PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agroforestry Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How much area should under forests in Punjab, as per National Forest Policy 1988?
Answer:
20%.

Question 2.
How much area is under forests and tree cover in Punjab?
Answer:
6.49%.

Question 3.
How many major agro climatic zones are there in Punjab on the basis of climate?
Answer:
Three.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 4.
In which season acute shortage of fodder is felt in Kandi region of Punjab?
Answer:
In winter.

Question 5.
What is the spacing for planting of poplar on boundary of a field?
Answer:
3 metres.

Question 6.
What types of .soils are there in Kandi region?
Answer:
Soil is undulating that is not uniformly levelled. It has many ups and down.

Question 7.
Name two trees used for fodder in Kandi region.
Answer:
Dhak, Beri, Chhal, Kachnar etc.

Question 8.
What should be the pH of soil for poplar cultivation?
Answer:
6.5 to 8.0.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 9.
Name the trees suitable for commercial agroforestry in Punjab.
Answer:
Poplar, Eucalyptus

Question 10.
How many Poplar plants are planted in per hectare?
Answer:
200 trees per acre.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What is the planting time of Poplar in Punjab?
Answer:
Suitable time for planting poplar in Punjab is January-February.

Question 2.
Define Agroforestry.
Answer:
Agroforestry is a land management system in which cultivation of trees and crops is done together in a field along with rearing of animals on the same piece of land.

Question 3.
What type of soil and irrigation facilities are available in Central plain zone in Punjab?
Answer:
In this zone, soil is fertile and irrigation facilities are available here.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 4.
What type of trees are found in S-W region of Punjab?
Answer:
Kikar, Tahli, Mango, Dhrek, Nim, Jamun, Toot etc. trees are planted in south-western zone.

Question 5.
Write down planting and spacing requirements of Eucalyptus.
Answer:
Cuttings are used for the propagation of Eucalyptus. Eucalyptus can be planted on the boundaries of the field or in block plantation. Plant to plant spacing on the boundaries should be 2 metres and if planted in block plantation the spacing should be 4 x 2 m.

Question 6.
Write the clones of poplar planted in Punjab.
Answer:
PL-1, PL-2, PL-3, PL-4, PL-5, L-47/88, L-48/89 are clones of poplar.

Question 7.
What is the planting time of Eucalyptus in Punjab?
Answer:
Eucalyptus can be planted in March-April and July-August.

Question 8.
Write down the names of the industries where poplar wood is used.
Answer:
Wood obtained from poplar can be used in Match box industry, ply manufacturing, packing cases etc.

Question 9.
What is the spacing for poplar planting?
Answer:
If poplar is planted on boundaries then plant spacing should be 3 metre and if it is planted in die whole field then spacing should be 8 x 2.5 m or 5 x4m.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 10.
Write the name of trees grown in Kandi region.
Answer:
Toot, Nim, Tahli, khair, Kikkar, Bel, Kachnar, Mango, Subabaul, Aijun, Harar, Behra, Phalis and dhak, Dehrek, Sohanjana etc.

(C) Answer in Jive-six sentences:

Question 1.
Write down the clones planted and spacing for poplar planting in Punjab. .
Answer:
PL-1, PL-2, PL-3, PL-4, PL-5, L-47/88, L^18/89 are some of the clones of poplar. If poplar is planted on boundaries then plant spacing should be 3 metre and if it in planted is the whole field then spacing should be 8 x 2.5 m or 5 x 4 m. 200 plants per acre can be planted in the field.

Question 2.
Write down the source of clonal Eucalyptus plants in Punjab.
Answer:
We should plant Eucalyptus plants prepared from cuttings in Agroforestry. These all grow uniformely. These can be obtained from any nursery of department of forests and wildlife preservation, Punjab, PAU, Ludhiana or any other private registered nursery.

Question 3.
How poplar can be planted?
Answer:
Make a pit which is 3 feet deep and have diameter of 15-20 cm. Use chloropyriphos and Emisan-6 against termies and diseases. Plant poplar trees in the month of January and February. Water the plants immediately after planting the poplar tree. If poplar is planted on boundaries then plants spacing should be 3 metre and if it in planted in the whole field then spacing should be 8 x 2.5 m or 5 x 4 m. 200 plants per acre can be planted in the fields.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 4.
Where poplar wood is used?
Answer:
Cultivation of poplar is helpful in creating employment and also in small enterprises in which wood is the raw-material. Poplar is used in various industries e.g. it is used in the manufacturing of match sticks. It is also used in the manufacture of plywood and also in the packaging industry to make boxes. This way one can earn by the cultivation of poplar. It sheds off its leaves in winter thus has no harm for Rabi crops.

Question 5.
Why Poplar and Eucalyptus are suitable for commercial Agroforestry? Or Why are Eucalyptus and poplar cultivated as commercial agro forestry in Punjab?
Answer:
Poplar and Eudalyptus are suitable for commercial agroforestry in Punjab. Wood obtained from these trees can be easily marketed. The income from these trees in more than wheat-rice cropping system.

Safeda:
It grows in less time, stem is straight, its branches shed off regularly. Its wood is used as building material, its pulp is used in paper industry, wooden beams are also obtained from it. Therefore it is suitable for cultivation in agroforestry.

Poplar:
It provides employement. Its wood is used in small scale industry; like, ply, match sticks, packing boxes etc. It also does not affect the Rabi crops.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Agroforestry Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
According to National Forest Policy 1988, forests should occupy of area in plain states.
(a) 5%
(b) 20%
(c) 50%
(d) 29%.
Answer:
(b) 20%

Question 2.
In central plain region trees are grown.
(a) Poplar
(b) Dek
(c) Eucalyptus
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 3.
………….. is not a variety of poplar:
(a) PL-5
(b) PL-47/88
(c) PL-858
(d) PL-48/89.
Answer:
(b) PL-47/88

Question 4.
Poplar trees become ready in years for harvesting.
(a) 5 to 7
(b) 1 to 2
(c) 10 to 12
(d) 15 to 25.
Answer:
(a) 5 to 7

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 5.
pH value for soil for poplar cultivation.
(a) 10
(b) 6.5 to 8.0
(c) 3 to 4
(d) 4 to 5.5.
Answer:
(b) 6.5 to 8.0

Question 6.
In which direction the trees are planted on ridges of the farms for agro forestry?
(a) North-South
(b) East-west
(c) South-east
(d) North-east.
Answer:
(a) North-South

Question 7.
For timber production after how many years Eucalyptus can be harvested?
(a) 13 to 15 years
(b) 6 to 8 years
(c) 4 to 6 years
(d) 2 to 4 years.
Answer:
(a) 13 to 15 years

Question 8.
For batten production, after how many years Eucalyptus can be harvested?
(a) 13 to 15 years
(b) 6 to 8 years
(c) 4 to 6 years
(d) 2 to 4 years.
Answer:
(c) 4 to 6 years

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 9.
For paper pulp production, after how many years Eucalyptus can be harvested?
(a) 13 to 15 years
(b) 6 to 8 years
(c) 4 to 6 years
(d) 2 to 4 years.
Answer:
(b) 6 to 8 years

True False:

1. Poplar is more successful in Bet area.
Answer:
True

2. Poplar tree become ready for harvesting after 5-7 years.
Answer:
True

3. To save orchards from wild life, Jatropha are grown around the orchards.
Answer:
True

4. Poplar cultivation is successful in Kallar and water logged soils.
Answer:
False

5. Eucalyptus clonal plants should be planted in Agroforestry.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Fill in the blanks:

1. Poplar wood is used in the manufacture of ……………. .
Answer:
Match sticks

2. For boundaries poplar trees are planted at spacing.
Answer:
3 m

3. …………….. erosion is major problem in sub-mountainous zone.
Answer:
Soil

4. Pl-3 is a …………….. clone.
Answer:
poplar

5. In winter the scarcity of ……………. is felt in submountaneous zone.
Answer:
fodder.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is agroforestry suitable for Punjab?
Answer:
It helps in increasing the area under the forests and trees.

Question 2.
Can we take income from agroforestry?
Answer:
Yes, more than the conventional agricultural practices i.e. more than paddy-wheat cropping system.

Question 3.
In which direction, trees should be planted on the boundaries of fields? (PS.E.B. 2017)
Answer:
In North-South direction.

Question 4.
In how many zones is Punjab divided on the basis of climate?
Answer:
Three zones.

Question 5.
On what basis the farmer in Kandi area grow their crops?
Answer:
Agriculture is based on the rainfall.

Question 6.
Which of the trees are planted to save the orchards?
Answer:
Jatroffa, Karonda, Ipomea.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 7.
What type of soil is found in south-western zone?
Answer:
Saline and alkaline soil.

Question 8.
Poplar is not harmful for rabi crops, how?
Answer:
Its leaves shed off in winter and it is not harmful for rabi crops.

Question 9.
What type of soil is not suitable for poplar?
Answer:
Kallar and water-logged.

Question 10.
In which area poplar is must successful?
Answer:
In bet area.

Question 11.
How many poplar trees can be planted in the field?
Answer:
200 trees per acre.

Question 12.
In how many years poplar trees are ready?
Answer:
5 to 7 years.

Question 13.
What type of Eucalyptus plants should be planted?
Answer:
Prepared from cuttings.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 14.
How many Eucalyptus plants are planted In the whole field?
Answer:
500 trees per acre.

Question 15.
If Eucalyptus cultivation is for long time, what should be row spacing?
Answer:
8 metre.

Question 16.
After how many years can we get wood for buildings (timber) from Eucalyptus?
Answer:
13 to 15 years.

Question 17.
After how many years is Eucalyptus ready for pulp?
Answer:
6 to 8 years.

Question 18.
After how many years Eucalyptus is ready for battens?
Answer:
4 to 6 years.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 19.
Write file name of two trees which are mainly grown in Punjab for commercial agroforestry.
Answer:
Poplar, Eucatyplus.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the name bf two main models for agroforestry?
Answer:
There are two main models for agroforestry-Boundary plantation and intercropping in block plantation.

Question 2.
Where do farmers plant trees if they use boundary plantation model?
Answer:
They plant trees on the boundaries of fields.

Question 3.
Which of the trees are used for planting on the boundaries?
Answer:
Subabaul, Drek, Toot, Eucalyptus, Poplar, Siris, Lassora, Sohanjana, Nim, Tahli etc. –

Question 4.
Which farmers do the mixed farming of crops and trees?
Answer:
Those farmers who have more agricultural land can do mixed farming.

Question 5.
Which of the trees are suitable for planting in the whole field?
Answer:
Poplar, Eucalyptus, Dhrek and Tun are suitable trees.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Question 6.
In which area is the problem of soil erosion found?
Answer:
Soil found in the Kandi area is not uniform and land has many ups and downs (undulating) therefore problem of soil erosion is also found there.

Question 7.
Which type of soil is suitable for poplar?
Answer:
Well drained, loamy to sandy, fertile soil and which have pH value from 6.5 to 8.0 is suitable for growing popular.

Question 8.
List four uses of wood of Eucalyptus.
Answer:
Batten, pulp, wood used in buildings construction, industry, furniture

Question 9.
Write the name of four trees which are grown in whole field in agroforestry.
Answer:
Poplar, Eucalyptus, Toon, Dhrek.

Question 10.
Why salinity is found in the upper surface of the soil in the South-Western zone?
Answer:
Water under the earth in this zone is saline. This makes upper surface of the soil also saline.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 6 Agroforestry

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about trimming and pruning of poplar? Or Write the benefit of correctly pruning poplar plants at the right time.
Answer:
There is no need of trimming in the first year, but in the second year after shedding off the leaves there is a need of pruning of the trees to make it straight and to give it good appearance. If trimming and pruning is done at proper time then the stem remains straight and without nodes.

Question 2.
Which of the qualities of Eucalyptus make it suitable for cultivation in agroforestry? Or For which qualities Eucalyptus is grown in agroforestry?
Answer:
It grows in less time, stem is straight, its branches shed off regularly. Its wood is used as building material, its pulp i§, used in paper industry, wooden beams are also obtained from it. Therefore it is suitable for cultivation in agroforestry.

Question 3.
Define Agroforestry.
Answer:
According to National Forest Policy 1988, to fulfil the needs based on wood and to keep the environment safe, area under the forests should be 20%. But it is not possible to increase the area under the forests therefore this is achieved by agroforestry. Agroforestry is the cultivation of trees and crops together in the same field. The objective behind this, type of cultivation is that farmers can fulfil their needs e.g. cereals, wood, fuel, fodder and also can save the natural resources e.g. soil, water, air etc. There is also an increase in their income.

Question 4.
What do you mean by agroforestry? Explain in detail about the planting trees on farm boundaries in agroforestry.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Computer Science Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Computer Guide for Class 10 PSEB Microsoft Publishers-II Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
Now day’s brochures are also available in electronic format and are called:
(a) e-brochures
(b) m-brochures
(c) t-brochures
(d) k-brochures
Answer:
(a) e-brochures

Question 2.
A small card printed with one’s name, occupation, business address, etc. is called:
(a) Brochures
(b) Newsletters
(c) Business cards
(d) Menus
Answer:
(c) Business cards

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3.
What is the most common document requested of applicants in job applications?
(a) Banner
(b) Resume
(c) Calendar
(d) Flyer
Answer:
(b) Resume

Question 4.
What are longer than resumes-at least two or three pages?
(a) Curriculum vita (CV)
(b) Banner
(c) Invitation
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(a) Curriculum vita (CV)

PSEB 10th Class Computer Book Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

2. Fill in the Blanks

1. Advertising means how a company encourages people to buy their …………… or ideas.
Answer:
Products and services

2. MS-Publisher offers templates and other tools to help us create a variety of publications, including brochures, newsletters, …………… and …………….
Answer:
Business Cards and Menus

3. Business cards are cards bearing business information about a ……………. or ……………….
Answer:
Company and Individual

4. A resume provides a summary of our ………….., credentials, …………… and other accomplishments and skills.
Answer:
Education and Work history.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

3. True or False

1. A compliment card is a piece of card or high quality paper expressing friendship or any other sentiment.
Answer:
True

2. Certificates of achievement, merit, and honor can be powerful tools.
Answer:
True

3. Brochures are prop national documents, primarily never used to introduce a company, organization.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

4. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a piece of paper, cloth, wood or any other material which is painted with pictures or words and which gives some information about a particular place, product, or event.
Answer:
Sign

Question 2.
What is a common packaging item, usually made of thin flat material?
Answer:
Envelop

Question 3.
What is something given to a person, a group of people, or an organization recognition of their excellence in a certain field?
Answer:
Award

Question 4.
What is a form of paper advertisement used for wide distribution, posted or distributed in a public place, handed out to individuals or sent through the mail?
Answer:
Flyer

Question 5.
What is a printed report containing news or information of the activities of a business or an organization more.
Answer:
Newsletter

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

5. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain Signs?
Answer:
A sign is a piece of paper, clothe, wood or any other material which is painted with pictures or words and which gives some information about a particular place, product, or event.

Question 2.
Explain Resumes?
Answer:
A resume provides a summary of our education, work history, credentials, and other accomplishments and skills. There are also optional sections, including a resume objective and career summary statement.

Question 3.
What is Banner?
Answer:
A long strip of cloth bearing a slogan or design carried in a demonstration, procession or hung in a public place. Depending on how it is used, a banner can be a flag or other piece of cloth bearing a symbol, logo, slogan or other marketing message. An online banner is either a graph mage that announces the name or identity of a site.

Question 4.
Explain Newsletters?
Answer:
A newsletter is a printed report containing news or information of the activities of a business or an organization that is send by mail regularly to all its members, customers, employees or people, who are interested in. Newsletters generally contain one topic of interest to its recipients. A newsletter may be considered grey literature.

Question 5.
What are Menus?
Answer:
A menu may be a list from which guests use to choose options available. Basically Menu is the main way to give or take order from guest.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

6. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are Advertisements? Explain various print media used for advertisements?
Answer:
An advertisement or ‘ad” for short is anything that draws good attention towards these things. Advertising is an audio or visual form of marketing communication that employs an openly sponsored, non-personal message to promote or sell a product, service or idea. Advertising means how a company encourages people to buy their products, services or ideas. It is usually designed by an advertising agency. Ads appear on television, as well as radio, newspapers, magazines etc. Sponsors of advertising are often businesses who wish to promote their products or services.

Advertising is communicated through various mass media, including old media such as newspapers, magazines, Television, Radio, outdoor advertising or direct mail; or new media such as search results, blogs, websites or text messages. The actual presentation of the message in a media is referred to as an advertisement or “ad”. Non-commercial advertisers include political parties, interest groups, religious organizations and governmental agencies.
MS – Publisher offers templates and other tools to help us create a variety of advertisements like:

  • Banners
  • Brochures
  • Catalogs
  • Flyers
  • Newsletters

Question 2.
What are Business Cards? Write steps for creating Business Card in Publisher?
Answer:
A small card printed with one’s name, occupation, business address, etc. is called a business card. Business cards are cards bearing business information about a company or individual. They are shared during formal introductions. A usiness card typically includes the givers name, company or business affiliation id contact information such as street addresses, telephone number (s), fax number, mail addresses and website.

Steps to Create Business Cards:
1. Click on File Tab, then New, and then Business Card-
Select any one according to choice. On right side of window, you can customize this selected Business Card with the help of color scheme, font scheme, business information, page size options and logo.

2. After changing of color, fonts scheme, business information and page size, click on Create button.

3. The Business Card is designed successfully. Now you can change Business Name or Individual name also, Address, Contacts etc.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3.
What is Label? Where labels can be used for?
Answer:
A label is a piece of paper, polymer, cloth, metal, or other material affixed to a container or product. Information printed directly on a container or item can also be considered labeling. Labels have many uses, including providing information on a product’s origin, manufacturer, use, shelf- life and disposal etc. Many hazardous products such as poisons or flammable liquids must have a warning label.
Uses of Labels:

1. Products:
Permanent product labels need to remain secure throughout the life of the product. For example, a food label must be secure until the food has been used.

2. Packaging:
Packaging may have labeling attached to or integral with the package. These may carry pricing, bar codes, UPC (Universal Product Code) identification, usage guidance, addresses, advertising, recipes, and so on.

3. Assets:
In industrial or military environments, asset labeling is used to clearly identify assets for maintenance and operational purposes. Such labels . are frequently made of engraved Trifoliate or a similar material.

4.Textiles:
Garments normally carry separate care/treatment labels which typically indicate how the item should be washed for e.g. machine washed or dry cleaned. Textile labels may be woven into the garment or attached, and may be heat resistant, colorfast, washable. Printed labels are an alternative to woven labels.

5. Mailing: Mailing labels identify the addressee, the sender and any other information which may be useful in transit.

6. Security Labels:
They are used for authentication, theft reduction, and protection against counterfeit and are commonly used on ID cards, credit cards, packaging, and products from CDs to electronics to clothing.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 4.
What is Letterhead? How to create Letterhead in Publisher?
Answer:
A newsletter is a printed report containing news or information of the activities of a business or an organization that is sent by mail regularly to all it members, customers, employees or people, who are interested in. Newsletter generally contain one main topic of interest to its recipients. A newsletter may b( considered grey literature.E-newsletters delivered electronically via e-mail anc can be viewed as spamming if sent unsolicited.

Steps to Create Newsletters using MS-Publisher:

  • Click on File Tab, then New, and then Newsletters.
  • Select newsletter design from available Templates as per requirement and click on Create.
  • Modify the newsletter and add your own content.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Publishers-II Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which thing is like a long strip?
(a) Newsletter
(b) Banner
(c) Label
(d) Business card
Answer:
(b) Banner

Question 2
What is called list of things?
(a) Banner
(b) Label
(c) Envelope
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(d) Catalogue

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3
What is used for Day planning?
(a) Banner
(b) Label
(c) Calendar
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(c) Calendar

Question 4
What the Stationary printed with heading is called?
(a) Label
(b) Banner
(c) Letterhead
(d) Catalogue
Answer:
(c) Letterhead

Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………….. menu is used to change the font colour and text bar colour of text.
Answer:
Format

2. Title of newsletter is typed in ………………..
Answer:
Text Box

3. Date of newsletter is typed in …………….
Answer:
Data Text box

4. Post card has ……………… number of sides.
Answer:
two

5. If you do not want to include the logo, then click …………………
Answer:
None.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

True/False

1. You should type note or message in text box.
Answer:
True

2. Different designs are shown in the preview gallery.
Answer:
True

3. Envelopes are used to write letters.
Answer:
True

4. In news letter every page has same layout.
Answer:
False

5. By default, in news letter, there are three columns and three stories.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is resume?
Answer:
Like resume, a curriculum vitae (CV) provides a summary of ones experience and skills. Typically, CVs are longer than resumes-at least two or three pages.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a Banners?
Answer:
Banner an image, usually displayed at the top of each page in a Web site, containing text and design elements. You can create banners for any event and to capture the attention of the public.

Question 2.
Define Newsletter.
Answer:
Newsletter is a letter that consist of schedule of events, information about the chief guest and other distinguished people who will attend that event.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 3.
Write a short note on Postcard.
Answer:
Postcard is a card that contains the some information regarding some particular events, celebration, greating etc. In View Publication task pane, Under News form a design, click publications for Print Post cards. Choose the suitable option from the list. Various post card designs are .displayed in preview gallery, select the post card design. Type the note or message in the text box. In post card options task pane, under side 2 information, click the details, which should appear on the reverse side of the post card. In the last specify the number of post cards, under copies per sheet and save the publication.

Question 4.
How will you open new letterhead?
Answer:
The following are the steps two open new letter head :

  • In New Publication task pane, Under New from a Design, click Publication for print letterhead.
  • Klick any one option from two i.e. Plain paper or special paper.
  • Click the any suitable design from the preview gallery.
  • By default logo is included in the letter head, if you do not want to inclued the logo, then click none, under logo.
  • After making all necessary changes, Save the publication as letter head.

Question 5.
Write the usage of envelope.
Answer:
The following are the usage of envelopes :

  • To send invitating card.
  • To send letters.

Question 6.
What is Banner?
Answer:
Banner an image, usually displayed at the top of each page in a Web site, containing text and design elements. You can create banners for any event and to capture the attention of the public.

Question 7.
What is Newsletter?
Answer:
News Letter is a letter that consist of schedule of events, information about the chief guest and other distinguished people who will attend that event.

Question 8.
What is Postcard?
Answer:
Post Card is a card that contains the some information regarding some particular events, celebration, greating etc.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 9.
State the difference between letterhead and postcard.
Answer:
Post Card is a card that contains the some information regarding some particular events, celebration, greeting etc. Post card has two sides. Letter head is a stationery which is used to write letter.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the steps to create Newsletter.
Answer:
Newsletters are a great way to share information with family, friends and customers. Microsoft Publisher’s newsletter function provides complete design and layout flexibility. Use the program to select a design layout and color scheme, format text and insert images quickly and easily to create a custom newsletter.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II 1
Following are steps that are used to create a newsletter in Microsoft Publisher:
1. Choose a newsletter design. On the main menu click “File” and then “New” to open the Catalog Window. Click the “Newsletters” option on the Wizards menu, select the desired design from the options and then click “Start Wizard.” Enter your contact information in the window prompt. Delete the sample text in the field to leave a field blank. Click “Include color scheme in this set” and select the desired colors. Click “Update” when finished. Complete the steps in the Wizard or click “Finish” to exit the Newsletter wizard.

2. Enter the text. Place the mouse inside the desired text box and click once. Type the text or cut and paste from a Word document. Format the font style, size and appearance by using the main menu at the top of the screen. Place the mouse over the border until the word “Resize” appears. Click and drag the border to the desired size.

3. Insert images by clicking “Insert” and then “Picture.” Select from clip art or photos stored on your computer. Resize the image. Click and drag the mouse diagonally towards the center of the photo until the photo reaches the desired size.

