Besides, the English also meted out a harsh treatment to the Prime Minister Lai Singh. Such a treatment with Rani Jindan and Lai Singh was too much for the Sikhs to tolerate. So once again, they were forced to take up arms against the English to safeguard their rights.

4. Appointment of British Officers on High Posts. According to the Treaty of Bhairowal, the real powers of the Lahore Kingdom had come in the hands of the English. So they began to appoint English officers on high posts. The Sikh chiefs took this policy of the English as an insult to them. They wanted to free the Punjab from the English yoke.

5. Reduction in the number of Sikh Soldiers. The number of men in the Sikh army ran into lakhs but according to the Treaty of Lahore, their number was reduced to 20 thousand infantry and 12 thousand horsemen. Thus, thousands of soldiers who were disbanded became opponents of the English. Not only this, those soldiers who were kept in service were to be paid lesser salaries. Thus the entire fchalsa army turned against the British. It was filled with anger and began to prepare for another showdown.

6. Revolt of Diwan Mulraj of Multan. After the death of his father, Mulraj became the Governor of Multan in 1844 A.D. He used to pay a tribute of Rs. 12 lakhs a year to the Lahore Darbar in lieu of this post. But, after the Treaty of Bhairowal in December 1846 A.D., the English took over the administration of Lahore. They increased this tribute to Rs. 18 lakhs and also asked him to surrender l/3rd of his territory. Mulraj could not tolerate all this injustice. So he expressed his desire to resign. The English quickly appointed Sardar Kahan Singh as the Governor of Multan. Diwan Mulraj handed over the charge of Multan to the new Governor. The soldiers of Diwan’Mulraj rose in revolt against the English and Diwan Mulraj recaptured Multan. This event led to the revolt against the English in the whole of the Punjab.

7. Revolt of Bhai Maharaj Singh. Bhai Maharaj Singh was the follower of Sant Bhai Bir Singh of Naurangabad. He rose in revoltragainst the English to protect the Sarkar-e-Khalsa. So Henry Lawrence, the British Resident, ordered to put him behind the bars. But he could not be arrested. At the request of Mulraj, he alongwith his 400 horsemen marched towards Multan. But he left Mulraj and joined hands with Chattar Singh Attariwala and his son Sher Singh.

8. Revolt of Chattar Singh of Hazara. Chattar Singh was the Governor of Hazara under the Lahore Government. The English also forced him to rise in revolt. An English officer, Captain Abott, instigated the Afghans of Hazara to revolt against the Sikh State. This British policy of hatching conspiracies led Chattar Singh to take up arms against them in August, 1848 A.D. and join hands with Mulraj.

9. Revolt of Sher Singh. Sher Singh, the son of Chattar Singh who had been sent by the Lahore Government to suppress the revolt of Multan also joined the forces of his father and Mulraj in September 1848 A.D. Thus the revolt against the English spread all over the Punjab. Sher Singh appealed to all the Sikhs to join the rebels to oust the English from the Punjab.

10. Invasion of Punjab by the English. Lord Dalhousie wanted to wage a war against the Sikhs on one pretext or the other and annex the Punjab to the British Empire. Under this policy, he allowed small upsurges by Mulraj, Chattar Singh and Sher Singh to take the form of a big rebellion so that the English could find an excuse to grab the Punjab. The English forces under the command of Lord Hugh Gough crossed the river Sutlej on November 9, 1848 and reached Lahore on 13 November. These forces were engaged in suppressing the rebellion. Thus the Second Anglo-Sikh War began.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 6.
Explain the events of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War began in November 1848 after the English forces had crossed the river Sutlej. Following were the main events of this war :
1. The Battle of Ram Nagar. The first battle of the Second Anglo-Sikh War was fought at Ram Nagar. The Commander of the English forces, Lord Hugh Gough crossed the Ravi with his army on November 16, 1848 A.D. and reached the banks of the Chenab on November 22 and stood face to face with Sardar Sher Singh. A battle followed between the two forces at Ram Nagar but without a decision.

2. The Battle of Chillianwala. The English forces under the command of General Gough reached Chillianwala on January 13, 1849 A.D., where the Sikhs had entrenched themselves strongly. A fierce battle was fought at this place in which both the sides had to suffer heavy losses, yet without any outcome. Many brave Sikh warriors laid down their lives in this battle and they had to lose 12 guns also. But the English losses in this battle were even greater than those of the Sikhs. Their tally was 602 dead and 1,651 wounded.

3. The Battle of Multan. Multan had come under the control of Diwan Mulraj since April 1848 A.D. But in December, 1848 an English General, Whish laid a siege to Multan. Diwan Mulraj gave a tough fight to the English for some time but one day suddenly a shell hit his ammunition store and set it on fire. Because of this terrible loss, Diwan Mulraj could not fight any longer. He surrendered on January 22, 1849 A.D. The victory of Multan wiped out to a great extent the disgrace the English had suffered at Chillianwala.

4. The Battle of Gujrat, February 21, 1849 A.D. (Imp.). After the Battle of Chillianwala, the transfer of Lord Gough and the appointment of Sir Charles Napier had been ordered. But before Napier reached“the place of action, Lord Gough had already attacked the Sikhs. After the victory of Multan, the forces of General Whish joined those of General Gough which raised the strength of the English forces to 25,000 and the number of their guns rose to 100. On the other hand, the Sikh army was 61,500 strong and they had 61 guns with them.

A battle between both the forces took place on February 21,1849 A.D. at Gujrat on the banks of the Chenab. This battle was very fierce. Akram Khan, son of Dost Mohammed, the ruler of Afghanistan also joined hands with the Sikhs. Because both the sides made extensive use of guns in this battle, so many historians call it as the “battle of guns”. Shelling continued for three hours but the Sikhs had to leave their positions. At last, on March 13, 1849 AD. the Sikh chiefs surrendered. Thus the Second Anglo-Sikh War came to an end.

Question 7.
Write the results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War proved destructive for the Sikhs.

Following were its mains results :
1. Annexation of Punjab into the British Empire. The Sikhs were completely defeated in this war. By a proclamation, Lord Dalhousie declared that the Punjab was annexed into the British Empire. Maharaja Dalip Singh was dethroned and the Punjab became a part of the British Empire.

2. Punishment to Mulraj and Maharaj Singh. Mulraj was held responsible for the murder of the two English officers, Agnew and Anderson. Mulraj was exiled to Andaman Islands (Kala Pani). On December 29, 1849. Maharaj Singh was arrested. He was sentenced to life imprisonment and sent to Singapore prison.

3. Disbanding of the Khalsa Army. The Khalsa Army was disbanded and the lands of many Sikh Chiefs were confiscated. The soldiers of the disbanded army were allowed to join the British army.

4. Appointment of the British officers in the Punjab. After the Second Anglo- Sikh War, the English officials were appointed on high posts in place of the Hindus, the Sikhs and the Muslims. They were given handsome salaries and allowances.

5. Establishment of a Frontier Force. Henry Lawrence, with the help of Edwards and Nicholson, constituted a Board for the administration of the frontier territories. A frontier force was also raised which consisted of infantry, horsemen, artillery and elephants. The English pulled down the old and outdated forts and constructed new ones and cantonments in their place.

6. Establishment of a Board of Administration. Lord Dalhousie constituted a Board of Administrators to administer the Punjab. Henry Lawrence was the Chairman of this Board. This Board consisted of three members. They were collectively responsible for running the administration of the Punjab. The members of the Board were given extensive powers in administrative and judicial matters. Many reforms were introduced by this Board. Roads and canals were constructed and a new postal system was introduced.

7. Cordial relations with the Sikh Chiefs. The rulers of Patiala, Nabha, Jirid, Kapurthala and Faridkot had helped the English in the Second Anglo-Sikh War. The English gave them big rewards for their services. The English also resolved not to annex their states into the British Empire.

Question 8.
How did the Britisher’s annex Punjab?
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh died in 1839 A.D. After him, there was no capable leader of the Sikhs who could lead them. The Sikh army captured power in its hands. Taking advantage of such circumstances, the English fought two wars with the Sikhs. The Sikh forces fought bravely in these wars. But because of the treachery of their commanders, they lost the battles. In 1849, after the Second Anglo-Sikh war, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

The following two wars were fought between the Sikhs and the English.
1. First Anglo-Sikh War. The English had been anxious to annex the Punjab to their empire. After the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the English found an opportunity to fulfil their desire. They started collecting their army on the other side of the river Sutlej. The Sikh leaders were enraged to see the preparations for war being made by the English. The Sikh forces crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and came near Ferozepur. Thus the First Anglo-Sikh War started. Teja Singh, the Commander of the Sikh Army and Wazir Lai Singh joined hands with the English. Because of their treachery, the Sikh forces lost the battles at Mudki and Ferozeshah.

The Sikh forces took courage and crossed the river Sutlej and reached Ludhiana. They attacked the English. Here the English faced a defeat. But because of the treachery of Gulab Singh, the Sikhs had to face defeat at Aliwal and Sabraon. In March, 1846 A.D., a treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs. According to this Treaty of Lahore, the Sikhs had to pay 1 j crore rupees as war indemnity to the British. A British army was stationed at Lahore to maintain law and order in the Punjab during the minority of Maharaja Dalip Singh.

2. Second Anglo-Sikh War and annexation of Punjab into the British Empire. In 1848, the Second Anglo-Sikh War broke out. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan Dewan Mulraj. On 19th April, 1848 Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to two British officials. The people of Multan got excited to see the British officials. So they revolted and murdered the British officials. The whole of Punjab revolted against the British rule. At last, the British declared war against the Lahore kingdom on November 16, 1848. The most important battles of this war were the Battle of Ram Nagar (22 November 1848), Battle of Multan (December 1848), Battle of Chillianwala (January 13, 1849), Battle of Gujrat (February 1849). The Battle of Ram Nagar was not a decisive battle. The Sikhs had to face defeat at Multan, Chillianwala and Gujarat. In 1849, the Sikhs accepted their defeat. After this Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Activity:

Question 1.
1. Show the towns of Mudki, Ferozeshah, Baddowal, Aliwal and Sabraon on the map of Punjab.
2. Show the battlefield of the First Anglo-Sikh war on the map of Punjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
What was the main cause of the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:
Rani Jindan and Lai Singh, being afraid of the Sikh army, wanted to engage it in a war against the British.

Question 2.
Where were the four main battles of the First Anglo-Sikh fought?
Answer:
Mudki, Ferozeshah, Aliwal and Sabraon.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 3.
Mention any one clause of the Treaty of Lahore (9 March, 1846 A.D.).
Answer:
The British annexed the plains and the mountain region of Punjab between the Sutlej and the Beas.

Question 4.
Give any one cause of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Treaty of Lahore and Treaty of Bhairowal had given a severe blow to the Sikh prestige.

Question 5.
What were the four main battles of the Second Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

  1. Battle of Ram Nagar,
  2. Battle of Multan,
  3. Battle of Chillianwala and
  4. Battle of Gujrat.

Question 6.
Mention any one consequence of the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
Punjab was annexed to the British Indian Empire on 29 March, 1849 A.D.

Question 7.
Give any one reason responsible for the downfall of the Sikh power.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh’s successors were unworthy.

Question 8.
Give any one reason for the annexation of the Punjab by the English.
Answer:
They realised that the Punjab could serve as a very good consumer market for British goods.

Question 9.
How did Lord Dalhousie justify the annexation of the Punjab”? Give any one argument.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie charged the Sikhs of violating the terms of the treaty of Bhairowal.

Question 10.
Give any one argument against the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
The murder of just four British officers in Punjab was given undue importance by Lord Dalhousie.

Question 11.
What treatment was meted out to Maharaja Dalip Singh after the annexation of Punjab by the British?
Answer:
Dalip Singh was given a pension of 50,000 pounds and sent to England.

Question 12.
What arrangement was made for the administration of Punjab after its annexation in 1849?
Answer:
A Board of Administration of three members was established to govern Punjab.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 13.
When was the Punjab annexed to the British Empire?
Answer:
On 25 March, 1849.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The last and most decisive battle between the British and the Sikhs was fought on February 10, 1846 A.D. at __________
Answer:
Gujrat

Question 2.
By the Treaty of Bhairowal 16 December 1846, the administration of Lahore was entrusted to a ________ they were to carry on this duty till Maharaja Dalip Singh was a ________.
Answer:
Council of 8 Sardars, minor

Question 3.
The Battle of Gujrat, February 1849 has been called as the ________.
Answer:
“Battle of Guns”

Question 4.
The Second Anglo-Sikh War came to an end on ________.
Answer:
13 March, 1849

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 5.
Lord Dalhousie constructed a Board of ________ to administer the Punjab after the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
Administration.

True or False :

Question 1.
Kharak Singh was the successor of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Because of the treachery of Teja Singh and Lai Singh the Sikhs lost the Battle of Sabraon.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The British did not annex any territory of Punjab by the First Treaty of Lahore (March 1846).
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Henry Lawrence was appointed the Chairman of the Board of Administration.
Answer:
True.

Match the following :

Question 1.

A

B

1. Chattar Singh (a) Last Sikh ruler of Lahore State
2. Dalip Singh (b) Prime Minister
3. Bhairowal (c) Treaty
4. Kashmir (d) Gulab Singh
5. Lai Singh (e) Governor of Hazara.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (b).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The English had been anxious to annex the Punjab to their empire. After the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the English found an opportunity to fulfil their desire. They stationed their army on the other side of the river Sutlej. The Sikh leaders were enraged to see the preparations for war being made by the English. The Sikh army crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and reached near Ferozepur. Thus the First Anglo-Sikh War started. Teja Singh, the Commander of the Sikh army and Wazir Lai Singh joined hands with the English. Because of their treachery, the Sikh forces lost the battles at Mudki and Ferozeshah, The Sikh forces took courage and crossed the river Sutlej and reached Ludhiana. They attacked the English. Here the English faced a defeat.

But because of the treachery of their commanders, the Sikh army had to face defeat at Aliwal and Sabraon. In March, 1846 A.D., a treaty was signed between the English and the Sikhs. According to the Treaty of Lahore, the Sikhs had to pay 1, crore rupees as indemnity to the British. A British army was kept in Lahore to maintain law and order in the Punjab during the minority of Maharaja Dalip Singh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Answer:
The Second Anglo-Sikh War broke out in 1848 A.D. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan, Dewan Mulraj . On 19th April, 1848 A.D. Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to two British officials. The people of Multan were excited to see the British officials and they rose in revolt and murdered the British officials. The whole of Punjab revolted against the British rule. At last, the British decided to declare a war against the Lahore Kingdom. The most important battles of this war were Battle of Ram Nagar (22 November, 1848), Battle of Multan (December 1848), Battle of Chillianwala (January 13, 1849), Battle of Gujrat (February, 1849). The Battle of Ram Nagar was not a decisive battle. The Sikhs had to face defeat in the battles of Multan, Chillianwala and Gujrat. In 1849, the Sikhs surrendered completely. After this, the Punjab was annexed to the British Empire.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the annexation of the Punjab.
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh died in 1839. After this, there was no capable leader who could lead the Sikhs. All the ruling powers came in the hands of the Sikh army. The English took advantage of this opportunity. They conspired with some Sikh military officials. They began to strengthen their fortifications. They also increased the number of their soldiers. Thus they were preparing for the war. They fought two wars with the Sikhs. The Sikhs fought bravely in both the wars but were defeated because of the treachery of their military commanders and the officials. After the first Anglo-Sikh war, the English occupied the territory of Jalandhar Doab of Punjab and stationed their own army in place of the Sikh arm;/. But in 1849, after the second war, Lord Dalhousie annexed the whole of Sikh Kingdom of Punjab to the English empire.

Question 4.
What were the four causes of the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

  1. The main cause of 1st Anglo-Sikh war was that Lai Singh and Rani Jindan had instigated the Sikh army against the British.
  2. Lai Singh and Rani Jindan convinced the Sikh army that the British were determined to occupy the Punjab after capturing Sindh.
  3. The British had gathered more than 35,000 soldiers at Ludhiana.
  4. The British increased their army in Sindh and made a bridge of boats across the river Sutlej to cross it. All these events made the Sikhs to believe that the British wanted to capture Punjab. Under these circumstances, the Sikh army crossed the river Sutlej in 1845 and the 1st Anglo-Sikh war began.

Question 5.
What were the results of the First Anglo-Sikh war?
Answer:

  1. The British secured the territory of Jalandhar Doab.
  2. Dalip Singh was appointed as Maharaja and a Council of Regency comprising of eight members was established to run the administration.
  3. Sir Henry Lawrence was appointed as the Resident at Lahore.
  4. The Sikhs had to pay 1~ crore rupees as the war indemnity to the British. The Lahore Darbar had only Rs. 50 lakhs in its treasury. So it sold away the province of Jammu and Kashmir to Raja Gulab Singh.
  5. It was decided to keep the British army in Lahore. The Khalsa Darbar was required to pay Rs. 22 lakhs rupees annually for its maintenance.
  6. The strength of the Sikh army was reduced to only 20,000 foot-soldiers.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 8 The Anglo-Sikh Wars and Annexation of Punjab

Question 6.
Describe any four reasons responsible for the downfall of the Sikh kingdom in Punjab.
Answer:

  1. Ranjit Singh was an arbitrary ruler. All the powers of the state were concentrated in his hands. After his death, his unworthy successors could not control the vast kingdom efficiently.
  2. Ranjit Singh followed a weak policy towards the British. The British took advantage of it and were ultimately successful in annexing the Punjab.
  3. The administration of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was based on strong army. After Ranjit Singh’s death, the Sikh army took all powers in its hands. The Sikh chiefs tried to weaken the Sikh army and incited it to wage war against the British.
  4. In some battles, during the First and the Second Anglo-Sikh War, the Sikh forces were about to win the war. But because of the treachery of their commanders, their victory was converted into a defeat.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What were the causes and results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer;

  1. The treaty of Lahore and that of Bhairowal had crippled the Lahore Kingdom. Now there was nothing to feel proud of. So they were in search of an opportunity to take revenge.
  2. The Sikh soldiers who were disbanded from the army were in search of an opportunity to take revenge.
  3. The immediate cause of the war was the revolt of the governor of Multan, Diwan Mulraj. A minor incident resulted in a great revolt. The British demanded ten years’ accounts from Diwan Mulraj which was impossible for him to submit because he had been its governor for about four years only. So he resigned. The British Resident sent Sardar Kalian Singh to take over the control of administration from Diwan Mulraj. Two British officials, Agnew and Anderson went along with him. On 19th April 1848, Diwan Mulraj handed over the administration of Multan to them.

The people of Multan got excited to see the British officials and they rose in revolt on April 20, 1848, and murdered the British officials. The British took no step at that time to suppress the rebellion. As a result, the revolt against the British spread throughout the whole of Punjab. At last, the British declared war against the Lahore kingdom on November 16, 1848.

The Results of the Second Anglo-Sikh War:

  • Punjab was annexed to the British Empire on March 25, 1849, and a Board of Administration of three members was established for the administration of Punjab.
  • Maharaja Dalip Singh was given a pension of 50,000 pounds annually and sent to England.
  • Diwan Mulraj was tried for his offence. He was declared to be guilty and then exiled.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be :
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 10.
Answer:
(d) 10.

Question 2.
A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime- water milky. The solution contains:
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl
(c) LiCl
(d) KC1.
Answer:
(b) HCl

Question 3.
10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be :
(a) 4 mL
(b) 8 mL
(c) 12 mL
(d) 16 mL.
Answer:
(d) 16 mL.

Question 4.
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic.
Answer:
(c) Antacid

Question 5.
Write word equations and then balance equations for the reaction taking place when :
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules
Answer:
Zinc granules + Dilute sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder
Answer:
Aluminium powder + Dilute sulphuric acid → Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

(d) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with iron filings.
Answer:
Iron filings + Dilute sulphuric acid → Iron (II) sulphate + Hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect these nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence
do not produce H+ ions although they (aq)
contain hydrogen.

Question 7.
Why does not distilled water conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does?
Answer:

  • Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it contains no ions.
  • Rainwater contains ions due to dissolved salts, hence it conducts electric current.

Question 8.
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Answer:
This is because in the absence of water, acids do not dissociate to give hydrogen ions > H+(aq)

Question 9.
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is :
(a) neutral?
(b) strongly alkaline?
(c) strongly acidic?
(d) weakly acidic?
(e) weakly alkaline?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration.

