Class 10 – Page 37 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 3 The Climate

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 3 The Climate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 The Climate

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Land Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Distinguish between climate and weather.
Answer:
Climate. Climate is the description of atmospheric conditions of an area over a long period, (say 35 years) Weather. Weather is the sum total of atmospheric conditions at any place at any specific period.

Question 2.
Name the factors which affect the climate of India.
Answer:

Distance from the Equator
Relief
Pressure system
Seasonal winds and
Nearness from the Indian ocean.

Question 3.
Name the places in India having maximum and minimum temperatures during winter season.
Answer:
Places with highest temperature Barmer, Jodhpur. Places with lowest temperature Dras, Kargil.

Question 4.
Give the names of hottest and coldest places in India during various seasons.
Answer:
Coldest place: Hilly Areas like Leh and Shillong.
Hottest place: North West plain areas.

Question 5.
Name the driest and wettest regions of the country.
Answer:
The driest places of the country are: Leh, Jodhpur, Delhi while Shillong, Mumbai, Kolkata and Trivandrum are the wettest areas.

Question 6.
Name two places in India having moderate and extreme climate.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai are two places of equable climate. Extreme climate is found in Amritsar and Jodhpur.

Question 7.
What is the importance of relief in determining the climate?
Answer:
It provides monsoon climate to whole country by acting as a climatic divide.

Question 8.
What is Jet Stream?
Answer:
Jet streams are high velocity winds at high altitudes. A jet stream is a narrow tubular shaped flow of wind along the troposphere. These have a velocity of 500 kms per hour and are located at 5 to 12 kms with an average location between 20°S to 40°N latitudes.

Question 9.
What do you mean by the term Monsoon?
Answer:
The word Monsoon is said to be derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausam’ meaning season. This word was first applied to the winds blowing over the Arabian sea. Monsoon implies seasonal reversal of the wind pattern over the years. Monsoon winds are those seasonal or periodic winds which changes their direction with the season. These winds blow from sea to land of six months during summer and from land to see during winter. Thus with the change of season the pattern of winds, temperature and rainfall changes.

Question 10.
What is Burst of Monsoons?
Answer:
The monsoon winds blow in south-west direction on the west coast. These are highly charged with water vapour. I’; advances rapidly over west coast. The rains begin rather suddenly in the first week of June. This sudden onset of rain is often termed as ‘Monsoon Burst’. This rainfall is heavily accompanied by thunder and lighting. The rain is so sudden and heavy that it appears as if a balloon of water has been burst.

Question 11.
What do you mean by ‘Loo’?
Answer:
Loos are hot dusty winds caused by low pressure in hot season. These are very hot and dry winds. These are called ‘Loo’ in local language.

Question 12.
What is Break in Monsoons?
Answer:
The dry period between monsoons is called Break.

Question 13.
What are monsoons?
Answer:
Monsoons are seasonal winds.

Question 14.
Where does ELNINO ocean current flow?
Answer:
Elnino current flows along the coast of Chile. It is studied for the reasons causing Monsoon.

Question 15.
What are ‘Kal Baisakhis’ or Norwesters?
Or
What are Kal Baisakhis?
Answer:
The destructive cyclones are called Kal Baisakhis in West Bengal.

Question 16.
What is meant by ‘Mango Shower’?
Answer:
North East Monsoons give rain in coastal areas of Kerala and Karnataka at the end of summer seasons.

Question 17.
At which places do the Monsoon winds coming from Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal meet?
Answer:
The Monsoon winds from Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal meet in Punjab and Himachal Pradesh.

II. Give reasons df the following in brief:

Question 1.
Mumbai is colder than Nagpur.
Answer:
Nagpur is situated away from sea. Whereas Mumbai is situated on the sea shore. There is equable type of climate in Mumbai due to effect of sea. Therefore there is less cold.

In the opposite of it, Nagpur has situated far away hum sea and free from sea effect. Therefore, extreme type of climate is found here.

Therefore, Nagpur is colder than Mumbai in winter.

Question 2.
Most of the average Annual rainfall in India comps in just four months of the year.
Answer:
In India, rainfalls mostly from mid June to mid September. The Monsoon winds coming from sea blow oyer India in these four months. These vapour laden winds give heavy rainfall in India.

Question 3.
Kolkata receives 145 cm of Rainfall whereas Jaisalmer receives only 12 cm of rainfall by the South West monsoons.
Answer:
The S. W. monsoons, from Bay of Bengal, first of all strike in Kolkata in West Bengal. These moisture laden winds give a heavy rainfall of 145 cms here. Jaisalmer lies to the west of Aravallis in Rajasthan. Aravallis lie parallel to S.W. Monsoons of Arabian sea. So these mountains fail to check S. W. monsoons. These winds move northward giving only 12 cms of rainfall.

Question 4.
Chennai receives most rainfall during winter season.
Answer:
Chennai is situated on Eastern coastal plain of India. It comes under the effect of North-East monsoon winds. These winds move from land to sea. But while crossing the Bay of Bengal, these pick up moisture. After striking Eastern ghats, these give heavy rainfall in winter. In summer, it gets less rain as it is a rain shadow area.

Question 5.
Chennai gets more rainfall in winters. Why?
Answer:
Chennai is located on the east coast of India. N.E. monsoons give here rainfall in winter. But in summer, dry winds blow which do not give more rainfall.

III. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What are the regional variations in the climate of India?
Answer:

Range of Temperature. There is a great variation in range of temperatures in different parts of India. Kerala and Andaman-Nicobar islands have a daily range of temperature i. e. 8° C. On the other hand in Thar Desert, if the day temperature is around 50° C, at night it may drop down very close to freezing point (0°C). The daily range of temperature is 50°C.
Direction of Rain Bearing Winds. Most of India gets rain in summer from S. W. Monsoons but, in winter Tamilnadu gets rain from N. E. Monsoons.
Form of Precipitation. Most of the country gets rain showers, while snowfall occurs in the Himalayas.
Amount of Rainfall. The annual rainfall is less than 10 cms in N. W. Himalayas and Thar Desert. It exceeds 400 cms. in Meghalaya. Mawsynram gets 1,141 cms rainfall.
Rainfall Regime i.e. Seasonal Distribution of Rainfall. There is a great variation in rainfall regimes in the country. Most of the country gets rain from advancing monsoons in summer. Tamilnadu gets rainfall in winter from N.E. monsoons. Some parts receive rainfall from retreating monsoons.

Question 2.
Give an account of the main reasons for the climatic variations in the country.
Answer:
There are great variations in the climate of India. It is not the same throughout the year due to:

Northern hilly region remains cold due to high altitude. Coastal areas have equable climate. Interior areas have high temperatures.
Windward slopes get high rainfall but rain shadow areas are dry.
In summer, winds blow from sea, to land. These moist winds give heavy rainfall. But as these move ahead, the rainfall goes on decreasing.
In winter the winds blow from land to sea. These winds are dry. Only S.E. coast of India gets rainfall. Other parts remain dry.

Question 3.
Why does the Pre-Monsoonal rainfall occur?
Answer:
In summer, equatorial low-pressure shifts towards Tropic of Cancer. To fill this space, the S.E. trades cross the Equator and get the direction of S.W. winds due to rotation of the earth. On 1st June, when these winds reach west coast, moderate rainfall occurs on windward slope of western ghats. This is called pre-monsoonal rainfall.

Question 4.
Describe India’s rainy season.
Answer:
Rainy season is also called the South West Monsoon season. Its time period is from the June to Mid September. The main characteristics of this season are:

A low pressure trough is developed in N.W. India.
Winds enter into the country from sea and give heavy rainfall.
The winds filled with humidity move at the rate of 30 km per hour and spread into whole country within one month.
Indian peninsula divides Monsoon into two parts-Monsoon winds of Arabian Sea and Monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal.
Most of rainfall in Western ghat and North East area of India is done by monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal.

There is more than 250 cm of rainfall on the winward slopes of western ghats. On the opposite there is more than 50 cm of rainfall on leeward slopes. Therefore due to this reason most of rainfall in Northeast states of India is highest and longer on hills of Eastern Himalayas. On the opposite the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from East to West.

Question 5.
Which places receive maximum rainfall in India?
Answer:
The areas in which the rainfall is between from 1.50 to 200 cm are the places with highest rainfall. These are divided into three areas:

A narrow belt of 20 km width extends from western ghat to Kanyakumari in the North-South direction. It extends from the mouth of the Tapti River to the plains of Kerala.
Second belt extends along the southern slopes of Himalayas. It extends from Himachal Pradesh to the valley of Assam passing through Kumaon Himalaya.
Third belt extends in North-South direction. The hills of Tripura, Manipur and Mekar are in it. There is 200 cm annual rainfall in the belt.

Question 6.
Give any three characteristics of Indian Monsoon.
Answer:
See Question 2. Part IV.

Question 7.
In spite of being close to the Arabian Sea, why does Rajasthan remain dry?
Or
Why Rajasthan remains dry inspite of being close to Arabian Sea?
Answer:
The western part of Rajasthan is desert. It gets an annual rainfall less than 20 cms. This is due to the following reasons:

Rajasthan is under the influence of S.W. summer monsoons. The Aravallis system lies parallel to the direction of S.W. monsoons coming from Arabian Sea. So this mountain system is unable to check these winds. So western Rajasthan is practically dry. The southern part gets some rainfall.
This area lies at a great distance from the Bay of Bengal. The Bay of Bengal monsoons become dry and lose their moisture when they reach Rajasthan.
This area is away from the Himalayan region. So it does not come under the influence of monsoons giving rain in Sub-Himalayan region.

Question 8.
How do South East trade winds cause Monsoon rainfall?
Answer:
South East trade winds crossing the equator move towards India. The direction is changed due to rotation and move in S. W. directions. These reach Kerala coast on 1st June and give heavy rainfall. This is called Monsoon burst. These winds cover whole of India in one month and give rainfall.

IV. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Which elements affect the climate of India?
Answer:
The climate of India is mainly based on the following facts:
1. Distance from the equator. The places which are situated near the equator have high temperature whereas the places away from the equator do not have high temperature.

2. Height above sea level. The higher you go, the cooler it is. That is why the mountainous regions are cooler than plains.

3. Distance from the sea. The places near the sea have equable climate. Neither the summers are very hot nor the winters are cold, whereas in the parts away from the sea the summers are hot and winters are cold.

4. Winds. The winds have a great affect on the climate of India. The winds coming from the sea are full of moisture and they cause heavy rain. On the other hand, the winds that come from the land are dry winds and cause no rain.

5. Direction of the mountains. Wherever the mountains are located in the way of the winds, the winds are forced to rise against the mountains and cause rainfall. For example, when the moisture laden monsoon winds strike against Himalayas they cause heavy rain in West Bengal and Assam. On the other hand, the Aravali mountains run parallel to the direction of the monsoons that blow from the Arabian Sea and there is no rain in Rajasthan.

6. Nature of the soil. Sand gets heated and cooled quickly. The land is sandy in Rajasthan. That is why, the temperature is of extreme type there.

7. Slope of the land. If the land slopes towards the sun the rays of the sun will fall vertically and the temperature will be high. On the contrary if the land slopes away from the sun the rays of the sun will be slanting and the temperature will be low.

8. Forests. The regions with dense forests receive heavy rain, because the winds blowing over these forests gain moisture from the leaves of the trees, lose temperature and cause rain.

Question 2.
Describe the main characteristics of monsoon rainfall in India.
Answer:
Characteristics of rainfall in India: The average annual rainfall in India is about 110 cms. It is estimated that more than 85% of this rainfall is received in summer. The main characteristics of summer rainfall are given below:

Monsoonal rainfall. Most of the rain is received from S.W. summer monsoons during the period mid-June to mid-September. It is seasonal rainfall.
Uncertain rainfall. Summer rainfall is quite uncertain. Some times monsoons start early resulting in floods. Often the onset of monsoons is delayed resulting in drought. The early or late retreat of monsoons also results in serious droughts.
Unequal distribution. The rainfall is Unevenly distributed over the country. About 10% of the country gets more than 200 cms of rain while 25% of the country gets less than 75 cms of rain.
Heavy rainfall. Indian rainfall is heavy and downpouring type. It is often said, “It pours, it never rains in India.”
Relief rainfall. The amount of rainfall is determined by the presence of mountains. High mountains force monsoons to rise and cause rain.
No continuity of rainfall. Summer rain is characterised by breaks or dry spells.
Variable rainfall. Most of the areas have variable rainfall, as much as 30 cms. plus or minus. Due to variability in areas of low rain, famines occur.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristics of different seasons of India.
Answer:
The Indian Weather: The Indian sub-continent has a tropical monsoon climate. Monsoons dominate the climate of the sub-continent. Monsoons exercise a unifying influence on the weather conditions of India making it a single meteorological unit. India has a broad unity of monsoon type of climate having the same rhythm of season. The advance and retreat of monsoon divide the weather into different seasons.

(A) Seasons of N.E. Monsoons.

The Cold Season. December to February.
The Hot Season. March to May.

(B) Season of S.W. Monsoons.

The Rainy Season. June to September
The Season of Retreating Monsoon. October to November.

1. The Cold Season: The cold season lasts from December to February.
(a) Temperature. The sun is overhead at Tropic of Capricorn. The Indian sub-continent has winter season. January is the coldest month. The southern parts have warm conditions. (20°C) while low temperatures (10°C) are found in N.W. India.

(b) Pressure and Winds. High pressure is developed over N.W. part while a low pressure exists over the Indian Ocean with the result winds blow from land to sea. The out-blowing winds are Westerly in Northern plain and North Easterly over the rest of the country.

Rainfall. The N.E. Monsoons are off-shore winds and are dry. But these winds pick up some moisture crossing Bay of Bengal and give rain to S.E. coast of India. Some cyclones from Mediterranean Sea also bring a small amount of rain (10 to 20 cms.) to Northern plains. Night Frost is common in the N.W. parts.

2. The Hot Season. The hot season lasts from March to May.
(а) Temperature: As the sun’s rays fall vertical over Tropic of Cancer, the temperature begins to rise. The average temperature is above 30 C; the maximum temperature rises to 50°C in Banner (Rajasthan). The daily range of temperature rises in inland areas.

(b) Pressure and Winds. Intense heat results in the development of low pressure over N.W. India and Pakistan. A high pressure exists over Indian Ocean. S.W. Monsoons begin to blow from sea to land. ‘Norwesters’ and ‘Loo’ blow over Northern plains.

(c) Rainfall. Some areas receive convectional rainfall. The west coast also starts receiving rainfall. Most of the country is dry in the pre-Monsoon period.

3. The Rainy Season. The rainy season lasts from June to September.
(а) Temperature. The sun shines vertical over Tropic of Cancer. The temperatures are more than 30°C. With the onset of monsoon, there is a drop in temperature (5° to 10°C) with the result July is not the hottest month.

(b) Pressure and Winds. S.W. Monsoons blow from sea to land with a “burst’ on the West coast. It blows in two currents.

The Arabian Sea Current,
The Bay of Bengal Current

(c) Rainfall. S.W. Monsoons are rain giver as most of the sub-continent gets rainfall in this season. The Arabian Sea branch gives heavy rainfall on the West Coast, but Deccan plateau lies in rain shadow of Western Ghats. The Bay of Bengal branch gives heavy rainfall in Eastern Himalayas. The rainfall goes on decreasing up the Ganges valley with the decrease in moisture. Rajasthan is practically a desert.

4. The Season of Retreating Monsoon. S.W. Monsoons begin to withdraw from the sub-continent during the first week of October. The sun begins to move towards equator. There is a decrease in temperature. Hot and sticky weather is found. Some tropical cyclones are developed which give heavy rainfall in coastal areas. Cool-weather begins in N.W. India, but the Southern parts have an equable climate.

Question 4.
Compare the summer and winter seasons of India.
Answer:

The Indian Weather: The Indian sub-continent has a tropical monsoon climate. Monsoons dominate the climate of the sub-continent. Monsoons exercise a unifying influence on the weather conditions of India making it a single meteorological unit. India has a broad unity of monsoon type of climate having the same rhythm of season. The advance and retreat of monsoon divide the weather into different seasons.

(A) Seasons of N.E. Monsoons.

The Cold Season. December to February.
The Hot Season. March to May.

(B) Season of S.W. Monsoons.

The Rainy Season. June to September
The Season of Retreating Monsoon. October to November.

(c) Rainfall. Some areas receive convectional rainfall. The west coast also starts receiving rainfall. Most of the country is dry in the pre-Monsoon period.

(b) Pressure and Winds. S.W. Monsoons blow from sea to land with a “burst’ on the West coast. It blows in two currents.

The Arabian Sea Current,
The Bay of Bengal Current

Question 5.
Explain with the help of examples the impact of monsoon winds on life in India.
Answer:
Climate has a great effect on the economic, religious and social life of a country. It is also true in case of India. Monsoon is a powerful element of the climate of India and affects the life of people in many ways:
1. Economic effects. A lot of people depend upon agriculture. Monsoon rains are the basis of agriculture and backbone of the Indian Economy. If monsoons occur in time, it helps to increase agricultural production. When monsoons fail, there is a drought in India and the foodgrain reserves decrease. If monsoons start earlier,
the floods occur in different parts. If monsoons start late, the crops fail. With the result, it is often said, Indian budget is a gamble in monsoons.

2. Social effects. Monsoons affect the food, clothing, customs of people. With the
start of Monsoons, dress of people changes due to change in temperature. Monsoon winds complete a cycle in the country in which food and clothings change turn by turn. .

3. Religious effects. Many festivals are connected with monsoons. The sowing of crops and harvesting of crops are connected with festivals. Baisakhi in Punjab marks the harvesting of wheat crop and Bhangra is performed by farmers. In fact, the life of Indians revolves around Monsoons.

Question 6.
In spite of vast monsoon unity, there exist wide regional disparities in India. Explain with examples.
Answer:
The rainfall is unevenly distributed in India. Many regional variations are found in the distribution of annual rainfall. The distribution of annual rainfall shows two main trends:

From the coastal areas, the rainfall decreases towards the west and North-West.
The rainfall decreases towards the interior of the country.

The main factors controlling this distribution of rainfall are the presence of high mountains and the distance from the sea. The coastal areas get high rainfall. The west coast gets more than 200 cms. of rainfall while the east coast gets about 100 cms. of rainfall. The rainfall in the interior of peninsular India is as low as 50 cms. The Western Ghats, the Garo-Khasi hills, and the Sub-Himalayan region get more than 200 cms. of rainfall. But Rajasthan is dry as there is no high mountain to check S.W. Monsoons.

Distribution of Rainfall, The average annual rainfall of India is 118 cms. Regional variations in the distribution are found due to differences in relief of the country. Rainfall is unevenly distributed throughout the country.

India can be divided into the following, rainfall regions:

Areas of Heavy Rainfall. These areas get more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall. These include Western Coast and Western Ghats, Sub-Himalayas and the N.E. parts of India.
Areas of Moderate Rainfall. These areas get annual rainfall of 100-200 cms. These include West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Eastern parts of U.P. and Madhya Pradesh and coastal plains of Tamilnadu.
Areas of Low Rainfall. These areas experience an annual rainfall of 50-100 cms. These include Uttranchal, Haryana, Punjab, Gujarat, Peninsular plateau and Eastern Rajasthan.
Areas of Scanty Rainfall. These areas get less than 50 cms. of annual rainfall. These include Ladakh, S.W. Punjab, Southern Haryana, Western Rajasthan, Kutch and Thar Desert.

IV. Represent the following on the outline map of India.

Question 1.
(i) Low pressure areas of summer and direction of winds.
(ii) Areas of winter rainfall and direction of North-East monsoon winds.
(iii) Cheerapunji, Jaiselmer, Allahabad, Chennai.
(iv) Regions of very less rainfall.
(v) Regions of more than 200 centimetres rainfall.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 3 The Climate 3

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The Climate Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions each in one word or one line:

Question 1.
Which type of climate is found in India
Answer:
Monsoon climate.

Question 2.
Name the hottest place in India.
Answer:
Barmer.

Question 3.
Name the coldest place in India.
Answer:
Dras.

Question 4.
Name the Rainiest place in India.
Answer:
Mawsynram.

Question 5.
What is the cause of winter rain in’ Punjab?
Answer:
Cyclones.

Question 6.
What type of winds are monsoons?
Answer:
Seasonal.

Question 7.
What is the direction of summer monsoons?
Answer:
South-west.

Question 8.
Name a Kharif crop depending on rains.
Answer:
Rice.

Question 9.
What are hot dusty winds?
Answer:
Loo.

Question 10.
Name one example of rain shadow.
Answer:
Deccan plateau.

Question 11.
For which crop mango shower is useful?
Answer:
Coffee.

Question 12.
Which region has high pressure in winter?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 13.
To which state Kal Baishaki relates?
Answer:
Assam.

Question 14.
For which crop,winter rainfall is useful?
Answer:
Wheat.

Question 15.
What is the duration of monsoon in India?
Answer:
120 days.

Question 16.
How do Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal affect the climate of Sub¬continent?
Answer:
These two affect very deeply the climate of Indian sub-continent.

Question 17.
Which land mass works as effective climatic divide for India and how?
Answer:
Great Himalayas work as an effective climate divide for India.

Question 18.
If there were no monsoons what will be effect on India’s land mass?
Answer:
If there were no monsoons in India then it will become a dry land mass or a desert.

Question 19.
How do mountain ranges of Himalaya effect the extent of monsoons in India?
Answer:
Due to their effect the whole Indian sub-continent comes under the effect of saturated winds.

Question 20.
What is the period of rainy season in India? How much percentage rainfall occurs in this period?
Answer:
The period of rainy season is from June to September. 75% to 90% of rainfall occurs in this period.

Question 21.
In which part of India rainfall occurs by Western Cyclones? For which crop this rainfall is useful?
Answer:
Rainfall occurs in the northern India by western cyclones. This rainfall is useful for Rabi crop, especially the crop of wheat.

Question 22.
What is Monsoon trough?
Answer:
Monsoon trough is the name given to the region in the inter tropical convergence zone which has low pressure.

Question 23.
What do you mean by low pressure trough of Monsoon?
Answer:
The area with low pressure air develops in a big area in the end of May in this area.

Question 24.
Write two characteristics of Monsoon.
Answer:

Monsoon winds change their direction with the change in season.
Rainfall occurs in the rainy season due to these winds.

Question 25.
Write two main characteristics of season of Retreating winds.
Answer:

The area of low pressure is replaced by high pressure air.
Monsoons withdraw from Northern plains by the end of October.

Question 26.
In which part of India is the highest temperature in the start of summer season and what is the temperature?
Answer:
There is highest temperature on Deccan Plateau in the start of summer season and the temperature is almost 38°C.

Question 27.
Which place has the highest rainfall in the world and why?
Answer:
The highest rainfall occurs in the Mawsynram in the world.

Question 28.
Why does Shillong get more rainfall than Kolkata?
Answer:
Shillong is situated at high altitude in Meghalaya. Bay of Bengal branch gives here heavy rainfall (about 400 cms annual rainfall).

Question 29.
Why has Thiruvananthapuram an equable climate?
Answer:
Thiruvananthapuram is a coastal town of Kerala.

Question 30.
Define two characteristics of cold season in India.
Answer:

The cold season occurs during December, January and February.
It has a pleasant, comfortable weather.

Question 31.
Why does Thar desert get low rainfall?
Answer:
Aravallis lie parallel to S.W. monsoons and fail to check monsoons.

Question 32.
Name the following:
(i) Two stations affected most by Arabian Sea Branch of Monsoons.
Answer:
Windward slope of West ghats, and coastal plain

(ii) The most affected place by Bay of Bengal Branch of Monsoons.
Answer:
Mawsynram, Cheerapunji

(iii) Two stations affected by both.
Answer:
Dharamsala, Mandi (H.P.).

Question 33.
Name the following:
(i) Two stations affected by Retreating monsoons & N.E. monsoons.
Answer:
Chennai and Madurai

(ii) The months with highest rainfall.
Answer:
July, August.

Question 34.
Mumbai gets most of rainfall in summer, while Chennai gets most of rainfall in winter. Why?
Answer:

Mumbai gets rainfall by onshore S.W. winds of Arabian Sea.
Onshore N.E. winds give rainfall in winter season.

Question 35.
What is meant by Rain Shadow?
Answer:
The leeward dry slope of mountain.