4. Edit the text box-and image layouts as needed. Create a new text box by , clicking the text frame tool (“A”). Place the mouse in the desired location, then click and drag to create the desired box size. Place the mouse over the item until the word “Move” appears. Click and hold down the mouse and drag to the desired location. Place the mouse inside the box and click once, on the main menu click “Edit” and then “Delete Object” if you need to delete a text box.

5. Change the number of pages in the newsletter as needed. Click “Insert” and then “Page” and follow the instructions in the pop up window. Click the desired page number at the page display on the bottom of the screen and click “Edit” and then “Delete Page” to remove pages.

6. Finalize the newsletter. Proofread and spell check. Print the document on paper and place the pages in order to ensure the page numbers line up properly before copying. This is helpful if you plan to copy two-sided or convert to 11 x 17 inch paper.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II

Question 2.
Write the steps to create Envelope.
Answer:
Special occasion cards get piled away with the rest of the mail when they are in plain envelopes with no special decal or design to separate them from others. Design a special envelope using Microsoft Publisher for a single use birthday card envelope or to use on all your mailings, so that people will see your envelopes and know that they are from you. Relatives and close friends will also appreciate the time you took to make their envelope special.
PSEB 10th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Microsoft Publishers-II 2
Following are steps that are used to create an envelope in Microsoft Publisher :
1. Launch Microsoft Publisher and click “Publications for Print.” A list of options will appear underneath this section. You can choose from several pre-made envelopes. These envelope designs are for several different types of businesses.

2. Delete any option or area of the envelope you do not need for your purpose. Select the area by left clicking on the area once and it will bring up a border around the box. Right click on the selection and choose “Delete.”

3. Move any of the pre-selected fields by dragging it to where you would prefer it. Select the area; move the mouse pointer till it becomes a four arrowed figure. Left click and hold the mouse button and drag the box to where you want it.

4. Fill in the address fields by highlighting and entering in the correct information.

5. Insert pictures and designs to the envelope to make it more personal. Click “Insert” and “Clipart”, “Object” or “Textbox.” Recipients of your letters will love having designs on the envelopes that display your personality.

6. Choose to make your own envelope from scratch by selecting “Blank Print Publication” from under the New section on the left hand side of the Microsoft Publisher screen. Select “File”, “Page Setup” and a new window will appear. Hit “Envelope” from under the Publication Type and adjust any height and width dimensions you may need. This is easy, just measure your envelope.

7. Insert and edit till your message is clear from the design on your envelope. Try printing in gray scale and on regular paper before printing on any envelopes. This will save money and trees.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by neutralization reaction? Explain with an experiment.
Answer:
It is a chemical reaction in which acids reacts with base to form salt and water. It is known as neutralization reaction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
Process of neutralization

Experiment: Take a solution of dilute sodium hydroxide in a beaker. Add few drops of phenolphthalein in this solution. Its colour changes to pink. Take a burette filled with dilute hydrochloric acid. Fix it vertically on a stand as shown in Fig. Place a beaker under it. Add the hydrochloric acid slowly to the beaker with the help of burette and go on swirling the beaker slowly. When the colour of solution disappears then stop adding acid to beaker. Now there is no effect of Red to Blue litmus to the solution. Now there is only salt and water in the beaker which is neutral to litmus. This is known as neutralization reaction.

Example:
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O

Question 2.
Write briefly chemical properties of acids.
Answer:
Acids have several chemical properties :
1. Reaction with metals. Acids reacts with active metals. Zinc, Magnesium, Iron, Mangenese etc. reacts with them to produce hydrogen gas.
Zn(s) + dil. H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mg(s) +dil.2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Fe(s) + dil. H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Mn(s) + dil. HNO3 (aq) → Mn(NO3)(aq) + H2 (g)

2. Reaction with metals carbonate and metal bicarbonate. Acids reacts with metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate to produce C02.
Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
K2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2O + CO2

3. Reaction with bases. Acids reacts with base to show neutralization. They produce salt.
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O
Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O

4. Reaction with sulphites and bisulphites. Acids react with metal sulphite and bisulphite to produce SO2 gas.
CaSO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O +SO2 (g)
NaHSO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + SO2(g)

5. Reaction with metal sulphides and hydrogen sulphides. Acids react with metal various metal sulphide and hydrogen sulphides to produce H2S gas.
FeS + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2 S(g)
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

6. Reaction with metal Chlorides. When metal chloride heated with acids the reaction takes place.
NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl (g)
NaCl + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HCl (g)

7. Reaction with metal nitrates. Concentration acid reacts with metal nitrate.
NaNO3 +H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HNO3
NaNO3 + NaHSO4 → Na2SO4 + HNO3

8. Reaction with metal oxides. Metal oxides reacts with dilute acids to form salts of
Na2O + 2HNO3 → 2NaHO3 + H2O
CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O

Question 3.
Write in brief chemical properties of bases/alkalis.
Answer:
Important chemical properties of bases/alkalis are given below :
1. Reaction with metals, Bases react with some metals to produce hydrogen gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

2. Reaction with air. Some bases react with CO2 present in air.
2NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3
2KOH + CO2 → K2CO3

3. Reaction with acids. Bases react with acids to produce salts.
NaOH+ HCl → NaCl + H2O
Fe(OH)2 + 2HCl → FeCl2 + 2H2O
Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + 2H2O

4. Reaction with salts. Salts of copper, iron, Zinc etc. react with bases and produce insoluble metal hydroxides.
ZnSO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + Zn(OH)2
CuSO4 + 2NH4OH → (NH4)2SO4 + Cu(OH)2
FeCl3 + 3NaOH → 3NaCl + Fe(OH)3

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 4.
What is the importance of pH in everyday life?
Answer:
pH has very important role in our life :
1. In animal world. Many of the processes in our body occur within the pH range of 7-0 to 7-8. We can survive only in this narrow range. pH value of our blood, tears, saliva is nearly 7-4. Survival will become impossible if this value becomes less than 7-0 or more than 7-8. When pH of rain water decreases from 7-0 to 5-6 or less then it is called acid rain. WThen acid rain flows to the rivers then pH value of river water lowers. Survival of aquatic life in such rivers become difficult.

2. For plants. For healthy growth of plants a specific pH range of soil is required. If soil becomes more basic or acidic, produce badly affected.

3. Digestive system. Our stomach produces HCl, which without harming us help in the digestion of food. Duiing indigestion the stomach produces too much of acid. This causes pain and irritation in the stomach. To get rid of this pain, bases are used which are called antacids. For this weak base like milk of magnesia is used.

4. Tooth decay. If pH value of the mouth is lower than 5-5, then tooth decay begins. Our teeth are made up of calcium phosphate which is hardest substance in our body. It is not soluble in water but starts decaying when pH of the mouth is lower than 5-5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by .degradation of sugar and food particles. To get rid of this we should use basic tooth paste. This will neutralize the acid and tooth decay can be prevented.

5. Relief from insect stings. When some insects sting us, they leave a special type of acid in our body. Bees, ants etc. leave methanoic acid in our body by their sting. To get relief from pain, mild base like baking soda is rubbed on the stung area.

6. Safety from special plants. Plants like nettle have stingging hair. By touching them we feel pain similar to insect sting. This pain is due to methanoic acid. Conventionally, one can get relief by rubbing leaves of dock plant on the stung area.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are indicators? How do indicators are categorized? Explain.
Answer:
Those substances which change their colour in acidic and basic solutions, are called indicators.
Indicators are categorized into two types on the basis of their special properties and characteristics.

  1. Indicators which give colour to acids and basic medium.
  2. Indicators which give smell to acids and basic medium.

1. Colour giving indicators :
(A) Litmus solution: Litmus solution is purple dye which is obtained from Lichen plant. This is available as red or blue solution and also in the form of litmus paper. Blue litmus turn to red in the presence of acids and Red litmus turns to blue in the presence of basic media. Litmus is neither acidic nor basic by itself.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

(B) Turmeric: Turmeric change to red-brown colour in the presence of bases. That is why vegetable stain on the clothes becomes red brown when washed by applying soap which is alkaline.

(C) Phenolphthalein: This is synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of bases.

(D) Methyl orange: This is also synthetic indicator. It gives pink colour in the presence of acidic medium and yellow in the presence of bases.

2. Olfactory indicators: Chopped onion, vanilla essence and clove oil change smell in the presence of acids and bases act as olfactory indicators.

Question 2.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we mix an acid or base with water, the number of H+/OH~ ions per unit volume decreases, it is called dilution. By dilution, acids and bases are ionized.

Question 3.
Give characteristics of acids.
Answer:

  • They are sour to taste.
  • They turn blue litmus to red.
  • Their solution is not like soap solution.
  • They produce hydrogen gas when reacts with metals.
  • They react with carbonates to produce carbon dioxide.
  • Acid react with bases to produce salts and water.

Question 4.
Give four uses of acids in our everyday life.
Answer:

  1. Vinegar is used in cooking food and acts as preservative and used in pickles.
  2. HCl in our stomach destroys the harmful bacteria, which reach there with our food.
  3. Tartaric acid is used to prepare baking soda.
  4. Carbonic acid is used in soft drinks.

Question 5.
What are the harmful effects of acids in everyday life?
Answer:

  • They can destroy living cells.
  • Concentrated acids can badly damage the skin and soft organs.
  • These can damage eatables.

Question 6.
Differentiate between strong acids and weak acids.
Answer:

Strong acids Weak acids
1. These get completely dissolved in water and produce H+ ions and negative ions. 1. These do not completely dissociate into H+ ions and negative ions.
2. Equilibrium is not established. 2. Equilibrium is established between ions and undissociated ions.
3. Example: H2SO4, HNO3. 3. Example: H2CO3, CH3COOH.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
Differentiate between strong base and weak base.
Answer:

Strong base Weak base
1. These get completely dissolved in water to produce OH ions. 1. These are partially soluble in water.
2. Example: NaOH, KOH 2. Example: Ca(OH)2, Mg(OH)2.

Question 8.
Categorize the following compounds as strong and weak acids and bases,
(i) HCl
(ii) H2SO4
(iii) CH3CHOOH
(iv) HCN
(v) NH4OH
(vi) H3PO4
(vii) NaOH
(viii) Ca(OH)2
(ix) KOH
(x) H2CO3
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

Question 9.
What is the reason for electric conduction in acids? Explain.
Answer:
Acids produce H+ ions. Due to ions acids can conduct electricity. This conduction takes place in water solution.
HCl + H2O → H3O + +Cl
HNO3 +H2O → H3O+ +NO3

Question 10.
What happens when a base is dissolved in water? Explain it.
Answer:
Bases when dissolved in water give hydroxide OH ion. The water-soluble bases are called alkalis.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

Question 11.
Why are bases not touched or tasted?
Answer:
Bases have a bitter taste like soaps and are harmful to skin. They are harmful when touched or tasted.

Question 12.
Write uses of alkalies/bases.
Answer:

  • These are used to make soap.
  • These are used in basic batteries.
  • These are used in making antacids.
  • Used in Petrol refining and paper industry.
  • To remove stains of grease from cloths.
  • To make hard water, soft.

Question 13.
Give normal characteristics of bases.
Answer:

  • They are bitter to taste.
  • They are soapy to touch and are harmful for skin.
  • These turn litmus to blue.
  • These turn turmeric to red brown colour.
  • These react with acids to produce salts and water.
  • They turn phenolphthalein solution to pink.

Question 14.
What is difference between alkali and base?
Answer:
Those alkalies which are soluble in water are called bases. This means all bases are alkalies but all alkalies are not bases, e.g. Ferric hydroxide [Fe(OH)3] and cupric hydroxide [Cu(OH)2] are alkalies but are not bases since these are not soluble in water.

Question 15.
What are the sources to get common salt (NaCl)? Explain.
Answer:
We can get common salt from following sources :

  • Sea water: A huge amount of salt is dissolved in sea water. Salt in obtained from sea water through salt shallows. Solar heat and air help in the evaporation of sea water. We get salt.
  • Mineral salt: Deposits of solid salt are found in many parts of the world. These beds of rock salts were formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. This salt is mined similar to the mining of coal. These rocks are found in Mandi (Himachal Pradesh), Khewra (Pakistan). Due to impurities this salt is brown in colour.
  • From Lakes: Salt is obtained from Sambher lake in Rajasthan, great salt lake in America, Lake Elton in Roose etc. This salt in obtained by evaporation.

Question 16.
Write characteristics of common salt.
Answer:

  • Colour and state: It is colourless crystalline substance which melts at 820°C.
  • Solubility: Salt is soluble in water.
  • Effect of heat: On heating salt a cracking sound is produced due to breaking of ‘ salt crystals.
  • Hygroscopic: Salt absorb moisture from the air, This is due to presence of magnesium and calcium chloride.

Reaction with sulphuric acid. Salt reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to produce HCl gas.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 7

Reaction with silver nitrate. Salt reacts with silver nitrate to form white precipitates of silver chloride.
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3

Question 17.
Give uses of common salt.
Answer:

  • Salt is important constituent of our food.
  • This is used as preservative in many eatables.
  • It is used in soap, pottery industry.
  • It is used in making freezing mixture.
  • It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder, caustic soda, hydrochloric acid, washing soda, Baking powder etc.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 18.
What is chlor-alkali process? Give pictorial representation of the products of this reaction. Give their uses.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Important products of chior-alkali process.

When current is passed through aqueous solution of salt gets dissociated and sodium hydroxide is produced. This is known as chlor-alkali process because the products in this reaction are chlorine (chlore) and sodium hydroxide (base)
2NaCl(aq)+ 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

All these products are very important and useful in industry medicine, home and cosmetics etc. Chlorine and hydrogen are the by products of this process.

Question 19.
How is bleaching powder prepared? Give its common characteristics and uses.
Answer:
Bleaching powder is obtained by the reaction of chlorine with slaked lime.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 9
To manufacture bleaching powder at large scale, we have a special tower there is a hopper at the top of tower, slaked lime is added through this hopper. At the bottom hot air and chlorine gas are blown. Chlorine moves upwards and is absorbed completely by slaked lime and bleaching powder is produced.

Characteristics :

  • Bleaching powder is light yellow coloured powder, It has a sharp smell of chlorine.
  • It is soluble in water, but not completely.
  • It reacts with CO2 of air and loose its chlorine.
    CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2
  • It reacts with acids
    CaOCl2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + Cl2
    CaOCl2 +H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + Cl2

Uses

  • It is used in paper and textile industry.
  • Used to disinfect drinking water to make it free from germs.
  • It is used to make unshrinkable work.
  • It is used for preparing chloroform.
  • It acts as oxidising agent.

Question 20.
Write chemical formula for washing soda. When its crystals are open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
Chemical formula for washing soda is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When its crystals are left open in air then due to efforescence nine molecules of water are lost in the air.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 .H2O + 9H2O

Question 21.
What happens when solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated? Give chemical reaction for the equation.
Answer:
When sodium hydrogen carbonate solution is heated then carbon dioxide gas is produced and sodium carbonate is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 22.
What is common name of the compound CaOCl2? Name the substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder?
Answer:
Common name of compounds CaOCl2 is bleaching powder. The substance which reacts with chlorine to produce bleaching powder is slaked lime [Ca(OH)2],

Question 23.
If during the preparation of plaster of Paris the process of heating is not controlled then which substance is formed?
Answer:
Temperature should be maintained at 373 K during the preparation of plaster of Paris. If temperature is not controlled then unhydrated calcium sulphate (CaSO4) is produced which do not have the properties of plaster of Paris. This is known as dead burnt Plaster.

Question 24.
Explain preparation, properties and uses of baking soda (NaHCO3).
Answer:
Chemical formula for baking soda is NaHCO3 and its chemical name is sodium bicarbonate. It is formed when CO2 is passed through aqueous solution of Na2CO3.
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O → 2NaHCO3

It can also be prepared from sodium chloride.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 11
Properties: When it is heated it swells and becomes light. On heating it produces CO2. It is soluble in water.

Uses :

  • It is used in the preparation of baking powder.
  • It acts as antacid in case of acidity in the stomach.
  • It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Question 25.
Explain the following processes.
(i) Deliquescence
Answer:
Deliquescence: When some compounds absorb moisture from air and change to solution then this process is called deliquescence.
e.g. common salt is deliquescence.

(ii) Bleach.
Answer:
Bleach: When some gas or compound decolourises something, this is known as bleach, e.g. bleaching powder or chlorine is used for this purpose.

Question 26.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through fresh lime water?
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is passsed through fresh lime water in small quantity then insoluble calcium carbonate is formed and colour of lime water turns to milky.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 12
If excess of CO2 is passed through this solution, calcium carbonate change to soluble bicarbonate and milkiness disappears.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 13
If this solution is heated again, milky colour again appears because calcium bicarbonate again change to calcium carbonate.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 14

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 27.
What is pH scale? How does it respresent acidic and basic nature of a solution? Represent whole range of pH and [H3O]+.
Answer:
A scale which is used to know the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution is called pH scale. Here ‘p’ stands for ‘potenz’ a German word which means power. We can measure from zero to 14 on this scale. Zero represents strongest acid, and 14 represents strongest base. pH is such a number which represents acidic or basic nature of a solution. More is the concentration of hydrogen ion in a solution less is its pH value. If a solution is neutral its pH value is 7. If pH is lower than 7 then solution is acidic and if pH is more than 7 then solution is basic. Normally pH can be found by using universal pH indicator paper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 15

Question 28.
Are salt crystals really dry? Explain.
Answer:
Copper sulphate crystals which seems to be dry contains water of crystallization. These seem to be dry hut are not. When we heat the crystals then this water is removed and colour of salt become white. When salt is made wet its colour again change to blue.

Fixed number of molecules of water present in unit formula of salt is called water of crystallization. In unit formula of copper sulphate, there are five molecules of water. Formula for hydrated copper sulphate is CuSO4. 5H2O. In Na2CO3.10H2O there are 10 molecules of water.

Gypsum is another salt which contains water of crystalization. There are two molecules of water in it.
Its formula is CaSO4.2H2O.

Question 29.
How is washing soda prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) is obtained from sodium chloride. By heating soda, we get sodium carbonate. By recrystallization of sodium carbonate, washing soda is obtained. This is a basic salt.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 16
Sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate are useful in several industrial processes.

Uses of washing soda :

  • Sodium carbonate is used in glass, soap and paper industry.
  • It is used in the manufacturing of sodium compound such as Borax.
  • It is used in cleaning agent for domestic purpose.
  • It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.

Question 30.
What is efflorescence? Name one compound which shows efflorescence? Explain your answer with an equation.
Answer:
The phenomenon of losing some part of water of cyrstallization into air from a crystal is called efflorescence. This phenomenon takes place on heating or some times spontaneously. Washing soda contain water of crystallization hence its formula is Na2CO3. 10H2O. When it is placed in open then it loose its 9 molecules of water and single hydrate is left.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3.H2O + 9H2O

on heating it looses all of its water.
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3 + 10H2O

Question 31.
A baker found that a cake prepared by him is small in size and hard. Which constituent, he forgot to add, due to which cake can become soft and big. Give reason.
Answer:
Baker forgot to add baking powder. When baking powder (a mixture of sodium bicarbonate and Tartaric acid) is added to cake and on heating tartaric acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to produce carbon dioxide. This carbon dioxide makes the cake to swell and cake becomes light. Baker, definitely forgot to add baking powder that is why cake is small and hard.

Question 32.
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then what happens?
Answer:
When bleaching powder is left open in air, then its properties change. C02 present in air reacts with it due to which calcium carbonate and chlorine gas are produced. Properties of bleaching are lost.
CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 33.
What are the important uses of bleaching powder?
Answer:

  • It is used to bleach cotton cloths, linen and wood pulp.
  • It is used to disinfect drinking water and to make it free of germs.
  • It is used to make chloroform.
  • Unshrinkable wool is prepared using bleaching powder.
  • It acts as oxidizing agent in Laboratories and in industry.

Question 34.
Name the compounds used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position. How is it prepared?
Answer:
The compound used in hospitals for supporting fractured bones in the right position is plaster of paris. It is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4. \(\frac{1}{2}\)H2O). It is prepared at a temperature of 373 K by heating gypsum.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 17

Question 35.
Write important uses of Plaster of Paris.
Answer:

  • It is used in making toys, moulds, ceramic, containers etc.
  • It is used for making material for decoration and statues.
  • In hospitals it is used by doctors to set fractured bones and by dental doctors for creating mould to make dentures.
  • Used in buildings, to give plane look to walls and ceiling.
  • Material used by fire fighters.
  • It is used to stop leakage of gases in Laboratories.

Question 36.
Many people complaint about gas problem in stomach. What is main reason for this? Why do they use ‘milk of magnesia’ to get relief from this?
Or
What are antacids?
Answer:
A juice is secreted in the stomach which contains enzyme pepsine and hydrochloric acid. Enzyme pepsine is active in acidic medium. When hdyrochloric acid is produced in excess quantity, then we get burning and pain in the stomach, which is known as acidity.

Those substances which are used to neutralize this acid are called antacids. Usually people take a mild base like milk of magnesia for this purpose. It neutralizes the excess acid and provide relief.

Question 37.
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become shiny when rubbed with lemon? Why?
Answer:
Idols and utensils made up of copper and brass become dull due to coating of copper oxide. Citric acid present in lemon react with it to form salt, which can be easily washed with water. Brass and copper surface becomes shiny.

Question 38.
For the safety of teeth what type of toothpaste should be used. Why?
Or
How does change in pH-value helps in tooth decay?
Answer:
Bacteria present in mouth produce acid by degradation of sugar and food particles. This reduces the pH value of mouth which causes tooth decay. After foods we should used basic tooth pastes to prevent tooth decay. Mild bases present in it neutralizes the excess acid. This reducing the chances of tooth decay.

Question 39.
What is the remedy for sting of Nettle plant? Write.
Answer:
Nettle is a herbaceous plant found in jungles. Its leaves have stinging hair. These hair cause painful sting if touched accidentally. This pain is due to the secretion of methanoic acid by stinging hair in the body. To get rid of this pain leaves of dock plant are rubbed on the area of sting. Leaves of dock plant have base in them. This plant often grows beside the nettle plant. It neutralizes the acidic effect and gives relief from pain.

Question 40.
What is acidic rain? How is the pH of soil can be measured?
Answer:
Some of the gases like SO2, SO3, NO2 etc. present in the atmosphere gets dissolved in rain water and fall on earth in the from of acid is called acid rain. This corrodes some of the metals and marble.

pH value of soil can be measured by using paper soaked in universal indicator. This way we can know the nature of soil as acidic or basic. When pH value of rain water is less < than 5-6 then it is called acid rain. To know the pH value of soil, it is dissolved in water in a test tube and its filter is tested with universal indicator pH paper.

Question 41.
Is human life possible on venus planet?
Answer:
No, human life is not possible on venus plant the atmosphere of venus is covered with thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid. If there is a rain is presence of water, it will be acidic and the existence of human life will be impossible.

Question 42.
Magnesium is treated with dil. H2SO4. The gas evolved is collected as shown below. Name the method used for collection of gas and the gas produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 18
Answer:
Downward displacement of water. The gas produced is hydrogen.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 43.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 19
Answer:
Fix two nails on a cork and place it in a 100 ml beaker. Connect thses nails to a 6 volt battery through a bulb and switch as shown in the figure.

Pour some aqueous solution of alcohol or aqueous solution of glucose in the beaker so that nails dip in it. Switch on the current. The bulb does not glow indicating that alcohol and glucose don’t dissociate in aqueous solution and hence do not produce H+(aq) ions although they contain hydrogen.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 20
Aqueous solution of alcohol or glucose does not conduct electricity

1 — Cathode
2 — Anode

Question 44.
Observe the figure and answer the following:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 21
(i) What are 1 and 2?
Answer:
1-Soap bubble filled with hydrogen 2-Burning of hydrogen gas with a pop sound

(ii) Write down the reactions taking place in test tube.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 22

Question 45.
In the pH paper shown in figure given below, pH of lemon juice is 2.2 and that milk of magnesia is 10. What is its significance?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 23
Answer:

  • Lemon justice is acidic because pH is less than 7.
  • Milk of magnesia is basic because pH is more than 7.

