Class 6 – Page 41 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 National Flag

January 12, 2024January 11, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 6 National Flag Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Physical Education Chapter 6 National Flag

Physical Education Guide for Class 6 PSEB National Flag Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which are the three colours in National Flag? Throw some light on the significance of these three colours.
Answer:
National Flag has three colours:
(1) Saffron
(2) White
(3) Green.

1. Saffron:
Saffron colour should always be on the top. It has been taken from fire. Fire has two qualities offering sacrifice and destruction. So, the saffron colour is a symbol of chivalry and zeal. The poor, the needy and the weak should be looked after with zeal and zest.

2. White:
It is the symbol of virtue, truth and peace. It means that the whole nation should be replete with such qualities. If it is there, the evils will- die its own death. This white stripe of this colour is in the middle of the flag.

3. Green:
It is the third and the lowest stripe in the flag. It represents the soil of the land. It is the symbol of prosperity. The fact is that the soil of our country is fertile & the fields are blooming.

Question 2.
On what occasions can the National flag be unfurled?
Answer:
(a) Republic Day:
The President of India unfurls the flag on Rajpath in Delhi every year on 26th January. On the government buildings of the country or wherever Republic day is celebrated, the Flag is hoisted.

(b) National Week (6th April to 13th April):
In the memory of martyrs of Jalianwala Bagh, National Week is celebrated and National flag is hoisted.

(c) Independence day:
The Prime Minister of India hoists the National flag on 15th August every year from the ramparts of the Red Fort. On all the government buildings & on all buildings where this day is celebrated our National Flag is hoisted.

(d) On National festivals/conferences.

(e) On 2nd October-Mahatma Gandhi’s Birthday.

(f) In foreign countries where any Indian representative stays and when Indian team participates in International matches.

(g) The flag is hoisted everyday on the buildings of Lok Sabha, Rajya I Sabha, Supreme Court, Posts of National boundaries, official residences of the President, Vice-President, Governors and the Lieutenant Governors.

Question 3.
Write a note on shape and size of National flag.
Answer:
Its length and breadth is 3:2. And its size is:

6.40 mt × 4.27 mt (21 feet × 14 feet)
3.66 mt × 2.44 mt (12 feet × 8 feet)
1.83 mt × 1.22 mt (6 feet × 4 feet)
90 cm × 60 cm (3 feet × 2 feet)
23 cm × 15 cm (9 inches × 6 inches)

Question 4.
At what time should the flag be unfurled?
Answer:
The national flag is unfurled the following functions:

1. Republic day:
In 26th Jan. is celebration is great pump and day. On this Republic day president’of India unfurled the flag at Delhi and so many other cities the flag is also unfurled in various cities.

2. National week of year: (6 to 13 April):
The national week of year is celebrated in the hoqour of martyrs of Jallianwala Bagh. In this week the national flag is unfurled.

3. Independent day 15 Aug:
India got freedom after so many centuries in 15 Aug. 1947. Therefore every year 15 Aug. is celebrated with great enthusiasm. On 15 Aug. the Prime Minister of India unfurl the flag at red fort in Delhi. In all cities of the country the national flag is unfurled.

4. Gandhi Jayanti 2 Oct: On Birthday of Mahatma Gandhi unfurled the flag.

5. In national all celebrations also, the flag is unfurled

6. International sports competition: In International competition the flag is unfurled with other countries.

Provincial day:
When any state celebrate its provincial day this national flag is unfurled every day. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Supreme Court, Vice president, Governor and Lt. Governors also unfurled the national flag in their house everyday.

Question 5.
Which points should be borne in mind at the time of hoisting the National Flag?
Answer:

National Flag is hoisted when saffron colour is on the top.
National Flag with respectfully should be high from everything.
It is always held in the right hand.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Guide National Flag Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
How many colours are there in our flag?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six.
Answer:
(A) Three

Question 2.
On which occasions can the National Flag be unfurled?
(A) Republic Day
(B) Independence Day
(C) Gandhi Jayanti
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 3.
Which points should be born in mind at the time of hoisting the National Flag?
(A) Saffron colours is on the top.
(B) It is always in the right hand.
(C) National flag should be high from everything.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 4.
What is the significance of National Flag of the country?
(A) Culture
(B) Aan Ban
(C) Civilization
(D) All above.
Answer:
(A) Culture

Question 5.
Which colours are there in our National Flag?
(A) Saffron
(B) White
(C) Green
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 6.
From where we took Chakra for our National flag?
(A) Samath by Emperor Ashoka
(B) Teerkaman
(C) From sky
(D) None of them.
Answer:
(A) Samath by Emperor Ashoka

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
National flag of each country gives the significance of.
Answer:
Culture.

Question 2.
Government provides us knowledge about National Flag through.
Answer:
Schools and Colleges.

Question 3.
Which colours are present in our national flag?
Answer:
Saffron, White & Green.

Question 4.
When our Constitution adopted our National Flag?
Answer:
22 July, 1947.

Question 5.
When our National flag first hoisted on Red Fort?
Answer:
15 August, 1947.

Question 6.
Which thing is indicated by saffron colour present in our flag?
Answer:
It indicates sacrifice, courage and selflessness.

Question 7.
From where we took the Ashok Chakra for our National Flag?
Answer:
Samath by Emperor Ashok.

Question 8.
From which cloth our national flag is prepared?
Answer:
Khadar.

Question 9.
Where did small sized flags are placed?
Answer:
In Cars.

Question 10.
When and where Prime Minister hoists our National Flag every year?
Answer:
On 15th August on the Red Fort.

Question 11.
Flag is held in which hand?
Answer:
Right hand.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about the history of your National Flag?
Answer:
In 1947, our country got the Independence after more than 200 years. When our country got Independence then we also had prepared a flag for our country. On 22 July, 1947 our constitution accepted our National Flag. On 14-15 August 1947 at night our national flag was hoisted on Red Fort.

Question 2.
Write the four-five lines on our National Flag.
Answer:
The shape of our National Flag is rectangular. It is made up of three different colours. So, it is also known as ‘Tiranga’. In centre a circle is also drawn with 24 spokes named Ashok Chakra. It has three colours-Saffron, White & Green.

Question 3.
What we know through our National Flag?
Answer:

Be a strong person
Always do hardwork
Make your country happy & beautiful
Always live in peace

Question 4.
Three colours of our National Flag indicate us what things?
Answer:
Saffron colour indicates us sacrifice, courage and selflessness. White colour indicates truth and peace. Green colour indicates soil of the land and its fertility.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Folk Games of Punjab

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 Folk Games of Punjab Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Physical Education Chapter 4 Folk Games of Punjab

Physical Education Guide for Class 6 PSEB Folk Games of Punjab Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name any two games of Children.
Answer:
Bandar Killa and Gulli Danda.

Question 2.
How many ways are there of ‘Pugatta’? Explain anyone.
Answer:
There are two methods of Pugatta.
First Method:
First of all three players place their right hands on one- another’s hands and toss their hands together in the air and then they are reversed or kept straight. If hands are placed upturned by two or three players and the third player’s hands remain straight, then that player is supposed to be ‘puggna’. In this way one by one all the players except one supposed to be ‘puggna’. If the position of the hands of all the three players is same, it means either their hands are upright straight reversed.

Question 3.
Write a note on the importance of the folk games.
Answer:
While children play different games. Every game teaches different qualities to the child. They become strong, active & alertness in brain. Kotla Chipaki game increases quickness in the child! Pithu Garam and aiming with Catapult make the child a good shot and Bandar Killa teaches how to be defensive. Wrestling & Kabaddi increase the physical strength. All these games even make the brain sharp. It makes understanding among the children & we can heritage our folk games.

Question 4.
Describe the method of playing the game ‘Bandar Killa’.
Answer:
It is very famous game of children. Children get together in the lanes of colony & find the place for Killa (Peg) to play the game of Bandar Killa. The children address each other by singing on starting the game.
‘Juttian-chapplan da,
Kar lo ve heela.
Hun apan rail ke,
Khedna Bandar killa.’
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Folk Games of Punjab 1
In this game children take off their shows & place them near the peg then they tie a rope of 5-7 metres at the bottom of the peg. All the children play the game of Bandar Killa. Do ‘puggatta’ for fixing the turn for any child. All the children after ‘pugatta’ select the child for the ‘turn’. This selected child is called ‘Bandar’. A children who make Bandar hold the rope which was tie to the peg & guard the heap of shoes. The child without leaving the rope will try to touch any child.

The other players without being touched by the .Bandar try to pick up the shoes & chappal if the Bandar touches any child while picking the chappals that child becomes Bandar. If all the children become successful in picking all the shoes & chappals without being touched by the Bandar all will run towards the place to be touched which is already fixed. All the children beat the Bandar with shoes until he reaches the fixed place as soon as Bandar reaches the fixed place beating with shoes stopped. After this another child will take the turn to perform as Bandar.

Question 5.
Which folk game do you like the most? How is it played?
Answer:
Our most wanted game is Kotla Chhapaki. In this game there is no counted of children. This game is also known as Kaji ‘Kotle di Maar.’ This game is played by 10-15 children. Children prepare a kotla making a thick rope of cloth after twisting. Then a child draw a circle with a sharp object on the ground. All the children set on the edge of the drawn circle facing inside. Now the child whose turn is fixed runs outside the circle with kotla and sing the song-
‘Kotla chhapaki, jumme raat ayie
Jehra agge-pichhe dekhe, ohdi shamat ayie’.

A child, who takes the turn runs around the children by repeating same song. No child can see at the back in this game. All the children keep their heads down. If any child looks at the back a child who takes his turn give 4-5 beats with this kotla. After running he keeps kotla behind any child & completes his round & comes back to the same child. Where he has kept kotla. If the child behind kotla at the back is placed does not aware about kotla. The child who is taking round start beating him with his kotla.
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Folk Games of Punjab 2
The child who is being beaten starts running very fast around the circle to escape his beating he has to bear beating of the kotla until he reaches back to his seat. If the child notices about kotla he picks the same & beats the child on his turn. He keeps on beating until he takes round & places the weekend seat.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Guide Folk Games of Punjab Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Method of Pugna:
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five.
Answers:
(A) Two

Question 2.
Name the Folk game of your choice.
(A) Bandar Killa
(B) Kotla Chhapaki
(C) Rope Skipping
(D) None of them.
Answers:
(A) Bandar Killa

Question 3.
Name two games:
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) All above.
Answers:
(A) Hockey
(B) Football

Question 4.
Write two Folk games:
(A) Bandar Killa and Kotla Chhapaki
(B) Thief and Police man
(C) Rope Skipping
(D) Circle Kho-Kho.
Answers:
(A) Bandar Killa and Kotla Chhapaki

Question 5.
Write the importance of folk games.
(A) Development of body and mind
(B) Activeness
(C) Attentiveness
(D) All above.
Answers:
(D) All above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any two names of folk games.
Answer:
Kotla Chhapaki
Kikli.

Question 2.
Write the song of Kotla Chhapaki.
Answer:
‘Kotla Chhapaki, jumme raat ayie
Jehra agge-pichhe dekhe, ohdi shamat ayie.’

Question 3.
Write four lines of ‘Bandar Killa’.
Answer:
Juttian-chapplan da,
Kar lo ve heela,
Hun apan rail ke,
Khedna Bandar Killa.

Question 4.
Write how many methods of Pugatta?
Answer:
There are three methods of pugatta.

Question 5.
Write any folk game do you like most.
Answer:
Bandar Killa.

Question 6.
Which is the best game for health?
Answer:
Rope skipping.

Question 7.
Which game provide activeness, alertness and concentration?
Answer:
Pithhu Garam.

Question 8.
Write one name of big and one name of folk games.
Answer:
Hockey & Kotla Chhapaki.

Question 9.
Write one importance of folk games.
Answer:
Body become healthy.

Question 10.
Who plays the kikli?
Answer:
It is for girls.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is play?
Answer:
Play is a that activity which is performed for recreation and from these activities we get pleasure.

Question 2.
Write the types of games.
Answer:
We can describe the games in many ways-

Physically games
Mentally games

Our games like Cricket, Hockey, Volleyball, Football are those type of games by playing these games, we require a lot of equipments and particular playfield which are played under certain rules. Folk games are contrary of these games.

Question 3.
At what age people play the games?
Answer:
Games are played at every age-children, young & elder people. Boys & girls both play the games.

Question 4.
How can we divide our games?
Answer:
Our games like Cricket, Hockey, Football etc.

Question 5.
Which are the important rules of playing the folk games?
Answer:
In these games we don’t require any equipment & certain rules.

Question 6.
What are main rules of big games?
Answer:
In big games equipments, playfield & particular rules are required. These games are played under certain rules.

Question 7.
Write the method pugatta in folk games.
Answer:
First of all three players place their right hands on one-another’s hands & toss their hands together in the air and then they are reversed or kept straight. If hands are placed upturned by two or three players and the third player’s hands remain straight then that player is supposed to be puggna. In this way one by one all players supposed to be puggna.

Question 8.
Write the song of pugatta of second method.
Answer:
“Eengan meengan tadi talingan
Kala, peela, dakkra
Gurh khawan, vail wdhawan,
Mooli patra
Pattan Waley, ghorre aye,
Hath Kutarri, Paer kutarri
Nikkal baleya teri wari.”

Question 9.
Is their any division of team in folk games?
Answer:
Yes, in many games we divide the players in two teams like- Gulli Danda, Kabaddi etc.

Question 10.
Write the five names of folk games.
Answer:
Bandar Killa, kotla Chhapaki, Kikli, Pittu Garam, Skipping rope.

Question 11.
Write any two importance of folk games?
Answer:
By playing these games we get strength, activeness & alertness of mind. When a player aim at the thikri he know how to concentrate.

Question 12.
Write the importance of Rope Skipping.
Answer:

This game is very important for the point view of exercise.
It develop the strength & flexibility.

Question 13.
What is Pithhu garam?
Answer:
Pithhu garam is one of the favourite game of children. No. of children is not fixed in this game. Children are divided into two groups. Seven broken pieces of earthen ware are placed on one-another. These are called Pithhu.

Question 14.
What is the importance of Kikli?
Answer:
It is very important of punjabi girls and it is the combination of giddha.

It help in co-ordination.
It also help to increase understanding.
It is main cause of recreation and using leisure time.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the second method of Pugna.
Answer:
Second method of Pugna:
All players have stand in a circle. One of them players sing his hand shoulder on the other player and sing a song.

Eengan meengan tadi talingan
Kala peela, dakkra
Gurh khawan, vail wdhawan
Mooli patra
Pattan waley, ghorre aye.
Hath Kutarri, paer kutare
Nikkal baleya teri wali

The player who is touched at the sound of the last word spoken is not supposed to take his turn. He is supposed to be pugna. By using this method again and again, the player is left in the end, get his turn fixed.

