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PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 26 Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ Fundamental Rights has been included in the Constitution of India.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
The Fundamental Rights are included in Article of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
14-32

Question 3.
Article 25 of Constitution prohibits _______
Answer:
discrimination

Question 4.
The first fundamental right is _______
Answer:
Right to Equality

Question 5.
Freedom of Press has been given under _______
Answer:
Right to Freedom.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗):

Question 1.
We all are equal before the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is no relation between Right and the Duty.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Judiciary is the defender of the fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Right to education is a fundamental right.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Admission can be denied in a government institution on the basis of Religion, Caste and Colour.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
From which class is the right to free and compulsory Education Implemented.
(A) Fifth
(B) Eight
(C) Tenth
(D) Eleventh.
Answer:
(A) Fifth.

Question 2.
Under which right to the selling of man prohibited.
(A) Right to provision of Constitution
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(C) Right against exploitation.

Question 3.
Since when is the Right to Education has been implemented in India.
(A) August 4, 2009
(B) December, 2002
(C) 1st April, 2010
(D) 1st April, 2009.
Answer:
(C) 1st April; 2010.

Question 4.
Under which Article of the Constitution does the Right to Education fall 0?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 21-A
(C) Article 20
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(B) Article 21-A.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
What is meant by rights?
Answer:
Rights are the facilities given to us by society. In simple words, rights are those conditions of social life which are necessary for all-round development of an individual. Rights are sanctioned by state and society.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of Primary Right.
Answer:
Primary rights are the rights which are required by all the citizens of a country to live a happy and better life. There are very much necessary for all round development of an individual.

Question 3.
Write two duties connected with any two rights.
Answer:

To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. Cultural and educational right.
To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 4.
What is meant by the Right to the Provision of the Constitution?
Or
What is meant by right against Exploitation?
Answer:
This right says that if any one, even government, tries to take away one’s fundamental rights then he can approach the court to take back his right. In this case court will direct the authorities to guarantee his rights.

Question 5.
By which rule has the untouchability been done away with?
Answer:
Untouchability has been done away with Article 17 of the Constitution.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Write a short note on the Right to Education.
Answer:
Right to Education has been given to all the citizens. An Article 21A has been added in the Fundamental rights. Now every child has been given the right to get free and compulsory education between the age group of 6 to 14. An act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2009 to provide free and compulsory education for the children in the age group of 6-14 years. This law is implemented in 2010.

Question 2.
Why fundamental rights are included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Some rights are necessary for the physical, mental, moral and cultural development of the person. All-round development of the person is not possible without these. They are known as Fundamental Rights. These rights are included in the Constitution to give guarantee of these rights of the citizens. Not only this but these rights are given the security through the Right of Constitutional Remedies. If state or any person violates these rights, the victim can take shelter of the court.

Question 3.
‘Right and Duties are the sheep of the coin flock’. How?
Answer:
Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Both these supplement each other. Right without duties and duties without rights are meaningless. Therefore, it is usually said that the rights of a citizen are duties of the others. If we enjoy our rights but do not perform our duties, it will mean that we are denying the rights to other citizens. For example, a citizen has the right to defend his life, therefore, it is his duty that he should not harm others. Therefore it is very clear that rights and duties are closely related.

Question 4.
Explain the Right against Exploitation.
Or
What is meant by right against exploitation?
Answer:
Poor people, women and children, in our society, are being exploited from the ages. So to remove this thing, a system of rights against exploitation has been kept in the Constitution.

According to this :

Trade of humans and taking work without paying salary has been highly restricted. Violater of this rule can be punished by law.
Children of age of less than 14 years cannot be employed in factories, mines or in risky jobs. Actually they cannot be used in any such work which could create obstacle in their development.

Question 5.
How can be defend the Fundamental Right?
Answer:
Right of religious freedom has been implemented in our Constitution in following way :

Every one has the right to adopt any religion, to propagate his religion and to worship his religion.
People are free to Jstablish religious and welfare institutions, and can run their administration.
No citizen will be forced to pay such tax whose objective will be propaganda of any specific religion.
Students in educational institutions will not be forced to take education of any particular religion.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental rights are given?
(a) Part-III
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part-VI.
Answer:
(a) Part-III.

Question 2.
Under which articles the fundamental rights are given?
(a) 13-36
(b) 12-36
(c) 14-32
(d) 14-40.
Answer:
(c) 14-32

Question 3.
Originally how many fundamental rights were give in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight.
Answer:
(c) Seven.

Question 4.
Presently how many fundamental rights are given to the Indian citizens?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight.
Answer:
(b) Six.

Question 5.
Which right is given under Articles 14-18?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Cultural and Educational Right.
Answer:
(a) Right to Equality.

Question 6.
Which right is given under Articles 14-18?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Freedom.
Answer:
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 7.
In which part of the Constitution, the Directive principle of State Policy are given?
(a) Part-III
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part-VI.
Answer:
(b) Part-IV.

Question 8.
In which part of the Constitution, Fundamental Duties are given?
(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-V A
(c) Part-VI A
(d) Part VII A.
Answer:
(a) Part-IV A.

Question 9.
This right was given in 2002 through 86th constitutional Amendment. An Act was passed in 2009 to implement it. It was implement in April 2010. Which of the following is this right? (From Board M.Q.P.)
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Life
(d) Right to Equality.
Answer:
(a) Right to Information.

Question 10.
Jaiveer takes work from his employee Ravi at his tailoring shop from 8 a.m. to 8 p.m. which right of Ravi is violated.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Educational Right
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion.
Answer:
(b) Right against Exploitation.

Question 11.
Raminder works in a tailoring shop. He works from 8 a.m. to 9 p.m. but he does not get enough money. Which of his following right is violated?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Freedom.
Answer:
(a) Right against Exploitation.

Question 12.
When Indian Constitution was made, citizens were given seven fundamental rights but now they are six in number. Which one of the following rights people do not enjoy right now?
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Property
(d) Right to Information.
Answer:
(c) Right to Property.

Question 13.
Ram Singh was arrested by the police without any reason. Which of his following right is violated?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right Against Exploitation
(d) Right to Life.
Answer:
(b) Right to Freedom.

Question 14.
This was added in the Constitution in 1978 through 44th Constitutional Amendment:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Powers of President
(d) Powers of Prime Minister.
Answer:
(b) Fundamental Duties.

Question 15.
If any one’s rights are violated then with which right, his rights can be given back?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right to Religious Freedom.
Answer:
(b)Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_______ fundamental rights were added in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
seven

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given from _______ to _______ articles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
14, 32

Question 3.
Article 25 of gives us _______
Answer:
Right to freedom of religion

Question 4.
First fundamental right is _______
Answer:
Right to equality

Question 5.
Freedom of Press is given under _______
Answer:
Right to Freedom.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) answer:

Question 1.
Everyone is equal in front of law.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
There is no relation of rights and the duties.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Judiciary protects fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Right to education is a fundamental right.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
Anyone can be denied admission in educational institution on the basis of caste, colour, race, gender etc.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Rights	(i) Given in the Constitution
2. Fundamental Rights	(ii) Demands of Humans
3. Right to Freedom	(iii) To go to Judiciary
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies	(iv) To Express Opinion

Answer:

A	B
1. Rights	(ii) Demands of Humans
2. Fundamental Rights	(i) Given in the Constitution
3. Right to Freedom	(iv) To Express Opinion
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies	(iii) To go to Judiciary

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which articles of the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights are included? On what basis they are included?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are given from Article 14 to 32 of the Indian Constitution. These rights are included in the Indian Constitution on the basis of the Constitution of United States of America.

Question 2.
What is meant by Human Rights?
Answer:
Those rights are known as human rights which make the human life a better one. These rights help the person to live a respectful life.

Question 3.
What is Right of Equality?
Answer:
Right of Equality is a very important fundamental right. According to it, all citizens are equal in front of law. There shall be no discrimination with any citizen on the basis of his wealth, colotir, caste, creed, religion, race, etc.

Question 4.
Which duty is associated with the right of religion?
Answer:
We should not criticise any religion or religious place to maintain our right of religion. Our duty is to give respect to every religion.

Question 5.
What has been written in Articles 15 and 25 of the Constitution to maintain the right of equality?
Answer:

According to Article 15 of the Constitution, there shall be no discrimination with any citizen on the basis of religion, caste, sex and race.
According to Article 25 of the Constitution, discrimination with any person on the basis of religion is prohibited.

Question 6.
What is the literal meaning of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are those rights of citizens which are given in the Constitution of the country. They are given security through constitutional remedies. These rights are necessary for all-round development of a person.

Question 7.
How many fundamental rights are there in our Constitution?
Answer:
Six Fundamental Rights are given in the Constitution.

Question 8.
What is the relationship between rights and duties?
Answer:
Rights and duties are closely related to each other. They are the two sides of a same coin. One man’s right is other man’s duty. Actually rights are meaningless without duties.

Question 9.
Mention duties associated with any of the two rights.
Answer:

Every one is equal before the law. So it is our duty not to discriminate with any one.
We have the right of freedom of different types. The duty which is associated with this right is that we should take care about freedom of others.

Question 10.
What do you mean by right of the Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
According to the right of Constitutional Remedies, fundamental rights of any person cannot be snatched by the state. If fundamental rights of any person are violated then that person can take the help of the court to get back his rights.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain cultural and educational rights and duties associated with it.
Answer:
Citizens have the right to secure their language, script and the culture. No citizen can be restricted, on the basis of language or race, to take admission ih those educational institutions which are running with the help of government aid.

So it is our duty to respect this right. We should not restrict any one to take admission in government’s educational institution. In fact, we should respect all the scripts, cultures, languages and religions. No discrimination shall be made while giving financial aid to any institution.

Question 2.
Explain any four Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
Answer:

Right of Freedom: Indian citizens are free to move anywhere, to express their views and to adopt any occupation.
Religious Freedom: Indian citizens are free to adopt any religion and to leave any religion. They can establish and run their religious institutions as well.
Right of Education: Indian citizens are given the right to read any language and to secure their culture and script.
Right of Equality: All the citizens are given the right of equality. Every type of discrimination has been eliminated. Any person can achieve higher post with the help of his ability.