Question 46.
Which gas is being produced during reaction in the test tube? How does this gas react with Calcium Hydroxide/Lime water?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 24
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO2).
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 25

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What makes food sour?
Answer:
Presence of acids.

Question 2.
What is the reason of bitterness?
Answer:
Presence of bases.

Question 3.
What is the reason of acidity in stomach?
Answer:
excess of HCl acid.

Question 4.
What is the effect of acid on litmus?
Answer:
Blue litmus changes to red.

Question 5.
What are olfactory indicators?
Answer:
Some substances which change their smell in acidic or basic medium are called . olfactory indicators.

Question 6.
Give three examples of olfactory indicators.
Answer:
Chopped onions, clove coil, vanilla essence.

Question 7.
Which gas is produced when Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas.

Question 8.
Which gas is produced when metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates react with acid?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 9.
What happens when CO2 is passed through lime water?
Answer:
Lime water turns milky.

Question 10.
Why milkiness of lime water disappear when excess of CO2 is passed through it?
Answer:
Due to formation of Ca(HCO3)2 which is soluble in water.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 11.
Write the name and colour of the compound formed when copper oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
Blue-green copper chloride.

Question 12.
Which name is used for metal oxide?
Answer:
Alkaline oxide.

Question 13.
What is the nature of non-metal oxide?
Answer:
Acidic nature.

Question 14.
Why does current flow in acids?
Answer:
Due to ions.

Question 15.
Which ion is produced in acidic solution?
Answer:
Hydrogen ion (H+).

Question 16.
What is used to dry, moist gas?
Answer:
Calcium chloride.

Question 17.
How do we represent hydrogen ion?
Answer:
H+(aq) or hydronium ion (HgO+).

Question 18.
Which ions is produced by bases in water?
Answer:
Hydroxide (OH) ion.

Question 19.
What is base?
Answer:
Alkalies which are soluble in base.

Question 20.
What should we do to dilute an acid?
Answer:
We should add acid to water slowly and not vice versa.

Question 21.
What is dilution?
Answer:
When we add acid or base in water, concentration of ions (HgO+/OH) per unit volume decreases, this is known as dilution.

Question 22.
What is name of mixture of various indicators?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 23.
What is that which show different colour at different concen-tration of hydrogen ion in a solution?
Answer:
Universal indicator.

Question 24.
What is pH scale?
Answer:
To know the strength of H+ ion in a solution a scale is used known as pH scale.

Question 25.
What is p in pH?
Answer:
‘p’ means ‘potenz’.

Question 26.
What is the range of pH scale?
Answer:
0 to 14.

Question 27.
What is pH value of neutral solution?
Answer:
pH value is 7.

Question 28.
If pH value of solution is less than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Acidic solution.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 29.
If pH value of a solution is more than 7, then what does it indicate?
Answer:
Solution is basic.

Question 30.
What is the value on pH scale for lemon juice?
Answer:
Nearly 2.2.

Question 31.
What is the value on pH scale for pure water?
Answer:
7

Question 32.
What is the value on pH scale for milk of magnesia?
Answer:
10.

Question 33.
What is the value on pH scale for sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
Nearly 14.

Question 34.
What is pH range in which our body works?
Answer:
Our body works in the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.

Question 35.
What is pH value of acid rain?
Answer:
It is less than 5.6.

Question 36.
In which type of river survival of aquatic animals is difficult?
Answer:
When acid rain water flows to the river.

Question 37.
What surrounds the venus planet?
Answer:
Thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid.

Question 38.
Which acid is produced in our stomach?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid.

Question 39.
What is produced in the stomach when there is indigestion.
Answer:
Excess of HCl.

Question 40.
What is used for treating excess of acid in the stomach?
Answer:
Antacids (mild bases).

Question 41.
When does tooth decay begin?
Answer:
When pH value in less than 5.5.

Question 42.
Teeth are made up of which substance?
Answer:
Calcium phosphate.

Question 43.
Why do we feel pain due to bee sting?
Answer:
Due to acid.

Question 44.
Which substance is applied on the stinging area which gives relief from pain?
Answer:
Weak base like baking soda.

Question 45.
What do the stinging hair of nettle plant secret?
Answer:
Methanoic acid.

Question 46.
What is the remedy for sting of herbaceous plant Nettle?
Answer:
Rub leaves of dock plant.

Question 47.
Which acid is there in vinegar?
Answer:
Acetic acid.

Question 48.
Which acid is there in lemon, orange?
Answer:
Citric acid.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 49.
Which acid is in curd and milk?
Answer:
Lactic acid.

Question 50.
What is main source of salt?
Answer:
Sea water.

Question 51.
What is exothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat is produced.

Question 52.
What is endothermic reaction?
Answer:
Those chemical reactions in which heat in absorbed are called endothermic reactions.

Question 53.
Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current, why?
Answer:
In sodium chloride, Na+ and Cl- ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction and ions can’t move freely. Hence solid sodium chloride does not conduct electric current.

Question 54.
In which state chemical reactions take place easily.
Answer:
Gaseous or liquid state.

Question 55.
What is solute?
Answer:
It is a compound, which in aqueous solution, dissociate into positive and negative ions.

Question 56.
What is a strong electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is 30%, is called strong electrolyte.

Question 57.
What is weak electrolyte?
Answer:
A compound which dissociate in water and its dissociation percentage is less than 30% is called weak electrolyte.

Question 58.
Which acids are obtained from animals?
Answer:
Organic acids.

Question 59.
Who gave pH scale and when?
Answer:
pH scale was given by Danish Chemist Soren Sorensen in 1909.

Question 60.
Concentration of which ion is important in every Biological and many industrial processes?
Answer:
Concentration of hydrogen ion.

Question 61.
What is the reason for burn feeling in stomach and chest? How to get rid of this situation?
Answer:
When excess of hydrochloric acid is produced in stomach, then we feel burn feeling in stomach and chest. We can be relieved by taking baking soda.
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2

Question 62.
What is baking powder?
Answer:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and tartaric acid.

Question 63.
If we do not use tartaric acid in baking powder for making a cake. How will the cake taste?
Answer:
It will be bitter due to sodium carbonate.

Question 64.
Which chemicals are used in fire extinguishers?
Answer:
Sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.

Question 65.
Which gas is produced in soda acid fire extinguisher?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 66.
Which compound is used to make water free of germs?
Answer:
Bleaching powder (CaOCl2).

Question 67.
Name chemical name of quick lime.
Answer:
Calcium oxide (CaO).

Question 68.
Name the deliquescent present in salt.
Answer:
Magnesium chloride (MgCl2).

Question 69.
What type of smell is given by bleaching powder?
Answer:
Smell of ehlorme gas.

Question 70.
Sometimes eyes become red after swimming in a swimming pool why?
Answer:
Due to excess of bleaching powder in water.

Question 71.
When did Egyptions used plaster of paris?
Answer:
They used it 5000 years ago.

Question 72.
How did the Egyptions prepare plaster of Paris?
Answer:
They heated Gypsum in open air.

Question 73.
What was the use of Plaster of Paris for Egyptions?
Answer:
They used to fix rocks with it as cement for their monuments.

Question 74.
What is the relation of ‘Paris’ in plaster of Paris?
Answer:
In the beginning Gypsum was obtained from Montmarti in Paris, thus paris is related with it.

Question 75.
What is heated to which temperature from preparing plaster of Paris?
Answer:
Plater of Paris is obtained from gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) by heating it to 373 K.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
pH of an acidic solution is:
(A) >7
(B) <7
(C) 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(B) <7

Question 2.
Neutral solution has pH:
(A) 7
(B) >7
(C) < 7
(D) 14.
Answer:
(A) 7

Question 3.
Common name of NaCO3. 10H2O is :
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Baking powder
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Washing soda.
Answer:
(D) Washing soda.

Question 4.
Acid and base react to form salt and water. This reaction is called:
(A) Washing soda.
(B) Chioro-alkali
(C) Reduction
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(D) None of these.

Question 5.
What is used for plastering fractured bones?
(A) Cement
(B) Gypsum
(C) Plaster of Paris
(D) Soda.
Answer:
(C) Plaster of Paris

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
Toothpaste used for cleaning teeth is :
(A) Acidic
(B) Neutral
(C) Basic
(D) None.
Answer:
(A) Acidic

Question 7.
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is :
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10
Answer:
(D) 10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The common name of CaOCl2 is ______
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 2.
The sodium compound used for softening hard water is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

Question 3.
The common name of Na2CO3.10H2O is ______
Answer:
Washing soda.

Volleyball Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Volleyball Game Rules.

Volleyball Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe Volleyball court, Net, Ball, Behaviour of players and Coaches, Number of players, Position of players.
Answer:
Playfield:
The length of the volleyball playfield shall be 18 metres and breadth 9 metres. There should be no obstruction of any kind upto a height of 7 metres from the ground. The court shall be marked by lines of 5 cms. These lines shall be drawn at least 2 metres away from all obstructions. The centre line under the net divides the court into two equal parts.

Attack Line:
In each half of the court an attack line of 9 metres 5 cms, parallel to the central line, shall be drawn. Its width is included in 3 metres. One line on the right hand side is drawn as its extension and the second line of 3 metres to the left of it. The extension of the service area shall be minimum 3 metres.
Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Volleyball Court:
The court of this game should be 18×9 metres. There should be no obstruction of any kind upto a height of 7 metres from the ground. The court is like a rectangle. The width of its boundary lines should be 5 cms. These lines should be atleast 2 metres away from all obstructions. Two lines of 15 x15 cms. In length and 5 cms. in width are drawn behind the last line and parallel to it. These lines mark the service area of the court.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

One line is drawn right to the side line and the other is drawn to the left of the side line.. The minimum extension of the depth of the service area shall be 2 metres. The centre line under the net divides the court into two equal parts. In each half of the court a line of 9 metres 6 cms., parallel to the central line, at a distance of 3 metres is drawn. It is called attack line.

Net:
The net shall be 9 metres long and 1 metre wide. The squares of the net should be 15 cms. On its upper part a canvas strap of 5 cms. should be placed in such a way that a flexible cable may pass through it. The net is attached to the posts with this cable. The rope is not used under the net now-a-days. The height of the net for men from the centre should be 2.43 metres from the ground, and for women, it should be 2.24 metres. Flexible straps of 5 cms. width are attached on the ends of net. Both the sign posts supporting the net shall be at least 50 cms. from the side line.

Ball:
The ball should be round and made of supple leather. In it there should be a bladder. Its circumference should be 66 cms. + 1 cms. and weight should be 270 gms. + 10 gms. The pressure of air in the ball should be between 0.48 and 0.52 kg/cm2. The colour of the ball should be uniform.
Conduct of Players and Coaches-

  • Every player should be aware of the rules of game.
  • During the play a player can talk to the referee only through his captain.
  • All of the following acts of breach will be punished :
  • To talk to the officials time and again about their decisions.
    • To use improper words while talking to the officials.
    • To act indecently with the aim of influencing the decisions of officials.
    • To misbehave with or use uncivilised remarks to the opponent.
    • To give coaching to players by any one from the outside of the court.
    • To walk out of the court without the referee’s permission.
    • Clapping or crying by the players when the ball is touched and particularly at service

Warning is given for a minor offence. When the offence is repeated, a player is given a personal warning, by which his team loses the service or a point. A penalty is recorded on the score sheet in case of a serious offence. It entails the lose of service and one point. It the offence is repeated, the referee may disqualify the player fora set or for the rest of the match.

Dress of Player:
The player shall wear jersey, pants and pliable foot wear. He shall not wear on his head turban or cap or any such jewellery as may cause injury to other players.
Number of Players and Substitutes-
1. The number of players in one team shall not exceed 6 under all circumstances. The number of players including substitutes shall not be more than 12.

2. Substitutes and coaches shall sit in the court in front of the referee.

3. The captain of a team or coach can request the referee for a substitute. In this game only 6 players in maximum can play. Before a substitute enters the court he shall go to the scorer in dress and after his approval shall immediately take his place.

4. Any player in the beginning of the set may be replaced only once by a substitute. During the same set the original player may go back to the court, but this can be done only once. A substitute leaving the game cannot come back again in the same set. Only that player may come back who has gone out for the substitute.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Position of Players:
The court is divided into two parts. In each half a team of six members plays. After the service, players of both teams stand in their respective areas. They stand in lines in numbers 3-3. It is not essential that the lines shall be straight. Players parallel to the net take their positions from left to right in a way that in doing the service the players 4, 3, 2 are in front of the attack line, and the players 5, 6, 1 are behind. This position remains until the service of a team changes.
Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
After the service, the players can occupy any position. The rotation order recorded on the score sheet shall have to be kept in use till the end of the set. The game shall be stopped owing to some fault in the rotation, and the faults is removed. All points made by the team during the fault are cancelled. The points scored by the opposing team are retained. If the fault or error is not known at the proper time the defaulter team shall resume its correct position and shall have to lose the service or a point according to the situation.

Officials:
The following officials are appointed to conduct the game:
(i) Referee:
The referee sees to it whether a player is playing according to rules or not. He keeps control over the game, and his decisions are final. If any player breaks the rules, he is entitled to stop him from playing and may award him punishment.

(ii) Umpire:
He substitutes players. In addition to it, he gives signals on crossing the lines, time-on and touching the line. On the request of a captain he allows the substitution of a player. He assists the referee as well. He also brings the players to their positions turn by tarn:

(iii) Scorer:
During the play the scorer asks for the change of end, and keeps in view the rotation of the players. At the start of the game, he notes down the numbers and names of players, and keeps a record of scores.

(iv) Two Linesmen:
In case of a foul, the linesmen of both the teams give signals to the referee. In each end there is a lineman for a team. He announces when the ball falls in or out.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 2.
Describe the main Rules of Volleyball game.
Answer:
Rules of Play –

  • The number of players in each team shall be compulsorily 6. The number of players including the substitutes in a team cannot exceed 12.
  • All international matches are played to the best of five or to the best of three sets. In all international matches, five winning sets are played.
  • At the start of the game the captains of both the teams toss to decide ends and service. The toss winning team is free to choose either service or ends.
  • After each set the ends are changed. In the last set when a team has made 8 points, the ends are changed.
  • No team can play the game with less than 6 players.
    Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4

Time out:

  • The referee or umpire will grant time-out only in case the ball is damaged (dead).
  • A captain or a coach may ask for time-out for rest.
  • During a time-out the players cannot leave the court to talk to any one. They can only seek advice from their coach.
  • Each team can take two times-out in a set. The duration of such a time-out is not more than 30 seconds. Two times-out can be taken consecutively.
  • If a team, after getting two times-out, requests for the third, the referee shall give a warning to the concerned captain or coach. If the time-out is demanded even after this, the concerned team has to lose a point or service.
  • During the time-out for rest, neither can the players leave the court without permission nor the coach can enter the court. Of course, the coach, while remaining out of the court, can talk to the players.
  • A maximum interval of 2 minutes is permitted between two sets, but the interval between the fourth and fifth sets is of five minutes.
  • The game starts immediately after the substitution of a player.
  • In case a player is injured a time-out of 3 minutes is granted. It is allowed if the player is not substituted.

Obstacles of Play:
If a match is interrupted for some reason and cannot be completed, the problem shall be solved like this-

  • The game shall be re-started on the same court, and the score also shall remain the same as it was left earlier.
  • If the interruption in the game does not exceed 4 hours, the match shall be resumed at the fixed court.
  • In case the match is resumed on another court, the score of the interrupted set shall be deemed to be cancelled but the results pf the completed sets shall remain the same.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Passes:
1. Under-hand Pass. This technique is now considered to be very useful. It makes even a difficult service easy. In this pass, the left hand is tightly closed. The ball is placed on the right fist such a way that the thumbs remain parallel to each other. The under-hand ball is received when the ball is quite low.

2. Back Pass. The back pass is made use of to dodge an opponent. The player who is to make pass makes it behind his head. The volley server volleys.

3. Under-hand Ball with Back Rolling. When the ball is beside the net, the hit should be made by opening the fingers and touching them with the ball.

4. Under-hand Ball with Side Rolling. When the ball is to one side of the player, the hand is opened in the direction of the ball. The ball is received by side rolling.

5. Under hand Pass with the Hand. This method is used to return the ball when the ball is to the one side of the player in the direction in which it is to be received. The ball is taken by slightly bending the leg, extending the arm and closing the fist.

6. Taking the Ball Struck with the Net. This type of ball is taken by under-hand, otherwise it is cut towards the fellow players so that it may be passed carefully.

Service:
(a) By service we mean the putting of the ball into play by the right hand back line player. The player hits the ball with his hand either open or closed or any part of the arm in such a way that the ball passes over the net to the opposite court. The service should be done from the fixed place. Throwing the ball by hand is prohibited. A player after service can remain on the boundary line or enter the court.

If the served ball falls on the ground untouched by any player, the service is re-taken. If the service ball passes over the net without touching it and between the antennae, the service is considered to be good. The service will have to be re-taken as soon as the referee blows the whistle. A player shall continue to serve until a fault is committed by any player of his team.

(b) Faults of Service.
If any of the following faults are committed, the referee will blow his whistle for the change of service :

  • When the ball touches the ground.
  • When the ball passes under the net.
  • When the ball touches the antennae or it does not pass over the net completely.
  • When the ball touches a player or an object before it reaches the opponent’s court.
  • When the ball lands outside the limit of the opponent’s court.
  • When the player’s foot, while the service is being taken, is on the line or touches the line.

(c) Second and later Service:
In each new set that team shall serve which has not served in the preceding set. The service in the final set is decided by toss.

(d) Obstacles of Play: If, in the opinion of the referee, a player deliberately obstructs a game, he is penalized.

Change in Service:
When the serving team commits a fault, the service is changed. The service also undergoes a change when the ball is side-out.

Hitting the Ball:

  • Each team can contact the ball three times so as to pass the ball into the court of the opposing team.
  • A ball can be hit with any upper part of the body.
    A ball can pass touching the various upper parts of the body but it should be simultaneous. The ball should not be caught; rather it should bounce forcibly.
  • If a ball lodges for sometime in the player’s hands or arms, it shall be reckoned to bathe ball held. Lifting, pushing, carrying shall also be considered as holding. To hit the ball distinctly with both hands from below is in conformity with the rules.

Blocking:
Blocking is that activity by which, as soon as the ball crosses the net, the attack by an opponent is attempted to be stopped with any upper part of the body, above the abdomen. Blocking is done by the players of the first line. Players of back line are not allowed to do blocking. After blocking any player who takes part in blocking may get the ball.

Games of Net:

  • A ball is considered to be good if it (other than served) touches the net completely.
  • A ball is also considered to be good when it passes the net from inside the marks.
  • A ball hitting the net can be played. If a ball that has been played three times by a team touches the net the fourth time or falls on the ground, the referee shall blow the whistle for the offence.
  • A ball which hits the net so hard that the net contacts an opponent, the opponent shall not be penalized for this contact.
  • If two opposing players touch the net simultaneously, it is considered a double fault.

Crossing Hand Over Net:

  • During blocking, the touching of the ball with hands over the net in the court of the opponents is not considered a fault provided the contact has been made after the attack by the opponents.
  • To pass hands over the net after an attack is not a fault.
  • If the ball is touched by the blocking players, then the same team can cross the ball over the net by touching the ball with hands three times.

Crossing Centre Line:

  • If during the play, any part of the body of any player contacts or enters the opponent’s court, it is considered a fault.
  • Passing of the ball under the net, and attracting the attention of the opponent by touching the ground with any part of the body after crossing from under the net shall be considered a fault.
  • To enter the opponent’s court before the referee whistles shall be deemed as a fault.

Ball out of Play:

  • If the ball touches the net outside antennae or the antennae, it is considered a fault.
  • If the ball touches the ground or any object outside the court, it is considered to be ‘out’. A ball touching hands shall be deemed correct.
  • The play stops with the referee’s whistle, and the ball shall be considered out of play.

Volleyball Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Score:

  • When a team is leading by two sets, it is declared to be the winner. A set has 15 points. If the score is tied at 14-14, the play is continued upto 16-14, 17-15 and 19-17.
  • If a team refuses to come into the court on being asked by the referee, it loses the game. A wait of 15 minutes for the team to play is possible. It is left in case of injury to a player during the game.
  • If a team fails to return the ball correctly in the court of the opponent, the points is awarded to the opposing team.

Fouls in Volleyball:

  • If during the game a player touches the net, it is considered to be foul.
  • To touch the centre line is a foul.
  • Crossing the line before service is a foul.
  • When the ball hits the face, back and waist, it is a foul.
  • If there is a sound while taking the ball.
  • Holding is a foul.
  • If the ball is touched more than three times, it is a foul.
  • If a player touches the ball with hands continuously for two times, it is a foul.
  • If during the service he is pursued in a wrong situation.
  • If the rotation is faulty.
  • If the ball is given side-pass.
  • If the ball crosses the net from below.
  • When the service is not done from the service area.
  • If the service is not correct, even then it is a foul.
  • If the served ball is crossed by a player of the serving side.
  • While doing service it is a foul to form group.
  • Doing the service before the whistle is a foul. If any of these fouls is done, the referee asks for the change in service. He can give warning to any player or can expel him.

Decisions:

  • The decisions of the officials are final. .
  • Only the captain of a playing team can protest against the decisions about the interpretation of rules.
  • If the referee’s’decision is not correct, the game is played under protest, and the protest is sent to the higher officials.

Important Information about the Volleyball Game

  • The length and breadth of = 18 x 9m
    Volleyball ground
  • The breadth f the post of the = 7 c.m.
    canvas strap
  • The number of Antenica = Two
  • Length of Antenia = 1.80m
  • Distance of poles from line = 1 meter
  • Length and breadth of the net = 9.50 x 1 meters
  • The height of the net for men = 2.43 meters
  • The height of the net for women = 2.24 meters
  • Circumference of the ball = 65 to 67 c.m.
  • Colour of the ball = Multiple colour
  • Weight of the ball = 260 to 280 gm
  • Number of player in a team = 12 (size players 6 substitute)
  • Officials of the match = Two referee, One scorer, Two or four lineman
  • The size number of the back = Height 20 c.m.,15 c.m. Length, 2 c.mBreadth.
    of players
  • Twelve (12) players take part in the game of volleyball, out of which 6 play and 6 are substitutes.
  • Both the teams participating in a match has 6 players each.
  • Standing in their court these players make the ball pass over the net.
  • A point is awarded against the team in whose court the ball falls.
  • There is no time limit for the game of volleyball; instead the best of three or the best of five games is played.
  • No rope is now used under the net.
  • The toss winning team is free to choose service or end.
  • Only two players can be substituted in the game of volleyball.
  • A player of the opposing team can block the service if it is going beside the net. Service will be considered
    correct when the ball during service touched to the net and reached in opponent’s playing area.
  • A team can be scratched if it does not enter the ground in fifteen minutes.
  • Each game of volleyball is of 25 points.
  • Libro player is allowed substitution whenever he desire but for defence purpose only.
  • A player can throw the ball in opponents playing area by hitting the ball with foot and knee.

Lezium Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Lezium Game Rules.

Lezium Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write down the measurement of lezium and its types.
Answer:
Lezium:
Lezium consists of a wooden handle of 16″ to 18″ in length with an iron chain fixed at both ends of the wooden handle and a rod of 15 cm (6″) in the middle. The iron chain contains iron plates in each ring which produces rhythmic and jingling sound when the lezium is in use. The weight of the whole apparatus is between 1 3/4 to 2 lbs.