Question 2.
Write about the rope keeping and pithhu kho game.
Answer:
It is very important Khel for exercises after pugna, two players remain they stand against each other and swing the rope by put in slope and rotate the rope in one side. The other player in a line by one by one take two steps in the rope. Those players who will touch the rope while
jumping we go out and takes the turn rotating the rope. This game is very important and recreational but in these days it is diminished.

Pithhu Garam:
In this game the player beats at the back of the other player. It is also very favourite game of the students in Punjab. Children are divided into two groups. Seven broken pieces of earthenware are placed on one another. These are called Pithu. A line is drawn at a distance of 10-15 feet from the pieces which are put in an orderly manner, both teams perform pugatta.
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Folk Games of Punjab 3
Any player of the winner team stand of the line and try to hit ordinary player placed pieces of earthenware with ball. A player gets three chances to hit the target. If he is unable to hit the target, he is declared out of the game. If the ball is got after one balance by the opposite even then the player hitting the pieces is declared to be out. If a player hitting them successfully and scattered them to be out. It is known as breaking of the pithu. After breaking the pithu the hitter tries to collect all the pieces meanwhile the member of the opposite team hits the player collecting the pieces with the ball. If the player places the pieces before he is hit with a ball he deserves another turn. The other player takes his turn to hit him. In this way the game starts again.

Question 3.
Write about the Kikli.
Answer:
Kikli is a famous game among girls of Punjab. Kikli means happiness and it creates the voice of interest. Kikli game is a combination of giddha which is played by girls with great interest. The girls gathered in a particular place join hands with hands of other girls and start moving around. They catch the opposite hands of the girls and make a shape of figure eight (infinity°o). While rotating they sing a song:
Kikli Kallir di
Pagg mere veer di
Duppatta Bharjai da
Phite muh Jawai da.
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Folk Games of Punjab 4
In this way, while participating in Kikli they start competition. When any one of the girls leaves her hands and falls down, the other girls make a shout of joy after her fall. In this way the girls enjoy the game very well.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 Safety Education

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 5 Safety Education Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Physical Education Chapter 5 Safety Education

Physical Education Guide for Class 6 PSEB Safety Education Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you understand by self-security?
Answer:
Self-security means we can save ourselves from accidents to great extent. We come across such accidents often at home, school, while walking on the road or while playing. Walking in the wrong direction and carelessly, results in such injuries. Sometimes, it is fatal that is why we should meet with an accident. Knowledge about safety education makes us to live a happy life.

While the safety education is important from today. Today it is machine age and the heavy transportation are causes of the road of heavy traffics. We meet so many accidents in our daily life. There is not a single day when there is a news in newspaper about accident. There is not a single day accident news published in newspapers. Some where Cars collap with each other, sometime a Car collaps with truck.

Sometime bus falls in deep valley, sometimes a school going child is run over by the truck or any other transport. These accidents causes many deaths and financial looses. We can stop these accidents by following the safety education. In safety education we know the rules and regulations which save us from accidents. In this way, in modem life, it is important to have safety- education.

Question 2.
Why is self-security so important?
Answer:
Modem age is machine age. Transport system are very flurish and fast these days. There were huge rash on the road which causes incidents every day. In every day there is a big news of accident of paper and no day is left. Some where to cars slash with each other and some where car crashed with truck some times bus falls in a dump. Sometimes school going child erased by car or track. Such type of these accidents causes so many death of human being. The need of time to avoid accident is safety education, we learn the traffic rales from safety education and abide by these rales to avoid these accidents. For this very reason. The need of safety education is very important:

In every days we can controls these accidents with the help of safety education.
Safety education teaches us how to cross the road.
With the knowledge of safety education we should avoid the accidents by following the traffic signs given by the policeman who controls the traffic.
With the help of safety education we move and drive the left hand.
With the knowledge of the rales of safety education we could cross cycle, rickshaw from his right side.

Question 3.
What are the causes of injury in house?
Answer:
There can be happened many injuries at homes.
1. Falling on slippery floor: Big injuries can occur by falling due to soap, shampu, oil, water etc.

2. Stumbling sometimes:
We stumble due to disorderly things placed at home, unmindfully or due to dim light at homes. This cause may serious injury. Sometimes injury is caused due to slipping of our foot while getting down or climbing up the stairs even we receive injuries and fractures.

Question 4.
What are the methods of safety in the house?
Answer:
The methods of safety in the house are :

Kerosene and L.P.G. gas should be kept away from the fire. There should be arrangement of fire extinguisher at home.
Fire crackers should be cracked at open spaces away from home.
Do not smoke beedi or cigarettes at home.
Most of people die due to electrocution every year. Make sure that electric wires should not be uncovered while using cooler, refrigerator etc.

Question 5.
Who are responsible for the safety?
Answer:
The responsibility of safety not only for one person of social organisation. It is the responsibility of parents, teachers, government and social organisations. Home is a first school of education. And child spends most of his time in home so it is first responsibility of the parents for the safety of the children. Children do not meet any accident in this way.

After home school is such a way where children spend 5-6 hours. It is teachers responsibility to provide safety education to their students. So, that they can safe while coming and going to school or at playground. In this way municipal corporation and government are also responsible to provide safety education to the people which causes the less accident in daily life so that we may live long life.

Question 6.
Which institutions can be helpful in self-security and how?
Answer:
For the safety education the following institutions can be helpful:
1. Schools and colleges: In schools & colleges teachers should teach the rules of safety to their students.

2. Municipal Committee, or Municipal Corporation:
Municipal Committee should also provide the safety education to their inhabitants by showing the slides in Cinema and exhibitions must be organized for the rules of safety education.

3. Society:
Society can be helpful for safety education. They should educate the people about the safety rules and their duties. People should know how to walk on roads and streets should not through the peels of fruits and vegetables. If there is any hindrance it should be removed.

4. Government:
Government can also be helpful for the safety of the people. They should make footpath on the road for people who can walk easily. They should provide good light on streets and roads. They should provide the rules of traffic to control the traffic. There must be policemen on duty on the different chowks.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Guide Safety Education Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Need of Safety Education :
(A) Safety from accidents.
(B) With the help of safety education we learn to walk on left
(C) With safety education we learn to understand the sign of policeman who stand in chowk.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 2.
Who are responsible for the safety?
(A) Parents
(B) Teachers
(C) Municipal Committee
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 3.
Which institutions can be helpful in self security?
(A) School and College
(B) Municipal committee
(C) Government
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 4.
Which education saves us from accidents?
(A) Safety education
(B) Sports education
(C) Recreation education
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(A) Safety education

Question 5.
By which education we can reduce the accidents?
(A) Rules of traffic
(B) Rule of house
(C) Rules of school and college
(D) None of them.
Answer:
(A) Rules of traffic

Question 6.
Write causes of accidents one road.
(A) While driving drinking alcohol.
(B) Ignoring the signs of policeman or traffic lights.
(C) While taking a turn the proper indication is not given.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which education saves us from accidents?
Answer:
Safety Education.

Question 2.
By which education we can reduce the accidents?
Answer:
By Safety Education.

Question 3.
What should we use while driving vehicles at night?
Answer:
Dipper.

Question 4.
In which ways driving is harmful?
Answer:
Under the influence of liquor.

Question 5.
Which should be provided to the people who walk on road?
Answer:
Footpaths.

Question 6. How we can control the traffic in a chowks?
Answer:
By deputing policemen or Traffic Signal Lights.

Question 7.
What things should people bear in mind to free from accidents?
Answer:
Rules of Traffic.

Question 8.
What type of school playground should be there to save from accidents?
Answer:
Clean and Plain.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any five causes of road accidents.
Answer:

Driving while drinking.
Ignore the signs of the policeman who is on duty in chowk.
Driving the vehicles in a full speed without control.
Overtaking the others vehicles.
While taking turn proper indication is not given.

Question 2.
Write any five causes of accidents in kitchen of house.
Answer:

If floor of the kitchen is slippery.
If no proper ventilation of smoke.
If inflammable clothes are used in kitchen.
If utensils, soap etc are thrown here and there.
If there is no proper lighting arrangement.

Question 3.
Write any five causes of accidents in bathroom in house.
Answer:

Soap or oil spreading on the floor.
If the water tap is not on the proper place.
Green Grass should be there in bathroom.
If bathroom is not airy and is tight.
If shower is not on proper place.

Question 4.
Write any five causes of accidents in living room.
Answer:

Slippery floor of the room.
Improper place of furniture.
Sufficient light is not placed.
In winter fire coal is burned in room.
Scissors and knives are placed on the bed.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any causes of accidents on roads.
Answer:

Do not following the safety rules.
While driving vehicles very fast.
While driving drinking alchohol or smoking or attending Mobile Phones.
While driving while not using the lights of vehicle at night.
While taking: a turn the proper indication is not given.
When Cars, Scooter etc. get out of order by chance.
By throwing the piece of mango or banana.
While overtaking the other vehicles in a short time.
Ignoring the signs of policeman or traffic lights.
While do not follow the traffic rules.
If the surrounding of the road is having loose earth and there is a great heap on the road.
With weak eye sight of the driver.
If a driver is over tired of long journey.
If any animal or child come on the road by chance.
The children while playing on the road.

Question 2.
Write the safety measures in the school.
Answer:

Playground of the school should be clean and plain.
The broken equipments should not be placed in one room.
While playing games like Kabaddi and Wrestling, the players should not wear the rings, bracelet or any sharp thing.
Bathrooms should not be slippery of the school.
The floor of schools should be clean and dry.
A students should not throw the peels of Banana on the floor.
Unconditional player should not take part in sports.
A trained teacher must provide the training of the play.

Question 3.
Over population causes the accidents. Why?
Answer:
Many people move, around the world due to over population. For their livinghood they move from one place to another. And the number of people increasing on the road day-by-day and it is possible to hit each other. The second thing due to over population is that motor cars, scooters etc. are increasing on the road day-by-day. These are causing various accidents. In this way over population causes many accidents. We should control over population.
PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 Safety Education 1

Question 4.
Write the causes of accidents on roads.
Answer:
Causes of road accidents are:

Without knowing the rules of traffic.
Driving the car, cycle etc. in a fast speed.
Driving while drinking alcohol or drug substances.
Not using the proper light of the vehicle.
While driving on other road turn indicator not used.
Throwing the peels of bananas and oranges here and there.
Ignoring the signs of policeman on the chowks.
Not following the rules of traffic or ignorance of the traffic rules.
Broken roads also cause so many accidents.
Weak eyesight of the drivers also responsible for accidents.
By chance the entry of car, bikes, bicycle or any animal on the road.
While saving them on road vehicles meet an accident.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 The Gupta: Empire

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 15 The Gupta: Empire Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 15 The Gupta: Empire

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB The Gupta: Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Write about the conquests of Samudragupta.
Answer:
Samudragupta was a great conqueror. His conquests can be described as under :

Samudragupta first of all defeated three North Indian kings of Aryavarta, namely Nagsen, Achyut and king of the Kot dynasty.
While Samudragupta was busy in the South, Nagsen, Achyut and other kings of North raised a joint front against him. Samudragupta defeated all the kings of this front.
He defeated twelve kings of the South. But he did not annex their territories to his kingdom. He returned their kingdoms to them after their acceptance of his subordination.
Some jungle tribes of Orissa created a disturbance in his area. He defeated these tribes and established peace.
He annexed the areas captured by him in the North but returned the areas in the South to their rulers. He collected taxes from these rulers.

Question 2.
What do you know about Chandragupta Vikrama- ditya?
Answer:
Chandragupta, Vikramaditya was the son of Samudragupta. He is also known as Chandragupta-II. He conducted a victorious campaign in Western India against the Shakas who had been troubling the Guptas. He also maintained friendly relations with the kings of the Deccan and the South by marital alliances. The most important of such marital alliances was with the Vakataka kingdom of the Deccan.

Chandragupta Vikramaditya is best remembered for his patronage of learning and art. He had in his court some of the wisest and most learned men of the country, known as the ‘Nine Gems’. He was a devotee of Vishnu but respected all other religions. He issued a large number of coins in gold, silver and copper. A Chinese traveller Fa-hein came to India in his time. He adopted the title of Vikramaditya that means ‘Sun of Valour’.

Question 3.
Write a note on Kalidasa.
Answer:
Kalidasa was the most famous among ‘Nine Gems’ in Chandragupta Vikramaditya’s court. He was a famous Sanskrit poet. He wrote books on various subjects in Sanskrit. He had written the world famous books Kumar Sambhava, Raghuvamsa, Meghaduta and Abhigyan Shakuntalam. Abhigyan Shakuntalam is famous all over the world.

Question 4.
What do you know about economic life during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The economic life during the Gupta period was very prosperous.

Taxes were light and the articles of daily need were cheap. The common people used only cowries or copper coins to buy these articles. The largest number of gold coins were issued during this period. Such coins were called Dinaras.
Agriculture was the main profession of the people. Besides food crops of various types, fruits and oil seeds were also grown.
Both internal and external trade were developed. India had trade relations with South-East Asia, China, Central Asia and the European countries.
There were unions of bankers, merchants and manufacturers, known as guilds.
Cattle rearing and artisanship were other famous professions.

Question 5.
Why is the Gupta period called the Golden Age of India?
Answer:
The Gupta period was very advanced in every sphere of life. That is why it is called the Golden Age of India.

The people enjoyed a period of peace and prosperity. They enjoyed a high standard of living.
Both inland and international trade was carried on. Trade with other countries brought a lot of wealth and the people became rich and prosperous.
There was. great advancement in the field of education.
The people were honest and devoted to religion.
Caste system prevailed. But the different sections of the people lived in harmony.
Though the Gupta rulers were patrons of Hinduism, yet they showed tolerance towards other religions. Buddhism was allowed to flourish.
There was a great development in literature. Nine learned men known as ‘Nine Gems’ adorned the Gupta court.
Art and architecture were encouraged. Several pillars of artistic beauty and a number of temples were built.
Science and technology made tremendous progress. Two of the famous scientists of this age were Aryabhatta and Varahamihira. Both of them were astronomers and mathematicians.
Indian culture and civilisation spread in foreign lands in the Gupta period.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Samudragupta was a great ________ and ________
Answer:
great warrior, ruler

Question 2.
Chandragupta II issued a very large number of coins in ________ and ________
Answer:
gold, silver, copper

Question 3.
Gupta empire was divided into many provinces which were called ________
Answer:
Bhakti

Question 4.
The districts were called ________
Answer:
Vishayas

Question 5.
________and ________ poem written by Kalidasa are very famous.
Answer:
Sakuntala, Meghaduta.

III. Match the columns :

Question 1.