Question 36.
Name the rainiest place in India.
Answer:
Mawsynram near Cheerapunji – 1187 cm rainfall.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Tropic of________ bisects India.
Answer:
Cancer

Question 2.
_______ % rain falls in summer.
Answer:
87

Question 3.
Agriculture is based on _________
Answer:
Monsoons

Question 4.
The west coast gets rainfall of ________
Answer:
250 cms

Question 5.
Hot season is __________
Answer:
dry

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the coldest place in India?
(a) Srinagar
(b) Shinila
(c) Dras
(d) Shillong.
Answer:
(c) Dras

Question 2.
Which is the hottest place in India?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Bangalore
(c) Barmer
(d) Kanpur.
Answer:
(c) Barmer

Question 3.
Which is the rainiest place in India?
(a) Cherrapunji
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai.
Answer:
(b) Mawsynram

Question 4.
The duration of monsoons in India is:
(a) 60 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 120 days
(d) 150 days.
Answer:
(c) 120 days

Question 5.
Which is a rain shadow area?
(a) Deccan plateau
(b) Assam
(c) Gujarat
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(a) Deccan plateau

True / False:

Question 1.
The southern part of west coastal plain is called Malabar coast.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Along the coast of Australia, EL Nino flows.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Winter cyclonic rainfall helps the growth of wheat crop.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Dry temperature in June in Barmer is 30°C.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Dras is the coldest place in India.
Answer:
True

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do Himalayas act as ‘climatic divide’ for India?
Answer:
The Himalayas act as a mountain wall to protect the sub-continent from the northern winds. These cold chilly polar winds cannot enter India, as these cannot cross the lofty Himalayas. So these mountains enable the Northern India to have a tropical climate. Thus the Himalayas act as an effective climatic divide.

Question 2.
Describe the origin of Monsoons and cause of its reversal of direction.
Answer:
Monsoon winds are caused due to difference in heating and cooling of land and water. In summer, the land gets more heated than sea resulting in a low pressure on the landmasses and a high pressure over seas. The winds blow from Sea to Land and in winter, from Land to Sea. Thus there is a reversal of wind direction according to seasons.

Question 3.
Distinguish between Western Jet Stream and Eastern Jet Stream.
Answer:
Western Jet Stream. The western jet stream is located in lower stratosphere over Southern Himalayas. In summer, its location is about 30° North. It lies north of the Tien Shan mountains in June.

Eastern Jet Stream. It lies over 25°N latitudes in winter. The western jet stream shifts southward due to shifting of the sun and takes the form of eastern jet stream. It is responsible for sudden burst of monsoons in summer in India.

Question 4.
What are the causes of storms occurring in May in N.W. part?
Answer:
A strong trough of low pressure is formed in N.W. India in May. These areas attract winds from the oceans. So the hot and dry winds meet these wet winds. With the result, storms originate. Strong winds prevail over the area. Sometimes, there is torrential rainfall and hailstones.

Question 5.
What would have been the climate of India, had there been no Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and Himalayas?
Answer:

Had there been no Bay of Bengal, there would not have been rainfall in S.E. coast (Tamil Nadu). Temperature would have been high.
Without the Arabian Sea, there would not have been so much rainfall on western ghats and west coastal plains.
Without the Himalayas, India would not have got monsoonal rainfall.

Question 6.
Why is not the monsoonal rainfall continuous?
Answer:
Summer monsoons are the cause of rainfall in India. The weather in S.W. monsoons is highly variable. It does not rain continuously throughout the period of summer monsoons. There are frequent ‘breaks’ or spells of dry weather, some of them lasting several days. This breaks the continuity of rain by S.W. monsoons.

The summer monsoons do not have great amount of moisture to give heavy rainfall. The amount of rainfall is increased by tropical depressions, convectional system, and jet stream. These cyclones are irregular and have a fluctuating pattern. The frequency of these cyclones determines the height of rainy season. The absence of these leads to a dry spell.

Question 7.
Give four examples of uncertainty and variability of Monsoons in India.
Answer:
Indian monsoons are variable and uncertain in time and place.

The number of rainy days sometimes increases and sometimes decreases,
Some years, it is heavy rainfall, hut some years get light rainfall,
The start and end of monsoons is early or late,
Some areas get high rainfall and some areas remain dry.

Question 8.
‘India would have been an arid land or desert, if there had been no phenomena of Monsoons.’ Explain it giving four points.
Answer:

Most of rainfall is obtained from S.W. Monsoons. Without these, India would have been arid.
Western coastal plain would have been dry.
Tamil Nadu, without N.E. monsoons, would have been dry.
Central and Eastern India would have been arid area.

Question 9.
Distinguish between Mango Showers and Kal Baisakhi.
Answer:
Mango Showers. Local rainfall in coastal areas of Kerala and Karnataka at the close of summer premonsoons is called Mango showers. It helps in early ripening of mangoes.

Kal Baisakhi. In summer, West Bengal and Assam get sharp showers by evening thunder-storms. These are called Kal Baisakhi. It means calamity of the month of Baisakh.

Question 10.
Why does the interior of Deccan Plateau and Rajasthan remain dry?
Answer:
In Rajasthan, Aravallis lying parallel to S.W. monsoons fail to check these. So they do not give rainfall. Deccan plateau is situated in rain shadow of western ghats. In this area, the descending winds become dry and do not give rainfall.

Question 11.
Name three characteristics of retreating monsoons.
Answer:
The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons.

The monsoon low pressure trough becomes weaker and is replaced by high pressure.
The effect of monsoons over Indian landmass begins to shrink.
The direction of surface winds starts reversing.

Question 12.
Name three areas getting low rainfall.
Answer:
The areas of low rainfall include the areas which get an annual rainfall of less than 50 centimetres.

Western Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana and Gujarat.
Interior of Deccan Plateau.
The region around Leh in Kashmir.

Question 13.
What is the effect of different seasons on life of people? Give three examples. .
Answer:

During cold winter seasons in Northern India, people wear woollen clothes in December.
Due to hot, dusty winds (Loo) it is uncomfortable in the month of May.
The moist laden monsoons give rainfall in June-July and weather becomes sticky.

Question 14.
What is Jet Stream? State its branches and speed. What are their effects?
Answer:
A Jet Stream is a high velocity wind in the upper air system. It has two branches- Westerly and Easternly jet streams. Westemly stream blows on 27°-30° N latitude. Its speed is about 110 km/hour to 184 km/hour. These bring cyclones with them over Northern India to increase summer rains.

Question 15.
What are western disturbances? What is their effect on crops?
Answer:
Western disturbances are low pressure depressions coming from Mediterranean sea. These blow over N.W. part of India during winter. These provide 10-20 cms of rainfall which is helpful to wheat and other rain crops. This small rainfall is locally known as Mahawat.

Question 16.
What do you mean by I.T.C.Z.? Explain its location and formation.
Answer:
I.T.C.Z. is Inter Tropical Convergence Zone. It is a brough trough of low pressure in Equatorial latitudes. It is formed due to convergence of N.E.’Trades and S.E. Trades.

It moves north or south of equator with the movement of the sun. It is situated on Ganga’ plain in summer and is called Monsoon trough also.

Question 17.
What is El Nino? What does it mean? What are its effects?
Answer:
El Nino is a periodic warm current blowing along the coast of Peru in Pacific Ocean. It is a Spanish word which means child. It increases the surface temperatures and weakens the trade winds. The difference between pressure in Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean is used to compute the intensity of Monsoons; early or late monsoons.

Question 18.
‘Relief plays a major role in determining the climate of a place.’ Explain with examples.
Answer:
High mountains act as barriers for cold or hot winds. The Himalayas check the cold winds from Siberia from entering in India. High mountains like Himalayas cause rainfall by checking moist winds. The leeward side of a mountain remains in Rainshadow and is dry.

Question 19.
Which weather conditions govern the climate of India?
Answer:
(a) Pressure and surface winds
(b) Upper ah circulations
(c) Western cyclonic disturbances
(d) Tropical cyclones.

Question 20.
What is October Heat?
Answer:
The month of October forms a period of transition from the hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. The retreat of monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. Day temperatures are high, but nights are cool and pleasant. The land is still moist. Owing to conditions of high temperature and humidity the weather is rather oppressive during the day. This is known as ‘October Heat’.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe the season of Advancing Monsoon in India.
Answer:
Advancing Monsoon. The four months of June. July, August and September form , the rainy season almost all over the country. This is called the season of‘Advancing Monsoons’. About 75% to 90% of total rainfall occurs in this season. This duration of the rainy season, however, goes on decreasing from south to north and from east to west. The rainy season is only two months long in North West, while it is nine months long in North East.

Origin of S.W. Monsoons. The low pressure conditions develop over the north western plains. By early June they are powerful enough to attract the trade winds of Southern Hemisphere. These south-east trade winds are Sea to Land winds. After crossing the equator these winds enter the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea. After that, these winds blow over India. Passing over the Equatorial warm currents they bring with them moisture in abundance. After crossing the equator they follow a southwesterly direction. This is why they are known as south-west monsoons.

Burst of Monsoons. The rain-bearing winds are strong. They blow at an average speed of 30 km per hour. They over-run the country in a month’s time. The sudden approach of the moisture-laden winds is associated with violent thunder and lightning. This is known as “break” or “burst” of the mopsoons.

Branches of S.W. Monsoons. The Indian peninsula divides the monsoon into two branches.

The Arabian Sea Branch
The Bay of Bengal Branch.

1. The Arabian Sea Branch. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoons strikes (Sahyadris) the Western Ghats. The windward side of the Sahyadris receives very heavy rains. Crossing the Western Ghats they blow over the Deccan Plateau and Madhya Pradesh. These winds give fair amount of rainfall in these areas. Thereafter, the jr enter in the Ganga Plains and mingle with the Bay of Bengal branch. Another part of the Arabian Sea branch strikes the Saurashtra peninsula and the Kutch. It passes over West Rajasthan and along the Aravallis causing only a scanty rainfall. In Punjab and Haryana too, it joins the Bay of Bengal branch. These two branches join together and cause rains in the Western Himalayas.

2. The Bay of Bengal Branch. The Bay of Bengal branch approaches the Burmese
coast and the southeast Bangladesh. But the Arakan Hills along the Burmese coast deflect this branch to enter the Indian subcontinent. The monsoons, therefore, enter West Bengal and Bangladesh from south and southeast instead of the south-westerly direction.

this branch splits into two parts under the influence of the mightly Himalayas and the thermal low in N.W. India.

One branch moves westward along the Ganga plains’ and reaches the Punjab plains.
The other branch moves up the Brahmaputra valley in the North and Northeast. It causes widespread rains in the North-eastern India. Its sub-branch strikes the Garo and Khasi Hills of the Meghalaya. Cherrapunji is situated at the head of a funnel-shaped valley in Khasi Hills. It gets the heaviest rainfall in the world due to its situation.

Distribution of Rainfall. Distribution of rainfall received from south-west monsoons is very largely governed by the relief or orography. For instance the windward side of the Western ghats gets a rainfall of over 250 centimetres. On the other hand the leeward side, receives 50 centimetres rainfall. The Northeastern States get heavy rainfall due to high Eastern Himalayas. The rainfall in the northern plains goes on decreasing from East to West. During this rainy season Kolkata receives about 120 centimetres, Patna 102 cm, Allahabad 91 cm and Delhi 56 cm.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 3 The Climate 4

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 3b Punjab: Drainage

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 3b Punjab: Drainage Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 3a India: Drainage

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Punjab: Drainage Textbook Questions and Answers

Map Work :

Show in the outline map of Punjab :
(i) Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and Ghaggar
(ii) Any four Canals
(iii) Any four Choes.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of India Map.

Activity :
Question 1.
Discuss in class, how can we check pollution in rivers?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Inform your teacher and officials about polluting river or canal near you.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Objective Type Questions :
Answer the following questions in a single word to one sentence length :

Question 1.
Which river originates from Rakshtal near lake Mansarovar?
(0 Ghaggar
(ii) Beas
(iii) Sutlej
(iv) Brahmaputra.
Answer:
(iii) Sutlej.

Question 2.
How many rivers are there in Punjab?
(i) Three
(ii) Four
(iii) Five
(iv) Eight.
Answer:
(i) Three.

Question 3.
Ranjit Sagar or Theen dam has been built on which river?
(i) Beas
(ii) Ravi
(iii) Sutlej
(iv) None of these.
Answer:
(ii) Ravi.

Question 4.
In which district do Bhangi and Basha choes fall?
(i) Ferozpur
(ii) Gurdaspur
(iii) Hoshiarpur
(iv) None of these.
Answer:
(iii) Hoshiarpur.

Question 5.
Which statement is right and which is wrong:
(i) Ravi, Beas and Sutlej are perennial rivers.
Answer:
True

(ii) Kali Bein and Parvati are tributaries of Beas.
Answer:
True

(iii) Purest form of natural water is rain water.
Answer:
True

(iv) Punjab has 10 headworks and 20,786 km canals.
Answer:
False.

Question 6.
What does word ‘Bist’ mean in term Bist Doab?
Answer:
From the initial words of river Beas and Sutlej (Bist), word Bist is created.

Question 7.
Name two canals which take water to Rajasthan from Harike lake.
Answer:
Rajasthan Feeder which is also known as Indira Gandhi command river.

Question 8.
Which river of Punjab provides water to Haryana?
Answer:
Ghaggar river.

Question 9.
What is the source of Upper Bari Doab canal?
Answer:
Madhopur Headworks.

Question 10.
On which river Pong Dam has been built?
Answer:
Beas river.

Short Answer Questions :
Give short answers for the following questions :

Question 1.
Enlist tributaries of Beas and Ravi.
Answer:

Beas. Major tributaries of Beas are Sukantri, Parvati, Mohan, Ugman and Kali Bean.
Ravi. Major tributaries of Ravi are Sakki Kiran wala and Ujh.

Question 2.
What are Choes? Name any four choes.
Answer:
Choes are seasonal rivers which are filled with water during rainy season. Many choes start from the Sailamingi hills. There are a number of seasonal choes in the Kandi region of Punjab. Balachaur choe, Garhshankar choe, Nariala choe, Nurpur Bedi choe etc. are few of the choes.

Question 3.
Introduce with pollution of drainage systems of Punjab.
Answer:
When some unnecessary things are thrown in pure water that makes it unusable for human consumption, it is called water pollution. There is no denying the fact that most of the rivers in Punjab are filled with polluted water. Many departments and Environment Ministry of the Indian Government also believe that there is lot of water pollution in the rivers of Punjab and these are becoming poisonous. The poison is reaching human body through food and people are becoming the victims of many dangerous diseases. For example, Buddah Nullah has become completely poisonous. We need to save our rivers to protect our lives along with pure water.

Long Answer Questions :
Answer the following questions in detail :

Question 1.
Enlist information about Sutlej its tributaries and dams built on them.
Answer:
Sutlej river originates from a place called Rakshtal near Mansarovar lake at the height of 4630 metre in Tibet. When it crosses Himalaya mountain it makes deep gorges. It enters plains at Bhakhra and here Bhakhra dam has been made. From Nangal, Sutlej river moves in south direction and when it reaches Ropar, many seasonal choes, small rivers meet the main river. In Firozpur district, it enters Pakistan at Sulaiman, 60 km. away from Harike Pattan. Bhakhra dam, Kotla dam, Naptha Jhakhri and Nangal Dam have also been made on Sutlej river.

Tributaries of Sujtlej river. Beas and Kali Bein are major tributaries of Sutlej. At Makhu, Chitti Bein enters Sutlej river. Many dams and many headworks such as Ropar Headworks and Harike Headworks have been made on Sutlej river.

Question 2.
Give details of canal system of Punjab. How agriculture got benefitted by it?
Answer:
Most of Punjab’s population is engaged in agriculture or related occupations. Green Revolution was started in Punjab during the decade of 1960. Irrigation played an important role in the success of green revolution because now it was not possible for the farmers to solely depended upon rain. That’s why from time to time, Punjab developed its own canal system. There are 14500 km. long canals and 5 Headworks in Punjab. There are 10 canals in Punjab and these are Sirhind canal, Upper Bari Doab canal, Bist Doab canal, Bhakhra Mainline canal, Firozpur/Sirhind Feeder arrangement, Kashmir canal, Makhu canal, Shah canal, Rajasthan Feeder and Bikaner Canal. 8 out of 10 canals are given below :

Canal	Place of Origin	Length
1. Bhakhra Main Line	Nangal Bairaj	161.36 km
2. Rajasthan Feeder	Harike Headworks (Taran Taran)	149.53 km
3. Sirhind Feeder II	Harike Headworks	136.53 km
4. Sirhind	Ropar Headworks	59.44 km
5. Bist Doab	Ropar Headworks	43.00 km
6. Upper Bari Doab	MadhopurHeadworks	42.35 km
7. Eastern Canal	Hussainiwala Headworks	8.02 km
8. Shah Canal	Mukerian Hydel Channel	2.33 km

Advantages to Agriculture: This canal system proved to be quite fruitful for Punjab.

Its advantages are :

These canals provide water for irrigation throughout the year.
With the artificial means of irrigation, farmers are able to produce two or more than two crops in one year.
With more production of crops, income of farmers also increases.
Dams have been made on rivers and canals which provide water to farmers in case there is drought or no rain in the region.
Hydroelectricity have been made from Dams which is provided throughout the year to homes and industries.

Question 3.
Write a detailed note on the Choes of Punjab.
Answer:
Choes are seasonal rivers which get filled with water in the rainy season. There is a Kandi region in Punjab where there is existence of many choes. Many of these choes originate in Sailamingi hills. When rain comes, these choes get filled with water. Punjab Government is successful in filling up of many choes and their water is used in agriculture or somewhere else.

There are 93 choes flowing in the south west of Hoshiarpur district out of which many fall either in Kali Bein or Chiti Bein. There are many choes in Hoshiarpur district and few of them are quite important such as Taissan choe, Banea choe, Garhshankar Balachaur choe, Maili choe, Narialo choe, Nangal Shahida choe, Godpur choe, Dasuha choe. To control choes, Punjab Government started Kandi Area Development Programme. There are few seasonal nullahs in Punjab as well such as Patiala di Rao, Jaintiya Devi di Rao, Buddah Nullah etc.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Punjab: Drainage Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Punjab word is made up of __________
(a) Punj + Aab
(b) Punj a + Aahab
(c) Punj + Aahab
(d) Pun + Jahab.
Answer:
(a) Punj + Aab

Question 2.
How many rivers are there __________ in the present Pun
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(b) Three

Question 3.
Which of these is a seasonal river?
(a) Ghaggar,
(b) Sakki Kiran
(c) Kali Bein
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 4.
Which of these is a perennial river?
(a) Ravi
(b) Beas
(c) Sutlej
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 5.
Ranjit Sagar dam is made on river.
(a) Ravi
(b) Beas
(c) Sutlej
(d) Chenab.
Answer:
(a) Ravi

Question 6.
Pong Dam is made on __________ river
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Beas
(d) Chenab.
Answer:
(c) Beas

Question 7.
There are choes in Hoshiarpur.
(a) 70
(b) 93
(c) 84
(d) 54.
Answer:
(b) 93

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
In __________ A.D., India was divided __________ and paid the heavy price.
Answer:
1947, Punjab

Question 2.
Ravi, Beas and __________ are __________ rivers.
Answer:
perennial

Question 3.
The work of Ranjit Sagar Dam was completed in __________ A.D.
Answer:
2001

Question 4.
Sukantri is a major tributary of __________ river.
Answer:
Beas

Question 5.
__________ was once a part of river Saraswati.
Answer:
Ghaggar.

True/False:

Question 1.
Jehlum, Chenab and Indus are in Pakistani Punjab.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Ravi enters Pakistan at a place called Kankaj Majh.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
1600 watt electricity is produced from Ranjit Sagar Dam.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Pong Dam is made on the river Beas.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Rajasthan Feeder Canal was carved out of river Ravi.
Answer:
False.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of the word ‘Punjab’?
Answer:
The word Punjab is made up of two words ‘Punj’ and Aab’ which means land of five rivers.

Question 2.
How many and which rivers remained in Punjab after 1947?
Answer:
Three – Sutlej, Ravi and Beas.

Question 3.
Which rivers went over to Pakistan’s Punjab after 1947?
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab and Indus river.

Question 4.
What are perennial rivers?
Answer:
Such rivers which are filled with water throughout the year are called perennial rivers.

Question 5.
How does water come in perennial rivers?
Answer:
Due to melting snow of mountains, perennial rivers get water throughout the year.

Question 6.
Name few of the seasonal rivers of Punjab.
Answer:
Ghaggar, Kali Bein, Chitti Bein, Chakki Khad, Swan etc.

Question 7.
Name any two relict rivers.
Answer:
Buddah Nullah and Sakki Kiran Nullah.

Question 8.
Where does river Ravi originate?
Answer:
River Ravi originates at the height of 4116 metre in the north of Rohtang pass which is in the mountains of Kullu.

Question 9.
Which dam is made on the river Ravi and which river was carved out of it?
Answer:
Ranjit Sagar Dam is made on the river Ravi and Upper Bari Doab river was carved out of it.

Question 10.
Which headworks are made on the river Ravi?
Answer:
Dhane or Basantpur near Shahpur Kandi, Madhopur Heardworks and Madhopur Beas Link on Kathua Feeder.

Question 11.
Tell something about Ranjit Sagar Dam.
Answer:
Ranjit Sagar Dam is made on river Ravi and produces 600 megawatt electricity. It was sanctioned in 1981 and its works was completed in March 2001.

Question 12.
From where river Beas originates?
Answer:
River Beas originates from Beas Kund which is situated at the height of 4060 metre near Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 13.
Which dams have been constructed on river Beas?
Answer:
Pandoh in Himachal Pradesh and Pong dam in Punjab,

Question 14.
Which canal is carved out of river Beas?
Answer:
Rajasthan Feeder Canal which is also known as Indira Gandhi Command canal.

Question 15.
Name the tributaries of Beas.
Answer:
Parvati, Sukantri, Mohan, Ugman and Kali Bein.

Question 16.
From where river Sutlej originates?
Answer:
Sutlej originates from Rakshtal which is situated near Mansarovar lake in Tibet.

Question 17.
At which place Sutlej enters Pakistan?
Answer:
It enters Pakistan at a place called Sulaiman in Firozpur.

Question 18.
Which dams are constructed on river Sutlej?
Answer:
Nathpa-Jhakri, Nangal dam, Kotla dam.

Question 19.
What type of river is Ghaggar?
Answer:
Ghaggar is a seasonal river. It flows in the southern Punjab.

Question 20.
From where “Ghaggar originates?
Answer:
River Ghaggar originates in the hills of Sirmour.

Question 21.
Which area of Punjab has many choes?
Answer:
Kandi region of Punjab has many choes.

Question 22.
What is a choe?
Answer:
Choe is a small river which gets filled during the rainy season.

Question 23.
Which district of Punjab has many choes?
Answer:
Hoshiarpur district of Punjab has many choes:

Question 24.
What is the total length of the canals of Punjab?
Answer:
14500 km.

Question 25.
Which is the longest canal of Punjab?
Answer:
Bhakhra main line whose length is 161.36 km.

Question 26.
Which river was once a tributary of river Saraswati?
Answer:
Ghaggar river was once a tributary of river Saraswati.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Tell something about the drainage of Punjab.
Answer:
The word Punjab is made up of two words ‘Punj’ and ‘Aab’ which means land of five rivers. Before 1947, there were many rivers in Punjab but after the partition of country, Jhelum, Chenab, Indus and many other rivers went over to Pakistan. Now there are only three rivers in Punjab and these are Ravi, Beas and Sutlej These three rivers are perennial rivers in which water flows throughout the year due to melting snow of Himalaya. There are many seasonal rivers as well such as Ghaggar, Ujh, Kali Bein, Chitti Bein, Sukarni,, Nurpur Bedi choe etc. There are many Relict rivers as well such as Buddah Nullah and Sakki Kiran Nullah.

Question 2.
Tell something about the tributaries of river Ravi.
Answer:
When river Ravi reaches Madhopur, many Khads or tributaries enter its water. The most important one is Ujh river. Sakki Kiranwala river flows along Ravi and at Indo-Pak border, it enters Ravi. Four headworks have been made on river Ravi and these are Kathua feeder on Madhopur, Beas link, Bana or Basantpur near Shahpur Kandi, Madhopur headworks and Katardhar.

Question 3.
Tell something about the tributaries of river Beas.
Answer:
Sukantri, Ugman, Parvati, Kali Bein and Moha are the few tributaries of river Beas. After reaching Talwara, Moha enters river Beas near Harike, Kali Bein while flowing through Hoshiarpur and Kapurthala, enters river Beas. Pong dam and Pandoh dam are also constructed on the same river.

Question 4.
Write a small note on Ghaggar.
Answer:
Once river Saraswati flowed through Punjab and river Ghaggar was its part. But now Ghaggar is a seasonal river that flows through the south of Punjab. It originates in Sirmour hills. At a place called Mubarkpur, it enters plain areas.