Question 3.
Mention the Fundamental Rights incorporated in our Constitution.
Answer:
The following Fundamental Rights are incorporated in the Constitution :

Right of Equality
Right of Freedom
Right against Exploitation
Right of Religious Freedom
Cultural and Educational Right
Right of Constitutional Remedies.

Scope of Right of Education became wider through a constitutional amendment in Dec. 2002.

Question 4.
Does our country still discriminate on the basis of caste, creed, colour or religion?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has eliminated every type of discrimination, on the basis of religion, colour, caste, creed, etc from our society. But actually it has not been able to eliminate this discrimination from our society. Even today people of higher castes and classes hate other castes and classes. People of lower castes are badly treated by people of higher castes. So, it is necessary to take some special steps. People should be told about the laws made against such discrimination. These laws should be strictly implemented.

Question 5.
Why is it that till today our society discriminates against people on the basis of caste, colour, creed, or religion? How can we remove this from our society?
Answer:
It is right that people in our society are still discriminated against on the basis of caste, colour, or religion. It is so because this thing is going on for ages and our minds are set in a way that we don’t want change in this aspect. We always talk about equality but practically we don’t do anything to remove discrimination. If we move into the interiors of the country this process is continually going on. This process could be removed by making strict laws, changing our mindsets, and making people aware of their rights. If this could be done then discrimination can be removed from our society.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

January 27, 2024January 25, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Democracy: Meaning and Importance

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Democracy: Meaning and Importance Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
According to “Democracy is a government in which everyone has a share.”
Answer:
Sealey.

Question 2.
The word Democracy has been derived from two Greek words ________ and ________
Answer:
Demos, Croatia.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following conditions apply for the success of democracy?
(i) Enlightened citizens
(ii) literate citizens
(iii) Universal adult franchise
(iv) Above all.
Answer:
(iv) Above all.

Question 2.
Etymological meaning of democracy is :
(i) Rule of one man
(ii) Bureaucracy
(iii) Military dictatorship
(iv) Rule of people.
Answer:
(iv) Rule of people.

III. Read the statements carefully and write True/False against every statement:

Question 1.
There is no liberty to express different opinion in democracy.
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Democracy clearly condemns use of means of violence although it may be used for the welfare of society.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
In democracy citizens are entitled different types of rights.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Awareness of citizens is essential for democracy.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain Etymological meaning of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is made of two Greek words ; Demos and Cratia. The meaning of Demos is people and of Cratia is rule. So its literal meaning is ‘rule of people’.

Question 2.
Why democratic form of government is popular?
Answer:

It gives its citizens the right to express their views.
In this, people have the participate in electing their government.

Question 3.
Write any two hurdles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
Regionalism, Casteism, Communalism are hurdles in the way of democracy.

Question 4.
Give any one definition of democracy.
Answer:
According to Dicey, “Democracy is a form of government in which the governing body to comparatively a large fraction of the entire nation.”

Question 5.
Mention any two conditions essential for democracy.
Answer:
Political freedom and economic equality are the two conditions essential for democracy.

Question 6.
Write any two principal of democracy.
Answer:

In democracy, people have the right to express their ideas.
Democracy is based on the principal of tolerance.

Question 7.
What is the source of power in a democracy?
Answer:
People are the source of power in a democracy.

Question 8.
Which are the two forms of democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is of two types-direct:

Democracy and
Indirect democracy.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain any two conditions for the success of democracy.
Answer:

Political freedom: For the success of democracy, people must have political freedom. They must have the right to speech, to form association, to express ideas and to criticise wrong policies of the government.
Moral Characters: To make democracy a success, people must have high moral character. If people and leaders will be corrupt then democracy will not be able to successfully do its work.

Question 2.
How poverty is a threat to democracy? Describe in brief.
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that poverty is an obstacle in the way of successful democracy. First of all people do not caste their vote because its more important for them to earn money instead of giving vote. Along with this, many times a poor person is forced to sell his vote. Rich people buy his vote to win the elections. A poor person even cannot express his ideas.

Question 3.
How illiteracy is a challenge for democracy? Describe in brief.
Answer:
One of the major enemy of democracy is illiteracy. An* illiterate person, who does not know the meaning of democracy, cannot play a part in its successful functioning. That’s why there is a decline of democratic value that every one participates in it. An illiterate person hardly knows about the political, economic and social problems of the country. That’s why he becomes a victim of false promises done by the leaders and is unable to cast his vote for the right candidate.

Question 4.
“Political equality is essential for democracy.” Explain this statement.
Answer:
It is true that the political equality is essential for the success of democracy. For the success of democracy, people must have the freedom of speech and freedom to form association. Along with this, they must have the right to criticise wrong policies of the government and freedom to express their views. All these freedom are available only in democracy because of which it becomes successful.

Question 5.
How the existence of political party is essential for democracy? Explain this statement.
Or
‘Political parties are wheels of democracy.’ Explain.
Answer:
The existence of political parties is very much necessary for democracy. Actually political parties are the means of a particular ideology and different political parties came into existence because of different ideas. Different views give way to the birth of political parties. Political parties keep public views in front of the government. They act as a link between the people and government. Except this we need political parties to- contest elections without them, elections are not possible in democracy.

Question 6.
How decentralization of power is essential for democracy?
Answer:
One of the basic feature of democracy is division of powers and the meaning of decentralisation is division of powers among all the levels of government. If there will be no decentralisation, powers will remain concentrated in few hands. There will come a danger of the advent of dictatorship in the country. If there will be division of powers, there will be no danger of dictatorship and the system will run smoothly so, decentralization of powers is very much necessary for democracy.

Question 7.
Explain any two principles of democracy.
Answer:

Democracy is based on the concept of tolerance. In democracy, every one has the freedom to express his views.
Democracy helps in enhancing the dignity of an individual. This is the reason that people have different rights in democracy.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the basic principles of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is based on the following democratic principles :

The sovereignty of the people: Sovereignty resides in the people and the administration is run to accordance with the wishes of the people.
Rule of People: The administration is run by the people other directly or indirectly.
Rulers are Elected. Rulers are elected by the people. Final decision-making power must lie with those elected by the people.
Free and Fair Election: Democracy must be based on a free and fair election. The ruling party should have a fair chance of defeat.
Adult Franchise: In a democracy each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
Interest of People: The administration is run in the best interests of the people.
Rule of Law: Democracy is based on rule of law. Law is supreme. No body is above the law.
Equality: Equality is a basic principle of democracy. Everybody enjoys the right of equality and liberty.
Fundamental Rights: In a democracy citizens enjoy fundamental rights which are protected by the Judiciary.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the main obstacles in the way of democracy.
Answer:
In the whole world, democracy is the most prevalent form of government but there are few obstacles in the way of its successful functioning which are given below :

Casteism and Communalism: Giving preference to one’s caste and considering one’s religion superiors than the other creates hurdles in the way of successful democracy.
Regionalism: The meaning of regionalism is giving preference to own region over the other or country. It leads to conservation of human mentality and one never care about the national interests. It can become a danger to national integrity.
Illiteracy: Illiteracy is also one of the obstacle is the way of democracy. As illiterate person cannot understand the importance of democratic values and his vote. Cousequently either he does not caste his vote or sells his vote. It raises doubts on the success oLdemocracy.
Unhealthy people: If citizens of the country are not healthy then they cannot contribute towards the progress of the nation. Such people do not keep any interest in the public and political activities.
Indifferent attitude: If people are indifferent in their attitude or they do not care about their social and political responsibilities, they are definitely obstacles in the way of democracy. They even are unable to use their right to vote in a proper way. They do not show interest in listening to the leaders and this is exactly opposite to the principles of democracy.

Question 3.
Describes any five conditions of the success of democracy.
Answer:
In order that democracy may work successfully in any state there are certain conditions which must be satisfied.

Enlightened citizenship: The citizens should remain alert and protect their rights. They should perform their duties in a sincere manner.
Education: Citizens should be educated. It is only the educated electorates that will elect the right type of persons to government,
Local self-government: It is quite essential for the success of democracy that the administration should be decentralized one.
Protection of Fundamental Rights: In a democratic state people should be given fundamental rights and their rights should be protected by the Constitution.
Economic Equality and Security: Economic equality and security is also essential condition for the success of democracy. There should not be too much gulf between the rich and the poor.
Social Equality: No discrimination should be made on the basis of caste, colour, race, sex, religion etc.
High Moral Character: A high moral character of the people is very essential for the success of democracy.
Free and Fair Election: For the success of democracy elections should he held free and fair.
Freedom of Press: Democracy cannot flourish best without the freedom of press.

Question 4.
Give one definition of the democracy system and explain in brief the importance of democracy.
Answer:
Definitions of Democracy:

According to Dicey, “Democracy is a government in which the governing body is comparatively a large fraction of entire nation.”
According to Seeley, ‘Democracy is a government in which everyone has a share.”
According .to Abraham Lincoln, “Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people”.

Importance of Democracy : Presently, most of countries have adopted the democratic form of government and that’s why the importance of democracy has increased.

The importance of democracy is given below ;

Equality. In democracy, no one is discriminated on any bases as it is based on equality. In this everyone is given equal rights and value of every one’s vote is same.
Representative of Public Opinion. Actually democracy is representative of the public opinion. Democratic government is elected by the people and it forms the law on the basis of public opinion. If the government does not work according to public opinion, it can be removed.
Protector of Individual Liberty. Only democracy is a type of government in which individual liberties of the public are protected. In democracy, people have the right to express their opinion, to criticize and to form associations. Even the freedom of press is also protected in this system.
Political Awareness. In democracy, elections are held on regular basis with which people become politically aware. Different political parties form public opinion and they continually evaluate the government. It leads to the development of political consciouness among the people.
Development of Moral Qualities. Out of all the governments’ only democracy helps in the development of moral qualities among the people. It also helps in building their high character. It develops the qualities to co-operate, tolerence etc, among the people.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Democracy: Meaning and Importance Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The term democracy is derived from which of the following Greek words :
(a) Demos and Kratia
(b) Casta
(c) Famulus
(d) Pocta.
Answer:
(a) Demos and Kratia.