A	B
(1) Aryavarta	(a) Punjab
(2) Madrakas	(b) Northern India
(3) Iron Pillar	(c) Officers
(4) Kumaramatyas	(d) Delhi

Answer:
Correct columns :

A	B
(1) Aryavarta	(b) Northern India
(2) Madrakas	(a) Punjab
(3) Iron Pillar	(d) Delhi
(4) Kumaramatyas	(c) Officers

IV. Write ‘true’ or ‘false’ in the brackets given after each

Question 1.
Maharaja Gupta was the first Gupta king.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Vikramaditya was the title of Samudragupta.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Yaudheyas were ruling in South India.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Fa-hein was a Greek writer.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Guptas issued gold coins.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Aryabhatta was a famous scientist.
Answer:
True

V. Activities (Something To Do) :

Question 1.
Show the extent of the Gupta empire on the map of India.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of the works of the art of Gupta age and paste them in your scrapbook.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide The Gupta: Empire Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Who founded the Gupta empire?
(A) Maharaja Gupta
(B) Samundragupta
(C) Chandragupta
(D) Chandragupta II.
Answer:
(A) Maharaja Gupta.

Question 2.
Who is known as the greatest conqueror of the Gupta Dynasty?
(A) Sri Gupta
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Maharaja Gupta
(D) Chandragupta.
Answer:
(B) Samudragupta.

Question 3.
Horse sacrifice means
(A) Ashvashodha
(B) Ashvashloka
(C) Ashvamedha
(D) None of those.
Answer:
(C) Ashvamedha.

Question 4.
Chandragupta Vikramaditya was the son of
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Sri Gupta
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Maharaja Gupta.
Answer:
(A) Samundragupta.

Question 5.
Fa-hein was a Chinese traveller who visited India during empire.
(A) Mughal
(B) Mavryan
(C) Gupta
(D) Kushana.
Answer:
(C) Gupta.

Question 6.
Shakuntala and Meghaduta were written by
(A) Chanakya
(B) Kalidasa
(C) Charaka
(D) Arujabhatta.
Answer:
(B) Kalidasa.

Question 7.
Aryabhata was a famous of the Gupta period.
(A) Scientist
(B) Mathematician
(C) Astronomer
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 8.
Chandragupta issued many coins of ________
(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Copper
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 9.
Abhigyan Shakuntalam was written by
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Kalidas
(C) Aryabhatta
(D) Varahamihira.
Answer:
(B) Kalidas.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the first great king of the Gupta dynasty?
Answer:
Chandragupta-I.

Question 2.
For how long did Samudragupta rule?
Answer:
Samudragupta ruled for about thirty-five years.

Question 3.
Who was Harishena?
Answer:
Harishena was a court poet of Samudragupta. He recorded a detailed account of Samudragupta’s achievements on a stone pillar at Allahabad.

Question 4.
Which was the biggest conquest of Chandragupta-II, and why?
Answer:
The biggest conquest of Chandragupta-II was over the Sakas of Western India. It brought an end to the foreign rule in India.

Question 5.
Who was Skandagupta?
Answer:
Skandagupta was the grandson of Chandragupta-II. He ruled from 454 A.D. to 467 A.D.

Question 6.
Who were Uparikas?
Answer:
The Governors of provinces in the Gupta administration were called Uparikas or Maharajas.

Question 7.
Name the capital of the Guptas.
Answer:
Patliputra.

Question 8.
What were Dinaras?
Answer:
Dinaras were the gold coins issued by the Gupta kings.

Question 9.
Name some famous writers of the Gupta period.
Answer:
Kalidasa, Amarasimha, Sudraka, Dandin, etc.

Question 10.
Where are the world famous Ajanta Caves situated?
Answer:
The world famous Ajanta Caves are situated near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.

Question 11.
What is meant by Ashvamedha?
Answer:
The meaning of Ashvamedha is a horse sacrifice. Ashvamedha was a symbol of universal rule.

Question 12.
What, were Bhuktis and Vishayas?
Answer:
Provinces within Gupta administration were called Buktis and districts within Gupta administration were known as Vishayas.

Question 13.
Who was Fa-hein?
Answer:
Fa-hein was a Chinese traveller who came to India in the Gupta period and wrote an account of his stay in India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the main source of our information about Samudragupta’s conquests?
Answer:
The main source of our information about Samudragupta’s conquests is an inscription engraved on a pillar at Allahabad. This inscription has been written by Harishena and it describes Samudragupta’s achievements and conquests.

Question 2.
Who were Hunas? How did they affect the Gupta’s kingdom?
Answer:
The Hunas was a savage tribe that lived in Central Asia. Stories about India’s wealth attracted them, and they attacked the northern border of India in the fifth cenutury A.D. Their first invasion was repulsed by Skandagupta. But soon after they conquered Punjab and Kashmir. Their invasions shook the Gupta Empire which soon fell into pieces.

Question 3.
What does Fa-hein write about the society in the Gupta period?
Answer:
Fa-hein was a Chinese traveller, who visited India during the rule of Chandragupta-II. He writes that in the Gupta period, people were happy and honest. There was no crime or theft. People did not even lock their houses when going out. Taxes were light. Most of the people were vegetarians. The caste system had become rigid and one could not change one’s caste.

Question 4.
Name the countries with which India had trade and cultural relations in the Gupta period.
Answer:
In the Gupta period, India had trade and cultural relations with the countries of South-East Asia, such as Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, Vietnam, Indonesia, etc. India had trade relations even with China and Central Asian and the European countries.

Question 5.
Describe the achievements of the Gupta period in science and technology.
Answer:
There was an advance in science and technology in the Gupta period.

Aryabhatta and Varahamihira made new discoveries. Aryabhatta wrote Aryabhattiyam. He explained that the earth moves around the sun. He also told how solar and lunar eclipses occur.
Indian mathematicians used the decimal system and knew about zero.
Books on medicines and other sciences were also written during this period.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the administration of the Guptas.
Answer:
The administration of the Guptas can be described in the following ways :

The king was the highest authority. He administered the country with the help of ministers and several high officials.
The empire was divided into provinces. The provinces were called Bhuktis and were governed by officials called Uparikas or Maharajas.
The provinces were divided into districts, known as Vishayas.
The districts were further divided into cities and towns.
The punishments were not severe.
The officials were allotted jagirs instead of cash salaries during the later period of the Guptas.

Question 2.
Describe the achievements of India in the field of art and literature during the Gupta period.
Answer:
The Guptas were great patrons of art and literature. They paid great attention to the development of art and literature in India.
1. Art. Mathura became the famous centre of art during the Gupta period. It produced the most beautiful statues of the Buddha, Jain and Hindu gods and goddesses. Sarnath near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh was also famous for good sculptures. Many beautiful temples were also made. The temples of Deogarh in Madhya Pradesh and Bhitari near Kanpur are very famous. The world-famous Ajanta Caves near Aurangabad in Maharashtra, with beautiful paintings in them, were also made. The kings made these caves for the residence and worship of the Buddhist monks. The famous Stupa of Sanchi was also rebuilt.

2. Literature. Best pieces of literature were produced during the Gupta period. The famous Sanskrit poet Kalidasa wrote several dramas and poems. His play Shakuntala and his poem Meghaduta are very famous, Other writers of the Gupta period were Amarasimha, Sudraka, Dandin, etc.

Question 3.
Give a brief description of the progress of science and technology under the patronage of the Guptas.
Answer:
Science and technology made huge progress under the patronage of Gupta rulers. “Aryabhata was the famous scientist of this age and he wrote a book called Aryabhattiyam”. In this book, he wrote that the earth moves around the sun and how solar and lunar eclipses occur. In the field of mathematics, the use of decimal systems was also given by this period. Arabs borrowed it from India and then Europeans borrowed it from Arabs. A number of books on astronomy, mathematics, and other sciences were written in this age.

This age also made huge progress in the field of technology. The iron pillar standing near Qutab Minar in Delhi is one of the finest examples of technological advances of this age.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D.

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 14 India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D. Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 14 India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D.

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D. Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Write about the administration of Satavahanas.
Answer:
The Satavahana kingdom was well administered. The king was supreme in the state. He was regarded as the protector of religion. He was believed to possess divine powers. The empire was divided into provinces ruled by civil and military governors. The provinces were divided into districts, called Aharas. These were administered by certain officials, namely Amatyas and Mahamatyas, The rural areas were headed by Goulmikas. The Goulmikas were responsible for collecting the revenue or land tax.

Question 2.
Who was the first great Chola ruler and what were his achievements?
Answer:
Karikala was the first great Chola ruler. He bagged several achievements. He defeated badly his neighbouring Chera and Pandya kingdoms. He invaded Sri Lanka. He cleared forests and made the land cultivable. He arranged for canals and tanks for irrigation. He constructed a dam on the river Kaveri to check floods.

Question 3.
Write about the life of people in South India during the period 200 B.C. to 300 A.D.
Answer:
The life of people in South India during the period 200 B.C. to 300 A.D. was very simple. Most of the people lived in villages and their main occupation was agriculture. But the royalty and rich people lived in the interior parts of the towns. Many of merchants and craftsmen lived along the coasts, from where trade was easy. The people lived in their families cordially. After day’s work, amusements consisted of music, dancing, poetry recitations and gambling, etc. Musical instruments like pipes, flutes, string instruments and drums were in use. Music was advanced. There was special music for the different hours of day and night. Farmers, merchants, herdsmen and craftsmen paid taxes to the government.

Question 4.
What do you know about Megalithic Culture?
Answer:
The Megalithic Culture existed in South India around 1000 B.C. This region was inhabited by the people known as the Megalith Builders. These people encircled the graves of the dead with large stones to give them shape of enclosures. That is why their culture is called the Megalithic Culture.

We come to know about the Megalithic Culture from the remains discovered at Inamgaon, Takalghat and Mahurjhari in Maharashtra and Maski, Kopbal and Brahmagiri in South India. These remains show that the people of the Megalithic Culture used black and red pottery. This pottery consisted of a variety of pots and vessels. Many of them were made on wheel.

The people practised both agriculture and hunting as their profession. Agriculture was developed but most of the people liked hunting.

Question 5.
Write about the burial system of the Megalithic Culture. .
Answer:
The people of the Megalithic Culture adopted a peculiar custom to bury their dead. They buried their dead and encircled their graves with large stones. Moreover, they also buried the articles like pottery, weapons and implements of the dead along with him. Probably, they believed that the dead went to another world and would need their belongings in the next world.

Question 6.
Who were Demetrius and Menander?
Answer:
1. Demetrius: Demetrius was the first Indo-Greek invader who invaded India after the decline of the Mauryan Empire and occupied a large part of Afghanistan, Punjab and Sind. But Demetrius had to lose the Bacteria province of Central Asia because Uketice had made a successful revolt there.

2. Menander: Menander was a great Indo-Greek ruler. He is popular as Milinda in the Buddha literature. He was a very able and brave ruler. He invaded India in the time of Pushyamitra Sunga and occupied Punjab (including modern Pakistan) and some parts of Kashmir. He became a Buddhist.

Question 7.
What do you know about the Scythians?
Answer:
The Scythians are also known as the Shakas. They were the original inhabitants of Central Asia. They came to India as invaders in the middle of 200 B.C. and settled down here. In the beginning, they had their establishments in North-West Punjab, Mathura in Uttar Pradesh and Central India. But afterwards, Gujarat in Western India and Ujjain region of Madhya Pradesh became their stronghold. Rudradaman-I was a very famous ruler of the Scythian dynasty, who ruled in 200 A.D. In the end of the fourth century A.D. Chandragupta Vikramaditya (Chandragupta-II) of the Gupta dynasty defeated the Scythians and brought their rule to an end.

Question 8.
Write a note about Kanishka.
Answer:
Kanishka was the most famous ruler of the Kushana dynasty. He ruled from 78 to 102 A.D. As far as his bravery is concerned, he can be compared with Samudragupta. The Kushana Empire was expanded the most during his reign. His empire was extended upto Bihar and included areas of Central India, Gujarat, Sind, Punjab, Afghanistan and Bacteria. He also fought a war with a Chinese General Pan Chao.

As a follower of Buddhism, Kanishka can be compared with Ashoka. He got repaired Buddhist Stupas and monasteries and constructed several new ones. He called a conference of Buddhist scholars in Kashmir, known as the Fourth Buddhist Council. He patronised Buddhist scholars like Ashvaghosha, Nagarjuna and Vasumitra.

Kanishka was also a great lover of art. Many beautiful statues of Buddha were made in his time. Besides Gandhara Art, Mathura Art also developed. He also issued a large number of gold and silver coins.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Gautmiputra Satakarni ruled from _________ to A.D.
Answer:
106, 130

Question 2.
The Satavahanas laid _________ to connect the towns and villages.
Answer:
roads

Question 3.
The Satavahana rulers were the followers of _________
Answer:
Hinduism

Question 4.
_________ was the capital of the Pandya Kingdom
Answer:
Madurai

Question 5.
Pallavas were called _________ in English.
Answer:
Parthians

Question 6.
_________ was the famous king of the Kushana dynasty.
Answer:
Kanishka.

III. Match the columns :

Question 1.

A	B
(1) Gautmiputra Satakarni’s successor	(a) Yajnasri Satakarni
(2) Satavahanas’s last great ruler	(b) Vasishthiputra Pulamayi
(3) Black and redware	(c) Pottery
(4) Sickle and spade	(d) Kushana king
(5) Menander	(e) Chinese General
(6) Kujula Kadphises	(f) Indo Greek invader
(7) Pan Chao	(g) Buddhist scholar
(8) Asvaghosha	(h) Implements

Answer:
Correct columns :

A	B
(1) Gautmiputra Satakarni’s successor	(b) Vasishthiputra Pulamayi
(2) Satavahanas’s last great ruler	(a) Yajnasri Satakarni
(3) Black and redware	(c) Pottery
(4) Sickle and spade	(h) Implements
(5) Menander	(f) Indo Greek invader
(6) Kujula Kadphises	(d) Kushana king
(7) Pan Chao	(e) Chinese General
(8) Asvaghosha	(g) Buddhist scholar

IV. Write ‘true’ or ‘false’ in the brackets given after each statement:

Question 1.
The most important successors of the Mauryas in the Deccan were the Satavahanas.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Gautmiputra Satakarni ruled from 106 A.D.to 131 A.D.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
Music, dancing, poetry recitations and gambling were popular forms of amusement.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Sakas were not defeated by the Chandragupta Vikramaditya.
Answer:
False.

Question 5.
Gondopharns was a Scythian king.
Answer:
False.

Question 6.
Kanishka called the Fourth Buddhist Council.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Huvishka was a Parthian king.
Answer:
False.