Solution pH Nature of Solution
A 4 Weakly acidic
B 1 Strongly acidic
C 11 Strongly alkaline
D 7 Neutral
E 9 Weakly alkaline

The increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration is :
11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1 (pH values).

Question 10.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:
Fizzing occurs more vigorous in test tube A as compared to in test tube B. This is because concentration of hydrogen ion, It is more in test tube A than in test tube B, as hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid.

Question 11.
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Its pH will decrease due to the production of lactic acid which is acidic in nature.

Question 12.
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Answer:
So that the milk is not spoiled readily and medium remains basic.

(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Answer:
Because the lactic acid produced during curding reacts with baking soda.

Question 13.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Answer:
This is because in presence of moisture, plaster of Paris sets to give a hard mass.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9

Question 14.
What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.
Answer:
The interaction of an acid with a base to form salt and water is called neutralisation reaction.

Examples :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 15.
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Answer:
(a) Uses of washing soda :

  1. It is used in the manufacture of glass and soap.
  2. It is used in the manufacture of borax.

(b) Uses of baking soda :

  1. It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher.
  2. It is used for making baking powder.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Acids, Bases and Salts InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Answer:
Dip red litmus paper in solution repeatedly in each tube.
(a) The tube in which the red litmus paper turns purple contains distilled water.
(b) The tube in which red litmus paper turns blue contains basic solution.
(c) The tube in which red litmus paper remains red contains acidic solution.

Question 2.
Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Answer:
Curd and other sour substances contain acids which react with the metal surface of brass and copper vessels to produce toxic compounds which are unfit for consumption.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 3.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Answer:
When an acid reacts with metal, generally hydrogen is produced.
e.g. Mg + 2 HCl(Dil) → MgCl2 + H2

Pass this gas (H2) through soap solution. The soap bubbles filled with the gas will rise up. If a burning splinter is brought near the gas, the bubble will burn with a ‘pop’ sound.

Question 4.
Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
CO2 extinguishes a burning candle.

Question 5.
Why do HCl, HNO3 etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Answer:
HCl, HNO3 etc undergo dissociation in water to give Hydrogen ions, H+(aq) ions and show acidic characteristics. There are compounds like alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in water to give hydrogen ions, H+(aq) ions. Hence, they don’t show acidic properties.

Question 6.
Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?
Answer:
The aqueous solution of an acid contains ions such as hydrogen ions, H+(aq) and other anions. Hence it conducts electricity.

Question 7.
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour on the dry litmus paper?
Answer:
This is because dry HCl gas is a covalent compound and it does not undergo dissociation to give hydrogen ions, H+(aq) and hence no change in colour of dry litmus paper.

Question 8.
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Answer:
The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is an exothermic process. This is because if water is added to concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

Question 9.
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Answer:
The concentration of hydronium ions decreases when a solution of an acid is diluted.

Question 10.
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions [OH] affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
When excess of base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide, the concentration of OH ions increases.

Question 11.
You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Answer:
In solution A, [H+(aq)] = 10-6 M, pH < 7
In solution B, [H+(aq)] = 10-8 M. pH > 7

∴ Then the solution A has more hydrogen ion concentration.
Solution A is acidic.
Solution B is basic.

Question 12.
What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
Answer:

  • If [H+] < 10-7 M, it is basic solution.
  • If [H+] >10-7 M, it is an acidic solution.
  • If [H+] = 10-7 M, it is a neutral aqueous solution.

Question 13.
Do basic solutions also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Answer:
Basic solutions also contain H+(aq) ions. But in basic solutions :
[H+(aq)] < 10-7 M
and [OH] > 10-7 M
Since [OH(aq)] is more than [H+(aq)], hence these are basic solutions.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 14.
Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his Helds with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Answer:
If the pH of the soil is less than 7, i.e. it is acidic, the farmer will treat the soil with quick lime, slaked lime, chalk.

Question 15.
What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 16.
Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Answer:
Dry slaked lime.

Question 17.
Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 18.
What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.
Answer:
It decomposes to give sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide gas (which is colourless, odourless and turns lime water milky).
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 19.
Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modern Democracy

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modern Democracy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modern Democracy

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB History, Development and Expansion of the Modern Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The smallest unit of administration during the Cholas Reign was ________
Answer:
Urr.

Question 2.
________ led the socialistic party in Chile.
Answer:
Salvador Allende.

II. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following countries inspired other countries of the world to adopt Parliamentary system?
(i) Germany
(ii) France
(iii) England
(iv) China.
Answer:
(iii) England.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 2.
Which of the following country doesn’t have the Veto Power?
(ii) India
(ii) U.S.A
(iii) France
(iv) China.
Answer:
(i) India.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) Statements :

Question 1.
India is a permanent member of the Security Council of UNO.
Answer:
F-False

Question 2.
Democracy is surviving continuously in our neighboring country- Paskistan.
Answer:
T-True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which form of ruling system is being adopted in majority of the nations of the world these days?
Answer:
These days, most of the nations adopt democratic setup of government.

Question 2.
Give the names of ideologies remained in Italy and Germany and were responsible for the set hack of democarcy after 1st World War.
Answer:
Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany.

Question 3.
When was Allende elected President of Chile?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was elected the President of Chile in 1970 A.D.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 4.
When did the reinstallation of democracy take place in Chile?
Answer:
In Chile, democracy was installed again in 1990 A.D.

Question 5.
Who led the strike for demand of democratic rights in Poland?
Answer:
Lech Walesa led the strike for the demand of democratic rights in Poland.

Question 6.
When did the election take place in Poland for Presidentship? Who was elected President?
Answer:
In 1990, the elections were held for the post of President and Lech Walesa was elected the President of Poland.

Question 7.
WTien was the universal adult franchise given to the citizens of India?
Answer:
In 1950, with the implementation of the Indian Constitution, Universal Adult Franchise was given to the Indian Citizens.

Question 8.
Which two big continents were fell prey to Colonialism?
Answer:
Asia and Africa were the victims of colonialism.

Question 9.
When did Ghana-a country of South Africa continent become independent?
Answer:
Ghana became an independent country in 1957 A.D.

Question 10.
Which military dictator took hold of the elected Government in 1999 in our neighbouring country Pakistan?
Answer:
General Parvez Musharraf.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 11.
Give the names of two international organisations.
Answer:
United Nations Orgnisation and International Monetary Fund.

Question 12.
What is the function of International Monetary Fund?
Answer:
It provides loan to various countries for development projects.

Question 13.
How many countries are members of the UN?
Answer:
UN has 193 member countries.

Question 14.
Give the names of different ruling system prevailing in the world.
Answer:
Monarchy, totalitarianism, authoritarianism, dictatorship, military dictatorship and democracy.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by adult Franchise?
Answer:
All the Indian citizens, irrespective of their caste, gender, varna, race etc after attaining a fixed age, are given a right to vote in elections. It is known as Universal Adult Franchise. In India, citizens after attaining the age of 18 years, without any discrimination, are given right to vote.

Question 2.
Write a note on the democracy at local level in Chola Kingdom.
Answer:
To run the administration smoothly, Chola rulers divided whole of their kingdom into different units and such administrative units had independent rights. To run the local administration they started a Samiti system which was known as ‘Wariam System’. Different Samitis were formed for different purpose. The smallest unit of administration was ‘Urr’ and to run its administration a samiti of 30 members were elected by the adults of Urr for one year. Each Urr was divided into wards whose members were elected by the people.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of ‘Veto Power’? Give the names of countries having Veto Power.
Answer:
The meaning of Veto Power is to ‘say no’. It means that who so ever is given the right to use Veto Power, no resolution can be passed without its approval. Five members of the Security Council of U.N.O. have the right to use veto power. If any of the five members of the Security Council uses veto, against any resolution, it cannot be passed. The Countries with veto power are-United States of America, England, Russia, France and China.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 4.
Write a brief note on the history of democracy in our neighbouring country Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan was formed in 1947 by dividing India and its history of democracy is not good. Army in Pakistan is quite powerful and it is quite influential in its politics. In 1958, Prime Minister Firoz Khan Noon was removed by the Army head General Ayub Khan who became head of the country. After this, in 1977, popular and elected Prime Minister Zulfikar Ah Bhuto was again removed by Army General Zia-Ul-Haq and declared himself as the President of Country. In the same way, in 1999, elected Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif was overthrown through a military coup by then Army General Parvez Mussharaf. In 2002, MusshaTaf declared himself as the President of Pakistan. In this way from time to time democratic governments were overthrown by the Army Generals.

Question 5.
Write brief note on the history of democracy in Chile.
Answer:
Chile is a South American country in which Salvador Allende’s Socialist party won President’s elections in 1970. Allende became the President of Chile and he started doing many welfare works for the people, brought many reforms in education and did many works which were opposed by the multi-national companies. On 11 September, 1973, Army head General Augusto Pinochet overthrew the government in which Allende was killed. Power came in the hands of General Pinochet. After ruling the country for 17 years, Pinochet conducted a referendum in which people voted him out of power. In 1990, elections were conducted in the country and democracy was restored in the country.

Question 6.
Who played a great role for the freedom of Ghana-a country of African continent? What was the influence of freedom of Ghana on other countries of African continent?
Answer:
Ghana got independence from the British in 1957 A.D., A person Kwame Nkrumah played the most important role in its freedom struggle. During the freedom

struggle, he along with the people, got the country independent. He became the first Prime Minister and later on the President of country. Ghana’s freedom had a great impact on the other African countries which got motivated by its independence. They along with the passage of time also got freedom from other colonial countries.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on International Monetary Fund.
Answer:
International Monetary Fund and the World Bank are known? Brentton Wood institutions. International Monetary Fund started its economic operations in 1947 A.D. The decision making process of these institutions is controlled by the western countries. U.S.A. holds the major voting rights of I.M.F. and the World Bank.

This institution gives credit to different countries. It has 188 members and each country has voting rights. The power of giving vote for each country is fixed by the monetary contribution given by it to the institution. 52% voting rights of I.M.F. are controlled only by 10 countries and these are U.S.A., Japan, Germany, France, England, China, Italy, Saudi Arabia, Canada and Russia. As a result, 178 members have very less rights of taking decisions in the institution. In this way we can say that the decision making process in this institution is not democratic.

Question 2.
Write a note on United Nations Organization.
Answer:
United Nations Organization is an international organization which was formed after second world war on 24th October, 1945. It had 51 original members and India was one of them. United Nations was a result of those efforts which were made by keeping in mind the world peace and to stop further wars. Presently it has 193 members.

United Nations has a Parliament which is known as United Nations General Assembly. Here each country is given equal voting rights and members here discuss all the issues related to the problems of world. The meeting of general Assembly is presided over by the Chairman. United Nations has one Secretriate whose head is known as ‘Secretary General’. All the decisions are taken by consulting the concerned members. It has six organs and these are General Assembly, Security Council, Economic and Social Council, Trusteeship Council, International Court of Justice and the Secretriate.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 3.
Explain in brief the development of democracy in ancient period of Greece and Romans.
Answer:
If we look at the beginning of democracy in the whole world, it begin in the Greece and Roman republics. During ancient times, the cities of Greece had direct democracy, population of these states was quite less. The administrative decisions of the state were directly taken by the people. All the citizens of the state took part in the decision making process of making laws to solve economic, political and social problems, to pass annual budget of the state and to frame public policy.

But this democracy was a limited democracy because a large part of population of the state was of slaves. Slaves were not allowed to take part in the administrative functions of the state. Although the Roman Kings were elected by the people but they run the administration according to their will. Theoretically kings represented whole of the population but practically they run the administration according to their wish.

Question 4.
“Multinational Companies are posing a threat to democracy in the modern era.” Explain the statement.
Answer:
The present age is of globalisation and there has been an increased inter dependency between different countries. Many multinational companies have come forward which work and trade in different countries. But the question arises whether such companies are a threat to democracy?

Presently, most of the doveloping and under developed countries have adopted globalisation and open market policy. Under this policy, multinational companies are doing their business. The major motive of such companies is to earn more and more profit and consequently they continuely increase the price of their products. Such companies always try to exploit the people in one way or the other which is actually against the spirit of democracy.

Although our governments call themselves democratic but they are actually run by business sector. These multinational companies are completely controlled by business sector and they make government policies in ther favour. That’s why rich are becoming more rich and poor are becoming more poor. But this is actually exactly opposite to the spirit of democracy. In this way, such companies are a threat to democracy.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Democracy exists :
(a) In 70 countries
(b) In Europe only
(c) In the majority countries of the world
(d) In the whole world.
Answer:
(c) In the majority countries of the world.

Question 2.
Who was the President of Chile, when his government was overthrown on 11 Sept. 1973?
(a) Salvador Allende
(b) Michelle Bachelet
(c) General Augusto Pinochet
(d) Lech Walesa.
Answer:
(a) Salvador Allende.

Question 3.
Military coup took place in Chile on :
(a) 11 September 1975
(b) 21 September 1976
(c) 11 September 1973
(d) 11 September 1974.
Answer:
(c) 11 September 1973.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 4.
Poland had its first election in :
(a) April 1989
(b) October 1990
(c) April 1990
(d) October 1992.
Answer:
(b) October 1990.

Question 5.
Who was elected the President of Poland in 1990?
(a) General Augusto Pinochet
(b) Salvador Allende
(c) Michelle Bachelet
(d) Lech Walesa.
Answer:
(d) Lech Walesa.

Question 6.
In which year referendum was held in Poland on Pinochet’s military dictatorship?
(a) 1995
(b) 1988
(c) 1992
(d) 1982.
Answer:
(b) 1988.

Question 7.
In 1980 in Poland which was the ruling party?
(a) Solidarity Party
(b) Polish Socialist Party
(c) Communist Party
(d) Polish United Workers’ Party.
Answer:
(d) Polish United Workers’ Party.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 8.
Which one of the following was the feature of Walesa government of Poland?.
(a) No interference in economic affairs
(b) Foreign intervention in domestic affairs
(c) Govt, .control on all big industries
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) No interference in economic affaris.

Question 9.
Which of the following was the feature of Allende government of Chile?
(a) Widespread corruption
(b) Free Market
(c) Govt, control on big industries
(d) Foreign Intervention in domestic affairs.
Answer:
(c) Govt, control on big industries.

Question 10.
Which of the following was the common feature of Allende government of Chile and Michelle’s Chile?
(а) Power was exercised by the military rulers
(б) Direct democracy
(c) Rule of few persons
(d) Power was exercised by government elected by the people.
Answer:
(d) Power was exercised by government elected by the people.

Question 11.
Which of the following is a feature of Democracy?
(a) Franchise based on Property qualification
(b) Frachise based on educational qualification
(c) Landlords are the voters
(d) Universal Adult Franchise.
Answer:
(d) Universal Adult Franchise.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
Democracy begin in ________ the ________ and republics.
Answer:
Greece, Roman

Question 2.
The system of running the local administration under the Chola rulers was known as ________
Answer:
Wariam

Question 3.
________ said that the democracy is a govt, of the people, for the people and by the people.
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 4.
A new country ________ was formed by dividing India in 1947.
Answer:
Pakistan

Question 5.
In Poland ________ was dismissed from the job in 1976 for demanding higher wages.
Answer:
Lech Walesa

Question 6.
In ________, Allende was elected as the President of Chile.
Answer:
1970

Question 7.
Universal Adult Frenchise was given in ________ with the implementation of its constitution.
Answer:
India.

True/False:

Question 1.
Iraq gained independence in 1932 from the American colonialism.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The 52% voting rights of I.M.F. are with the 10 countries.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
America became the only superpower in 1991 with the disintegration of U.S.S.R.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
15 members of the security council hag the veto power.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 5.
There were 100 primary members of the united nations.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
United Nations Organisation has 193 members.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When the government of President Salvador Allende was over thrown and who was the leader of military coup?
Answer:
The government was overthrown by General Augusto Pinochet on 11 Sept. 1973.

Question 2.
Does army has the right to arrest any one?
Answer:
No, army does not have the right to arrest anyone.

Question 3.
When did General Pinochet in Chile conduct referendum?
Answer:
General Pinochet conducted referendum in 1990 in Chile.

Question 4.
When was political freedom restored in Chile?
Answer:
In 1990.

Question 5.
Which party ruled Poland in 1980?
Answer:
Polish United Workers party ruled Poland in 1980.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 6.
Was there any other political party in Poland except Polish United Workers party?
Answer:
No, as no other party was allowed in Poland.

Question 7.
Who was elected as the President of Chile in January 2006?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet.

Question 8.
Which trade union did strike in Poland in 1988?
Answer:
Solidarity did strike in Poland in 1988.

Question 9.
Give one feature of a non-democratic government.
Answer:
Here government is not elected by the people.

Question 10.
In 19th century, democracy in which country was constantly changed and was re-established again?
Answer:
In France, there was a complete turmoil during whole of the 19th century.

Question 11.
Name the two countries where non-democratic governments still exist.
Answer:

  1. North Korea
  2. China.

Question 12.
Which form of government mostly prevails in most of the countries?
Answer:
Presently, most of the countries prefer democratic form of government.

Question 13.
Which country was disintegrated in 1991 and it formed 15 independent countries?
Answer:
In 1991, U.S.S.R. was disintegrated and there formed 15 independent nations.

Question 14.
In which Asian country, a democratically elected government was dismissed in 2005?
Answer:
In 2005, the new king of Nepal dismissed her democratic government.

Question 15.
When was United Nations Organisation established?
Answer:
On 24th October, 1945.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 16.
Write names of all the organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
General Assembly, Security Council, Economic and Social Council, Trusteeship Council, International Court of Justice and the Secreteriate.

Question 17.
Give one basic objective of the United Nations.
Answer:
United Nations was established on the theory of equality among nations.

Question 18.
Name the permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
USA, U.K., Russia, France and China.

Question 19.
How many members of the United Nations are there?
Answer:
United Nations has 193 members.

Question 20.
Who gives credit to the members of U.N. if any need arises?
Answer:
International Monetai’y Fund and the World Bank gives credit to the members of U.N. if any need arises.

Question 21.
Which organ of the United Nations have the real power?
Answer:
Security Council.

Question 22.
What is Referendum?
Answer:
Referendum is the process in which laws made by the parliament are kept in front of public to know their opinion. Law will be applicable only if it is approved by the public.

Question 23.
What do you mean by the coalition government?
Answer:
When many political parties come together to form the government, it is called the coalition government.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 24.
What do you mean by coup?
Answer:
When a government is illegally thrown out of power, it is called coup.

Question 25.
What is the meaning of strike?
Answer:
When workers stop working to get their demands met it is called strike.

Question 26.
What do you understand by Trade Union?
Answer:
Group or union of workers is called trade union. It works for the welfare of workers.

Question 27.
When did workers strike at Lenin shipyard in Poland ?
Answer:
They did strike on 14th August, 1980.

Question 28.
Why did workers of Lenin shipyard do strike?
Answer:
The workers of Lenin shipyard did strike for illegally removing a woman Crane worker.

Question 29.
Presently, which type of government is there in Nepal and Pakistan?
Answer:
Presently there are democratic governments in Nepal and Pakistan.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which political work you were not allowed to do during the regime of Polish Workers Union Party of 1980 which you can do in your country?
Answer:
In 1980, few political functions were not allowed in Poland:

  • In Poland, it was not allowed to start a political party as it was ruled by a single party.
  • People had no right to elect the leader of the communist party according to their wish.
  • People had no freedom to elect and criticise the government.
  • People had no freedom of speech and to express their views.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 2.
Do you think it is good to elect someone as the President for life? Or is it better to hold regular elections after every few years?
Answer:
It is not good to elect someone as the President for life. This is not democratic. Someone elected as the President for life become dictator and corrupt. The best example is of Ghana’s president N, Krumah. The elections of the President must be held after a regular interval of 4 or 5 years, so that people must elect their ruler freely at regular interval.

Question 3.
Do you think that the American invasion of Iraq encourages democracy? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:

  • The American invasion of Iraq in no way encourages democracy.
  • No country has the right to interfere in the internal matters of other countries. Invasion cannot led to the establishment of democracy.
  • No external force can establish democracy in the other state for a longer period of time. People have to struggle themselves for the establishment of democracy.

Question 4.
Give four important features of democracy.
Answer:

  1. People elect their rulers themselves.
  2. Elections to elect the rulers are held after a fixed period of time.
  3. Democracy gives us a chance to correct our mistakes.
  4. People have the freedom of speech, to express their views and to form associations.