Question 2.
“Democracy is government of the people, for the people and by the people.” Who gave this definition?
(a) A.B. Hal
(b) Abraham Lincoln
(c) Aristotle
(d) Herodotus.
Answer:
(b) Abraham Lincoln.

Question 3.
Which of the following is the basis of democracy?
(a) Equality
(b) Liberty
(c) Fraternity
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 4.
Who is the real source of power in a democratic country?
(a) People
(b) Educated People
(c) Aristocratic people
(d) King.
Answer:
(a) People.

Question 5.
Which of the following is an obstacle in the way of democracy?
(а) Distinctions on the basis of caste, colour and creed.
(b) Lack of education
(c) Communication
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 6.
Direct democracy is that government in which :
(a) All the citizens cannot participate in administration
(b) All the citizens directly take part in the administration
(c) All the citizens indirectly participate in administration.
(d) The representatives of the public run the administration.
Answer:
(6) All the citizens directly take part in administration.

Question 7.
Which of the following conditions are necessary for the success of democracy?
(а) Citizens should be educated.
(b) There should be economic equality in society.
(c) There should be no distinction on the basis of caste, colour and creed.
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 8.
Direct democracy exists in :
(a) India
(b) U.K.
(c) Switzerland
(d) U.S.A.
Answer:
(c) Switzerland.

Question 9.
In India exists :
(a) Indirect democracy
(b) Direct Democracy
(c) Referendum
(d) Initiative
Answer:
(a) Indirect democracy.

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not the method of direct democracy?
(a) Referendum
(b) Initiative
(c) Landsgemeinde
(d) Political parties.
Answer:
(d) Political parties.

Question 11.
Which one of the following is not a hindrance in the path of democracy?
(a) Poverty
(b) Illiteracy
(c) Ignorance
(d) Election.
Answer:
(d) Election.

Question 12.
Which of the following is a hindrance in the path of democracy?
(a) Illiteracy
(b) Education
(c) Equality
(d) Rule of Law.
Answer:
(a) Illiteracy.

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Damos and Kratia are the ________ words.
Answer:
Greek

Question 2.
In ________ rulers run the system as the representatives of the people.
Answer:
democracy

Question 3.
Political parties are the tools of ________
Answer:
ideologies

Question 4.
Practically, democracy is the rule of ________
Answer:
majority

Question 5.
In ________ A.D., males and females were given equal rights.
Answer:
1950

Question 6.
In China, elections are held after every ________ years.
Answer:
five

Question 7.
Mexico became independent in ________ A. D.
Answer:
1930.

True/False:

Question 1.
In dictatorship, rulers are elected by the people.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Free elections are the base of democracy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Democratic government does not work according to the Constitution.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Dictatorship protect, the individual liberty.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Parvez Mussharaf captured the power of Pakistan in 1999.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
There is only one communist party in China.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
PRI is the political party of china.
Answer:
False.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From which words the term ‘Democracy’ is derived?
Answer:
The term ‘Democracy’ is derived from the Greek words-Demos and Kratia.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of Democracy?
Answer:
The meaning of democracy is ‘power of the people’ or ‘rule of the multitude’.

Question 3.
Give one definition of Democracy.
Answer:
According to Abraham Lincoln, “Democracy is a government of the people by the people and for the people.”

Question 4.
Explain one basic principle of Democracy.
Answer:
Sovereignty resides in the people and the administration is run in accordance with the wishes of the people.

Question 5.
What is Direct Democracy?
Answer:
In Direct Democracy, the people directly participate in the government of the country.

Question 6.
What do you understand by Indirect Democracy?
Answer:
In Indirect Democracy, the administration is run by the People’s representative.

Question 7.
Write one merit of Democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is based on the principal of equality.

Question 8.
Write one demerit of Democracy.
Answer:
Democratic government is a government by the incompetent and the ignorant.

Question 9.
Write any one condition that is essential for a successful Democracy.
Answer:
Enlightened citizenship is the first condition for the success of democracy.

Question 10.
Mention the terms that are often used to describe non-democratic government.
Answer:
Terms that are often used to describe non-democratic government are authoritarian, dictatorship and totalitarian.

Question 11.
Mention the names of two democratic states.
Answer:
India and U.S.A.

Question 12.
Give examples of various kinds of Dictatorship.
Answer:

Military dictatorship,
Party dictatorship,
Benevolent dictatorship,
Charismatic dictatorship.

Question 13.
Write down anyone characteristic of Dictatorship.
Answer:
Dictatorship is a Government by the powerful man who has right to exercise authority because of his superior physical force.

Question 14.
Mention any one merit of Dictatorship.
Answer:
The administration under a dictator is always very strong.

Question 15.
Write down any one demerit of Dictatorship.
Answer:
Individuals are not granted civil liberties and other rights in dictatorship.

Question 16.
Mention various devices adopted for Direct Democracy.
Answer:
There are four types of direct democratic devices i.e. Initiative, Referendum, Becall, Plebiscite.

Question 17.
What is Initiative?
Answer:
Initiative means, the power of the voters to get the laws passed in accordance with their wishes.

Question 18.
What do you understand by Referendum?
Answer:
The method of referendum gives the final authority to the people to accept or reject the laws passed by the legislature.

Question 19.
Which state is known as home of Direct Democracy?
Answer:
Switzerland.

Question 20.
Is it possible for all the voters in your parliamentary constituency to sit together and have a useful discussion?
Answer:
It is not possible for the voters of parliamentary constituency to assemble at one place and have meaningful dialogue.

Question 21.
Which is the most common form of Democracy in the world?
Answer:
Representative type of democracy.

Question 22.
What is the aim of true Democracy?
Answer:
The aim of true democracy is to remove poverty and unemployment.

Question 23.
Which party always forms government in China?
Answer:
Communist Party always forms the government in China.

Question 24.
Which party has won elections in Mexico from 1930 till 2000 A.D.?
Answer:
P.R.I.-Institutional Revolutionary Party.

Question 25.
What lacks in the democracy of Fiji?
Answer:
In Fiji, the value of the vote of Fijian people is more than the vote of the Indians living over there.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the word meaning of Democracy.
Answer:
The term ‘Democracy’ has been derived from the Greek words Demos and Kratos, the former meaning the people and latter ‘Power’. Democracy thus means ‘power of the people’ or ‘rule of the multitude. ‘Democracy means that the Government of the state is to be run by the people. In democracy the sovereignty resides in the people and the people either directly or indirectly govern over themselves.

Question 2.
What is Direct Democracy?
Answer:
Direct Democracy is the real or true democracy. In this system there is no difference between the rulers and ruled. In such a system of government the people directly participate in the government of the country. The entire population forms an assembly for the purpose of making laws. People discuss the problems of the state and control the state machinary. But it is not possible to practise direct democracy completely in the present age. Modern devices of direct democracy are initiative. Referendum, Recall and Plebiscite.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of Dictatorship.
Answer:
In dictatorship, power remains in the hands of one person. Dictator uses all the powers according to his wish and he is not responsible to any one. He remains on his post until the power to run the administration remains in his lands. Ford has defined dictatorship.” Dictatorship is the illegal attainment of power by the head of the country.

Question 4.
Write down any two charcteristics of Dictatorship.
Answer:

Based on Physical Strength. Dictatorship is a Government by the powerful man who had right to exercise authority because of his superior physical scope.
Arbitrary Rule. Dictatorship is an arbitrary rule. The dictator runs the government according to his own sweet will and the other people have no right to participate in the government. The dictator is not responsible to any other authority for all his actions and policies.

Question 5.
Mention any two merits of Dictatorship.
Answer:
1. Strong Administrative. The administration under a dictator is always very strong. The dictator suppresses disorder and opposition with a strong hand and he gives his country a strong government which can perform its functions well.

2. Less Expensive. Dictatorship is less expensive whereas democratic government is very costly. In dictatorship one does not find the luxuries of insecure and superfluous posts.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Direct and Indirect Democracy with examples.
Answer:
Democracy is of two types. Direct democracy and Indirect democracy. Following are the differences between the two:

In direct democracy, people participate in the government of the country, while in indirect democracy people indirectly participate in the government.
In direct democracy people directly participate in law-making, while in indirect democracy participation in law making’ is indirect.
The selection of magistrates is directly in direct democracy, while in indirect democracy selection of magistrates is indirect.
In direct democracy, the institutions of initiative, referendum and recall exist, but no initiative and referendum in an indirect democracy.
Direct democracy is prevalent in Switzerland, while indirect democracy exists in India, U.K. U.S.A. etc.

Question 7.
What are the major hindrances in the successful working of the Democracy?
Answer:

Illiteracy: Illiteracy is one of the major hindrance in the successful working of democracy.
Poverty: The other major hindrance in the successful working of Democracy in poverty.
Economic Inequality: Economic inequality is a great hindrance in the successful working of democracy.
Social Inequality: Social inequality is a big hindrance in the successful working of democracy.

Question 8.
Why is democracy important?
Answer:

Democracy recognises the Natural Rights of man in the street and raises him high on the peak of political.
Democracy gives liberty to all the citizens of a democratic state.
Democracy is the rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
Democracy is based on public opinion.

Question 9.
What do you mean by one person one vote?
Answer:
The meaning of one person one vote is giving right to vote every one without any discrimination of caste, religion, class, gender etc. Actually one person one vote is the other name of political equality. For the progress and integrity of the country, all the citizens are given the right to vote and the value of every one’s vote is one or same.

Question 10.
How was democracy destroyed in Pakistan?
Answer:
In 1999, Pakistan Army head General Parvez Musharraf played a military conspiracy and dismissed the democratically elected government. He then, took power in his hands. With the help of parliament he reduced the powers of state Legislative Assemblies. He passed a law and declared himself the Chief Excutive of the country and later on as the President of Pakistan. He also made arrangement that the President can dissolve the Parliament at any time. In this way Parvez Musharraf destroyed democracy in Pakistan.