V. Activity (Something To Do) :

Question 1.
Show the extent of Madurai, Arikmedu, Kaveripattinam, Amravati, Nagarjuna Konda, Broach on the map of India. Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide India: From 200 B.C. – 300 A.D. Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of these was the main feature of Bhakti?
(A) It emphasised the worship of god or goddess by an individual.
(B) It discarded the performance of Yajna and Sacrifices.
(C) It emphasised at the purity of heart.
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 2.
For which of these was South India famous?
(A) Gold
(B) Spices.
(C) Precious stones
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Question 3.
Which river valley was the most fertile?
(A) Godavari
(B) Kaveri
(C) Krishna
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(B) Kaveri.

Question 4.
Which of these was the capital of Pandyas?
(A) Madurai
(B) Decca
(C) Magadha
(D) Kashi.
Answer:
(A) Madurai.

Question 5.
Kaveripattinam belonged to family.
(A) Chera
(B) Chola
(C) Satavahana
(D) Pandya.
Answer:
(B) Chola.

Question 6.
Name the most important ruler of the Satavahanas.
(A) Gautamiputra Shri Satakarni
(B) Vijayraja I
(C) Vijayraja II
(D) Pulkeshin I.
Answer:
(A) Gautamiputra Shri Satakarni.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who were the most important successors of the Mauryas in the Deccan?
Answer:
The Satavahanas.

Question 2.
Which Satavahana king was described as the Lord of the West?
Answer:
Gautmiputra Satakarni.

Question 3.
Where did Vasishthiputra Pulamayi set up his capital?
Answer:
Vasishthiputra Pulamayi set up his capital at Pratishthana in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra.

Question 4.
When did the Satavahana dynasty come to an end?
Answer:
The Satavahana dynasty came to an end in 220 A.D.

Question 5.
What were Aharas?
Answer:
Districts in the Satavahana administration were called Aharas.

Question 6.
Name the items of import during the Satavahanas’ reign.
Answer:
Wine, copper, tin, glass and precious stones.

Question 7.
Name the capital city of the Cholas.
Answer:
Tanjore.

Question 8.
Name the capital city of the Pandya kingdom.
Answer:
Madurai.

Question 9.
Name the capital city of the Cheras.
Answer:
Vanji.

Question 10.
Name the most important religion which arose in West Asia during the first century A.D.
Answer:
The Christianity.

Question 11.
Who were the Sakas?
Answer:
The Sakas were foreigners who came from Central Asia as invaders and settled down in India.

Question 12.
Name the rribst important ruler of the Parthians.
Answer:
Gondopharns.

Question 13.
During whose reign was the Fourth Buddhist Council held?
Answer:
Kanishka.

Question 14.
Name the areas in which Gandhara Art was popular.
Answer:
Gandhara Art was popular in modern Punjab, Kashmir and modern Afghanistan.

Question 15.
Name the two sects of Buddhism.
Answer:
Mahayana and Hinayana.

Question 16.
Who were the successors of Kanishka?
Answer:
Vasishka, Huvishka and Vasudeva.

Question 17.
Who was the greatest Satavahana ruler and when did he rule?
Answer:
Gautmiputra Satakarni was the greatest Satavahana ruler. He ruled from A.D. 106 till A.D. 130.

Question 18.
Who was the last great ruler of Satavahanas?
Answer:
Yajnasri Satakarni was the last great ruler of Satavahanas.

Question 19.
With which countries Satavahanas had trade relations?
Answer:
Satavahanas had trade relations with many countries like Arabia, Iran, Egypt, Burma and Malaya.

Question 20.
From where the remains of the Megalithic period have been discovered?
Answer:
Inamgaon, Takalghat, Mahurjhari in Maharashtra and Maski, Kopbal and Brahmagiri in South India.

Question 21.
What was Fourth Buddhist Council?
Answer:
Kanishka called a conference of Buddhist scholars at a place Kundalvana in Kashmir. This conference was known as Fourth Buddhist Council.

Question 22.
What were the popular forms of amusement of Cheras?
Answer:
Music, dancing, gambling and poetry recitations were popular forms of amusement.

Question 23.
Name the things exported from Satavahana kingdom.
Answer:
Wine, Copper, tin, glass and precious stones were imported. The exported goods brought gold and silver coins in return.

Question 24.
Who were the Satavahanas?
Answer:
The Satavahanas were also known the Andhras. After the fall of the Mauryas, they arose in the Deccan.

Question 25.
What were the Jatakas?
Answer:
Collection of stories about the Bodhisattvas were the Jatakas. The Bodhisattvas were holy persons who had lived on earth before the Buddha.

Question 26.
What were the Chaityas?
Answer:
Prayer or meeting halls where the Buddhists worshipped were known as the Chaityas.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the most famous Saka ruler, and why?
Answer:
Rudradaman-I was the most famous Saka ruler. He ruled in the second century A.D. He did a lot of work that made him the most famous among other Saka rulers. He promoted agriculture by constructing canals and dams. He exempted his subjects from taxes. He drove the Satavahanas out of Central Asia and forced them to settle in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Indo-Greeks? Name their famous rulers.
Answer:
The Indo-Greeks were the rulers whose forefathers had come from Greece to India. They ruled in Punjab and Kabul Valley Demetrius and Menander were famous Indo-Greek rulers.

Question 3.
Name the countries with which trade was carried on by the merchants of the Satavahana kingdom.
Answer:
The Satavahana kings took great pains to increase trade and make their kingdom prosperous. At that time trade was carried on by the merchants with Persia, Egypt, Iraq, Arabia, Myanmar and Malaya.

Question 4.
What is Gandhara School of Art?
Answer:
With the advent of the Greeks in India, Indian artists and sculptors learnt the Greek art of making the images of Greek and Roman gods. Indian artists working in Gandhara were interested in this new style of sculpture and were influenced by it. The statues of Lord Buddha and scenes from Buddha’s life resembled the Greek style. This type of art came to be known as Gandhara School of Art.

Question 5.
What are the teachings of Christianity?
Answer:
Christianity believes in one God, who is the Almighty. Jesus Christ is the messenger and son of God. Christianity emphasises on love and humanity. It also emphasises on purity of life. Men, according to Christianity, are sons of God and hence they should live a noble life. The souls of the pure-hearted persons will go to heaven and will be united with God.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is meant by Chaityas, Stupas and Viharas? Mention the names of the places where these have been found.
Answer:
1. Chaityas. Chaityas were the halls where the Buddhists worshipped or met. These have been mainly found at Karle and Bedsa in the Western Ghats near Pune.

2. Stupas. Stupas were large semi-circle mounds in which were placed the relics of either Lord Buddha or the Buddhist monks. They were sacred to the Buddhists. These have been mainly found at Sanchi (near Bhopal) and Amravati (in Andhra Pradesh).

3. Viharas. Viharas or monasteries were the places where the Buddhist monks lived. Many of the Viharas were built close to big cities so that the monks could go to the cities every morning and beg for alms. The Viharas have been mainly found at Taxila (near Peshawar in Pakistan) and Sarnath (near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh).

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Fibre to Fabric Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 21)

Question 1.
List any two types of fabric.
Answer:
Two main types of fabric are
(i) obtained from natural fibres
(ii) obtained from synthetic fibres.

Question 2.
How does silk fabric feel ?
Answer:
Smooth and shiny.

Question 3.
With what kind of fabric your dupatta is made up of ?
Answer:
Dupatta is made up of cotton.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 26)

Question 1.
Name the items that are made from jute plant and coconut fibre.
Answer:
Jute is used to make curtains, chair coverings, carpets, mats, ropes, gunny bags, etc. Coconut fibre or coir is used to make floor mats, door mats, brushes, mattresses and ropes

Question 2.
Yarn is made of ……………………
Answer:
Yarn is made of very small strands called fibres.

Question 3.
What is yarn ?
Answer:
Yarn is a thin thread used for making different fabrics. It is made of very small strands called fibres.

Question 4.
How do you make yarn from cotton ?
Answer:
We made yam from cotton fibres by spinning and weaving.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 28)

Question 1.
Wool is ……………. and ………….. air.
Answer:
soft, full of.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Fibre to Fabric Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Silk is smooth and ……………….
Answer:
shiny

(b) ……………. is extracted from the outer covering of coconut.
Answer:
Coir

(d) Cotton is a ……………… fibre.
Answer:
natural

(e) Yarns are made of ……………
Answer:
fibres

2. Write True or False:

(a) Polyester is a natural fibre.
Answer:
False

(b) In knitting, a single yam is used to make a piece of fabric.
Answer:
True

(d) The process of removing seed from cotton is called retting.
Answer:
False

(e) The fibres are spun in yams by pulling out and twisting the fibres together.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Jute	(a) outer covering of coconut
2. Acrylic	(b) stem
3. Coir	(c) separation of seeds
4. Ginning	(d) synthetic fibres
5. Hand spindle	(e) spinning

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Jute	(b) stem
2. Acrylic	(d) synthetic fibres
3. Coir	(a) outer covering of coconut
4. Ginning	(c) separation of seeds
5. Hand spindle	(e) spinning

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following in not a natural fibre ?
(a) Wool
(b) Cotton
(c) Nylon
(d) Jute
Answer:
(a) Wool

Question (ii)
Which of these fabrics will you choose to wear in hot and humid weather ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Wool
(d) Nylon.
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question (iii)
The process of separation of seeds from cotton balls is :
(a) Spinning
(b) Ginning
(c) Retting
(d) Picking.
Answer:
(b) Ginning

Question (iv)
Acrylic is :
(a) Natural fibre
(b) Plant fibre
(c) Animal fibre
(d) Synthetic fibre
Answer:
(d) Synthetic fibre

Question (v)
Which of these is a plant fibre ?
(a) Polyester
(b) Acrylic
(c) Wool
(d) Jute.
Answer:
(d) Jute.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name any two animal fibres.
Answer:
Silk and wool.

Question (ii)
Name the two basic types of animal fibres.
Answer:
Silk and wool

Question (iii)
What is the right time for harvesting of jute plant ?
Answer:
From June to September

Question (iv)
List any two uses of jute.
Answer:
It is used to make curtains, chair coverings, carpets, mats, ropes, gunny bags, etc.

6. Short Answer Type Questions :

Question (i)
Write differences between natural and synthetic fibres.
Answer:
Natural fibres :

Natural fibres are obtained from plants and animals.
Examples are cotton, jute, coir, wool, silk, etc.

Synthetic fibres :

On the other hand synthetic fibres are prepared by man using chemicals.
Examples are polyester, nylon, acrylic, etc.

Question (ii)
What is sericulture ?
Answer:
Sericulture. The rearing of the silk worm for production of silk is known as
sericulture.

Question (iii)
What is meant by ginning of cotton ?
Answer:
Ginning. Separating fibres and seeds from busted cotton balls by combing is called ginning. Ginning was traditionally done by hand but these days we have machines for doing this.

7. Long Answer Type Questions :

Question (i)
Why do we prefer cotton clothes in summer ?
Answer:
We prefer cotton clothes in summer because of following reasons

Cotton clothes are soft.
Cotton clothes absorb heavy amounts of water.

During summer the temperature is very high. In this season we sweat too much. Cotton clothes absorb this sweat. Due to heat this is evaporated. Evaporation causes cooling. This means if we wear cotton clothes in summer we can protect ourselves from the harmful effects of heat around us.

Question (ii)
How spinning of cotton is done ?
Answer:
Spinning. It is an important stage in making clothes. After obtaining fibres we convert these into yarn by spinning. In this process the fibres are converted into yams by pulling out and twisting the fibres together.

The process of making yam from fibres is known as spinning.
Spinning can be done using hand spindle (takli) or on a spinning wheel (charkha). Now a days we have machines for spinning. Hand spindle or charkha is used to produce yam on small scale. For large scale production of yarn spinning machines are better option. After spinning, the next stage is converting yam into fabrics either by weaving or knitting.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Fibre to Fabric Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
We get this fibre from sheep, rabbits, goats and yaks :
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Nylon
(d) Wool.
Answer:
(d) Wool

Question 2.
Pick out a synthetic fibre :
(a) Nylon
(b) Cotton
(c) Wool
(d) Jute.
Answer:
(a) Nylon

Question 3.
The process of making a piece of fabric from a single yarn is :
(a) Ginning
(b) Weaving
(c) Spinning
(d) Knitting.
Answer:
(d) Knitting

Question 4.
Un-stitched fabric is used for wearing is :
(a) Shirt
(b) Dupatta
(c) Saree
(d) Rain coat.
Answer:
(c) Saree

Question 5.
The plant which gives us natural fibre is :
(a) Rose
(b) Peepal
(c) Flax
(d) Melon.
Answer:
(c) Flax

Question 6.
Silk and Wool fibres are obtained from :
(a) cotton
(b) animals
(c) plants
(d) coconut.
Answer:
(b) animals

Question 7.
The removal of seeds from the cotton is called :
(a) charkha
(b) bobbins
(c) ginning
(d) retting.
Answer:
(c) ginning

Question 8.
The process of getting jute fibres from
(a) bobbins
(b) retting
(c) gunning
(d) bales.
Answer:
(b) retting

Question 9.
Patsun is a fibre of :
(a) Rayon
(b) Nylon
(c) Cotton
(d) Jute
Answer:
(d) Jute

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Fabrics are made up of …………….
Answer:
yarns

(b) Yarns is made up of ………….
Answer:
fibres

(d) Silk fibre is drawn from ……………… of silkworm.
Answer:
cocoon

(e) Polyester, Nylon and Acrylic are …………….. fibres.
Answer:
synthetic

(f) The separation of fibres from seeds is ……………… .
Answer:
ginning

(g) Jute is harvested at …………… stage.
Answer:
flowering

(h) Spinning is process of making ……………. from fibres.
Answer:
yarn

(i) Use of Charkha was popularized by ………………
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

(j) Weaving of fabric is done on ……………..
Answer:
looms

(k) Early man covered his body with …………… or ……………..
Answer:
bark and leaves of plants, skin of animals

(l) A …………… stitches clothes.
Answer:
tailor

Write (T) against true and (F) against false Statements:

(a) Cotton, jute and coir are synthetic fibres.
Answer:
False

(b) Jute is not grown in India.
Answer:
False

(d) Weaving is setting of yams together in a pattern.
Answer:
True

(e) Socks are made of knitted materials.
Answer:
True

(f) Different kinds of fabrics are used for a variety of clothing items.
Answer:
True

(g) Turban, Saree, Dhoti, etc. are examples of unstitched fabric.
Answer:
True

Matching

Match the following:

A	B
(1) Retting out gunning skin of jute stem to separate fibres	Spinning
(2) Separation of cotton fibres from its seeds	Bailing
(3) Making yam from fibres	Ginning
(4) Compression of saw cotton fibres into bundles.	Retting

Answer:
(1) – Retting,
(2) – Ginning,
(3) – Spinning,
(4) – Bailing

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name different types of fibres.
Answer:
Different types of fibres are : (i) Natural fibres (ii) Synthetic fibres.