Then it crosses Patiala, Ghanaur and areas of Haryana. Finally, it enters Rajasthan and ends in the desert.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write a note on the river Ravi.
Answer:
River Ravi is a perennial river of Punjab which is full of water throughout the year because the water in it comes from the melting of Himalayan snow. River Ravi originates in the north of Rohtang Pass, the mountains of Kullu. This place is 4116 metres high from sea level. River Ravi continuously flows from its place of origin, crosses the Duauladhar and Pir Panjal range and while flowing through depression, crosses Chamba and Dalhousie.

There is a place called Madhopur in Pathankot where it enters the plains. Ranjit Sagar dam, Theen dam have been made on Ravi and for them, Madhopur headworks have been made. From here only, Upper Bari Doab Canal is carved out. Then river Ravi crosses through Pathankot, Gurdaspur, and Amritsar districts. Here it fixes the boundary of India and Pakistan. At a place called Rakhar Manjh, it enters Pakistan. In Pakistan, at a place called Sidhani, it enters the water of Chenab. Ujh river and Sakki Kiranwala are its important tributaries.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Land

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Land Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions objectively :

Question 1.
Name main units of India’s physical divisions.
Answer:

Himalayan ranges
Northern great plains
Peninsular plateau
Coastal plains and
Indian islands.

Question 2.
What is the size of the Himalayan Mountain range?
Answer:
Himalayans are a convex curve. Its central part is bent along Indo-Nepalese border and looks like a bow.

Question 3.
Name the major peaks of Trans Himalayas.
Answer:
The main peaks are Mt. K₂ Godwin Austin, Hindon Peak, Broad Peak Geyserabam, Rakaposhi, Harmush.

Question 4.
Which mountain peaks are found at the height above 8000 metres in Greater Himalayas?
Answer:
Mt. Everest 8848 metres, Kanchenjunga (8598) metres, Makalu 8481 metres, Dhaulagiri 8172 metres Manalasu, Naga Parbat and Annapurna.

Question 5.
Name the young and old mountains of India.
Answer:
Himalayas are young mountains. Old mountains include Aravallis, Vindhyas, Satpuras.

Question 6.
Where are rift valleys located in India?
Answer:
Rift valleys are found over peninsular India like Narmada and Tapti valleys.

Question 7.
What is meant by delta?
Answer:
A triangular shaped land formed in the lower course of a river is called a delta.

Question 8.
Name some important deltaic regions of India.
Answer:
The main deltas are Ganga Brahmaputra, Godawari Delta, Kaveri Delta, Krishna Delta and Mahanadi Delta.

Question 9.
Which passes are found in the Himalayan mountains?
Answer:
The main passes in Himalayas are Burzel, Zoji la, Nanak la, Chang la, Khurnak la, Barala, Shipki la, Nathu la, Takla Kot.

Question 10.
Name the important mountain ranges of the lesser Himalayas.
Answer:

Pir Panjal in Kashmir
Dhauladhar to Kumaon in H.P.
Mahabharat ranges in Nepal
Mussorie in U.P.
Thimpu in Bhutan.

Question 11.
Which hill stations and valleys are found in Lesser Himalayas?
Answer:
Shimla, Srinagar, Mussorie, Nainital, Darjeeling, Chakrata are hill resorts.

Question 12.
Name the main Doon-valleys of our country.
Answer:
Dehra Dun, Patli Doon, Kothri Doon, Udhampur, Kotli.

Question 13.
Name the major Eastern off-shoots of Himalayas.
Answer:
Patkoi Bum, Garo, Khasi, Jaintia, Tripura.

Question 14.
Which landform features formed by rivers are found in the Great Northern plains?
Answer:
Alluvial cones, Fans, Meanders, River terraces, Natural leaves and Flood plains.

Question 15.
What is the size of the Brahmaputra plain?
Answer:
Brahmaputra plain is 640 kms. long and 90-100 kms wide. This narrow plain slopes from N. East to West.

Question 16.
What is the extent of Aravalli mountain range? Give the name of its highest peak.
Answer:
Aravallies extend from Delhi to Gujarat. It is 725 km long. Guru Shikhar 1722 metres high is the highest peak.

Question 17.
Name the major peaks of western ghats.
Answer:

Vania Mala (2339 metres)
Kudremukh (1894 Metres)
Pushpagiri (1714 metres), Kalsubai (1646 metres).

Question 18.
Name the southern mountains of the Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Javadi, Gingee, Shevroy, Kalaimalais, Panchmalais, Godumalai are the hills of Eastern ghats.

Question 19.
Which mountain ranges meet at the Anaimudi Knot?
Answer:
Three ranges meet at Anaimudi Knot Cardamom from south, Anaimalai from North and Palni from North East.

Question 20.
Which hill stations are found in Deccan plateau’s hilly region?
Answer:
Doda Beta, Ootacumand (Udagmandlam), Kodaikanal.

Question 21.
What are the sub-divisions of North-eastern coastal plain?
Answer:

Orissa Coast
Northern Circar Coast.

Question 22.
Name the Islands in the Arabian sea.
Answer:
This group of islands is called Lakshadweep. It includes Amini Divi, Central (Lacca deep), Minicoi in South.

Question 23.
Which onshore Islands are found near the coasts of India?
Answer:
Sagar, Saurat, New Moors islands, Bhasra, Palmban, Elephanta are near the coasts of India.

Question 24.
Where is the Southern frontier point of India located?
Answer:
Indira Point (Near Great Nicobar).

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Do we find any similarities between Himalayan mountain and the Deccan plateau?
Answer:
The following similarities are found between the Himalayas and the Deccan plateau.

The Himalayas came into existence due to presence of the Southern plateau.
The hills, faults and folds of the southern peninsula have been formed due to pressure from the Himalayas.
Many minerals are found in both areas.:
Forests are found in both areas for the use in the country.

Question 2.
Are the Himalayan mountains still in youth or young stage?
Answer:

There is no doubt about the fact that Himalayas are still young fold mountains.
It has been folded out of sediments deposited by rivers. Folds were formed in sediments due to the drifting of two blocks on either side. It increased the height of Himalayas.
Himalayas are still rising. These mountains were formed at a later stage as compared to other mountains. So these are called young mountains.

Question 3.
Throw some light on the surface features of Great Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himalayas extend from Indus Valley to Dihang Gorge in the East. Its main characteristics are:

It is the longest and the highest mountain range of the country. It includes old rocks of granite, gneiss crystalline metamorphic rocks.
It has Mt. Everest 8848 metres high, the highest peak of the world.
The peaks of the Himalayas are always snow-covered.
Many passes make routes across it.
It includes important valleys of Kathmandu and Kashmir.

Question 4.
Which alluvial plains form part of the great Indian Northern Plain?
Answer:
The following are the alluvial plains included in Northern great plain:

Khadar plains
Bangar plains
Bhabar plains
Terai plains
Barren plains.

Question 5.
Write a Geographical note on the Thar Desert.
Answer:
Thar Desert extends from southern borders of Punjab and Haryana to Rann of Kutch (Gujarat). It is a plain and arid area. Aravallis form its eastern boundary. It has international boundary of Pakistan in the West. It is 640 km. long and 300 km. wide. In ancient period, this region was under sea. Proofs show that this desert was once a fertile area. But due to low rainfall and deforestation it has been changed into areas of sand dunes.

Question 6.
What could be the different divisions of Indian Islands on the basis of location? Explain with examples and diagrams.
Answer:
On the basis of location, Indian islands can be divided into the following two groups:
1. Islands situated away from the coast. There are about 230 islands found in groups. Such Coral islands exist in Arabian Sea and are called Lakshdweep islands. Amandivi, Lakshdweep, Minicoy are other islands. Andaman Nicobar islands, Norcadam, Barren islands are found in Bay of Bengal.

2. Islands situated near the coast. The new moor islands Sorat, Wheeler islands are found near Ganges delta. Other islands are Bhasara, Diu, Palmbam, Mandapam, Elephanta.

Question 7.
What is the contribution of coastal plains to entire country?
Answer:

Coastal plains are known for rice, dates, coconuts, spices, ginger, cardamoms, etc.
It leads in international trade.
High grade fish are caught in these coastal areas,
Beaches along Goa, Mumbai, Tamilnadu are a great attraction for the tourists.
Salt is prepared on the marshy areas of west coast.

Question 8.
What is the contribution of the Himalayan Region to the development of the country as a whole?
Answer:
The following is the contribution of the Himalayan region to the development of the country as a whole.

Useful Rivers. All the important rivers such as the Ganga, the Yamuna, the Sutlej, the Brahmaputra etc. rise in the Himalayas.
Useful Wood. On account of heavy rainfall, dense forests are found in the Himalayas. Teak, deodar and pine are some of the trees, the wood of which is of great use.
Minerals. Many types of minerals are found in the Himalayas.
Fruits and Tea. The slopes of the Himalayas are very favourable for the growth of various fruits and tea. Assam is known for good quality of tea.
Fodder and Medicinal Herbs. Many varities of medicinal herbs and grasses for fodder grow over most of the parts of Himalayas.

Question 9.
How does the peninsular plateau affect the other physical region of India?
Answer:

Peninsular India is a part of old Gondwana land. The rivers rising out of it helped in the formation of Himalayas. After that it helped in the formation of Northern plains.
On both sides of the plateau, there are many dams. These dams provide water for irrigation to the plains and power for industries.
The forests of this area meet the needs of the other parts of the country.

III. Differentiate between

Question 1.
(i) Distinguish between Terai and Bhabar region.
Answer:

Terai	Bhabar
1. Terai is a broad long zone south of Bhabar plain.	1. Bhabar is a long narrow plain along the foothills.
2. It is a marshy damp area covered with thick forests.	2. It is a pebble-studded zone of porous beds.
3. It is 20-30 kms wide.	3. It is 8-16 km wide.
4. Many streams re-emerge here from the Bhabar area.	4. Streams are lost in the region due to porous rocks.
5. It is suitable for agriculture.	5. It is unsuitable for agriculture.

(ii) Distinguish between Bangar and Khadar.
Answer:

Bangar	Khadar
1. The older alluvium of the high plain is called Bangar.	1. The younger alluvium of the flood plain is called Khadar.
2. This area stands above the level of the , flood plain.	2. Flood water spreads a new layer over it every year.
3. It is composed of calcarous Kankars and clay. (Dahia)	3. It is composed of fertile alluvium. (Bet)

IV. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Divide the relief of India and explain in detail any one region.
Answer:
India is divided into following physiographic divisions:

Himalayan Ranges
Northern Great Plains
Peninsular India
Coastal Plains
Indian Islands.

Himalayan Ranges. The Himalayas are spread over the northern boundary of India like an arc, from west to east. The length of these mountains is about 2500 kilometres and breadth is between 250 to 400 kilometres. The Mount Everest (8,848 metres) is the highest peak of the Himalayas.

The Himalayas can be divided into three parts :
1. Northern Kashmir Himalayas. The North-western part of the Himalayas is known as the Kashmir Himalayas. Karakoram, Laddakh, Zaskar and Kailash ; are the main ranges of the Kashmir Himalayas.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 1

2. Main Himalayas
1. Greater Himalayas or Himadri. This range spreads from East to West. Mount Everest (8,488 metres), the highest peak of the world lies in the range. Jojila, Jailpa la and Lingshi la are some of the important passes in this range.

2. The Himachal Range or Lesser Himalayas. The average height of this range is 3500 to 4500 metres and its breadth is 60 to 80 kilometres. Hill stations like Shimla, Mu^oorie and Nainital are situated on this range.

3. Shiwaliks or Outer Himalayas. The average height of these hills is 900 to 1200 metres and breadth is only 10 to 50 kilometres.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 2
The Himalayas

4. Off-Shoots of the Himalayas. The Himalayas turn to the south on the eastern and western flanks. They are repectively known as the Eastern and the Western Himalayas in the east and the west.
(а) Eastern Himalayas. The Himalayas consist of the famous hills of Patkoi, Naga and Manipur. They are very low hills and are fully covered with forests.
(b) Western Himalayas. In the West, Suleman and Kirthar ranges are dominant. They have many important passes like Khyber, Tochi and Bolan.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 3
Western Himalayas

Eastern Himalayas

Question 2.
Write a note on the origin and structure of the Himalayas. Are they still rising?
Answer:
Millions of years ago, the Himalayas were occupied by a geosyncline known as Tethys. It was sandwiched between two long landmasses—Angara land on the north and Gondwana land on the south. The Tethys seas stretched over the Northern plains in east-west direction. For millions of years, sediments were deposited in Tethys sea. These sediments were folded to form the Himalayas. The land masses of Angara land and Gondwana land drifted slowly towards each other. The horizontal forces worked from two opposite directions resulting in compression. It led to sinking of the Tethys sea.

The Indian plate was driven northwards and pushed beneath the Eurasian plate. When the two plates came closer, the Tethys sea’s crust fractured. The sediments buckled and folded to form the mighty fold mountains of the Himalayas. It has been observed that the ‘Himalayas are still rising.

Question 3.
Compare the Western and Eastern coastal plains.
Answer:

Western Coastal Plains	Eastern Coastal Plains
1. West Coast is a narrow alluvial plain with a width of 50-80 kms.It is uneven and wet.	1. The Eastern Coast has a wide plain with well developed delta 80 to 120 km wide. It is level and dry.
2. Beautiful lagoons are found on the Malabar Coast.	2. The Eastern Coast has only two or three lagoons.
3. The short swift rivers do not make any deltas on the western Coast. The Tapti and Narmada make estuaries.	3. The large rivers make wide deltas on the Eastern Coast. Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishana, Cauvery make well developed deltas.
4. Kandla, Mumbai, Marmugao, Mangalore and Cochi are major ports on West Coast.	4. Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Paradeep and’Kolkata are major ports on the East Coast.

Question 4.
Give a detailed description of the size, origin and regional division of India’s Northern plains.
Answer:
Extent. The great plain extends in between the Himalayas and the Peninsular plateau. It is 3200 km long and 150 to 300 km wide. Its average height is 150 metres. It covers an area of 7.5 lakh sq. km.

Formation. It is an alluvium filled trough. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought from the Himalayas by the Ganga, Sutlej and other rivers.

Main Characteristics :

It is a dead flat lowland. The maximum height above the sea level is 263 metres.
It has a gentle gradient \(\frac{1}{4}\) metre per km.
It has huge depth of alluvium.
A large number of rivers flow in this plain dividing it into Doabs.
It has fertile alluvial soils namely Khadar and Bangar soils.

Division of Northern Plain :

Bhabar and Terai. It is a long, narrow zone along the foothills. It is a pebble- studded zone. Swampy areas occur in Terai.
Punjab Plain. This plain has a slope in the South West direction. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments by Ravi, Beas and Sutlej rivers. Chos (seasonal streams) cause soil erosion in foothills of Shiwaliks.
Ganga Plain. This plain has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought by the Ganga and its tributaries. It can be divided into three regions—upper Ganga plain, middle Ganga plain and the lower Ganga plain. It occupies an area of about 3.5 lakh sq. km. Sunder Ban Delta is formed in the lower Ganga plain.
Brahmaputra Plains. These plains are situated in the Eastern part and are often known as Assam valley. The Brahmaputra river forms a large delta in Bangladesh.

The Great Indian Desert plain of the west. This covers the western part of the Aravalli mountains. This region has a sandy land, so it is also known as the Thar desert. This region gets very little rainfall, due to which the agriculture is not developed here. There are many saltwater lakes like the Sambhar, Didwana and Panchpadra, from which salt is extracted.

The formation of northern plains.
The northern plains lie in between the Himalayas and the peninsular India. It has been formed by the filling of the depression formed by Tethys sea. The Himalayan rivers after eroding the Himalayas deposited huge amount of silt and deposition in the ever-shrinking Tethys sea. This depression has been filled gradually to form northern plains or the Indo- gangetic plains. These rivers have deposited silt to form Ganga delta in Bangladesh. Due to continuous deposition, the delta is still advancing towards sea.

Question 5.
What is the extent and surface formation of the Peninsular Plateau? Describe its sub-division on the basIs”of slope of the land’.
Answer:
The Peninsular Plateau:
The Deccan plateau is the oldest structure of India. It is the core of the geology of India. It is surrounded by oceans on three sides. Therefore it is often called Peninsular plateau. It covers an area of 16 lakh sq. km. The average altitude of the plateau varies from 600 to 900 metres. Its limits are formed by the Aravallis in the North Rajmahal Hills and Shillong plateau in the East. There is Malda gap between Rajmahal hills and Shillong plateau. The southernmost point is known as Kanyakumari. It is an ancient, stable, hard block formed by igneous and metamorphic rocks. It was part of Gondwana land.

Division of Peninsular Plateau. A series of low hills, known as Satpura ranges between 21° N to 24° N latitudes divided the Peninsular plateau into two parts.
(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Deccan Plateau.

(a) Malwa Plateau. The Malwa plateau covers a large part of central highlands. It extends from Aravallis in the West, Ganges valley in the North and East, and Vindhyas in the South. The Aravallis are residual mountains or Relict Mountains. Its highest peaks are Mt. Abu (1158 metres) and Guru Shikhar (1722 metres). This plateau includes Bundelkhand, Baghelkhand and Chambal valley. This Vindhyan plateau consists of long narrow ridges made up of Quartzite rocks. It extends upto Mahadeo Hills, Kaimur range, Maikal range, Rajmahal hills in the East. In the East lies Chotta Nagpur plateau drained by Damodar river. This plateau is the storehouse of minerals of India.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 5
Vindhyas: This range extends from east to west in the north of River Narmada. It separates Northern India from Southern India. Its average height is 300 metres. It starts from Gujarat in the west and goes up to Bihar in the East passing through the Madhya Pradesh.

Satpuras: This mountain range spreads between the Narmada and the Tapti rivers. They extend from Gujarat in the west to Amarkantak in the east. Dhupgarh (1350 metres) is the highest point of these ranges.

(b) Deccan Plateau: This plateau lies South of Narmada river. It is surrounded by mountain ranges on three sides Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and Satpuras. Narmada and Tapti valleys are rift valleys between Satpuras and Vindhyas. Karnataka Plateau lies between Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Deccan plateau is a tilted plateau with a general eastward slope. It covers an area of about 70 lakh sq. km. Its average height varies between 500 metres to 1000 metres.

The rivers have divided this plateau into many sub divisions. N.W. Deccan plateau is made up of lava and is known as Deccan trap.
1. the Western Ghats. The Western Ghats extend from Tapti Valley up to Kanyakumari for about 1500 kms. It has three passes Thai ghat, Bhor ghat and Pal ghat. These ranges rise abruptly from the coast. Short swift streams flow towards the west and do not form deltas. The average height is about 1200 metres. Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery rivers rise from Western ghats and flow towards East. Anai Mudi (2698 metres) is the highest peak.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 6
East-West Cross Profile of the South Indian Plateau

2. Eastern Ghats. Eastern Ghats extend for about 800 kms from Mahanadi valleys upto Nilgiris. These are not continuous ranges. Rivers form wide gaps. Javadi, Shevroy and Nallamalai bills are found in the Southern part.

(Hi) Nilgiris. The western and eastern Ghats join each other in the south where they are known as the Nilgiris. Doda Beta (2637 metres) is the highest peak in the Nilgiris.

Question 6.
Compare and contrast the surface features of the Himalayas and Peninsular Plateau.
Or
Cite difference between Himalayas and Peninsular Plateau comparing their physical features.
Answer:

The Himalayas	Indian Plateau
1. The Himalayas are young new fold mountains.	1. The Indian plateau is an ancient crystalline table land.
2. These mountains have been formed due to folding by different earth movements.	2. This plateau has been formed’ as a Horst.
3. The relief features show young age of the Himalayas.	3. The plateau is old and well dissected.
4. Parallel mountain ranges are formed in the Himalayan region.	4. Rift valleys are formed due to faulting.
5. These mountains are the loftiest mountain system of the world with the highest mountain peak Mt. Everest 8848 mts. above sea level.	5. It is an old eroded crystal rock with the highest peak Anaimudi 2695 mts. above sea level.
6. These mountains extend in an arc.	6. This plateau is triangular in shape.
7. Deep gorges and U-shaped valleys are formed.	7. Narrow deep river valleys are formed on the plateau.
8. These have been formed out of Tethys sea in Mesozoic period. (276 Million years ago.)	8. This plateau has been lifted out of the sea in the precambrian period. (1600 million years ago.)
9. It is made up of sedimentary rocks.	9. It is made up of igneous rocks.

Question 7.
Write short notes on:
(i) Vindhyachal
Answer:
Vindhyas: This range extends from east to west in the north of River Narmada. It separates Northern India from Southern India. Its average height is 300 metres. It starts from Gujarat in the west and goes up to Bihar in the East passing through the Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) Satpuras
Answer:
Satpuras: This mountain range spreads between the Narmada and the Tapti rivers. They extend from Gujarat in the west to Amarkantak in the east. Dhupgarh (1350 metres) is the highest point of these ranges.

(iii) Aravalli Mountains
Answer:

(iv) Malwa Plateau and
Answer:
Malwa Plateau: The Malwa plateau covers a large part of central highlands. It extends from Aravallis in the West, Ganges valley in the North and East, and Vindhyas in the South. The Aravallis are residual mountains or Relict Mountains. Its highest peaks are Mt. Abu (1158 metres) and Guru Shikhar (1722 metres). This plateau includes Bundelkhand, Baghelkhand and Chambal valley. This Vindhyan plateau consists of long narrow ridges made up of Quartzite rocks. It extends upto Mahadeo Hills, Kaimur range, Maikal range, Rajmahal hills in the East. In the East lies Chotta Nagpur plateau drained by Damodar river. This plateau is the storehouse of minerals of India.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 5

(v) Nilgiri Hills.
Answer:
Nilgiris: The western and eastern Ghats join each other in the south where they are known as the Nilgiris. Doda Beta (2637 metres) is the highest peak in the Nilgiris.

Question 8.
Are the different physical divisions of India separate and interdependent units or are they complementary to each other? Explain this statement with examples. (Important)
Answer:
India is divided into three major physiographic division i.e. the Himalayas, the Northern plains and the Peninsular plateau. The peninsular is the core of the geology of India. It is a stable block of hard rocks around which other physiographic divisions have been formed. The northward drifting of peninsular plateau led to the formation of Himalayas. The Himalayas adorn like a crown. These enclose the Indian sub-continent. Sediments brought down from Himalayas have been deposited to form the northern plains. The Gangetic plain is the cradle of Indian civilisation. Thus three physiographic divisions help to strengthen the forces of unity of our people.

V. Show the following on the outline map of India:

Question 1.
(1) Karakoram, Zanskar, Kailash, Pir Panjal, Shiwalik Hills
(2) Coromandel, Konkan (B.Q.P. 2019), Malabar Coast.
(3) Passes of Thai Ghat, Bhor Ghat, Pal Ghat
(4) Passes of Zojila, Nathula, Jelepla, Shipkila
(5) Mt. Everest (B.Q.P. 2019), Nanda Devi, Kanchenjunga, K2.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 7

Question 2.
(1) Aravali, Anamailai.
(2) Mt. Abu, Shimla, Satpura.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 8

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Land Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions each in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Which is the ancient block in India?
Answer:
Deccan Plateau.

Question 2.
Name the sea which existed in place of Himalayas.
Answer:
Tethys.

Question 3.
Name the western boundary of Deccan plateau.
Answer:
Aravallis.

Question 4.
Name an area where chos are found.
Answer:
Hoshiarpur.

Question 5.
Name the highest mountain peak of Peninsular India.
Answer:
Anai Mudi.

Question 6.
Name the Northern part of west-coast.
Answer:
Konkan.

Question 7.
Name a cold desert in India.
Answer:
Ladakh.

Question 8.
Name a religious place in western Himalayas.
Answer:
Vaishno Devi.

Question 9.
Where is a valley of flowers located?
Answer:
The great Himalayas.

Question 10.
What is the use of Kayals?
Answer:
Fishing.

Question 11.
Which disaster struck east coast in 2004?
Answer:
Tsunami.

Question 12.
Which is the highest peak of Himalayas located in India?
Answer:
Kanchan Junga.

Question 13.
Name a rift valley in India.
Answer:
Narmada.

Question 14.
Why is the peninsular India called the Core of structure of India?
Answer:
Peninsular India is the ancient part of India.

Question 15.
What is the meaning of Himalayas?
Answer:
Himalayas means abode of snow.

Question 16.
What is the average height of Trans Himalayas? Name four mountain ranges of these.
Answer:
The average height of Trans Himalayas is 5000. metres. It includes Zanskar, Karakoram, Ladakh, and Kailash Ranges.

Question 17.
Name the main glaciers of the Traps Himalayas.
Answer:
Hisper, Batur, Baltoro, Siachen, Bearo.

Question 18.
What is a dun?
Answer:
Dun is a longitudinal valley situated in Himalayas.

Question 19.
Name the highest peaks of Eastern offshoots of Himalayas.
Answer:
Dafa Bum (4578 meters), Saramati (8926 meters) and Japau.