Question 11.
Why there is no democracy in China?
Answer:
Although elections in China, are held after every five years but there is only party i.e. the Communist Party. People are required to vote only to the Communist Party. Only the nominated candidates of the Communist Party are allowed to contest elections. Few of the members of Parliament are taken from the army as well. If there is no opposition party in the country to contest elections, how can democracy sustain over there. ‘

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give major features of Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the major features of democracy.

Rule of Law:Democracy is based on rule of law. Law is supreme. No body is above the law.
Equality: Equality is a basic principle of democracy. Everybody enjoys the right of quality and liberty.
Fundamental Rights: In a democracy citizens enjoy fundamental rights which are protected by the Judiciary.
Sovereignty of the people: Sovereignty resides in the people and the administration is run in accordance with the wishes of the people.
Rule of people: The administration is run by the people either directly or indirectly.
Rulers are Elected: Rulers are elected by the people. Final Decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people.
Free and Fair Election: Democracy must be based on a free and fair election. The ruling party should have a fair chance of defeat.
Adult Franchise: In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
Interest of People: The administration is run in the best interest of the people.

Question 2.
Discuss the merits of Democracy.
Answer:
Following are the main merits of democracy.

Government of the People. Democracy ensures people’s participation in government. Democracy is a government by the people.
Equality. Democracy ensures the equality of political rights. Everybody has the opportunity to progress in life.
Liberty. People enjoy freedom of speach and expression, freedom of movement, freedom of religion, freedom to hold meetings and to criticise the policies and actions of the government.
Based on Public Opinion. Democracy rests on the consent of the people. The people feel that the laws in democratic governments are self-made and self-enforces.
Stable and Responsible government. A democratic government is more stable and responsible. It avoids revolution because the people themselves are the makers and the breakers of laws governments. If the people indicate a lack of confidence over the government will have to resign.
No possibility of Revolutions. People can change the government whenever they so desire. Therefore, the democratic government changes with the change in time.
Political Education. The democratic government gives political education to the people. The entire procedure of elections gives the people political education.
National Unity and Patriotism. The democratic form of government increases the spirit of nation unity and patriotism in the people.

Question 3.
Give arguments against democracy.
Or
Explain the demerits of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is not without defects and weaknesses. Following are the arguments which are given against democracy.

Government of the Ignorants and Incompetents: It is said that a democratic government is a government by the incompetent and the ignorant. The common man is neither politically intelligent nor sufficiently educated.
More importance to quantity: Democracy gives more importance to quantity rather than to quality. All persons are not capable of taking part in the government of the country. On polling day a wise man and a fool are on the same level.
Government of the Rich: In theory democracy is a government by the common man but actually is a government by the rich. The candidates spend lakhs of rupees to win an election. The poor man cannot afford to spend this much amount on elections and hence his right to contest elections become meaningless.
Instability: Leaders keep changing in a democracy and this lead to instability.
Corruption: Democracy leads to corruption because it is based on electoral competition.
The dictatorship of the Majority: The majority party may develop despotic tendencies which are harmful to the development of human personality.
The interest of the People not safeguarded: Even elected leaders of the people do not know the best interest of the people.

Question 4.
‘Democracy is better than any other form of government.’ Give arguments in favour of your answer.
Answer:
Modern age is an age of democracy. No doubt democracy is the best form of government. Democracy is better than any other form of government due to following reasons :

Needs of the People. Democracy is the best type of government because it fulfils the needs of the people. In a democracy rulers have to attend the needs of the people.
Responsible Government. A democratic government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government. The democratic government for all its action’s and policies are responsible to the people. ,
Consultation and Discussion. Democracy is better because it is based on consultation and discussion.
No Possibility of Revolutions. Democracy is better than other forms of government because there is no possibility of revolution.
Willing Obedience of Laws. The people very willingly obey the laws of the state.
Quality of Decisions. Democracy is better than other forms of government because it improves the quality of decision making.
Solution of Problems. Democracy is the best type of government as it provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.
Dignity of Citizens. Democracy is better than other forms of government because it enhances the dignity of citizens.
Review its own decisions. It is better form of government because it allows us to correct its own mistakes.
Less Chances of War. It is better because it reduces the chances of war.

Question 5.
How was democracy suppressed in Mexico?
Answer:
Mexico attained independence in 1930 and elections, for the President are held after every six years. But till the year 2000, only one party PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party) won the elections.

The major reason of its winning all the elections were :

As the ruling party, PRI used many unfair means to win the elections.
Government officials and other officers were forced to attend the party meetings.
School teachers were asked to compel the parents of the students to vote in favour of PRI.
On the eleventh hour of the polling day, the polling booths were shifted from one place to another so that the people must not be able to cast vote in the favour of other parties.

In this way, there was no impartial and free voting and democracy was suppressed in Mexico.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप Textbook Questions and Answers

(क) रिक्त स्थान भरें :

भारतीय संविधान में निर्देशक सिद्धांत . …………………. के संविधान से लिए गए हैं।
………….. भारतीय संविधान की प्रारूप समिति के प्रधान थे।

उत्तर-

आयरलैंड
डॉ० बी० आर० अंबेदकर

(ख) बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न :

प्रश्न 1.
संविधान सभा के प्रधान थे.
(अ) पंडित जवाहर लाल नेहरू
(आ) महात्मा गांधी
(इ) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
(ई) डॉ०बी०आर० अंबेदकर
उत्तर-
(इ) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद

प्रश्न 2.
गणतंत्र देश वह होता है
(अ) जिसका अध्यक्ष जन्मजात होता है।
(आ) जिसका अध्यक्ष सैनिक तानाशाह होता है।
(इ) जिसका अध्यक्ष लोगों द्वारा प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष ढंग से चुना जाता है।
(ई) जिसका अध्यक्ष मनोनीत किया जाता है।
उत्तर-
(इ) जिसका अध्यक्ष लोगों द्वारा प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष ढंग से चना जाता।

(ग) निम्नलिखित कथनों में सही के लिए तथा गलत के लिए चिन्ह लगाएं :

संविधान के 42वें संशोधन में समाजवाद, धर्मनिरपेक्ष व अखंडता शब्दों को शामिल किया गया है।
भारत एक प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न, धर्मनिरपेक्ष, समाजवादी, लोकतांत्रिक गणराज्य देश है।

उत्तर-

(✓)
(✓)

अति लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
हमारा देश कब स्वतंत्र हुआ ?
उत्तर-
हमारा देश 15 अगस्त, 1947 को स्वतंत्र हुआ।

प्रश्न 2.
‘संविधान उन नियमों का समूह है जिनके अनुसार सरकार की शक्तियों, प्रजा के अधिकारों एवम् इन दोनों के पारस्परिक संबंधों को निश्चित किया जाता है। यह कथन किसका है?
उत्तर-
यह कथन बूल्जे का है।

प्रश्न 3.
भारतीय संविधान के निर्माण में कितना समय लगा ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान के निर्माण में 2 वर्ष 11 महीने व 18 दिन लगे।

प्रश्न 4.
संविधान निर्माण समिति के कुल कितने सदस्य थे ?
उत्तर-
संविधान निर्माण समिति के 389 सदस्य थे परन्तु स्वतन्त्रता के पश्चात् यह 299 रह गए थे।

प्रश्न 5.
भारत के विभाजन की घोषणा कब की गई ?
उत्तर-
3 जून, 1947 को भारत के विभाजन की घोषणा की गई थी।

प्रश्न 6.
भारत के विभाजन के पश्चात् भारत के लिए संविधान बनाने वाली सभा के कितने सदस्य रह गए थे ?
उत्तर-
299 सदस्य।

प्रश्न 7.
भारत के संविधान की कोई दो एकात्मक विशेषताएं लिखें।
उत्तर-

सभी नागरिकों को एकहरी नागरिकता दी गई है।
केन्द्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के लिए एक ही संविधान है।

प्रश्न 8.
भारतीय संविधान की कोई दो संघात्मक विशेषताएं लिखें।
उत्तर-

हमारे देश का एक लिखित संविधान है।
केंद्र तथा राज्यों के बीच शक्तियों को बंटवारा किया गया है।

प्रश्न 9.
संविधान द्वारा नागरिकों को प्रदत्त कोई दो स्वतंत्रताओं के नाम लिखें।
उत्तर-

कोई भी पेशा अपनाने की स्वतंत्रता।
देश में कहीं भी आने जाने की स्वतंत्रता।

प्रश्न 10.
भारत के संविधान की प्रस्तावना किन शब्दों के साथ आरंभ होती है ?
उत्तर-
हम भारत के लोग।

प्रश्न 11.
सन् 1976 में 42वें संशोधन द्वारा भारत के संविधान में कौन-से नए शब्द जोड़े गए ?
उत्तर-
समाजवाद, धर्मनिरपेक्ष व अखंडता।

प्रश्न 12.
संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष थे।

प्रश्न 13.
संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने वाली समिति के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ०बी०आर० अंबेदकर संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने वाली समिति के अध्यक्ष थे।

लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना कौन-कौन से मूल उद्देश्यों पर प्रकाश डालती है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना से हमें इसके उद्देश्यों के बारे में पता चलता है।

हमारी प्रस्तावना के अनुसार भारत एक संपूर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न, समाजवादी, लोकतांत्रिक, धर्मनिरपेक्ष गणराज्य है।
यह भारत के सभी नागरिकों को सामाजिक, आर्थिक तथा राजनीतिक न्याय देने के लिए प्रतिबद्ध है।
यह अवसर व पद की समानता प्रदान करती है तथा सभी नागरिकों को अभिव्यक्ति, विश्वास व उपासना की स्वतंत्रता देती है।
यह व्यक्तिगत गरिमा, राष्ट्रीय एकता व अखंडता के आदर्श को बनाए रखने की घोषणा भी करती है।

प्रश्न 2.
गणतंत्र देश किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर-
भारत एक गणतंत्र देश है। गणतंत्र का अर्थ होता है कि देश का अध्यक्ष प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से जनता द्वारा चुना जाता है। अध्यक्ष का चुनाव एक निश्चित समय के लिए होता है तथा यहां पर वंशवाद का कोई स्थान नहीं है। गणतंत्र होना भारतीय संविधान की एक महत्त्वपूर्ण विशेषता है।