Lezium Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Types of Lezium:
Lezium Skand, Aram, Husshyar, Pavitra, Char Awaj, Ek Jagah, Aidi Lagala, Starting position, Do Rukh, Age Shlang, Peechhe Shlang.

Lezium Skand:
In this position, lezium is kept on right shoulder. In this position, lezium is like egg position, and the wooden handle is remain behind and the chain of iron remain in front of the body.
Lezium Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
Aram:
In this position, iron chain kept in a right hand and hanging in left hand when a student is remain in husshyar position the order of aram is given.

Husshyar:
Before starting of the Lezium, student should come in husshyar position. This position is kept when the lezium is on the shoulder. This exercise is performed by counting two on counting one, the iron chain and on counting two the lezium should be kept up to left shoulder and bring it in front of the chest with left hand. Wooden handle is race iron chain in the right hand and pull towards the body. After this exercise, came into the first position.

Pavitra:
This position is obtain from the Skand position. Keeping front left knee is little bend, bring the right foot behind the body. The weight should be on the left toe and push toward the floor. The remain straight chest and head must be raised upward. In this position, left leg must be towards the right and lezium should be in husshyar position.

Char Awaj:
In the starting of husshyar position on counting one keep the knee straight and bend the body, take the first stock near the feet in this position. Wrist goes out side and the handle of the lezium become parallel to the body, one counting to range the body up and snatch the iron chain from the wooden handle.

In the position, lezium will be on waist, on counting three and in a first position. The wooden handle should be moved to the right side and right hand should be in front of the body. On counting four, wooden handle should be taken in front of mouth, which we can see through the lezium.

Ek Jagah:
In the exercise, in counting four rotate the lezium in a round left to right after this next four counting should be repeated from left side.

Adha Lagao:
In this exercise, all the eight counting must be repeated and foot movement should be performed on char awaj. The left leg should be brought to the right leg and the left toe .. should be brought to right, the thumb should be kept between the finger.

Starting position:
In this position, rotating the back Char awaj should be performed four times. In coming first position, the exercise rotate the body from left side and lezium should be in front of the chest. In keeping the taal on counting four rotate the body in fast position. By doing this exercise, arm should be rotate in circle motion.

Do Rukh:
This exercise consist of eight counting and pavitra is N starting position just counting three. It will be like pavitra on counting four in a opposite direction from the left position. In a quick motion, perform four on counting five, rotate the lezium upward to down ward from left toe to right toe. Char awaj perform on counting six. It should be like to on counting seven take the Pavitra position, and char awaj take three counting. On counting eight, it should be like first position.

Lezium Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Aage Shalang:
This is the exercise of ten counting. Starting position is of pavitra, on counting one, bending forward near the left toe to the char awaj should be done. When taking left foot is completed on counting three, right foot should be forwarded like near the left foot, char awaj should be perform. In this way, left toe is done up on counting five, char awaj to be perform.

Taking six and seven stock with the left lezium should be nearer and foot should be kept in pavitra position. On counting eight, char awaj should be performed on counting nine, bending forward char awaj must be one stock. On counting ten, raise the body by farming char awaj and return to pavitra position.

Peechhe Shalang:
In this exercise, counting should be in ten, starting position must be a pavitra perform. The char awaj near the left toe on counting. In second and third, rotate to right and make two perform. In opposite direction, perform char awaj on four counting four times. Six and seven rotate from left foot keeping the right foot behind, on counting eight perform the char awaj, in this position student should be in pavitra position while counting nine char awaj should be performed.

Forward Bend:
On counting one, keep the right foot ahead. Bend on right side and open the lezium in same position. On counting two, raise the right foot up to three inches and by bending forward, lezium should be close on counting three, keep the left foot ahead and repeat the counting one. In this way, the exercise should be performed.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions and Answers

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Practical Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions and Answers

Hockey

Question 1.
How does the game of hockey start?
Answer:
The game of hockey starts when a player passes over the ball under certain rules to another player of his side from the centre line.

Question 2.
How many players are there in a hockey team?
Answer:
There are 16 players in the game of hockey. Eleven of these players play the game while 5 players are substitutes.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
How many players in the game of hockey can be replaced?
Answer:
Five players can be replaced in this game.

Question 4.
How much time is fixed for this game and how much extra time is given in case of a draw?
Answer:
The time allowed in the game of hockey is 35-5-35.

Golden Goal Rule:
If both the teams remain equal during the allotted time the extra time given is 7 \(\frac{1}{2}\), 7 \(\frac{1}{2}\) minutes . As soon as the goal is scored during this time the game ends. The team scoring the goal is declared the winner. Even then if a goal is not scored both the teams are given 5, 5, penalty strokes up to the time the match is decided.

Question 5.
Tell the length and breadth of hockey ground?
Answer:
The length of a hockey ground is 100 yards 91.25 m and its breadth is 60.55m yards.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
Tell the weight and diameter of a hockey ball?
Answer:
The weight of a hockey ball is 5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) ounce and its diameter is 9 \(\frac{1}{2}\) inches.

Question 7.
Tell about the number of people involved in the administration of a hockey game?
Answer:
Following administrators help to organise a hockey match:

  1. Referee – 1
  2. Empire – 2
  3. Linemen – 2

Question 8.
Give the positions of the players in a hockey game?
Answer:
There are 11 players in a hockey game:

  1. Goal keeper.
  2. Right full back.
  3. Left full back.
  4. Right half back.
  5. Centre halfback.
  6. Left half back.
  7. Right-out forward.
  8. Right-in forward.
  9. Centre forward.
  10. Left in forward.
  11. Left out forward.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Tell the length and height of the goal post?
Answer:
A goal post is 4 yards in length and 7 feet in height

Question 10.
What is the length and height of a goal board?
Answer:
Goal board is 4 yards long and not higher than 18 inches.

Question 11.
What is the weight of a hockey-stick?
Answer:
The weight of a hockey stick for men is 28 ounce and 23 ounce for women.

Question 12.
What type of uniform should be there for a hockey player?
Answer:
The uniform for a hockey player includes a shirt, a nicker, socks, shoes. A goal-keeper needs pads and gloves also.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 13.
What is the striking diameter for the game of hockey?
Answer:
In front of each goal-post there is a white line which is 4 yards, 3.66 m long and 3 inches wide. It is drawn parallel to the goal post at a distance of 16 yards. It goes to the diameter of the breadth of the 3 inch line. Its centre will be the goal post. The striking diameter is the outer corners of the 16 yard line and the centre of the goal line including the lines.

Question 14.
Tell the distance of the penalty stroke?
Answer:
Penalty stroke is hit from a distance of 8 yards from the goal post.

Question 15.
Is there stick in the game of hockey?
Answer:
Now a days there is no stick in the game of hockey. Even if the hockey is raised above the shoulder it is not treated as a foul provided the hit is not dangerous.

Football 

Question 1.
Tell the length and breadth of a football ground?
Answer:
The length of a football ground should not be more than 130 yards and less than 100 yards. Its breadth should not be more than 100 yards and less than 50 yards.

Question 2.
How many players are there in a football game also tell their position in the game?
Answer:
In a football game there are 16 players out of which 11 play the game and 5 are the substitutes.
Position. Goal keeper = 1, Full-back = 2, Half = 3, Forward = 5.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Tell the time for a football game?
Answer:
The time for a football game is 45-5-45 minutes.

Question 4.
What is the weight of a football and what is its diameter?
Answer:
The weight of a football is from 14 ounce to 16 ounce arid its diameter is 27 to 28 inches.

Question 5.
Tell the breadth of the lines of a football ground?
Answer:
All the lines of a football ground are 5 centimetre wide.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
What is the weight of air in a football?
Answer:
The weight of air in a football is 0.6007 or 9.01505 pound per square inch.

Question 7.
How does the game of football start?
Answer:
The game of football starts with a pass of ball.

Question 8.
Tell the length and height of the goal posts?
Answer:
The goal posts are 8 yards in length and 8 feet in breadth.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Tell the distance of a penalty kick?
Answer:
Penalty kick takes place from a distance of 16 yards.

Question 10.
When does a goal take place?
Answer:
When the ball crosses the line in between the goal posts the goal takes place.

Question 11.
At what distance should the players of the opposite team stand when the jkick takes place?
Answer:
This distance should be 10 yards.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
What is throw-in?
Answer:
When the ball goes out of the ground and the player of the opposite team throws the ball in from that very placg it is called throw-in.

Question 13.
How many flags are put in a football game?
Answer:
Six flags are fixed in a football game. Four of them are fixed at the corners of the ground and two are fixed at the end of the centre line at a distance of one yard each.

Question 14.
Tell four fouls in a football game?
Answer:
Following are the four main fouls in a football game:

  1. To hit the player of the opposite team.
  2. To touch the ball with hands.
  3. To push a player.
  4. To attack the opposite player from behind.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
Give the number of the administrators in the football game?
Answer:
Referee = 1, Goal Judge = 2, Lineman = 2.

Question 16.
Can there be a penalty corner foul outside the D also?
Answer:
Penalty corner can be awarded outside the D also if the attacking player is stopped in a dangerous way.

Question 17.
When is the penalty-stroke awarded?
Answer:
When the players of the defending team deliberately catch the ball or keep it under foot the penalty stroke is given.

Volleyball

Question 1.
How many players are there in a volleyball game?
Answer:
There are 12 players in a volleyball game out of which six are the players and six are the substitutes.

Question 2.
How many players in a volleyball game can be substituted?
Answer:
Six players can be substituted. All the six players can be substituted.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Tell the length and breadth of a volleyball court?
Answer:
A volleyball court is 18 metres long and 9 metres wide.

Question 4.
Tell the length and width of a volleyball net?
Answer:
The length of a volleyball net is 9 metre and its breadth is one metre.

Question 5.
Tell the height of a volleyball net?
Answer:
The height of a volleyball net for boys is 2.43 metres and for girls it is 2.24 metres.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
What is the weight of air in a volleyball?
Answer:
The weight of air in a volleyball should be 0.48 kg to 0.52 Kg.

Question 7.
How does the rotation take place in a volleyball game?
Answer:
In a volleyball game six players play from each side. Three out of them are in front of the attacking line and three are behind it. The first one takes the service. At the time of service 4, 3, 2 are before the attack line and 5, 6, 1 are behind them.

Question 8.
What is the position of players in a volleyball game?
Answer:
Following is the position of the players in a volleyball game:
4 3 2
5 6 1

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Give the number of the administrators in a volleyball game?
Answer:
1. Referee = 1, 2,
Umpires = 1, 3
Linemen = 2.

Question 10.
How is a match decided in a volleyball game?
Answer:
The team that wins two sets out of the three sets is declared the winner. Five sets take place in national and international games. The team that wins three out of five is declared the winner.

Question 11.
For how many times the time-out can be availed in a volleyball game and what is the time span of a time out?
Answer:
Two time-out can be availed in one set. The time out is for 30 seconds only.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
Give five main fouls in a volleyball game?
Answer:
Following are the five main fouls in a volleyball game:

  1. To catch the ball when the game is going on.
  2. To touch the centre-line.
  3. To touch the line while taking the service.
  4. To touch the ball for more than three times.
  5. When the player touches the ball twice continuously.

Question 13.
What is the score fixed for a volleyball game?
Answer:
There are 15 points in a volleyball game. If both the teams score 14-14 points each it is obligatory for the game to be played upto 16-14, 17-15, 19-17.

Question 14.
Is a rope put at the lower side of the net?
Answer:
No rope is put at the lower side of the net.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
Can the opposite team block a service?
Answer:
If the ball comes just near the net, the opposite team can block the service.

kho-kho

Question 1.
How many players are there in a Kho-Kho game?
Answer:
There are twelve players in a Kho-Kho game out of which 9 are the players and three are the substitutes.

Question 2.
Tell the length and breadth of a Kho-Kho ground?
Answer:
A Kho-Kho ground is 29 metres in length and 16 metres in breadth.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Who is called a chaser and who is a runner in a Kho- Kho game?
Answer:
The players who sit are called the chasers and those who run are called the runners.

Question 4.
How many innings are there in a Kho-Kho match?
Answer:
There are two innings in a Kho-Kho match.

Question 5.
What is the time for a Kho-Kho match?
Answer:
The time for a Kho-Kho match is 9-5-9,10 rest, 9, 5,9 minutes second innings.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
How does the match start?
Answer:
Toss takes place before the beginning of the match. The team that wins the toss decides to become chaser or runner.

Question 7.
How many points are scored when a runner gets out?
Answer:
One point is scored when a runner gets out.

Question 8.
How is the match decided?
Answer:
The team that scores more points is declared the winner.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
How many squares are there in a Kho-Kho game and what is their size?
Answer:
There are 8 squares measuring 30 c.m. x 30 c.m in a Kho- Kho game.

Question 10.
Is there a playing lobby in Kho-Kho? Tell its breadth?
Answer:
There is a playing-lobby in Kho-Kho and its breadth is 3 metres.

Question 11.
Tell the length and diameter of a Kho-Kho pole?
Answer:
The length of Kho-Kho pole is 1.22 metres and its diameter in 20 cm.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
What is the distance between the Kho-Kho poles?
Answer:
The distance between the Kho-Kho poles is 24.40 metres.

Question 13.
What is the total number of the administrators of a Kho-Kho game?
Answer:
Two umpires, One referee, One time keeper, One scorer.

Question 14.
When is a player considered ‘out’ in Kho-Kho?
Answer:
When the chaser touches the runner or the runner goes out of the ground he is considered to be ‘out’.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
Name five main fouls in Kho-Kho?
Answer:
The main fouls are given below:

I. To get up before getting the ‘Kho’.
II. To cut the centre line.
III. To turn without touching the pole.
IV. The wrong running by the chaser.
V. The runner goes out of the ground on his own.

Question 16.
What is the situation of a draw in Kho-Kho?
Answer:
If both the teams score equal points another innings is played and another innings is played if the match is yet undecided. If the match remains undecided the whole match is played again.

Kabbadi

Question 1.
Mention the length and breadth of the Kabaddi ground?
Answer:
The length of Kabaddi ground is 12.50 metres and Breadth 10 metres. For junior boys and girls length and breadth is 11 and 8 metres respectively.

Question 2.
Mention the number of players in Kabaddi?
Answer:
There are twelve players in Kabaddi game. Out of them seven players actually play and five are substitutes.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
What is the time duration of the game of Kabaddi?
Answer:
The duration of Kabaddi game is 20-5-20 and for junior boys and girls is 15-5-15.

Question 4.
How many scores does Lona have?
Answer:
Lona has two extra points.

Question 5.
When is a player considered to be out?
Answer:
A player who goes out of the boundary during the play shall be considered ‘out’. If an opponent goes out of the boundry and catches the raider, the raider shall not be considered ‘out’ but all the players catching shall be ‘out’.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
How many time-outs can be taken in Kabaddi?
Answer:
Two time-outs can be taken in Kabaddi. The duration of each time out is of 30 seconds.

Question 7.
How is the game of Kabaddi Match decided?
Answer:
Any team which gets more points shall be winner. In case of draw 5 extra minutes will be given until the match is decided.

Question 8.
Mention the number of officials conducting the game of Kabaddi?
Answer:
Officials in Kabaddi are:

  1. One referee
  2. Two umpires
  3. Two lines-men
  4. One scorer.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
Describe the main fouls in the Kabaddi game?
Answer:

  1. To hold the raider with help of leg-scissors.
  2. Outside coaching is not allowed,
  3. To catch by hair intentionally is foul.
  4. To try to stifle a raider by shutting his mouth or throttling him.
  5. Using violent tackling by one player against the other.

Question 10.
Mention the new amendment in the game of Kabaddi?
Answer:
In the game of kabaddi one metre Bonus line is added from the bonus line.

Question 11.
What do you understand by a Bonus for raider?
Answer:
When a raider comes after having crossed bonus line he gets one point.

Badminton 

Question 1.
What is the total number of players in Badminton?
Answer:
There are two types of Badminton game. Singles and Doubles. In singles there are two players out of them one plays the game and one is a substitute. In doubles there are three players out of them two play and one is a substitute.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 2.
Mention the length and breadth of the badminton court?
Answer:
Badminton is of two types, Singles and Doubles, For singles the length and beadth is 44′ × 17′. For doubles the length and breadth is 44′ × 20′.

Question 3.
How does the game of badminton start?
Answer:
The two teams shall toss before the play starts. The toss winning team shall have the option of:
(I) Serving First
(II) Choosing Sides.

Question 4.
How many points does the game of Badminton have?
Answer:
Men’s doubles and singles games consist of 7.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
In how many parts the Badminton court can be divided?
Answer:
We can divide Badminton court into two parts. Right court and left court.

Question 6.
Mention the length and breadth of the side gallery of the Badmintion Court?
Answer:
The side and back gallery shall be of 2\(\frac{1}{2}\), and 1\(\frac{1}{2}\), respectively.

Question 7.
Mention the weight of the shuttle?
Answer:
The weight of the shuttle is from 73 to 85 grams.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 8.
Discuss the main rules of the doubles game of Badminton?
Answer:
Doubles:
In the game, there are two players on each side. After having been decided which side is to deliver the service first, the player in the right hand service court of that side shall start the game. He shall serve to the opposing player in the right service court. This matter is decided by the toss winners, and the other matters by the losing one. It is decided before hand whether the game shall have 15 points or 21.

If the opponent returns the shuttle before it touches the ground to the player who started the game, he shall again return it to the latter. In this way, the play shall continue until the foul is made or the shuttle falls down on the ground. In case the service is not returned or the foul is made by the opposing side, the player doing the service shall score one point.

The members of the team delivering the service shall change their service court. Now the player doing the service shall be in the left hand service court and shall serve to the player of the opposing team in the left hand service court. In the beginning of each game, each team shall deliver the service from the right hand service court.

Question 9.
Write the main rules of the single game of Badminton?
Answer:
Singles:
All the above-mentioned rules shall be applicable to singles games but

(i) the player serves from, and receives service in his respective right hand service court. When the player who serves is at 0 or there is an even number of points in the game, the service is always deliverd from the right hand service court. In case of odd numbers, the service is delivered from the left hand service court.

(ii) Both the players change service courts after each has scored 1 point.

(iii) The ladies single game consists of 11 points. When the score is 9-all, the player who first reaches 9 can set the game to 3 points. In case of the score is 10-all, the game is set to 2 points.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 10.
Describe the main Faults of the game of Badminton?
Answer:
Faults:
In case a fault is committed by a player of the playing side, the player who delivers the service shall be “out”. If the fault is committed by an opponent, the playing side gets one point. It shall be considered a fault:

(a) When the struck or served shuttle is higher than the server’s waist or it is struck by the shaft of the racket higher than the server’s hand holding the racket.

(b) When in serving, the shuttle falls into the wrong service court or falls short of the short service line or beyond the long service line or outside the side boundary line.

(c) When serving, the player’s feet are not in the service court.

(d) When before or during service any player intentionally obstructs his opponents.

(e) When in service, the shuttle falls outside the boundary of the court, passes through under the net, fails to pass the net, or touches the person or dress of a player.

(f) If the shuttle is struck before it crosses the striker side of the net.

(g) When the shuttle is in play, a player touches the net or its supports with his body, racket or dress.

(h) When the shuttle is held on the racket, a player strikes it twice in succession or it is struck twice in succession by the player first and then by his partner.

(i) The opponent shall be reckoned as ready if in play he returns the shuttle or tries to hit it, whether he is in or outside the boundary.

(j) When a player obstructs an opponent.

Wrestling – Free Style And Greeco Roman 

Question 1.
Mention the duration of the Wrestling?
Answer:
The duration of Wrestling is 5 minutes.

Question 2.
Describe the length and breadth of the Wrestling Mat?
Answer:
The size of the Wrestling Mat should be 9 × 9 metres. The size of the mat of Olympic and World Championship is 9 × 9 metres.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
How many times can a referee warns a wrestler?
Answer:
If any referee warns a wrestler, thrice wrestler will be considered the loser.

Question 4.
How is the score made in Wrestling?
Answer:
Score
(a) One point,

  • To a player who throws a rival on the mat and maintains control over him,
  • to that player who rises from beneath and maintains his hold on his opponent,
  • to a player who makes a good grasp and does not allow his opponent’s head and shoulder to touch the mat,
  • for one precaution the opponent gets one point.

(b) Two Points,

  • to that player who keeps good hold on his opponent and maintains his hold on him for some time,
  • to that player whose opponent immediately falls or falteringly falls.

(c) Three Points,

  • to a player who keeps his opponent in danger (when shoulders make an angle of less than 90° from the mat) for five seconds,
  • bridge position for three seconds or fall takes five seconds.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
How is the victory or defeat decided in Wrestling?
Answer:
When there is a difference of one point in the score of the opposite players, the bout ends in a draw. Again, if Tio contestant scores any point, or the points are equal, the match ends iii a draw. If the difference is of more than one point, a player with more points is declared the winner.

Question 6.
Describe the officials who conduct the Wrestling?
Answer:
There are three officials in all types of Wrestling bouts:

  1. Mat chairman
  2. Referee
  3. Judge.

No official can be changed during the bout.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 7.
Discuss the main rules of weighing of the competitors?
Answer:

  1. Weighing of competitors shall begin two to four hours before the Wrestling competition begins.
  2. The competitors shall be weighed without clothes. They shall be medically examined by a doctor before they are weighed. The doctor will remove any player suffering from any contagious disease.
  3. Each contestant can participate in Wrestling with a player belonging to his weight-group.
  4. The competitors should be in a prefect physical condition. Their nails should be well pared. They shall be checked at the time of medical examination.
  5. Weighing shall start at beast two hours before the competition and must conclude an hour before the first wrestling bout.

Question 8.
Mention the foul holds in Wrestling?
Answer:
Foul-holds:
The following fouls are taken into consideration:

  1. Pulling of hair, ears, dress, private organs etc.
  2. Twisting of fingers, grasping of the throat and other holds which may be life-endangering.
  3. Holding in such a’ manner as may put the opponents’s life in danger, or may hurt any of his body part, or cause him pain so that the opponent helplessly leaves the bout.
  4. Treading on the feet of the rival.
  5. Touching the face of the opponent (from the eye-brows to the chin)
  6. Grasping the opponent by throat.
  7. Lifting the rival when he is in bridge position, and then throwing him on the mat.
  8. Breaking the bridge by giving a push from the head.
  9. Twisting the opponent’s arm at above 90° angle.
  10. Grasping the opponent’s head with both hands.
  11. Thrusting the elbow or knee into the abdomen or stomach of the rival.
  12. Turning the opponent’s arm to the back and pressing it.
  13. Grasping the opponent’s head in any manner.
  14. Applying leg-scissors on the body or head.
  15. Holding on to the mat.
  16. Talking to each other and making dangerous assault.

Gymnastics 

Question 1.
What type of implements are required for Gymnastics?
Answer:
We need the following implements:

For Men and Boys

  1. Parallel Bar (compulsory and optional)
  2. Vaulting Horse compulsory and optional
  3. Ground Gymnastic compulsory and optional
  4. Horizontal Bar optional and compulsory.

For Women and Girls

  1. Beam Balance compulsory and optional
  2. Ground Gymnastic compulsory and optional
  3. Vaulting Horse optional.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 2.
How many players take part in Gymnastics?
Answer:
There are eight players in Gymnastics, out of the six players participate in competition and two are substitutes.

Question 3.
How are points awarded in Gymnastics?
Answer:
For each gymnastic exercise, there are points from 0 to 10, and each point is sub-divided into 10 parts. If the panel of the judges is of five members, the minimum and maximum points are not considered, and an average of mid three points is taken. If the panel is composed of three judges, the marks of three are taken for average.