Question 20.
Name the higher peak of the world and its height.
Or
Which is the highest peak of the world?
Answer:
Mt. Everest 8848 metres is the highest peak of the world.

Question 21.
State the situation of the Northern great plains.
Answer:
This plain extends between Indus River (West) and Brahmaputra River (East).

Question 22.
State two Relief characteristics of Northern great plain.
Answer:

It is a flat plain.
The whole plain has a network of streams.

Question 23.
Which rivers have deposited sediments in Punjab-Haryana plain?
Answer:
Sutluj, Ravi, Beas and Ghaghar.

Question 24.
According to height, into how many sub-divisions can Ganges plain be divided?
Answer:

Upper Ganges valley
Middle Ganges valley
Lower Ganges valley.

Question 25.
State two characteristics of Brahmputra plain.
Answer:

This plain is 640 km long and 90:100 km wide.
New sediments are deposited every year by floods.

Question 26.
State the. two ranges of Deccan plateau.
Answer:

Western ghats
Eastern ghats

Question 27.
Name three passes of Western ghats.
Answer:
Thai ghat, Bhor ghat, Pal ghat

Question 28.
Where is Jog Falls and what is its height?
Answer:
Jog Falls is located on the border of Shimoga and Uttara Kannada districts of Karnataka. Height of Jog Falls is 253 metres.

Question 29.
State the sub-divisions of west coastal plain.
Answer:

Gujarat coast
Konkan coast
Malabar coast
Kerala coast.

Question 30.
State one difference between Eastern coastal plain and Western coastal plain.
Answer:
Eastern coastal plain is wide and flat. While west-coastal plain is narrow.

Question 31.
Which are the group of islands of India and where are they situated?
Answer:
Andaman Nicobar and Lakshdweep group of islands are situated in Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea respectively.

Question 32.
State two differences between the mountains of northern India and mountains of Peninsular India.
Answer:

Mountains of Northern India are young fold mountains. Mountains of peninsular India are residual old mountains.
The mountains of northern India are high and snow covered. But the mountains of Peninsular India are not high and are not covered with glacier.

Question 33.
Which is the highest peak of the world?
Answer:
Mount Everest (8848 metres)

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The Himalayas extend for ____________kms.
Answer:
2400.

Question 2.
Mt. Everest is _________ metres high.
Answer:
8848.

Question 3.
Ganges plain slopes towards________.
Answer:
East.

Question 4.
The Southern plateau has its apex at ________.
Answer:
Kanyakumari

Question 5.
Andaman group has __________ islands.
Answer:
120.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the oldest land mass of India?
(a) Northern Plain
(b) Peninsular Plateau
(c) Himalayas
(d) Aravallis.
Answer:
(b) Peninsular Plateau

Question 2.
Which is the highest peak in southern India?
(a) Doda Beta
(b) Anaimudi
(c) Mahendar gins
(d) Kalsubai.
Answer:
(b) Anaimudi

Question 3.
Which is a rift valley?
(a) Ganga
(b) Narmada
(c) Chambal
(d) Damodar.
Answer:
(b) Narmada

Question 4.
Ravines are found in :
(a) Chambal Valley
(b) Son Valley
(c) Damodar Valley
(d) Betwa Valley.
Answer:
(a) Chambal Valley

Question 5.
The largest salt water lake in India is :
(a) Sambar
(b) Chilka
(c) Vembnad
(d) Kalleru.
Answer:
(b) Chilka

True / False :

Question 1.
The Himalayas are rift valleys formed due to faulting.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Doda Beta is the highest peak in the Nilgiris.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Ganga river makes estuary.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
In Indo-Gangetic plains alluvial soils are found.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
There are 550 islands in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
True

Short Answer Tyre Questions

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the Indo-Gangetic Plains and Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:

Peninsular Plateau	Indo-Gangetic Plains
1. Location: It is a triangular plateau bounded by Vindhyas, Western ghats and Eastern ghats.	1. It is an alluvial plain stretching from Punjab to Assam Valley.
2. Relief: The relief of this plateau is uneven. Its average height above sea level is more than 600 metres.	2. This is a level plain about 200 metres high above sea level.
3. Climate: The climate here is hot and humid.	3. Here the summers are hot and winters are cold.
4. Crops: Jawar, Bajra, Spices and Groundnut are grown here.	4. Rice, Wheat, Cotton and Sugarcane are mostly grown here.
5. Rivers: Cauvery, Mahanadi, Godavari, Narmada and Tapti are the main seasonal rivers here.	5. Ganga, Yamuna and Brahmaputra are the main perennial rivers.
6. Irrigation: Irrigation here is mainly done by Tanks.	6. Wells, Tubewells and Canals are the main sources of irrigation here.
7. Transport: Means of transport are rare here.	7. A network of Railways and roads is laid here.
8. Minerals: Gold and Manganese are the main minerals of this plateau.	8. Iron, Coal and Mica are the important minerals of these plains.
9. Population: The population is very thin.	9. The population is very dense.
10. Soils: Soils are made up of lava especially black soil	10. Alluvial soils are found.

Question 2.
Write notes on Eastern ghats and Western ghats.
Answer:

Western ghats	Eastern ghats
1. The Western ghats form a continuous chain from Gulf of Cambay to Kanyakumari.	1. The Eastern ghats form a discontinuous chain of low hills from Orissa to Coromandel coast.
2. These consist of Sahyadri, Nilgiris, Annamalai and Cardamom hills.	2. The Eastern ghats are known by local names.
3. The main passes in Western ghats are Thai ghat, Bhor ghat, Pal ghat.	3. There are wide gaps in Eastern ghats, through which rivers flow.
4. The average height is 100d metres. The highest peak is Anaimuth (2965 metres) in Kerala.	4. The average height of Eastern ghats is 450 metres. These merge with Western ghats to form a knot in Nilgiris.

Question 3.
What is Gondwatta land? Which land masses constitute it?
Answer:
Orignially it was a super continent called Pangea consisting of two parts. The Northern part was called Angara land, while the Southern part was called Gondwana land. Gondwana land is the oldest landmass. It included India, Australia, South Africa and South America. These have changed its position due’ to drifting of continents.

Question 4.
State four main features of Himalayas.
Answer:

The Himalayas are young, fold and loftiest mouhtains.
These extend in a west-east direction from Indus to Brahmaputra.
These form an arc which covers a distance of about 2400 kms. while their width varies from 400 km. in Kashmir to 150 km-in Arunachal Pradesh.
The Himalayas consist of three, parallel ranges Himadri (Great Himalayas), Himachal (Lesser Himalayas) and Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).

Question 5.
Name the mountain ranged and. valleys situated in Himachal (Lesser Himalayas).
Answer:
The lesser Himalayas are called Himachal. Its altitude varies between 3,700 and 4,500 mitres. It includes the ranges of Pir Panjal, Dhaula Dhar and Mahabharat. It includes the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kulu. This region is well-known for its hill stations.

Question 6.
‘River valleys demarcate the broad divisions of Himalayas.’ Give examples.
Answer:
The Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from West to East on the basis of. river valleys.

Kashmir Himalayas: Between Indus and Satluj rivers.
Kumaon Himalayas: Between Satluj and Kali rivers.
Nepal Himalayas: Between Kali and Tista rivers.
Assam Himalayas: Between Tista and Dihang rivers.

Question 7.
‘Northern plain is agriculturally a very productive part of India.’ Give reasons.
Answer:
Northern plain is called the ‘Granary of India’. It is rich in the production of food grains and crops.

The region has fertile alluvial soils.
It has an adequate water supply.
It has a favourable climate with a long growing season.

Question 8.
What is the extent of Ganga plain? Name the states included in it.
Answer:
The Ganga plain extends between Ghaggar and Teesta rivers. It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq km. It is 2400 km long and 240-320 km wide. It is spread over the the states of North India—Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, West Bangal and partly Jharkhand.

Question 9.
Describe four main features of Peninsular plateau.
Answer:

The Peninsular Plateau is a table land composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
It is the oldest land mass (a part of Gondwana land).
The plateau has broad and shallow valleys anjd rounded hills.
It has been formed due to breaking, weathering and drifting of Gondwana land.
It consists of two broad divisions-Central Highlands and Deccan Plateaus.

Question 10.
Describe the different plateaus found in Central Highland.
Answer:
The peninsular plateau consists of two broad divisions-Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau. Central Highlands lie to the North of Narmada river. It includes a major area of Malwa plateau. Vindhyan range is enclosed by Aravallis and central highlands. The eastward extension of Central Highlands is Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand plateaus. Further eastwards, lies the Chota Nagpur plateau.

Question 11.
What is the average height of Western ghats? Name the local peaks and hill stations found in Western ghats.
Answer:
Western ghats are higher than Eastern ghats. The average height of Western ghats is 900-1600 metres. The height of the western ghats increases from North to South. The highest peaks include Anai Mudi (2695 meters), Doda Beta (2637 metres). The famous hill stations are Udaga Mandlam (Ooty) and Kodai Kanal.

Question 12.
What are the effects of Western ghats?
Answer:

Western ghats cause relief rainfall along the Western slopes. These face the rain bearing moist winds. <br
The eastern slopes and Deccan plateau lie in rain shadow.
Due to weathering of Deccan plateau, Black soils of Deccan trap are found here.

Question 13.
What is meant by ‘Trans Himalayas’?
Answer:
The Trans Himalaya or Gangetic-Nyenchen Tanglha range is a 16,00-kilometre
long mountain range. This range is in China extending in west-east direction parallel to the main Himalayan range.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of the coastal plains and island groups of India.
Answer:
Coastal Plains And Islands
The peninsular plateau is flanked by narrow coastal plains on the Eastern and Western margins.
1. The Eastern Coastal Plain. It extends from Mahanadi Delta upto Kanyakumari. Its width varies from 50 to 250 km. Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna form broad deltas on this coast. Sand dunes and lagoons exist on this coast. Chilka lake and Pulicat lake are the two important lagoons. It is also known as Coromandel coast. The northern part, along the Orissa state, is known as Utkal coast.

2. The Western Coastal Plain. This is a narrow coastal plain 1500 kms long and about 10 to 50 km wide. It extends between the Arabian Sea and Western Ghats. It has three sub-divisions. Konkan coast from Gulf of Cambay to Goa, Kanara coast from Goa to Cochin, Malabar coast from Cochin to Kanyakumari. Lagoons and back waters along Malabar coast join together to form waterways. Vembnad is an important lagoon lake which is 63 km in length. Narmada and Tapti rivers make estuaries while Mumbai and Marmagao are deep natural harbours.

These plains are divided into the following parts:
(a) Gujarat coastal plain: A marshy area around Gulf of Kutch and Saurashtra. Gorakhnath is the highest peak with 1117 metres in height.
(b) Konkan coast: It extends from Daman to Goa; 500 km long and 50-80 km. wide. Mumbai port is in the Creek by Thana.
(c) Malabar coast: From Goa to Mangalore, 225 km long and 24 km wide. It extends upto Kanyakumari.
(d) Kerala coast: From Mangalore to Kanyakumari 500 km long and 100 km wide plain has lagoons and Kayals used as backwaters for boat navigation.

ISLANDS: There are about 550 islands in the Indian Ocean. Most of these islands are too small to be inhabited.

These islands are found in the following groups :
1. Andaman-Nicobar Islands: These islands form two major groups in Bay of Bengal. These are Andamans and Nicobar islands. These islands extend between 10° and 14° N latitudes for a distance of 500 kms. These islands are 214 in number. The Nicobar group consists of 15 islands extending between 6°N to 10°N latitudes. Ten degree channel separates the Andaman group of island from the Nicobar group. These islands form a union territory of India with Port Blair as its capital. Indira Point in the Nicobar-island is the southernmost point of the Indian Union. These islands form the summits of the submerged hills of the ocean floor.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 9
The Arabian Sea Islands

2. Barren Islands and Norcondam Islands: These islands situated in the north of Port Blair are volcanic islands.

3. Lakshadweep Islands: These islands are situated in the Arabian Sea and lie 320 km off the coast of Kerala between 8° N and 12° North latitudes. These are coral islands and some of these are ring-shaped and called atolls. These are 27 in number and 17 of these are uninhabited. It is a U.T. with Kavaratti as capital. Pamban and Rameshwaram islands lie between India and Sri Lanka.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Land 10
Bay of Bengal-Islands

Diving Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Diving Game Rules.

Diving Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe the rules of Diving?
Answer:
Special Rules for Diving
1. All diving competitions at the international level shall be subject to the regulations of the FINA.

2. The spring board, the fixed boards and all diving installations shall be in accordance with the present regulations, and shall be tested and approved by the delegates of the FINA prior to the start of the competition.

3. All diving centres shall be available to the listed competitors for use at least eight days before the competition. On the day of the competition, the diving centres shall remain open for training when no contest is in progress.

4. The order of starting shall be decided by lot.

5. The drawing by lot shall be public and the place and time of such drawing shall be announced along with that of the contest.

6. If the number of dives in one diving competition is excessive, the competition shall be divided into several groups of dives in order to ensure that the number of dives in any one group does not exceed 210.

7. Before the start of each dive, the referee or the official announcer shall announce in the language of the country the name of the competitor, and the type of dive he is going to execute.

8. The number of the dives to be performed and the manner of execution shall be displayed on an indicator board, visible’to both divers and judges. The dive to be executed shall not be announced until the diver has taken his position on the board or platform.

9. The dive shall be executed after the referee has given signal. If a competitor dives before the signal he shall repeat the dive.

10. Only listed dives shall be executed.

11. Each competitor shall deliver to the diving secretary four copies of a complete statement of the dives selected on an official form written in ink, or typewritten, not less than 24 hours before the date of each competition. This list should be in English or French language. If any other language is used, the competitor shall have to attach along with a translated version in English or French, for the accuracy of which he is entirely responsible in accordance with Rule 13.

The following details shall be given on this form:

The group, the number and the denomination of each dive according to the FINA diving list.
The manner of take-off (running or standing), only for highboard contests.
The execution of dive-(a) straight, (b) with pike, (c) with tuck.
The height of the board or platform.
The degree of difficulty.

12. Like voluntary dives, the required dives shall not be repeated, and all dives of the same number shall be deemed as the same dive.

13. The competitors shall follow the list of dives, and the dives shall be executed in the order listed on the diving forms by the competitors. Once the closing date has passed, as provided in Rule No. 11, no change shall be permitted in the dives to be performed. Each competitor is entirely responsible for the accuracy of the statements in the list.

14. A competitor is not admitted to the competition unless the list is submitted in time.

15. The referee shall examine the list. In case the statement is not in accordance with the rules, he shall decide before the start of the competition as to whether or how the statement can be corrected. The competitor must be informed of the referee’s decision immediately or at least one hour before the competition.

16. All dives shall be executed by the divers themselves with no assistance from any other person. Any assistance in dives is not allowed.

Question 2.
What are the rules for the execution of the Dive?
Answer:
Rules for the Execution of the dive
Dives shall be executed on the following principles:

1. The starting position shall be free and unaffected. The approach to the starting position shall not be taken into consideration.

2. In the starting position, the competitor stands on the front end of the board or platform, with his body straight, head erect, arms straight and to the sides or above the head. The arm swing commences when the arms leave the starting position. If a competitor fails to assume the correct standing position, each judge shall deduct 1 to 3 points from his award.

The starting position of a running dive shall be assumed when the diver is ready to take the first step of the run. Forward take-off dives from the spring board may be performed either standing or running on the opinion of the diver. A prior declaration of the manner of take-off is not essential. The judge shall award points for a standing dive keeping in view the height and standard of execution.

3. The run should be smooth, straight and unhesitant. In a running dive from the spring board or platform the diver shall take at least four steps, including the take-off from one or both feet. If the diver takes less than four steps, one referee shall deduct two points from the award of each judge.

4. The take-off shall be bold, quite high and confident. In running dive, the take-off from the spring board shall be from both feet simultaneously, but from fixed boards the take-off may be from one foot only. While executing a standing dive, the diver shall not bounce on the board before the take-off.

While executing a running dive, the diver shall not be permitted to stop his run before the end of the board and to make more than one jump on the same spot before the final take-off. If a competitor, preparing for the take-off in backward dives, lifts his feet slightly off the board, it shall not be taken as a bounce but as an involuntary movement, but the judges may make a deduction from their awards according to individual opinion.

If in a dive, the diver touches the end of the board, or dives to the side of the direct line of flight, it indicates, no matter how well the dive may have been executed, that he was quite close to the heal’d for proper execution. Each judge shall decide about the deduction of awards according to his individual opinion.

If, in an Arm Stands Dive, a steady balance in the straight position is not shown, the judges shall deduct 1 to 3 points from the award. If the diver loses his balance of mind and reattempts the dive, he shall receive 2 points less. In case of a strong wind, the referee may give all divers the right to make a second attempt without deduction of points.

5. In all flying somersault dives, a straight position should be clearly shown for nearly half a somersault.

6. In straight dives with one half or full twist, the twisting should not manifestly be done from the board. In pike dives with twist, the twist must not be started until there has been a marked pike position. In somersault dives with twist, the twist may be performed at any time during the dive at the opinion of the diver.

Diving image 1

Protest

In case of any dispute, the protest, in writing, shall be given to the referee.
Protest, the reason of which is already known, shall be lodged before the test of the contest.
No protest can be lodged in respect of marking by the judges.
Decisions regarding protests shall be given by the Jury.
Protest against incidents not covered by these regulations shall be referred to the International Diving Committee of FINA which shall consider them at the earliest.

Important Information About the Diving Game

The arrangement for diving in the deep side of the swimming pool by erecting a board is made.
The order of starting is decided by lot.
All dives are made without a person’s help.
It is essential to get one’s name notified for diving well in time.
The participation only in listed dives is permitted.

Diving image 2

Swimming Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Swimming Game Rules.

Swimming Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Mention the officials appointed to conduct the swimming competition.
Answer:
Officials for Olympic and International Swimming Competitions and other Swimming Competitions:

Referee – 1
Starter – 1
Chief Time Keeper – 1
Time Keepers – 3 per lane
Chief Judge – 1
Finishing Judges – 3 per lane
Inspectors of Turns – 1
Announcer – 1 each at both ends
Judges of Strokes – 2
Recorder – 1
Clerk of the House – 1

For other competitions, the following minimum officials shall be as under:

Referee – 1
Starter – 1
Time Keepers – 1 per lane
Finishing Judges – 1 per lane
Inspectors of Turns and strokes – 1 per every two lanes
Recorder – 1

Question 2.
Describe the main Rules of swimming?
Answer:
Rules For Swimming
1. The swimmer who obstructs any other swimmer during the swim shall be disqualified.

2. If a foul endangers the chance of success of a swimmer, the judges shall have the right to allow him to complete in the next round. If a foul occurs in the final, the referee can allow him to swim again.

3. On return a competitor shall touch the end of the pool or end of the track with one or both hands. Diving from the bottom of the pool is not allowed.

4. A swimmer who stands on the both shall not be declared disqualified, but he shall not move.

5. Only the swimmer who covers the entire course shall be declared the winner.

6. In relay race, the competitor whose feet have lost touch with the starting block before his or her partner, going ahead of him or her touches the wall, shall be disqualified. If the defaulter returns to original starting point – at the wall, it is not essential to return to the starting platform.

swimming image 1

Question 3.
How heats in swimming competition are organised?
Answer:
Heats and finals in Swimming Competitions
Seeding of Heats and finals:
The heats in all semi-finals and final swimming competitions shall be seeded as follows:

(i) Trial Hit:

(1) The names, the order of time and the competitive time of all entrants are recorded on the admission form which is, then, sent to the competition committee. The competitor who does not get his or her time recorded in the form is listed at the bottom of the list. If there are more than one such competitors, their positions are decided by lots.

(2) The faster swimmer of team is placed in the last heat, the next to him/it is placed in the last but one heat, and so on. In this way, all the swimmers or teams are fixed in various heats.

(3) When the lanes are in odd numbers, the fastest swimmer or team is placed in the central lane; in case there are 6 or 5 lanes, the fastest swimmer or team is placed in third or fourth lane. The next to him/it in speed is placed to the right of the fastest swimmer/team, and in this way, the other swimmers/teams are placed right or left according to their timing. The lane position for the swimmers with equal timing is decided by lots.

Finals:
The lanes are determined in accordance with the above mentioned rule 3 where the starting heats are not required. Where the starting heats have already been over, the lanes are determined according to Rule No. 3.

Question 4.
How many types of swimming competitions are there?
Answer:
Breast Stroke, Butterfly Stroke, Back Stroke, Free Style Swimming

1. Breast Stroke Swimming:
In this type of swimming, the body and breast shall be balanced and both the shoulders shall be above the water level. The actions of hands and feet shall be simultaneous, and they should be in line. Both the hands should move together ahead of the breast inside or above water or backward.

In the action of the legs, the feet should bend from the back forward. Action cannot be like that of a fish. At the time of turning or finishing, both the hands must touch the inside or outside water. A part of the head should remain above the water level.

2. Butterfly Stroke:
In this type of. swimming, both the arms have to be brought together, forward to backward, above the surface of water. The weight of the body should be on the chest and both the shoulders should be in line with the water level. After the first arm stroke after the start of the race, the feet should act together. At the time of finish or touching the ends, both the hands should simultaneously touch. In the initial stage the swimmer is allowed to use leg kicks and arm pull.

3. Back Stroke:
In it, the competitors shall stand, holding the starting grip with the hand and facing the starting end. On the signal they shall swim across the entire course on their backs. The competitor who changes the normal back position shall be declared disqualified. The feet must remain in water. No competitor is allowed to stand in pit.

4. Free Style Swimming:
Free style swimming means any type of swimming. In style or manner, it is different from butterfly stroke, breast stroke or back stroke swimming. In free style swimming, the swimmer need not touch the wall of the tank with his hand while bending and at the time of ending. He may touch it with any part of his body.

Coaching:
No coaching is allowed when swimming or diving is in progress.

Allowing Points:
Points are awarded in this manner – first three positions respectively (5, 3, 1) and in relay races (16, 6, 2) Swimming Competitions at School-level Following types of swimming competitions are held at the school – level:

For Girls:

Free Style – 100, 200 and 400 m.
Back Stroke – 100 m.
Breast Stroke – 100 m.
Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
Relay – 4 × 100 metre free style.
4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast Back Stroke)

For Boys

Free Style – 100, 200, 400, 800, 1500 m.
Back Stroke – 100, 200 m.
Breast Stroke – 100, 200 m.
Butterfly Stroke – 100 m.
Relay – 4 × 100 mdtre free style.
4 × 100 metre Medley (Breast, Back, Butterfly, Free Style)

Important Information About the Swimming Game

The length of the swimming pool is = 50 Metre
Minimum width of the pool = 21m – 25m
The depth of water in the pool is = 1.8 Metre or above
Which kick is not allowed in Breast stroke = Dolphin
Officials of Swimming = One Referee, one starter. Time keeper for every lane, Finishing judge for every lane.
Inspector of turn and stroke = One for each Iona
Recorder = One
Swimming competition = Breast stroke, Butter¬fly stroke, Back stroke, Free style Relay = 4 × 100 Free style 4 × 400 Metre Medley
In all events of swimming, it is essential for all the swimmers to have physical touch with the end of the swimming pool.
The swimming pool is 50 metre long and minimum 21 metre wide. The depth of water in the swimming pool is 1.8 metre.
There shall be a concession of 0.3 metre above and below the surface of water lengthwise.
In breast-stroke swimming, the swimmer cannot make use of dolphin kick.
No player can use anything which he cannot wear and any such thing as may help increase his swimming pace.
In butterfly stroke, both the arms should be brought together forward to backward simultaneously.
In back stroke swimming, a contestant who change his normal back position is disqualified.
In free style swimming, swimming can be done in any manner or style.
Coaching is not allowed during swimming and diving.
A swimmer cannot use oil or any greasy substance on his or her body during any swimming event.
The swimmer should wear the approved uniform.
The swimmer should always remain in his or her fixed lane. The lanes, made of ropes, shall be 2.5 m. in width. The surface of water should be even, without any movement or turbulation, at the time of the contest.

swimming image 2

Table Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Table Tennis Game Rules.

Table Tennis Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Describe about the Table, Net, Ball and Racket in the game of Table Tennis?
Answer:
Table:
In table tennis, the table used is of rectangular shape. It is 2.74 metres in length and 1.52 metres in width. Its height from the ground is 76 cm. It can be made of any material. A ball when dropped from a height of 30.5 cm. on its surface shall give a bounce of not less than 22 cm. and not more than 25 cm.

table tennis image 1

The surface of the table is known as playing surface. It is of dark green colour. It shall have a 2 cm broad white line along each edge. The lines at the 152.5 cms ends are called End lines, and the lines at the 274 cms. ends are called Side lines. In Doubles, the surface of the table is divided into two parts by a 3 mm. wide white line, which is parallel to the side line and is at an equal distance from it. This is known as the centre line.

table tennis image 2

Net:
The net is 183 cms. in length. Its upper part is at the height of 15.25 cms. from the playing surface. It is tied by a cord to upright high posts of 15.25 cms. The outer limit of each post is 15.25 cms. outside the side line.