Question 5.
Write a short essay on the life of Aung San Suu Kyi.
Answer:
Myanmar (Burma) got freedom in 1948 and became a democratic country. But the democratic government was overthrown in 1962 and military rule was established. Elections were held in 1990. Aung San Suu Kyi was the national leader of Myanmar. Suu Kyi was the leader of National League for democracy. National League for democracy won the election under the leadership of Suu Kyi.

But military ruler instead of handing over the government to the elected leader, put all the leaders including Suu Kyi under house arrest. However Suu Kyi continued her campaign for democracy. According to her, “The quest for democracy in Myanmar is the struggle of the people to live whole, meaningful lives as free and equal members of the world community. She has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize.”

Question 6.
“At the end of 19th century and the beginning of 20th century, few countries were not completely democratic.” Give two reasons in its favour.
Answer:
On the following two basis we can say that at the end of the 19th century and the beginning of 20th century few countries *Were not completely democratic :

  1. Females had no voting rights in the countries like Switzerland, England, France.
  2. In the United States of America, Black people had no voting right.

Question 7.
How was democracy restored in Poland?
Answer:

  1. In 1988, to keep power with himself, Chile’s military rulers conducted a referendum.
  2. Democracy and the welfare works done by Allende were still fresh in the minds of the people. That’s why Pinochet lost the referendum.
  3. In Chile, President’s elections were held after 17 years and an elected person became the President of the country.

Question 8.
Explain the process of establishment of democracy in Poland?
Answer:

  1. In 1980, workers of Lenin Shipyard went on strike and the government was forced to sanction the strike.
  2. Workers formed their union called solidarity.
  3. Workers again conducted a strike again in 1988 which greatly pressurised the government.
  4. Finally government decided to hold elections in which communist government was defeated and solidarity formed the government.

Question 9.
What do you know about solidarity?
Answer:

  1. Solidarity was a worker’s organization formed by the workers of Poland.
  2. This organization was formed after a treaty signed between the workers and government.
  3. Within one year of its establishment, its members increased upto one crore.
  4. In 1989, elections were held in Poland in which solidarity won 99 out of 100 seats. Its leader Lech Walesa formed the government.

Question 10.
What was the impact of the end of colonialism on the newly independent nations after the cold war?
Answer:

  1. Newly independent countries had to face lot of problems in the establishment of their government and political institutions.
  2. Most of the newly independent countries adopted the democratic form of government but democracy did not get a success in these countries.
  3. In most of these countries, military rule was established and democracy came to an end.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 11.
What do you know about the decline of the U.S.S.R.?
Answer:

  1. After 1917, a communist government was formed in Russia. Due to many of its policies, U.S.S.R. was disintegrated in 1991 and divided into 15 independent nations.
  2. These newly independent countries adopted democratic system to remove communist system of government.
  3. Most of these republics recognised and adopted the multi party system.
  4. The impact of U.S.S.R. on the Eastern Europe completely came to an end.

Question 12.
Give some ways to establish a democratic set up at the international level.
Answer:

  • For the establishment of a democratic set up at the International level, there is a need to make international institutions more democratic.
  • People must be given political, social and economic rights so that they can live a happily life.
  • From time to time, independent and impartial elections must be conducted.
  • People must have the freedom of speech and expression.

Question 13.
Why did President Allende continually talk about the laborers? Why were rich people not happy with him?
Answer:
President Allende continuely talked about the interests of the labourers. He made many laws in the interests of labourers such as change in the educational system, distribution of land to peasants and providing free milk to children. For their welfare, he continuely to talk with the workers. Rich people were not happy with president Allende because they did not like his policies of public welfare.

Question 14.
Why did most of the countries gave right to vote quite late? Why did this not happen in India?
Answer:
Most of the countries gave females the right to vote quite late because they were not considered equal to males. In India, they took part in the freedom struggle along with males. During this time, many positive and democratic values came forward in India. In these values, females were considered equal to males. That’s why females got voting rights straight away with the formation of the constitution.

Question 15.
Why is direct democracy not possible in the present age?
Answer:
In modern times, direct democracy is not possible. Its reason is that the modern states are large in size and their population is in crores. It is not possible to adopt direct democracy in such countries. In a country like India, such a system is not possible because having a referendum is not an easy task and laws cannot be made by asking questions. It takes crores to conduct general elections in the country and it is a time-consuming process as well. That’s why it is not possible to implement the institution of direct democracy over here.

Question 16.
What do you mean by Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The meaning of universal Adult Franchise is the right to vote to the adult citizens of the country in an impartial and free manner. The age of achieving adulthood is fixed, by the state Initially this age was 21 years in England but later on they changed it to 18 years. This is also 18 years in the U.S.A. and Russia. In India also, initially, it was 21 years but by the 61 Constitutional Amendment, it was changed to 18 years.

Question 17.
Give two reasons in favour of Universal Adult Franchise.
Answer:

  1. Power is in the hands of the people. In democracy, power is in the hands of the people and administration is run with the wish and welfare of the public. So, everyone should have the right to vote.
  2. Everyone is under the effect of laws.’ Whichever laws are made in the state, they influence everyone equally. That’s why everyone should have the right to make laws.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Democracy has continually progressed during the 20th century.” Explain the statement.
Answer:
The present age is the age of democracy. Democracy in most countries has been evolved throughout the 20th century. There is no part of the world in which democracy has not been progressed.

Europe, Asia, Africa, South America everywhere democracy has been established.

  1. Britain. It has been said that democracy in Britain was established with the Glorious Revolution in 1088. But actually, it was established in the 20th century. The adult franchise was implemented in England in 1928 A.D.
  2. France. French revolution took place in 1789 A.D. but democracy was established gradually in phases. During the 18th and 19th centuries, gradually the powers of kings and Feudal Lords were reduced. A maximum number of people were given the right to vote. But the actual democratic setup was established in 1944 A.D. with the implementation of adult franchise.
  3. The U.S.A. America declared itself independent in 1776 A.D. With the freedom of other states, the United States of America was formed. The Constitution in the U.S.A. come into force in 1787 and democracy was established. Adult franchise in the U.S.A. was established in 1965.
  4. New Zealand. Adult franchise, in New Zealand, come into force in 1893.
  5. End of Colonialism. After the second world war, many of the Asian and African countries gained freedom from British imperialism. India gained independence on 15th August 1947 and then democracy was established over here. In the same way, democracy was also established in Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Ghana.
  6. The disintegration of U.S.S.R.. In 1991, the elsewhere USSR was disintegrated USSR was divided into 15 independent nations, and democracy was established over there.
    Presently more, than 140. countries are democratic countries but many countries have military dictatorship or rule of one party.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 1 History, Development and Expansion of the Modem Democracy

Question 2.
What did Augusto Pinochet do after becoming the President of Chile?
Answer:
After becoming the president of Chile, Augusto Pinochet did many non-democratic functions :

  • Pinochet established his dictatorship in Chile.
  • He killed many of the supporters of Allende.
  • Pinochet arrested the wife and daughter of General Bachelet, Airforce chief, and send them to Jail.
  • He killed Airforce head General Bachelet and other officials.
  • He killed almost 3000 innocent persons.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 27 Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 27 Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The total number of members in the Lok Sabha is _________
Answer:
545

Question 2.
The total number of members in the Rajya Sabha is _________
Answer:
250

Question 3.
_________ members are elected for the Lok Sabha from Punjab.
Answer:
13

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 4.
_________ years of age is necessary to become the President of India.
Answer:
35

Question 5.
Parliamental form of government is also known as _________ government.
Answer:
Democratic

Question 6.
The Finance Bill can only be presented in the _________
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗) :

Question 1.
1/3rd of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is a deep relationship between the executive and the judiciary in parliament Form of Government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
Prime Minister is National Head in a Parliamentary Form of Government.
Answer:
(✓)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 4.
The laws enacted by the Parliament are supreme.
Answer:
(✓)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
How many members can be nominated for the Rajya Sabha by the President?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 2
(D) 10.
Answer:
(B) 12.

Question 2.
How many members are elected for the Rajya Sabha from the Punjab?
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 7
(D) 2.
Answer:
(C) 7.

Question 3.
Who resolves the differences between both the Houses of Parliament?
(A) Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Vice President.
Answer:
(C) President.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
Write the word meaning of the Parliament.
Answer:
Word Parliament is an English word which has been taken from a French word ‘Parler’. Its meaning is to have conversation. In this way Parliament is an institution where people sit and communicate with each other to national and international issues.

Question 2.
Why is the government responsible to the’Parliament?
Answer:
Government is responsible towards Parliament for all of its functions and activities. Government can remain on its post until it has the m’ajority in the Parliament (legislative). If it looses the majority and comes in minority in Parliament then it has to resign immediately.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 3.
How is law formed in the Parliament?
Answer:
Simple bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament. When this bill is passed by both the houses then it is sent to the President for his sanction on that bill. That bill becomes the law after the signature of the President.

Question 4.
How is the government formed after the Lok Sabha elections?
Answer:
Whichever political party wins majority in the elections of Lok Sabha, makes the government. If any single party is unable to win majority in the elections then coalition government comes into existence.

Question 5.
Write the main features of the Parliamentary government.
Answer:

  • Parliamentary government is considered as the supreme type of government.
  • Features of both responsibility and stability exist in the Parliamentary system.
  • Parliamentary government can be changed at any time. That’s why it cannot become despotic.
  • In actual sense, Democracy is established by the Parliamentary government.

Question 6.
What is meant by hung parliament?
Answer:
When single political party does not get a complete majority in the Lok Sabha elections, then the Hung parliament comes into being.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Why has only the parliamentary form of government been implemented in India?
Answer:
The parliamentary system in India was implemented due to following reasons :
1. Knowledge of people about the parliamentary system: Indian people are very much familiar with a parliamentary system. It is known as the best government. The constitutional government in India was established through the acts of 1861, 1892, 1919 and 1935.

2. Support by members of the Constituent assembly: Framers of the Indian Constitution also supported the parliamentary rule. The Chairman of Drafting Committee of the constitution, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that this system consists features of both responsibility and stability. That’s why it is the best type of government.

Question 2.
Discuss the role uf the President and the Prime Minister in a Parlimentary form of government.
Answer:
The President is the constitutional head of the country. But he is the head only by name. It cannot use his legal, executive and judicial powers by his will. Actually all of his powers are used by the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

Role of the Prime Minister in Parliamentary system is very important. He is the actual head of the government. All the powers of government are used by the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers. All the ministers run the government according to the policies of the Prime Minister.

Question 3.
Write the responsible factors for the fall of the position of Parliament.
Answer:

  1. Indian Parliament passes up to 10 laws in a day without debate which, causes a serious threat to its credibility.
  2. From 1989 till 2014, no party was able to get clear majority in the Lok Sabha which leads to advent of the coalition government. Such government cannot run properly.
  3. Absence of members, decline of the committee system, rively amongst members are a few reasons for its decline.

Question 4.
Give necessary suggestions for the improvement of the position of parliament.
Answer:

  1. First of all people must give clear mendate in favour of a single party in the Lok Sabha elections so that it can form a government of its own.
  2. Committee system in the Parliament should be strengthened to enhance the credibility of the Parliament.
  3. All the issues and bills must be debated in the Parliament so that people must come to know about their pros and cons.
  4. Rivalry between members should be discouraged to increase the credibility of the Parliament.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 5.
Write the composition of Indian Parliament.
Answer:
There are two houses of Parliament : Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha is known as Lower House and Rajya Sabha is known as Upper House. Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected through the process of Universal Adult Franchise. Its two members are nominated by the President. 238 members of Rajya Sabha out of 250 are elected by states and Union Territories. Rest of the 12 members are nominated by the President.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Parliament – Structure, Role and Importance Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Indian Parliament is :
(a) Unicameral
(b) Three Houses
(c) Bicameral
(d) Four Houses.
Answer:
(c) Bicameral.

Question 2.
The Lower House of the Indian Parliament is known as :
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Council of States.
Answer:
(b) Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
The Upper House of the Indian Parliament is known as :
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 4.
The tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha is :
(a) 5 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(c) 6 years.

Question 5.
The tenure of the Lok Sabha in normal time is :
(a) 6 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 3 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years.

Question 6.
How many present members are there in Rajya Sabha?
(a) 545
(b) 552
(c) 541
(d) 550.
Answer:
(a) 545.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 7.
How many total members of Rajya Sabha are there?
(a) 235
(b) 245
(c) 250
(d) 255.
Answer:
(c) 250.

Question 8.
Who was the first President of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 9.
Who makes laws for the country?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Parliament
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) State Assembly.
Answer:
(b) Parliament.

Question 10.
Kuldeep Kaur lives in Ludhiana. She has been married in Patiala. Now she want to get her vote prepared in Patiala. For this purpose, which officer she should meet?
(a) Bank Manager
(b) Head of the Police Station?
(c) B.L.O.
(d) Sarpanch.
Answer:
(c) B.L.O.

Question 11.
Yashvardhan got his new vote. He went to cast his vote with great excitement. His younger brother wants to know the name of the machine by which he casted his vote. Which of the following machines he will name :
(a) A.T.M.
(b) E.V.M.
(c) E.C.G.
(d) L.P.G.
Answer:
(b) E.V.M.

Fill In The Blanks :

Question 1.
Total members of Lok Sabha are _________
Answer:
552

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 2.
Total members of Rajya Sabha are _________
Answer:
250

Question 3.
_________ members of Lok Sabha are elected from Punjab,
Answer:
13

Question 4.
Age of _________ years is must to get elected as the Indian President.
Answer:
35

Question 5.
Parliamentary government is also known as _________ government.
Answer:
responsible

Question 6.
Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha

Question 7.
Present members of Lok Sabha are _________
Answer:
545.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer:

Question 1.
1/3rd members of Rajya Sabha retire after every 2 years.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is a great relation of Legislature and Executive m Parliamentary form of Government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
In Parliamentary form of Government, Prime Minister is the nominal head.
Answer:
(✗)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 4.
Laws made by the Parliament are supreme.
Answer:
(✓)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A B
1. Legislature (i) Lok Sabha
2. Lawmaking body in India (ii) Rajya Sabha
3. House of People (iii) Parliament
4. Permanent House (iv) An organ of Government

Answer:

A B
1. Legislature (iv) An organ of Government
2. Lawmaking body in India (iii) Parliament
3. House of People (i) Lok Sabha
4. Permanent House (ii) Rajya Sabha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What type of Democratic administrative system exists in India?
Or
What is the feature of indirect democratic administrative system?
Answer:
Indirect democratic system is implemented in India. Government is run by the elected representatives of the people in this type of system. They are answerable to the public for the acts done by them.

Question 2.
How many members of Lok Sabha are elected from the Punjab?
Answer:
13 members of Lok Sabha are elected from the Punjab.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 3.
How can you say that Rajya Sabha is a permanent house?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved completely. One third of its members retire exactly after every two years and they are replaced by newly elected members. In this way this house remains active all the times.

Question 4.
Which three forms (parts) of government are there?
Answer:

  1. Legislative
  2. Executive and
  3. Judiciary.

Question 5.
When did the President calls for joint session of both the houses of Parliament?
Answer:
Sometimes disagreement occurs in both the houses on any bill. In this case, President calls the joint session of both the houses so that disagreement could be removed.

Question 6.
How Parliament keeps control over the Government?
Answer:

  • By asking questions from the ministers
  • Non-confidence motion
  • Confidence motion
  • Adjournment motion.

Question 7.
What is the need of strengthening the Parliament?
Answer:
There is a need of strengthening the Parliament so that laws of better quality could be framed. There is also a need of strengthening the Parliament to strengthen the position of Parliament.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 8.
Consider that the Indian Government has passed a bill regarding railway. Who will sign it in the end to make this bill a law?
Answer:
The President.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the position of Prime Minister according to the Constitution? Why his position is dwingling in present time?
Answer:
The Position of Prime Minister is the most important in the country according to the Constitution. He is the leader of Lok Sabha and Council of Ministers. All the policies and laws of the country have been made according to the advice given by him. He selects all the ministers for his Council of Ministers. No minister can remain on his post against his wish. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar has equated his position with the President of U.S.A.

But at present time, single political party (BJP) has got majority in the elections of Lok Sabha. Before 2014 Hung Parliament was existed. During that time the Position of the Prime Minister was dwindling.

Question 2.
Who were Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru? What were their views about Strong Central Government?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India and Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India. They both were great leaders.

Views of Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was in favour of giving more powers to the post of the President. He wanted to strengthen the Centre because India got freedom after such a long time.

Views of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. Pandit Nehru was also in favour of strengthening the centre. He wanted to give more powers to Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
“Indian Parliament was a very strong institution at certain times. But now it is loosing its importance.” Clarify the statement.
Answer:
The Parliament is the supreme institution of making laws in the country. It was a very strong institution at the times of Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, Lai Bahadur Shastri and Indira Gandhi. But now it is loosing its importance day by day. Just within one day, it passes many bills. Members hardly communicate with each other on any bill. The method of giving actual form to law has been changed.

The given ahead factors are responsible for loosing importance of the Parliament :

  • Making of Hung Parliament.
  • Politics of Stubbornness.
  • Absence of members in the house.
  • Reducing number of meetings of house.
  • Weakening of committee system.
  • Doubt over the impartiality of the Speaker.

Question 4.
Write about the role of the President and the Prime Minister in Parliamentary system of government.
Answer:
Two types of executive are there in Parliamentary system—formal executive and the real executive. The President is the Constitutional head of country. He has been given the legal, executive and judicial powers. But it cannot use his powers with his wish because he is the formal head.

All of his powers are used by the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers because they belong to real executive the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are appointed by the President. Generally the leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha is appointed as the Prime Minister. But present age is of coalition government and that’s why it is very important to take decision regarding appointment of the Prime Minister.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 5.
Write about the position of the Parliament.
Answer:
The Parliament in Parliamentary government is considered as the supreme institution.

  • Supreme laws for the country are made by Parliament.
  • The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are appointed out of the members of the Parliament.
  • Members of Parliament control the executive by asking questions and by non-confidence motion.
  • The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers can remain on their posts while Parliament have faith in them or they have majority in the Parliament.
  • Members of Parliament take part in the election of the President.

Question 6.
Explain the position of the Parliament.
Answer:
The Parliament in a Parliamentary system is the supreme. Executive (government) is responsible towards the Parliament for its functions and activities. The Parliament controls the government in different ways like—asking questions to ministers, zero hour, no-confidence motion, adjournment motion, etc.

Question 7.
Write ahout meaning and composition of Parliament.
Answer:
The word ‘Parliament’ is an English word. This English word has been taken from a French word ‘Parler’ whose meaning is to have conversation. In this way Parliament is that institution where people sit and communicate with each other on national and international issues.

Establishment. There are two houses of Parliament—Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
1. Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha is the house of the people. It is known as the lower house. At present, 545 members of Lok Sabha are there. Out of these, 543 members are directly elected by all the adults of the country. Rest of the members are nominated by the President. Seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes are reserved in Lok Sabha. It is a temporary house which can be dissolved by the President, according to the Constitution.

2. Rajya Sabha. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by elected members of Legislative Assemblies of states and union territories. It has a total of 250 members out of which 238 members are elected by states and union territories. Rest of the 12 members are nominated by the President. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house. It cannot be dissolved completely. But one third of the total members of Rajya Sabha retires after every two years. New members are elected after their retirement.

Question 8.
Write important points about Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

  • There is a lot of difference in actual executive and formal executive in it.
  • Executive and legislative are greatly related in it.
  • Executive is responsible towards legislative.
  • Government runs under the leadership of Prime Minister.
  • Term of executive is indefinite.
  • Opposition party is legally sanctioned.

Question 9.
Write meaning and composition of the executive and legislative assembly.
Answer:
Meaning. Legislature and executive are two parts of Parliamentary government. Legislative is that part of government which makes the law. Function of executive is to implement the laws made by the legislative.

Organization. There are two houses of Legislative—Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha is known as Lower House and it is a temporary house. Contrary to it Rajya Sabha is known as Upper House and it is a permanent house. There are 545 members of Lok Sabha and the members of Rajya Sabha are 250.