Question 4.
Is the decision of the Jury final?
Answer:
The decision of the Jury is final. Participants cannot protest against their decision.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
If a contestant in Gymnastics is ill, for how long can he be awaited for?
Answer:
If any contestant in Gymnastics falls ill, officials have to wait for him for thirty minutes.

Question 6.
How many players can be taken for team championship?
Answer:
For team championship six best Gymnasts shall be considered.

Swimming

Question 1.
How many types of swimming competitions are there?
Answer:
Following types of swimming competition are held:

For Boys:

  1. Free style – 100, 200, 400, 800, 1500 m.
  2. Back Stroke – 100, 200 m.
  3. Breast Stroke – 100, 200 m.
  4. Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
  5. Relay – 4 × 100 metre free style.
  6. 4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast, Back, Butterfly, Free Style)

For Girls :

  1. Free Style – 100, 200 and 400 m.
  2. Back Stroke – 100 m.
  3. Breast Stroke – 100 m.
  4. Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
  5. Relay – 4 × 100 metre free style.
  6. 4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast, Back Stroke)

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 2.
How Heats and Finals in swimming competitions are organised?
Answer:
Heats and Finals in Swimming Competitions:
Seeding of Heats and Finals. The heats in all semi-finals and final swimming competitions shall be seeded as follows:

(1) Trial Hit

(1) The name, the order of time and the competitive time of all entrants are recorded on the admission form which is, then, sent to the competition committee. The competitor who does not get his or her time recorded in the form is listed at the bottom of the list. If there are more than one such competitors, their positions are decided by lots.

(2) The fastest swimmer or team is placed in the last heat, the next to him/it is placed in the last but one heat, and so on. In this way, all the swimmers or teams are fixed in various heats.

(3) When the lanes are in odd numbers, the fastest swimmers or team is placed in the central lane ; in case there are 6 or 5 lanes, the fastest swimmer or team is placed in third or fourth lane. The next to him/it in speed is placed to the right of the fastest swimmer/ team, and in this way, the other swimmers/teams are placed right or left according to their timing. The lane-position for the swimmers with equal timing is decided by lots.

(ii) Finals:
The lanes are determined in accordance with the above – mentioned rule 3 where the starting heats are not required. Where the starting heats have already been over, the lanes are determined according to Rule No. 3.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Mention the officials appointed to conduct swimming competitions?
Answer:
Officials for Olympic and International Swimming Competitions and other Swimming Competitions:

  1. Referee-1
  2. Starter-1
  3. Chief Time Keeper-1
  4. Time Keppers-3 per lane
  5. Chief Judge-1
  6. Finishing Judges-3 per lane
  7. Inspectors of Turns-1
  8. Announcer-1 each at both ends
  9. Judges of Strokes-2
  10. Recorder-1
  11. Clerk of the House-1

For other competitions, the following minimum officials shall be as under:

  1. Referee-1
  2. Starter-1
  3. Time Keepers-1 per lane
  4. Finishing Judges-1 per lane
  5. Inspectors of Turns and strokes-1 per every two lanes
  6. Recorder-1

Question 4.
What precautions should we take in swimming?
Answer:
We must take following precautions in swimming:

  1. We should come out from the water when the water enters our nose or mouth.
  2. Inhale yourself according to your capacity.
  3. When learning how to swim, do not go in deep water.
  4. Shout at the time of drowning.
  5. Don’t make noise while swimming.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 5.
How the points are awarded in swimming competition?
Answer:
The points are awarded by the following method. First, Second and Third position holders get 5-3-1 points respectively and in Relay races 16-6-2 points are awarded to first, second and third position holders.

Question 6.
Mention the main rules of swimming?
Answer:
Rules For Swimming:

  1. The swimmer who obstructs any other swimmer during the swim shall be disqualified.
  2. If a foul endangers the chance of success of a swimmer, the judges shall have the right to allow him to compete in the next round. If a foul occurs in the finals, the referee can allow him to swim again.
  3. On return a competitor shall touch the end of the pool or end of the track with one or both hands. Diving from the bottom of the pool is not allowed.
  4. A swimmer who stands on the both shall not be declared disqualified, but he shall not move.
  5. Only the swimmer who covers the entire course shall be declared the winner.
  6. In relay race, the competitor whose feet have lost touch with the starting block before his or her partner, going ahead of him or her touches.

Basketball 

Question 1.
How many players take part in a Basket-Ball Game?
Answer:
There are twelve players in a Basket-ball game. Out of which 5 are taking part and seven are the substitutes.

Question 2.
What is the ledgth and breadth of a Basket-Ball court?
Answer:
Basket-Ball court is 28 metres in length and 15 metres in breadth.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
What is the duration of a Basket-Ball Game? How you will decide the match in case of draw?
Answer:
The duration of the Basket-ball game is 10-2-10-10-10-2-10. At the time when match ended in draw extra 5-2-5 minutes are given, in case again it remains draw, extra 5-5 minutes are given without rest, after five minutes sides of basket-ball court are changed. This duration will be given till the match is decided.

Question 4.
How the Basket-Ball match is decided?
Answer:
The Basket-Ball match is decided in the way either team gets more points will be considered winner.

Question 5.
How many fouls are there in Basket-Ball Game?
Answer:
There are five fouls in Basket-Ball game. For examples:

  1. Personal foul.
  2. Technical foul.
  3. Double foul.
  4. Multiple foul.
  5. Intentional foul.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
After committing, how many fouls a player can be debarred from further play?
Answer:
When a player has committed five fouls, he is not allowed to play further.

Question 7.
How many time-outs are there in Basket-Ball game? Mention the duration of these time-outs?
Answer:
In Basket-Ball game two time-outs are there before interval for each team and two after the interval each team can take. The duration of time outs is one minute.

Question 8.
How many players can be substituted in game of Basket-Ball? How much time is consumed?
Answer:
In Basket-Ball game at any time, players can be substituted on the condition that the substituting team has a side throw and duration of the substitution is twenty seconds.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
What is the weight of Basket-Ball? Also tell its diameter?
Answer:
The weight of Basket-ball is from 600 to 650 grams and its diameter from 75 to 78 cm.

Question 10.
What is the distance of poles outside from the Basket-Ball ground?
Answer:
The distance of pole from the end line of the court is one metre.

Question 11.
How the scores are made in Basket-Ball?
Answer:
When the basket is made directly a player gets two points. If it is made from free throw then there is one point. If the basket is made outside the shooting area, then there will be three points.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 12.
What is foul rule?
Answer:
If any team commits seven fouls in any half, the opponents get two free throws after each foul.

Question 13.
What is Eight Second rule?
Answer:
According to eight second rule a team is allowed only eight seconds to bring the ball in front court (opponent’s court). The same team cannot come back from front court.

Question 14.
What is three seconds rule?
Answer:
When a player stays more than three seconds in opponent restricted area, three seconds is given and opponents are awarded a throw in.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 15.
What do you understand about twenty six seconds rule?
Answer:
When a team has the control of the ball, and don’t try for score within 26 seconds then twenty six second rule is applied and opponents are awarded a throw-in. This opportunity seldom comes in the game.

Question 16.
How many officials are there to officiate the Basket-Ball game?
Answer:
There are following officials in a Basket-Ball game:

  1. Referee – 1
  2. Umpire – 1
  3. Scorer – 1
  4. Time Kepper – 1
  5. 30 Second Operators – 1

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 17.
What is the length of Basket-Ball net?
Answer:
The length of the Basket-Ball net is 40 cm.

Athletics 

Question 1.
In how many categories can we divide Athletics?
Answer:
We can divide athletics into two categories:

  1. Track events – It includes all races.
  2. Field events – It includes all jumps and throws.

Question 2.
In how many events can Athletics be divided?
Answer:

  1. Races: 100, 200, 400, 800, 1500, 5000, 10,000 metre Races.
  2. 4 × 100, 4 × 400 metre relay races.
  3. Throws: Discus throw, Hammer throw, Shot put, Javelin Throw.
  4. Jumps: High Jump, Long Jump, Tripple Jump, Pole Vault.

Question 3.
What do you mean by sprints?
Answer:
Sprints are those races in which sprinters run at full speed for a short distances. These are 100, 200, 400, 4 × 100, 4 × 400 metre; relay races.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 4.
What are the middle distance races?
Answer:
Middle distance races are those races in which sprinters can run fast and are able to maintain their speed to cover the distance. These races are 800, 1500 metre.

Question 5.
What are the Relay Races?
Answer:
Relay Races are Team Races in which each team member runs an equal distance. In short relay races sprinters run at full speed as in sprint races. A team consists of four members and a baton is exchanged during races.

Question 6.
What are the main rules of Races?
Answer:
The main rules of the races are as under:
1. Sprints run in 4′ lanes so that there is no hindrance for each athlete.

2. Lanes are decided by lots.

3. On hearing ‘On your Mark’ from the starter the sprinter take their place behind the starting line at ‘On Set’ sprinters get ready and after the pistol is fired, the sprinters start running. If any sprinter take his start before the gun is fired, the starter cancels that start and the concerned sprinter is warned. If he repeats the samemistake, he is debarred from taking part in the race.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 7.
What are the different rules of throws?
Answer:
Rules of the throws:

  1. Shot put, Discus and Hammer are thrown from the circle.
  2. Before or after the throw no part of the body of the thrower should not touch the ground outside the circle.
  3. After the throw, thrower should come out from the half back of the circle ; coming out from the front part of the circle is considered a foul.
  4. All the throws will be valid if they fall within the restricted area.
  5. If the participants are more than eight, they will get tnree chances each. Those athletes who are ahead in throws are selected and again given three chances. An athlete who covers the maximum distance is declared a winner.
  6. In throw events once we take the implements inside the circle, we cannot throw it again at the back.
  7. In Shot put, Hammer and Discus throws, it is necessary that these should fall within 40 degree lines of the circle.
  8. Every throw is measured from the nearest point of landing considering a straight line from the outside of the circle.
  9. Fingers are not valid for measuring the distance.
  10. Thrower cannot leave his circle while his throw has touched the floor.

Question 8.
How are the points awarded selecting the champion in the races?
Answer:
In races points are awarded as under :

  1. First Position = 5
  2. Second Position = 3
  3. Third Position = 1

If there are Relay Races then the points are awarded as follows:

  1. First Position = 10
  2. Second Position = 6
  3. Third Position = 2

Question 9.
What are the degrees of angles in Shotput, Discus and Hammer throw?
Answer:
In Shotput, Discus and Hammer throw the degree of circle is 40°.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 10.
What is the breadth of lane of 100, 200, 400 metre races?
Answer:
The breadth of lane in these races is 1.25 metre or 4′.1″.

Question 11.
What is a standard track?
Answer:
That Track is known as standard track which consists of Eight lanes, but in general six lane tracks are also used.

Question 12.
How is the start taken?
Answer:
The starts is taken as under

On Your Marks Set
Gun or Pistol Fire.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 13.
How many races are included in track events?
Answer:
100, 200, 400, 800, 1500, 5000, 10,000 metre races are included in track events.

Question 14.
Which are the tips that the athletes running 100,200 and 400 metre races should keep in mind?
Answer:
The following are some important tips that such athletes should keep in mind:

  1. They should breathe normally.
  2. When ordered to get set, they should hold their breath and should start running when they hear the gun shot.
  3. They must not stop on sit after they finish their race.
  4. They should be conscious about their position, so that they can run the first a few steps in a straight line.
  5. To be confident about the start, they must practise a couple of starts slowly before the event.
  6. Each time before they take the start, they must run for 30 or 40 metres.
  7. They must practise at least 10 starts everyday.

Question 15.
How many ‘foul starts’ lead to the disqualification of the athlete for the race?
Answer:
Two foul starts in races and 3 such starts in tholon and decatholon make an athlete ineligible to take part in that event.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 16.
Describe the rules for the athletes of track events?
Answer:
The following tare the rules for the athletes of track events:

  1. They should wear a clear outfit which does not hinder or obstract their movement.
  2. They can run either wearing spikes or base footed.
  3. An athlete is disqualified if he obstructs a fellow athlete or hinders his progress.
  4. Every athlete wears his number clearly at the back and the front.
  5. The athlete must stick to their allotted lanes throughout the race.
  6. If an athlete delibrately leaves his lane, he is disqualified.
  7. The jugdes can accommodate a player appropriately if both track and field events start simultaneously.
  8. The athletes must not use banned drugs and intoxicants. If any athlete is found using such a substance, he is disqualified.
  9. The start of 800 metres race is announced in native language “On Your Mark” and the whistle is blown to start the race.
  10. The athlete shouldn’t touch the ground or the starting-line when “On Your Mark” has been announced.
  11. An athlete, who makes two foul starts, is disqualified from the race.
  12. The winner of a race is decided at the ‘finishing line’. The athlete, who touches the line first by any part of his body, is declared the winner.
  13. If in a hurdles race the referee thinks that a particular athlete delibrately throws a hurdle down by his hand or foot he can duly disqualify that athlete.
  14. If there are a large number of athletes in a ‘throw’ event, the referee sets a qualifying mark and gives six chances to each athlete.

Question 17.
Which are the different hurdles races? Describe briefly?
Answer:
The following are the hurdles races:

  1. 110 Metres hurdles
  2. 200 Metres hurdles
  3. 400 Metres hurdles.

1. The 110 Metres Hurdles:
There are ten hurdles in this race. The first hurdle is placed at 10.72 metres and the rest are placed at a distance of 9.14 metres except the last one which is placed at a distance of 14.02 metres. The height of the hurdles for boys is 1.06 metres which it is 89 cms. in 100 metres hurdles for senior girls and 76 cms. for junior girls.

2. 200 Metres Hurdles:
There are 10 hurdles in this race also. But the first hurdle is placed at 18.29 metres from the starting line and the last one is at a distance of 17.10 metres.

3. 400 Metres Hurdles:
In this race also there are 10 hurdles. The first hurdle is placed at 45 metres from the starting line, the remaining hurdles are at a distance of 35 metres and the last one, at 40 metres.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 18.
Write the measurements of the circles for Shotput, Hammer Throw and the Discus Throw?
Answer:
1. Shot put
2. 135 metres

2. Hammer throw

3.135 metres
3. Discus throw2.50 metres.

Question 19.
Describe the events on pentatholon and the Decatholon:
Answer:
(a) The following 5 events are included in pentatholon:

  1. Long Jump
  2. Javelin Throw
  3. 200 Metre race
  4. Discuss Throw
  5. 100 Metres Hurdles Race

(b) The following 10 events make up the decatholon:

  1. 100 Metres Race
  2. Long Jump
  3. Shot put
  4. High Jump
  5. Four hundred Metres Race
  6. 110 Metres Hurdles Race
  7. Discus Throw
  8. Pole Vault
  9. Javelin Throw
  10. 1500 Metres Race

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 20.
Describe the weight and ‘Length of Javelin’ for boys and girls?
Answer:
The weight of the Javelin is 800 gms. for boys and between 600 and 625 gms. for girls. The length of the Javelin for boys is between 2.60 and 2.70 metres where the same for girls is between 2.20 and 2.30 metres.

Question 21.
What is the weight of the shot for hoys and girls?
Answer:
The weight of the shot for boys is 6 kg. and for girls it is 4 kg.

Table Tennis 

Question 1.
Describe the length and width of the table in Table Tennis?
Answer:
The length of table of Table Tennis is 27. 4 cm. and breadth 15.25 cm.

Question 2.
How many types of games of Table Tennis is?
Answer:
I. Singles
II. Doubles.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Mention the number of players who take part in Table Tennis game?
Answer:
In singles there are two players, out of one actually plays the game and other is a substitute. In doubles there are three players, out of whom one is a substitute.

Question 4.
How is the game of Table Tennis started?
Answer:
A player who wins the toss decides for the service and loser for the side of the table.

Question 5.
Mention the length and height of the net of Table Tennis, game?
Answer:
The net is 183 cms. in length. Its upper part is at the height of 15.25 cms. from the playing surface.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
Mention the weight and circumference of the Table Tennis ball?
Answer:
The weight of Table Tennis ball is not less than 2.40 gm. and not more than 2.53 gm. Its diameter is not more than 38.2 mm, and not less than 37.2 mm.

Question 7.
Describe about the Racket of TableTennis game?
Answer:
Racket can be of any type of any weight but its surface must be of dark colour.

Question 8.
How shall we judge the correctness of the Table Tennis ball?
Answer:
When the Table Tennis ball is thrown downward from the height of 3.05 metres; it should bounce not less than 22 cms. and not more the 25 cms.

Question 9.
How many points are there in a game of Table Tennis?
Answer:
A player or pair who scores first 21 points shall win the game. If both the players or pairs score 20 points, then that player or pair shall be winner who scores 2 point before the other player or pair.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 10.
How are points scored in the game of Table Tennis and how is the game won?
Answer:
A player shall lose a point in case:

  1. He fails to deliver good service.
  2. He fails to deliver good return when his opponent has mad good service or return.
  3. He or his racket touches the net when the ball is in play.
  4. His free hand touches the playing surface when the ball is in play.
  5. He returns the ball with volley.
  6. In doubles, he strikes the ball out of turn.

Cricket 

Question 1.
How many players are there in a cricket Team?
Answer:
There are eleven players who actually play the game of cricket and five are substitutes.

Question 2.
Write the weight and diameter of a cricket ball?
Answer:
The weight of the cricket ball is from 155.9 Grams,(5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) ounces) to 163 grams (5 \(\frac{3}{4}\) ounce) and its diameter is from 22.4 cm (8 \(\frac{13}{16}\)“) to 22.9 cm. (9”).

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 3.
Write the number of officials who officiate in the cricket match?
Answer:
Umpires = 2. Scorers = 2.

Question 4.
Tell the length and breadth of a cricket bat?
Answer:
The length of a cricket bat is 96.5 cms. and breadth 10.8 ms.

Question 5.
Write the distance of cricket stumps from one another?
Answer:
20.21 metres or 22 yards.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 6.
What do you understand by dead ball in cricket?
Answer:
A ball becomes dead:

  1. when the bowler or wicket keeper holds the ball properly.
  2. when the ball reaches the boundry line or bounces outside the boundry.
  3. when the ball, without being played, lodges in the dress of a batsman or a bowler.
  4. when a batsman is out.
  5. if the umpire decides to stop the game after the bowler gets back the ball.
  6. On the call of “over” or ‘time’ by the umpire.

Question 7.
What is an ‘over’ in a cricket?
Answer:
In each over the ball is bowled six times, no ball and wide ball are not reckoned in an over. The number of extra balls bowled in an over shall be equal to the number of “no balls” in that over.If the umpire fail to remember the number of balls in over, the over considered by the umpire shall not be counted.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 8.
What do you understand by the following?

  1. No ball
  2. Wide ball
  3. Bye and leg bye
  4. Out of his Ground
  5. Batsman’s Retirement
  6. Bowled
  7. Catch
  8. Handle the ball
  9. Hit the ball twice
  10. Wicket is down or Hit wicked
  11. LBW (Leg Before Wicket)
  12. Obstructing the field
  13. Stumped
  14. Run out
  15. Wicket-keeper
  16. Fielder

Answer:
No Ball. While playing the ball if the front foot of the bowler goes ahead of the batting crease or cuts the returning crease, the umpire declares No Ball. After hitting the ball the batsman can make as many runs as possible. The runs made in this way will be added to the score. If no run has been made, only one run will be added to the score. By spreading one of his arms the umpire gives the signal of no ball.

Wide Ball:
The umpire declares a wide ball if the bowler bowls the ball high over or wide the wicket which, in the opinion of the umpire, is out of the reach of the batsman. The runs made during the wide ball are reckoned in the wide ball. If no run is attemped, it is reckoned one run. The umpire gives the signal of wide ball by spreading his both arms straight.

Bye and Leg-bye:
The umpire shall declare ‘bye’ if the properly bowled ball passes the batsman (striker), without touching his bat or body and the run is obtained. But it should not be no ball or wide ball. But if the ball touches any part of the striker’s body except his hands which hold the bat and any run is got, the umpire shall declare “leg-bye”.

Out of his Grond:
A batsman shall be reckoned to be out of his ground until some part of his bat in hand or of his person is grounded behind the ground of popping crease.

Batsman’s Retirement:
A batsman owing to illness or injury may retire at any time. He may bat but he will have to seek the permission of the captain of the opposing team to know his number of batting.

Bowled:
If the wicket is bowled down, the striker (batsman) is said to be bowled out, even if the ball has touched first his body or foot.

Catch:
If the ball from the stroke of a bat or of the hand holding the bat (not the wrist) is caught by a fields man before it touches the ground, the batsman is “caught out”. At the time of a catch both the feet of the fields man should be on the ground of the playfield. If the fieldman catches the ball out of the boundary line, the batsman is not reckoned to be out, but is awarded 6 runs. If the ball lodges in the pads of the wicket-keeper, the batsman shall be reckoned to be “caught out”.

Handle the Ball:
During play, if the batsmen touches the ball with his hand he shall be reckoned to be out – “handle the ball out”.

Hit the Ball Twice:
If the ball is struck or stopped by any part of the batsman’s body after it has been hit, and if the batsman deliberately strikes it again, he shall be out” The ball can be hit twice only to defend the wicket but the condition is that it must have been done to defend the wicket. If any run is made in this process, it is not counted.

Wicket is Down or Hit Wicket. If during the play, the batsman hits down his wicket with any parts of the bat or body, it is called “hit wicket out”. If the wicket falls down as a result of the fall of his cap or hat or any broken part of his bat, even then he shall be reckoned to be “hit wicket out”.

L.B.W. (Leg Before Wicket). The batsman is considered to be “L.B.W. out” when he tries to obstruct the ball with any part of his body before touching the ball with his bat, and in the opinion of the umpire, the ball and wicket are in a straight line. If the batsman had not obstructed the ball with any part of his body, the ball would have straight hit the wicket.

Obstructing the field:
If a batsman deliberately obstructs a fieldsman from catching the ball, he can be out “obstructing the field”.

Stumped:
A batsman is out of his ground if his bat in hand or his foot is not on the ground behind the supposed popping crease. The batsman is considered to be out stumped when the ball is not “no ball” and is bowled and the batsman goes out of his ground otherwise than attempting a run, and the wicket-keeper outstumps the wicket (removes the stumps placed over the wickets).

Run Out:
The batsman is run out when the ball is in play, the batsman goes out of his ground to score a run, and his wicket is put down by the opposite side. If batsman cross each other, that batsman will be considered to be “run out” who is running to the fallen wicket.

Wicket-keeper:
The wicket-keeper shall always remain behind the wickets untill a ball delivered by a bowler touches the bat or the body of the striker or passes the wicket or the batsman is “out”. He cannot catch the ball.

Fielders:
The fieldsman can stop the ball with any part of his body. He is not allowed to stop the ball with his cap. ff he does so, its penalty shall be four runs. In case no run has been made, four runs shall be added.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Practical Questions

Question 9.
What do you understand by the following:

  1. Mendatory over
  2. One-day match.

Answer:
Mandatory over:
On the last day of the match, one hour before the close of the match, the umpire signals about the mandatory over. After this, a game of 20 over is played. 6 Balls are bowled in an over. If it seems the match would be a draw, the game can be ended before the completion of these overs.

One-day Match:
There is a one-day national and international match, in which both the teams play in 40-40 or 50-50 overs. The team which scores more runs becomes the winner.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class English Book Solutions English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences Exercise Questions and Answers, Notes.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

Analyse the following sentences, selecting the Principal Clause and the Noun Clause. Also, state the function of the Noun Clause.

(A)

1. That Mohan was a doctor was not known to me.
2. Where the boys will stay is not yet known.
3. That Mohan will stand first is certain.
4. What cannot be cured must be endured.
5. Why the thief did not take away the gold is a mystery.
Answer:

Principal Clause Noun Clause
1. It was not known to me that Mohan was a doctor.
(Subject to the verb ‘was not known’.)
2. It is not known yet where the boys will stay.
(Subject to the verb ‘is not known’.)
3. It is certain that Mohan will stand first.
(Subject to the verb ‘is’.)
4. It must be endured what cannot be cured.
(Subject to the verb ‘must be endured’.)
5. It is a mystery why the thief did not take away the gold.
(Subject to the verb ‘is’.)