Ball:
The ball used in the game is spherical in size. It is made of celluloid or similar plastic but without reflection. Its diameter is not more than 40 mm. and not less than 37.2 mm. Its weight is not less than 2.40 gm. and not more than 2.53 gm.

Rackets:
The racket may be of any size, shape or weight. But its surface should be of dark colour. This game has 21 points.

Question 2.
How is the game of Table Tennis started?
Answer:
Order of Play. In Singles, a server does five services at a stretch whether he gets the score or not, thereafter the service passes on the other player. The other player also gets the right of doing five services. Thus, the service changes after every five services.

In Doubles, the server makes a goods service, then the receiver shall make a goods return. The partner of the server shall make a good service, thereafer, and the partner of the receiver, then, shall make a good return. Thus, turn by turn, each player shall make service and return in that order.

Good Service:
The server places the ball on the palm of his free hand, open and flat, with fingers pressed together and thumb free. Then he shall project the ball in the air and do the service in a manner that the ball remains visible to the judge. Then the ball shall be struck in a way that it touches the server’s court and passes directly over or around the net, and touches the receiver’s court.

In Doubles, the ball shall first touch the server’s right hand, right of court or the central line on the side of the net. Then the ball, passing over or around the net, touches the receiver’s right-half court, or the central line on his side of the net.

Good Return:
After having been served or returned in play, the ball shall be so struck as to pass directly over or around the net. It should touch directly the opponent’s court.

table tennis image 3

Ball in Play:
The ball is in play when it is projected from the hand for service. It shall be deemed to be in play until:

it has touched one court twice successively.
it has touched anything other than the net and supports.
it has been hit by a player more than one successively.
it has touched a player or anything he wears or carries.
in Doubles, it has touched the right half of the server or receiver.

A let:
A ball in play is called rally. A rally may be let if:

The served ball touches the net or its supports.
The service is delivered and the receiver is not yet ready.
A player fails to do good service or return owing to some accident.
The play is stopped for correction of the order of the game or the fault in ends.

Question 3.
How are points scored in the game of Table Tennis?
Answer:
Points:
A player shall lose a point in case:

he fails to deliver good service.
he fails to deliver good return when his opponent has made goods service or return.
he or his racket touches the net when the ball is in play.
his free hand touches the playing surface when the ball is in play.
he returns the ball with volley.
in Doubles, he strikes the ball out of turn.

Game:
A player or pair who scores first 21 points shall win the game. If both the players or pairs score 20 points, then that player or pair shall be the winner who scores 2 points before the other player or pair.

The Choice of Ends and Service

In the game of tennis, the choice of ends and the right to serve first shall be decided by toss. The toss winning player chooses to serve or not to serve first, and the other player chooses the right to end (side).

Change the Ends and Service

The change of ends and service shall be made in the following manner:

In the play, a player or pair who starts a game at one end shall be at the other end in the second game, and so on. This will continue till the end of the match. The ends change when any player or pair score first ten points in the last possible game in a match. In Singles, the service is changed after five points, which means that the server shall become receiver, and recevier shall become server.

In Doubles, the selected partner of the pair shall deliver the first service, and shall be received by the appropriate partner of the opposing pair. The receiver of the first five services shall deliver the second five services. The third five services shall be delivered by the partner of the first receiver. The fourth five services are delivered by the partner of the first receiver and received by the first server. The fifth five services are to be delivered like the first five, and so on. This order will continue till the end of the game.

Out of Order of Ends, Serving or Receiving

In case the players have not changed ends in time, they shall change the ends as soon as the mistake is detected provided the game is not completed. In case the game has been completed, all points scored shall be counted. If a player serves or receives out of turn, the play shall be stopped as soon as the error is detected. The game shall be started again by the server who was serving at the start of the game, or at the time when the score was 10. In such circumstances, the scores made before the error is detected shall be counted.

Important Information About the Table Tennis Game

Types of Table Tennis game = Two (Single & Double)
Size of the Table length & breadth = 274 × 152.5 cm.
The height of the playing floor = 76 cm.
The height of the net from floor = 15.25 cm.
Length of the net = 183 cm.
Weight of the ball = 2.55 gram to 2.7 gram
Circumference of the ball = 40m. m.
Colours of the ball = White
The ball is made of = Celluloid or plastic
The officials of match = One refree, one umpire one scorer, one assistant umpire.
The length of the table in table tennis is 2.74 metres and width 1.52 metres.
The game of table tennis is of two types singles and doubles. In Singles, there are two players, out of which one plays and the other is a substitute.
In Doubles, there are four players, out of which two play and two are substitutes. The game of table tennis is of Eleven points.
In Doubles game, the playing surface is divided into two parts by a 3 cm, wide white line.
The selection of ends (sides) and the right to first serve shall be decided by toss.
The toss winning player chooses to serve, whereas, the other chooses the end (side).
The service is changed after two points in Singles.
In the last possible game, the ends are changed when a player or pair scores ten points.
A match shall include five or seven games.
The lines on the table used in the game should be white in colour.
The remaining part of the table tennis is dark green.

Boxing Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Boxing Game Rules.

Boxing Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Which type of competitions (according to weight) are held in Boxing.
Answer:
WEIGHT CLASSIFICATION IN BOXING

Light Fly Weight = 48 kg.
Fly Weight = 51 kg.
Bantum Weight = 54 kg.
Feather Weight = 57 kg.
Light Weight = 60 kg.
Light Welter Weight = 63.5 kg.
Welter Weight = 67 kg.
Light Middle Weight = 71 kg.
Middle Weight = 75 kg.
Light Heavy Weight = 80 kg.
Heavy Weight = over 80 kg.
Super Heavy Weight = over 100 kg.

Question 2.
Describe Ring, Rope, Platform, Costumes, Gloves and duration of the bout?
Answer:
Ring:
In all boxing competitions the inside measurement of the ring is from 12 feet 20 feet to (3m. 66 cm to 6m. 10 cm) square. The height from ring floor level to the top rope shall be from 4 feet to 5 feet (lm 22 cm. to 1 m 52 cm.)

Rope:
The ring shall be formed by 2 or 3 sets of ropes covered with linen or with some soft material.

Platform:
The platform shall be erected in a way that it is totally safe, levelled and free from any obstructing projection. It will be constructed on lines of at least 18 inch ropes. It shall have four comer posts constructed in a manner as to prevent any injury.

Under-cover:
The floor shall be covered with an under-cover over which canvas shall be stretched.

Costumes:
Competitors shall do boxing by wearing vests, completely covering chests and backs. They shall wear shorts of reasonable length reaching to mid-tight positions. They shall wear light shoes. Wearing of swimming suits is not allowed. Competitors shall wear distinguishing colours such as red or blue sashes round the waist.

Gloves:
The gloves shall be of standard weight. Each glove shall weigh 8 ounces (227 gms.)

Bandages:
A soft surgical bandage, the length of which does not exceed 8 feet 4 inches (2.5 m) and width 1% inches (4.4 cm.), or a velpean-type banadge, which will not exceed 6 feet 6 inches (2 m.) in length and 1% inches (4.4 cm) in width, may be worn on each hand.

Duration of the Game:
The number and duration of rounds for Senior and Junior competitions shall be as under:

COMPETITIONS

Senior National Level
3-1-3-1-3 – Three rounds of three minutes each after one minute rest in each bout.

Junior National Level
2-1-2-1-2 – Three rounds of two minutes each, one minute rest between each bout.

International Level
2-1-2-1-2-1-2-1-2 – Five rounds of two minutes each and one minute rest between each bout.

Question 3.
What do you know about the Draws, Byes and Walk over in Boxing?
Answer:
The Draw, Byes and Walk Over

1. A draw shall be made for all competitions after taking of weight and doing medical inspection.

2. In those competitions in which there are more than 4 competitors, a sufficient number of byes shall be drawn in the first series to reduce the number of competitors in the second series.

3. The boxers who draw a bye in the first series shall be the first to box in the second series. If there is an odd number of byes, the boxer with the last bye shall compete in the second series against the winner of the first bout in the first series.

4. No player can receive a bye in the first series and a walk-over in the second, or two consecutive walk-overs. In case such a position arises, a fresh draw shall be made of the competitors still in the competition to provide opponents to those competitors who have already received a bye walk-over in the preceding series.

Boxing image 1

Question 5.
Describe any Five Rules in Boxing?
Answer:
Competitions on Boxing
Limitation of Competitors. Only 4 to 8 competitors are allowed to participate in a competition. This rule does not apply to any championship organised by the Association. The club organising the competition has the right to nominate one of its members to compete provided that member does not participate in the competition.

Boxing image 2

Fresh Draw:
If two members of the same club are being drawn together in a series, and if one of them wishes to withdraw in favour of the other, a fresh draw will be made.

Withdrawal:
If a competitor wants to withdraw from the competition after the draw has been made, the official-in-charge will report to the Association.

Retirement:
If any competitor wants to retire from the competition due to any reason, he will have to inform the official-in-charge.

Byes:
Byes that arise after the first series shall be spared for specified time with an opponent approved by the official-in-charge.

Second:
Each competitor is attended by one second. No advice or coaching can be given to a competitor by his second during the progress of a round. But after the round is over, the assistance of the second can be taken for a second within the ring, and the other second can provide the competitor water and other essential items from the outside.

Boxing image 3

Only Water Allowed:
No drink other than water can be given to the competitor immediately prior to or during a bout.

Table – Drawing Bouts and Byes

No.of Entries	Bouts	Byes	No.of Entries	Bouts	Byes
5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12	1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4	3 2 1 – 7 6 5 4	13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20	5 6 7 8 2 2 3 4	3 2 1 – 15 14 13 12

(1) Referee or judge (2) Scoring (3) Foul.

Bouts Control

(1) All competitions and contests shall be controlled by a Referee, three or five Judges and a Time-keeper. The referee shall be in the ring. When the number of judges is less than three, the referee shall complete the scoring paper. The exhibition bouts shall be controlled by Referee.

(2) The referee shall use a score pad or introduction slip to record the names and colours of the boxers. In all such cases in which a bout is terminated due to injury or other cause, the Referee shall record the reason thereof, and hand it over to the official-in-charge.

(3) The time-keeper shall be seated on one side of the ring while the Judges on the remaining three sides. The seats shall be so placed as to offer a satisfactory view of boxing. The Referee shall be solely responsible for the control of the bout, and the judges shall independently award points.

(4) The Referee shall be dressed in white at all major tournaments.

Question 6.
How are bouts conducted in Boxing?
Answer:
Awarding of Points

In all competitions the judges shall award points.
The points shall be recorded on the scoring paper at the end of each round and totalled at the end of the bout. Fractions cannot be taken into account.
Each judge must declare a winner and sign his scoring paper.

The judge’s name shall be written in Block Letters as well as signed on all the scoring slips.

Scoring

1. The boxer who strikes his opponent the greater number of blows shall be awarded 20 points. The other boxer shall receive a lesser number of points in proportion to the number of blows he has struck.

2. When the judge observes that both the boxers have struck equal number of blows, he awards 20 points to each.

3. If the number of points awarded to each boxer at the end of the bout is equal, the judge will award the decision in the favour of the boxer who has done the most leading off, or if equal in this respect, then in favour of the boxer who has shown the better style. If in his opinion, both the boxers are equal in leading-off and style, he will favour the boxer who has shown the better defence.

Definitions:

The above rule is governed by the following definitions:

(A) Scoring Blows:
Blows struck with the knuckle part of the glove on the front or sides of the head or body above the belt.

(B) Non-scoring Blows:

Blows struck while committing any infringement of rules.
Blows on arms and on the back.
Soft blows or “taps” with no force behind them.

(C) Leading-off:
Leading-off means striking first, or attempting to strike first. Any infringement of the rules nullifies the scoring value of a leading-off move.

(D) Defence:
Avoidance ofblows by blocking, parrying, ducking, guarding, side-stepping, etc.

Fouls:
The decision of the judges or the referee in respect of fouls is final. The referee has the power to caution, warn or disqualify for any of the following acts:

Hitting with the open glove, hitting with the inside or butt of the hand, hitting with the wrists, or any part of the glove other than the kunckle part of the closed glove.
Hitting with the elbow.
Hitting below the belt.
Making use of Kidney Punch.
Using the Pivot Blow.
Hitting deliberately on the back of the neck or head.
Striking a competitor when he is down.
Holding the opponent.
Lying on with head or body.
Ducking below the belt in a manner dangerous to the rival.
Butting or using the head dangerously.
Roughing.
Shouldering.
Wrestling.
Intentionally falling down without receiving a blow.
Persistently covering up.
Unfair use of ropes.
Double blows to the ears.

The Break:
When a referee asks the two boxers to break, both of them must step one pace before recommencing the play. A boxer is not allowed to strike his rival on the “break”.

Down and Count:
A boxer is deemed to be down when any part of his body except his feet touches the ground, or when he is outside or partly outside the ropes, or hangs hopelessly on the ropes.

Stopping the Bout:
1. When a referee is of the opinion that a boxer, due to some injury, cannot continue the game, he stops the bout. In such a case, the rival player is declared the winner. The decision to stop the bout in such a case rests with the referee who can seek medical advice, if needed.

2. The referee has the right to stop the bout if he believes that the rival has got defeated or he is unable to continue the play. Failure to resume Bout. In all bouts, any boxer who fails to resume the fight, when there is time, loses the bout.

Break of Rules:
In case of infringement of rules by the competitor or his second, the competitor is liable to disqualification. A competitor who is declared disqualified shall not receive any award.

Suspected Foul:
If the refree suspects the foul which he has not clearly seen, he can consult the judges and give the decision accordingly.

Important Information About the Boxing Game

Type of Ring = Square
The length of ope side = 20 feet
Numbers of Roper = 5
Number of weight = 12
Length of the Patti (Bandage 8′ 4”
Breadth of the Patti (Bandage 1 \(\frac{1}{4}\)” .
The height of the ring from flour = 3′ 4″
Duration of the bout for senior = 3-1-3-1-3 minutes
Duration of the bout for Junior = 2-1-2-1-2
Duration of international competition = 2-1-2-1+2+1+2+1+2
Boxing ring is square in size, each side of which is 20 feet.
The ring has three sets of ropes, the colour of whose one end is blue, and of the other red.
The weight classification for boxing is done in eleven parts.
The weight of gloves should not be over 8 ounces (227 gms.)
The length of the bandage should be 8 feet 4 inches, and width 1 1\(\frac{1}{4}\) inches.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Population

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Population Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What is the most important and valuable resource of a country?
Answer:
The healthy people of the country, mentally as well as physically, is the biggest natural resource of a country.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the development of human resources?
Answer:
The development of human resources is the framework for helping employees to develop their knowledge, skills and abilities, which improves an effectiveness of organisations. Because these are the people who with their abilities make a valuable material with the help of any natural resource. Human Resource Development is the vast field of training and development provided by organisations. HRD (Human Resource Development) can be formal like in classroom training, a college course etc.

Question 3.
What is the most important and pathetic mistake of the Indian Planning according to Dr. Amertya Sen?
Answer:
The most important and pathetic mistake of the Indian Planning according to Dr. Sen is the development of institution, on the basis of caste etc. In Delhi, he said, “several buildings do not have public toilets, which is important for every building. As compare to other such as China, Pakistan, Bangladesh have expanded education system and health care facilities. But this is a pathetic condition in India.

Question 4.
What problem is being faced by our country for not paying full attention to the development of Human Resources?
Answer:
The following problems are being faced by our country for not paying full attention to the development of Human Resource:

In the Development of the country, Human Resources play an important role. So, not paying full attention to the development of Human Resources is a big mistake. With this our economic failures arise. Because of not paying full attention on social justice issues, economic decisions taken in independent India, not beneficial for women, poor people and vulnerable people. So problem of Economic issues arise.
Recruitment, Retention and Motivation.
Work force security issues is also a great problem.
Human resources are the ultimate resource of nature because they uses technology and skills and add value to natural resources and if they ignored, ultimately our country faced several economic, social and political issues.

Question 5.
What were the causes of slow increase in population before independence?
Answer:
The causes of this slow growth were epidemics, wars and famines which increased death rate.

Question 6.
What was the population of India in the year 1901?
Answer:
The population of India was 23,83,96,327 (23.8 crore) in the year 1901.

Question 7.
Why the 1921 and 1951 years have been considered as population divider?
Answer:
Population increased rapidly after the years of 1921 and 1951. Therefore, these years are called demographic divide (population divider).

Question 8.
What was the population of India in the year 2011?
Answer:
The. population of India was 121 crores in the year 2011.

Question 9.
What is rank of India in the world from the population point of view?
Answer:
India ranks second in world (after China) in the view of population.

Question 10.
Write the name of the states with highest and lowest population.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh has the highest population (19.9 crore) and Sikkim has the lowest population (6 lakh) in India.

Question 11.
How many states have the population of more than 5 crores?
Answer:
There are 10 states of India in which population is more than 5 crores.

Question 12.
What was the population of Punjab irr the year 2011 and what is the rank of Punjab from the population point of view?
Answer:
The population of Punjab was 2.77 crores in the year of 2011 and Punjab ranks 15th in the country in the view of population.

Question 13.
What percentage of population of India lives in Punjab?
Answer:
Almost 2.3 percent of total population of country lives in Punjab.

Question 14.
How many cities are there in India with a population of more than one lakh?
Answer:
There are 302 cities in India with the population of more than one lakh.

Question 15.
How much per cent of population of our country lives in plains?
Answer:
40% of population of the country lives in the plains.

Question 16.
How much percentage of population of the country lives in villages?
Answer:
69% of population of the country lives in the villages.

Question 17.
What is the average density of population in our country?
Answer:
The average density of population in India is 382 persons per square kilometre.

Question 18.
Name the states having highest and lowest density of population.
Answer:
Bihar is the state with largest density of population (1102) and Arunachal Pradesh is the state with lowest density of population (17) in India.

Question 19.
What is density of population of India?
Answer:
The density of population of India is 382 sq.km.

Question 20.
Which union territory has the highest density of population?
Answer:
National Capital Area Delhi has the largest density of population (11297).

Question 21.
Name the elements that determine the age structure.
Answer:
The factors which determine the age structure are:

Fertility
Mortality
Migration.

Question 22.
What is percentage of population that falls in the 0-14 years age group in our country?
Answer:
37.2% of population is found in the country with the age group of 0-14 years.

Question 23.
What percentage of population falls in the 15-65 years age group in our country? ,
Answer:
58.4% of population is found in the country with the age group of 15-65 years.

Question 24.
What is the percentage of population that are voters?
Answer:
There is 60% of population as voters in the country.

Question 25.
What do you understand by sex ratio?
Or
What is meant by sex ratio?
Answer:
The number of women per thousand men is sex ratio.

Question 26.
What are the factors that are responsible for the decrease in rural and urban sex ratio?
Answer:
Following are the factors responsible for the decrease in rural and urban sex ratio:

Social factors Indian society is patriarchal and male centric thoughts force. One family to have male child with old beliefs such as nomination process.
Technological Factors. Ultrasoniography is the advent of science has made it possible for antenatal detection of sex.
Economifcal factors. Social Evils such as dowry, etc. also considered economic burden for family. So people prefer male child.
Lack of awareness. Because there is low contribution on female education, so they are not considered as important as males.
Security issue. Also considered a major problem in the country.

Question 27.
What is the sex ratio among the Sikh segment of our country?
Answer:

Question 28.
Which people are called main workers of India?
Answer:
The main workers of India are those people who have done work for six months ih the last year (or 183 days) in any economic activity.

Question 29.
When was the concept of classifying the people as workers and non-workers introduced for the first time in India’s census?
Answer:
According to work, the population was divided into working Arid non-working population in the year 1961.

Question 30.
What percentage of labourers is there in rural areas?
Answer:
The percentage of labourers in the rural areas is 40%.

Question 31.
What is total urban population?
Answer:
The total urban population in India is 37.47%.

Question 32.
In which two categories can we divide population of India on economic basis.
Answer:

Main workers, Marginal workers.
Non-workers.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What problems arise due to uneven distribution of population in states?
Answer:
There are 28 states in India. There is uneven distribution of population in these states. Many problems have been created as:

Transport problem: It is a great problem to connect isolated rural settlement with towns by road.
Basic needs: It is difficult to-provide basic facilities to rural areas.
Other problems: Problems like Pollution, Transport, Settlement etc.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population 1

Question 2.
What are the factors that affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
Population in India is not evenly distributed. Many factors are responsible for this:

Fertility of the soil. The states in which there is a large fertile area the density of population is high. U.P. and Bihar are such states.
Amount of rainfall. The density of population is higher in regions of abundant rain. In northern India the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from east to west. The density of population also goes on decreasing in the same direction.
Climate. Wherever the climate is congenial the density of population will be high. In Assam even though there is abundant rainfall but the density of population is low because the climate is unhealthy. The malaria is always there is an epidemic form.
Developed means of transportation. With development of means of transportation the business makes rapid progress and the density of population increases. The reason for high density of population in U.P., Bihar and West Bengal is the development of means of transportation.
Industrial development. At places where the factories are located the density of population also increases. The reason is that people like to live in those areas where industrial development takes place. They can carry on their business more easily in such areas and they have better chances of earning more money. That is why the density of population is high in Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata.

Question 3.
What is the importance of Economic Structure of Population?
Answer:
Importance of Economic Structure of Population:

We come to know the percentage of people engaged in productive work.
It shows the cultural composition of population which determines the stage of development of a country.
It marks the backward areas of the country so that proper planning can be done.

Question 4.
Into how many categories can we divide main workers? Name them.
Answer:
The table below shows the categories of main workers:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population 3

Question 5.
Why is there more percentage of male workers than female workers?
Answer:
The percentage of male workers is 37.50 in India (about 1/3rd of population)

This is due to rapidly growing population. It increases the dependent population.
Females are not allowed to go out for work,
There is absence of female awareness and education.

Question 6.
Why is India known as a country of villages?
Answer:
There is no doubt that India is a country of villages.

Most of the people live in villages.
3/4th of population lives in rural areas.
There are more than 5 lakh and 50 thousand rural settlements, but 71% of urban population lives in 302 towns.
About 40.1% of labourers live in rural areas and 30.2% of labourers live in urban areas.

Question 7.
Name the languages spoken in our country.
Answer:
There is a great diversity in languages spoken in India.
Assamese, Orriya, Urdu, Kannad, Kashmiri, Gujrati, Tamil, Telugu, Punjabi, Bangla, Malyalam, Sanskrit, Sindhi and Hindi are the main languages of India. These have a constitutional status. The languages of the South Tamil, Telugu, Kannad and Malyalam have their origin fthm Dravidian system. A large number of people ih India speak Hindi, understand Hiridiffe^bn if it is not their mother tongue. Hindi is the national language of India.

Question 8.
What are characteristic features of regional distribution of population?
Answer:
Characteristic features of regional distribution of population:

The distribution of population is uneven in India. There is dense population in river valleys and coastal plains. There is sparse population in hilly areas, deserts and drought affected areas. 16% of the area of the country, in the Northern plains only 3% people of India live. 94% of population lives on an area of 18% in plains. Only 2% population lives on an area of 6% in Rajasthan.
Most of the people live in villages. Only 31% people live in urban areas.
A large part of minorities live in sensitive border area. Along the N.W. border of India; Sikhs in Punjab and Muslims in J & K, form a majority community. Along the borders of China and Burma, in the North-East, mostly Christians are found. It has created many political, economic and social problems.
On the one hand, there is concentration of population in river valleys and coastal areas, but deserts, hilly areas are sparsely populated. It looks like a demographic divide.

Question 9.
Which are the states which have high density of population?
Answer:
There is dense population in Northern plain, western coastal plain, Eastern Coastal plain (Deltas). These areas have fertile soils and facilities of irrigation. So the population is dense. As we go westward, the rainfall goes on decreasing and the density of population also decreases. That is why the density of population in West Bengal is greater than that in Haryana and Punjab. Kerala has also high density because two or three crops can be grown due to high rainfall.

Question 10.
What are the causes of high density of population in plains?
Answer:
The density of population is high in plains. This is due to:

The Northern plain is fertile.
It has high rainfall.
It has many big industrial centres.
The means of transport are developed.
Coastal plain has facilities of fishing and foreign trade.

Question 11.
What are the areas of low density of population?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh is the ara of low density of population followed by Andaman and Nicobar, Mizoram and Sikkim as per the census 2011.

Question 12.
Name the areas of low density of population. What are the causes of low density of population?
Answer:
Thar Desert, Eastern Himalayas and Chotta Nagpur plateau are sparsely populated areas.