Question 2.
What are fibres ?
Answer:
Fibres are long, narrow and thin strands.

Question 3.
What is a fabric ?
Answer:
Fabric is a clothing material made from yams.

Question 4.
From where do we get synthetic fibres ?
Answer:
We get synthetic fibres from chemical substances.

Question 5.
What is a cotton ball ?
Answer:
Cotton ball is fruit of cotton plant.

Question 6.
In which states of India, we grow jute ?
Answer:
We grow jute in West Bengal, Bihar and Assam.

Question 7.
Who popularized the Charkha ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 8.
Name two processes by which fabrics are made.
Answer:
Knitting and weaving.

Question 9.
How is knitting done ?
Answer:
By hand or on machines.

Question 10.
What is a loom ?
Answer:
Loom. It is a device used to weave fabric.

Question 11.
Name some natural and synthetic fibres.
Answer:
Natural fibres. Cotton, Jute, Wool and Silk.
Synthetic fibres. Rayon, Nylon and Polyester.

Question 12.
Where is cotton grown in India ?
Answer:
In India cotton is grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Punjab.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are fibres twisted ? Give examples.
Answer:
Fibres are twisted to make them strong and to increase their cohesive power, e.g. animal fleece, grass strands are twisted to make long strands of fabrics.

Question 2.
Name few plants and their parts which are used for making fibres.
Answer:
Plants and their parts used for making fibres.
Different plants use their different body parts for making fibres. Some of these are tabulated below :

Plant	Part
Cotton	Seed
Coconut	Seed
Jute	Stem
Banana tree	Leaf

Question 3.
Name the process by which fibre is separated from cotton seeds and tell how is it done ?
Answer:
Ginning. It is process by which fibre is separated from cotton seeds.
Cotton seeds are plucked one by one and then seeds are separated from fibres using a steel comb. These fibres are then spunned.

Question 4.
Why is jute cultivated and when ?
Answer:
Jute. It is a plant, stem of which yields a fibre. This fibre is very strong. So, for obtaining this fibre, jute is cultivated in rainy season.

Question 5.
What is a Charka ? When and why was it popularized ?
Answer:
Charkha. It is a device to spin yam from fibres. This is hand operated. Mahatma Gandhi popularized it as part of Independence movement to encourage people to wear home spun yarn.

Question 6.
Name different processes involved in making a fabric.
Answer:
Process involved in making of a fabric.

Ginning
Spinning
Weaving
Bailing

Question 7.
Write various uses of cotton.
Answer:
Uses of cotton.

Mixed with other fibres, it is used for the manufacture of durable textiles.
It is used as absorbent and as swabs in hospitals.
It is used as raw material for the manufacture of Rayon and Paper.

Question 8.
Why do we wear clothes ?
Answer:
We wear clothes because

It protects us against wind and weather,
It protects us against injury,
It maintains body heat.

Question 9.
Which parts of plants give us cotton, jute and coir fibres ?
Answer:
Cotton fibre is obtained from seed. Jute fibre is obtained from stem, and coir is from its fruit.

Question 10.
What climatic conditions are necessary for cultivation of jute ?
Answer:
Climatic condition for cultivation of Jute. Jute is cultivated during the rainy season. It is grown in alluvial soils in the delta region of rivers like Ganges and Brahmputra.

Question 11.
Write three uses of Jute.
Answer:
Uses of Jute. Jute is extensively used for making gunny bags, carpets, coarse clothes and fopes etc. Now-a-days, it is being used for making jute fabrics.

Question 12.
Why is it necessary to make yarn from fibres for making clothes ?
Answer:
Need of making yarn. Fibres cannot be used directly for making clothes. Twisting of fibres into yam increases the toughness and strength of fibres. So it is necessary to make yam from fibres for making clothes.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How cotton fibres are produced in the fields ?
Answer:
Production of cotton.
Cotton is the most important Industrial crop. It is planted early in the spring in a warm climate. The black soil is excellent for its cultivation. Cotton plants grow steadily and soon become bushes of 3 to 6 feet height. After 2 months, they bear white or yellowish flowers which turn pink or red after a few days.

The tiny green seeds grow into spherical shaped structure of the size of a walnut, which is called cotton nut. They grow steadily, the seeds and fibres grow inside. After maturation these bolls become ready to burst open, exposing white fibres.

Question 2.
How jute is cultivated and spun to fabrics ?
Answer:
Cultivation of Jute.
Jute is most extensively used fibres next to cotton. It is obtained from stem of plant called ‘Patsun’. It is cultivated during the rainy season. It is grown in alluvial soils in the delta regions of rivers like Ganges and Brahmputra. Patsun is an 8 – 10 feet high plant. It bears yellow flowers in 3-4 months. This plant may be cut at the time of flowering. The cut plants are placed in the field when dry leaves fall down.

Their bundles are made and placed in stagnant water of a pond for few days when gummy skin rots out to separate fibres. The process is called retting. The fibre is extracted from the retted jute by hand, with jerks and pulls. These are yellow in colour, very strong, have silky lusture and easy to spun into fabrics.

Question 3.
How seeds are removed from fibres and why are they removed ?
Answer:
Removal of seeds.
The cotton-balls, in which cotton fibres are formed, turn so white that they look as if they are covered with snow. The cotton is then handpicked from the plants. Cotton fibres are hairs that grow on the surface of cotton seeds. The picked cotton is taken to godown where seeds are pulled out of the cotton by steel combs. This process is called ginning. These seeds are removed so that cotton becomes more fluffy and easy to spun to fabric.

Question 4.
What is spinning. Explain the process of making yarn from fibre.
Answer:
Spinning. The process of making yam from fabric is called spinning. In this process, fibres from pinch cotton wool are drawn out and twisted.

Process of making yarn from fibre. Hold some cotton wool in one hand, say right hand. Now pinch some cotton between the thumb and forefinger of your other hand (i.e. left hand). Now, gently and slowly start pulling out the cotton and simultaneously twisting the fibre. You will be getting a yarn.
The various manual devices used for spinning are :

Hand Spindle (Takli)
Spinning wheel (Charkha).

These are also called hand-operated spinning devices. Spinning machines are used for spinning very quantities of yarn.

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Separation of Substances

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Separation of Substances Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 41)

Question 1.
How will you separate rotten tomatoes from a basket of tomatoes?
Answer:
By handpicking.

Question 2.
How will you separate green grapes from black grapes?
Answer:
By handpicking.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 43)

Question 1.
What is the role of wind in winnowing ?
Answer:
The wind blows away the lighter particles.

Question 2.
Can you separate mixture of channa dal and moong dal by winnowing ?
Answer:
No. this mixture cannot be separated by winnowing.

Question 3.
Can you separate a mixture of salt and flour with sieve? Why or Why not ?
Answer:
No. this mixture cannot be separated with sieve. This is because the particles of salt and flour have almost same sizes.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 45)

Question 1.
You are provided with a solution of chalk powder and water in a beaker. Keep the beaker undisturbed for some time. What will you observe ? Name the process.
Answer:
On keeping the beaker undisturbed for some time we observe that the chalk will settle at the bottom in the form sediment. This process of settling insoluble particles at the bottom is called sedimentation.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 46)

Question 1.
Your father asked you to bring fresh orange juice from market. Do you observe the strainer used to separate pulp and seeds from the juice ? Which strainer is the best for this purpose ? Whether tea strainer, filter paper, muslin cloth or strainer with large holes can be used for this purpose.
Answer:
The best strainer will be that which has holes smaller than the sizes of the pulp particles and seeds. Out of the given strainers we can use muslin cloth. We can also use tea strainer and filter paper but these will do the separation slowly. Strainer with large holes will not separate the pulp.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 47)

Question 1.
Name the process involved in preparation of “Khoya” from milk.
Answer:
We prepare “khoya” from milk by the process called evaporation.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 48)

Question 1.
Name the process by which water changes to vapours.
Answer:
The process by which water changes to vapours is called evaporation.

Question 2.
Name the process by which vapours changes to water.
Answer:
The process by which vapours change to water is called condensation.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Separation of Substances Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Filtration process is helpful in separating an insoluble …………… from a ……………….
Answer:
insoluble, solution

(b) Small pieces of stones can be removed from rice by ……………… method.
Answer:
hand picking

(d) The method in which stalks are beaten to separate the grains is called ………………..
Answer:
threshing

(e) ……………… is the process of pouring out the liquid present on top layer without disturbing
the sediments below.
Answer:
decantation

2. Write True or False:

(a) Sieving is used when the component of mixture has different sizes.
Answer:
True

(b) Process of converting liquid to vapours is called condensation.
Answer:
False

(d) Threshing is a process of separating grains from stalks.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Separating salt from water	(a) condensation
2. Heavier particles settle down	(b) winnowing
3. Separating different components by blowing wind or air	(c) evaporation
4. Conversion of vapour into liquid	(d) Sedimentation

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Separating salt from water	(c) evaporation
2. Heavier particles settle down	(d) Sedimentation
3. Separating different components by blowing wind or air	(b) winnowing
4. Conversion of vapour into liquid	(a) condensation

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which method is used to separate heavier and lighter components in a mixture by wind ?
(a) Hand picking
(b) Threshing
(c) Sieving
(d) Winnowing.
Answer:
(d) Winnowing

Question (ii)
Formation of water droplets on the outer surface of glass containing ice cold water is because of:
(a) Evaporation of water from glass
(b) Condensation of atmospheric water vapours.
(c) Water that seeped out from glass
(d) Evaporation of atmospheric water vapours.
Answer:
(b) Condensation of atmospheric water vapours.

Question (iii)
You must have seen your mother taking out fine gravels from rice. Which method can be used to separate pebbles from rice ?
(a) Handpicking
(b) Decantation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Sedimentation.
Answer:
(a) Handpicking

Question (iv)
We need to separate one substance from mixture because :
(a) To separate two different but useful components
(b) To remove undesirable substances
(c) To remove harmful substances
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define sedimentation.
Answer:
Sedimentation is a process in which heavier particles of an insoluble solid settles down in liquid.

Question (ii)
What is evaporation ?
Answer:
The process of converting a liquid into its vapour form is called evaporation.

Question (iii)
For what purpose combine machine is used for ?
Answer:
Combine machine is used for both harvesting and threshing process.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Give difference between evaporation and condensation.
Answer:
The process of converting a liquid into its vapour form is called evaporation. The process by which vapours change to water is called condensation.

Question (ii)
Give difference between saturated solution and unsaturated solution.
Answer:
A saturated solution is that solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature. An unsaturated solution is that solution in which more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature.

Question (iii)
Explain different types of threshing.
Answer:
Threshing can be done in following three ways:

Manual threshing : It is done by beating the stalks with sticks on the ground or beating against any hard object.
Threshing by Animals : Some animals like bullocks are allowed to trample the stalks.
Threshing by Machine. Threshers are generally used for this purpose.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain the following methods of separation.
(1) Threshing.
(2) Winnowing.
(3) Sieving.
Answer:
(1) Threshing. Threshing is separation of grains from chaff. It can be done using any one method out the three i.e. (a) manual (b) with the help of Animals and (c) using machines.

(2) Winnowing. Winnowing is a method to separate heavier and lighter components of a mixture by wind or by blowing air.
Winnowing is an agricultural method for separating grains from chaff. It is also used to remove hay and chaff or other pests from stored grains.

(3) Sieving. It is a method to separate larger substances from smaller substances using a sieve. It is very easy and cheap method of separation. Components of same sizes in a mixture cannot be separated. For example, you cannot separate chalk powder from flour.

Question (ii)
What is separation ? Why do we need to separate different components of a mixture ?
Answer:
Separation. Separation means process of moving something apart.
We need to sep.arate a mixture into its different components because of the following reasons :

To remove the useless or harmful components. For example, removing tea leaves after making tea.
To obtain the useful component. For getting wheat/rice grains after separating husk, dirt etc.
To remove impurities for getting a pure sample. For example – obtaining sugar crystals from sugarcane juice or salt from sea water.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Separation of Substances Important Questions and Answers

Multiple choice questions:

Question 1.
Salt is separated from sea water by :
(a) Evaporation
(b) Decantation
(c) Condensation
(c) Filtration.
Answer:
(a) Evaporation

Question 2.
Cottage cheese (Paneer) is made by adding to milk :
(a) lemon juice
(b) salt
(c) water
(d) tea leaves.
Answer:
(a) lemon juice

Question 3.
Fruit and vegetable juices are filtered to separate :
(a) Seeds
(b) Pulp
(c) Impurities
(d) seeds, pulp and impurities.
Answer:
(d) seeds, pulp and impurities

Question 4.
Filter paper is used in method :
(a) Sieving
(b) Filtration
(c) Condensation
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Filtration

Question 5.
Sand and sawdust are separated by using method:
(a) Sieving
(b) Winnowing
(c) Hand picking
(d) All.
Answer:
(b) Winnowing

Question 6.
The purity of a substance is determined by:
(a) melting point
(b) colour
(c) source
(d) quantity.
Answer:
(a) melting point

Question 7.
The process in which liquid changes into vapours is:
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Decantation.
Answer:
(c) Evaporation

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) Tea …………… are separated from liquid with a strainer.
Answer:
leaves

(b) We ……………… cotton to separate its seeds from the fibre.
Answer:
gin

(d) Pieces of stone and husk are separated from wheat, rice or pulses by ………………
Answer:
hand picking

(e) ……………… are also used for threshing grains.
Answer:
machines

(f) Winnowing is used to separate ……………. and ……………. components of a mixture by blowing air.
Answer:
heavier, lighter

(g) Pebbles and stones are removed from sand by ………………
Answer:
sieving

(h) Larger quantities of salt can be dissolved in water on ………………
Answer:
heating

(i) A solution is prepared by …………….. a substance into a liquid.
Answer:
dissolving

(j) Water dissolves different substances in …………….. amounts.
Answer:
different

Write (T) against true and (F) against false statements :

(a) We cannot separate guavas and mangoes by hand picking.
Answer:
False

(b) We separate stones from rice to throw away them.
Answer:
True

(d) Husk is used as a fodder for cattle.
Answer:
True

(e) Rice and pulses are washed before cooking.
Answer:
True

(f) For separating tea leaves, decantation method is used.
Answer:
False

(g) We cannot remove soil from water.
Answer:
False

(h) Paneer can be separated by using a strainer.
Answer:
True

(i) Sea water evaporates continuously.
Answer:
True

(j) Water drops cannot be condensed on cooling.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give few examples of mixture.
Answer:
Air, sea water, soil, rock salt.

Question 2.
What is Churning ?
Answer:
Churning. It is process in which milk is stirred (rotated) to get the lighter particles of butter separated on the surface.

Question 3.
What is Decantation ?
Answer:
Decantation. It is process in which two immiscible liquids are separated by allowing them to stand for some time till they form two separate layers.