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

(B)

1. Ask Asha if Papa has come.
2. Can you tell me why Mohan is absent today?
3. I know that she loves music.
4. Tell me why you hate me.
5. I had never thought that your brother was so lazy.
Answer:

Principal Clause Noun Clause
1. Ask Asha if Papa has come.
(Object to the verb ‘ask’.)
2. Can you tell me why Mohan is absent today ?
(Object to the verb ‘tell’.)
3. I know that she loves music.
(Object to the verb ‘know’.)
4. Tell me why you hate me.
(Object to the verb ‘tell’.)
5. I had never thought that your brother was so lazy.
(Object to the verb ‘thought’.)

(C)

1. My fear was that Mohan would reach late.
2. Life is what you make it.
3. It seems that it will rain soon.
4. Things are not what they appear to be.
5. My firm belief is that Harpreet will stand first.
Answer:

Principal Clause Noun Clause
1. My fear was that Mohan would reach late.
(Complement to the verb ‘was’.)
2. Life is what you make it.
(Complement to the verb ‘is’.)
3. It seems that it will rain soon.
(Complement to the verb ‘seems’.)
4. Things are not what they appear to be.
(Complement to the verb ‘are’.)
5. My firm belief is that Harpreet will stand first.
(Complement to the verb ‘is’.)

(D)

1. Aren’t you ashamed of what you have done ?
2. She must listen to what her teacher says.
3. She agrees to whatever Mohan says.
4. There is no truth in what is stated by Asha.
5. Your success depends on how hard you work.
Answer:

Principal Clause Noun Clause
1. Aren’t you ashamed of what you have done ?
(Object to the preposition ‘of’)
2. She must listen to what her teacher says.
(Object to the preposition ‘to’.)
3. She agrees to whatever Mohan says.
(Object to the preposition ‘to’.)
4. There is no truth in what is stated by Asha.
(Object to the preposition ‘in’.)
5. Your success depends on how hard you work.
(Object to the preposition ‘on’.)

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

(E)

1. The statement that all students will get two rasgullas every day is not true.
2. The news that Sania Mirza has won is correct.
3. The story that Ram Nath kidnapped his own nephew has been confirmed.
4. It is true that boys are generally taller than girls.
5. The fact that Harbhajan is a cricketer is known to all.
Answer:

Principal Clause Noun Clause
1. The statement is not true that all students will get two rasgullas every day.
(In apposition to the noun ‘statement’.)
2. The news is correct that Sania Mirza has won.
(In apposition to the noun ‘news’.)
3. The story has been confirmed that Ram Nath kidnapped his own nephew.
(In apposition to the noun ‘story’.)
4. It is true that boys are generally taller than girls.
(In apposition to the pronoun ‘it’.)
5. The fact is known to all that Harbhajan is a cricketer.
(In apposition to the noun ‘fact’.)

(F)

1. Finding that the situation was getting worse, the police opened fire.
2. I went to the manager finding that I had been cheated by the company.
3. Thinking that he was a stranger to the city, I helped him.
4. Mohan left the meeting saying that he could not compromise with his principles.
5. We attacked the robber knowing that he was desperate to do anything.
Answer:

Principal Clause Noun Clause
1. The police opened fire finding that the situation was getting worse.
(Object to the participle ‘finding’.)
2. I went to the manager finding that I had been cheated by the company.
(Object to the participle ‘finding’.)
3. I helped him thinking that he was a stranger to the city.
(Object to the participle ‘thinking’.)
4. Mohan left the meeting saying that he could not compromise with his principles.    (Object to the participle ’saying’.)
5. We attacked the robber knowing that he was desperate to do anything.
(Object to the participle ‘knowing’.)

(G)

1. I want to confirm if he has a hand in it.
2. We asked him to explain what he had done.
3. She wants to know how the quarrel stafted.
4. I want to know for certain if you helped the thief.
5. I want to know why he stole the money.
Answer:

Principal Clause Noun Clause
1. I want to confirm if he has a hand in it.
(Object to the infinitive ‘to confirm’.)
2. We asked him to explain what he had done.
(Object to the infinitive ‘to explain’.)
3. She wants to know how the quarrel started.
(Object to the infinitive ‘to know’.)
4. I want to know for certain if you helped the thief.
(Object to the infinitive ‘to know’.)
5. I want to know why he stole the money.
(Object to the infinitive ‘to know’)

Pick out the Adjective Clauses from the following sentences and state the function of each.

1. She is the girl who helped me.
2. He killed the snake that bit his wife.
3. The habits that are formed in early age are difficult to break.
4. The furniture he gave us was worth nothing.
5. He who helps others is sure to be helped by God.
6. Such students as work hard are liked by all.
7. He who has no money has no friends.
8. This is the doctor who treated me.
9. This is the reason why she refused to marry Mohan.
10. There was not a single worker who did not go on strike.
11. I gave him such advice as was very useful.
12. Time once lost is lost for ever.
13. This is the school that the President visited.
14. I remember the village where I was born.
15. He is the man who displayed those magic tricks.
Answer:
The Adjective Clauses are :
1. ‘who helped me’ – Adjective Clause qaualifying the noun ‘girl’
2. ‘that bit his wife’ Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘snake?
3. ‘that are formed in early age’ – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘habits’.
4. ‘(that) he gave us’ – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘furniture’.
5. ‘who helps others’ – Adjective Clause qualifying the pronoun ‘he’.
6. as work hard. Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘students’.
7. ‘who has no money’ – Adjective Clause qualifying the pronoun ‘he’!
8. ‘who treated me’ – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘doctor’
9. ‘why she refused to marry Mohan’ – Adjective Clause qualifying the ‘noun reason’
10. ‘who did not go on strike’ – Adjective Clause qualifying he noun ‘worker’.
11. as was very useful – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘advice’.
12. (that is) once lost – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘time’.
13. that the President visited – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘school’.
14. where I was born – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘village’.
15. ‘who displayed those magic tricks’ – Adjective Clause qualifying the noun ‘man’.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

Pick out the Adverb Clause from each of the following sentences and state the function of each.

(A)

1. Look before you leap.
2. No sooner did the train stop than the boys jumped out.
3. Strike the iron while it is hot.
4. The plane had landed before I reached the airport.
5. As long as you work hard, we will not throw you out.
Answer:
1. before you leap’—Adverb clause showing time.
2. No sooner did the train stop? Adverb clause showing time.
3. While it is hot’ –Adverb clause showing time.
4. before I reached the airport-Adverb clause showing time.
5. As long as you work hard-Adverb clause showing time.

(B)

1. The boat sailed where the wind took it.
2. Send the scooter where it came from.
3. I’ll go with you wherever you go.
4. He gets into trouble wherever he goes.
5. Buy this book wherever you find it.
Answer:
1. where the wind took it-Adverb clause showing place.
2. where it came from –Adverb clause showing place.
3. ‘wherever you goʻ–Adverb clause showing place.
4. ‘wherever he goes’-Adverb clause showing place.
5. wherever you find it-Adverb clause showing place.

(C)

1. Since you are late, I cannot let you in.
2. You will pass the examination because you are working hard.
3. I respect her because she is kind to me.
4. I am glad that you have acted honestly.
5. He is afraid that he may be punished.
Answer:
1. “Since you are late’-Adverb clause showing reason.
2. because you are working hard-Adverb clause showing reason.
3. because she is kind to me-Adverb clause showing reason.
4. that you have acted honestly–Adverb clause showing reason.
5. that he may be punished-Adverb clause showing reason.

(D)

1. I’ll help her provided she works hard.
2. If Mohan comes late, the teacher will punish him.
3. He won’t get the book unless he comes to me.
4. If it rains, we shall stay indoors.
5. If the bus is late, we will take a taxi.
Answer:
1. ‘provided she works hard’-Adverb clause showing condition.
2. If Mohan comes late’-Adverb clause showing condition.
3. ‘unless he comes to me-Adverb clause showing condition.
4. If it rains’-Adverb clause showing condition..
5. If the bus is late-Adverb clause showing condition.

(E)

1. Mohan is as active as he is hard-working.
2. As you sow, so shall you reap.
3. Dress as you like.
4. I know French better than you do.
5. He behaves as if he was mad.
Answer:
1. as he is hard-working-Adverb clause showing extent.
2. As you sow-Adverb clause showing manner.
3. as you like’-Adverb clause showing manner.
4. better than you do’-Adverb clause showing comparison.
5. ‘as if he was mad-Adverb clause showing manner.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

(F)

1. No matter how hard up she is, she cannot be mean.
2. We shall go ahead with this business even if we suffer a great loss.
3. Although he tried hard, he did not succeed.
4. You cannot pass however hard you may try.
5. Papa did not agree though I requested him time and again.
Answer:
1. No matter how hard up she is’ — Adverb clause showing contrast.
2. ‘even if we suffer a great loss — Adverb clause showing contrast.
3. Although he tried hard’ – Adverb clause showing contrast.
4. however hard you may try – Adverb clause showing contrast.
5. though I requested him time and again’ – Adverb clause showing contrast.

Sentences तीन प्रकार के होते हैं :

1. Simple Sentence (सरल वाक्य)-जिस वाक्य की केवल एक ही Clause हो, उसे Simple Sentence कहा जाता है; जैसे
1. The boy broke his leg.
2. She washed her clothes.
3. Mohan stood first in his class.
4. I wrote a letter to my father.

2. Compound Sentence (संयुक्त वाक्य) -जिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक अनाश्रित Clauses हों, उसे Compound Sentence कहा जाता है, उदाहरण के रूप में
1. Sita saw Rama and she became happy.
2. You must work hard or you will fail.
3. Many were called, but few were chosen.
4. The sun rose and the fog disappeared.
Compound Sentence की प्रत्येक Clause को Co-ordinate Clause कहा जाता है।

3. Complex Sentence (मिश्रित वाक्य) – जिस वाक्य में एक मुख्य वाक्य (Principal
Clause) हो तथा एक या एक से अधिक आश्रित वाक्य (Subordinate Clauses) हों, उसे Complex Sentence कहा जाता है।
Principal Clause को Main Clause भी कहा जाता है। Subordinate Clause को Dependent Clause भी कहा जाता है।

Kinds Of Subordinate Clauses

Subordinate Clauses तीन प्रकार की होती हैं :
1. Noun Clause
2. Adjective Clause
3. Adverb Clause

1. Noun Clause : किसी Complex Sentence में जो पद एक संज्ञा (Noun) का कार्य कर रहा हो, उसे Noun Clause कहा जाता है।
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में तिरछे छपे हुए शब्द-समूह Noun Clause बनाते हैं :
1. That John was a thief was not known to me.
2. He was told that he must not be late again.
3. Learning that my brother had received serious injuries, I left for Shimla.

2. Adjective Clause : किसी Complex Sentence में जो पद किसी विशेषण (Adjective) का कार्य कर रहा हो, उसे Adjective Clause कहा जाता है। निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में तिरछे छपे हुए शब्द-समूह Adjective Clause बनाते हैं :
1. The company that supplied goods has failed.
2. The house where my brother lives has been sold.
3. The complaint which he made against me is false.

3. Adverb Clause : किसी Complex Sentence में जो पद किसी क्रिया-विशेषण (Adverb) का कार्य कर रहा हो, उसे Adverb Clause कहा जाता है। निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में तिरछे छपे हुए. शब्द-समूह Adverb Clause बनाते हैं :
1. When the cat is away, the mice will play.
2. Where there is a will, there is a way.
3. You should act as the doctor advises you.
अब हम Complex Sentence के सम्बन्ध में प्रत्येक प्रकार की Clause का विस्तारपूर्वक अध्ययन करेंगे।

Noun Clause

Noun Clause (संज्ञा उपवाक्य)- जिस उपवाक्य का प्रयोग प्रधान वाक्य के किसी शब्द के साथ सम्बन्ध रखने वाली संज्ञा के रूप में किया जाये, उसे Noun Clause कहा जाता है। यह संज्ञा निम्नलिखित अवस्थाओं में हो सकती हैं :
1. Subject to a Verb.
2. Object to a Verb.
3. Object to a Participle.
4. Object to an Infinitive.
5. Object to a Preposition.
6. Complement to a Verb.
7. In apposition to a Noun.
8. In apposition to a Pronoun.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

अब हम प्रत्येक प्रकार की Noun Clause का विस्तारपूर्वक अध्ययन करेंगे।

1. Subject to a Verb.
1. How she reached there is a mystery.
2. That Vinod was a thief was not known to me.
3. Whether he did so is doubtful.

2. Object to a Verb.
1. He was told that he must not be late again.
2. He asked her how old she was.
3. I always do whatever is right.

3. Object to a Participle.
1. He went there thinking that he might be able to help him.
2. Seeing that the child was drowning, I jumped into the canal.
3. Fearing that he should be late, he ran all the way to the station.

4. Object to an Infinitive.
1. I was shocked to hear that his only son had died.
2. I want to know what you are doing here.
3. He came to ask if I was going to school.

5. Object to a Preposition.
1. Listen to what your teacher says.
2. The horse will sell for what it costs.
3. They were arguing about who should do it.

6. Complement to a Verb.
1. The fact is that he knows nothing
2. We are what we think.
3. It seems that he will be a great man one day.

नोट : be (is, am, are, was, were, been), seem, look, appear, become, आदि Linking Verbs के बाद प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्द अथवा पद Complement कहलाते हैं।

7. In apposition to a Noun.
1. They took a vow that they would die for their motherland.
2. He fufilled his promise that he would help me.
3. The rumour that war has broken out is not true.

8. In apposition to the Pronoun “it.
1. It is true that he is honest.
2. See to it that the boy is not hurt.
3. It is unfortunate that he has failed.

Adjective Clause

Adjective Clause (विशेषण उपवाक्य)-जो उपवाक्य प्रधान वाक्य के किसी शब्द के सम्बन्ध में विशेषण का काम कर रहा हो, उसे Adjective Clause कहा जाता है। Adjective Clause दो अवस्थाओं में हो सकती है।

1. Qualifying a Noun.
2. Qualifying a Pronoun. अब हम प्रत्येक प्रकार की Adjective Clause का विस्तारपूर्वक अध्ययन करेंगे।

1. Qualifying a Noun.
1. The company that supplied the goods has failed.
2. The house where your brother lived has been sold.
3. The complaint he made against me is false.

2. Qualifying a Pronoun.
1. There was none but wept.
2. He that climbs too high is liable to fall.
3. All that glitters is not gold.

Adjective Clause के प्रयोग के सम्बन्ध में ध्यान रखने योग्य कुछ ज़रूरी बातें :

(1) Adjective clause को Principal clause के साथ जोड़ने के लिए प्रायः निम्नलिखित sentence linkers का प्रयोग किया जाता है

(a) Relative Pronouns : Who, whom, whose (+ noun), that, which, as, but.
1. The boys who are playing there are my students.
2. He is the man whom I gave my book.
3. She is the girl whose book was stolen.
4. You can take the pen which you like.
5. He has cut down the tree that grew in your field.
6. Nothing but hard work pays in the long run.

(b) Relative Adverbs : When, where, why.
1. We saw the house where he was born.
2. He met me on the day when I was leaving for Mumbai.
3. I told her the reason why she had failed.

(2) Who, whom तथा whose का प्रयोग मनुष्य-जाति के लिए किया जाता है; जैसे
1. He who works hard will succeed.
2. She is the girl whom I gave my books.
3. There stands the boy whose purse has been stolen.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

(3) Whose का प्रयोग कई बार निर्जीव वस्तुओं के लिए भी कर लिया जाता है; जैसे
1. Draw a triangle whose sides are equal.
2. This is the house whose owner has died.

(4) Which का प्रयोग जानवरों और निर्जीव वस्तुओं के लिए किया जाता है; जैसे
1. The dog which bit him has been killed.
2. This is the watch which I wanted to buy.

(5) That का प्रयोग मनुष्य-जाति के लिए, जानवरों के लिए और निर्जीव वस्तुओं के लिए भी किया जा सकता हैजैसे
1. Happy is the man that (= who) is honest.
2. This is the house that (= which) I wanted to buy.
3. The man that (= whom) we were looking for has arrived.

किन्तु यह बात ध्यान रखने योग्य है कि that का प्रयोग whose, of which, in which, to whom, आदि के स्थान पर नहीं किया जा सकता है। यदि Relative Pronoun से पूर्व-स्थित संज्ञा बिना बताए ही स्पष्ट (understood) हो और वह नपुंसक लिंग की हो, तो Relative Pronoun के रूप में which की बजाए what का प्रयोग किया जाता है। जैसे

1. I cannot tell you what has happened. [what = the thing which]
2. I have brought what he wanted. [what = the thing(s) which]

Adverb Clause

Adverb Clause किया विशेषण उपवाक्य : जो उपवाक्य प्रधान वाक्य के किसी सब्द के सम्बन्ध में क्रिया-विशेषण का काम कर रहा हो, उसे Adverb Clause कहा जाता है। यह विशेषता निम्नलिखित
1. Time
2. Place
3. Purpose
4. Reason
5. Condition
6. Result
7. Comparison
8. Contrast
9. Manner
10. Extent.

अब हम प्रयेक प्रकार की Adverb Clause का विस्तारपूर्वक अध्ययन करेंगे

1. Showing Time.
1. When the cat is away, the mice will play.
2. Wait here till I return.
3. As soon as she saw her father, she began to cry.

2. Showing Place.
1. I went where he led me.
2. You can go wherever you like.
3. Where there is a will, there is a way.

3. Showing Purpose.
1. People work so that they may earn a living.
2. He died in order that freedom might live.
3. He ran fast lest he should miss the train.

4. Showing Reason.
1. He is unable to attend school because he is ill.
2. I cannot see you as I am not keeping well.
3. Since you are over fourteen, you will have to pay full fare.

5. Showing Condition.
1. If you work hard, you will succeed.
2. I will not go there unless you accompany me.
3. In case you come to me, I will help you.

6. Showing Result (or Effect).
1. It was so dark that we could hardly see a foot before us.
2. He is so weak that he cannot move about.
3. He is such a dull boy that he cannot understand it.

7. Showing Comparison.
1. He is as intelligent as his brother.
2. You are stronger than I am.
3. I can run faster than you.

8. Showing Contrast.
1. Although he is poor, he is honest.
2. The teacher gave him pass marks, though he deserved less.
3. Weak as he is, he does his duty.

PSEB 10th Class English Grammar Simple, Complex and Compound Sentences

9. Showing Manner.
1. You should follow me as I follow him.
2. He ran as if he were mad.
3. You should act as the doctor advises.

10. Showing Extent.
1. So far as I know, he has left the place.
2. The more you have, the more you want.
3. The higher you go, the cooler it is.

Dumbbell Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Dumbbell Game Rules.

Dumbbell Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
What are Dumbbells? Write about its types.
Answer:
Dumbbell:
Dumbbell is an ancient Indian method of exercise, which can be performed indoor or outdoor.
Dumbbell is of two types-
(1) Iron Dumbbell
(2) Wooden Dumbbell: The dumbbell is very thick and heavy and in the middle, it is very thin. Hold the handle and struck them with each other, so the voice 1 may be produced. In this exercise position one, position two, position three and positions are performed.
Dumbbell Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1
2. Body position while doing dumbbell:
The ankle should close and the finger should be open, knee and leg should be straight. The shoulder keeping backward and chest should be straight’ while doing, dumbbell from rest position to attention position and attention to rest position catch the dumbbell in both hands. The leader command the attention position, on the direction of the leader, student acquire the attention position, while folding the dumbbell v both hands and raising the hand upward.

Dumbbell Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Bend the dumbbell towards the elbow and bring the dumbbell from left hand to right hand. When the dumbbell meet each other, the noise is created, after this the leader in other vishram position. Student raise his right hand and keeping the dumbbell near the earth and make the noise. They will bring both dumbbell at the back and make the noise together. After this, on order of attention, the student should bend the elbow and strike the dumbbell with each other.

In this position, acquire the attention position. The ankle should be meet each other and finger should be spread out. In this way, noise created by striking each other. Second position is changed from first position, keeping both the hand straight in front of the body.

The palm should be pointed towards the earth, in the position dumbbell strick again. After coming third position is changed. From third position we gained first position. In this position, the palm of the hand should be upward, bring the hand near the chin and strike dumbbell each other and remain the attention position.

The exercise should be performed by counting sixteen. In exercise, there are four positions-

  1. First Position
  2. Second Position
  3. Third Position
  4. Fourth Position.

1. First Position:
In first position, student will remain in attention position. By folding raise the hand upward and bring the hand near the chin. In this position, palm and the dumbbell strike with each other.

2. Second Position:
In second position, this position is very mentioning. The arm should bring downward from upward and bring the arm backward. In this position, again dumbbell is strike with each other.

Dumbbell Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

3. Third Position:
In third position, hand should be moved, after straight the both hands, the elbow should be near the body, again in this position dumbbell strike.

4. Fourth Position:
In fourth position, student came in attention position and bring the both hands with dumbbell near the body.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 10-15 words :

Question 1.
When was Ranjit Singh born? What was his father’s name?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was born on November 13, 1780 at Gujranwala. Sardar Mahan Singh was his father. He was the chief of the Sukerchakiya Misl.

Question 2.
Who was Mehtab Kaur?
Answer:
Mehtab Kaur was Ranjit Singh’s wife. She was the daughter of Gurbax Singh and grand daughter of Jai Singh of Kanheya Misl.

Question 3.
Which Era is termed as the Patronage of Trio?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a minor when his father, Mahan Singh died. Therefore, from 1792 to 1797 A.D., the reins of the Sukarchakiya Misl remained in the hands of Raj Kaur (his mother), Sada Kaur (his mother-in-law) and Dewan Lakhpat Rai. This period is called the period of Trio.

Question 4.
Why did the residents of Lahore invite Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore?
Answer:
Lahore was ruled by three Bhangi sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these sardars. So – they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore.

Question 5.
Name the Sardars who were against Ranjit Singh in the Battle of Bhasin.
Answer:
Gulab Singh of Amritsar. Sahib Singh of Gujrat, Jodh Singh of Wazirabad and -Jassa Singh of Ramgarhia Misl were opposed to Ranjit Singh in the Battle of Bhasin.

Question 6.
Why did Maharaja Ranjit Singh attack Amritsar and Lohgarh?
Answer:
Amritsar had become the religious capital of the Sikhs. Similarly Lohgarh had military importance. Ranjit Singh attacked Amritsar and Lohgarh to capture them.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 7.
Of which Misl was Tara Singh Gheba the leader?
Answer:
Tara Singh Gheba was the leader of Dallewalia Misl. He was a very brave and powerful Misl Chief.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Write about Ranjit Singh’s childhood and education.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was the only son of his parents. In his childhood, he was brought up with great care. When he was five years old, he was sent for receiving education to the Dharmshala of Bhai Bhagu Singh at Gujranwala. But he showed no interest in studies. He, therefore, remained unlettered throughout his life. Thus most of his time was spent in hunting and other amusements. In his childhood, he had become a good swordsman and a horseman. He had been the victim of smallpox in his childhood. Thus, due to this terrible disease, he lost his left eye.

Question 2.
Describe the events of bravery of Ranjit Singh’s childhood.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh had all the qualities of a brave warrior. He was just 10 years old, when he began to fight in the battles along with his father and fought very bravely. At the age of 11, one day he, while hunting, Hashmat Khan, an enemy of his father finding him all alone, attacked him. Ranjit Singh faced Hashmat Khan very bravely and killed him on the spot. These events show the bravery of Ranjit Singh in his childhood.