The President, Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are included in executive. The President is the head of executive only by name but actual excutive is Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

All the powers of the President are used by Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers. They are appointed from the legislature. The President is elected indirectly.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 27 Parliament - Structure, Role and Importance

Question 10.
Explain the role of the Parliament in the making of laws.
Answer:
The Parliament is the supreme institution of making laws in our country. Laws made by it are supreme. It makes laws of both-general and related to the money of the country. A simple bill is introduced in any house of the Parliament. Bill is passed by both the houses. For this, the bill has to go through many stages. The passed bill is being sent to the President for his approval. That bill becomes law after the approval of the President.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Democracy at Work Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by democracy?
Answer:
According to Lincoln, “Democracy is the government of the people, for the people and by the people.” In other words, democracy means that form of government in which people rule themselves either directly or indirectly.

Question 2.
Explain Etymological meaning of democracy.
Answer:
The word ‘Democracy’ has been derived from two Greek words, ‘Demos’ and ‘Kratos’. Demo means “The people’ and Kratos means ‘The power’. Democracy, in this way, is a form of government in which the ruling power is vested in the hands of the people.

Question 3.
Describe the one main condition for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Main condition necessary for the success of democracy is :

  • Educated and good citizens.
  • Free and impartial press and judiciary.
  • Well-organised political parties.
  • Co-operation and toleration among the citizens. (Any. one)

Question 4.
How many types of election systems are there in the world?
Answer:
There are two types of methods of elections: (i) Direct election (ii) Indirect election. In the direct election, the citizens themselves elect the members of the Legislature. In the indirect election, the representatives of the citizens elect the members of the Legislature.

Question 5.
What do you mean by public opinion?
Answer:
Public opinion means the opinion of people on a’particular matter of public interest. People’s voice is the voice of God. A government that ignores the public opinion cannot be stable.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 6.
When and under whom the Indian National Congress was formed?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. It was founded by an English officer named Mr. AO. Hume. Its first session was presided over by Mr. Womesh Chandra Banerji (W.C. Banerji).

Question 7.
When and under whom the Shiromani Akali Dal was formed?
Answer:
The Shiromani Akali Dal was established in 1920 A.D. to bring about reforms in the Sikh Gurudwaras. It was formed under the twin leadership of Master Tara Singh and Sardar Kharak Singh.

Question 8.
Why is India a Secular State?
Answer:
India is a Secular State because India has no state religion.

Question 9.
Describe the ideological base of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:

  • To bring about the reforms in the Gurudwaras and their management.
  • To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
  • To end poverty and hunger.
  • To make economic set-up more just.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on National Political Parties of India.
Answer:
There are seven National Political Parties—Indian National Congress, Bhartiya Janata Party, Communist Party of India, Marxist Communist Party of India, Bahujan Smaj Party, National Congress Party, Trinmool Congress Party.

Question 11.
Explain ideology of Indian National Congress.
Answer:

  • Promotion of Secularism and Socialism
  • Non-alignment
  • Reforms in industrial field
  • Modernisation of agriculture.

Question 12.
Describe the ideological base of the Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:

  1. The party has pledged itself to defend the unity and integrity of India.
  2. The party stands? for positive Secularism.

Question 13.
Explain the ideology of the Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
This party believes in the ideology of Karl Marx and Lenin. Its aims is to uplift the working class and make it the ruling class.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main features of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main important features of the Indian democracy :

  1. The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
  2. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar to the principle of democratic equality.
  3. Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of India.
  4. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
  5. The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
  6. The Constitution also provides for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
  7. Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to all Indians without any kind of discrimination.
  8. Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
Explain briefly the electoral process in India.
Answer:
In India election procedure is as follows :

  1. Constituencies. The first important task in the process of election is the delimitation of the constituencies.
  2. Election Notification. The process of election begins with the notification of election. For the elections of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, notification is issued by the President.
  3. Filing of the Nomination Papers. The Election Commission fixes a last date for filing the nomination papers.
  4. Scrutiny of Nomination Papers. On the fixed date, nomination papers are scrutinised by the. Returning Officer and the names of the eligible candidates are announced.
  5. Election Campaign. With the announcement of election, political parties and independent candidates start election propaganda and try to influence the voters.
  6. Polling. On the day of the polling, holiday is declared so that each voter can cast his vote.
  7. Counting of votes and declaration of result. On the fixed date, EVMs are opened in the presence of the representatives of the candidates and votes are counted. A candidate getting the highest number of votes is declared elected. Every candidate is expected to submit the details of his expenses in the election, within 45 days after the election is over.

Question 3.
Name the main means of formation and expression of the Public Opinion.
Answer:
The main means of formation and expression of the public opinion are given below :

  1. Public Meetings. Public meetings stimulate and create public interest in great political, social and economic questions through speeches delivered by men in the domain of public life.
  2. Educational Institutions. It is in the schools, colleges and universities that the life of the would be citizens is moulded.
  3. Role of Newspapers. Newspaper is a very important source of formulating public opinion.
  4. Television. Television moulds public opinion by broadcasting news and comments. It makes the people politically conscious.
  5. Press. Public opinion is formed by newspapers, by presenting news and views on matters of public importance of national and international character.
  6. Political Parties. Political parties help to create public interest without which there can be no public opinion.

Question 4.
Describe the role and importance of Public Opinion.
Answer:
The role of the public opinion in democracy is very important. Public welfare is the basis of public opinion. It always reminds the government of its duties. The fact is that public opinion is the soul of democracy. The source of power of a democratic government is public opinion. The public opinion is the foundation which makes a government stable. The Government always tries its best to mould the public opinion in its favour. The Government implements its policies keeping in view the will and directions of the public opinion. The Government, which ignores the public opinion, becomes dictatorial and puts democracy into danger. Such a government loses the confidence of the people. As a result, it faces a defeat in the elections. That is why the Government tries not to go against the public opinion.

Write a short note on the following :

Question 1.
Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal.
Answer:
1. Main objectives of Shiromani Akali Dal. (Pb. 2016 I) The Shiromani Akali Dal was founded in 1920. A constitution of the party was approved in the meeting of its executive on September 2, 1974. According to it, the following are the objectives of the Akali Dal:

  • To bring about reforms in the Gurudwaras and look after them properly.
  • To maintain belief among the Sikhs that their Panth is independent.
  • To end poverty and hunger. To make economic set up more just and to reduce economic inequality between the rich and the poor.
  • To put an end to illiteracy, untouchability and discrimination.
  • To make arrangements for public health and security.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Emergence/Formation of Bhartiya Janata Party.
The Bhartiya Janata Party was organised on April 6, 1980. Today, this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of its policies and programmes :

  1. The B.J.P. believes that centre-state relations should be improved and it favours the implementation of the main recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
  2. For free and fair elections, the B.J.P. will update and adopt the Goswami Committee Report.
  3. The B. J.P. will appoint a Lok Pal to entertain complaints of corruption against anybody holding public office including the Prime Minister.
  4. For better Local self-government at the village level, the B. J.P. will make changes in the Constitution and further strengthen the Panchayati Raj system.
  5. The B.J.P. will set up regional councils for Kashmir, Jammu and Laddakh.
  6. The B.J.P. will set up a National Security Council.

Question 3.
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Foreign Policy of Indian National Congress. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885. Even today this party is very active in Indian politics.

Following is the description of the policies and programmes of this party :

  • Firm faith in secularism and democracy.
  • To promote socialism along with economic liberalism.
  • To give the status of industry to agriculture. To grant loans to the farmers at low rates of interest.
  • To exempt the industry from licence system and end “the inspector Raj”. To encourage foreign investment.
  • To provide jobs to the unemployed. To improve the economic condition of the working class, to give financial aid to the backward and weak classes to raise their standard of living.
  • To improve the condition of the minorities and the women.
  • To frame foreign policy based on Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Formation of Communist Party of India.
Answer:
Formation of Communist Party of India. In the beginning of the 20th century, a group of redical youth within Indian National Congress was not satisfied with its policies. Russian Revolution inspired under the leadership of inspired Indian Youth for attaining independence through revolution. These disgruntled youth formed many Marxist organisations and assembled at Kanpur 1924 under the leadership of Manvinder Nath Rai. this led to the formation of the Communist Party of India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 5.
Role of the Opposition.
Answer:
Role of the Opposition. (Pb. 2003 D) In a democratic country like India opposition performs many functions and the most important ones are as follow:

  1. Criticism of the Government. One of the most important functions of the opposition is to criticise the Government. The opposition points out the drawbacks in the laws, policies, plans and programmes of the government.
  2. Suggestions to Government. The opposition not only criticises the policies of the Government but also gives suggestions and proposals to remove its drawbacks.
  3. Alternative Programmes. The opposition provides drafts of alternative laws, policies, plans and programmes to ensure the social, economic and cultural welfare of the people.
  4. The opposition plays an important role in the working of democratic set-up. It makes democracy real and effective. It exposes the lapses of the government before the people.
  5. The opposition parties safeguard the interests and liberties of the people by checking the despotism of the government.
  6. The opposition provides a ready alternative government.

Question 6.
Essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
An essential condition for the success of Indian Democracy.

  1. A democratic society is necessary for the success of a democracy or democratic country in which there must be political equality.
  2. There has to be earth presence of equal and open thinking in society and it is very much necessary for the success of democracy.
  3. Economic equality must be provided. It means that everyone should be provided equal opportunities for development. It is a guarantee of the success of democracy.
  4. Educated citizens must be there. Democracy is a system that involves a continues and active movement of the people in the political process. That’s why it is essential that literary should be widespread.

Question 7.
Main Principles of Indian Democracy.
Answer:
Main Principles of Indian Democracy;
Following are the main important. features of the Indian democracy:

  1. The Indian Constitution provides for a democratic set-up in the country. Its preamble describes the importance of democracy.
  2. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Equality to all citizens. This right is similar t.o the principle of democratic equality.
  3. Freedom is the main principle of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants Right to Freedom to all the citizens of india.
  4. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays stress on promoting fraternity among all citizens.
  5. The Indian Constitution provides for adult franchise in India which is the soul of democracy.
  6. The Constitution also provides, for joint electoral system which ensures equality to the people of all castes, religions and races.
  7. Political rights are the demands of democracy. The Indian Constitution grants political rights to nil Indians without any kind of discrimination.
  8. Independence of Judiciary, Secularism and Republican system have strengthened the foundations of democracy.

Question 8.
Indian Democracy at work.
Answer:
Indian Democracy at work. Indian democracy is working quite successfully. India is having indirect democracy in which decisions are taken by the elected representatives of the people. Democracy is completely dependent upon elections and free and fair elections are held India by an independent Election Commission. All the political parties are free to work in society to create public opinion in their favour. Many political parties exist in India which give great contribution in making Indian democracy a great success. So, we can say that Indian democracy is successfully working.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Democracy at Work Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Why are modern democracies indirect or representative?
Answer:
Because modern states are large in size, having a large area with huge population.

Question 2.
What is an election manifesto?
Answer:
It is a document which tells the programme, principles, objectives and promises of a party or a candidate.

Question 3.
Why are election symbols allotted to political parties in India?
Answer:
To facilitate uneducated voters to instantly recognise the party of their choice.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Secret Ballot?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot system means the casting of vote by a voter remains a secret process.

Question 5.
How are the representatives of people kept under check in democracy?
Answer:
The representatives who do not work well can be removed through election.

Question 6.
What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?
Answer:
By Rule of Law we mean that the government rules according to the law of the land.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of Communalism?
Answer:
Communalism is an ideology which emphasizes the separate identity of a religious group in relation to other groups.

Question 8.
What is the importance of democracy in the modern age?
Answer:
The people get all opportunities of making progress only in a democracy.

Question 9.
Describe any one obstacle in the way of public opinion.
Answer:
Illiteracy. An illiterate person cannot form a sound.public opinion.

Question 10.
How does cinema express the public opinion?
Answer:
Films throw light on the failures and achievements of the government.

Question 11.
Give any one point showing the importance of political parties.
Answer:
A political party, after winning the elections, comes to power and forms the government.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 12.
How are the ideas of democracy and citizenship interlinked with each other?
Answer:
The success of democracy depends on enlightened, honest and vigilant citizens.

Question 13.
Write any one essential condition for the free expression of public opinion.
Answer:
Press and other means of communication should be free and impartial.

Question 14.
Name any one agency through which public opinion is usually expressed.
Answer:
Newspapers or the Press.

Question 15.
After coming to power, the government cannot ignore the public opinion. Why?
Answer:
It is pushed out of power in the next elections.

Question 16.
What is meant by Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The adult franchise means the right of voting is granted to all the adults.

Question 17.
What is the importance of free and impartial elections in democracy?
Answer:
The people elect the representatives of their own choice.

Question 18.
What is an election process?
Answer:
The process by which the citizens cast their votes and elect their representatives.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 19.
What do you mean by the Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The right of voting granted to ail the adults

Question 20.
Mention one feature of an election manifesto.
Answer:
It tells the voters about the policies, of the political parties.

Question 21.
Describe any one technique of an election campaign.
Answer:
Political parties arrange public meetings and processions to win over the voters in their favour.

Question 22.
Mention three functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

  1. Conducting the elections
  2. Counting of votes
  3. Declaring the results of elections.

Question 23.
What is a political party?
Answer:
It is group of citizens having common views on public questions and is organised as a political unit to obtain control of the government.

Question 24.
What do you understand by single-party system?
Answer:
A single party system is that system where only one party functions in the whole of the state.

Question 25.
What do you understand by two party system?
Answer:
Where there are two major political parties in a country.

Question 26.
What do you understand by Multi-Party system?
Answer:
When there are more than two well-organised political parties in a country.

Question 27.
What is a regional party?
Answer:
A party that is organised in a particular region or a state is called a regional party.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 28.
Mention any one difference between a regional party and a national party.
Answer:
A national party has influence all over the country whereas the influence of a regional party is limited to a particular region or a state.

Question 29.
Describe any one function of the opposition party in a democracy.
Answer:
It points out the faults of the government.

Question 30.
What do you mean by proportional representation?
Answer:
It is an electoral device designed to ensure representation of all sections of public opinion in proportion to their voting strength.

Question 31.
What is meant by election symbol?
Answer:
In elections, a special symbol is allotted to every candidate. It is called an election symbol.

Question 32.
What do you mean by simple majority system?
Answer:
A candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

Question 33.
What kind of Democratic Government is in India? (Pb. 2002A)
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Democracy is of two types direct and _________
Answer:
indirect

Question 2.
_________ is a key for the success of democracy.
Answer:
Enlightened citizens

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 3.
India has a _________ government.
Answer:
democratic

Question 4.
Equality and liberty are the basic principles of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 5.
In India all adult citizens who have attained the age of _________ have been given right to vote.
Answer:
18

Question 6.
An important pillar of Indian democracy is an independent _________
Answer:
judiciary

Question 7.
Political fights are heart and soul of _________
Answer:
democracy

Question 8.
Public meetings are important means for formation of _________
Answer:
public opinion

Question 9.
Indian National Congress was established in _________
Answer:
1885

Question 10.
Bhartiya Janata Party was established in _________
Answer:
1980.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India the losing parties accept the verdict.
Answer:
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
The Communist Party of India was formally founded in the year :
(a) 1924
(b) 1885
(c) 1925
(d) 1906.
Answer:
(a) 1924

Question 3.
Bharatiya Janata Party was founded in :
(a) 1952
(b) 1977
(c) 1980
(d) 1984.
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 4.
Which of the following is a National Party?
(a) Akali Dal
(b) Janata Party
(c) National Conference
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(d) Indian National Congress.

Question 5.
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by :
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor.
Answer:
(b) President

Question 6.
Which of the following is a regional political party?
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal
(b) National Democratic Alliance
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Indian National Congress.
Answer:
(а) Shiromani Akali Dal

Question 7.
Which of the following is responsible for conducting free and fair elections?
(a) Parliament
(b) Election Commission
(c) President
(d) Speaker.
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by democracy in modern times?
Answer:
Modem age is an age of democracy. By democracy we mean the government in which the supreme power of the state is vested in the people. The people directly or indirectly take part in the administrative affairs of the state. The representatives of people make and implement laws keeping in view the welfare of the people. The public can unseat a representative in case he does not work upto their expectations. In fact, democracy is a government of the people, for the people and by the people.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 2.
What do you mean by the principle of Political Equality?
Answer:
By political equality, we mean that all the people should enjoy equal democratic rights. According to this principle, we must not classify the citizens under different categories. So it is clear that political equality means equality before law. All the citizens should hold their positions according to their capability and efficiency. There should be no discrimination on the-basis of caste, colour and creed.

Question 3.
Differentiate between direct and indirect democracy.
Answer:
Democracy can be classified into two categories :

  1. Direct Democracy.
  2. Indirect Democracy.

1. Direct Democracy. In direct democracy, all the citizens of the state directly participate in the administrative affairs of the state. Every citizen takes part in the making and implementation of laws and levying taxes, in deciding the policy of the government and all other important affairs of the state. Even the representatives could be asked to resign if they did not work to their satisfaction.

2. Indirect Democracy. Under indirect democracy, the citizens do not take direct part in the state affairs. They, on the other hand, elect their representatives who run the government on their behalf.

Question 4.
How is the public opinion formed? How can it be expressed?
Answer:
It is the age of democracy and public opinion is the backbone of democracy. A strong public opinion is not formed by itself. Political parties, rulers, leaders, press etc. contribute to its formation.

The following means are used in the formation and expression of public opinion :

  1. The political leaders put their views before the. people in public meetings and assemblies. They explain the policy of their party. Thus people come to know about the various problems and their solutions. This helps in the formation and expression of public opinion.
  2. The press is the main instrument of formation and expression of public opinion. Through the press, the people can express their opinions freely.
  3. The radio, television, literature, cinema, educational institutions and religious institutions all help in the formation and expression of public opinion.

Question 5.
Explain the hurdles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy for its successful working demands awakened citizens, high calibers, good character leaders with a sense of responsibility and keen interest in the success of democracy. Social conditions are political and economic equality; co-operative and tolerant citizens, well organised political parties, independent judiciary and free press. Absence of these essential conditions is the main hurdle in the way of democracy.

Question 6.
How can obstacles in the way of democracy be removed? Give any two remedies.
Answer:
The obstacles in the way of democracy can be removed in the following two ways :

  1. Spread of Education. Only educated and able citizens can make democracy successful. So education should be wide-spread. All citizens should be educated. Primary education should be made free and compulsory.
  2. Free and Honest Press. A sound public opinion is the backbone of democracy. Press (newspapers) is an effective instrument of public opinion. So it is very necessary to have an honest and free press for the success of democracy. The press should not be controlled either by the government or big industrialists.

Question 7.
Why are modern democracies indirect?
Answer:
Modern states are very large. The number of citizens runs into crores. It is not possible for them to run the government of a country directly. They cannot even assemble at one place. Moreover, we need an organised body, and not a crowd for running the government. The voters elect their representatives to the legislatures or other offices. The number of elected representatives is not very large. This can run the government smoothly and efficiently. That is why, modern democracies are indirect.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 8.
What is the importance of Representation in Democracy?
Answer:
In the modern age, democratic governments are representative governments. It means all depends upon the representation. Modern states have grown in size and population, making it impossible for the people to participate in the affairs of the state. Thus, the system of representation helps them in electing their representatives to run the government. Moreover, the government can know the views of the people and their difficulties and this helps the government in framing right policies to run the administration. Thus the government functions according to the will of the people through their representatives. Thus we see that representation in democracy has great importance.

Question 9.
What is meant, by the responsible government?
Answer:
By responsible government, we mean the governments which were established after the revolutions in England and France. These governments could not be despotic. They had to function according to the law of the land. They were quite different from the democratic governments of today. In modern democratic age, all adults have the right to vote. The government is directly responsible to the legislature and indirectly to the people. But at that time, all the people did not participate in the elections of responsible governments. Such governments were elected by a small number of people.

Question 10.
What is an election manifesto? What are its benefits?
Answer:
An election manifesto is a document which tells the voters about the programme, principles, objectives and promises for which the party stands. An election manifesto is an important document of a political party.

It has the following benefits :

  1. The people judge the political parties by their election manifestoes.
  2. The people are able to form opinion about the aims and objects of the political parties and exercise their franchise accordingly.
  3. The voters are able to know the differences between the different political parties through the election manifestoes.
  4. The political party which comesout successful at the polls tries to implement the programmes published in its election manifesto. If it does not do so, the people can put pressure on it to act according to its manifesto.