The soils are infertile or sandy or stony.
The means of transport are not developed
The climate is not healthy. It is either too hot or too cold. Himalayas get heavy rainfall.
Industries are not developed in these areas except Chotta Nagpur plateau.

Question 13.
Why is it necessary to study the structure of population?
Answer:
It is necessary to study the structure of population of a country due to:

We need different components of population such as age structure, sex ratio, occupational structure for the economic and social planning of a country.
The different aspects of population have a close relationship with development on the one hand, These are affected by population and on the other hand these affect population and ’development. For example, if the percentage of children and old age people is high in age structure, a country has to spend more on education and health facilities. On the other hand, a high percentage of working age group encourages the economic development of a country.

Question 14.
Name the areas with small population.
Answer:
Sikkim, Lakshadweep are the areas with small population.

Question 15.
What is the importance of study of age structure?
Answer:
These are the advantages of study of age structure of population:

By determining the 0-14 age group the govt, knows that there is need of expenditure on education, health and social services. So new schools, health centres and community centres are opened.
We know the number of eligible voters in the country which is vital for a democracy. There should be 58% voters per age group, but actually there are 60% of voters in the country.

Question 16.
What are the causes of low sex ratio in India?
Answer:
The sex ratio of India is 940 per thousand males. There is a general declining trend in sex ratio. The ratio in 1901 was 972, It was declined to 934 in 1981. This decline has been due to social evils in our society.

In our society, female child is neglected. Male population dominates in our society. There is high death rate among females. Death rate is particularly high among married women. Women labour migrates to some mining and industrial centres. It also results in declining sex ratio.

Question 17.
What are the causes of increase in urban population in India?
Answer:
The rapid growth of population has posed many socio-economic problems in different countries. The main problems are :

Food problem. Growth of population has led to shortage of foodgrains in many areas.
Agricultural production has increased due to new technology, yet many countries have to import agricultural products.
Housing problem. Housing conditions are poor in over-populated countries. People live in slum areas. Skyscrapers are being built in many Metropolitan towns.
Unemployment. Rapid increase in population leads to unemployment. Migration of people from over-populated rural areas has added to Unemployment.
Low standard of living. Per capita income is low in overcrowded areas so living conditions are poor. People do not afford to have basic necessities of life. Population explosion leads to poverty and a poor standard of living.
Dependent population. A large percentage of young people become dependent on a small working population.
Social problems. Many social problems arise due to overcrowding. Poor health and bad sanitary conditions lead to epidemics.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population 4
The percent share of population of some states of India’s total population

III. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Explain the regional structure of density of population in India.
Answer:
The distribution of population in India is unequal. According to 2011 census, the total population of India is 121 crore and the density of population is 382 persons per sq. kilometre. The density of population varies according to relief, climate and the agricultural productivity of the land. The density of population depends on the amount of rainfall.

The areas of sufficient rainfall can support a large number of people.
1. Densely populated areas. These areas have a density’of more than 400 persons per sq. kilometre. The high density areas make a girdle round the Deccan plateau. Right from Sutlej-Beas plain to Brahmputra valley, the density of population is very high.
(a) West Coastal Plain: Kerala has 859 persons per sq. kilometre density of population.
(b) East Coastal Plain: Tamil Nadu has a density of 555 persons per sq, kilometre.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population 5
(c) The Northern Plain: It includes West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab.

Factors favouring high density:

Sufficient rainfall
Fertile river valleys and deltas.
2 to 3 crops of rice in a year.
Irrigation facilities.
Healthy climate.
Rich in mineral and power resources.

2. Moderately populated areas. These include the areas with a density between 200 to 400 persons per sq. kilometre. These areas are surrounded by Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Haryana, Maharashtra, Andhra Pardesh, Karnataka, Gujarat, Orissa, Goa, Assam have a moderate density.

Factors for moderate density:

Agriculture is not developed due to thin and rocky soils.
Rainfall is uncertain.
Means of transportation are not developed.
Some areas have high density of population due to irrigation, lava, soils and mineral resources.

3. Sparsely populated areas.
These areas have a density less than 200 persons per sq. kilometre.
(a) North Eastern India. This region includes Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

(b) Rajasthan Desert. Rajasthan has a density of 200 persons per sq. kilometre.

The hilly nature of the land.
Dense forests.
Low rainfall
Poor econoufic development.
Absence of minerals.
Lack of irrigation and agriculture.
Cold climate.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the state-wise structure of sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Sex ratio means’the number of females per 1000 males. Now-a-days, women have equal rights with men. In developed countries, the number of women is equal to number of men. In some countries sex ratio is 1050. The average sex ratio in developing countries is 964. In India, in 2011, sex ratio was 940, and is one of the lowest in the world.

State-wise sex ratio. Sex ratio is not uniform in all states. Only one state, Kerala, has sex-ratio of 1084 and Puducherry (1036) (Above the average). In other states, sex ratio is less than average.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population 7
It is clear that Northern States have low sex ratio which is a matter of concern.

Question 3.
Explain the main characteristics of regional structure of distribution of population.
Answer:
The distribution of population in India is unequal. According to 2011 census, the total population of India is 121 crore and the density of population is 382 persons per sq. kilometre. The density of population varies according to relief, climate and the agricultural productivity of the land. The density of population depends on the amount of rainfall.

Factors favouring high density:

Sufficient rainfall
Fertile river valleys and deltas.
2 to 3 crops of rice in a year.
Irrigation facilities.
Healthy climate.
Rich in mineral and power resources.

Factors for moderate density:

Agriculture is not developed due to thin and rocky soils.
Rainfall is uncertain.
Means of transportation are not developed.
Some areas have high density of population due to irrigation, lava, soils and mineral resources.

(b) Rajasthan Desert. Rajasthan has a density of 200 persons per sq. kilometre.

The hilly nature of the land.
Dense forests.
Low rainfall
Poor econoufic development.
Absence of minerals.
Lack of irrigation and agriculture.
Cold climate.

Question 4.
What problems are arising due to increase in urban population in metro cities?
Answer:
The rapid growth of population has posed many socio-economic problems in different countries. The main problems are:

Food problem. Growth of population has led to shortage of foodgrains in many areas.
Agricultural production has increased due to new technology, yet many countries have to import agricultural products.
Housing problem. Housing conditions are poor in over-populated countries. People live in slum areas. Skyscrapers are being built in many Metropolitan towns.
Unemployment. Rapid increase in population leads to unemployment. Migration of people from over-populated rural areas has added to Unemployment.
Low standard of living. Per capita income is low in overcrowded areas so living conditions are poor. People do not afford to have basic necessities of life. Population explosion leads to poverty and a poor standard of living.
Dependent population. A large percentage of young people become dependent on a small working population.
Social problems. Many social problems arise due to overcrowding. Poor health and bad sanitary conditions lead to epidemics.

Question 5.
Write a note on the cultural structures of population of India.
Answer:
1. Races. Ethnically, India consists of several races, the Dravidians, the Mongoloids, the Arayans and the Caucasians. In course of time these races have intermingled, losing many of original traits and acquiring new ones from others. And yet we notice a great diversity which is so characteristic of the Indian people. In fact, the richness and beauty of India culture lies in its diversity. Its spirit of tolerance, give-and- take assimilation makes it one of the distinctive cultures of the world.

2. Faiths. The Indian people follow different faiths. These do not follow regional, political and linguistic barriers. They speak different languages ^languages cut across race, religion, caste and often region. Notwithstanding these facial, religious linguistic arid regional diversities, we are all Indians first and Indians last. Ours is a plural society with a composite culture. It can be compared to a fine mosaic or to a garden with flowers of various colours and shades. This maintaining entity of each lends colour and beauty to the total cultural landscape of our country.

3. Religions. India is the home of Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Zorastrians and others. None of these people enjoy any special privileges on the ground of their religion. Nor do they suffer in economic, political or social life because of their faith in a .particular religion. All are equal before law and enjoy full freedom. All are bestowed with equal rights, .entailing corresponding responsibilities.

4. Languages. In India there are a large number of languages. Some of them are derived from Sanskrit while others are of Darvidian origin. The major Indian languages are Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malyalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Of these, four languages of southern India-Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malyalam are of Dravidian origin.

5. National Language. It would be a mistake to conclude that everybody speaking any of these languages is Dravidian by race. Similarly, not all who speak languages of Sanskrit origin are Aryans. Generally, the people who lived in a given area over a long period of time adopted the language of that region as their first language irrespective of ethnic or any other considerations. A great number of people speak Hindi. Similarly, a large number of people are able to understand this language even if it is not their mother tongue. This has led to the adoption of Hindi as the official language of the Union Government. For the convenience of the non-Hindi- speaking states English is also used officially.

6. Linguistic unity. Linguists are of the view that the Indian languages and their literatures have much more in common than their apparent or outward differences. All the Indian languages are phonetic in nature and have a more or less common structure and a surprisingly large common vocabulary. There is not much difference in the scripts of many of these languages.

Question 6.
Write an essay on problem of population increase in India and also enlighten the solution to this problem.
Answer:India’s population is growing rapidly, and creating some problems.

Low standard of living. Indian people have low standard of living as compared that of Europeans. About 48% people live below poverty line. They do not have full meals. It results in low production capacity.
Deforestation. The forests are cleared recklessly to meet the growing needs. It has resulted in problems of soil erosion, floods, pollution and loss of forest-wealth.
Lack of pastures. India has only 4% land under pastimes. If this land is used for other purposes, it will result in shortage of fodder for cattle.
Pressure on Land. Land is a limited source and cannot be increased. It is leading to pressure of population on land. It will decrease the productivity of the land.
Lack of minerals. Industries are developed to meet the growing needs of people. So more minerals are used. These reserves will exhaust soon.
Environment. Population growth has an adverse effect on environment. Clear water and air is a problem. Oxygen is also decreasing.

Solutions:

Family planning should be adopted,
People should be explained significance of small families by films, songs, plays,
Illiteracy should be abolished so that people should understand harms of growing population,
Female education should be increased, marriageable age of girls be increased.

Question 7.
Study critically the efforts being made Tor the expansion of Education in India.
Answer:
Education. One of the basic inputs in human resource development is education. Literacy and numeracy form the foundation on which superstructure of education is built.
1. At the time of independence only 14% of the people were literate. It meant that they could at least read and write names. By 2011 it has slowly risen to 65.58%. In absolute terms the number of the literates has grown to 550 million from 60 million. It is about 11 fold growth. But it is pertinent to note that the number of the illiterate persons has also increased.

2. Our constitution directed the Government to provide education for all children upto the age of fourteen. This was a big task because the bulk of the population was distributed over half a million villages. These villages are separated by considerable distance from one another. Priority was, therefore, given to set up schools in almost every village. As a result there are now half a million primary school in place of two lakhs in 1951. Similarly the middle schools also increased by as much as ten times. Earlier there was one middle school for every 15 primary schools. Now it stands for every four primary schools.

3. Although there has been a marked increase in the number of children getting into formal schools. One of the worries is that out of every 100 children in class I, only 40 manage to complete class V and 25 reach class VIII. Thus three fourths of the pupils drop out on their way.

4. We have also made progress in increasing the number of secondary schools, universities, industrial training as well as other institutions. Still educational facilities are not available to all because of fast growing population.

IV. Show the following on the map of India:

Question 1.
(i) Areas of high density of population.
(ii) Two States with high literacy rate.
(m) Two States of highest and lowest population.
(iv) Areas with high growth rate of population.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 7 Population 6

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Population Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line:

Question 1.
What was the total population of India in 2011?
Answer:
121 crores.

Question 2.
Where does India rank in world population?
Answer:
2nd.

Question 3.
When was last census held in India?
Answer:
2011.

Question 4.
What is birth rate in India?
Answer:
26 per thousand.

Question 5.
What is sex ratio in India?
Answer:
940.

Question 6.
Which state ha’s highest sex ratio?
Answer:
Kerala

Question 7.
Which state has lowest sex ratio?
Answer:
Haryana.

Question 8.
What is literacy rate in India?
Answer:
65%.

Question 9.
Which state has the highest density of population?
Answer:
Bihar.

Question 10.
Which state has the largest poulation?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 11.
What is average density of population in India?
Answer:
382 persons per sq. km.

Question 12.
Which state has lowest density of population?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 13.
Write down any four characteristics of population census.
Answer:
The four characteristics of population census are distribution of population, density of population, literacy, the age-sex ratio.

Question 14.
What do you mean by distribution of population?
Answer:
Distribution of population means the nature of population and its concentration at one place.

Question 15.
What do you mean by density of population?
Answer:
Density of population means the average number of persons living in a unit square area. It is shown per sq. km.

Question 16.
What is the main factor affecting the distribution of population and why?
Answer:
Agricultural production is the main factor affecting the distribution of population because India is an agricultural country.

Question 17.
Name any four factors affecting the structure of distribution of population.
Answer:

Agricultural production
Diversity in natural factors
Industrialisation
Cultural reasons.

Question 18.
Name the three states having low density of population.
Answer:

Arunachal Pradesh
Nagaland
Manipur.

Question 19.
Which communities have .the highest and lowest sex ratio in India?
Answer:
Christians have the highest sex ratio (994 women per thousand men) and Sikhs have the lowest sex ratio (886 per thousand men) in India.

Question 20.
What are the bad results of increasing population in urban areas?
Answer:
There is heavy rush on available sources and public services due to increase in population in urban areas. It becomes very difficult for people to meet fMeir basic needs.

Question 21.
What is meant by sex ratio? :
Answer:
The numerical ratio between females and males is called sex ratio.

Question 22.
Distinguish between productive and dependent population.
Answer:
By productive population we mean those persons who follow different professions and earn money. Children and old persons are included in the dependent persons.

Question 23.
Name four racial groups living in India.
Answer:
The racial grqups living in India are:

Dravid, Mangol,
Arya, Caucasiun

Question 24.
Which languages of India are of Dravidian origin?
Answer:

Tamil in Tamil Nadu State
Telugu in Andhra Pradesh
Kannada in Karnataka
Malayalam in Kerala.

Question 25.
What are the two reasons of decrease in death rate?
Answer:

The main reason is increase in health services.
Due to spread in education, death rate has fallen down.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1 .
_______ is a human resource.
Answer:
Population

Question 2.
India ranis _______ in world population.
Answer:
second

Question 3.
India has a total population of ______ crores.
Answer:
131

Question 4.
Punjab has a population of ________crores.
Answer:
77

Question 5.
Most of population lives in _________ areas.
Answer:
rural.

Mulitiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
What is the total population of India (2011)?
(a) 102 crore
(b) 112 crore
(c) 118 crore
(d) 131 crore.
Answer:
(d) 131 crore.

Question 2.
When was first census held in India?
(a) 1971
(b) 1881
(c) 1891
(d) 1861.
Answer:
(b) 1881

Question 3.
Which state has the lowest population?
(a) Punjab
(b) Sikkim
(c) Assam
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(b) Sikkim

Question 4.
What is the average sex ratio in India ?
(a) 910
(b) 930
(c) 933
(d) 940.
Answer:
(d) 940.

Question 5.
The literacy rate in India is :
(a) 55%
(b) 60%
(c) 65%
(d) 67%.
Answer:
(c) 65%

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State three reasons for the uneven distribution of population in India.
Answer:

The distribution of population in India is unequal. According to 2011 census, the total population of India is 121 crore and the density of population is 382 persons per sq. kilometre. The density of population varies according to relief, climate and the agricultural productivity of the land. The density of population depends on the amount of rainfall.

Factors favouring high density:
(0 Sufficient rainfall
(ii) Fertile river valleys and deltas.
(iii) 2 to 3 crops of rice in a year.
(iv) Irrigation facilities.
(iv) Healthy climate.
(vi) Rich in mineral and power resources.

Factors for moderate density:

Agriculture is not developed due to thin and rocky soils.
Rainfall is uncertain.
Means of transportation are not developed.
Some areas have high density of population due to irrigation, lava, soils and mineral resources.

(b) Rajasthan Desert. Rajasthan has a density of 200 persons per sq. kilometre.

The hilly nature of the land.
Dense forests.
Low rainfall
Poor econoufic development.
Absence of minerals.
Lack of irrigation and agriculture.
Cold climate.

Question 2.
Throw light on some important aspects of population of India.
Answer:

India is one of the selected countries where population concentration is found.
After independence, population of India has increased 4 times.
India has an average population of 3 crores for each state.
U.P. has the highest population in India.
Average density of population is 382 persons per sq. km.
West Bengal has the highest density of population.

Question 3.
How is the growth of population a problem for India ?
Answer:
After independence, the land-area has been fixed in India but the population has increased manifold. The growth of population is 1.7 per-cent. It is a great problem to provide basic amenities to such a huge population. It is not easy to provide the facilities of education, hospitals and other facilities to all. We shall have to increase the transport and communication facilities also. We shall have to cultivate quality in our population.

Question 4.
State the adverse effects of rapid growth of population in India.
Answer:
The rapid growth of population has posed many socio-economic problems in different countries. The main problems are:

Food problem. Growth of the population has led to shortage of foodgrains in many areas.
Agricultural production has increased due to new technology, yet many countries have to import agricultural products.
Housing problem. Housing conditions are poor in over-populated countries. People live in slum areas. Skyscrapers are being built in many Metropolitan towns.
Unemployment. Rapid increase in population leads to unemployment. Migration of people from over-populated rural areas has added to Unemployment.
Low standard of living. Per capita income is low in overcrowded areas so living conditions are poor. People do not afford to have basic necessities of life. Population explosion leads to poverty and a poor standard of living.
Dependent population. A large percentage of young people become dependent on a small working population.
Social problems. Many social problems arise due to overcrowding. Poor health and bad sanitary conditions lead to epidemics.

Question 5.
Why is the occupational structure of India lop sided?
Answer:
Two thirds of our population still lives on agriculture. Only 10% of the working population is engaged in industry. The rest one fourth of population is in the tertiary or service sector. This makes clear that a small proportion of our population is engaged in secondary sector of economy. The secondary sector includes manufacturing by which we can increase our national income by producing useful products. So there are not more people employed in manufacturing. So our occupational structure is lop sided.

Question 6.
Why are the Northern plains densely populated?
Answer:

Factors favouring high density:

Sufficient rainfall
Fertile river valleys and deltas.
2 to 3 crops of rice in a year.
Irrigation facilities.
Healthy climate.
Rich in mineral and power resources.

Factors for moderate density:

Agriculture is not developed due to thin and rocky soils.
Rainfall is uncertain.
Means of transportation are not developed.
Some areas have high density of population due to irrigation, lava, soils and mineral resources.

(b) Rajasthan Desert. Rajasthan has a density of 200 persons per sq. kilometre.

The hilly nature of the land.
Dense forests.
Low rainfall
Poor econoufic development.
Absence of minerals.
Lack of irrigation and agriculture.
Cold climate.

Question 7.
Name three sparsely populated areas of India. Give reasons.
Answer:
The rapid growth of population has posed many socio-economic problems in different countries. The main problems are:

Food problem. Growth of population has led to shortage of foodgrains in many areas.
Agricultural production has increased due to new technology, yet many countries have to import agricultural products.
Housing problem. Housing conditions are poor in over-populated countries. People live in slum areas. Skyscrapers are being built in many Metropolitan towns.
Unemployment. Rapid increase in population leads to unemployment. Migration of people from over-populated rural areas has added to Unemployment.
Low standard of living. Per capita income is low in overcrowded areas so living conditions are poor. People do not afford to have basic necessities of life. Population explosion leads to poverty and a poor standard of living.
Dependent population. A large percentage of young people become dependent on a small working population.
Social problems. Many social problems arise due to overcrowding. Poor health and bad sanitary conditions lead to epidemics.

Question 8.
Explain the following with reference to population of India.
(a) census
(b) density of population
(c) growth of population
(d) death rate.
Answer:
(a) Census. After every ten years, the Government arranges the counting of all persons of the country. It is called census. Some social and economic data is also collected. The last census in India was held in 2011. According to this census, the total population of India was 121 crores.

(b) Density of Population. Density of population means the average number of persons living in a unit sq. area. It is shown per sq. km. According to 2011 census, density of population in India was 382 persons per km2.

(c) Growth of Population. People, sometimes, migrate from one area to another due to epidemics or droughts or in search of employment. It increases or decreases the population of an area. In the area to which people migrate population increases. It is known as growth of population or decrease in population.

(d) Death Rate. Death rate means the number of deaths per 1000 persons.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Dependency Ratio? Why is it high in India? Give two reasons.
Answer:
The proportion between productive and dependent population is dependency ratio. Children and old people are dependent population. India has a joint family system. Therefore children and old people get livelihood automatically. Illiteracy has also increased it. Orthodox views increase this ratio.

Question 10.
What is major mistake done by Indian planning? What are its effects?
Answer:
The most important and pathetic mistake of the Indian Planning according to Dr. Sen is the development of institution, on the basis of caste etc. In Delhi, he said, “several buildings do not have public toilets, which is important for every building. As compare to other such as China, Pakistan, Bangladesh have expanded education system and health care facilities. But this is a pathetic condition in India.

Question 11.
Distinguish between distribution of population and density of population.
Answer:
Population in India is not evenly distributed. Many factors are responsible for this:

Fertility of the soil. The states in which there is a large fertile area the density of population is high. U.P. and Bihar are such states.
Amount of rainfall. The density of population is higher in regions of abundant rain. In northern India the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from east to west. The density of population also goes on decreasing in the same direction.
Climate. Wherever the climate is congenial the density of population will be high. In Assam even though there is abundant rainfall but the density of population is low because the climate is unhealthy. The malaria is always there is an epidemic form.
Developed means of transportation. With development of means of transportation the business makes rapid progress and the density of population increases. The reason for high density of population in U.P., Bihar and West Bengal is the development of means of transportation.
Industrial development. At places where the factories are located the density of population also increases. The reason is that people like to live in those areas where industrial development takes place. They can carry on their business more easily in such areas and they have better chances of earning more money. That is why the density of population is high in Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata.

Question 12.
Why is the conservation of resources necessary?
Answer:
Man depends upon the environment to meet his needs. He uses water, land, soil, vegetation, etc. to satisfy his needs. Man is using these resources at such an alarming rate that there will be serious shortage of these resources in the near future. Natural resources are of limited supply. So, conservation of resources is essential for the survival of man.

To some people conservation means that the available resources should not be used. These should be held back. But conservation of resources means a careful and rational utilization of resources. These resources should be used intelligently for the welfare of mankind. It means a careful control and management of resources so that these may be usd for the benefit of future generations also. These should be preserved from reckless exploitation and wanton destruction. These resources should not be wasted in a short time. The resources should be maintained in a healthy condition for their use as to achieve a high standard of living for mankind.

Question 13.
Why is low density of population found in Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:
In some areas, it is difficult to get means of livelihood. These have a harsh climate. The soils are sandy or hilly. Agriculture is not possible. There is absence of irrigation and the production is low. Industries can not be developed in such areas. Therefore low density of population is found in Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 14.
The people are important to develop the economy and society. Give three facts.
Answer:

People use available resources.
They create a social and cultural environment..
Intelligent and hard working people make the real man power.

Question 15.
Define birth rate. What is its function with reference to population?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000 persons in a year. It is a component of growth of population; because birth rate is always higher than death rate. The population increases when birth rate is higher tMn death rate.

Question 16.
Define death rate. What is its function with reference to population?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year. It is a component of growth of population. Due to declining death rate, there is a rapid growth of population in India. When death rate is more than birth rate, the population growth is negative.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
List factors influencing the distribution of population.
Answer:
The following factors influence the distribution of population:
1. Fertility of the soil. The states in which there is a large fertile area, the density of population is high. U.P. and Bihar are such states.

2. Amount of rainfall. The density of population is higher in regions of abundant rain. In. northern India, the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from east to west. The density of population also goes on decreasing in the same direction.

3. Climate: Wherever the climate is congenial, the density of population will be high. In Assa even though there is abundant rainfall but the density of population is low because the climate is unhealthy. The malaria is always in an epidemic form.

4. Developed means of transporUition. With development of mans of transportation the business makes rapid progress and the density of population increases. The reason for high density of population in Ui., Biliar and West Bengal is the development of means of trahsportation.

5. Industrial development. At places whëre the faetones are located, thë density’ of population also increases. The reason is that people like to live in those areas where industrial development takes place. They can carry on tliei1 bushis mo easily in such areas, and they have better chances of earning more money. That iš why the density of population is high in Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources

January 20, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Minerals and Power Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions objectively:

Question 1.
Name the important minerals.
Answer:
Iron ore, manganese, coal, limestone, bauxite are the main minerals of India.

Question 2.
What are the uses of Manganese?
Answer:
Manganese is used in steel making and strengthening steel.

Question 3.
What is the position of India amongst the manganese ore producing countries of the world?
Answer:
India ranks fourth in the world after Brazil, South America and Russia.