Question 3.
Describe the events of occupation of Lahore by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore at the very first opportunity. In those days, Lahore was under the rule of three Bhangi sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these sardars. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore. Ranjit Singh lost no time in attacking Lahore with a large army. On hearing the news of the attack, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh fled away. Only Chet Singh feebly resisted Ranjit Singh’s army. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 4.
Write the significance of the conquest of Amritsar.
Answer:
The importance of the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh was as under:

  • It was the religious capital of the Sikhs. Its occupation raised the prestige of Ranjit Singh.
  • As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, the military power of Ranjit Singh increased.
    The fort of Lohgarh proved to be a boon for Ranjit Singh. He got the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan.
  • Ranjit Singh got the services of Akali Phool Singh and his 2000 Nihang comrades. Because of the extraordinary courage and bravery of the Nihangs, Ranjit Singh won many glorious victories.
  • As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh’s name and fame spread far and wide. Many Indians gave up the jobs of the East India Company and got employment with Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Many European soldiers also joined the army of the Maharaja.

Question 5.
How did Maharaja Ranjit Singh occupy friendly Misls?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a great diplomat. He befriended the rulers of Ahluwalia, Kanahiya and Ramgarhia Misls. Finding a suitable opportunity, he captured these Misls.

Following is the description of the conquests of these Misls by Ranjit Singh:

  1. Occupation of the Kanahiya Misl. The Kanahiya Misl was led by the mother- in-law of Ranjit Singh. In 1812 A.D., Ranjit Singh got from her many regions of this Misl except Wadni.
  2. Capture of the Ramgarhia Misl. The leader of this Misl was Jodh Singh Ramgarhia. He died in 1815 A.D. and Ranjit Singh merged all his territories in his state.
  3. Ahluwalia Misl. In 1826 A.D., Ranjit Singh broke his relations with Fateh Singh of Ahluwalia Misl. As a result, he captured many territories of Ahluwalia Misl. But in 1827 A.D., they became Mends again.

Question 6.
Write the consequences of the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The conquest of Multan was an important military achievement of Ranjit Singh. The significance of this victory can be known from the following facts :
1. A Death blow to the Afghan Power. It is aptly said that “the conquest of Multan ended the Afghan influence in the Punjab.” Ranjit Singh completely smashed the power of the Afghans.

2. Commercial and Strategic Advantages. The victory of Multan was also important from the commercial as well as military point of view. Trade with Sindh and Afghanistan began to be carried on through this route. Consequently, the trade in Punjab made much progress. In addition to this, Multan was situated on the route from Delhi to Kandhar.

3. Increase in the Revenue. The victory of Multan also increased the income of Ranjit Singh. It is estimated that Ranjit Singh received an income of about 7 lakh rupees a year only from the Multan town.

4. Increase in the Prestige of Ranjit Singh. With the victory of Multan, the fame of Ranjit Singh spread in all the four corners of the Punjab.

Question 7.
Describe thle battle of Attock.
Answer:
An understanding was reached between Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan of Kabul in 1813 A.D. It was decided that Ranjit Singh would send 12 thousand soldiers to help Fateh Khan for the conquest of Kashmir and Fateh Khan, in return, would give him one- third of the conquered territories in addition to the booty of war. Besides, Ranjit Singh promised to help Fateh Khan in his conquest of Attock, whereas Fateh Khan would help Ranjit Singh in the conquest of Multan.

The combined forces of Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan conquered Kashmir with great ease but Fateh Khan did not fulfil his promise. He did not pay him anything out of the money looted by him by the conquest of Kashmir. Ranjit Singh attacked Attock in a fury (according to the treaty, Fateh Khan was to occupy Attock). His commander-in-chief Azizuddin took Attock from Jahandad Khan and gave him one lakh rupees and a big jagir. Fateh Khan could not tolerate this. He attacked Attock with a big army immediately. A furious battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Hazro near Attock. The Sikhs came out victorious in this battle.

Question 8.
Write about the question of Sindh.
Answer:
The Sindh region, being situated on the South-western front of Lahore, had a great military importance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government understood well the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent one of its navigators Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission, so that he could not judge the intentions of the British. Although the nature of this Mission was friendly, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 9.
What was the question of Shikarpur?
Answer:
On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh was waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe attacked the border regions of Lahore kingdom. Ranjit Singh tried to capture Shikarpur by holding the Amirs of Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent troops to check Ranjit Singh from occupying Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh had to withdraw his forces.

Question 10.
Write about the events related to Ferozepur.
Answer:
The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the relations between Ranjit Singh and the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D. Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him capture it. The British Government itself occupied Ferozepur in 1835 A.D. and after three years, made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

Answer the following questions in about 100-120 words :

Question 1.
How did Ranjit Singh conquer the weak Misls?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh was a shrewd politician. He befriended the rulers of powerful Misls. He started occupying the territories of weak misls with their help. From 1800 to 1811 A.D., he conquered the following Misls :
1. Conquest of Akalgarh (1801 A.D.). In 1801 A.D. after the battle of Bhasin, Dal Singh of Akalgarh (maternal uncle of Ranjit Singh’s father) and Sahib Singh of Gujarat started preparations for the attack on Lahore. When Ranjit Singh, came to know about it, he attacked Akalgarh and made Dal Singh a prisoner. Soon after this, Dal Singh was released and he died after some time. Ranjit Singh annexed his territory into his Kingdom. He gave a small tract of land to the widow of Dal Singh.

2. Occupation of Chaniot (1802 A.D.). Chaniot was under Jassa Singh, son of Karam Singh. In 1802 A.D., with the help of Fateh Singh Ahluwalia, Maharaja Ranjit Singh attacked Chaniot. Jassa Singh was defeated and Ranjit Singh occupied Chaniot.

3. Conquest of Malwa by Ranjit Singh (1806 A.D.). In 1806 A.D., there arose a quarrel between Raja Sahib Singh of Patiala and Raja Jaswant Singh of Nabha on the question of the Doladhi village. Jaswant Singh, through the medium of Raja Bhag Singh of Jind, invited Ranjit Singh to settle their dispute. Ranjit Singh attacked the Malwa region. He brought twenty thousand horsemen with him. Fateh Singh Ahluwalia stood by the Maharaja in capturing the Doladhi village, Ranjit Singh proceeded towards Patiala. He got a large amount of Nazrana from the rulers of Patiala, Nabha and Jind. On his way back, Ranjit Singh also occupied Ludhiana, Raikot, Jagraon and Ghungrana.

In 1807 A.D. Ranjit Singh attacked Malwa for the second time. The Raja of Patiala, Sahib Singh and his wife Aas Kaur were on bad terms. Ranjit Singh got a chance to interfere in their internal affairs. On reaching Patiala, he got a heavy amount as ‘Nazrana’ from Sahib Singh of Patiala. After this, he captured the areas of Naraingarh, Wadni, Zira and Kotkapura. He also got Nazrana from the rulers of Kaithal, Shahbad, Ambala, Kalsian and Malerkotla.

4. Conquest of the Dallehwalia Misl. The leader of the Dallehwalia Misl, Tara Singh Gheba was quite powerful. So Ranjit Singh could not conquer this Misl while he was alive. After Tara Singh’s death in 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh defeated his widow at Rahon and captured all the territories of the Dallehwalia Misl.

5. Conquest of Sialkot (1808 A.D.). Jeewan Singh was the ruler of Sialkot. Maharaja Ranjit Singh demanded the territory of Sialkot from him. On his refusal, Ranjit Singh attacked Sialkot. Jeewan Singh surrendered. Maharaja merged Sialkot into his kingdom.

6. Conquest of Gujpat. At the time of Ranjit Singh’s, attack on Lahore, its Bhangi ruler Sahib Singh had run away’. Now he was ruling over the regions of Jalalpur, Islamgarh and Gujrat. The income from these regions was very high. To conquer them, Ranjit Singh attacked Sahib Singh. Sahib Singh was defeated. Ranjit Singh granted him a Jagir and annexed all his territories to his kingdom.

7. Conquest of Karorsinghia Misl. Kahan Singh ruled over Karorsinghia Misl. Ranjit Smgh asked him to come to his court. On his refusal, Ranjit Singh seized all his territories.

8. Conquest of the Fazalpuria Misl. Budh Singh ruled over the Fazalpuria Misl and it was spread on either side of the river Sutlej. Ranjit Singh first asked him to surrender. But when he refused, Ranjit Singh forcibly merged all his territories into his kingdom in 1811 A.D. These regions included Doab, Jalandhar, Hetpur and Patti.

9. Conquest of the Nakai Misl. This Misl was also ruled by the ruler of Karorsinghia Misl, Kahan Singh. When in 1807 A.D. Ranjit Singh defeated him, he also captured the Nakai Misl along with the Karorsinghia Misl.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Kashmir by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Kashmir, for its charming beauty and green scenery, was known as the ‘Paradise on Earth’. Naturally, Ranjit Singh was lured to capture it. He wanted to make his kingdom a heaven on the earth.

For this, he made the following efforts :
1. Pact with Kabul and Wazir Fateh Khan. In 1811-12 A.D. Ranjit Singh’s forces captured Bhimbar and Rajauwri near Kashmir. Now they wanted to attack the Kashmir valley. But at the same time Fateh Khan, the Wazir of Kabul also planned to capture Kashmir. Both Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan met at a place known as Rohtas on the banks of the Jhelum in 1813 A.D. A treaty was concluded between the two according to which the combined forces of both the parties would attack Kashmir.

According to it, Ranjit Singh was to get Rs. 9 lakhs from the spoils of the war and Fateh Khan was also to help him in the conquest of Multan. After the terms were settled, a 12000 strong Sikh force under the command of Dewan Mohkam Chand advanced towards Kashmir from the side of Jhelum along with the forces of Kabul. But Fateh Khan did not want, that any credit for this expedition should go to the Sikh army. He left the Sikh forces behind and himself with his army entered the Kashmir valley. Atta Mohammad Khan of Kashmir faced the enemy at a place named Shergarh. Fateh Khan, without the help of Sikh forces, defeated Atta Mohammad Khan. But Ranjit Singh wras not such a man as to bear all this rebuff.

2. Attack on Kashmir. In June 1814, Ram Dayal, a grandson of Diwan Mohkam Chand was given the command of the Kashmir expedition. The Sikh forces attacked Kashmir. At that time, Azim Khan, the brother of Fateh Khan was the Subedar of Kashmir. He made preparations to face this invasion. The forces under the command of Ram Dayal passed through the Pir Panchal Pass and entered the Kashmir valley. Azim Khan attacked the Sikh forces. The Sikh soldiers had to face misfortunes. Even then Ram Dayal faced the enemy bravely. At last, both the parties started negotiations for peace.

3. Occupation of Kashmir 1819 A.D. After the conquest of Multan in 1818 A.D., the Sikh forces were much encouraged. So Ranjit Singh began to plan the third invasion of Kashmir. Azim Khan the Subedar of Kashmir had gone to Afghanistan. Ranjit Singh thought of availing of this opportunity and under the command of Misar Dewan Chand sent 12000 Sikh soldiers to Kashmir. The second contingent under Kharak Singh, (Ranjit Singh’s son) was also sent to Kashmir and the third contingent under Ranjit Singh himself also set out for Wazirabad. Misar Dewan Chand reached Bhimber and captured Rajauri, Pir Panchal and Poonchh. After this, the Sikh forces entered Kashmir. Jabbar Khan faced the Sikh army at Sopavan. On the 5th July 1819, the Sikh army captured the forts of Sri Nagar, Shergarh and Agungarh. Thus Ranjit Singh came out victorious and consequently he annexed Kashmir in 1819. Ranjit Singh appointed Diwan Moti Ram, the son of Diwan Mohkam Chand, as the Governor of Kashmir.

Importance. The conquest of Kashmir is important due to the following reasons:

  • The victory of Kashmir increased the prestige of Ranjit Singh,
  • Kashmir was a good source of income and its annexation brought Ranjit Singh an annual income of Rs. 36 lakh,
  • The conquest of Kashmir put an end to the power and prestige of the Afghans.

Question 3.
Describe the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The territory of Multan was important both from the military and commercial viewpoint. The story of the conquest of Multan by Ranjit Singh is briefly given as under :
1. First Expedition. It was in 1802 A.D. that Ranjit Singh attacked Multan for the first time. Muzzaffar Khan ‘“the Nawab of Multan” gave a heavy amount of money to Ranjit Singh and agreed to pay an annual tribute. Thus Ranjit Singh returned home without a battle but with a huge sum of money.

2. Second Expedition. Muzzaffar Khan had agreed to pay an annual tribute to Ranjit Singh but he did not send Nazrana to him. Consequently, Ranjit Singh launched his second expedition against Multan in 1805 A.D. But when Ranjit Singh received the news that the Maratha chief Jaswant Rao Holkar, after being defeated by the British, had entered Punjab, he had to return to Lahore.

3. Third Expedition (1807 A.D.). In 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh sent his third expedition against Multan. The Sikh army captured some territory of Multan. But the Nawab of Bahawalpur acted as a mediator and a peace treaty was concluded between them.

4. Fourth Expedition. On February 24, 1810, the army of Maharaja occupied some parts of Multan. On February 25, the Sikh forces besieged the fort of Multan. But on the one hand, the food supplies of the Sikhs were being exhausted rapidly and on the other hand, Dewan Mohkam Chand also fell ill. Under these circumstances, Ranjit Singh was forced to lift the siege of the fort.

5. Fifth Expedition (1816 A.D.). In 1816 A.D. the Maharaja sent Akali Phoola Singh along with a large army to collect the revenue from the rulers of Multan and Bahawalpur. He was able to occupy the suburbs of Multan. The Nawab of Multan, therefore, concluded a pact with Akali Phoola Singh.

6. Final Expedition (1818). (i) The Sikh forces under the command of Dewan Bhawani Dass, attacked Multan but could not succeed, (ii) In January 1818 the Sikh army consisting of 20,000 soldiers under the command of Misar Dewan Chand attacked Multan. Nawab Muzzaffar Khan with 2,000 soldiers entered the fort. After capturing the city, the Sikh soldiers laid a siege to the fort. At last, Sohan Singh along with his few chosen companions was -successful in entering the fort through the Khizri gate. Thus the Sikhs finally captured Multan in 1818. The civil administration was entrusted to Sukh Dayal and the work of the supervision of the military administration was assigned to Baj Singh. Jamadar Khushal Singh was appointed as the Chief Police Commissioner. Dewan Sawan Mai was appointed as the Subedar of Multan.

Importance:

  • With the victory of Multan, the fame of Ranjit Singh spread to all the four corners of the Punjab,
  • The victory of Multan gave a death blow to the Afghan power.
  • The victory of Multan strengthened the economic position of Ranjit Singh. The trade in Punjab made much progress,
  • The Muslims of Sindh and Bahawalpur were separated permanently from each other. In future, they would not be in a position to forge a united front against Ranjit Singh.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 4.
Describe the conquest of Peshawar by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Peshawar had special strategic importance as it was situated on the north-western frontier of the Punjab. Because of its geographical situation, it had great importance from military point of view.

After Multan’s conquest, Ranjit Singh paid his attention to Peshawar. He wanted to capture Peshawar.
1. First Expedition against Peshawar in 1818 A.D. Lawlessness was prevailing in the state of Kabul. Ranjit Singh exploited this situation. He, alongwith Akali Phoola Singh and Hari Singh Nalwa, marched towards Peshawar. His army was greatly opposed by the Khatak tribe. But the Sikh soldiers defeated it and captured the forts of Khairabad and Jahangira. Next, the Sikh forces advanced towards Peshawar. At that time, Yaar Mohammad Khan was the ruler of Peshawar. On November 20, 1818 A.D. Ranjit Singh was able to occupy Peshawar without any difficulty. But he realised that in order to annex Peshawar to his kingdom, he lacked sufficient power. Therefore, he appointed Jahandad Khan, the ex-Governor of Attock, as the Governor of Peshawar and himself returned to Lahore.

2. Second Invasion of Peshawar. When the Sikh forces returned to Lahore, Yaar Mohammad Khan fell upon Jahandad Khan and compelled him to run away. Ranjit Singh sent a force of 12,000 soldiers under the command of prince Kharak Singh and Misar Diwan Chand to attack Peshawar. But Yaar Mohammad Khan did not deem it proper to fight against the Sikhs and accepted Ranjit Singh’s suzerainty.

3. Third Invasion of Peshawar. In the meantime, Azim Khan the new Wazir of Kabul attacked Peshawar. In January, 1823, he defeated Yaar Mohammad Khan and occupied Peshawar. When Ranjit Singh came to know about it, he despatced a big army under his able generals including Hari Singh Nalwa, Prince Sher Singh and Attar Singh Atariwala. Azim Khan declared a Jehad or crusade against the Sikhs. On March 14, 1823 A.D. fierce battles took place between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Naushehra and Tibba, (also called Tibba Tehri). Akali Phoola Singh lost his life in this battle. Then the Sikh forces saw Ranjit Singh himself in the battle-field. His presence there awakened the spirit of self-confidence among the Sikh soldiers. Soon the Sikhs defeated Azim Khan.

4. Crushing the revolt of Sayyed Ahmed. Sayyed Ahmed a Wahabi leader organised a big army and declared Jehad (a religious war) against the Sikhs. Ranjit Singh firmly resolved to crush this revolt. In 1829 A.D. Sayyed Ahmed attacked Peshawar. Yaar Mohammad, who was under the Maharaja, could not face him. In the meantime, prince Sher Singh defeated Sayyed Ahmad in the battle of Balakot.

5. Annexation of Peshawar to the kingdom of Lahore. After 1831 A.D, Maharaja Ranjit Singh planned to bring Peshawar under his control. In 1834, he sent a large army under prince Naunihal Singh, Hari Singh Nalwa and General Ventura to conquer Peshawar. They besieged the fort and the city. But the Sikh army met with no opposition and it captured the city. Ranjit Singh annexed Peshawar to his kingdom and appointed Hari Singh Nalwa as the Governor of Peshawar.

6. Unsuccessful attempts by Dost Mohammad to recover Peshawar. In 1834 A.D. Dost Mohammad Khan, the Amir of Kabul, resolved to get back Peshawar from the Sikhs. Hari Singh Nalwa was engaged in getting the fort of Jamrud repaired. This fort could prove to be a danger to Dost Mohammad Khan. That is why he sent an army of 18000 men under the command of his son, Muhammad Akbar against the Sikhs. A fierce battle was fought between them. At last the Sikhs came out victorious.

Question 5.
On what issues did Ranjit Singh and the British not agree?
Answer:
There were three main issues on which tension arose between Ranjit Singh and the English. These matters were the question of Sindh, the question of Shikarpur and the question of Ferozepur.
1. The Question of Sindh. Among the issues which created differences and bitterness between Ranjit Singh and the British, the problem of Sindh has a special place. Being situated on the South-western frontier of kingdom of Lahore, the territory of Sindh had a great military significance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government also knew quite well the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So, it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent its political agent of Lahore Col. Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission so that he could not judge the real intentions of the British. Although the nature of this Mission was friendly, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

2. The Question of Shikarpur. On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh was waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe made attacks on the border regions of kingdom of Lahore. Ranjit Singh tried to occupy Shikarpur by holding the Amirs-mf Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also closely watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent a military regiment under the command of Captain Wood to Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh was asked to retreat. Since Ranjit Singh was not powerful enough to face the British forces, he thought it wise to withdraw.

3. The Question of Ferozepur, 1835 A.D. The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the bilateral relations of Ranjit Singh and the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D, Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him capture it. The British Government itself captured Ferozepur in 1835 A.D., and after three years made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Activity:

Question 1.
In the given map Punjab, show the place of important conquests of Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Name any four important conquests of Ranjit. Singh.
Answer:
Conquests of Peshawar, Lahore, Multan and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What was the name of the father of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Mahan Singh.

Question 3.
When did Ranjit Singh conquer Lahore?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

Question 4.
Name any four territories conquered by Ranjit Singh before 1812 A.D.
Answer:
Lahore, Amritsar, Sialkot and Jalandhar.

Question 5.
Name any four Misls conquered by Ranjit Singh.;
Answer:
Faizalpuria Misl, Krorsinghia Misl, Nakai Misl and Kanhaiya Misl.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 6.
Which was the first Misl?
Answer:
Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl.

Question 7.
When did Ranjit Singh conquer Kashmir?
Answer:
Ranjit Singh conquered Kashmir in 1819 A.D.

Question 8.
Name any one powerful Misldar who extended hand of friendship towards Ranjit Singh instead of opposing him.
Answer:
Sada Kaur of Kanhaiya Misl.

Question 9.
What was the importance of conquest of Lahore by Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
By this conquest, he was able to occupy the capital of the Punjab.

Question 10.
Why was Ranjit Singh eager to conquer Multan?
Answer:
If Ranjit Singh could occupy Multan, the Muslim states could not forge a united front against him.

Question 11.
Mention any one benefit of conquest of Multan to Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
The conquest of Multan ended the Afghan influence in the Punjab.

Question 12.
Why was Ranjit Singh so eager to conquer Peshawar? (Give one reason.)
Answer:
It was necessary for Ranjit Singh to capture Peshawar for the stability of his kingdom.

Question 13.
Write down any one main cause of the Sikh victory in the battle of Naushehra.
Answer:
The Sikhs fought this battle with a greater religious fervour than the Muslims,

Question 14.
Mention any one clause of the treaty of Amritsar (1809 A.D.).
Answer:
The river Sutlej would be the boundary between the kingdom of Ranjit Singh and the British territories.

Question 15.
Write down one disadvantage to Ranjit Singh from the Treaty of Amritsar.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh suffered a diplomatic defeat and had to put his pride in his pocket.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 16.
Write down one advantage to Ranjit Singh by the Treaty of Amritsar.
Answer:
The infant kingdom of Ranjit Singh was saved from the British danger because of this treaty.

Question 17.
What was the main advantage for the British by the treaty of Amritsar?
Answer:
The British had no worries about the problems of the North-west region.

Question 18.
What is called the period of “Guardianship of the Triad” or Truine?
Answer:
During the minority of Ranjit Singh, there were three regents who had all the powers of state in their hands.

Question 19.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Ranjit Singh.

Question 20.
Who ruled Amritsar at the time of its invasion by Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Mai Sukhan.

Question 21.
What was the name of father of Ranjit Singh? What was the name of his Misl?
Answer:
Mahan Singh, the chief of the Sukherchakya Misl.

Question 22.
According to Dr. N.K. Sinha what was the policy of Ranjit Singh towards the British?
Answer:
Sinha has called it the policy of “yielding, yielding and yielding”.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 23.
Between whom the Tripartite Treaty was negotiated in 1839 A.D.?
Answer:
The British, Shah Shuja and Ranjit Singh.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Ranjit Singh was born in _________ at _________
Answer:
1780 A.D., Gujranwala

Question 2.
Ranjit Singh invaded Lahore in and easily occupied it by defeating the _________ chiefs.
Answer:
1799, Bhangi

Question 3.
Amritsar has become the_________capital of the Sikhs.
Answer:
religious

Question 4.
Ranjit Singh had been the victim of in his childhood. Due to this terrible disease he lost his _________
Answer:
Smallpox left eye

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 5.
In 1809 a treaty was signed between Ranjit Singh and the _________
Answer:
British

Question 6.
From 1828 to 1839 the relations between the British and Ranjit Singh started _________
Answer:
deteriorating

Question 7.
Tension arose between the British and Ranjit Singh on the matters of _________ and Ferozepur.
Answer:
Sindh, Shikarpur.

True or False :

Question 1.
The relations between Ranjit Singh and the British always remained cordial.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Ranjit Singh died in 1839.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 3.
Ranjit Singh did not conqure weak Misls.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of their Bhangi chiefs. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore.
Answer:
True.

Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Tripartite Treaty (a) 1839
2. Multan (b) 1805
3. Peshawar (c) 1834
4. Kashmir (d) 1818
5. Amritsar (e) 1819

Answer:
1, (a)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (e)
5, (b).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the coronation of Ranjit Singh,
Answer:
The coronation of Ranjit Singh took place with great pomp and show on the eve of Baisakhi at Lahore on April 12, 1801 A.D. He gave his government the name of Sarkar Khalsa. Ranjit Singh did not wear any crown. He issued his coins in the name of Guru Nanak Sahib and Guru Gobind Singh Ji. Thus, Ranjit Singh recognised Khalsa as the supreme power. Imam Baksh was appointed as the kotwal of Lahore.

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Dera Jat by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
In order to conquer Dera Ghazi Khan, Ranjit Singh sent an army under Jamadar Khushal Singh in 1820 A.D. He captured Dera Ghazi Khan after defeating the Afghan ruler, Zaman Khan. Ranjit Singh gave this territory to the Nawab of Bahawalpur in lieu of a heavy amount to be given to him every year as a tribute. Ranjit Singh conquered Dera Ismail Khan and Mankera. Ranjit Singh took the territory of Mankera from its Nawab Ahmed Khan and made him the governor of Dera Ismail Khan.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 3.
Describe any four early conquests of Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Given below is the description of the four early conquests of Ranjit,Singh:
1. Conquest of Lahore. Ranjit Singh conquered Lahore at the very first opportunity. The Bhangi chiefs Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh escaped from Lahore. Only Chet Singh defied Ranjit Singh. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

2. Battle of Bhasin. The Sikh and the Muslim rulers of the surrounding areas were terrified at the victory of Ranjit Singh at Lahore. They decided to confront. Ranjit Singh by forming a powerful united front. A battle was fought at Bhasin in 1800 A.D. Ranjit Singh came out victorious in this battle without any bloodshed.

3. Conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh conquered Amritsar after the death of Gulab Singh. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh, was the ruler of that territory at that time. Mai Sukhan offered resistance for sometime but she gave way afterwards. In this way, Amritsar was merged in the territory of Ranjit Singh.

4. Relations with other Sikh Misls. Now Ranjit Singh also occupied the territories of Dallewala and Nakkai Misls.

Question 4.
Discuss the conquest of any four Misls by Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh decided to capture the independent Sikh Misls. He befriended the rulers of Ahluwalia, Kanahiya and Ramgarhia Misls. He started occupying the territories of weaker Misls with their help.

A brief account of his conquest of these Misls is as given below:

  • Ranjit Singh defeated Dal Singh of Akalgarh in 1802 A.D. and merged his territory into his kingdom,
  • After the death of the ruler of Dallewalia Misl Sardar Tara Singh Gheba in 1807 A.D., Ranjit Singh conquered most of his territories.
  • In the very next year, he defeated Jeewan Singh, the ruler of Sialkot and merged his territories into his kingdom,
  • He annexed the territories of Sardar Kahn Singh of Nakai Misl and those of Sardar Sahib Singh of Gujrat in 1810 A.D.

Question 5.
What were the important provisions of the Treaty of Amritsar?
Answer:
On April 2, 1809, A.D. Ranjit Singh signed the Treaty of Amritsar with the English. The main provisions of this treaty were:

  1. Both the governments shall maintain friendly relations with each other.
  2. The English would not interfere in the affairs of the territory to the north of the Sutlej and Ranjit Singh would not interfere in the affairs of the territory to the south of the Sutlej.
  3. The British government recognised Ranjit Singh as the most favoured power. He was assured that the English would have no concern with his state nor with the citizens of his kingdom. None would keep forces more than what was absolutely necessary.
  4. Ranjit Singh would keep only that much army in the south of the Sutlej which was necessary for the maintenance of law and order.
  5. If any party to the treaty violated its provision, the treaty would be considered cancelled.

Question 6.
What was the significance of the Treaty of Amritsar (1809)?
Answer:
The Treaty of Amritsar was signed between the English and Maharaja Ranjit Singh on April 25, 1809 A.D. This treaty was important from the historical point of view for the English as v/ell as the Sikhs. But opinions differ regarding the importance of this treaty. Due to this, the English and the Maharaja gained something but the Maharaja -was also a loser in some respects. The greatest desire of the Maharaja was to become the sole ruler of all the Sikhs. But his dream was shattered due to this treaty. He could never exercise his control over the states of Malwa. This treaty gave a terrible blow- to the power and prestige of Ranjit Singh.

This treaty extended the boundaries of the British rule from the Yamuna to the Sutlej. Because of its close vicinity to Ranjit Singh’s kingdom, the British government could keep a more strict watch over the foreign policy and the military activities of the Maharaja. Of course, the treaty was also useful to the Maharaja. The infant state of Punjab was saved from being destroyed. Besides, Ranjit Singh got an opportunity to extend the frontiers of his kingdom in other directions. Therefore, he greatly extended the boundaries of his state in the north-western region.

Question 7.
Discuss the importance of the battle of Naushehra (Four points only).
Answer:

  1. Nazim Shah was defeated by the Sikhs in the battle of Naushehra. He made his sons swear that they would avenge this defeat. Thus, there started between the Afghans and the Sikhs an enmity which continued for a long time.
  2. The Sikhs won a name for their bravery in the battle of Naushehra. After the battle of Haidru, Naushehra was the second place at which the Sikhs had thoroughly routed the Afghans in a battle in the plains. Consequently, the Sikhs developed self-confidence and adopted even more aggressive policy against the Afghans.
  3. As a result of this battle, the prestige of Ranjit Singh rose very high. His power was acknowledged throughout the Punjab. Besides, due to his victory in the battle of Naushehra, the Maharaja’s hold on the Afghan territories between the Indus and Peshawar became stronger.
  4. The Afghan power in the north-west of India was thoroughly eliminated after this battle.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 8.
Write a short note on the Tripartite Treaty (The British, Shah Shuja and Ranjit Singh).
Answer:
In 1839 A.D., Russia was advancing towards Asia. The British feared that Russia might attack India through Afghanistan. So they wanted to establish friendship with Afghanistan. The British sent Col. Burns to Kabul so that he could negotiate a friendship treaty with Amir Dost Mohammad of Kabul. Dost Mohammad demanded that the British should hand over to him the province of Peshawar after acquiring it from Ranjit Singh. But friendship of Ranjit Singh was most essential and important for the British. So, they did not accept this term of Dost Mohammad and signed a treaty with Shah Shuja, a brother of Dost Muhammad. Ranjit Singh was also a party to this treaty. This treaty is known as the Tripartite treaty.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the main victories of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Following is the description of the conquests of Lahore, Amritsar, Attock, Multan and Kashmir by Ranjit Singh :
1. Conquest of Lahore. The conquest of Lahore was the first important achievement of Ranjit Singh. In those days, Lahore was under the rule of three Bhangi Sardars named Chet Singh, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh. The residents of Lahore were fed up with the cruelties of these Sardars. So they invited Ranjit Singh to attack Lahore. Ranjit Singh lost no time in attacking Lahore with a large army. On hearing the news of the attack, Mohar Singh and Sahib Singh escaped from Lahore. Only Chet Singh offered some resistance to Ranjit Singh. But he was defeated. In this way, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in July, 1799 A.D.

2. Conquest of Amritsar. Ranjit Singh conquered Amritsar after the death of Gulab Singh Bhangi. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh was the ruler of that territory at that time. Ranjit Singh demanded the fort of Lohgarh situated at Amritsar and the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan. But Mai Sukhan refused. Ranjit Singh attacked Amritsar. Mai Sukhan put up resistance for sometime but she gave way afterwards. In this way, Amritsar was annexed to the kingdom of Ranjit Singh.

3. Conquest of Attock. An understanding was reached between Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan of Kabul in 1813 A.D. Accordingly, it was decided that Ranjit Singh would send 12 thousand soldiers to help Fateh Khan in the conquest of Kashmir and Fateh Khan in return would give him one-third of the conquered territories in addition to the booty received from thfere. Besides, Ranjit Singh promised to help Fateh Khan in his conquest of Attack, whereas Fateh Khan would help Ranjit Singh in the conquest of Multan.

The combined forces of Ranjit Singh and Fateh Khan conquered Kashmir with great ease but Fateh Khan did not fulfil his promise. He also did not give anything out of the wealth plundered by him from Kashmir. Ranjit Singh attacked Attock in fury (according to the treaty, Fateh Khan was to occupy Attock). Ranjit Singh’s minister Azizuddin took Attock from Jahandad Khan and gave him one lakh rupees and a big jagir. Fateh Khan could not tolerate this. He attacked Attock with a big army immediately. A fierce battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Afghans at Hazro near Attock. The Sikhs came out victorious in this battle.

4. Conquest of Multan. The territory of Multan was important both from the military and commercial points of view. Ranjit Singh attacked Multan six times till 1818 A.D. But every time, the Pathan ruler of Multan, Muzzaffar Khan would save his skin by offering him heavy Nazrana. Ranjit Singh determined to occupy Multan and annex it to his kingdom. In 1818 A.D. he sent 25 thousand soldiers under Misar Dewan Chand and his own eldest son Kharak Singh to invade Multan. The Sikh army besieged the fort of Multan. Muzzaffar Khan fought the Sikh army bravely. But he was killed in the battle and Multan was occupied by the Sikhs.

5. Conquest of Kashmir. Fateh Khan, the Wazir of Afghanistan, had not given Ranjit Singhs his share of booty after the conquest of Kashmir. Now Ranjit Singh sent an army under Ram Dyal to conquer Kashmir. Ranjit Singh himself accompanied Ram Dyal to fight this battle but the Sikhs could not achieve success. He again sent an expedition under Misar Dewan Chand and prince Kharak Singh. Zabar Khan, the new governor of Kashmir, advanced to face the Sikh army but was badly defeated at Supin.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 7 Ranjit Singh: Early Life, Achievements and Anglo-Sikh Relations

Question 2.
Describe the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh, What was its importance?
Answer:
After the death of Gulab Singh Bhangi, his son Gurdit Singh became the ruler of Amritsar. He was a minor. Mai Sukhan, the widow of Gulab Singh, therefore, looked after the affairs of the state. Ranjit Singh was finding an opportunity to conquer Amritsar. In 1805 A.D., he found this opportunity. He requested Mai Sukhan to give him the famous Bhangi Gun ‘Zamzama’ because the Sukarchakia Misl had played a major role in capturing that gun from Ahmed Shah Abdali in 1764. Ranjit Singh also demanded Lohgarh Fort. It is said that Jodh Singh Ramgarhia, son of Jassa Singh Ramgarhia, counselled Mai Sukhan to hand over the gun to Ranjit Singh. But she did not agree. Maharaja Ranjit Singh wanted to capture Amritsar at any cost.

The demand for the gun was only an excuse to invade Amritsar. He attacked Amritsar and captured Lohgarh. Sada Kaur and Fateh Singh Ahluwalia helped Ranjit Singh in this conquest. The Maharaja came out victorious. Thus, he occupied Amritsar and the Fort of Lohgarh. As proposed by Jodh Singh, Ranjit Singh gave Mai Sukhan and Gurdit Singh a small Jagir for their maintenance. Akali Phoola Singh of Amritsar, who was a great warrior, alongwith his 2000 Nihang followers joined the army of Ranjit Singh.

Importance of the Conquest of Amritsar :
Following is the importance of the conquest of Amritsar by Ranjit Singh :

  1. It was the religious capital of the Sikhs. Ranjit Singh became the master of this historic city of the Sikhs.
  2. As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, the military power of Ranjit Singh increased. The Fort of Lohgarh proved a boon for the Maharaja. He also got the famous gun Zamzama from Mai Sukhan.
  3. Ranjit Singh acquired the services of Akali Phoola Singh and his 2000 Nihang followers. Because of the extraordinary courage and bravery of the’ Nihangs, Ranjit Singh achieved many glorious victories.
  4. As a result of the conquest of Amritsar, Ranjit Singh’s name and fame spread far and wide. Many’ Indians left the service of the East India Company and got employment with Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Many Europeans also joined the army of the Maharaja.

Question 3.
Describe the relations of Ranjit Singh with the British from 1809-1839 A.D.
Answer:
On 25th April, 1809 A.D., the Treaty of Amritsar was signed between the British and Ranjit Singh. Although this treaty had ended the possibility of an immediate armed conflict, yet it could not end the feelings of doubt and fear growing in the minds of both powers.

After this treaty, until 1839 A.D., the Anglo-Sikh relations had to pass through the following stages:
Period of mutual distrust and suspicion (1809-1811). from 1809 to 1811 A.D. both Ranjit Singh and the British Government looked upon each other with distrust and suspicion. Both sides had imaginary fears against each other. Each of them had engaged spies to know about the military and diplomatic strategies of the other.

But gradually this mutual distrust lessened and by 1812 A.D. it was almost over.

Anglo-Sikh relations from 1812 to 1822 A.D. During the decade of 1812 to 1822 A.D., mutual cooperation and friendly relations existed between the British and Ranjit Singh.
1. Ranjit Singh’s refusal to help Nepal. In 1815 A.D. when a Gorkha Vakil came to seek help from the Maharaja against the British, he clearly refused. In the. first British-Nepal war (1814-15A.D.), the Maharaja, by helping the British, proved his friendship with them. Likewise, when in 1821 A.D. the representative of Appa Sahib Maratha came to seek help against the British, the Maharaja refused him blankly. On the other hand, the British made no interference in the affairs of Ranjit Singh in the North-west of the Sutlej.

2. Question of Wadni. In the beginning of 1822 A.D., there was some bitterness in the mutual relations of the British and Ranjit Singh regarding Wadni, a village situated in the south of the Sutlej. During his cis-Sutlej expedition in 1808 A.D., Ranjit Singh handed over this region to his mother-in-law Sada Kaur in exchange for twelve thousand rupees. But in 1820 A.D., Ranjit Singh imprisoned Sada Kaur and recaptured Wadni. Rani Sada Kaur sought the help of the British. The British resident at Ludhiana sent a British regiment that occupied Wadni. The Maharaja expressed his annoyance to the Governor-General. So in 1823 A.D. the Governor-General again accepted the suzerainty of Ranjit Singh over Wadni.

3. Cordiality again. Ranjit Singh tried his level best to maintain friendly relations with the British. In 1825-26 A.D., the chief of Bharatpur sought Ranjit Singh’s military help but the Maharaja refused. In 1826 A.D. Maharaja Ranjit Singh fell ill. On his request, the British Government sent Dr. Murray to Lahore. As a result, friendly relations were restored between the two sides for some time.

The estrangement of relations again. From 1828 to 1839 A.D. the relations between the ruler of Lahore and the British Government started deteriorating.

During this period, the following events created tension between them :
1. Increasing Power of Ranjit Singh. During the last ten years, Ranjit Singh had greatly increased his power by conquering Multan, Kashmir, Deraj at and Peshawar, etc. The British Government was jealous of the increasing power of Ranjit Singh. So, on the one hand, the British Government started adopting the policy of encircling the kingdom of Lahore from different directions. On the other hand, it pretended friendship with the Maharaja.

2. The Question of Sindh. Among the issues which created differences and bitterness in the relations, between Ranjit Singh and the British, the issue of Sindh was very complex. This region being situated in the South-west of Lahore, had a great military significance. It was essential for Ranjit Singh to capture it so that he might save his state from foreign invasions from this side.

The British Government also well understood the commercial importance of Sindh and Shikarpur. So, it did not want this region to fall into the hands of Ranjit Singh. In 1831 A.D. the British Government sent one of its officers Alexander Burns to the Amirs of Sindh for a Commercial treaty. It also sent a gift for Ranjit Singh through this Mission, so that he could not judge the real intentions of the British. Although it seemed to be a friendly mission, yet it created doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh against the Sindh policy of the British.

3. Meeting at Ropar between Ranjit Singh and William Bentinck. (Imp.) The Governor-General Lord William Bentinck very well knew about the doubts in the mind of Ranjit Singh. The fear of Russian attack on India was also spreading fast. The British Governor-General did not want that in that hour of crisis their relations with the Maharaja should deteriorate. Instead, he wanted that the relations with the Sikh ruler should be cemented and he should also know about the increasing influence of the British in Sindh. To achieve this purpose, on October 1831 A.D., Lord William Bentinck met the Maharaja at Ropar. But at the same time, he sent Col. Pottinger to make a commercial treaty with the Amirs of Sindh.

The negotiations between the Governor-General and Ranjit Singh were still going on in Ropar, when an important treaty was signed between the British and the Amirs of Sindh by the efforts of Col. Pottinger. Ranjit Singh returned disappointed from the meeting at Ropar.

4. The Question of Shikarpur. On the question of Shikarpur also there was a lot of tension between the British and Ranjit Singh. Since 1832 A.D., Ranjit Singh had been waiting for a suitable opportunity to occupy Shikarpur. He got this opportunity when the people of Mazari tribe attacked the border regions of Lahore Kingdom. Ranjit Singh tried to occupy Shikarpur by holding the Amirs of Sindh guilty of Mazari invasions. But the British were also watching the activities of Ranjit Singh. So as soon as he went ahead to capture Shikarpur, the British also sent a military regiment under the command of Captain Wood to Shikarpur. Ranjit Singh was asked to retreat. Since Ranjit Singh was not powerful enough to fight against the British, he thought it wise to withdraw.

5. The Question of Ferozepur, 1835 A.D. The question of Ferozepur had special significance in the relations of Ranjit Singh with the British from 1809 A.D. to 1838 A.D. Though Ranjit Singh’s claim to Ferozepur was proper and justified, yet the British did not let him occupy it. The British Government itself captured Ferozepur in 1835 A.D. and after three years made it its own permanent military station. But even this time, the Maharaja had to swallow the bitter pill.

6. Tripartite Treaty. In 1839 A.D., Russia was advancing towards Asia. The British feared that Russia might attack India through Afghanistan. So they wanted to establish friendship with Afghanistan. The British sent Col. Burns to Kabul so that he could negotiate a friendship treaty with Amir Dost Mohammad the ruler of ‘ that country. Dost‘Mohammad was willing to sign the treaty on the condition that the British should hand over to him the province of Peshawar by taking it from Ranjit Singh. But friendship of Ranjit Singh was most essential and important for the British. So, they did not accept this term of Dost Mohammad. On his part, Dost Mohammad entered into a treaty with Russia. It was a big challenge for the British. They made an agreement with Shah Shuja, the former ruler of Afghanistan.

Ranjit Singh was also a party to this agreement. It is known as the Tripartite Treaty. Ranjit Singh signed this treaty but he did not sign an important clause of it. It was, “That the armies of the British can attack Kabul by passing through Punjab.” But Ranjit Singh was afraid that the British would certainly violate this clause. So in the last years of his reign, he tried to take many steps against the British. But, Ranjit Singh died in 1839 A.D.

It is a fact that from 1809 A.D. to 1839 A.D. Ranjit Singh adopted the policy of maintaining a friendship with the British. He had decided that he will not fight with the British, whatever sacrifice he might have to make. Keeping in view his yielding policy on every occasion before the demands of the British, Dr. N.K. Sinha has called it the policy of “yielding, yielding, and yielding.”

Judo Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Judo Game Rules.

Judo Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe the Judo playground, Officials, Costume and Duration of the bout.
Answer:
Playground:
Judo playground is called ‘Shiajo’. It is a square platform. Its each side is 30 feet. It is at some height from the ground. It is covered with 50 mat pieces of canvas. Each mat piece is 3 x 6 in size.

Officials:
Normally, three officials conduct Judo. One of them is a referee and the other two are judges. The bout is conducted by the referee whose decision is final. No appeal can be made against his decision. Keeping himself in the playground, the referee keeps a watch on the performance of the players.
Judo Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Costume:
The Judo player’s dress is known as ‘Judogi’. In case ‘Judogi’ is not available, a player can wear a dress the belt of which is so long as to cover the body twice. After a square knot is tied, 3 inch belt on each side is left. The jacket should be so long that it covers the hips after being tied with a belt. The sleeves should be loose. There should be a gap of 114 inches between the cuffs and i sleeves and should hang upto the mid-arm. Trousers used should also be quite loose. The Judo player cannot wear ring, bracelet, etc. because they may injure a player. Finger nails of players should be properly pared.

Duration of the Competition:
The duration of the competition lasts from 3 to 20 mintues. Under speical circumstances this duration of the game may be increased or decreased.

Judo Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 2.
Mention the various rules which players of Judo have to follow during competition.
Answer:
Rules for Judo Players:

  • The nails of the players’ hands and feet should be properly pared.
  • The Judo player^ cannot wear rings or bracelet or any other thing which may cause injury to the opponent.

The Start of Judo Play and Various Techniques:
Start of Judo Competition. The Judo competitors should stand at a distance of 12 feet from each other. Their faces should be in front of each other. They salute each other in the standing position. Then the referee begins the bout by uttering the world ‘Hijame’ which means ‘begin’.

Judo Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Judo Techniques:
The following techniques are adopted in Judo-

  • Naga-waja (the technique of throwing)
  • Katma-paja (the ground work technique)

These two techniques are taken into account while giving a decision. Normally, the decision is not given more than one ‘Ippon’ (one full point).

Rules:

  • After some progress has been made in the throwing technique, the player can unhesitatingly take a lying position, and, thus, become offensive.
  • When a player falls while adopting throwing technique or takes offensive, and the rival player falls, even then he can take a lying position.
  • In the standing position and after adopting ground-work technique, if the player makes some progress, then he can unhesitatingly take to the lying position and become offensive.
  • When one or both the players are outside the contest area, the use of any technique is deemed to be futile and is declared invalid.
  • The throwing technique remains valid if the thrower and the maximum body of his opponent remain inside the contest area.

Question 3.
Mention the various Judo weight categories of Judo competition.
Answer:
JUDO WEIGHT CATEGORIES:

Men Women Junior
up to 50 kg. up to 44 kg. up to 38 kg.
up to 55 kg. up to 48 kg. up to 40 kg.
up to 60 kg. up to 52 kg. up to 45 kg.
up to 65 kg. up to 56 kg. up to 50 kg.
up to 71 kg. up to 61 kg. up to 56 kg.
up to 78 kg. up to 66 kg. up to 63 kg.
up to 86 kg. up to+ 66 kg. up to 71 kg.
Up to + 86 Kg. up to+ 71 kg.

MEN = Total of Categories = Eight
WOMEN =Total of Categories = Seven
JUNIOR = Total of Categories = Eight
Judo Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2

Judo Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Important Information about the Judo Game

  • Shape of the Judo play ground = Square
  • Size of each side = 10 meter
  • The dress of the Judo known as = ‘Judogi’
  • Judo competition start = ‘Hijame’
  • Height of the mat from ground = about one feet, 30 c.m.
  • Duration of the bout = 10 to 20 minutes
  • Total weight for men = Eight
  • Total weight for women = seven
  • Total weight for Junior = Eight
  • The size of mat to cover platform = 16 x I6m, number 50
  • Total area of areana = 14 x 14 m (98) meter
  • The size of the each mat = 1×2 meter
  • The distance of Judo player = 4 meter
  • while standing with opponent
  • The Judo competition starts with the referee’s calling the word ‘Hijame’, meaning “Begin”.
  • The player cannot wear ring, iron bracelet, etc. The nails of his hands and feet should be properly pared.
  • With the referee calling ‘Osaekami-toaketa’, the hold is broken.
  • If the judge does not agree with the referee’s decision, he can make suggestion to him. If the referee considers the suggestion sound, he may accept it.
  • The duration of the Judo contest lasts from 3 to 20 minutes.
  • During the duration of the game, pressing the belly or putting pressure on the head or neck with legs is considered to be a foul.
  • If a player refuses to participate in a competition, his rival is declared the winner by fesetcho (winner by default).
  • If a players, during the competition, gets hurt because of some fault of his opponnet, he (the injured player) is declare the winner.