Question 4.
By which method heavy and light particles of a solid mixture are separated ?
Answer:
Winnowing.

Question 5.
Which materials are used as filters ?
Answer:
Porous materials such as thin muslin cloth and filter paper and nylon net.

Question 6.
Name some mixtures found in nature.
Answer:
Milk, Sea-water, Jaggery.

Question 7.
Give an example of a gaseous mixture.
Answer:
Air.

Question 8.
How will you separate a mixture of water and cooking oil ?
Answer:
By separating funnel.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a mixture ? Give four examples of mixture.
Answer:
Mixture. A mixture is a substance which consists of two or more elements or compounds not chemically combined together in any ratio.
Examples : Air, sea water, soil, rock salt.

Question 2.
Write two properties of mixture.
Answer:

The constituents are not present in a fixed ratio.
It does not have a fixed melting and boiling point.
The various components of the mixture can be separated easily by physical methods.

Question 3.
How is salt separated from sea water ?
Answer:
Separation of Salt from Sea water. Water is collected in flat-square fields (lagoons) near the sea. It is allowed to stand for few days. Now water gets evaporated in the sun leaving behind crude crystals of salt. This crude salt is purified to get pure salt.

Question 4.
What is the criteria of separating the components of a mixture ?
Answer:
While choosing a method of separating different components of mixture, physical properties of components are considered.

Question 5.
Which methods are used to separate a mixture of sand, black gram (urad) and husk ?
Answer:
At first winnowing process is used to remove husk. Then sand is separated by using sieving process.

Question 6.
What is a solution ?
Answer:
Solution. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of a solid in a liquid. It can be prepared by dissolving a solid substance in a liquid.

Question 7.
What is saturated solution ?
Answer:
Saturated Solution. A solution which cannot dissolve more of the solute at the same temperature in it, is said to be saturated solution.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is filtration ? Write few activities where this method is being used.
Answer:
Filtration. The process of separating components of a mixture of an insoluble solid and a liquid is called filtration.
Activities in which filtration is used :

Fruits and vegetable juices to separate the seeds and solid particles of pulp.
Cottage cheese preparation to separate the whey.
Tea preparation to separate tea leaves.

Question 2.
What are different methods of separating mixtures ? Explain any two of them.
Answer:
There are many methods of separating mixtures :
They are :

Hand Picking
Threshing
Winnowing
Sieving
Sedimentation
Decantation
Filtration
Evaporation
Condensation.

1. Sedimentation.
The process of separating light and heavier components of a mixture by allowing it to stay undisturbed, is called sedimentation.
In this process, the mixture is dissolved in water. The heavier particles tend to settle down at the bottom and the lighter particles make the water muddy or just float on it. When this solution is allowed to stand for some time then a separate layer of heavier particles can be seen at the bottom.

This process is known as Sedimentation. The upper layer of impure water is removed to get a pure sample of substances e.g. rice, pulses, etc. are washed with water to get rid of dust and soil particles and husk components which are light and get removed by water easily.

2. Evaporation.
The process of conversion of water into its vapours is called evaporation. This process is continually taking place all around us. For vapour formation, heat is needed which is provided by sunlight.

PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements

January 11, 2024January 10, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements

Science Guide for Class 6 PSEB Body Movements Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 77)

Question 1.
What are the small bones present in backbone called ?
Answer:
The small bones present in the backbone are called vertebrae.

Question 2.
Name the ridges like bones which we feel when we touch our chest region.
Answer:
Ribs are the ridges like bones which we feel when we touch our chest region.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 78)

Question 1.
When you tie a scale with your arm, are you able to bend your elbow ?
Answer:
No, the tied parts are unable to move and we are unable to bend our elbow. From this we can conclude that we cannot bend a single bone. This means we can bend our body only at joints where the bones meet together.

Question 2.
Name the points where two parts of body are seen to be joined together.
Answer:
The points where two parts of body are joined together are called joints.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 80)

Question 1.
Move your arm at shoulder. Are you able to move it in various directions ? If yes name the type of joint present there.
Answer:
Yes, I am able to move my arm in all directions. Ball and socket joint is present between the arm and the shoulder.

Question 2.
Move your arm at elbow. Are you able to move it in various directions ? If yes name the type of joint present there.
Answer:
No, at elbow, I am not able to move my arm in all directions. Arm can be moved back and forth only. The joint present here is hinge joint.

PSEB 6th Class Science Guide Body Movements Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercise – 1

1. Fill in the Blanks :

(a) The points where bones meet are called ……………..
Answer:
joints

(b) Human skeleton is made up of …………….. and cartilages.
Answer:
bones

(d) Earthworm can extend or shorten its body by using its ……………….
Answer:
muscles

(e) Knee joint is an example of …………. joint.
Answer:
hinge

2. Write True or False:

(a) Rib cage is conical structure made up of 12 pairs of ribs.
Answer:
True

(b) Cartilages are harder than bones.
Answer:
False

(d) A streamlined body is one in which middle part of body is larger than head and tail part.
Answer:
True

(e) Snakes move very fast in a straight line.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Ball and Socket Joint	(a) Skull bones
2. Immoveable Joint	(b) Fingers
3. Hinge joint	(c) Wrist bones
4. Pivot Joint	(d) Shoulder
5. Gliding Joint	(e) Movement of Head

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Ball and Socket Joint	(d) Shoulder
2. Immoveable Joint	(a) Skull bones
3. Hinge joint	(b) Fingers
4. Pivot Joint	(e) Movement of Head
5. Gliding Joint	(c) Wrist bones

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following organ is protected by rib cage ?
(a) Heart
(b) Brain
(c) Eyes
(d) Ear.
Answer:
(a) Heart

Question (ii)
Snail moves with the help of :
(a) Shell
(b) Bones
(c) Muscular foot
(d) Cartilage
Answer:
(c) Muscular foot

Question (iii)
Fish maintains its balance in water and change its directions with the help of
(a) Head
(b) Gills
(c) Fins
(d) Body scales.
Answer:
(c) Fins.

Exercise – 2

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name the longest bone in human body.
Answer:
Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

Question (ii)
Name the type of joint where arms join the shoulder.
Answer:
Ball and socket joint.

Question (iii)
What is the difference between movement and locomotion ?
Answer:
Movement is a change in the position of any part of body of an organism whereas locomotion is movement of whole body of an organism from one place to another.

Question (iv)
Give an example of an organism which can walk, climb and fly.
Answer:
Cockroach.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why we need a pair of muscles to move a bone ?
Answer:
The contraction and relaxation property of the muscles is the basis of movement of bones. Muscles always work in pairs. When one them contracts it pulls the bone in that direction in which it is bulged. The other muscle relaxes. Now to bring back the bone to the original position the relaxing muscle contracts and the contracting muscle relaxes.

Question (ii)
How does earthworm move ?
Answer:
The body of the earthworm is made up of many rings joined together. These rings are connected with the muscles which help to extend or shorten the body.

During movement the earthworm extends the front part of the body while its rear portion is fixed to the ground. Then it fixes the front part and releases the rear part. Then it shortens its bpdy and repeats the whole process. The body secretions of earthworm help in its movement.

Question (iii)
How does the body of a bird help it in flight ?
Answer:
Birds possess streamlined body, and hollow and light weight bones which help them during flight. The birds can fly because their streamlined bodies are well suited from flying. The hollow bones are lighter and the breast bones are modified to hold massive muscles of flight which are used to move the wings up and down. The birds have tails which direction during flight.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain different types of joints present in human body.
Answer:
Joint. A point where two bones meet is called a joint.
Joints are of two types :

(1) Fixed Joints or Immovable joints. The joints where the movement of the bones is not possible are called fixed or immovable joints. For example, upper jaw has fixed joint. The joints in the skull are fixed joints.

(2) Moveable joints. The joints where movement of the bones is possible are called moveable joints.
These are of four types

(a) Ball and Socket Joint. In this joint, a ball like rounded end of one bone fits into socket like cavity of the other bone. This joint allows the movement of the bones in all the directions. Joint between arm and shoulder is an example of this type of joint.

(b) Pivot Joint. In this type of joint, a cylinderical bone turns in a ring type bone. The cylinderical bone rotates inside the ring or the ring rotates outside the cylinder. The joint between skull and the vertebral column is an example of pivot joint. It allows the movement of head backward, forward, left and right.

(c) Hinge Joint. This joint is like hinge in the door. It allows movement of bones only in one direction i.e. up and down or front and back. Knee joint and elbow joint are the examples of the hinge joints.

(d) Gliding joint. This joint allows the bones to glide over each other providing only a little movement in all the direction. The examples of gliding joints are the joints between the ankle bones and wrist bones.

Question (ii)
Explain the locomotion in Fish.
Answer:
Fishes possess streamlined body in which tail and head of fish are smaller than the middle part of the body. Fishes also have certain special structures called fins that help ih movement from one place to another. During swimming, the front part of the body curves into one side and tail part remains on the opposite side. Thus a loop is formed. Fishes produce regular jerks by making such loops and pushes the body forward. Fins help to maintain balance and change directions while swimming.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Science Body Movements Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Name the animal which slithers on the ground.
(a) earthworm
(b) snail
(c) lizard
(d) snake.
Answer:
(d) snake

Question 2.
Rotation of an arm is due to:
(a) Hinge Joint
(b) Pivotal Joint
(c) Ball and Socket Joint
(d) Fixed Joint.
Answer:
(c) Ball and Socket Joint

Question 3.
Skull is made up of:
(a) many bones
(b) one bone
(c) three bones
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) many bones

Question 4.
Outer skeleton of snail is made up of:
(a) bones
(b) muscles
(c) none
(d) both.
Answer:
(b) muscles

Question 5.
A fish swims in the sea with help of :
(a) tail fin
(b) side fins
(c) muscles on the body
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Fill in the Blanks:

(a) We bend or rotate our body at ……………….
Answer:
Joints

(b) ……………… joint allows movements in all directions.
Answer:
Ball and Socket

(d) X-rays help to know the ……………. of the bones.
Answer:
shape

(e) Backbone, chest bone and ribs form a cage called ………………..
Answer:
rib cage

(f) Backbone is made up of many ……………. bones.
Answer:
Small

(g) The part of our body below stomach is enclosed by ………………..
Answer:
pelvic bones

(h) Skull protects the ……………………
Answer:
brain

(i) Cartilages are found in the …………… of the body.
Answer:
joints

(j) The movement of bones is due to …………… and ……………… of muscles.
Answer:
contraction, relaxation

(k) The body of earthworm is made up of many ……………… joined end to end.
Answer:
rings

(l) Snails move with the help of ………………..
Answer:
muscular foot

(m) The ………………. muscles move the wings when a cockroach flies.
Answer:
breast

(n) Snake moves forward in ……………… not in a straight line.
Answer:
loops

Write (T) against true and (F) against false statements:

(a) A snake jumps on the earth.
Answer:
False

(b) The hard structure of our body is muscle.
Answer:
False

(d) The pivot joint join head on the neck.
Answer:
True

(e) Bones in head are joined by movable joints.
Answer:
False

(f) Wrist is made of only single bone.
Answer:
False

(g) A long and hard structure at the back of body is back bone.
Answer:
True

(h) The upper part of ear has small bones in it.
Answer:
False

(i) Muscles work in pairs.
Answer:
True

(j) Fishes have a round body.
Answer:
False

Match the Column :

Match the items in Column A with items in Column B.

Column A	Column B
(1) Bone of forearm	cranium
(2) Join bone to bone	ulna
(3) Join bone to muscles	tibia
(4) Bone of leg	ligament
(5) Brain case	tendon
(6) Teeth and gum	scales in the body
(7) Snake	chest cage
(8) Ribs	immovable Joint
(9) Snail	fly in the air.
(10) Cockroach	slow movement.

Answer:
(1) Bone of forearm – ulna
(2) Join bone to bone – tendon
(3) Join bone to muscles – ligament
(4) Bone of leg – tibia
(5) Brain case – cranium
(6) Teeth and gum – cranium
(7) Snake – Scales in the body
(8) Ribs – chest cage
(9) Snail – slow movement
(10) Cockroac – fly in the air.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do plants move ?
Answer:
They sway with wind.

Question 2.
Name some movement of animals.
Answer:
Walk, Run, Fly, Jump, Creep, Crawl etc.

Question 3.
Which parts of human body move in one direction only ?
Answer:
Arm at elbow, leg at knee, Finger inside.

Question 4.
Can we move head to all sides ?
Answer:
No.

Question 5.
Which joint allow movement in all directions ?
Answer:
Ball and Socket joint.

Question 6.
By which joint neck and head are joined ?
Answer:
Pivotal Joint.

Question 7.
What is framework of body known as ?
Answer:
Skeleton.

Question 8.
The bone present at the back of body is made up of many small bones. What is its name ?
Answer:
Backbone.

Question 9.
Is there any bone in our ear ?
Answer:
No.

Question 10.
Name the book written by philosopher Aristotle ?
Answer:
Gait of Animals.

Question 11.
What are vertebrae ?
Answer:
Vertebrae. Vertebrae are small ring shaped bones.

Question 12.
What are floating ribs ?
Answer:
Floating Ribs : The last two pairs of ribs are free called floating ribs because they are attached to bone on one side only.

Question 13.
What is cell ?
Answer:
Cell. It is the smallest and functional unit of life.

Question 14.
What are tissues ?
Answer:
Tissue. A group of similar cells with same kind of function is called a tissue.

Question 15.
What are organs ?
Answer:
Organs. Various cells and tissues combine to form organs which do important body activities. Example : heart, lungs, stomach etc.

Question 16.
What is organ system ?
Answer:
Organ System. Several organs group together as a team to carry out major activities in the body called organ system.
For example : Digestive system comprises organs like mouth, food pipe, stomach, intestine, anus.

Question 17.
How bones differ from cartilages ?
Answer:
The hardest part of our skeleton is made up of bones while cartilages are comparatively soft and elastic.

Question 18.
What do you mean by a joint ?
Answer:
Joint. A place where two or more bones meet together is called a joint.

Question 19.
What are ligaments ?
Answer:
Ligament : Bones are held together at joints by strong cords called ligaments.

Question 20.
What are dislocations ?
Answer:
Dislocation : The bones at the joints dislodged from their normal position are called dislocations.

Question 21.
What are tendons ?
Answer:
Tendons. Muscles are attached to bones by tough cords called tendons.

Question 22.
Name the minerals used to make bones hard and strong.
Answer:
Calcium and phosphorus make the bones hard and strong.

Question 23.
Name the animals which do not have hard structure.
Answer:
The Jelly fishes, Leeches and worms have no hard structure to support their bodies.