प्रश्न 3.
भारत एक धर्मनिरपेक्ष देश है। इसके पक्ष में तर्क दें।
उत्तर-

संविधान की प्रस्तावना में भारत को धर्मनिरपेक्ष राज्य घोषित किया गया है।
सभी नागरिकों को अपने धर्म के प्रचार करने या धर्म परिवर्तन करने की स्वतंत्रता है।
समानता के अधिकार में कहा गया है कि किसी भी व्यक्ति के साथ धर्म के आधार पर भेदभाव नहीं किया जाएगा।
देश में व्यापार सभी धर्मों को एक समान समझा जाता है तथा देश, राज्य का कोई धर्म नहीं है।

प्रश्न 4.
संघीय संरचना अथवा संघात्मक सरकार से क्या अभिप्राय है ? भारतीय संविधान की यह विशेषता किस देश के संविधान से ली गई है ?
उत्तर-
संघात्मक सरकार का अर्थ है शक्तियों का सरकार के दो स्तरों में विभाजन तथा यह स्तर केंद्र व राज्य सरकारें होती हैं। भारत एक संघात्मक राज्य है जहां पर दो प्रकार की सरकारें-केंद्र सरकार व राज्य सरकारें बनाई गई हैं। इन दोनों प्रकार की सरकारों में शक्तियों का विभाजन किया गया है परंतु केंद्र सरकार को अधिक शक्तियां दी गई हैं। भारत में संघात्मक संरचना कनाडा के संविधान से ली गई है।

प्रश्न 5.
भारत का संविधान 26 नवंबर 1949 को निर्मित हो गया था। परंतु भारत सरकार ने इसे 26 जनवरी, 1950 को लागू किया। 26 जनवरी की तिथि संविधान लागू करने के लिए क्यों नियत की गई ? व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के 1929 के लाहौर अधिवेशन में यह निर्णय किया गया था कि 26 जनवरी, 1930 को देश का प्रथम स्वतंत्रता दिवस मनाया जाएगा चाहे देश स्वतंत्र नहीं था। तब से 1947 तक 26 जनवरी को स्वतंत्रता दिवस मनाया गया। परंतु 1947 में देश का स्वतंत्रता दिवस 15 अगस्त हो गया। इंसलिए 26 जनवरी के ऐतिहासिक महत्त्व को बरकरार रखने के लिए संविधान 26 जनवरी, 1950 में लागू किया गया तथा 26 जनवरी को गणतंत्र दिवस घोषित किया गया।

प्रश्न 6.
संपूर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य का क्या अर्थ है ?
उत्तर-
संपर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य का अर्थ है कि देश अपने बाहरी व आंतरिक विषयों तथा अपने निर्णय लेने के लिए पूर्णतया स्वतंत्र है। देश जब भी अपने आंतरिक व अन्य देशों से संबंध बनाने के लिए कोई भी नीति बनाएगा वह बिना किसी दबाव के व पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता से बनाएगा। देश पर कोई अन्य देश किसी प्रकार का दबाव नहीं डाल सकता।

प्रश्न 7.
सर्वव्यापक वयस्क मताधिकार से क्या अभिप्राय है ?
उत्तर-
भारत का संविधान देश के सभी वयस्क नागरिकों को वोट देने का अधिकार प्रदान करता है तथा इसे ही सर्वव्यापक वयस्क मताधिकार कहते हैं। देश के सभी नागरिक जिनकी आयु 18 वर्ष या इससे ऊपर है उन्हें वोट देने का अधिकार बिना किसी भेदभाव के दिया गया है। पहले यह आयु 21 वर्ष थी परंतु 1988 में 61वें संवैधानिक संशोधन से इसे घटा कर 18 वर्ष कर दिया गया था।

प्रश्न 8.
भारतीय संविधान की कोई चार एकात्मक विशेषताएं लिखो।
उत्तर-

भारत के सभी नागरिकों को इकहरी नागरिकता दी गई है।
जम्मू कश्मीर को छोड़ कर बाकी सभी सरकारों के लिए एक ही संविधान दिया गया है।
संपूर्ण देश के लिए इकहरी न्यायपालिका का गठन किया गया है।।
भारतीय संसद् को यह शक्ति दी गई है कि वह राज्यों की सीमा तथा नाम परिवर्तन कर सकती है।
राज्यों के राज्यपाल केंद्र सरकार के प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करते हैं तथा इन्हें केंद्र सरकार नियुक्त करती है।

दीर्घ उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना को मूल रूप में लिखें।
उत्तर-
हम भारत के लोग, भारत के एक संपूर्ण प्रभुत्व संपन्न, समाजवादी पंथनिरपेक्ष, लोकतंत्रात्मक, गणराज्य बनाने के लिए तथा उसके समस्त नागरिकों को सामाजिक, आर्थिक और राजनैतिक न्याय विचार, अभिव्यक्ति, विश्वास, धर्म और उपासना की स्वतंत्रता, प्रतिष्ठा और अवसर की समता प्राप्त करने के लिए तथा उन सबमें व्यक्ति की गरिमा और राष्ट्र की एकता और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करने वाली बंधुता बढ़ाने के लिए दृढ़ संकल्प होकर अपनी इस संविधान सभा में आज तारीख 26.11.1949 ई० श्रीमती मार्गशीर्ष शुकला सप्तमी, संवत् दो हजार छह विक्रमी) को एतद द्वारा इस संविधान को अंगीकृत, अधिनियमित और आत्मार्पित करते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
भारत एक धर्मनिरपेक्ष देश है इस कथन की व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-
भारत एक धर्म निरपेक्ष राज्य है। संविधान की प्रस्तावना में स्पष्ट रूप से भारत को धर्म-निरपेक्ष राज्य घोषित किया गया है। भारत का कोई धर्म नहीं है पर भारतीयों का धर्म है। भारत के सभी लोगों को धर्म की स्वतंत्रता का अधिकार प्राप्त है। धर्म के आधार पर नागरिकों में कोई भेद-भाव नहीं किया जाता। सभी नागरिक स्वेच्छा से कोई भी धर्म अपनाने और उपासना करने को स्वतंत्र हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
संपूर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य से क्या अभिप्राय है ? व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-
संपर्ण प्रभुसत्ता संपन्न राज्य का अर्थ है कि देश अपने बाहरी व आंतरिक विषयों तथा अपने निर्णय लेने के लिए पूर्णतया स्वतंत्र है। देश जब भी अपने आंतरिक व अन्य देशों से संबंध बनाने के लिए कोई भी नीति बनाएगा वह बिना किसी दबाव के व पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता से बनाएगा। देश पर कोई अन्य देश किसी प्रकार का दबाव नहीं डाल सकता।

प्रश्न 4.
भारत के संविधान की एकात्मक विशेषताओं की संक्षेप में व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-

भारत के सभी नागरिकों को इकहरी नागरिकता दी गई है।
सभी सरकारों के लिए एक ही संविधान दिया गया है।
संपूर्ण देश के लिए एकहरी न्यायपालिका का गठन किया गया है।
भारतीय संसद् को यह शक्ति दी गई है कि वह राज्यों की सीमा तथा नाम परिवर्तित कर सकती है।
राज्यों के राज्यपाल केंद्र के प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करते हैं तथा इनकी नियुक्ति केंद्र सरकार द्वारा की जाती है।
देश के लिए कानून बनाने की शक्ति संसद् को दी गई है।
संपूर्ण देश की सर्वभारतीय सेवाओं के अफसरों की नियुक्ति केंद्र सरकार द्वारा की जाती है।
अगर राज्यों के बीच किसी विषय को लेकर झगड़ा हो जाए तो उसका निपटारा उच्चतम न्यायालय अथवा केंद्र सरकार करती है।
अनुच्छेद 356 के अंतर्गत केंद्र सरकार राज्य सरकार को भंग करके वहां पर राष्ट्रपति शासन लागू कर सकती है। राष्ट्रपति को अनुच्छेद 352 से 360 के साथ कुछ संकटकालीन शक्तियां दी गई हैं जिनके साथ वह देश में संकट घोषित कर सकता है।

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide भारतीय लोकतंत्र की स्थापना एवं स्वरूप Important Questions and Answers

बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न :

प्रश्न 1.
स्वतंत्रता से पूर्व भारत में किस नेता के नेतृत्व में भारत के संविधान का मसौदा तैयार किया गया ?
(क) पं० मोती लाल नेहरू
(ख) पं. जवाहर लाल नेहरू
(ग) बाल गंगाधर तिलक
(घ) अब्दुल कलाम आजाद।
उत्तर-
(क) पं० मोती लाल नेहरू

प्रश्न 2.
भारत में संविधान सभा के सदस्यों का चुनाव हुआ
(क) जनवरी, 1947
(ख) जुलाई, 1946
(ग) दिसंबर, 1948
(घ) सितंबर, 1946
उत्तर-
(ख) जुलाई, 1946

प्रश्न 3.
भारतीय संविधान का निर्माण किया गया
(क) ब्रिटिश सम्राट् द्वारा
(ख) ब्रिटिश संसद् द्वारा
(ग) संविधान सभा द्वारा
(घ) भारतीय संसद् द्वारा।
उत्तर-
(ग) संविधान सभा द्वारा

प्रश्न 4.
संविधान सभा के अस्थायी अध्यक्ष का नाम बताओ
(क) महात्मा गांधी
(ख) डॉ० सच्चिदानंद सिन्हा
(ग) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
(घ) डॉ० अंबेदकर।
उत्तर-
(ख) डॉ० सच्चिदानंद सिन्हा

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान सभा के स्थायी अध्यक्ष थे-
(क) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
(ख) डॉ० अंबेदकर
(ग) डॉ० सच्चिदानंद सिन्हा
(घ) पं० जवाहर लाल नेहरू
उत्तर-
(क) डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद

प्रश्न 6.
डॉ० अंबेदकर अध्यक्ष थे
(क) संसद्
(ख) संविधान सभा
(ग) स्वराज्य पार्टी
(घ) प्रारूप समिति
उत्तर-
(घ) प्रारूप समिति