Question 4.
Name the position of India amongst the mica producing countries in the world.
Answer:
First position.

Question 5.
Name the state that produces more than half of the total production of Mica.
Answer:
Bihar.

Question 6.
Name the industries in which Mica is used as a raw material.
Answer:
It is used in electrical goods industries.

Question 7.
Which mineral is obtained from Bauxite ore?
Answer:
Aluminium.

Question 8.
What are the uses of Copper?
Or
Cite any two uses of copper.
Answer:
Copper is used for making utensils. It is used in electric goods industries because it is a good conductor of heat.

Question 9.
Name the place and state where maximum gold is produced.
Answer:
Kolar (Karnataka).

Question 10.
In which industry is the limestone used to the maximum?
Answer:
In cement industry.

Question 11.
What is the place of India in coal production in the world?
Answer:
India ranks third after China and U.S.A.

Question 12.
What is the percentage of coal reserves found in Damodar Valley?
Answer:
About three fourth of the total reserves.

Question 13.
Which organisation controls the management of coal production?
Answer:
Coal India Limited (CIL).

Question 14.
Name the four major atomic energy-producing centres.
Answer:

Tarapur-Along the border of Maharashtra, Gujarat.
Rawat Bhata-Near Kota in Rajasthan.
Kalpakkam-Tamil Nadu.
Narora-Near Buland Shahar (U.P.)

Question 15.
What is Wind Energy?
Answer:
The energy produced by windmills and the power of the wind is called wind energy.

Question 16.
Which material is extracted from Bai^adila Mines?
Answer:
Iron ore.

Question 17.
Which mineral is extracted from Kolar Mines?
Answer:
Gold.

Question 18.
What is the other name given to Lignite?
Answer:
Brown coal.

Question 19.
For which work is the ship ‘Sagar Samrat’ used?
Answer:
Sagar Samrat is a mobile drilling platform bought from Japan. It is used for exploring oilfields in coastal areas like Bombay High.

Question 20.
Which energy is derived from Uranium?
Answer:
The atomic energy power source is obtained from Uranium.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the role of minerals in the National Economy.
Answer:
Minerals have an important part to play in the Indian Economy.

There are great possibilities of industrial development due to minerals. Coal and Iron with large reserves form the basis of the machine age.
Mining provides income to states.
Mining provides employment to millions.

Question 2.
Name the Manganese producing states of India.
Answer:
Orissa is the largest producer of Manganese in India. After Orissa, M.P., Maharashtra and Karnataka are the main producers. Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Goa and Bihar also produce Manganese. Orissa has the main mines at Keonjhar, Kalahandi and Mayur Bhanj. Madhya Pradesh has mines at Bala Ghat, Chindwara and Jabalpur.

Question 3.
Name the major Bauxite producing centres.
Answer:
Bauxite deposits are found in many areas of India. Jharkhand, Gujarat and Chhattisgarh are the main producers of Bauxite. Good quality Bauxite is mined in Kolhapur district (Maharashtra).

During the last few years, the Bauxite deposits of Orissa have been developed. The largest aluminium plant of Asia (with a capacity of 8 lakh tonnes alumina and 2.25 lakh tonnes aluminium) has been set up in this state.

Question 4.
Name the copper-producing centres in India
Answer:
Most of the copper of India is mined in Singhbhum (Jharkhand), Balaghat (M.P.), Alwar, Jhunjhnu (Rajasthan). Khaman in Andhra Pradesh, Chitrakoot and Hassan in Karnataka and Sikkim also produce some copper.

Question 5.
What are the causes of the non-availability of minerals in Punjab?
Answer:
Most of Punjab is made up of alluvial soils. It is a flat low land area suitable for agriculture. Minerals were formed in ancient periods in the areas of Igneous and Metamorphic Rocks. Therefore, minerals are not found in alluvial soils of Punjab.

Question 6.
Name the coal-producing centres in India.
Answer:
Three fourth of coal reserves are found in the Damodar Valley. Raniganj, Jharia, Gridihi, Bokaro arrd Karanpura are major coalfields in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Bihar states. Coal is also mined in Singarauli, Suhagpur and Raigarh in Chhattisgarh. Singareni (Andhra Pradesh), Talcher (Orissa) and Chouda (Maharashtra) are other coal fields.

Question 7.
Name the main coal-producing centres in Orissa.
Answer:
Three fourth of coal reserves are found in the Damodar Valley. Raniganj, Jharia, Gridihi, Bokare arrd Karanpura are major coal fields in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Bihar states. Coal is also mined in Singarauli, Suhagpur and Raigarh in Chhattisgarh. Singareni (Andhra Pradesh), Talcher (Orissa) and Chouda (Maharashtra) are other coal fields.

Question 8.
What were the causes of Nationalisation of coal production?
Answer:
The main aims of the Nationalisation of coal industry were’:

To protect labourers.
Planned mining.
To preserve the environment.

Question 9.
Name the non-conventional Sources of Energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources are:

Solar power
Wind power
Tidal power
Geothermal power
Trees
Urban Waste.
Power from organic material.

Question 10.
Describe the importance of wind energy in India.
Answer:
Wind power is an unlimited and less expensive source of power. New industries can be set up in isolated areas.

Uses:

Irrigation in rural areas.
Electricity is generated by windmills and is included in the grid system.

Question 11.
What is the role of Indian Government in mining industry?
Answer:
The government provides guidelines in mining. Laws are made according to Mineral Act 1957. The government provides “licences and contracts for mining. The government takes steps for development of mining and changes the rules regarding old contracts.

Question 12.
From which districts of Madhya Fradesh is iron ore extracted?
Answer:
Iron ore is mined in Jabalpur and Balaghat districts. Modern techniques are used in Bailadila Mines (Bastar). Iron ore is exported to Japan.

Question 13.
Name all the institutes associated with exploration, refinement and regional distribution of oil.
Answer:
The organisations are:

Oil and Natural Gas Commission (O.N.G.C.)
Oil India Limited (O.I.L.)
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation (H.P.C.)
Gas Authority of India Limited (G.A.I.L.).

Question 14.
Why is solar energy said to be a future energy reserve?
Answer:
Coal and oil are exhaustible sources of power. These will not last long. On the other hand solar power is an inexhaustible source of power.

It provides unlimited power, when oil and coal will be exhausted, solar power will be used.

Question 15.
What is the importance of natural gas in manure industry?
Answer:
Natural gas is a raw material for fertiliser industry. It helps to increase agriculture production. It is transported to factories through pipe-lines. 1730 K.M. long HBJ gas pipe-lines provide natural gas to 6 fertiliser factories.

Question 16.
What are the problems faced in the regional distribution of Hydroelectric energy in India?
Answer:
The main problems are:

The consumer centres are situated away from bower generating centres. It becomes expensive to layout grid system.
Some part of electricity is lost on the way.
Due to some fault in the grid system electricity supply is stopped.

Question 17.
Describe in brief the importance of mineral reserves in India.
Answer:
India is rich in mineral wealth.

India is especially rich in Iron ore. Iron and coal are the bases of the machine age. India had 1/4th reserves of Iron ore of the world. India has rich reserves as well as good quality iron ore.
India has rich reserves of Manganese which is useful for alloy steel.
India has huge reserves of coal. But coking coal reserves are low. Coal and Iron ore are found adjacent to each other which makes up the deficiency of coking coal.
Limestone is widely found in India.
India is rich in Bauxite (used for aluminium) and Mica (used for electrical goods).

Question 18.
Describe the main iron ore producing centres of India.
Answer:
India has huge iron ore reserves. It is of good quality, namely Haematite and Magnetite iron ore. This has 60 to 70% iron ore content. So it has a great demand in the international market.

Areas: Iron ore is found in many areas. India has, an iron ore reserve of 1757 crore tonnes. One-half of the reserves are found in Singhbhum (Jharkhand) and Keonjhar,

Bonai, Mayurbhanj (Orissa). This is the largest iron ore belt of the world. It is also found in Bihar, Chhattisgarh. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka states.

Question 19.
Describe efforts made in the field of exploration and refinement of oil in India after independence.
Answer:
Potential oil-bearing area extends over 10 lakh 700 km. in India ; (almost 1/3rd of area of the country). It includes the Ganges-Brahmputra plain, coastal belts, Gujarat plains, Thar Desert and Andaman Nicobar inlands.

Position at the time of Independence. At the time of independence, oil was found only in Assam. Oil refinery was set up at Digboi. It was a small oilfield. But it worked for about 100 years.

Oil-exploration after the independence. Oil exploration was started to meet the growing demand. Oil and natural gas was discovered in off-shore regions of Gujarat and Gulf of Cambay. Oil was found at Bombay (Mumbai) High at a distance of 115 kms from Mumbai coast. At present, it is the largest oilfield of India. A mobile drilling platform ‘Sagar Samrat’ from Japan was used to explore oil. India extended this oil region. New oilfields have been discovered in off-shore regions of deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery. New oil reserves have been found in Assam.

Question 20.
Describe the development in the electrification process in villages after independence.
Answer:
Special attention was paid to the rural electrification after independence. Schemes were launched jointly by States and Electricity Boards. More than 5 lakh villages were electrified till 2000. 98 lakh tube-wells were installed. About 84% of villages were electrified. In Punjab all the villages have been electrified. To supply electricity in areas of scheduled castes and tribes, priority is being given. It will provide a multipurpose development of the villages.

Question 21.
Write in detail about the ‘Power-village Scheme’.
Answer:

Power-village Scheme’ has been started by Govt, of India with the aim of providing power to inaccessible rural areas.
It includes the setting up of Gobar gas plants with the help of organic materials, Gobar, by-products of human waste.
It is being set up at individual, collective and village level.
Bio-gas plants in urban areas are run on the human waste.
In recent years Power-village scheme has been completed in 184 villages. Besides, 222 villages have this scheme at different stages.
A survey of Power in 1680 villages has been completed and a survey of 344 villages is being conducted.

Question 22.
Write about a programme of Smokeless stoves being planned at the national level (Pb. 2004, 10)
Answer:
A special programme of Smokeless Chullahas is being set up at national level. Its main aim is to save fuel and remove the problem of wood-collection by rural women.

Power is mostly used in kitchen. Cow dung and wood is used as fuel. The traditional chullahas consume more fuel and emit more smoke. So this scheme was started in ) December 1983. A smokeless chullah can save 700 kg fuel per year. It saves 20 to 35% fuel-wood. 2.85 crore Smokeless Chullahas had been set up till March 1998. These pollution free chullahas have a bright future.

Question 23.
Describe Solar energy as an inexhaustible source of energy. Which parts of the country can make maximum utilization of solar energy?
Answer:
Solar energy is an unlimited and inexhaustible source of power. It is widely used and has a bright future. Solar energy can be used at a low cost, for water heating, cooking, heating the rooms, making the water lighter and drying up of crops. An area of 2.80 lakh sq. km had been marked as a potential area for the use of Solar energy till March 1993. About 5 lakh Solar cookers had been sold till March 1998.

Potential Areas. The more potential area for the use of Solar energies is Rajasthan. This state gets Solar Heat throughout the year. This energy can be supplied to scattered villages without any problem. It is the source of power for the future.

Question 24.
Write a short note on the progress made in the generation of Hydro¬electricity.
Answer:
Hydel power is a major source of Power. In 1988-89, the total installed capacity of electric power was 4 crore kW in the country. It was twice the developed water power. In 1999-2000, the developed electric power was 97.8 thousand MW units. Besides this 23.8 thousand MW units of water power and 2.7 thousand MW units of atomic power were developed; showing an increase every year.

Electric power houses are widely scattered in the country. The developed power forms a grid. It saves the loss of power. A National Electric Grid is being formed. The power is developed from all the sources. Coal, Gas, oil, water and atomic power will be integrated into a grid.

Question 25.
Describe the peaceful utilisation of atomic energy in India. Also write about the related international pressures due to this.
Answer:
Atomic energy is destructive, but India is using it for peaceful purposes. Atomic energy stations can be set up in areas deficient of other sources, or where these sources cannot meet the demands. India is trying its use. in peaceful purposes like agriculture and medicines.

The rich countries do not want its successful working in developing countries like India. So these countries want an international contro^over its working. So these countries want India to sign an international treaty. India’s argument against it is that it is a discriminating treaty that obstructs the peaceful use of atomic energy in India. Pressure is being mounted on India. India has to face difficulties to get the instruments required for it. The scientists are trying to find substitutes. India achieved a major success when Nuclear Reactor at Rawa Bhata (Rajasthan) was repaired with indigenous techniques. It saves a lot of foreign exchange and Nuclear technology receives a great boost. It is a matter of pride for India.

III. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Describe in detail the main problems which are being faced with the increase in coal production.
Answer:
Coal is the major source of power for industries. It is important for iron and steel, and chemical Industries. India has huge reserves of coal. 3/4th of coal reserves are located in Damodar valley. Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra have also coal fields.

Nationalisation of coal fields. After independence, coal industry has been nationalised. Its main aim is to protect the coal labourers from injustice.

Importance of coal. Light brown coal is of great importance for India. It has been useful for producing electricity and gas. Oil can be obtained from it. Mini thermal plants have been set up near coal fields. The electricity produced thus is connected with national electric grid. It saves time and expenditure both.

Production. In 1951, coal production was 3.5 crore tonnes. Now it has increased to 333.58 million tonnes.

Problems:

There is shortage of high grade coal.
Fire accidents have taken the lives of several labourers.
Coal fields are found at great depth. Its mining is expensive.
The technical development of coal production is slow.

Question 2.
Describe about the progress made by India in development of atomic energy.
Answer:
Thermal power is produced with the use of coal, petroleum and natural gas. These sources are called fossil fuels. These cannot be re-used. Besides these, Atomic fuel and Heavy water is used to generate electricity. Thus, electricity is generated as Hydel power, Thermal power and atomic power. Electricity is used in Agriculture, Industries, transformation and domestic purposes. It is impossible to imagine life without electricity.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 1
In 1999-2000, the total production of electricity was 897.8 thousand MW. It included 74.9% as thermal power, 23.5% a Hydel power and 1.60% as atomic power. The share of thermal power has increased rapidly. The installed capacity was 81.8 thousand MW in 1994-95. During eighth five year plan (1992-97), the target was to increase it by 30,858 MW. But during the first four years only 14,799 MW Or 48% has been increased. Thus there is a great difference in potential and developed power in India.

Question 3.
Write about the importance and development of non conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy. Today non-conventional sources of energy include wind, tides, geothermal heat, biogas, farm and animal waste including human excreta. All these sources are renewable or inexhaustible. They are inexpensive in nature.

These sources include the following:
1. Wind energy. It can be used for pumping water. It is used in irrigating farms in the countryside. Also, it can be used for generating electricity. It is estimated that wdnd alone can provide 2000 MW of electricity. The states of Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Orissa are better placed in regard to this energy. Areas with constant and high speed winds are suitable for the purpose.

2. Tidal energy. This is another inexhaustible and inexpensive source of energy. The Gulfs of Kutch and Cambay are ideally suited to develop electricity from the energy produced by high tides entering into narrow creeks.

3. Geo-thermal energy. India is not rich in this source. However, efforts are being made to utilize natural energy of the hot springs at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh. Energy so produced can be used for running cold storage plants.

4. Energy from urban waste. A pilot plant for demonstration purposes had already been set up in Delhi to treat solid municipal waste for conversion into energy. It produces nearly 4 MW energy every jmar. Sewage in cities is used for generating gas and electricity.

5. Biogas based power plants. Biogas, farm wastes, rice husk are being used to produce electricity.

6. Farm animal and human wastes (Urja Gram). By using biogas, animal, poultry wastes and human excreta, gobar gas plants are being set up in villages. The power so produced is used for cooking, lighting homes and streets and meeting irrigation needs of the village. The plants are being set up both at individual and community or village levels. Nearly 3 million smokeless chullahas are in operation. This saves nearly 2 million tonnes of firewood.

7. Solar Energy. It is the most abundant, cheapest and inexhaustible source of energy produced from sunlight. Solar cookers are used in cooking food. Solar power is being used for cooking, water heating, water desalination, space heating, crop drying. Solar energy is going to be the energy of the future.

Question 4.
What is the importance of electricity in the industrialisation of country?
Or
Explain the role of energy in the industrialization of the country.
Answer:
Electricity is important for the development of industries in India.

Industries are run with the help of machines that use electricity.
Electricity is generated from coal, water and atomic energy.
Some power is obtained from non-conventional sources.
Coal is a raw material also which is used in Iron and Steel industry.
Coal and lignite provide more than 60 per cent of the needs of our country.
The exploitation of oil has increased in industries.
Natural gas is used in fertilizer industry.

IV. Show/Mark the following on the map of India:

Question 1.
(i) Iron-ore producing areas
(iii) Manganese producing areas
(iii) Coal producing areas
(iv) Centres of Atomic energy
(v) Iron producing areas of Damodar Valley
(vi) Four major reserves of Bauxite
(vii) Gold producing areas in Koiar
(viii) Lignite coal-producing areas
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 2

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Minerals and Power Resources Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line:

Question 1.
Which is the hardest mineral?
Answer:
Diamond.

Question 2.
Name one example of a ferrous mineral.
Answer:
Iron.

Question 3.
Name two Non-ferrous minerals.
Answer:
Bauxite, Copper.

Question 4.
Which is the best quality iron ore?
Answer:
Magnetite.

Question 5.
Name a mineral in which India is deficient.
Answer:
Copper.

Question 6.
Name the largest iron ore producing state.
Answer:
Jharkhand.

Question 7.
Name an industry in which limestone is used.
Answer:
Cement.

Question 8.
Name a conventional source of energy.
Answer:
Coal.

Question 9.
Name the best quality coal.
Answer:
Anthracite.

Question 10.
Where is lignite coal found?
Answer:
Neyvelli.

Question 11.
Name an offshore oilfield.
Answer:
Mumbai High.

Question 12.
Name a nuclear power station in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Kalpakkam.

Question 13.
Name a solar plant in India.
Answer:
Madhopur.

Question 14.
Why have the minerals become more important in Modern age?
Answer:
Due to scientific research and technological development.

Question 15.
How can you say that India is rich in basic minerals?
Answer:
India is rich in Manganese ore to make the best quality of steel. India is also rich in Bauxite and Mica.

Question 16.
How is the distribution of minerals unequal in India?
Answer:
North Eastern plateau of India is considered as one of the rich mineral areas of the world, others have no minerals.

Question 17.
Why is North Eastern plateau considered as a gift in the industrial development?
Answer:
Good quality of iron ore is found in North Eastern plateau.

Question 18.
In which two states of India iron ore is found? Name one mine of these two states.
Answer:
Iron ore is found in the states of Bihar and Orissa in India. Iron ore is mined at Singhbhum in Jharkhand and Keonjhar in Orissa.

Question 19.
Which four ports export Iron ore? Which country is the main importer of our iron ore?
Answer:
The four ports exporting iron ore are—Kolkata, Vishakhapatnam, Goa and Paradip.

Question 20.
Name any two districts of Jharkhand where iron ore is found.
Answer:
Iron ore is found in the districts of Raigarh and Bilaspur in Jharkhand.

Question 21.
Name four mines of Manganese ore in Orissa.
Answer:
The four mines of Manganese ore situated in Orissa are Keonjhar, Kalahandi, Mayurbhanj and Talchir.

Question 22.
In which state of India Mica is mostly found? Name two other mica producing states.
Answer:
Mica is mostly found in the state of Jharkhand in India. The other two mica producing states are Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Question 23.
Name two main Bauxite producing states.
Answer:
The two main bauxite producing states are Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.

Question 24.
In which state copper is mainly found? Name two mines situated there.
Answer:
Copper is mainly found in Jharkhand. Its two mines are situated at Singhbhum and Hazaribagh.

Question 25.
Name four main coal mines of India.
Answer:
The four main coal mines of India are Raniganj, Jharia, Giridih and Bokaro.

Question 26.
Which was main oil producing state in India before independence? In which other states oil is mined in modern times?
Answer:
Assam was the main oil producing state in India before independence. Gujarat and (Bombay High) Maharashtra are other states in which oil is mined.

Question 27.
Name the atomic minerals found in India. In which states are they found? ‘
Answer:
Uranium is found in Bihar. Beryllium is found in Rajasthan. There is a huge reserve of mineral (Thorium) sand along the coast of Kerala.

Question 28.
Which atomic centres are w orking today in India.? Which is the oldest one?
Answer:
Tarapur, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam and Kalpakkam.

Question 29.
How many atomic energy centres are there in India?
Answer:
As per 2016, India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation at seven cities.

Question 30.
Which is the oldest Atomic Power Centre in India?
Answer:
Tarapur Atomic PowTer Station. (T.A.P.S.)

Question 31.
For which two peaceful purposes is atomic energy used in India? For which purpose it may be used in the future?
Answer:
India is using atomic energy for making medicines and improving the quality of seeds. It may be used for making water reservoirs, changing the course of rivers and developing mineral wealth.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Khetri is famous for________
Answer:
cooper

Question 2.
Singhbhum is famous for__________
Answer:
iron ore

Question 3.
Oil is drilled at __________
Answer:
Digboi

Question 4.
Tamilnadu has ______________atomic plant.
Answer:
Kalpakkam

Question 5.
Iron is a __________ mineral.
Answer:
ferrous

Question 6.
Hirakud dam is___________metre long and__________metre high.
Answer:
48,00 metres, 61 metres

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the hardest mineral?
(a) Diamond
(b) Granite
(c) Basalt
(d) Galbro.
Answer:
(a) Diamond

Question 2.
Which is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Iron
(c) Mica
(d) Coal.
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 3.
Which mine is famous for copper?
(a) Bastar
(b) Khetri
(c) Nellore
(d) Jharia.
Answer:
(b) Khetri

Question 4.
Gold is mined at
(a) Shimoga
(b) Chittradrug
(c) Koiar
(d) Bellary.
Answer:
(c) Koiar

Question 5.
Jharia is famous for:
(a) Oil
(b) Coal
(c) Gas
(d) Atomic energy.
Answer:
(b) Coal

True /False:

Question 1.
T.A.P.S. was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Limestone is an example of metallic mineral.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Anthracite is the best quality coal.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Madhopur is atomic energy plant.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Kalapakkam is in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the production and distribution of iron ore.
Answer:
India has about 25% of the iron ore reserves in the world. According to one estimate, India has 2,100 crore tons of iron ore reserves.

Production. The output of iron ore in India has greatly increased during the past few years. In 1957 India produced only 40 lakh tonnes of iron ore but in 2011-12 the output touched 90 Million tonnes.

Distribution. The maximum quantity of iron ore (40%) in India is mined in Orissa. Jharkhand is the second-largest producer of iron ore. The other important iron ore producing areas are Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan.

Question 2.
Name the four important mineral regions of India and also give the names of important minerals found in each region.
Answer:
Four important mineral regions of India are given below:

Chhota Nagpur in Bihar and Northern Orissa. It is a very well developed mineral region. Iron and coal are found in this region.
There are vast reserves of minerals in central Rajasthan. This region is being developed. Copper, lead, zinc and mica are found in this region.
Southern India is very important for minerals. Goa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are included in this region. Iron ore and lignite are found in this region.
This region consists of southern Madhya Pradesh and eastern Maharashtra. Iron ore and manganese are found in this region.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of hydroelectricity over other sources of energy?
Answer:
There are four main sources of energy—coal, petroleum, hydroelectricity and atomic energy. Hydroelectricity has special importance as source of energy. It has the following advantages:

Coal and petroleum deposits will be exhausted sooner or later but the rivers will continue flowing for thousands of years and so long as the rivers flow there will be no dearth of hydroelectricity.
While producing hydroelectricity water is not lost. Hydroelectricity is produced by moving turbines with the help of fast-flowing water. The water is afterwards used for irrigation.
It is not easy to transport coal or petroleum from one place to another and it costs a lot but hydroelectricity can be taken hundreds of kilometres away by wires only.
Hydroelectricity is cheaper than coal or petroleum.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of iron in modern age? Give a detailed account of the production of iron ore in different parts of India. Also describe the total production and reserves of iron ore in our country.
Answer:
Iron has great importance in the modern age. It is the foundation stone of industry. There cannot be any economic progress in any country without iron. All the machinery used in the factories is made of iron. It is used for making railways, aeroplanes and ships. Iron has more strength as compared to other metals and it is also cheaper.