Question 24.
Where do the following animals live
(i) Whale
(ii) Elephant
(iii) Frog
(iv) Fish.
Answer:
(i) Whale-In sea water
(ii) Elephant : Forest .
(iii) Frog : In water and on land.
(iv) Fish : River, pond, lake, sea.

Question 25.
Name the various parts of skeletal system.
Answer:
The skeletal system can be divided into following main parts :

Skull
Backbone
Limb bones
Chest bones
Shoulder bones
Hip bones.

Question 26.
Name the organs of locomotion of :
(i) Man
(ii) Birds
(iii) Fish.
Answer:
(i) Man : Legs
(ii) Birds : Wings
(iii) Fish : Fins.

Question 27.
How are bones joined together ?
Answer:
Bones are held together at joints by strong cords called ligaments.

Question 28.
How do fish move ?
Answer:
Fish move with the help of its tail and fins.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Ball and Socket Joint ? Give example.
Answer:
Ball and Socket Joint : In this joint, round end of one bone fits into the hollow space of other bone, thus allowing movement in all directions. Example : The joint between upper arm and the shoulder.

Question 2.
Write a short note on rib cage.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 1
Rib cage. In the upper part of body, there is a cage of bones. The chest bone, back bone and ribs join together to form a box called ribcage. It encloses the soft and important organs of the body.

Question 3.
Draw a neat diagram of Pelvic bones.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 2

Question 4.
Which other parts are found in skeleton besides bones ?
Answer:
Besides bones, cartilage, tendon are other parts of our skeleton.

Question 5.
What are the functions of back bone ?
Answer:
Functions of back bone :

It supports the body.
It helps in erect posture of body.
It helps in forming rib cage.
It provides protection to spinal cord.
It helps in bending of the body.
It helps in neck movements.

Question 6.
Why do animals move ?
Answer:
Animals move from one place to another in search of food. They also move to escape from their enemies.

Question 7.
Which movements are shown by a cockroach ? Which parts help in these movements.
Answer:
Movement of Cockroach. Cockroaches can walk, climb and fly in the air. Three pairs of legs help cockroaches in walking. Two pairs of wings attached to breasts help in flying.

Question 8.
How does a snake move ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 3
Movement of Snake. The snake curves its body into its many loops. Each loop gives a forward push by pressing against the ground. The number of loops help in quick movement of the snake.
Its movements are not in the straight line.

Question 9.
What is Skeletal System ?
Answer:
Skeletal System. The skeletal system is made up of many pieces of bones and cartilages. The bone is hard. Cartilages are comparatively soft and elastic. Both gives shape and structure to the body. It protects internal organs. It keeps the body erect and helps in movement of the body.

Question 10.
How many bones are there in human baby and human adult ?
Answer:
A human baby is bom with about 300 bones. Some of these gradually become inseparably united or fused and a human adult has 206 bones.

Question 11.
Name the parts of axial skeleton.
Answer:
It consists of bones of skull, vertebral column and chest

Question 12.
Write few lines on human skull. Also draw it.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 4
Human Skull. Human skull is made of many bones joined together. It encloses and protects a very important part of the body, the brain. The facial bones comprises the upper and lower jaw. The lower jaw is movable.
Fig. The Skull

Question 13.
What is backbone and also draw it ?
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 5
Backbone. The backbone extends from the base of the skull to the hip. It is made of 33 small bones called vertebrae. The rib cage is joined to these bones. The backbone , and strong back muscles help us to stand erect.

Question 14.
What are shoulder bones ? Which body part is attached with it ?
Answer:
Shoulder bones. The shoulder bone is formed by the collar bone and shoulder blade. It connects the upper part of the chest and bones of the hand. The bone of the upper arm attaches with the shoulder bones.

Question 15.
What is pelvis ? Which bones of the body are attached with it ?
Answer:
Pelvis. The hip bone is formed by the fusion of three bones. The hip bones together with the last two parts of backbone form a large bony bowel. It is called the Pelvis. It is the lowest and strongest part on which we sit. The thigh bones are attached to the hip bones.

Question 16.
Write about the bones of fore limb.
Answer:
Bones of fore limb. Fore limb includes Lie bones of upper arm, fore-arm, wrist, palm and fingers. Our palm consists of many small bones.

Question 17.
Give some examples of fixed and hinge joints.
Answer:
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 6
(i) The elbow has a hinge joint that allows only a back and forth movement. Our knee also has hinge joint.
(ii) Upper jaw and rest part of the head has a fixed joint.

Question 18.
What is pelvic and pectoral girdle ?
Answer:
Girdles are attached to the axial skeleton system and in turn gives support to the bones of the limbs.
Pectoral girdle. The girdle that supports the bones of arm is called pectoral girdle. It consists of two pairs of shoulder bones.

Pelvic girdle. The girdle into which the bones of legs are fitted, is called the pelvic girdle.

Question 19.
What do you mean by bone joints. Name two basic types of joints ?
Answer:
Joint. The place where two or more bones meet together is called a joint. Bones are held together at joints by strong cords called ligaments.
There are basically two types of joints :

Fixed or immovable joint
Movable joints.

Question 20.
What is dislocation and fracture ? What are its causes ?
Answer:
Dislocation. Any sudden movement – a jump, fall may cause an injury to the skeleton and dislocation occurs. In dislocation the bones at the joints are dislodged from their normal position. The ligaments may be tom apart or injured causing pain and swelling. A fracture is a case when bone breaks into one or many pieces.

Question 21.
Name the various organs where cartilages are found.
Answer:
Nose, Ear and various joints.

Question 22.
Write down the functions of skeleton.
Answer:
Functions of skeleton :

It supports the body and gives definite shape to it.
It helps to protect delicate and vital organs like heart, lungs and brain.
It helps in the movement of body parts.
It is a store of minerals and is the place for the formation of RBC cells.

Question 23.
Write down the functions of pectoral girdle.
Answer:
Functions of pectoral girdle

Provides support to the interior parts of the body.
Provides surface for articulation of forearms.
Provides surface for the attachment of muscles.
Provides protection to the vital organs like heart and lungs.

Question 24.
Write down the functions of pelvic girdle.
Answer:
Functions of pelvic girdle

Provides surface for articulation of hindlimbs.
Provides surface for joining of muscles.
Provides protection to the uterus.
Protects from shocks.

Question 25.
How do animals move ?
Answer:
There are two kinds of animal movements :
(i) In one kind of movement, the organisms move their body parts without changing their position. Example : sponges, corals and sea anemone show this kind of movements.

(ii) In other kind of movement, the animals move from place to place. This kind of movement is called locomotion. It helps the animal to escape from their enemies as well as helps them to search food.

Question 26.
How do birds fly ?
Answer:
The birds can fly because their bodies are well suited for flying. The body is streamlined. The bones have air spaces to make them strong and light. The bony parts of the forelimbs are modified as wings. The breast muscles are modified to hold massive muscles of flight which are used to move the wings up and down .

Question 27.
How do fish move about ?
Answer:
Fish has certain special structures called fins that help in its movement from one place to another. During swimming, the front part of the body curves in one side and tail part remains in the opposite side.

It forms a loop. This makes a jerk and pushes the body forward. A series of such jerks make the fish swim ahead.

Question 28.
How does a snail move ?
Answer:
Snails move slowly with the help of a flat foot. The foot glides with the help of muscles. The foot is present under the belly. So, it looks as if it is moving on its belly. The movement of snail is very slow.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do muscles help in movement of bones ?
Answer:
Muscles on contraction become smaller in length and bulge outside. This contraction and relaxation property of muscles is the basis of movement of bones.

Muscles work in pair. When one of them contracts, it pulls the bone in that direction in which it is bulged. The other muscle relaxes. Now to bring back the bone to original position, the relaxing muscles contracts and contracting muscle relaxes. In this way the bones move.
PSEB 6th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements 7

Question 2.
What are joints ? Name different types of joints. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
Joint. A place where two bones meet is called joint.
The joints are held together by stong tissues called ligaments. Joints may be movable or immovable (fixed) in a body. Different movable joints in the body are :

Hinge joint
Ball and Socket joint
Pivot joint
Gliding joint.

Fixed joints (Immovable). The attachements in which bones do not allow movements is a fixed joint e.g. Bones of skull are attached with fixed joints.

Ball and Socket joint. In this attachment the round end of one bone fits into the hollow space of other bone. This joint allows movement in all directions e.g. arm and leg joints.

Question 3.
Explain movement in earthworms.
Answer:
Movement in earthworm:
The body of an earthworm is made up of many rings joined together. These rings are connected with muscles that help to extend or shorten the body.

During movement, the earthworm extends the front part of the body while its rear portion is fixed to the ground. Then it fixes the front part and releases the rear part. Then it shortens its body and repeats the whole process. A body’s secretion helps in its movements.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 3 Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Physical Education Chapter 3 Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey

Physical Education Guide for Class 6 PSEB Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When was Major Dhyan Chand Born?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was born on 29 August 1905 at Allahabad in the house of father Sameshwar Dutt.

Question 2.
When did Indian hockey team participate for the first time in the Olympic games? Which medal was won by Indian team in these games?
Answer:
In 1928, the Indian team participated in Amesterdom Olympic Games for the first time and also won the gold medal in it.

Question 3.
Describe any one episode related to Major Dhyan Chand’s life.
Answer:
There are many legends about this great player. Once in Holland, the authorities broke Dhyan Chand’s hockey stick to check if there was any magnet like element inside it. Actually Dhyan Chand had a great control on ball. His ball did not separate from his stick. Many people believed that his hockey stick was a magical stick. Dhyan Chand won the heart of German Dictator Hitler. Hitler even had offered a high post in German army, but Dhyan Chand declined the offer and felt proud to play only for India.

Question 4.
hen and where did Major Dhyan Chand play his first International match?
Answer:
He played his first International match in New Zealand on 13th May, 1926. In New Zealand 21 matches were played. India won 18 matches, out of these.

Question 5.
In which country Major Dhyan Chand’s statue is installed?
Answer:
Statue of Dhyan Chand was placed in Biana at Australia. This statue was made with four hands and one hockey stick is put in each hand.

Question 6.
Write a brief note about Major Dhyan Chand’s life.
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was bom on 29th August, 1905 at Allahabad in the house of father Sameshwar Dutt. Dhyan Chand’s father & elder brother were also prominent players of hockey. Thus Dhyan Chand received his game in heritage. He was a famous player of hockey in India. He brought laurels for India at World level. He won gold and silver medals on International level in the field of sports. His father worked in British Indian Army.

Major Dhyan Chand joined army as the soldier at a age of t sixteen. There a Subedar Major Tiwari motivated him to play hockey. Major Dhyan Chand used to practise hockey with great dedication after his duty hours in the evening till late night in the moonlight. He participated in sports competitions of army from 1922 to 1926. Dhyan Chand’s game was highly appreciated during the annual sports competition in Delhi. The appreciation boosted Dhyan Chand’s spirit high. He played his first International match in Newzealand on 13th May, 1926. In New Zealand 21 matches were played, India won 18 matches out of these.

Question 7.
What efforts have been done by the Indian government dedicated to the memory of Major Dhyan Chand?
Answer:

Indian government recognized Dhyan Chand’s wonderful game skill & honoured him with “Padam Bhushan” in 1956.
Dhyan’s birthday is celebrated as National Sports Day in India with great pomp & show.
The Indian postal service had even issued a postage stamp in his memory.
International Stadium at New Delhi has been named after him in his memory.

PSEB 6th Class Physical Education Guide Major Dhyan Chand-The Magician of Hockey Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When Major Dhyan Chand was born?
(A) 1905
(B) 1910
(C) 1912
(D) 1916.
Answer:
(A) 1905

Question 2.
When did Indian hockey team participate for the first time in the Olympic games?
(A) 1928
(B) 1932
(C) 1936
(D) Never.
Answer:
(A) 1928

Question 3.
When and where did Major Dhyan Chand play his first International Match?
(A) 1926 Newzealand
(B) 1928 Koser
(C) 1932 England
(D) All above.
Answer:
(A) 1926 Newzealand

Question 4.
In which country Major Dhyan Chand’s statue is installed?
(A) In Biana at Australia
(B) America
(C) Newzealand
(D) All above.
Answer:
(A) In Biana at Australia

Question 5.
Which awards were given to Major Dhyan Chand by the Govt, of India?
(A) Padam Bhushan in 1956.
(B) Dock ticket was released on his name.
(C) International Stadium at his name in New Delhi.
(D) All above.
Answer:
(D) All above.

Question 6.
Major Dhyan Chand was attached with which game?
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Cricket
(D) Badminton.
Answer:
(B) Hockey

Question 7.
Dhyan Chand started playing hockey in which place?
(A) At home
(B) In Military
(C) School
(D) College.
Answer:
(B) In Military

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Major Dhyan Chand was attached with which game?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was attached with Hockey.

Question 2.
Dhyan Chand started playing Hockey in which place?
Answer:
Dhyan Chand started playing Hockey in Army.

Question 3.
Who is called the magician of Hockey?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand.

Question 4.
When was Dhyan Chand Born?
Answer:
Dhyan Chand was bom on 29 August, 1905 at Allahabad.

Question 5.
What was his father’s name?
Answer:
His father’s name was Sameshwar Dutt.

Question 6.
His elder brother was also hockey player or not?
Answer:
Yes, his elder brother ‘Roop Singh’ was also a good player of hockey.

Question 7.
In which place Major’s father did his job?
Answer:
He did job in British India Army.

Question 8.
Major started job of army in which age?
Answer:
At the age of 16 years.

Question 9.
Dhyan Chand first participated in which International match?
Answer:
13 May, 1926 at New Zealand.

Question 10.
In which Olympics he participated first?
Answer:
In 1928, at Amesterdom.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did Major Dhyan Chand born and died?
Answer:
Major Dhyan Chand was bom on 29 August, 1905 in Allahabad and he died on 3 December, 1979.

Question 2.
Major Dhyan’Chand did how many goals against another teams?
Answer:
He did 1000 goals.

Question 3.
How many goals Major Dhyan Chand did in International matches?
Answer:
He did 400 goals in International matches.

Question 4.
What did Hitler offer to Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
Hittler offered him to play as a team member of Germany.

Question 5.
What question was asked by Bradman to Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
He said that how you could do so many goals by hockey.

Question 6.
After awarded Padam Bhushan award Indian Olympic Association gave which award to Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
Shtabdi of Sarvotam player.

Question 7.
Statue of Dhyan Chand is installed in which country?
Answer:
In Australia.

Question 8.
Why Dhyan Chand’s hockey was broken?
Answer:
Te see if it was magical stick or not.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the story attached to the life of Dhyan Chand.
Answer:
Even great cricketer Don Bradman became Dhyan Chand’s fan. He asked Dhyan Chand how he scored so many goals? Dhyan Chand
answered him that as he made runs by cricket bat, similarly goals are scored by a hockey stick.