Question 11.
Explain simple majority system.
Answer:
In simple majority system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rival/rivals is declared elected. In this system, the elected candidate may or may not get the majority of votes. According to democratic rules, a candidate must be a representative of majority (more than 50%) votes. But sometimes an elected candidate gets less than 50% votes but is still declared elected. Such a candidate cannot be called a real representative of the people. Sometimes a political party getting majority votes sits in opposition in the Legislature and the other party representing minority votes comes to power.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 12.
What is the importance of adult franchise?
Answer:
The universal adult franchise means the right of voting granted to every adult— male or female, without any discrimination. A person above a certain age is called an adult. In India a person of 18 years is an adult. In India every person above 18 years enjoys the right to vote. This right is given to every man and woman without distinction of caste, religion, property or education. In a democracy, people rule themselves or the government is run through their chosen representatives. So universal adult franchise becomes very important. It provides an opportunity to the largest number of people to take part in the functioning of the government.

Question 13.
What is the importance of election campaign?
Answer:
Election campaign has great importance in democracy. Through election campaign, people come to know; the different problems of the country. Political parties try to mould the public opinion in their favour. The opposition parties tell the people about their policies and programmes. They throw light on the wrong policies of the government. They promise that after coming to power, they will do everything for the welfare of the public. Similarly, the ruling party presents before the public its achievements and further plans. All these points make it clear that election campaign has great importance.

Question 14.
Does the electorate have real control over its representatives?
Answer:
In a democracy, people elect their representatives. The electorate has real control over their representatives. The representatives have fear in their minds that the electorate will turn against them and push them out of power if they do nothing for the welfare of the electorate. It is thus clear the electorate has control over their representatives. In some countries, the electorate is entitled to recall their representatives if they do not work upto its expectations.

Question 15.
Why have the political parties so much importance in democracy?
Answer:
Political parties have a special role in democracy. They perform the following functions :

  1. Political parties set their programmes. During elections they prepare their manifestoes and present them before the people. Through them, people come to know the national problems and then form their own opinions.
  2. Political parties help in the formulation of the public opinion.
  3. They contest elections.
  4. The party that secures a majority in the election, forms the government.
  5. The party with minority membership forms the opposition.
  6. The political parties give political education and training to the people.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 16.
What is the importance of elections in democracy? What role do political parties play in elections?
Answer:
Elections are very important in a democracy :

  1. Through the elections, the people choose their representatives to the legislature central or state.
  2. The elections give stability to the government.
  3. People control the government through elections and stop it from becoming despotic.
  4. People change their governments through the elections.

Political parties play a very important role in the elections :

  • They put political problems before the people.
  • They suggest to the people various ways of solving these problems.
  • They give political education to the people;
  • They make people aware of their rights.

Question 17.
Mention the defects of the ‘simple majority’ election system.
Answer:
The representative are generally elected by simple majority. In this system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes against his rivals is declared elected.

There are many defects in this system:

  • The elected representative is not always the choice of the majority. He is generally elected by a minority,
  • The majority party in the legislature represents only minority votes,
  • All parties do not get representation according to the number of their votes,
  • A large number of votes go waste. They do not elect any representative at all.

Question 18.
What is the importance of Secret Ballot System?
Answer:
The Secret Ballot System has great importance in the election process. The following points make it clear :

  • The system of Secret Ballot ensures just and impartial election.
  • The voters are free from outside pulls and pressures in casting their votes.
  • No outside force or fear can influence the voter to cast his vote under the system of Secret Ballot.
  • This system brings the desired result without creating any ill-feeling.

Question 19.
What is the importance of the opposition in democracy?
Or
What are the functions of an opposition party?
Answer:
In a democracy, an opposition party is a great blessing for the people. It has an important role to play :

  • A strong opposition does not allow the government to become despotic. It points out the faults of the government.
  • It brings the people’s grievances to the notice of the government.
  • It brings to the notice of the people the wrong deeds of the government.
  • It provides alternative government to the country.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Indian Democracy at Work

Question 20.
What are the advantages of the two-party system (bi-party system)?
Answer:
The two-party system or the bi-party system is the best type of party system. It helps in the smooth functioning of a democratic government.

This system has the following advantages :

  1. Both the parties have clear manifestoes, programmes and policies. The electors are able to make up their mind in the exercise of their franchise much before the date of the election.
  2. It also provides stability to the government. The party which gets the absolute majority, forms the government. The other party acts as an opposition party.
  3. Under the two-party system, the government is able to implement long-term measures of reforms and development.
  4. The opposition party keeps the government alert. It exposes the acts of omission .and commission of the government.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ Fundamental Rights has been included in the Constitution of India.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
The Fundamental Rights are included in Article of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
14-32

Question 3.
Article 25 of Constitution prohibits _______
Answer:
discrimination

Question 4.
The first fundamental right is _______
Answer:
Right to Equality

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 5.
Freedom of Press has been given under _______
Answer:
Right to Freedom.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗):

Question 1.
We all are equal before the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is no relation between Right and the Duty.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Judiciary is the defender of the fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Right to education is a fundamental right.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Admission can be denied in a government institution on the basis of Religion, Caste and Colour.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
From which class is the right to free and compulsory Education Implemented.
(A) Fifth
(B) Eight
(C) Tenth
(D) Eleventh.
Answer:
(A) Fifth.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 2.
Under which right to the selling of man prohibited.
(A) Right to provision of Constitution
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(C) Right against exploitation.

Question 3.
Since when is the Right to Education has been implemented in India.
(A) August 4, 2009
(B) December, 2002
(C) 1st April, 2010
(D) 1st April, 2009.
Answer:
(C) 1st April; 2010.

Question 4.
Under which Article of the Constitution does the Right to Education fall 0?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 21-A
(C) Article 20
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(B) Article 21-A.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
What is meant by rights?
Answer:
Rights are the facilities given to us by society. In simple words, rights are those conditions of social life which are necessary for all-round development of an individual. Rights are sanctioned by state and society.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of Primary Right.
Answer:
Primary rights are the rights which are required by all the citizens of a country to live a happy and better life. There are very much necessary for all round development of an individual.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
Write two duties connected with any two rights.
Answer:

  1. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. Cultural and educational right.
  2. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 4.
What is meant by the Right to the Provision of the Constitution?
Or
What is meant by right against Exploitation?
Answer:
This right says that if any one, even government, tries to take away one’s fundamental rights then he can approach the court to take back his right. In this case court will direct the authorities to guarantee his rights.

Question 5.
By which rule has the untouchability been done away with?
Answer:
Untouchability has been done away with Article 17 of the Constitution.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Write a short note on the Right to Education.
Answer:
Right to Education has been given to all the citizens. An Article 21A has been added in the Fundamental rights. Now every child has been given the right to get free and compulsory education between the age group of 6 to 14. An act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2009 to provide free and compulsory education for the children in the age group of 6-14 years. This law is implemented in 2010.

Question 2.
Why fundamental rights are included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Some rights are necessary for the physical, mental, moral and cultural development of the person. All-round development of the person is not possible without these. They are known as Fundamental Rights. These rights are included in the Constitution to give guarantee of these rights of the citizens. Not only this but these rights are given the security through the Right of Constitutional Remedies. If state or any person violates these rights, the victim can take shelter of the court.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
‘Right and Duties are the sheep of the coin flock’. How?
Answer:
Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Both these supplement each other. Right without duties and duties without rights are meaningless. Therefore, it is usually said that the rights of a citizen are duties of the others. If we enjoy our rights but do not perform our duties, it will mean that we are denying the rights to other citizens. For example, a citizen has the right to defend his life, therefore, it is his duty that he should not harm others. Therefore it is very clear that rights and duties are closely related.

Question 4.
Explain the Right against Exploitation.
Or
What is meant by right against exploitation?
Answer:
Poor people, women and children, in our society, are being exploited from the ages. So to remove this thing, a system of rights against exploitation has been kept in the Constitution.

According to this :

  1. Trade of humans and taking work without paying salary has been highly restricted. Violater of this rule can be punished by law.
  2. Children of age of less than 14 years cannot be employed in factories, mines or in risky jobs. Actually they cannot be used in any such work which could create obstacle in their development.

Question 5.
How can be defend the Fundamental Right?
Answer:
Right of religious freedom has been implemented in our Constitution in following way :

  • Every one has the right to adopt any religion, to propagate his religion and to worship his religion.
  • People are free to Jstablish religious and welfare institutions, and can run their administration.
  • No citizen will be forced to pay such tax whose objective will be propaganda of any specific religion.
  • Students in educational institutions will not be forced to take education of any particular religion.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental rights are given?
(a) Part-III
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part-VI.
Answer:
(a) Part-III.

Question 2.
Under which articles the fundamental rights are given?
(a) 13-36
(b) 12-36
(c) 14-32
(d) 14-40.
Answer:
(c) 14-32

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
Originally how many fundamental rights were give in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight.
Answer:
(c) Seven.

Question 4.
Presently how many fundamental rights are given to the Indian citizens?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight.
Answer:
(b) Six.

Question 5.
Which right is given under Articles 14-18?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Cultural and Educational Right.
Answer:
(a) Right to Equality.

Question 6.
Which right is given under Articles 14-18?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Freedom.
Answer:
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 7.
In which part of the Constitution, the Directive principle of State Policy are given?
(a) Part-III
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part-VI.
Answer:
(b) Part-IV.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 8.
In which part of the Constitution, Fundamental Duties are given?
(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-V A
(c) Part-VI A
(d) Part VII A.
Answer:
(a) Part-IV A.

Question 9.
This right was given in 2002 through 86th constitutional Amendment. An Act was passed in 2009 to implement it. It was implement in April 2010. Which of the following is this right? (From Board M.Q.P.)
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Life
(d) Right to Equality.
Answer:
(a) Right to Information.

Question 10.
Jaiveer takes work from his employee Ravi at his tailoring shop from 8 a.m. to 8 p.m. which right of Ravi is violated.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Educational Right
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion.
Answer:
(b) Right against Exploitation.

Question 11.
Raminder works in a tailoring shop. He works from 8 a.m. to 9 p.m. but he does not get enough money. Which of his following right is violated?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Freedom.
Answer:
(a) Right against Exploitation.

Question 12.
When Indian Constitution was made, citizens were given seven fundamental rights but now they are six in number. Which one of the following rights people do not enjoy right now?
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Property
(d) Right to Information.
Answer:
(c) Right to Property.

Question 13.
Ram Singh was arrested by the police without any reason. Which of his following right is violated?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right Against Exploitation
(d) Right to Life.
Answer:
(b) Right to Freedom.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 14.
This was added in the Constitution in 1978 through 44th Constitutional Amendment:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Powers of President
(d) Powers of Prime Minister.
Answer:
(b) Fundamental Duties.

Question 15.
If any one’s rights are violated then with which right, his rights can be given back?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right to Religious Freedom.
Answer:
(b)Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ fundamental rights were added in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
seven

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given from _______ to _______ articles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
14, 32

Question 3.
Article 25 of gives us _______
Answer:
Right to freedom of religion

Question 4.
First fundamental right is _______
Answer:
Right to equality

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 5.
Freedom of Press is given under _______
Answer:
Right to Freedom.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) answer:

Question 1.
Everyone is equal in front of law.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is no relation of rights and the duties.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Judiciary protects fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Right to education is a fundamental right.
Answer:
(✓)

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 5.
Anyone can be denied admission in educational institution on the basis of caste, colour, race, gender etc.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A B
1. Rights (i) Given in the Constitution
2. Fundamental Rights (ii) Demands of Humans
3. Right to Freedom (iii) To go to Judiciary
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies (iv) To Express Opinion

Answer:

A B
1. Rights (ii) Demands of Humans
2. Fundamental Rights (i) Given in the Constitution
3. Right to Freedom (iv) To Express Opinion
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies (iii) To go to Judiciary

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which articles of the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights are included? On what basis they are included?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are given from Article 14 to 32 of the Indian Constitution. These rights are included in the Indian Constitution on the basis of the Constitution of United States of America.

Question 2.
What is meant by Human Rights?
Answer:
Those rights are known as human rights which make the human life a better one. These rights help the person to live a respectful life.

Question 3.
What is Right of Equality?
Answer:
Right of Equality is a very important fundamental right. According to it, all citizens are equal in front of law. There shall be no discrimination with any citizen on the basis of his wealth, colotir, caste, creed, religion, race, etc.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 4.
Which duty is associated with the right of religion?
Answer:
We should not criticise any religion or religious place to maintain our right of religion. Our duty is to give respect to every religion.

Question 5.
What has been written in Articles 15 and 25 of the Constitution to maintain the right of equality?
Answer:

  1. According to Article 15 of the Constitution, there shall be no discrimination with any citizen on the basis of religion, caste, sex and race.
  2. According to Article 25 of the Constitution, discrimination with any person on the basis of religion is prohibited.

Question 6.
What is the literal meaning of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are those rights of citizens which are given in the Constitution of the country. They are given security through constitutional remedies. These rights are necessary for all-round development of a person.

Question 7.
How many fundamental rights are there in our Constitution?
Answer:
Six Fundamental Rights are given in the Constitution.

Question 8.
What is the relationship between rights and duties?
Answer:
Rights and duties are closely related to each other. They are the two sides of a same coin. One man’s right is other man’s duty. Actually rights are meaningless without duties.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 9.
Mention duties associated with any of the two rights.
Answer:

  1. Every one is equal before the law. So it is our duty not to discriminate with any one.
  2. We have the right of freedom of different types. The duty which is associated with this right is that we should take care about freedom of others.

Question 10.
What do you mean by right of the Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
According to the right of Constitutional Remedies, fundamental rights of any person cannot be snatched by the state. If fundamental rights of any person are violated then that person can take the help of the court to get back his rights.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain cultural and educational rights and duties associated with it.
Answer:
Citizens have the right to secure their language, script and the culture. No citizen can be restricted, on the basis of language or race, to take admission ih those educational institutions which are running with the help of government aid.

So it is our duty to respect this right. We should not restrict any one to take admission in government’s educational institution. In fact, we should respect all the scripts, cultures, languages and religions. No discrimination shall be made while giving financial aid to any institution.

Question 2.
Explain any four Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
Answer:

  1. Right of Freedom: Indian citizens are free to move anywhere, to express their views and to adopt any occupation.
  2. Religious Freedom: Indian citizens are free to adopt any religion and to leave any religion. They can establish and run their religious institutions as well.
  3. Right of Education: Indian citizens are given the right to read any language and to secure their culture and script.
  4. Right of Equality: All the citizens are given the right of equality. Every type of discrimination has been eliminated. Any person can achieve higher post with the help of his ability.

Question 3.
Mention the Fundamental Rights incorporated in our Constitution.
Answer:
The following Fundamental Rights are incorporated in the Constitution :

  1. Right of Equality
  2. Right of Freedom
  3. Right against Exploitation
  4. Right of Religious Freedom
  5. Cultural and Educational Right
  6. Right of Constitutional Remedies.

Scope of Right of Education became wider through a constitutional amendment in Dec. 2002.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Question 4.
Does our country still discriminate on the basis of caste, creed, colour or religion?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has eliminated every type of discrimination, on the basis of religion, colour, caste, creed, etc from our society. But actually it has not been able to eliminate this discrimination from our society. Even today people of higher castes and classes hate other castes and classes. People of lower castes are badly treated by people of higher castes. So, it is necessary to take some special steps. People should be told about the laws made against such discrimination. These laws should be strictly implemented.

Question 5.
Why is it that till today our society discriminates against people on the basis of caste, colour, creed, or religion? How can we remove this from our society?
Answer:
It is right that people in our society are still discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, or religion. It is so because this thing is going on for ages and our minds are set in a way that we don’t want change in this aspect. We always talk about equality but practically we don’t do anything to remove discrimination. If we move into the interiors of the country this process is continually going on. This process could be removed by making strict laws, changing our mindsets, and making people aware of their rights. If this could be done then discrimination can be removed from our society.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Democracy: Meaning and Importance Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
According to “Democracy is a government in which everyone has a share.”
Answer:
Sealey.

Question 2.
The word Democracy has been derived from two Greek words ________ and ________
Answer:
Demos, Croatia.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following conditions apply for the success of democracy?
(i) Enlightened citizens
(ii) literate citizens
(iii) Universal adult franchise
(iv) Above all.
Answer:
(iv) Above all.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 2.
Etymological meaning of democracy is :
(i) Rule of one man
(ii) Bureaucracy
(iii) Military dictatorship
(iv) Rule of people.
Answer:
(iv) Rule of people.

III. Read the statements carefully and write True/False against every statement:

Question 1.
There is no liberty to express different opinion in democracy.
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Democracy clearly condemns use of means of violence although it may be used for the welfare of society.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
In democracy citizens are entitled different types of rights.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Awareness of citizens is essential for democracy.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain Etymological meaning of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is made of two Greek words ; Demos and Cratia. The meaning of Demos is people and of Cratia is rule. So its literal meaning is ‘rule of people’.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 2.
Why democratic form of government is popular?
Answer:

  1. It gives its citizens the right to express their views.
  2. In this, people have the participate in electing their government.

Question 3.
Write any two hurdles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
Regionalism, Casteism, Communalism are hurdles in the way of democracy.

Question 4.
Give any one definition of democracy.
Answer:
According to Dicey, “Democracy is a form of government in which the governing body to comparatively a large fraction of the entire nation.”

Question 5.
Mention any two conditions essential for democracy.
Answer:
Political freedom and economic equality are the two conditions essential for democracy.

Question 6.
Write any two principal of democracy.
Answer:

  1. In democracy, people have the right to express their ideas.
  2. Democracy is based on the principal of tolerance.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 7.
What is the source of power in a democracy?
Answer:
People are the source of power in a democracy.

Question 8.
Which are the two forms of democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is of two types-direct:

  1. Democracy and
  2. Indirect democracy.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain any two conditions for the success of democracy.
Answer:

  1. Political freedom: For the success of democracy, people must have political freedom. They must have the right to speech, to form association, to express ideas and to criticise wrong policies of the government.
  2. Moral Characters: To make democracy a success, people must have high moral character. If people and leaders will be corrupt then democracy will not be able to successfully do its work.

Question 2.
How poverty is a threat to democracy? Describe in brief.
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that poverty is an obstacle in the way of successful democracy. First of all people do not caste their vote because its more important for them to earn money instead of giving vote. Along with this, many times a poor person is forced to sell his vote. Rich people buy his vote to win the elections. A poor person even cannot express his ideas.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 3.
How illiteracy is a challenge for democracy? Describe in brief.
Answer:
One of the major enemy of democracy is illiteracy. An* illiterate person, who does not know the meaning of democracy, cannot play a part in its successful functioning. That’s why there is a decline of democratic value that every one participates in it. An illiterate person hardly knows about the political, economic and social problems of the country. That’s why he becomes a victim of false promises done by the leaders and is unable to cast his vote for the right candidate.

Question 4.
“Political equality is essential for democracy.” Explain this statement.
Answer:
It is true that the political equality is essential for the success of democracy. For the success of democracy, people must have the freedom of speech and freedom to form association. Along with this, they must have the right to criticise wrong policies of the government and freedom to express their views. All these freedom are available only in democracy because of which it becomes successful.

Question 5.
How the existence of political party is essential for democracy? Explain this statement.
Or
‘Political parties are wheels of democracy.’ Explain.
Answer:
The existence of political parties is very much necessary for democracy. Actually political parties are the means of a particular ideology and different political parties came into existence because of different ideas. Different views give way to the birth of political parties. Political parties keep public views in front of the government. They act as a link between the people and government. Except this we need political parties to- contest elections without them, elections are not possible in democracy.