प्रश्न 7.
संविधान सभा का प्रथम अधिवेशन हुआ
(क) 24 जनवरी, 1950
(ख) 9 दिसंबर, 1946
(ग) 10 दिसंबर, 1947
(घ) 26 नवंबर, 1949
उत्तर-
(ख) 9 दिसंबर, 1946

प्रश्न 8.
भारत की संविधान सभा ने संविधान को अपनाया
(क) 24 जनवरी, 1950
(ख) 26 नवंबर, 1949
(ग) 26 दिसंबर, 1949
(घ) 26 जनवरी, 1950.
उत्तर-
(ख) 26 नवंबर, 1949

प्रश्न 9.
भारत का संविधान लागू किया गया
(क) 26 नवंबर, 1949
(ख) 15 अगस्त, 1947
(ग) 26 जनवरी, 1950
(घ) 24 जनवरी, 1950
उत्तर-
(ग) 26 जनवरी, 1950

प्रश्न 10.
संविधान सभा प्रभुत्व संपन्न बनी
(क) 15 अगस्त, 1947
(ख) 26 जनवरी, 1948
(ग) 26 नवंबर, 1949
(घ) 26 दिसंबर, 1946
उत्तर-
(क) 15 अगस्त, 1947

रिक्त स्थान भरें:

भारतीय संविधान …………… ने बनाया।
संविधान सभा के …………. सदस्य थे।
…………. संविधान सभा के स्थायी प्रधान थे।
भारत में ………… शासन व्यवस्था अपनायी गई है।
भारतीय संसदीय व्यवस्था ……….. से ली गई है।

उत्तर-

संविधान सभा
389
डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद
संसदीय
बिटेन

सही/गलत :

भारतीय संविधान को संसद् ने बनाया था।
संविधान सभा की प्रथम बैठक 9 दिसंबर, 1946 को हुई।
संविधान सभा को Objective Resolution जवाहर लाल नेहरू ने दिया.।
15 अगस्त, 1947 के पश्चात् संविधान सभा के 389 सदस्य थे।
भारतीय संविधान को बनाने में 4 वर्ष लगे थे।

उत्तर-

(✗)
(✓)
(✓)
(✗)
(✗)

अति लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ब्रिटिश भारत के अंतिम और स्वतंत्र भारत के प्रथम गवर्नर-जनरल कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
लॉर्ड माउंटबैटन।

प्रश्न 2.
नेल्सन मंडेला किस देश के नेता थे ?
उत्तर-
नेल्सन मंडेला दक्षिण अफ्रीका के नेता थे।

प्रश्न 3.
भारत का संविधान किसने बनाया ?
उत्तर-
संविधान सभा।

प्रश्न 4. संविधान सभा के सदस्यों का कब चुनाव हुआ ?
उत्तर-जुलाई, 1946.

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद।

प्रश्न 6.
प्रारूप समिति (Draft Committee) के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ?
उत्तर-
डॉ० बी०आर० अंबेडकर।

प्रश्न 7.
संविधान सभा ने भारत का संविधान बनाने में कितना समय लगाया?
उत्तर-
2 वर्ष 11 महीने 18 दिन।

प्रश्न 8.
किन्हीं दो देशों का नाम लिखें जिनका संविधान लिखित है।
उत्तर-

भारत
संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका।

प्रश्न 9.
किसी एक देश का नाम लिखें जिनका संविधान अलिखित है।
उत्तर-
इंग्लैंड।

प्रश्न 10.
भारत के स्वतंत्र होने के पश्चात् संविधान सभा के कितने सदस्य थे ?
उत्तर-
299 सदस्य।

प्रश्न 11.
‘संविधान’ शब्द का अर्थ लिखें।
उत्तर-
संविधान उन नियमों तथा सिद्धांतों का समूह होता है जिनके अनुसार शासन चलाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 12.
नेल्सन मंडेला ने किस शासन प्रणाली का समर्थन किया ?
उत्तर-
लोकतांत्रिक शासन प्रणाली।

प्रश्न 13.
संविधान सभा के किन्हीं चार महत्त्वपूर्ण सदस्यों के नाम लिखें जिन्होंने संविधान निर्माण में महत्त्वपूर्ण योगदान दिया। ,
उत्तर-

डॉ० राजेंद्र प्रसाद
डॉ० अंबेदकर
पं० जवाहर लाल नेहरू
एच० सी० मुकर्जी।

प्रश्न 14.
भारत में संसदीय शासन प्रणाली किस देश से प्रभावित होकर ली गई है ?
उत्तर-
इंग्लैंड।

प्रश्न 15.
भारत में मौलिक अधिकार किस देश से प्रभावित होकर लिए गए?
उत्तर-
संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका।

प्रश्न 16.
संविधान सभा ने कुल कितने दिन संविधान के मसौदे पर विचार किया?
उत्तर-
114 दिन।

प्रश्न 17.
किन्हीं चार देशों के नाम बताओ जिनके संविधान की मुख्य विशेषताओं को भारतीय संविधान में सम्मिलित किया गया है ?
उत्तर-
इंग्लैंड, अमेरिका, आयरलैंड, कनाडा।

प्रस्न 18.
भारतीय संविधान को ‘सजीव संविधान’ क्यों कहा जाता है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान में समय तथा आवश्यकतानुसार संशोधन होते रहते हैं। भारतीय संविधान का निरंतर विकास हो रहा है।

प्रश्न 19.
भारतीय संविधान की मौलिक प्रस्तावना में भारत को क्या घोषित किया गया है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान की मूल प्रस्तावना में भारत को एक प्रभुत्व संपन्न लोकतांत्रिक राज्य घोषित किया गया है।

प्रश्न 20.
प्रस्तावना में संविधान में दिए गए उद्देश्यों में से कोई एक उद्देश्य लिखें।
उत्तर-
संविधान का उद्देश्य है कि भारत के सभी लोगों को न्याय मिले।

प्रश्न 21.
भारत गणराज्य कैसे है ?
उत्तर-
भारत में राष्ट्रपति एक निर्वाचक मंडल (Electoral College) द्वारा चुना जाता है। इसलिए भारत गणराज्य

प्रश्न 22.
भारत के संविधान की प्रस्तावना में दिए गए शब्द ‘हम भारत के लोग’ से क्या अभिप्राय है ?
उत्तर-
‘हम भारत के लोग’ से अभिप्राय है, कि भारत की सर्वोच्च सत्ता भारत के लोगों में केंद्रित है और भारत के संविधान का स्रोत कोई और नहीं बल्कि भारत की जनता है।

प्रश्न 23.
दो तर्क देकर स्पष्ट कीजिए कि भारत एक लोकतंत्रात्मक राज्य है।
उत्तर-

देश का शासन लोगों द्वारा चुने हुए प्रतिनिधि चलाते हैं।
सभी नागरिकों को समान राजनीतिक अधिकार प्राप्त हैं।

प्रश्न 24.
किस संशोधन द्वारा प्रस्तावना में समाजवाद, धर्मनिरपेक्षता, राष्ट्र की एकता के शब्द जोड़े गए हैं?
उत्तर-
42वां संशोधन।

प्रश्न 25.
भारत में 26 जनवरी का दिन किस दिवस के रूप में मनाया जाता है ?
उत्तर-
भारत में 26 जनवरी का दिन गणतंत्र दिवस के रूप में मनाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 26.
संविधान संशोधन किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर-
संविधान में समय-समय पर आवश्यकतानुसार होने वाले परिवर्तनों को संविधान संशोधन कहते हैं।

लघु उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संविधान से आप क्या समझते हैं ?
उत्तर-
संविधान उन सिद्धांतों तथा नियमों का समूह होता है जिनके अनुसार शासन चलाया जाता है। प्रत्येक राज्य में कुछ ऐसे सिद्धांत तथा नियम निश्चित कर लिए जाते हैं जिनके अनुसार शासन के विभिन्न अंगों का संगठन किया जाता है, उनको शक्तियां प्रदान की जाती हैं, उनके आपसी संबंधों को नियमित किया जाता है तथा नागरिकों और राज्य के बीच संबंध स्थापित किए जाते हैं। इन नियमों के समूह को ही संविधान कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
हमें संविधान की आवश्यकता क्यों है ? व्याख्या करें।,
उत्तर-
हमें संविधान की आवश्यकता निम्नलिखित कारणों से है-

लोकतांत्रिक शासन प्रणाली के लिए संविधान का होना अनिवार्य है।
संविधान सरकार की शक्ति तथा सत्ता का स्रोत है।
संविधान सरकार की संरचना तथा सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों की शक्तियों की व्यवस्था करता है।
संविधान सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों के पारस्परिक संबंध निर्धारित करता है।’
संविधान सरकार और नागरिकों के संबंधों को निर्धारित करता है।
संविधान सरकार की शक्तियों पर सीमाएं लगाता है।
संविधान सर्वोच्च कानून है जिनके द्वारा समाज के विभिन्न लोगों में समन्वय किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
हमारा संविधान जनता का संविधान क्यों माना जाता है ?
उत्तर-
भारत का संविधान जनता का संविधान है। यह सत्य है कि संविधान सभा के सदस्य वयस्क मताधिकार के आधार पर ही चुने गए थे। संविधान सभा के सदस्य प्रांतीय विधानमंडलों द्वारा चुने गए थे। वास्तव में संविधान सभा में देश के सभी महत्त्वपूर्ण नेता संविधान सभा के सदस्य थे। सभी वर्गों (हिंदू, मुस्लिम, सिख, ईसाई, महिलाएं) के प्रतिनिधि संविधान सभा में थे। यदि वयस्क मताधिकार के आधार पर चुनाव होता तो यही व्यक्ति चुनाव जीत कर आते। अतः हमारा संविधान जनता का संविधान है।

प्रश्न 4.
आपके विचार में लोकतांत्रिक देशों में संविधान का महत्त्व अपेक्षाकृत क्यों अधिक होता है ?
उत्तर-
लोकतंत्र में देश के नागरिक प्रत्यक्ष अथवा अप्रत्यक्ष रूप में शासन में भाग लेते हैं। संविधान में जहां एक ओर सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों की शक्तियों का वर्णन होता है, वहां पर उन पर प्रतिबंध भी लगाए जाते हैं। नागरिकों के अधिकारों का वर्णन संविधान में किया जाता है। कोई सरकार संविधान का उल्लंघन नहीं कर सकती। न्यायालय नागरिकों के अधिकारों व संविधान की रक्षा करते हैं। अतः संविधान का लोकतंत्र में विशेष महत्त्व है।