Question 2.
What things got Dhyan Chand in his life?
Answer:
Indian Government recognized Dhyan Chand’s wonderful game skill & honoured him with “Padam Bhushan” in 1956. He was declared the best player of the century by the Indian Olympic Association. 29 August, Chand’s birthday is celebrated as National Sports Day in India with great pomp & show. A statue of Dhyan Chand has been set up in Vienna, Australia to honour him. This statue has four hands holding four sticks. This statue is a symbol of his marvellous skills of his game. He also won a lot of gold & silver medals.

Question 3.
Dhyan Chand play first international match in which state? In 1928 he participated in which Olympic game?
Answer:
He played his first international match in New Zealand on 13th May, 1926. In 1928, the Indian team participated in Amesterdom Olympic Games for the first time. Indian team after winning initial matches defeated Australia by 6-0, Beligum 9-0, Denmark 5-0, Switzerland 6-0 & Holland 3-0 in final match & India emerged as a hockey champion of Olympic games. In this final match two goals out of three were exclusively scored by Dhyan Chand.

Question 4.
Write the achievements of Dhyan Chand in 1932 Olympics.
Answer:
Dhyan Chand played’a crucial role as a centre forward player. In these Olympic games the final match was played between India and America. In which India defeated America team by 24-1. Among these 24 goals, Dhyan Chand alone scored 8. An American newspaper after the shameful defeat of America wrote that Indian team was a typhoon that came from East. Indian team scored 262 goals during these Olympic games. Dhyan Chand scored 101 goals alone. Major Dhyan Chand’s name was included among the top most players of the world.

Question 5.
Write two lines about the family of Dhyan Chand?
Answer:
Dhyan Chand was bom in 29 August, 1905 at Allahabad. His father’s name was Sameshwar Dutt and his elder brother was Roop Singh. His brother was also a famous player of hockey. Dhyan Chand received his game as a heritage. His father worked in Indian Army. He participated in Olympic & Asian games and won so many awards. In this way the whole family was related with Hockey.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 1 Earth – As a Member of Solar System

January 10, 2024January 9, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 1 Earth – As a Member of Solar System Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Earth – As a Member of Solar System

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB Earth – As a Member of Solar System Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief :

Question 1.
What do you mean by the Universe? Enlist the different forms of the Universe.
Answer:
The Universe is a vast and infinite space having millions of galaxies.

Composition of Universe

It consists of the sun, the planets, the earth, the moon, stars, dust particles, gases, etc. It is so large that one can’t estimate its size.

Forms of the Universe.The galaxy, milky way, planets, satellites, asteroids, comets, meteors and meteorites are the different forms of the Universe.

Question 2.
What is a planet? Is our earth a planet? How?
Answer:
A planet is a celestial (heavenly) body which draws heat and light from the sun and also revolves around it.The word ‘planet’ comes from the Greek word ‘planetai’ which means wanderer (moving thing). Planets are opaque bodies and reflect the Sun’s light.

Yes, our earth is a planet. It gets heat and light from the sun and moves around it in a particular direction in the space. There are eight planets.

Question 3.
What do you understand by Solar System?
Answer:
The sun and, the eight planets which revolve around it make up the Solar System. In addition to the eight planets, there are 63 satellites in the Solar System. The Solar System is also known as the Family of the Sun. The sun is the centre of solar system. Sol in Roman mythology means Sun God.

The eight planets in the order of their distance from the Sun.

Question 4.
Enlist the distance of planets from the sun. Also tell which planet is far away and which is nearest.
Answer:
There are eight planets. As per their distance from the sun, they are :

Mercury,
Venus,
Earth,
Mars,
Jupiter,
Saturn,
Uranus,
Neptune.

Of these planets, Neptune is the farthest and Mercury is the nearest.

Question 5.
Enlist planets according to the size of planets.
Answer:
In ascending order, the sizes of planets are as follows :

Mercury,
Mars,
Venus,
Earth,
Neptune,
Uranus,
Saturn,
Jupiter.

Question 6.
Which facts do you know that tell us the shape and size of the earth?
Answer:

Shape of the Earth: The earth is not flat, it is round in shape. It is like a very big ball.
Size of the Earth: As far as size of the earth is concerned, it ranks fifth among the planets. It is smaller than Jupiter and Saturn. Its diameter is 12,756 km. Its circumference is 40,000 km. On poles its diameter is 12,712 km. It means that its diameter on the poles is lesser by 44 km than the equator.

Question 7.
Write notes on the following :
(а) Planet
Answer:
Planet: A planet is a gaseous ball that moves around the sun. It moves in a particular direction in the space. It has no heat or light of its own. It receives heat and light from the sun. There are eight known planets.

(b) Meteors
Answer:
Meteors: Meteors are also known as Shooting Stars. They are small bodies which come from inter-planetary space. When they enter the earth’s surface, they get fire by friction. As a result, a lot of light appears trailing,. These are called meteors.

(c) Sphere
Answer:
Sphere: The earth has two ends. Northern end is known as Northern Pole and southern end is called Southern Pole.

(d) Equator
Answer:
Equator: Equator is an imaginary line that runs east to west in the centre of the earth. It divides the earth into two equal halves.

(e) Tailed Star
Answer:
Tailed Star: A comet is called a tailed star. It is trailed by a long tail of light.

(f) Axle/Axis
Answer:
Axle/Axis: Axle/Axis is an imaginary line that passes through and joins Northern Pole and Southern Pole of the earth.

(g) Asteroids
Answer:
Asteroids: Asteroids are small planets which revolve around the sun. They lie between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

(h) Lunar Eclipse.
Answer:
Lunar Eclipse: The earth revolves around the sun and the moon moves around the earth. During their revolution, when the earth comes between the sun and the moon, it casts its shadow on the moon. It is called Lunar Eclipse.

II. Fill in the blanks in the following :

Question 1.
Our earth is a flat sphere, therefore it is called ____________
Answer:
an oblate spheroid

Question 2.
The circumference of the earth is ____________ km.
Answer:
40,000

Question 3.
The diameter of earth on equator is ____________ km and diameter of earth at poles is km.
Answer:
12,756, 12,712.

III. Activity (Something To Do)

Question 1.
Show the planets according to the distance from the Sun.
Answer:

S.No. Planet	Distance from the Sun (million kms)
1. Mercury	58 (The nearest)
2. Venus	108
3. Earth	150
4. Mars	226
5. Jupiter	778
6. Saturn	1427
7. Uranus	2870
8. Neptune	4496 (The farthest)

Question 2.
Enlist the planets according to their size.
Answer:

S. No. Planet	Size
1. Jupiter	1st (The largest)
2. Saturn	2nd
3. Uranus	3rd
4. Neptune	4th
5. Earth	5th
6. Venus	6th
7. Mars	7th
8. Mercury	8th (The smallest)

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide Earth – As a Member of Solar System Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which is the nearest planet to the sun?
(A) Neptune
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Earth.
Answer:
(C) Mercury.

Question 2.
The tilting of earth is responsible for :
(A) Change of the days
(B) Change of the sunrays
(C) Change of the seasons
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(C) Change of the seasons.

Question 3.
Stars appear to move from :
(A) West to East
(B) East to West.
(C) North to South
(D) South to West
Answer:
(B) East to West.

Question 4.
What are the tiny bodies between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter called?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Meteor
(D) Meleorities
Answer:
(A) Asteroids.

Question 5.
Which is the largest planet in solar system?
(A) Mercury
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn.
Answer:
(C) Jupiter.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
____________ planet appears to be yellowish.
Answer:
Saturn

Question 2.
____________ study the space and travel.
Answer:
Astronauts

Question 3.
Group of shining stars is called ____________
Answer:
Constellation

Question 4.
____________ is a group of seven stars.
Answer:
Saptarishi

Question 5.
____________ is called a tailed star.
Answer:
A comet.

True/False :

Question 1.
There are 7 planets in our solar system.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The universe includes the sun, satellites, planets, stars etc.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Geoid means sunlike shape.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Moon is a natural satellite of the earth.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The earth has a circumference of 40000 km.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Geoid?
Answer:
Geoid means earth like shape.

Question 2.
Who are astronauts?
Answer:
Astronauts are the persons who study the space and travel in the space. Kalpna Chawla was an astronaut of Indian origin.

Question 3.
Why does the sun appear big to us?
Answer:
The sun appears big to us because it is nearest to the earth.

Question 4.
What do you understand by constellation?
Answer:
A group of shining stars is called constellation.

Question 5.
What is Saptarishi?
Answer:
Saptarishi is a group of seven stars, which appears like a Great Bear.

Question 6.
Which planets rotate in a different direction than our earth?
Answer:
Venus and Uranus rotate in a different direction than our earth.

Question 7.
What is the name of the star nearest to earth?
Answer:
The sun is the star nearest to earth.

Question 8.
How much time does the light of the sun take to reach the earth?
Answer:
It takes eight minutes to reach the earth.

Question 9.
What is the distance between the sun and the earth?
Answer:
The distance between the sun and the earth is 15 crore kms.

Question 10.
What is Akash Ganga or Milky Way?
Answer:
Akash Ganga or Milky Way is a part of galaxy consisting of a million of stars and planets.

Question 11.
Name the largest and the smallest planets.
Answer:
Jupiter is the largest and Neptune is the smallest planet.

Question 12.
Name the planets which have no satellites.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus.

Question 13.
How much time does the moon take to complete one cycle around the earth and its own axis?
Answer:
27 days and 7 hours.

Question 14.
After whose name has the Comet Halley been named?
Answer:
Comet Halley has been named after the astronomer of England ‘Almond Halley’.

Question 15.
What are spheroids?
Answer:
The spheres of the earth which are flat on the top and bottom are called spheroids.

Question 16.
Name the four planets which are bigger than the earth.
Answer:
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is the earth called a blue planet?
Answer:
Astronauts, who have seen the earth from space, say that the earth appears blue in colour. It is due to the presence of water. Therefore, the earth is called a blue planet.

Question 2.
What is the distance of the earth from sun and from the moon?
Answer:

Earth from sun-1,50 million kms.
Earth from moon-3,84,400 kms.

Thus the distance of earth from the sun is about 40 times more than that from the moon.

Question 3.
Why do we see only one side of the moon?
Answer:
The moon revolves around the earth in 27 days and 7 hours.
It takes exactly the same time in completing one rotation about its axis. As such, we see only one side of the moon while the other side always remains away from us.

Question 4.
Describe the composition of the Solar System.
Answer:
The Solar System is composed of the sun and the eight planets which revolve around it. The sun is the creator of the planets.

The planets are named after Greek gods and goddesses. In addition, there are in all 63 satellites or moons in the Solar System.

Question 5.
What is meant by a satellite? How many satellites are there in the Solar System?
Answer:
The word ‘satellite’ means a smaller companion to anything.
There are 63 satellites in the Solar System. The satellites revolve j around their planets and also follow them in their revolution around the sun. For example, the moon is the satellite of the earth which moves around the earth and also around the sun along with the earth.

Question 6.
Tell the main physical conditions prevalent on the moon.
Answer:
The moon has rugged and barren surface. There is no air or water on the moon. It is very hot during the day and very cold during the night.

Question 7.
What are Novae?
Answer:
Novae are stars which seem to appear out of nowhere and later disappear. They are also known as new stars. Today, we know a truly new star does not appear and only a dim star suddenly brightens up.

Question 8.
Why do the stars twinkle?
Answer:
The light from the stars travels through different layers of space. Therefore, the light rays deviate from its original path. Further, these rays are not stationary but keep on moving. This leads to the twinkling effect of the stars.

Question 9.
State some characteristics of celestial bodies.
Answer:

They are very big and hot.
These are made up of gases.
These have their own heat and light.
These are numerous.
These are very away from us and look tiny.

Question 10.
What is a Tailed Star?
Answer:
Comets are called Tailed Stars. These are clusters of gases and dust. The comet is trailed by a long tail of light. That is why it is called a Tailed Star.

Question 11.
What is Halley’s comet?
Answer:
Halle/s comet is a narrow loop-like comet. This star appears after a gap of 76 years, It last appeared in the sky in 1956.

Question 12.
What are shooting stars?
Answer:
Meteors and Meteorites are called shooting stars. When these enter the atmosphere, the matter gets fire. So these are called shooting stars. Half burnt meteors are called Meteorites. Arizona (USA) crator is formed due to falling of a meteorite.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the place of the earth in the Solar System?
Answer:
The earth is the third nearest planet to the sun. It lies between Venus and Mars and is the fifth largest planet. It has an equatorial diameter of 12,756 km and a polar diameter of 12,712 km. Its circumference is 40, 000 km. It is the only planet in the Solar System where life is possible. Water and air support all forms of life on the earth.

Question 2.
What do you know about the moon?
Answer:
The moon is the only satellite of the earth. It is over one quarter size of the earth. Its diameter is 3,476 km. It is also the nearest neighbour of the earth. It is at a mean distance of 3,84,000 km centre to centre and 3,76,284 km surface to surface. Its average orbital speed is 3,680 km per hour.

The moon revolves round the earth. Its position in relation to the sun changes every day, as it reflects the light of the sun.

Various phases of the moon

Question 3.
Distinguish between a star and a planet.
Answer:

Star	Planet
1. Stars are heavenly bodies shining by their own heat and light.	1. Planets are opaque heavenly bodies which reflect the light of the sun.
2. Millions of stars, scattered in space, occur in clusters.	2. Nine planets revolve around the sun.
3. Stars emit a large amount of heat and light.	3. Planets reflect the light of the sun.
4. Stars twinkle due to radiation of their heat and light.	4. Planets do not twinkle.

Question 4.
Distinguish between a planet and a satellite.
Answer:

Planet	Satellite
1. Planet receives heat and light from the sun.	1. They have no light of their own.
2. These are spherical in shape.	2. These are small bodies.
3. There are 8 planets in our solar system.	3. There are 110 Satellites.
4. A planet means a wanderer.	4. A satellite means a companion.

Question 5.
Why is the earth called a unique planet?
Answer:
The earth is a unique planet because it is the only planet having life for animals and plants. It is a unique planet due to the ahead reasons :

The presence of Oxygen and Nitrogen in the atmosphere around the earth favours the existence of life on the earth.
Water cycle on the earth provides water for all living beings. No other planet of the solar system has water.
The earth is neither too hot nor too cold. Moderate temperatures favour life on the earth. It has suitable temperatures for life.
Ozone layer protects us from harmful solar rays (ultra-violet rays).

Question 6.
Why do we see only one side of the Moon always?
Answer:
The Moon is a satellite of the Earth.

It moves around the Sun along with the Earth.
It takes 27 days to revolve around the earth.
It takes exactly the same time to complete one rotation about its axis.
That is why we can see only one side of the Moon. The other side always remains away from us.
The places on the moon correspond to places on earth always.