Question 6.
How decentralization of power is essential for democracy?
Answer:
One of the basic feature of democracy is division of powers and the meaning of decentralisation is division of powers among all the levels of government. If there will be no decentralisation, powers will remain concentrated in few hands. There will come a danger of the advent of dictatorship in the country. If there will be division of powers, there will be no danger of dictatorship and the system will run smoothly so, decentralization of powers is very much necessary for democracy.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 7.
Explain any two principles of democracy.
Answer:

  1. Democracy is based on the concept of tolerance. In democracy, every one has the freedom to express his views.
  2. Democracy helps in enhancing the dignity of an individual. This is the reason that people have different rights in democracy.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the basic principles of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is based on the following democratic principles :

  1. The sovereignty of the people: Sovereignty resides in the people and the administration is run to accordance with the wishes of the people.
  2. Rule of People: The administration is run by the people other directly or indirectly.
  3. Rulers are Elected. Rulers are elected by the people. Final decision-making power must lie with those elected by the people.
  4. Free and Fair Election: Democracy must be based on a free and fair election. The ruling party should have a fair chance of defeat.
  5. Adult Franchise: In a democracy each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
  6. Interest of People: The administration is run in the best interests of the people.
  7. Rule of Law: Democracy is based on rule of law. Law is supreme. No body is above the law.
  8. Equality: Equality is a basic principle of democracy. Everybody enjoys the right of equality and liberty.
  9. Fundamental Rights: In a democracy citizens enjoy fundamental rights which are protected by the Judiciary.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the main obstacles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
In the whole world, democracy is the most prevalent form of government but there are few obstacles in the way of its successful functioning which are given below :

  1. Casteism and Communalism: Giving preference to one’s caste and considering one’s religion superiors than the other creates hurdles in the way of successful democracy.
  2. Regionalism: The meaning of regionalism is giving preference to own region over the other or country. It leads to conservation of human mentality and one never care about the national interests. It can become a danger to national integrity.
  3. Illiteracy: Illiteracy is also one of the obstacle is the way of democracy. As illiterate person cannot understand the importance of democratic values and his vote. Cousequently either he does not caste his vote or sells his vote. It raises doubts on the success oLdemocracy.
  4. Unhealthy people: If citizens of the country are not healthy then they cannot contribute towards the progress of the nation. Such people do not keep any interest in the public and political activities.
  5. Indifferent attitude: If people are indifferent in their attitude or they do not care about their social and political responsibilities, they are definitely obstacles in the way of democracy. They even are unable to use their right to vote in a proper way. They do not show interest in listening to the leaders and this is exactly opposite to the principles of democracy.

Question 3.
Describes any five conditions of the success of democracy.
Answer:
In order that democracy may work successfully in any state there are certain conditions which must be satisfied.

  1. Enlightened citizenship: The citizens should remain alert and protect their rights. They should perform their duties in a sincere manner.
  2. Education: Citizens should be educated. It is only the educated electorates that will elect the right type of persons to government,
  3. Local self-government: It is quite essential for the success of democracy that the administration should be decentralized one.
  4. Protection of Fundamental Rights: In a democratic state people should be given fundamental rights and their rights should be protected by the Constitution.
  5. Economic Equality and Security: Economic equality and security is also essential condition for the success of democracy. There should not be too much gulf between the rich and the poor.
  6. Social Equality: No discrimination should be made on the basis of caste, colour, race, sex, religion etc.
  7. High Moral Character: A high moral character of the people is very essential for the success of democracy.
  8. Free and Fair Election: For the success of democracy elections should he held free and fair.
  9. Freedom of Press: Democracy cannot flourish best without the freedom of press.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 4.
Give one definition of the democracy system and explain in brief the importance of democracy.
Answer:
Definitions of Democracy:

  1. According to Dicey, “Democracy is a government in which the governing body is comparatively a large fraction of entire nation.”
  2. According to Seeley, ‘Democracy is a government in which everyone has a share.”
  3. According .to Abraham Lincoln, “Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people”.

Importance of Democracy : Presently, most of countries have adopted the democratic form of government and that’s why the importance of democracy has increased.

The importance of democracy is given below ;

  1. Equality. In democracy, no one is discriminated on any bases as it is based on equality. In this everyone is given equal rights and value of every one’s vote is same.
  2. Representative of Public Opinion. Actually democracy is representative of the public opinion. Democratic government is elected by the people and it forms the law on the basis of public opinion. If the government does not work according to public opinion, it can be removed.
  3. Protector of Individual Liberty. Only democracy is a type of government in which individual liberties of the public are protected. In democracy, people have the right to express their opinion, to criticize and to form associations. Even the freedom of press is also protected in this system.
  4. Political Awareness. In democracy, elections are held on regular basis with which people become politically aware. Different political parties form public opinion and they continually evaluate the government. It leads to the development of political consciouness among the people.
  5. Development of Moral Qualities. Out of all the governments’ only democracy helps in the development of moral qualities among the people. It also helps in building their high character. It develops the qualities to co-operate, tolerence etc, among the people.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Democracy: Meaning and Importance Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The term democracy is derived from which of the following Greek words :
(a) Demos and Kratia
(b) Casta
(c) Famulus
(d) Pocta.
Answer:
(a) Demos and Kratia.

Question 2.
“Democracy is government of the people, for the people and by the people.” Who gave this definition?
(a) A.B. Hal
(b) Abraham Lincoln
(c) Aristotle
(d) Herodotus.
Answer:
(b) Abraham Lincoln.

Question 3.
Which of the following is the basis of democracy?
(a) Equality
(b) Liberty
(c) Fraternity
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 4.
Who is the real source of power in a democratic country?
(a) People
(b) Educated People
(c) Aristocratic people
(d) King.
Answer:
(a) People.

Question 5.
Which of the following is an obstacle in the way of democracy?
(а) Distinctions on the basis of caste, colour and creed.
(b) Lack of education
(c) Communication
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 6.
Direct democracy is that government in which :
(a) All the citizens cannot participate in administration
(b) All the citizens directly take part in the administration
(c) All the citizens indirectly participate in administration.
(d) The representatives of the public run the administration.
Answer:
(6) All the citizens directly take part in administration.

Question 7.
Which of the following conditions are necessary for the success of democracy?
(а) Citizens should be educated.
(b) There should be economic equality in society.
(c) There should be no distinction on the basis of caste, colour and creed.
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 8.
Direct democracy exists in :
(a) India
(b) U.K.
(c) Switzerland
(d) U.S.A.
Answer:
(c) Switzerland.

Question 9.
In India exists :
(a) Indirect democracy
(b) Direct Democracy
(c) Referendum
(d) Initiative
Answer:
(a) Indirect democracy.

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not the method of direct democracy?
(a) Referendum
(b) Initiative
(c) Landsgemeinde
(d) Political parties.
Answer:
(d) Political parties.

Question 11.
Which one of the following is not a hindrance in the path of democracy?
(a) Poverty
(b) Illiteracy
(c) Ignorance
(d) Election.
Answer:
(d) Election.

Question 12.
Which of the following is a hindrance in the path of democracy?
(a) Illiteracy
(b) Education
(c) Equality
(d) Rule of Law.
Answer:
(a) Illiteracy.

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Damos and Kratia are the ________ words.
Answer:
Greek

Question 2.
In ________ rulers run the system as the representatives of the people.
Answer:
democracy

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 3.
Political parties are the tools of ________
Answer:
ideologies

Question 4.
Practically, democracy is the rule of ________
Answer:
majority

Question 5.
In ________ A.D., males and females were given equal rights.
Answer:
1950

Question 6.
In China, elections are held after every ________ years.
Answer:
five

Question 7.
Mexico became independent in ________ A. D.
Answer:
1930.

True/False:

Question 1.
In dictatorship, rulers are elected by the people.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Free elections are the base of democracy.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 3.
Democratic government does not work according to the Constitution.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Dictatorship protect, the individual liberty.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Parvez Mussharaf captured the power of Pakistan in 1999.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
There is only one communist party in China.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 7.
PRI is the political party of china.
Answer:
False.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From which words the term ‘Democracy’ is derived?
Answer:
The term ‘Democracy’ is derived from the Greek words-Demos and Kratia.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of Democracy?
Answer:
The meaning of democracy is ‘power of the people’ or ‘rule of the multitude’.

Question 3.
Give one definition of Democracy.
Answer:
According to Abraham Lincoln, “Democracy is a government of the people by the people and for the people.”

Question 4.
Explain one basic principle of Democracy.
Answer:
Sovereignty resides in the people and the administration is run in accordance with the wishes of the people.

Question 5.
What is Direct Democracy?
Answer:
In Direct Democracy, the people directly participate in the government of the country.

Question 6.
What do you understand by Indirect Democracy?
Answer:
In Indirect Democracy, the administration is run by the People’s representative.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 7.
Write one merit of Democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is based on the principal of equality.

Question 8.
Write one demerit of Democracy.
Answer:
Democratic government is a government by the incompetent and the ignorant.

Question 9.
Write any one condition that is essential for a successful Democracy.
Answer:
Enlightened citizenship is the first condition for the success of democracy.

Question 10.
Mention the terms that are often used to describe non-democratic government.
Answer:
Terms that are often used to describe non-democratic government are authoritarian, dictatorship and totalitarian.

Question 11.
Mention the names of two democratic states.
Answer:
India and U.S.A.

Question 12.
Give examples of various kinds of Dictatorship.
Answer:

  1. Military dictatorship,
  2. Party dictatorship,
  3. Benevolent dictatorship,
  4. Charismatic dictatorship.

Question 13.
Write down anyone characteristic of Dictatorship.
Answer:
Dictatorship is a Government by the powerful man who has right to exercise authority because of his superior physical force.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 14.
Mention any one merit of Dictatorship.
Answer:
The administration under a dictator is always very strong.

Question 15.
Write down any one demerit of Dictatorship.
Answer:
Individuals are not granted civil liberties and other rights in dictatorship.

Question 16.
Mention various devices adopted for Direct Democracy.
Answer:
There are four types of direct democratic devices i.e. Initiative, Referendum, Becall, Plebiscite.

Question 17.
What is Initiative?
Answer:
Initiative means, the power of the voters to get the laws passed in accordance with their wishes.

Question 18.
What do you understand by Referendum?
Answer:
The method of referendum gives the final authority to the people to accept or reject the laws passed by the legislature.

Question 19.
Which state is known as home of Direct Democracy?
Answer:
Switzerland.

Question 20.
Is it possible for all the voters in your parliamentary constituency to sit together and have a useful discussion?
Answer:
It is not possible for the voters of parliamentary constituency to assemble at one place and have meaningful dialogue.

Question 21.
Which is the most common form of Democracy in the world?
Answer:
Representative type of democracy.

Question 22.
What is the aim of true Democracy?
Answer:
The aim of true democracy is to remove poverty and unemployment.

Question 23.
Which party always forms government in China?
Answer:
Communist Party always forms the government in China.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 24.
Which party has won elections in Mexico from 1930 till 2000 A.D.?
Answer:
P.R.I.-Institutional Revolutionary Party.

Question 25.
What lacks in the democracy of Fiji?
Answer:
In Fiji, the value of the vote of Fijian people is more than the vote of the Indians living over there.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the word meaning of Democracy.
Answer:
The term ‘Democracy’ has been derived from the Greek words Demos and Kratos, the former meaning the people and latter ‘Power’. Democracy thus means ‘power of the people’ or ‘rule of the multitude. ‘Democracy means that the Government of the state is to be run by the people. In democracy the sovereignty resides in the people and the people either directly or indirectly govern over themselves.

Question 2.
What is Direct Democracy?
Answer:
Direct Democracy is the real or true democracy. In this system there is no difference between the rulers and ruled. In such a system of government the people directly participate in the government of the country. The entire population forms an assembly for the purpose of making laws. People discuss the problems of the state and control the state machinary. But it is not possible to practise direct democracy completely in the present age. Modern devices of direct democracy are initiative. Referendum, Recall and Plebiscite.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of Dictatorship.
Answer:
In dictatorship, power remains in the hands of one person. Dictator uses all the powers according to his wish and he is not responsible to any one. He remains on his post until the power to run the administration remains in his lands. Ford has defined dictatorship.” Dictatorship is the illegal attainment of power by the head of the country.

Question 4.
Write down any two charcteristics of Dictatorship.
Answer:

  1. Based on Physical Strength. Dictatorship is a Government by the powerful man who had right to exercise authority because of his superior physical scope.
  2. Arbitrary Rule. Dictatorship is an arbitrary rule. The dictator runs the government according to his own sweet will and the other people have no right to participate in the government. The dictator is not responsible to any other authority for all his actions and policies.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 5.
Mention any two merits of Dictatorship.
Answer:
1. Strong Administrative. The administration under a dictator is always very strong. The dictator suppresses disorder and opposition with a strong hand and he gives his country a strong government which can perform its functions well.

2. Less Expensive. Dictatorship is less expensive whereas democratic government is very costly. In dictatorship one does not find the luxuries of insecure and superfluous posts.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Direct and Indirect Democracy with examples.
Answer:
Democracy is of two types. Direct democracy and Indirect democracy. Following are the differences between the two:

  1. In direct democracy, people participate in the government of the country, while in indirect democracy people indirectly participate in the government.
  2. In direct democracy people directly participate in law-making, while in indirect democracy participation in law making’ is indirect.
  3. The selection of magistrates is directly in direct democracy, while in indirect democracy selection of magistrates is indirect.
  4. In direct democracy, the institutions of initiative, referendum and recall exist, but no initiative and referendum in an indirect democracy.
  5. Direct democracy is prevalent in Switzerland, while indirect democracy exists in India, U.K. U.S.A. etc.

Question 7.
What are the major hindrances in the successful working of the Democracy?
Answer:

  1. Illiteracy: Illiteracy is one of the major hindrance in the successful working of democracy.
  2. Poverty: The other major hindrance in the successful working of Democracy in poverty.
  3. Economic Inequality: Economic inequality is a great hindrance in the successful working of democracy.
  4. Social Inequality: Social inequality is a big hindrance in the successful working of democracy.

Question 8.
Why is democracy important?
Answer:

  1. Democracy recognises the Natural Rights of man in the street and raises him high on the peak of political.
  2. Democracy gives liberty to all the citizens of a democratic state.
  3. Democracy is the rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
  4. Democracy is based on public opinion.

Question 9.
What do you mean by one person one vote?
Answer:
The meaning of one person one vote is giving right to vote every one without any discrimination of caste, religion, class, gender etc. Actually one person one vote is the other name of political equality. For the progress and integrity of the country, all the citizens are given the right to vote and the value of every one’s vote is one or same.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 10.
How was democracy destroyed in Pakistan?
Answer:
In 1999, Pakistan Army head General Parvez Musharraf played a military conspiracy and dismissed the democratically elected government. He then, took power in his hands. With the help of parliament he reduced the powers of state Legislative Assemblies. He passed a law and declared himself the Chief Excutive of the country and later on as the President of Pakistan. He also made arrangement that the President can dissolve the Parliament at any time. In this way Parvez Musharraf destroyed democracy in Pakistan.

Question 11.
Why there is no democracy in China?
Answer:
Although elections in China, are held after every five years but there is only party i.e. the Communist Party. People are required to vote only to the Communist Party. Only the nominated candidates of the Communist Party are allowed to contest elections. Few of the members of Parliament are taken from the army as well. If there is no opposition party in the country to contest elections, how can democracy sustain over there. ‘

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give major features of Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the major features of democracy.

  1. Rule of Law:Democracy is based on rule of law. Law is supreme. No body is above the law.
  2. Equality: Equality is a basic principle of democracy. Everybody enjoys the right of quality and liberty.
  3. Fundamental Rights: In a democracy citizens enjoy fundamental rights which are protected by the Judiciary.
  4. Sovereignty of the people: Sovereignty resides in the people and the administration is run in accordance with the wishes of the people.
  5. Rule of people: The administration is run by the people either directly or indirectly.
  6. Rulers are Elected: Rulers are elected by the people. Final Decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people.
  7. Free and Fair Election: Democracy must be based on a free and fair election. The ruling party should have a fair chance of defeat.
  8. Adult Franchise: In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
  9. Interest of People: The administration is run in the best interest of the people.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 2.
Discuss the merits of Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main merits of democracy.

  1. Government of the People. Democracy ensures people’s participation in government. Democracy is a government by the people.
  2. Equality. Democracy ensures the equality of political rights. Everybody has the opportunity to progress in life.
  3. Liberty. People enjoy freedom of speach and expression, freedom of movement, freedom of religion, freedom to hold meetings and to criticise the policies and actions of the government.
  4. Based on Public Opinion. Democracy rests on the consent of the people. The people feel that the laws in democratic governments are self-made and self-enforces.
  5. Stable and Responsible government. A democratic government is more stable and responsible. It avoids revolution because the people themselves are the makers and the breakers of laws governments. If the people indicate a lack of confidence over the government will have to resign.
  6. No possibility of Revolutions. People can change the government whenever they so desire. Therefore, the democratic government changes with the change in time.
  7. Political Education. The democratic government gives political education to the people. The entire procedure of elections gives the people political education.
  8. National Unity and Patriotism. The democratic form of government increases the spirit of nation unity and patriotism in the people.

Question 3.
Give arguments against democracy.
Or
Explain the demerits of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is not without defects and weaknesses. Following are the arguments which are given against democracy.

  1. Government of the Ignorants and Incompetents: It is said that a democratic government is a government by the incompetent and the ignorant. The common man is neither politically intelligent nor sufficiently educated.
  2. More importance to quantity: Democracy gives more importance to quantity rather than to quality. All persons are not capable of taking part in the government of the country. On polling day a wise man and a fool are on the same level.
  3. Government of the Rich: In theory democracy is a government by the common man but actually is a government by the rich. The candidates spend lakhs of rupees to win an election. The poor man cannot afford to spend this much amount on elections and hence his right to contest elections become meaningless.
  4. Instability: Leaders keep changing in a democracy and this lead to instability.
  5. Corruption: Democracy leads to corruption because it is based on electoral competition.
  6. The dictatorship of the Majority: The majority party may develop despotic tendencies which are harmful to the development of human personality.
  7. The interest of the People not safeguarded: Even elected leaders of the people do not know the best interest of the people.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

Question 4.
‘Democracy is better than any other form of government.’ Give arguments in favour of your answer.
Answer:
Modern age is an age of democracy. No doubt democracy is the best form of government. Democracy is better than any other form of government due to following reasons :

  1. Needs of the People. Democracy is the best type of government because it fulfils the needs of the people. In a democracy rulers have to attend the needs of the people.
  2. Responsible Government. A democratic government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government. The democratic government for all its action’s and policies are responsible to the people. ,
  3. Consultation and Discussion. Democracy is better because it is based on consultation and discussion.
  4. No Possibility of Revolutions. Democracy is better than other forms of government because there is no possibility of revolution.
  5. Willing Obedience of Laws. The people very willingly obey the laws of the state.
  6. Quality of Decisions. Democracy is better than other forms of government because it improves the quality of decision making.
  7. Solution of Problems. Democracy is the best type of government as it provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.
  8. Dignity of Citizens. Democracy is better than other forms of government because it enhances the dignity of citizens.
  9. Review its own decisions. It is better form of government because it allows us to correct its own mistakes.
  10. Less Chances of War. It is better because it reduces the chances of war.

Question 5.
How was democracy suppressed in Mexico?
Answer:
Mexico attained independence in 1930 and elections, for the President are held after every six years. But till the year 2000, only one party PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party) won the elections.

The major reason of its winning all the elections were :

  • As the ruling party, PRI used many unfair means to win the elections.
  • Government officials and other officers were forced to attend the party meetings.
  • School teachers were asked to compel the parents of the students to vote in favour of PRI.
  • On the eleventh hour of the polling day, the polling booths were shifted from one place to another so that the people must not be able to cast vote in the favour of other parties.