Regional distribution. Iron in India is found in the regions given below:

Orissa. The largest quantity of iron ore in India ns produced in Orissa. The chief
districts producing iron ore in this state are Mayurbhunj, Bonai, Sambalpur and Cuttack, Gurumathasani, Badampahar and Sulaipet are the chief iron ore mines in this state.
Jharkhand and Bihar. Jharkhand and Bihar are the second most important iron producers in India. The highest amount of iron ore is produced in Singhbhum, Hazaribagh and Shahabad districts.
Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. These two states have the third position as producer of iron ore. The ore is mainly produced in the districts of Jabalpur, Bilaspur, Raigarh, Durg and Balaghat.
Karnataka. Karnataka is the 4th important producer of iron ore in India. Cudoor
district is well-known for production of iron ore in this state. The iron ore is mined at Kamengudi in Baba Budhan hills. Iron is also mined in Sindur and Sheetal Durg districts.

Production. There has been a great increase in the production of iron ore during the last few years. In 1956, India produced only 40 lakh tonnes of iron ore but in 2011-12 India produced 900 lakh tonnes of iron ore. In terms of money, it will come to 95 crores of rupees.

Reserves. There are 2,100 crore tonnes of iron ore reserves in India. This is about 25% of the iron ore reserves in the world.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral wealth and power resources of India.
Or
Where are the following minerals found in India? What is their importance? — Coal, Iron, Manganese, Bauxite, Mineral oil, Copper and Mica.
Answer:
Mineral wealth has great importance for every country. No country can run its industry without mineral wealth. India is fairly rich in mineral wealth. The following minerals are the chief minerals found in India.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 3
1. Coal. Coal is an important mineral. It is a big source of energy. Most of the coal in the country is used in Industry. Main coal mines are situated in Bihar. Besides, there are coal mines at Jharia and Raniganj. In 2010-11, India produced 333.58 million tonnes of coal. India exports a small quantity of coal.

2. Iron. Iron is considered as foundation of industrialisation. There are huge deposits of iron in India. The chief mines of iron ore are in Singhbhum (Bihar), Mayurbhunj, Keonjhar, Bonai (Orissa) and Salem (Tamil Nadu). Iron is also found in Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. India exports some of its iron ore to Japan. This iron ore deposits of India are estimated to be 78,000 lakh tonnes. India can depend on its iron ore deposits for a long time to come. In 2010-11 India produced 90 million tonnes of iron ore.

3. Manganese. India is the third largest producer of manganese in the world. India produces about 20% of the world production of manganese.Russia and Brazil lead the world in the production of manganese. In India the chief producers of manganese are Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Jharkhand and Bihar. Manganese is used for making steel from iron but this industry is not fully developed and India exports a large quantity of manganese. The manganese in India is of high quality. It is exported to U.S.A. and U.K.

4. Mica. Mica is a costly mineral. It is used in the manufacture of gases and electrical goods. India is the largest producer of mica in the world. It produces about 75% of the world output of mica. It is mainly produced in Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh. A small quantity of mica is also produced in Rajasthan. India exports mica to Britain, France, U.S.A., Japan, Italy, Canada-and Australia.

5. Bauxite. It is used for making aluminium. Aluminium is used for making railway coaches, buses, aeroplanes, electrical goods, utensils, paints etc. It is also used for refining petroleum, making cement and many other chemical products. India is self-sufficient in the productionof bauxite. Bauxite in India is produced in Bihar, Jharkhand, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Jammu and Kashmir states.

6. Mineral Oil. Mineral oil is very important in the modern age. It is not only a source of energy but also a raw material for many industrial products. Petroleum is used for running trains, buses, ships, aeroplanes etc. When mineral oil is refined it leaves behind many type of products like wax, mobil oil, grease, etc. Most of the mineral oil in India is produced in Assam. The chief centres of oil production in Assam are Makum, Digboi, Nihar Khatia and Badurpur. Oil is also produced near Ankleshwar in Gujarat and Bwibay High near Mumbai sea coast. The production of oil in India is much less than its requirements hence India has to import petroleum from other countries. India produces only 20% of her oil requirements.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by sachin

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the below questions carefully and answer the given questions.
Due to this vastness, India is called an Indian sub-continent. The sub-continent is a large and independent region. The boundaries of whose terrain are drawn by various natural features which distinguish it from the surrounding areas. India also crosses the Agil, Muzigh, Kunlun, and Karakoram, Hindukush and Jaskar mountain range from Tibet across the Himalayas in the north, from Pak, Jal Damru in the south and Gulf of Mannar from Sri Lanka, east. In the direction, Arakan separates Yoma from Myanmar (Burma) and in the western direction from the vast Dhar desert, Pakistan. Due to such a vast area of India many cultural, economic, and social variations are found. But despite this unity is found in climate, culture, etc. in the country.
(a) Why is India called the sub-continent?
Answer:
India is given the status of sub-continent due to its expansion and position. The sub-continent is a vast and independent landmass whose boundaries are formed by different topography. These topographies separate it from its surrounding areas. Agile across the Himalayas in the north of India. The mountain ranges of Mugtgh, Kunlun, Karakoram, Hindukush, etc. distinguish it from the north-western parts of Asia. In the South, the Pak strait of central and the gulf of Mannar separate it from Sri Lanka. Formerly Arakan Yoma separates it form Myanmar. The Thar Desert separates it from a very large part of Pakistan. Despite this, we cannot call present day India a sub¬continent. The Indian sub-continent is formed by the combination of undivided India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh.

(b) Which elements contribute to maintaining unity in the diversity of the country?
Answer:
India is a country of diversity. Yet a distinct unity appears in our society. The main elements that provide unity to Indian society are the following:
1. Monsoon Season. The monsoon winds make most of the rainfall in summer. This affects the agriculture of the country as well as other business. Monsoon winds make the power supply reliable by raining the mountainous regions. Infact, monsoon rainfall is the basis of the entire country’s economy.

2. Religious Culture. There are two things in favor of religious culture. One is that religious places have united the people of the country in one sutra. Secondly, religious saints have instilled a sense of brotherhood through their teachings. People from all parts of the country come and worship at Tirupati, Jagannathpuri, Amamath, Ajmer, Harimandir Sahib, Patna, Hemkunt Sahib and other pilgrimage places. The saints have also tried to create religious harmony.

3. Language and Art. Almost all the northern India. Vedas were propogated in Sanskrit language. Urdu was born in the middle age of this language. English is the contact language and Hindi is the national language. Together, these have provided an opportunity to understand each other closely. Siinlarly, folk songs and folk arts have also created an opportunity for people to express similar feelings.

4. Traffic and means of communication. Railways and roads have played an important role in bringing people of different areas closer. The means of communication like Doordarshan and newspapers have also connected the national stream by giving the national thinking of the people.

5. Migration. Many people from villages have started coming to the cities. Despite their racial differences, they have come to understand each other and thus they have come closer to each other. The truth is that many natural and cultural elements have given unity to our country.

Question 2.
The vast northern plains along the Himalayas provide habitat and livelihood to 40% of the country’s population. Their fortile soil, suitable climate, flat surface have contributed significantly in the spread and development of rivers, canals, roads, railways and cities and in the development of agriculture. Therefore, this plain region has the distinction of being the granary of the country. These plains have built a special kind of civilization and society since the Aryans. People from all over the country consider Ganga to be a holy river and the Rishikesh, Haridwar, Mathura, Prayag, Ayodhya, Kanshi etc. places in its valley have been the center of attraction for sufi saints and religious people living in different parts of the country. Later in these plains, great men like Sikh Guru, Mahatma Buddha, Mahavir Jain were born and different religious were established. Its deep impact can be seen in the Himalayan mountains and also in South India.
(a) Name the major landforms created by the rivers in the vast plains of the north.
Answer:
The landforms formed by the rivers in the northern plains are alluvial fins, alluvial cones, sepentine turns, hilly staircases, natural dams and floodplains.

(b) Describe the huge northern plains contribute to the development of the country.
Answer:
The Himalayan regions have the following contribution to the development of the country.

Rain. The monsoon winds from the Indian Ocean hit the Himalayan mountains and rain heavily. Thus, it donates rain to the northern plain. There is enough rainfall in this ground.
Useful Rivers. All the major rivers flowing in northern India originate from the Himalayan mountains like Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej, Brahmaputra, etc. These rivers flow throughout the year. In the dry season, Himalayan ice burns these rivers.
Fruit and Tea. The slopes of the Himalayas are very useful for tea cultivation. Apart from these, fruits are also grown on the mountain slopes.
Useful Wood. Dense forests are found on the Himalayan Mountains. These forests are our wealth. Many industries in India depend on the wood derived from them. This wood is also used in building works.
Good Pastures. Beautiful and green pastures are found on the Himalayas. Animals are fed in them.
Mineral Substances. Many types of mineral substances are found in these mountains.

Question 3.
The word ‘climate’ or ‘wind water’ refers to the long-term seasonal conditions in a place, in which the temperature of that place is the amount of water in the air flowing from there. These conditions are mainly determined by important elements such as surface variation of the place, distance from the coastline and distance from the equator. It has a profound effect on human and human activities. India is a vast country. Its vast sin-face units, the peninsular position and the tropic of cancer passing through it have a profound effect on its climate. Due to the largest surface variations of temperature, rainfall, winds and clouds etc.
(a) Describe the (two) elements affecting the climate of India.
Answer:
The main elements influencing the climate of India are :

Distance from the equator.
Surface Pattern.
Air pressure system
Seasonal winds and
Proximity to Indian Ocean.

(b) What are the regional variations of Indian climate?
Answer:
The regional variations of Indian climate are as follows:
1. In winter the temperature reaches – 45°C in the Kargil regions of the Himalayan mountain but at the same time it is more than 20°C in Chennai (Madras) metropolis in Tamil Nadu. Similarly in summer the western direction of the Aravali mountains is crossed 50° centigrade, while the Srinagar is less than 20° centigrade. There is a temperature of 204 centimeters in Srinagar.

2. The annual rainfall is located in the mountain range of Mawsymaram, 1141 cm. Annual rainfall in Jaisalmer is less than 10 cm. in the year.

3. In Barner and Jaisalmer are carved clouds, but the whole year is the same as the same year throughout the year.

4. Due to the effect of the sea in Mumbai and other coastal cities, the temperature ramains almost same of the year. In contrast, the National area is found to be huge difference in the cold and hot temperature in the area and surrounding areas.

Question 4.
The economy, the relief and social development is deeply influenced the economic progress. In the social development, the area can be applied to the development of economic progress there. Indian agriculture, almost completely dependent on. agriculture (aggregated). In which development of the monsoon has given significant contributions to providing a major and strong basis. Monsoon is called a pivotal point of the country. Apart from agriculture, the entire production is dependent oh agricultural production, If monsoon rainfall is in appropirate amount, the agricultural production increases. But because of the failure of monsoon, the crops dried. The country goes dry and the grains are reduced in the stores.
(a) Discuss the important features of the monsoon.
Answer:
In India rainfall is mainly in July to September. This is the period of southwest monsoons blowing from sea to land. There are three important features of the monsoon rainfall.

Erratic. Rainfall is not reliable in India. It is not necessary that rain continues to be same. Due to this erratic situation of rain, the situation of starvation and famine is arranged. This erratic situation of rainfall is more in the inner parts of the country and in Rajasthan.
Uneven Distribution. There is uneven distribution of rainfall in India. Western slopes of western ghats and Meghalaya or in the hills of Assam. There is more than 250 cm. rainfall. In contrast Rajasthan, West Gujarat, North Kashmir etc., the rainfall is less than 25 cm.
Uncertainty. The amount of rainfall in India is not certain. Sometimes monsoon winds reached before time, It rains a lot. But sometimes the rainfall is low or sometimes ends up before a time. As a result the situation of drying is generated in the country.

(b) Why the Indian Economy (budget) is called gambling of monsoon winds?
Answer:
Indian monsoon is a gambling of monsoon winds. This sentence reveals that the advancement of India’s economy depends on that how much appropriate time of any year, distribution and quantity.
If the rain comes on time and its quantity is also suitable, a good crop of agriculture can be expected.

For example-crops are good due to good monsoon, so three things happen.

Fair raw materials available for factories. The industry-related factors of cotton, jute, oil seeds etc. are flourishing.
When the agriculture and industires are strengthened from good monsoon, the
productivity increases. On one hand, the export is promoted. On the other hand international trade is flourishing. Wealth grows in the country and people’s standard of living improves.
Due to good monsoon, there is an increase in water in the rivers, the water level of the dams rises high. Where this water helps in the production of hydropower, the irrigation system improves. This creates a stir in economic activities in the country. There is no doubt that today due to the advancement of science, we can grow a good crop even in the absence of monsoon, but we have to think about whether all farmers can benefit from lack of rainfall or unequal distribution of rainfall. A good monsoon affects every section and every region of the country. If the monsoon is suitable, the country’s economic development is assured. Therefore, it is fair to call the Indian economy a gamble of monsoon winds.

Question 5.
Agriculture has an important role in the Indian economy. The agricultural sector employs about two-thirds of the country’s workforce. The region derives 29.0 percent of the total national income and agricultural products a1 so have an important place in foreign exports. Many products of agriculture are used as raw materials in our factories. Due to the progress in the field of agriculture, the achievement of food grains per person, which was 395 grams in the 1950’s has increased to 510 grams per person per day in 1991.
India also ranks fourth in the world in the use of chemical fertilizers. The area under pulses in our country is the highest in the world. In the field of cotton products, India is the first country in the world, where the first efforts were made to produce improved varieties of cotton. The country has made significant achievements in the preparation of prawn fish and pest culture technological development.
(a) What percentage of land is cultivable in India?
Answer:
51% of the land in India is cultivable.

(b) Why is agriculture called the mainstay of the Indian economy?
Answer:
Agriculture is the mainstay of the Indian economy. Even though agriculture now contributes only 33.7% of the total national production, its importance is no less.

Agriculture sustains 2/3 of our population.
The agriculture sector provides employment to about two-thirds of the country’s workers.
Most of the industries get raw materials from agriculture. The truth is that the place of industries is being built on the foundation of agriculture.

Question 6.
A decline in per capita achievement of pulses in Punjab and other parts of the country is a matter of concern. It seems that the wave of ‘Green Revolution’, which has revolutionized the production of wheat and rice in the country has not made any special contribution in increasing the production of pulses. Actually, if it is said that there is harm then there will be no wrong. Because in the years following the Green Revolution, the area of pulses has been diverted to a large number of high yielding crops like wheat and rice. This has happened especially on a large scale in commercially agricultural states like Punjab.
(a) In Punjab, what kind of changes has occurred in the pulses production area after Green revolution.
Answer:
After the green revolution, the area of pulses production decreased from 9.3 lakh hectares to 9.5 thousand hectare.

(b) What are the main reasons for the decline in the production of pulses?
Answer:
The production of pulses has decreased in the last decades. The main reasons for this are as follows :

The area with pulses has been subjected to crops like wheat and rice, which produce more after the Green Revolution.
Some areas have been subjected to canals, roads, and other development projects due to development work.
The growing area of pulses has also declined due to increasing land demand for
housing of the growing population.

Question 7.
Our country is also considered very rich in terms of mineral wealth. It is estimated that the country accounts for one fourth of the total iron ore reserves in the world. There are also huge deposits of manganese, a major mineral used in the iron and steel industry. There are also abundant reserves of coal, limestone, bauxite and mica in the country. But non-ferrous minerals such as zinc, lead, copper and gold are in very limited quantities. The sulfur reserves in the country are almost nil, while sulfur is the mainstay of modern chemical industry. We also have plenty of water power resources and nuclear minerals. Their use as a power tool is increasing rapidly due to their power efficiency and very little tampering with the environment. For this reason, solar energy is also being used as a power tool. Solar energy is the priceless power store of God. Its use will increase rapidly as a source of power in the future.
(a) What is the contribution of minerals to the national economy?
Answer:
Minerals have great importance in the national economy. The following facts will make it clear.

The industrial development of the country depends mainly on minerals. Iron and coal are the basis of the machine age. We have one-fourth of the world’s iron ore deposits. There are also huge reserves of coal in India.
State governments get income from mining operations and provide employment to millions of people.
Coal, petroleum, natural gas etc. are important sources of mineral energy.
Equipment made from minerals helps in the growth of agriculture.

(b) Why is solar energy called the source of future energy?
Answer:
Coal and mineral oil are exhaustive resources. There will come a day when the people of the world will not get enough energy from them. Their stores must have been exhausted. Unlike then, sun energy is a never-ending means. This gives a tremendous amount of energy. When the reserves of coal and mineral oil are exhausted, then power will be obtained and we will be able to do it easily with our domestic work and plants.

Question 8.
All the trees, thorn bushes, plants and grasses etc. are included in the natural vegetation which grow without human intervention. Before starting its study, it is necessary to know the related words like Flora, Vegetation and Forests. Different species of plants that grow in a certain time and in a certain area are included in the flora, shrubs, plants, grass etc. that grow at a place in a certain environment are called vegetation. Whereas a large area surrounded by dense and adjacent trees, plants, thorn bushes etc. is called forest. The term jungle is mostly used by environmental scientists and forest guards and geographers. Each type of developed vegetation has to go through a long life cycle by creating a delicate balance with its environment, which depends on the quality of its mutual cohesion and ability to adapt. The entire flora found in our country is not local, but 4Q% of it belongs to foreign castes which are called Boreal and Paleo-Tropical species.
(a) Name the foreign castes and quantities in the country.
Answer:

The foreign vegetation species present in the country are called as Boreal and Paleo-Tropical.
The amount of foreign vegetation in India is 40%.

(b) Write briefly on the autumn or monsoon vegetables.
Answer:
The vegetation that leaves its leaves before the start of summer to prevent further evaporation is called the autumn or monsoon vegetation. This vegetation can be divided into two sub-parts which are and wet based on rainfall.

Autumn Forest. This type of vegetation is found in four big areas, where the annual rainfall varies from 100 to 200 cm. Trees are less dense in these areas but their height reaches 30 metres. Sal, Sheesham, Teak, Chandan, Jamun, Amltas, Haldu, Ebony, Mulberry are the major trees of these forests.
Dry Deciduous Vegetation. This type of vegetation is found in areas with rainfall less than 50 to 100 cm. Its long strip starts from Punjab and extends to the adjoining areas of the southern plateau. Kelkar, Babool, Banyan, Haldu are the main trees here.

Question 9.
In our country, along with the diversity of vegetation, there is a large variety of fauna. In fact there is a deep interconnection between the two. About 76 thousand species of fauna are found in the country. 2500 species of fish are found in the fresh and salt water of the country. Similarly, there are 2000 species of birds. 400 species of snakes are found in India. Apart from this, amphibians, reptiles, mammals and small insects and worms are also found. Mammals have majestic elephants with majestic chicks. It is an organism of equatorial tropical forests. In our country, it is found in the forests of Assam, Kerala and Karnataka. It rains heavily and the forests are also very dense. In contrast camels and wild asses are found in very hot and dry deserts. Camel Thar is the common animal of the desert, while wild plants are found only in the Rann of Kuchh. They have a horned rhinoceros in the opposite direction. They live in marshy areas in northern parts of Assam and West Bengal. Among Indian animals, the Indian bison, the Indian buffalo are particularly notable.
(a) Name the animals found in the Himalayas.
Answer:
In the Himalayas, wild sheep, mountain goat, a long horned wild goat and tapir etc, are found, while pandas and Himatendua animals are found in high mountain

(b) What are the works being done to look after the animals in the country?
Answer:
Indian Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in 1972. Under this, 1,50,000 square kilometers of area (2.7% of the country and 12 percent of the total forest area) in various parts of the country were declared as national parks and wildlife sancturies.

Near Extinction Special attention has been paid to wildlife.
The work of counting animals and birds has been started at the National level. At present there are 16 tiger reserves in different parts of the country.

A special scheme for rhinoceros conservation is being carried out in Assam. The truth is that till now 18 Biosphere Reserves have been established in the country.
Under the scheme, the first life reservation area was created in Nilgiri. Protection of every animal is mandatory under this scheme. This natural heritage is for future generations.

Question 10.
A combined mixture of light, loose and unstructured rocky shreds and fine-grained bacteria found on the earth’s surface is called soil which has the power to give rise to plants. Deposition of this mixture is found in deep layers ranging from 15-30 cm to several metres. But the soil scientist is divided into three layers called A, B and C respectively, depending on the depth and quantity of soil colour, texture, size of particles etc. Due to the high quantity of humus in ‘A’ Horizon soils, they begin to turn black. But due to being situated in the zone of leaching on this layer, the minerals dissolve and go down and the colour starts to turn dark black. The colour of sub-layer with ‘B’ Horizon under this layer is brown due to the mineral matter leaking from the top layer. But the aihount of humus in it decreases. Below this layer, a layer of ‘C’ Horizon soil is found in which the substances separated from the above rocks do not have any special change and later go to the main base rock. The colour of this sub-rocky surface is grey or light brown,
(a) Describe the definition of soil.
Answer:
The combined mixture of light, loose and unstructured rock crust (shell powder) and fine granules found on the earth’s surface is called soil.

(b) What is the contribution of primary rocks in the birth of soil?
Answer:
The primary rocks in the country consist of lofty rocks of the northern plains or lava-formed rocks of the plateau. They contain various types of minerals. Therefore, they make good soil. The colour, formation, texture, etc. of the soil formed by the primary rocks depends on how long the rocks are being affected and by what kind of climate. In a state like West Bengal, the spil is highly developed due to the effects of chemical reactions in the climate and humus. But in dry area like Rajasthan, due to lack of vegetation, soil fertility decreases. Likewise, soil erosion is more in areas with high rainfall and high winds. Fertility decreases as a result.

Question 11.
In today’s knowledge and information-based world, the important contribution of human resources is being realized in national construction and development much better than before. Today all the countries of the world, especially the developing countries, are paying more attention to the development of human resources than before. Children can you think why is this ? In the countries of South Korea, Taiwan, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaysia etc., known as ‘Asian Tigers’, the rapid development of economic development is being attributed to the huge investment made in the development of human resources in the last few decades. In human resource development, not only the parameters like education, technical skills, health and nutrition but also human-ethics-ideas, civilization- culture, species and nation-pride should be included. Only then will human resource development becQme a complete ideology.
(a) What is the most valuable resource of a country?
Answer:
Intellectually and physically healthy citizens.

(b) Why is it important to study the population structure of the country?
Answer:
There are many reasons why it is necessary to know the population structure of a country.

Various characteristics of the population of any country for social and economic planning such as the age structure of the population, gender structure, business structure etc. data is required.
Different components of the population structure are closely related to the economic development of the country. While the population structure components are affected by economic development from another, they are also unable to remain untouched by the impact of progress and level of economic development. For example, if the percentage of children and old people in the age structure of a country’s population is very high, then the country will have to spend more and more financial resources on basic facilities like education and health. On the other hand, the rate of economic development of the country is accelerated due to the higher proportion of working-age groups in the age structure.

Question 12.
The study of the regional pattern of population distribution provides the basis for understanding all demographic components of the population. For this reason, it is very important to understand the regional pattern of distribution of population. Here first we must also clarify the difference between population distribution and population density. Population distribution is related to place and density is related to ratio. Population distribution implies that what is the regional pattern of population in any part of the country, that is, the population pattern is nucleated or agglomerated in one place. On the other hand in density, which is related to population size and area, attention is given to the ratio of man and area. The history of human settlements in India is very old. That is why the population resides in every part of the country which is the sum of human. habitation. Yet the distribution of population is greatly affected by the fertility* of the land. As India is an agricultural country, the pattern of population distribution depends on agricultural productivity. For this reason, in states where the productivity of agriculture is high, the concentration of population is equally high. Apart from agricultural productivity, the variation of physical factors, industrial development and cultural elements also contribute significantly in influencing the population distribution pattern of India.
(a) Name the largest and least populous states of the country.
Answer:
The most populous state in the country is Uttar Pradesh and the least state is Sikkim.

(b) Describe the format giving the salient features of the regional pattern of population distribution in the country?
Answer:
The regional pattern of population distribution in India and its important features are as follows:
1. The distribution of population in India is very uneven. Population is very dense in river valleys and seaside plains, but the population is very sparse in the mountainous desert and scarcity areas. Only 3% of the population lives on 16 percent of the country’s land in the hilly regions of the north, while 40 percent of the population lives on 18 percent of the country’s land in the northern plains. In Rajasthan, 6 percent of the population lives on only 6 percent of the country’s land.

2. Majority of the population is settled in rural areas. About 71% of the total population of the country resides in rural areas, about 29% in cities. Large cities have a large population of urban population. Two thirds of the total urban population lives in first-tier cities with population of one lakh or more.

3. The concentration of minority communities in thei country is in the most sensitive and important outer border areas. For example, the Sikhs in Punjab and the Muslims in Jammu and Kashmir are in abundance near the Indo-Pak border in north western India. Similarly there is a gathering of people of Christianity along the borders of China and Burma (Myanmar) in the northeast. Many social, economic and political difficulties arise from such distribution.

4. On the one hand, the population is dense in the coastal plains and valleys of the rivers. On the other hand, the population in the mountainous, plateau and desert parts is sparse. -This distribution resembles a demographic divide.