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान सभा कैसे गठित हुई थी ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय नेता काफी समय से यह मांग करते आ रहे थे कि भारत का संविधान बनाने के लिए संविधान सभा बनाई जाए। 1946 में कैबिनेट मिशन ने संविधान सभा की स्थापना की सिफारिश की। सभी राजनीतिक दलों ने संविधान सभा की स्थापना का स्वागत किया। संविधान सभा के 389 सदस्यों का जुलाई, 1946 में चुनाव हुआ। इस प्रकार संविधान सभा गठित की गई।

प्रश्न 6.
संविधान की प्रस्तावना का महत्त्व लिखें।
उत्तर-

प्रस्तावना संविधान की आत्मा का दर्पण है।
जब संविधान की कोई धारा संदिग्ध या अस्पष्ट हो तो न्यायालय उसकी व्याख्या करते समय प्रस्तावना की सहायता ले सकते हैं।
प्रस्तावना संविधान निर्माताओं के मन की कुंजी है।
प्रस्तावना संविधान का अभिन्न अंग है जो संविधान के मौलिक ढांचे को व्यक्त करती है।

प्रश्न 7.
कठोर तथा लचीले संविधान से क्या अभिप्राय है ?
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान कठोर भी है तथा लचीला भी है। कठोर संविधान का अर्थ है इसमें आसानी से परिवर्तन या संशोधन नहीं किया जा सकता। संशोधन करने के लिए काफी अधिक बहुमत की आवश्यकता है जो सरकार के पास नहीं होता है। लचीले संविधान का अर्थ है कि अगर सरकार के पास निर्णायक बहुमत हो तो इसे बदला भी जा सकता है। अगर राजनीतिक दल इकट्ठे हो जाएं तो इसे आसानी से बदला जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 8.
भारत का संविधान सर्वाधिक विस्तृत व लंबा संविधान है। स्पष्ट करें।
उत्तर-
भारतीय संविधान विश्व के संविधानों में सबसे विस्तृत तथा लंबा है। मूलरूप से इसमें 395 अनुच्छेद तथा 8 अनुसूचियां थीं। 1950 के पश्चात् से ही इसमें कुछ नई-चीजें शामिल की गईं जिस कारण इसमें अब 450 अनुच्छेद तथा 12 अनुसूचियां हैं। समय के साथ साथ इसमें 103 संशोधन भी किए गए। इन सब के कारण हमारा संविधान सबसे विस्तृत तथा लंबा हो गया।

प्रश्न 9.
लिखित संविधान का क्या अर्थ है ?
उत्तर-
हमारा संविधान लिखित है जिसे हमारी संविधान सभा ने 2 वर्ष 11 महीने तथा 18 दिनों के कड़े परिश्रम से तैयार किया। भारत में संघात्मक सरकार रखी गई जिस कारण इसका लिखित रूप में होना आवश्यक था ताकि केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकार के बीच के मुद्दों को आसानी से सुलझाया जा सके। इसके विपरीत ब्रिटेन का संविधान अलिखित है जो कि परिभाषाओं व मान्यताओं पर आधारित है। हमारा संविधान लिखित है जिस कारण इसमें पारदर्शिता भी है।

दीर्घ उत्तरों वाले प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
भारत का संविधान किस प्रकार बना ?
उत्तर-
भारत का संविधान एक संविधान सभा ने बनाया। इस सभा के गठन तथा इसके द्वारा संविधान के निर्माण का वर्णन इस प्रकार है संविधान सभा का गठन-भारतीय नेता काफी समय से यह मांग करते आ रहे थे कि भारत का संविधान बनाने के लिए संविधान सभा बनाई जाए। 1946 ई० में उनकी मांग स्वीकार कर ली गई और संविधान सभा की 389 सीटों के लिए चुनाव हुए। संविधान सभा में पूरे देश के उच्च नेता शामिल थे। पं० जवाहर लाल नेहरू, डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद, सरदार पटेल, मौलाना अबुल कलाम आज़ाद आदि कांग्रेस के सदस्य थे। अन्य दलों के सदस्यों में डॉ० भीमराव अंबेदकर, डॉ० श्यामा प्रसाद मुखर्जी तथा फ्रेंक एंथनी प्रमुख थे। श्रीमती सरोजिनी नायडू तथा विजय लक्ष्मी पंडित महिला सदस्या थीं। डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद संविधान सभा के अध्यक्ष थे।
प्रारूप समिति की नियुक्ति तथा संविधान का निर्माण-संविधान का प्रारूप तैयार करने के लिए एक प्रारूप समिति की नियुक्ति की गई। प्रारूप समिति के प्रधान डॉ० भीमराव अंबेदकर थे। इस समिति ने विभिन्न देशों के संविधानों का अध्ययन करके बड़े परिश्रम से संविधान की रूप-रेखा बनाई। इसी रूप-रेखा के आधार पर ही देश के लिए विस्तृत संविधान तैयार किया गया। संविधान को तैयार करने में कुल 2 वर्ष, 11 मास, 18 दिन का समय लगा। इस दौरान संविधान सभा की 166 बैठकें हुईं। अंततः 26 नवंबर, 1949 को संविधान को पारित कर दिया गया। इसे 26 जनवरी, 1950 ई० को लागू किया गया। इस प्रकार भारत गणतंत्र बना।

प्रश्न 2.
“भारत प्रभुत्व संपन्न, समाजवादी, धर्मनिरपेक्ष लोकतंत्रीय गणराज्य है।” व्याख्या करें।
उत्तर-

प्रभुत्व संपन्न-प्रभुत्व संपन्न से अभिप्राय यह है कि राज्य आंतरिक तथा बाहरी रूप से स्वतंत्र है, वह किसी बाहरी सत्ता के अधीन नहीं है।
धर्म-निरपेक्ष-धर्म-निरपेक्ष राज्य में राज्य का कोई अपना विशेष धर्म नहीं होता। धर्म के आधार पर नागरिकों से कोई भी भेदभाव नहीं किया जाता। प्रत्येक नागरिक स्वेच्छा से कोई भी धर्म अपनाने और अपने ही ढंग से उपासना करने में स्वतंत्र होता है।
समाजवादी-समाजवादी राज्य का अर्थ ऐसे राज्य से है जिसमें नागरिकों को सामाजिक और आर्थिक क्षेत्र में समानता प्राप्त हो। इसमें धनी-निर्धन का भेदभाव नहीं होता।
लोकतांत्रिक-लोकतांत्रिक राज्य का अर्थ यह है कि सभी नागरिकों को समान अधिकार प्राप्त हैं। वे निर्धारित चुनावों द्वारा अपने प्रतिनिधि चुनते हैं जो सरकार का निर्माण तथा संचालन करते हैं।
गणतंत्र-गणतंत्र का अर्थ है कि राज्य का अध्यक्ष कोई बादशाह नहीं होगा। वह निश्चित समय के लिए अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से निर्वाचित राष्ट्रपति होगा।

प्रश्न 3.
लोकतांत्रिक देशों में संविधान का महत्त्व अधिक क्यों होता है ?
उत्तर-
निम्नलिखित कारणों से लोकतांत्रिक देशों में संविधान का महत्त्व अधिक है-

लोकतांत्रिक शासन प्रणाली के लिए संविधान का होना अनिकर्य है।
संविधान सरकार की शक्ति तथा सत्ता का स्रोत है।।
संविधान सरकार के ढांचे तथा सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों की शक्तियों की व्यवस्था करता है।
संविधान सरकार के विभिन्न अंगों के पारस्परिक संबंध निर्धारित करता है।
संविधान सरकार और नागरिकों के संबंधों को निर्धारित करता है।
संविधान सरकार की शक्तियों पर सीमाएं लगाता है।
संविधान सर्वोच्च कानून है जिसके द्वारा समाज के विभिन्न वर्गों में समन्वय किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
भारतीय संविधान कई स्रोतों से लिया गया संविधान है। स्पष्ट करें।
उत्तर-
संविधान सभा ने संविधान का निर्माण करने से पहले अलग-अलग देशों के संविधानों तथा ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा भारत के लिए 1947 से पहले कानूनों का सूक्ष्म अध्ययन किया। फिर उन्होंने इन सब के अच्छे प्रावधानों को हमारे संविधान में शामिल किया। यह सब निम्नलिखित हैं-

ब्रिटेन-संसदीय व्यवस्था, कानून पास करने की विधि, संसद् के विशेषाधिकार, कानून का शासन, इकहरी नागरिकता, कैबिनेट व्यवस्था, दो सदनों की व्याख्या।
संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका-मौलिक अधिकार, सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की संरचना एवम शक्तियां, न्यायिक पुनर्निरीक्षण, उपराष्ट्रपति का पद, न्यायपालिका का स्वतंत्रता, प्रस्तावना।
कैनेडा-संघीय संरचना, बची हुई शक्तियां (Residuary powers), राज्यपालों की केंद्र द्वारा नियुक्ति।
आयरलैंड-राज्य के नीति के निर्देशक सिद्धांत, राष्ट्रपति के चुनाव की प्रक्रिया, राष्ट्रपति द्वारा राज्यसभा के सदस्यों को मनोनीत करना, उच्चतम न्यायालय व उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों को हटाने की प्रक्रिया। .
जर्मनी-राष्ट्रपति की आपातकालीन शक्तियां।
भूतपूर्व सोवियत संघ-मौलिक कर्त्तव्य।
फ्रांस-गणतंत्र, स्वतंत्रता, समानता व भाईचारा।
आस्ट्रेलिया-समवर्ती सूची।
दक्षिण अफ्रीका-संवैधानिक संशोधन।