In this way, there was no impartial and free voting and democracy was suppressed in Mexico.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप Textbook Questions and Answers

(क) रिक्त स्थान भरें :

  1. भारतीय संविधान में निर्देशक सिद्धांत . …………………. के संविधान से लिए गए हैं।
  2. ………….. भारतीय संविधान की प्रारूप समिति के प्रधान थे।

उत्तर-

  1. आयरलैंड
  2. डॉ० बी० आर० अंबेदकर

(ख) बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न :

प्रश्न 1.
संविधान सभा के प्रधान थे.
(अ) पंडित जवाहर लाल नेहरू
(आ) महात्मा गांधी
(इ) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
(ई) डॉ०बी०आर० अंबेदकर
उत्तर-
(इ) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 2.
गणतंत्र देश वह होता है
(अ) जिसका अध्यक्ष जन्मजात होता है।
(आ) जिसका अध्यक्ष सैनिक तानाशाह होता है।
(इ) जिसका अध्यक्ष लोगों द्वारा प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष ढंग से चुना जाता है।
(ई) जिसका अध्यक्ष मनोनीत किया जाता है।
उत्तर-
(इ) जिसका अध्यक्ष लोगों द्वारा प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष ढंग से चना जाता।

(ग) निम्नलिखित कथनों में सही के लिए तथा गलत के लिए चिन्ह लगाएं :

  1. संविधान के 42वें संशोधन में समाजवाद, धर्मनिरपेक्ष व अखंडता शब्दों को शामिल किया गया है।
  2. भारत एक प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न, धर्मनिरपेक्ष, समाजवादी, लोकतांत्रिक गणराज्य देश है।

उत्तर-

  1. (✓)
  2. (✓)

अति लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
हमारा देश कब स्वतंत्र हुआ ?
उत्तर-
हमारा देश 15 अगस्त, 1947 को स्वतंत्र हुआ।

प्रश्न 2.
‘संविधान उन नियमों का समूह है जिनके अनुसार सरकार की शक्तियों, प्रजा के अधिकारों एवम् इन दोनों के पारस्परिक संबंधों को निश्चित किया जाता है। यह कथन किसका है?
उत्तर-
यह कथन बूल्जे का है।

प्रश्न 3.
भारतीय संविधान के निर्माण में कितना समय लगा ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान के निर्माण में 2 वर्ष 11 महीने व 18 दिन लगे।

प्रश्न 4.
संविधान निर्माण समिति के कुल कितने सदस्य थे ?
उत्तर-
संविधान निर्माण समिति के 389 सदस्य थे परन्तु स्वतन्त्रता के पश्चात् यह 299 रह गए थे।

प्रश्न 5.
भारत के विभाजन की घोषणा कब की गई ?
उत्तर-
3 जून, 1947 को भारत के विभाजन की घोषणा की गई थी।

प्रश्न 6.
भारत के विभाजन के पश्चात् भारत के लिए संविधान बनाने वाली सभा के कितने सदस्य रह गए थे ?
उत्तर-
299 सदस्य।

प्रश्न 7.
भारत के संविधान की कोई दो एकात्मक विशेषताएं लिखें।
उत्तर-

  1. सभी नागरिकों को एकहरी नागरिकता दी गई है।
  2. केन्द्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के लिए एक ही संविधान है।

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 8.
भारतीय संविधान की कोई दो संघात्मक विशेषताएं लिखें।
उत्तर-

  1. हमारे देश का एक लिखित संविधान है।
  2. केंद्र तथा राज्यों के बीच शक्तियों को बंटवारा किया गया है।

प्रश्न 9.
संविधान द्वारा नागरिकों को प्रदत्त कोई दो स्वतंत्रताओं के नाम लिखें।
उत्तर-

  1. कोई भी पेशा अपनाने की स्वतंत्रता।
  2. देश में कहीं भी आने जाने की स्वतंत्रता।

प्रश्न 10.
भारत के संविधान की प्रस्तावना किन शब्दों के साथ आरंभ होती है ?
उत्तर-
हम भारत के लोग।

प्रश्न 11.
सन् 1976 में 42वें संशोधन द्वारा भारत के संविधान में कौन-से नए शब्द जोड़े गए ?
उत्तर-
समाजवाद, धर्मनिरपेक्ष व अखंडता।

प्रश्न 12.
संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष थे।

प्रश्न 13.
संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने वाली समिति के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ०बी०आर० अंबेदकर संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने वाली समिति के अध्यक्ष थे।

लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना कौन-कौन से मूल उद्देश्यों पर प्रकाश डालती है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना से हमें इसके उद्देश्यों के बारे में पता चलता है।

  1. हमारी प्रस्तावना के अनुसार भारत एक संपूर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न, समाजवादी, लोकतांत्रिक, धर्मनिरपेक्ष गणराज्य है।
  2. यह भारत के सभी नागरिकों को सामाजिक, आर्थिक तथा राजनीतिक न्याय देने के लिए प्रतिबद्ध है।
  3. यह अवसर व पद की समानता प्रदान करती है तथा सभी नागरिकों को अभिव्यक्ति, विश्वास व उपासना की स्वतंत्रता देती है।
  4. यह व्यक्तिगत गरिमा, राष्ट्रीय एकता व अखंडता के आदर्श को बनाए रखने की घोषणा भी करती है।

प्रश्न 2.
गणतंत्र देश किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर-
भारत एक गणतंत्र देश है। गणतंत्र का अर्थ होता है कि देश का अध्यक्ष प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से जनता द्वारा चुना जाता है। अध्यक्ष का चुनाव एक निश्चित समय के लिए होता है तथा यहां पर वंशवाद का कोई स्थान नहीं है। गणतंत्र होना भारतीय संविधान की एक महत्त्वपूर्ण विशेषता है।

प्रश्न 3.
भारत एक धर्मनिरपेक्ष देश है। इसके पक्ष में तर्क दें।
उत्तर-

  1. संविधान की प्रस्तावना में भारत को धर्मनिरपेक्ष राज्य घोषित किया गया है।
  2. सभी नागरिकों को अपने धर्म के प्रचार करने या धर्म परिवर्तन करने की स्वतंत्रता है।
  3. समानता के अधिकार में कहा गया है कि किसी भी व्यक्ति के साथ धर्म के आधार पर भेदभाव नहीं किया जाएगा।
  4. देश में व्यापार सभी धर्मों को एक समान समझा जाता है तथा देश, राज्य का कोई धर्म नहीं है।

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 4.
संघीय संरचना अथवा संघात्मक सरकार से क्या अभिप्राय है ? भारतीय संविधान की यह विशेषता किस देश के संविधान से ली गई है ?
उत्तर-
संघात्मक सरकार का अर्थ है शक्तियों का सरकार के दो स्तरों में विभाजन तथा यह स्तर केंद्र व राज्य सरकारें होती हैं। भारत एक संघात्मक राज्य है जहां पर दो प्रकार की सरकारें-केंद्र सरकार व राज्य सरकारें बनाई गई हैं। इन दोनों प्रकार की सरकारों में शक्तियों का विभाजन किया गया है परंतु केंद्र सरकार को अधिक शक्तियां दी गई हैं। भारत में संघात्मक संरचना कनाडा के संविधान से ली गई है।

प्रश्न 5.
भारत का संविधान 26 नवंबर 1949 को निर्मित हो गया था। परंतु भारत सरकार ने इसे 26 जनवरी, 1950 को लागू किया। 26 जनवरी की तिथि संविधान लागू करने के लिए क्यों नियत की गई ? व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के 1929 के लाहौर अधिवेशन में यह निर्णय किया गया था कि 26 जनवरी, 1930 को देश का प्रथम स्वतंत्रता दिवस मनाया जाएगा चाहे देश स्वतंत्र नहीं था। तब से 1947 तक 26 जनवरी को स्वतंत्रता दिवस मनाया गया। परंतु 1947 में देश का स्वतंत्रता दिवस 15 अगस्त हो गया। इंसलिए 26 जनवरी के ऐतिहासिक महत्त्व को बरकरार रखने के लिए संविधान 26 जनवरी, 1950 में लागू किया गया तथा 26 जनवरी को गणतंत्र दिवस घोषित किया गया।

प्रश्न 6.
संपूर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य का क्या अर्थ है ?
उत्तर-
संपर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य का अर्थ है कि देश अपने बाहरी व आंतरिक विषयों तथा अपने निर्णय लेने के लिए पूर्णतया स्वतंत्र है। देश जब भी अपने आंतरिक व अन्य देशों से संबंध बनाने के लिए कोई भी नीति बनाएगा वह बिना किसी दबाव के व पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता से बनाएगा। देश पर कोई अन्य देश किसी प्रकार का दबाव नहीं डाल सकता।

प्रश्न 7.
सर्वव्यापक वयस्क मताधिकार से क्या अभिप्राय है ?
उत्तर-
भारत का संविधान देश के सभी वयस्क नागरिकों को वोट देने का अधिकार प्रदान करता है तथा इसे ही सर्वव्यापक वयस्क मताधिकार कहते हैं। देश के सभी नागरिक जिनकी आयु 18 वर्ष या इससे ऊपर है उन्हें वोट देने का अधिकार बिना किसी भेदभाव के दिया गया है। पहले यह आयु 21 वर्ष थी परंतु 1988 में 61वें संवैधानिक संशोधन से इसे घटा कर 18 वर्ष कर दिया गया था।

प्रश्न 8.
भारतीय संविधान की कोई चार एकात्मक विशेषताएं लिखो।
उत्तर-

  1. भारत के सभी नागरिकों को इकहरी नागरिकता दी गई है।
  2. जम्मू कश्मीर को छोड़ कर बाकी सभी सरकारों के लिए एक ही संविधान दिया गया है।
  3. संपूर्ण देश के लिए इकहरी न्यायपालिका का गठन किया गया है।।
  4. भारतीय संसद् को यह शक्ति दी गई है कि वह राज्यों की सीमा तथा नाम परिवर्तन कर सकती है।
  5. राज्यों के राज्यपाल केंद्र सरकार के प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करते हैं तथा इन्हें केंद्र सरकार नियुक्त करती है।

दीर्घ उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना को मूल रूप में लिखें।
उत्तर-
हम भारत के लोग, भारत के एक संपूर्ण प्रभुत्व संपन्न, समाजवादी पंथनिरपेक्ष, लोकतंत्रात्मक, गणराज्य बनाने के लिए तथा उसके समस्त नागरिकों को सामाजिक, आर्थिक और राजनैतिक न्याय विचार, अभिव्यक्ति, विश्वास, धर्म और उपासना की स्वतंत्रता, प्रतिष्ठा और अवसर की समता प्राप्त करने के लिए तथा उन सबमें व्यक्ति की गरिमा और राष्ट्र की एकता और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करने वाली बंधुता बढ़ाने के लिए दृढ़ संकल्प होकर अपनी इस संविधान सभा में आज तारीख 26.11.1949 ई० श्रीमती मार्गशीर्ष शुकला सप्तमी, संवत् दो हजार छह विक्रमी) को एतद द्वारा इस संविधान को अंगीकृत, अधिनियमित और आत्मार्पित करते हैं।

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 2.
भारत एक धर्मनिरपेक्ष देश है इस कथन की व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-
भारत एक धर्म निरपेक्ष राज्य है। संविधान की प्रस्तावना में स्पष्ट रूप से भारत को धर्म-निरपेक्ष राज्य घोषित किया गया है। भारत का कोई धर्म नहीं है पर भारतीयों का धर्म है। भारत के सभी लोगों को धर्म की स्वतंत्रता का अधिकार प्राप्त है। धर्म के आधार पर नागरिकों में कोई भेद-भाव नहीं किया जाता। सभी नागरिक स्वेच्छा से कोई भी धर्म अपनाने और उपासना करने को स्वतंत्र हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
संपूर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य से क्या अभिप्राय है ? व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-
संपर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य का अर्थ है कि देश अपने बाहरी व आंतरिक विषयों तथा अपने निर्णय लेने के लिए पूर्णतया स्वतंत्र है। देश जब भी अपने आंतरिक व अन्य देशों से संबंध बनाने के लिए कोई भी नीति बनाएगा वह बिना किसी दबाव के व पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता से बनाएगा। देश पर कोई अन्य देश किसी प्रकार का दबाव नहीं डाल सकता।

प्रश्न 4.
भारत के संविधान की एकात्मक विशेषताओं की संक्षेप में व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-

  1. भारत के सभी नागरिकों को इकहरी नागरिकता दी गई है।
  2. सभी सरकारों के लिए एक ही संविधान दिया गया है।
  3. संपूर्ण देश के लिए एकहरी न्यायपालिका का गठन किया गया है।
  4. भारतीय संसद् को यह शक्ति दी गई है कि वह राज्यों की सीमा तथा नाम परिवर्तित कर सकती है।
  5. राज्यों के राज्यपाल केंद्र के प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करते हैं तथा इनकी नियुक्ति केंद्र सरकार द्वारा की जाती है।
  6. देश के लिए कानून बनाने की शक्ति संसद् को दी गई है।
  7. संपूर्ण देश की सर्वभारतीय सेवाओं के अफसरों की नियुक्ति केंद्र सरकार द्वारा की जाती है।
  8. अगर राज्यों के बीच किसी विषय को लेकर झगड़ा हो जाए तो उसका निपटारा उच्चतम न्यायालय अथवा केंद्र सरकार करती है।
  9. अनुच्छेद 356 के अंतर्गत केंद्र सरकार राज्य सरकार को भंग करके वहां पर राष्ट्रपति शासन लागू कर सकती है। राष्ट्रपति को अनुच्छेद 352 से 360 के साथ कुछ संकटकालीन शक्तियां दी गई हैं जिनके साथ वह देश में संकट घोषित कर सकता है।

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप Important Questions and Answers

बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न :

प्रश्न 1.
स्वतंत्रता से पूर्व भारत में किस नेता के नेतृत्व में भारत के संविधान का मसौदा तैयार किया गया ?
(क) पं० मोती लाल नेहरू
(ख) पं. जवाहर लाल नेहरू
(ग) बाल गंगाधर तिलक
(घ) अब्दुल कलाम आजाद।
उत्तर-
(क) पं० मोती लाल नेहरू

प्रश्न 2.
भारत में संविधान सभा के सदस्यों का चुनाव हुआ
(क) जनवरी, 1947
(ख) जुलाई, 1946
(ग) दिसंबर, 1948
(घ) सितंबर, 1946
उत्तर-
(ख) जुलाई, 1946

प्रश्न 3.
भारतीय संविधान का निर्माण किया गया
(क) ब्रिटिश सम्राट् द्वारा
(ख) ब्रिटिश संसद् द्वारा
(ग) संविधान सभा द्वारा
(घ) भारतीय संसद् द्वारा।
उत्तर-
(ग) संविधान सभा द्वारा

प्रश्न 4.
संविधान सभा के अस्थायी अध्यक्ष का नाम बताओ
(क) महात्मा गांधी
(ख) डॉ० सच्चिदानंद सिन्हा
(ग) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
(घ) डॉ० अंबेदकर।
उत्तर-
(ख) डॉ० सच्चिदानंद सिन्हा

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान सभा के स्थायी अध्यक्ष थे-
(क) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
(ख) डॉ० अंबेदकर
(ग) डॉ० सच्चिदानंद सिन्हा
(घ) पं० जवाहर लाल नेहरू
उत्तर-
(क) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 6.
डॉ० अंबेदकर अध्यक्ष थे
(क) संसद्
(ख) संविधान सभा
(ग) स्वराज्य पार्टी
(घ) प्रारूप समिति
उत्तर-
(घ) प्रारूप समिति

प्रश्न 7.
संविधान सभा का प्रथम अधिवेशन हुआ
(क) 24 जनवरी, 1950
(ख) 9 दिसंबर, 1946
(ग) 10 दिसंबर, 1947
(घ) 26 नवंबर, 1949
उत्तर-
(ख) 9 दिसंबर, 1946

प्रश्न 8.
भारत की संविधान सभा ने संविधान को अपनाया
(क) 24 जनवरी, 1950
(ख) 26 नवंबर, 1949
(ग) 26 दिसंबर, 1949
(घ) 26 जनवरी, 1950.
उत्तर-
(ख) 26 नवंबर, 1949

प्रश्न 9.
भारत का संविधान लागू किया गया
(क) 26 नवंबर, 1949
(ख) 15 अगस्त, 1947
(ग) 26 जनवरी, 1950
(घ) 24 जनवरी, 1950
उत्तर-
(ग) 26 जनवरी, 1950

प्रश्न 10.
संविधान सभा प्रभुत्व संपन्न बनी
(क) 15 अगस्त, 1947
(ख) 26 जनवरी, 1948
(ग) 26 नवंबर, 1949
(घ) 26 दिसंबर, 1946
उत्तर-
(क) 15 अगस्त, 1947

रिक्त स्थान भरें:

  1. भारतीय संविधान …………… ने बनाया।
  2. संविधान सभा के …………. सदस्य थे।
  3. …………. संविधान सभा के स्थायी प्रधान थे।
  4. भारत में ………… शासन व्यवस्था अपनायी गई है।
  5. भारतीय संसदीय व्यवस्था ……….. से ली गई है।

उत्तर-

  1. संविधान सभा
  2. 389
  3. डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद
  4. संसदीय
  5. बिटेन

सही/गलत :

  1. भारतीय संविधान को संसद् ने बनाया था।
  2. संविधान सभा की प्रथम बैठक 9 दिसंबर, 1946 को हुई।
  3. संविधान सभा को Objective Resolution जवाहर लाल नेहरू ने दिया.।
  4. 15 अगस्त, 1947 के पश्चात् संविधान सभा के 389 सदस्य थे।
  5. भारतीय संविधान को बनाने में 4 वर्ष लगे थे।

उत्तर-

  1. (✗)
  2. (✓)
  3. (✓)
  4. (✗)
  5. (✗)

अति लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ब्रिटिश भारत के अंतिम और स्वतंत्र भारत के प्रथम गवर्नर-जनरल कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
लॉर्ड माउंटबैटन।

प्रश्न 2.
नेल्सन मंडेला किस देश के नेता थे ?
उत्तर-
नेल्सन मंडेला दक्षिण अफ्रीका के नेता थे।

प्रश्न 3.
भारत का संविधान किसने बनाया ?
उत्तर-
संविधान सभा।

प्रश्न 4. संविधान सभा के सदस्यों का कब चुनाव हुआ ?
उत्तर-जुलाई, 1946.

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद।

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 6.
प्रारूप समिति (Draft Committee) के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ० बी०आर० अंबेडकर।

प्रश्न 7.
संविधान सभा ने भारत का संविधान बनाने में कितना समय लगाया?
उत्तर-
2 वर्ष 11 महीने 18 दिन।

प्रश्न 8.
किन्हीं दो देशों का नाम लिखें जिनका संविधान लिखित है।
उत्तर-

  1. भारत
  2. संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका।

प्रश्न 9.
किसी एक देश का नाम लिखें जिनका संविधान अलिखित है।
उत्तर-
इंग्लैंड।

प्रश्न 10.
भारत के स्वतंत्र होने के पश्चात् संविधान सभा के कितने सदस्य थे ?
उत्तर-
299 सदस्य।

प्रश्न 11.
‘संविधान’ शब्द का अर्थ लिखें।
उत्तर-
संविधान उन नियमों तथा सिद्धांतों का समूह होता है जिनके अनुसार शासन चलाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 12.
नेल्सन मंडेला ने किस शासन प्रणाली का समर्थन किया ?
उत्तर-
लोकतांत्रिक शासन प्रणाली।

प्रश्न 13.
संविधान सभा के किन्हीं चार महत्त्वपूर्ण सदस्यों के नाम लिखें जिन्होंने संविधान निर्माण में महत्त्वपूर्ण योगदान दिया। ,
उत्तर-

  1. डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
  2. डॉ० अंबेदकर
  3. पं० जवाहर लाल नेहरू
  4. एच० सी० मुकर्जी।

प्रश्न 14.
भारत में संसदीय शासन प्रणाली किस देश से प्रभावित होकर ली गई है ?
उत्तर-
इंग्लैंड।

प्रश्न 15.
भारत में मौलिक अधिकार किस देश से प्रभावित होकर लिए गए?
उत्तर-
संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका।

प्रश्न 16.
संविधान सभा ने कुल कितने दिन संविधान के मसौदे पर विचार किया?
उत्तर-
114 दिन।

प्रश्न 17.
किन्हीं चार देशों के नाम बताओ जिनके संविधान की मुख्य विशेषताओं को भारतीय संविधान में सम्मिलित किया गया है ?
उत्तर-
इंग्लैंड, अमेरिका, आयरलैंड, कनाडा।

प्रस्न 18.
भारतीय संविधान को ‘सजीव संविधान’ क्यों कहा जाता है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान में समय तथा आवश्यकतानुसार संशोधन होते रहते हैं। भारतीय संविधान का निरंतर विकास हो रहा है।

प्रश्न 19.
भारतीय संविधान की मौलिक प्रस्तावना में भारत को क्या घोषित किया गया है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान की मूल प्रस्तावना में भारत को एक प्रभुत्व संपन्न लोकतांत्रिक राज्य घोषित किया गया है।

प्रश्न 20.
प्रस्तावना में संविधान में दिए गए उद्देश्यों में से कोई एक उद्देश्य लिखें।
उत्तर-
संविधान का उद्देश्य है कि भारत के सभी लोगों को न्याय मिले।

प्रश्न 21.
भारत गणराज्य कैसे है ?
उत्तर-
भारत में राष्ट्रपति एक निर्वाचक मंडल (Electoral College) द्वारा चुना जाता है। इसलिए भारत गणराज्य

प्रश्न 22.
भारत के संविधान की प्रस्तावना में दिए गए शब्द ‘हम भारत के लोग’ से क्या अभिप्राय है ?
उत्तर-
‘हम भारत के लोग’ से अभिप्राय है, कि भारत की सर्वोच्च सत्ता भारत के लोगों में केंद्रित है और भारत के संविधान का स्रोत कोई और नहीं बल्कि भारत की जनता है।

प्रश्न 23.
दो तर्क देकर स्पष्ट कीजिए कि भारत एक लोकतंत्रात्मक राज्य है।
उत्तर-

  1. देश का शासन लोगों द्वारा चुने हुए प्रतिनिधि चलाते हैं।
  2. सभी नागरिकों को समान राजनीतिक अधिकार प्राप्त हैं।

प्रश्न 24.
किस संशोधन द्वारा प्रस्तावना में समाजवाद, धर्मनिरपेक्षता, राष्ट्र की एकता के शब्द जोड़े गए हैं?
उत्तर-
42वां संशोधन।

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 25.
भारत में 26 जनवरी का दिन किस दिवस के रूप में मनाया जाता है ?
उत्तर-
भारत में 26 जनवरी का दिन गणतंत्र दिवस के रूप में मनाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 26.
संविधान संशोधन किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर-
संविधान में समय-समय पर आवश्यकतानुसार होने वाले परिवर्तनों को संविधान संशोधन कहते हैं।

लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संविधान से आप क्या समझते हैं ?
उत्तर-
संविधान उन सिद्धांतों तथा नियमों का समूह होता है जिनके अनुसार शासन चलाया जाता है। प्रत्येक राज्य में कुछ ऐसे सिद्धांत तथा नियम निश्चित कर लिए जाते हैं जिनके अनुसार शासन के विभिन्न अंगों का संगठन किया जाता है, उनको शक्तियां प्रदान की जाती हैं, उनके आपसी संबंधों को नियमित किया जाता है तथा नागरिकों और राज्य के बीच संबंध स्थापित किए जाते हैं। इन नियमों के समूह को ही संविधान कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
हमें संविधान की आवश्यकता क्यों है ? व्याख्या करें।,
उत्तर-
हमें संविधान की आवश्यकता निम्नलिखित कारणों से है-

  1. लोकतांत्रिक शासन प्रणाली के लिए संविधान का होना अनिवार्य है।
  2. संविधान सरकार की शक्ति तथा सत्ता का स्रोत है।
  3. संविधान सरकार की संरचना तथा सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों की शक्तियों की व्यवस्था करता है।
  4. संविधान सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों के पारस्परिक संबंध निर्धारित करता है।’
  5. संविधान सरकार और नागरिकों के संबंधों को निर्धारित करता है।
  6. संविधान सरकार की शक्तियों पर सीमाएं लगाता है।
  7. संविधान सर्वोच्च कानून है जिनके द्वारा समाज के विभिन्न लोगों में समन्वय किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
हमारा संविधान जनता का संविधान क्यों माना जाता है ?
उत्तर-
भारत का संविधान जनता का संविधान है। यह सत्य है कि संविधान सभा के सदस्य वयस्क मताधिकार के आधार पर ही चुने गए थे। संविधान सभा के सदस्य प्रांतीय विधानमंडलों द्वारा चुने गए थे। वास्तव में संविधान सभा में देश के सभी महत्त्वपूर्ण नेता संविधान सभा के सदस्य थे। सभी वर्गों (हिंदू, मुस्लिम, सिख, ईसाई, महिलाएं) के प्रतिनिधि संविधान सभा में थे। यदि वयस्क मताधिकार के आधार पर चुनाव होता तो यही व्यक्ति चुनाव जीत कर आते। अतः हमारा संविधान जनता का संविधान है।

प्रश्न 4.
आपके विचार में लोकतांत्रिक देशों में संविधान का महत्त्व अपेक्षाकृत क्यों अधिक होता है ?
उत्तर-
लोकतंत्र में देश के नागरिक प्रत्यक्ष अथवा अप्रत्यक्ष रूप में शासन में भाग लेते हैं। संविधान में जहां एक ओर सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों की शक्तियों का वर्णन होता है, वहां पर उन पर प्रतिबंध भी लगाए जाते हैं। नागरिकों के अधिकारों का वर्णन संविधान में किया जाता है। कोई सरकार संविधान का उल्लंघन नहीं कर सकती। न्यायालय नागरिकों के अधिकारों व संविधान की रक्षा करते हैं। अतः संविधान का लोकतंत्र में विशेष महत्त्व है।

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान सभा कैसे गठित हुई थी ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय नेता काफी समय से यह मांग करते आ रहे थे कि भारत का संविधान बनाने के लिए संविधान सभा बनाई जाए। 1946 में कैबिनेट मिशन ने संविधान सभा की स्थापना की सिफारिश की। सभी राजनीतिक दलों ने संविधान सभा की स्थापना का स्वागत किया। संविधान सभा के 389 सदस्यों का जुलाई, 1946 में चुनाव हुआ। इस प्रकार संविधान सभा गठित की गई।

प्रश्न 6.
संविधान की प्रस्तावना का महत्त्व लिखें।
उत्तर-

  1. प्रस्तावना संविधान की आत्मा का दर्पण है।
  2. जब संविधान की कोई धारा संदिग्ध या अस्पष्ट हो तो न्यायालय उसकी व्याख्या करते समय प्रस्तावना की सहायता ले सकते हैं।
  3. प्रस्तावना संविधान निर्माताओं के मन की कुंजी है।
  4. प्रस्तावना संविधान का अभिन्न अंग है जो संविधान के मौलिक ढांचे को व्यक्त करती है।

प्रश्न 7.
कठोर तथा लचीले संविधान से क्या अभिप्राय है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान कठोर भी है तथा लचीला भी है। कठोर संविधान का अर्थ है इसमें आसानी से परिवर्तन या संशोधन नहीं किया जा सकता। संशोधन करने के लिए काफी अधिक बहुमत की आवश्यकता है जो सरकार के पास नहीं होता है। लचीले संविधान का अर्थ है कि अगर सरकार के पास निर्णायक बहुमत हो तो इसे बदला भी जा सकता है। अगर राजनीतिक दल इकट्ठे हो जाएं तो इसे आसानी से बदला जा सकता है।

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 8.
भारत का संविधान सर्वाधिक विस्तृत व लंबा संविधान है। स्पष्ट करें।
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान विश्व के संविधानों में सबसे विस्तृत तथा लंबा है। मूलरूप से इसमें 395 अनुच्छेद तथा 8 अनुसूचियां थीं। 1950 के पश्चात् से ही इसमें कुछ नई-चीजें शामिल की गईं जिस कारण इसमें अब 450 अनुच्छेद तथा 12 अनुसूचियां हैं। समय के साथ साथ इसमें 103 संशोधन भी किए गए। इन सब के कारण हमारा संविधान सबसे विस्तृत तथा लंबा हो गया।

प्रश्न 9.
लिखित संविधान का क्या अर्थ है ?
उत्तर-
हमारा संविधान लिखित है जिसे हमारी संविधान सभा ने 2 वर्ष 11 महीने तथा 18 दिनों के कड़े परिश्रम से तैयार किया। भारत में संघात्मक सरकार रखी गई जिस कारण इसका लिखित रूप में होना आवश्यक था ताकि केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकार के बीच के मुद्दों को आसानी से सुलझाया जा सके। इसके विपरीत ब्रिटेन का संविधान अलिखित है जो कि परिभाषाओं व मान्यताओं पर आधारित है। हमारा संविधान लिखित है जिस कारण इसमें पारदर्शिता भी है।

दीर्घ उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
भारत का संविधान किस प्रकार बना ?
उत्तर-
भारत का संविधान एक संविधान सभा ने बनाया। इस सभा के गठन तथा इसके द्वारा संविधान के निर्माण का वर्णन इस प्रकार है संविधान सभा का गठन-भारतीय नेता काफी समय से यह मांग करते आ रहे थे कि भारत का संविधान बनाने के लिए संविधान सभा बनाई जाए। 1946 ई० में उनकी मांग स्वीकार कर ली गई और संविधान सभा की 389 सीटों के लिए चुनाव हुए। संविधान सभा में पूरे देश के उच्च नेता शामिल थे। पं० जवाहर लाल नेहरू, डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद, सरदार पटेल, मौलाना अबुल कलाम आज़ाद आदि कांग्रेस के सदस्य थे। अन्य दलों के सदस्यों में डॉ० भीमराव अंबेदकर, डॉ० श्यामा प्रसाद मुखर्जी तथा फ्रेंक एंथनी प्रमुख थे। श्रीमती सरोजिनी नायडू तथा विजय लक्ष्मी पंडित महिला सदस्या थीं। डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष थे।
प्रारूप समिति की नियुक्ति तथा संविधान का निर्माण-संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने के लिए एक प्रारूप समिति की नियुक्ति की गई। प्रारूप समिति के प्रधान डॉ० भीमराव अंबेदकर थे। इस समिति ने विभिन्न देशों के संविधानों का अध्ययन करके बड़े परिश्रम से संविधान की रूप-रेखा बनाई। इसी रूप-रेखा के आधार पर ही देश के लिए विस्तृत संविधान तैयार किया गया। संविधान को तैयार करने में कुल 2 वर्ष, 11 मास, 18 दिन का समय लगा। इस दौरान संविधान सभा की 166 बैठकें हुईं। अंततः 26 नवंबर, 1949 को संविधान को पारित कर दिया गया। इसे 26 जनवरी, 1950 ई० को लागू किया गया। इस प्रकार भारत गणतंत्र बना।

प्रश्न 2.
“भारत प्रभुत्व संपन्न, समाजवादी, धर्मनिरपेक्ष लोकतंत्रीय गणराज्य है।” व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-

  1. प्रभुत्व संपन्न-प्रभुत्व संपन्न से अभिप्राय यह है कि राज्य आंतरिक तथा बाहरी रूप से स्वतंत्र है, वह किसी बाहरी सत्ता के अधीन नहीं है।
  2. धर्म-निरपेक्ष-धर्म-निरपेक्ष राज्य में राज्य का कोई अपना विशेष धर्म नहीं होता। धर्म के आधार पर नागरिकों से कोई भी भेदभाव नहीं किया जाता। प्रत्येक नागरिक स्वेच्छा से कोई भी धर्म अपनाने और अपने ही ढंग से उपासना करने में स्वतंत्र होता है।
  3. समाजवादी-समाजवादी राज्य का अर्थ ऐसे राज्य से है जिसमें नागरिकों को सामाजिक और आर्थिक क्षेत्र में समानता प्राप्त हो। इसमें धनी-निर्धन का भेदभाव नहीं होता।
  4. लोकतांत्रिक-लोकतांत्रिक राज्य का अर्थ यह है कि सभी नागरिकों को समान अधिकार प्राप्त हैं। वे निर्धारित चुनावों द्वारा अपने प्रतिनिधि चुनते हैं जो सरकार का निर्माण तथा संचालन करते हैं।
  5. गणतंत्र-गणतंत्र का अर्थ है कि राज्य का अध्यक्ष कोई बादशाह नहीं होगा। वह निश्चित समय के लिए अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से निर्वाचित राष्ट्रपति होगा।

प्रश्न 3.
लोकतांत्रिक देशों में संविधान का महत्त्व अधिक क्यों होता है ?
उत्तर-
निम्नलिखित कारणों से लोकतांत्रिक देशों में संविधान का महत्त्व अधिक है-

  1. लोकतांत्रिक शासन प्रणाली के लिए संविधान का होना अनिकर्य है।
  2. संविधान सरकार की शक्ति तथा सत्ता का स्रोत है।।
  3. संविधान सरकार के ढांचे तथा सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों की शक्तियों की व्यवस्था करता है।
  4. संविधान सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों के पारस्परिक संबंध निर्धारित करता है।
  5. संविधान सरकार और नागरिकों के संबंधों को निर्धारित करता है।
  6. संविधान सरकार की शक्तियों पर सीमाएं लगाता है।
  7. संविधान सर्वोच्च कानून है जिसके द्वारा समाज के विभिन्न वर्गों में समन्वय किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
भारतीय संविधान कई स्रोतों से लिया गया संविधान है। स्पष्ट करें।
उत्तर-
संविधान सभा ने संविधान का निर्माण करने से पहले अलग-अलग देशों के संविधानों तथा ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा भारत के लिए 1947 से पहले कानूनों का सूक्ष्म अध्ययन किया। फिर उन्होंने इन सब के अच्छे प्रावधानों को हमारे संविधान में शामिल किया। यह सब निम्नलिखित हैं-

  1. ब्रिटेन-संसदीय व्यवस्था, कानून पास करने की विधि, संसद् के विशेषाधिकार, कानून का शासन, इकहरी नागरिकता, कैबिनेट व्यवस्था, दो सदनों की व्याख्या।
  2. संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका-मौलिक अधिकार, सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की संरचना एवम शक्तियां, न्यायिक पुनर्निरीक्षण, उपराष्ट्रपति का पद, न्यायपालिका का स्वतंत्रता, प्रस्तावना।
  3. कैनेडा-संघीय संरचना, बची हुई शक्तियां (Residuary powers), राज्यपालों की केंद्र द्वारा नियुक्ति।
  4. आयरलैंड-राज्य के नीति के निर्देशक सिद्धांत, राष्ट्रपति के चुनाव की प्रक्रिया, राष्ट्रपति द्वारा राज्यसभा के सदस्यों को मनोनीत करना, उच्चतम न्यायालय व उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों को हटाने की प्रक्रिया। .
  5. जर्मनी-राष्ट्रपति की आपातकालीन शक्तियां।
  6. भूतपूर्व सोवियत संघ-मौलिक कर्त्तव्य।
  7. फ्रांस-गणतंत्र, स्वतंत्रता, समानता व भाईचारा।
  8. आस्ट्रेलिया-समवर्ती सूची।
  9. दक्षिण अफ्रीका-संवैधानिक संशोधन।

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान की मुख्य विशेषताओं का वर्णन करें।
उत्तर-

  1. भारतीय संविधान एक लिखित संविधान है जिसमें शासन प्रबंध से संबंधित सभी नियम लिखित रूप में मिलते हैं।
  2. भारतीय संविधान संसार के सभी संविधानों में से सबसे विस्तृत और लंबा है जिसमें 395 अनुच्छेद (वर्तमान 450) तथा 12 अनुसूचियां हैं।
  3. संविधान की शुरुआत प्रस्तावना से होती है जिसमें हमारे संविधान के प्रमुख उद्देश्य लिखे गए हैं।
  4. हमारा संविधान लचीला भी है तथा कठोर भी है। यह लचीला इस तरह है कि इसे बहुमत के साथ परिवर्तित किया जा सकता है। कठोर इस तरह कि इसे आसानी से परिवर्तित नहीं किया जा सकता।
  5. हमारे संविधान ने हमें एक स्वतंत्र तथा इकहरी न्यायपालिका दी है जिसके नियम संपूर्ण देश में चलते हैं।
  6. संविधान ने देश को लोकतांत्रिक गणराज्य बनाया है जिसमें सरकार को निश्चित समय के पश्चात् चुनने का अधिकार जनता को दिया गया है। साथ ही राष्ट्राध्यक्ष हमेशा जनता द्वारा एक निश्चित समय के पश्चात् चुना जाता है।
  7. संविधान ने देश को एक धर्मनिरपेक्ष राज्य बनाया है जिसके अनुसार देश का अपना कोई धर्म नहीं है तथा देश के सभी धर्मों को समानता दी गई है।
  8. भारत को एक संघात्मक ढांचा दिया गया है जिसमें दो प्रकार की सरकारें-केंद्र सरकार तथा राज्य सरकारें होती हैं। इन दोनों सरकारों की शक्तियां पूर्णतया विभाजित की गई है।

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

प्रश्न 6.
संघवाद में किस आधार पर केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के बीच शक्तियों का बंटवारा हुआ है ?
अथवा
किस प्रकार भारतीय संघ में केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के बीच शक्तियां विभाजित की गई हैं ?
अथवा
भारतीय संविधान में शासन शक्तियों संबंधी कितनी सूचियाँ हैं ? प्रत्येक सूची के दो-दो उदाहरण अथवा विषय लिखिए।
उत्तर-
हमारे देश भारत में, संविधान ने साफ़ शब्दों में प्रत्येक स्तर की शक्तियों को विभाजित किया है। प्रत्येक स्तर को अपने कार्य क्षेत्र के लिए कानून बनाने के लिए कुछ विषय दिए गए हैं तथा उन्हें एक-दूसरे के अधिकतर क्षेत्र में हस्तक्षेप करने का अधिकार नहीं है। वास्तव में यह बंटवारा तीन प्रकार का है। संविधान में विषयों के बंटवारे से संबंधित तीन प्रकार की सूचियां दी गई हैं। ये तीन सूचियां तथा उनके अधिकार क्षेत्र इस प्रकार हैं-

  1. संघीय सूची-संघीय सूची 97 विषयों (वर्तमान 100) की एक सूची है जिन पर केवल केंद्र सरकार कानून बना सकती है। संघीय सूची में संपूर्ण देश से संबंधित विषय हैं जैसे कि रक्षा, वित्त, विदेशी मामले, डाक तथा तार, बैंकिंग इत्यादि। केवल केंद्र सरकार ही इन विषयों से संबंधित निर्णय ले सकती है।
  2. राज्य सूची-राज्य सूची 66 (वर्तमान 61) विषयों की एक सूची है जिन पर राज्य सरकारें कानून बना सकती हैं। केंद्र सरकार का इससे कुछ लेना-देना नहीं है। स्थानीय महत्त्व के विषय इसमें आते हैं जैसे कि पुलिस, कृषि, सिंचाई, व्यापार, इत्यादि। राज्य सरकार ही इन विषयों पर कानून बना सकती है।
  3. मवर्ती सूची-समवर्ती सूची भी 47 विषयों (वर्तमान 52) की सूची है जिसमें केंद्र तथा राज्य दोनों के हित होते हैं। विषय जैसे कि वन, शिक्षा, ट्रेड यूनियन इत्यादि इसमें आते हैं। केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारें दोनों ही इन पर कानून बना सकती हैं। परंतु अगर दोनों के कानून आमने-सामने हो जाएं तो केंद्र सरकार वाला कानून मान्य होगा।
    इस प्रकार भारतीय संघ व्यवस्था में केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों में शक्तियों का विभाजन किया गया है।

प्रश्न 7.
संघीय सरकार की मुख्य विशेषताओं का वर्णन कीजिए।
अथवा
आप कैसे कह सकते हैं कि भारत में संघीय व्यवस्था की सरकार है ?
उत्तर-
संघवाद का निर्माण उस समय होता है जब कुछ अलग-अलग हिस्से तथा उनमें एक केंद्रीय सत्ता हो। इसमें केंद्र सरकार या तो अधिक शक्तिशाली होती है या फिर राज्यों के पास भी केंद्र सरकार के समान ही शक्तियां होती हैं परंतु भारत में सरकार की व्यवस्था देखने के बाद हम कह सकते हैं कि भारत में संघीय प्रकार की सरकार है जिसकी विशेषताएं निम्नलिखित हैं-

  1. लिखित तथा कठोर संविधान-संघीय प्रकार की सरकार में संविधान लिखित तथा कठोर होता है जो कि केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों में शक्तियों का बंटवारा कर देता है तथा यह प्रावधान भी रखता है कि कोई भी स्तर अपने हितों के लिए अकेले ही संविधान में परिवर्तन न कर सके।
  2. संविधान की सर्वोच्चता-संघवादी सरकार में संविधान सर्वोच्च होता है। अगर सरकार कोई ऐसा कानून बनाती हैं जो कि संवैधानिक प्रावधानों के अनुकूल न हो तो उसे न्यायपालिका द्वारा असंवैधानिक भी करार दिया जा सकता हैं।
  3. स्वतंत्र न्यायपालिका-संघीय राज्यों में न्यायपालिका स्वतंत्र होती हैं। न्यायपालिका के मुख्य कार्य कानूनों का सही व्याख्यान तथा संविधान की रक्षा करना होता है। न्यायपालिका ही केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के बीच के मतभेदों का समाधान करती हैं।
  4. दो स्तरीय विधायिका-संघीय प्रकार की सरकार में विधायिका दो स्तरों की होती है। एक सदन राज्यों का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है तथा दूसरा स्तर जनता का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।
  5. शक्तियों का विभाजन-संघीय प्रकार की सरकार में सरकारी शक्तियों को केंद्र सरकार तथा राज्य सरकारों में ठीक प्रकार से बांटा जाता है। ताकि उनमें कोई मतभेद उत्पन्न न हों।

इस प्रकार इन विशेषताओं को देखकर हम कह सकते हैं कि भारत में संघीय सरकार है।