प्रश्न 5.
संविधान की मुख्य विशेषताओं का वर्णन करें।
उत्तर-

भारतीय संविधान एक लिखित संविधान है जिसमें शासन प्रबंध से संबंधित सभी नियम लिखित रूप में मिलते हैं।
भारतीय संविधान संसार के सभी संविधानों में से सबसे विस्तृत और लंबा है जिसमें 395 अनुच्छेद (वर्तमान 450) तथा 12 अनुसूचियां हैं।
संविधान की शुरुआत प्रस्तावना से होती है जिसमें हमारे संविधान के प्रमुख उद्देश्य लिखे गए हैं।
हमारा संविधान लचीला भी है तथा कठोर भी है। यह लचीला इस तरह है कि इसे बहुमत के साथ परिवर्तित किया जा सकता है। कठोर इस तरह कि इसे आसानी से परिवर्तित नहीं किया जा सकता।
हमारे संविधान ने हमें एक स्वतंत्र तथा इकहरी न्यायपालिका दी है जिसके नियम संपूर्ण देश में चलते हैं।
संविधान ने देश को लोकतांत्रिक गणराज्य बनाया है जिसमें सरकार को निश्चित समय के पश्चात् चुनने का अधिकार जनता को दिया गया है। साथ ही राष्ट्राध्यक्ष हमेशा जनता द्वारा एक निश्चित समय के पश्चात् चुना जाता है।
संविधान ने देश को एक धर्मनिरपेक्ष राज्य बनाया है जिसके अनुसार देश का अपना कोई धर्म नहीं है तथा देश के सभी धर्मों को समानता दी गई है।
भारत को एक संघात्मक ढांचा दिया गया है जिसमें दो प्रकार की सरकारें-केंद्र सरकार तथा राज्य सरकारें होती हैं। इन दोनों सरकारों की शक्तियां पूर्णतया विभाजित की गई है।

प्रश्न 6.
संघवाद में किस आधार पर केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के बीच शक्तियों का बंटवारा हुआ है ?
अथवा
किस प्रकार भारतीय संघ में केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के बीच शक्तियां विभाजित की गई हैं ?
अथवा
भारतीय संविधान में शासन शक्तियों संबंधी कितनी सूचियाँ हैं ? प्रत्येक सूची के दो-दो उदाहरण अथवा विषय लिखिए।
उत्तर-
हमारे देश भारत में, संविधान ने साफ़ शब्दों में प्रत्येक स्तर की शक्तियों को विभाजित किया है। प्रत्येक स्तर को अपने कार्य क्षेत्र के लिए कानून बनाने के लिए कुछ विषय दिए गए हैं तथा उन्हें एक-दूसरे के अधिकतर क्षेत्र में हस्तक्षेप करने का अधिकार नहीं है। वास्तव में यह बंटवारा तीन प्रकार का है। संविधान में विषयों के बंटवारे से संबंधित तीन प्रकार की सूचियां दी गई हैं। ये तीन सूचियां तथा उनके अधिकार क्षेत्र इस प्रकार हैं-

संघीय सूची-संघीय सूची 97 विषयों (वर्तमान 100) की एक सूची है जिन पर केवल केंद्र सरकार कानून बना सकती है। संघीय सूची में संपूर्ण देश से संबंधित विषय हैं जैसे कि रक्षा, वित्त, विदेशी मामले, डाक तथा तार, बैंकिंग इत्यादि। केवल केंद्र सरकार ही इन विषयों से संबंधित निर्णय ले सकती है।
राज्य सूची-राज्य सूची 66 (वर्तमान 61) विषयों की एक सूची है जिन पर राज्य सरकारें कानून बना सकती हैं। केंद्र सरकार का इससे कुछ लेना-देना नहीं है। स्थानीय महत्त्व के विषय इसमें आते हैं जैसे कि पुलिस, कृषि, सिंचाई, व्यापार, इत्यादि। राज्य सरकार ही इन विषयों पर कानून बना सकती है।
मवर्ती सूची-समवर्ती सूची भी 47 विषयों (वर्तमान 52) की सूची है जिसमें केंद्र तथा राज्य दोनों के हित होते हैं। विषय जैसे कि वन, शिक्षा, ट्रेड यूनियन इत्यादि इसमें आते हैं। केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारें दोनों ही इन पर कानून बना सकती हैं। परंतु अगर दोनों के कानून आमने-सामने हो जाएं तो केंद्र सरकार वाला कानून मान्य होगा।
इस प्रकार भारतीय संघ व्यवस्था में केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों में शक्तियों का विभाजन किया गया है।

प्रश्न 7.
संघीय सरकार की मुख्य विशेषताओं का वर्णन कीजिए।
अथवा
आप कैसे कह सकते हैं कि भारत में संघीय व्यवस्था की सरकार है ?
उत्तर-
संघवाद का निर्माण उस समय होता है जब कुछ अलग-अलग हिस्से तथा उनमें एक केंद्रीय सत्ता हो। इसमें केंद्र सरकार या तो अधिक शक्तिशाली होती है या फिर राज्यों के पास भी केंद्र सरकार के समान ही शक्तियां होती हैं परंतु भारत में सरकार की व्यवस्था देखने के बाद हम कह सकते हैं कि भारत में संघीय प्रकार की सरकार है जिसकी विशेषताएं निम्नलिखित हैं-

लिखित तथा कठोर संविधान-संघीय प्रकार की सरकार में संविधान लिखित तथा कठोर होता है जो कि केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों में शक्तियों का बंटवारा कर देता है तथा यह प्रावधान भी रखता है कि कोई भी स्तर अपने हितों के लिए अकेले ही संविधान में परिवर्तन न कर सके।
संविधान की सर्वोच्चता-संघवादी सरकार में संविधान सर्वोच्च होता है। अगर सरकार कोई ऐसा कानून बनाती हैं जो कि संवैधानिक प्रावधानों के अनुकूल न हो तो उसे न्यायपालिका द्वारा असंवैधानिक भी करार दिया जा सकता हैं।
स्वतंत्र न्यायपालिका-संघीय राज्यों में न्यायपालिका स्वतंत्र होती हैं। न्यायपालिका के मुख्य कार्य कानूनों का सही व्याख्यान तथा संविधान की रक्षा करना होता है। न्यायपालिका ही केंद्र तथा राज्य सरकारों के बीच के मतभेदों का समाधान करती हैं।
दो स्तरीय विधायिका-संघीय प्रकार की सरकार में विधायिका दो स्तरों की होती है। एक सदन राज्यों का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है तथा दूसरा स्तर जनता का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।
शक्तियों का विभाजन-संघीय प्रकार की सरकार में सरकारी शक्तियों को केंद्र सरकार तथा राज्य सरकारों में ठीक प्रकार से बांटा जाता है। ताकि उनमें कोई मतभेद उत्पन्न न हों।

इस प्रकार इन विशेषताओं को देखकर हम कह सकते हैं कि भारत में संघीय सरकार है।

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

April 7, 2026January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
What were the orders given by Guru Ji to the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji instructed the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama to consider Banda Bahadur as their leader in their struggle against the Mughals.

Question 2.
Why did Banda Bahadur come to Punjab from the South?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji had appointed Banda Bahadur as the leader of the Sikhs in Punjab. Hence, he came to Punjab from Deccan to undertake military action against the tyrannical Mughals.

Question 3.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Samana?
Answer:
Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji, lived in Samana. The other two executioners of two young Sahibzadas, namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Jalad Bhagal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Due to this reason, Banda Bahadur attacked Samana.

Question 4.
What was the reason for attacking Bhuna village by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
A contingent of Mughal soldiers guarding a Mughal treasury was camping at village Bhuna. Banda Bahadur needed money for his military campaigns. Hence, he attacked the village Bhuna.

Question 5.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Sadhaura?
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. Usman Khan was notorious for commiting atrocities on the Hindus. Usman Khan had also killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the battle of Bhangani.

Question 6.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Chapparchiri and Sirhind?
Or
What was the reason for attacking Sirhind by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab. He had also bricked alive the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind. That was why Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri.

Question 7.
What was the cause of the battle of Rahon?
Answer:
The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in arms against Faujdar Shamas Khan. The Sikhs had removed the Mughal officers by force and replaced them by Sikh officers. As a result, the battle of Rahon was fought between the Sikhs and the Mughals.

Question 8.
Wazir Khan was the Subedar of which place? Where did he fight against Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
Wazir Khan was appointed as the Subedar of Sirhind by the Mughals. He fought a battle with Banda Bahadur at Chapparchirri.

Question 9.
Write about the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was arrested along with about one thousand Sikh soldiers in 1715 and taken to Delhi. There, the Mughal tormentors plucked out his flesh with hot iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred.

Question 10.
When and between whom third battle of Panipat fought?
Answer:
Third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761 between Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas. ,

Question 11.
How was the Karorsinghia Misl named?
Answer:
The founder of Karorsinghia Misl was Karor Singh. His Misl was named as Karorsinghia Misl after his name.

Question 12.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. She belonged to the Kanhaiya Misl. She was a woman of extraordinary courage and ability.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Describe the meeting of Banda Bahadur and Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Dass. His childhood name was Lakshman Dass. He was a Bairagi. In 1708, Guru Gobind Singh Ji visited South India. There, Madho Dass happened to meet’Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He was so much impressed by the graceful personality of Guru Sahib that he immediately adopted Guru Sahib as his Guru. Guru Sahib baptized him a Sikh and renamed him Gurbaksh Singh. Guru Sahib sent him to the Punjab* to lead the Sikhs. He became popular as Banda Bahadur in Punjab.

Question 2.
Write a note on the conquest of Samana by Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on October 26, 1709. The cause of the attack on Samana was that the executioner who had martyred Guru Teg Bahadur Ji and bricked the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind belonged to Samana. The fight continued in the streets of Samana for many hours. It is said that the Sikhs killed nearly ten thousand Muslims. They also razed to the ground numerous buildings. The families of the executioners were completely liquidated. Banda Bahadur looted a large amount of money from Samana.

Question 3.
Write about the battle of Chapparchiri (Sirhind).
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in Punjab. Secondly, the two young Sahibzadas were bricked alive in a wall on his orders. Banda Bahadur determined to avenge the heinous crimes committed by Wazir Khan. When Banda Bahadur marched towards Sirhind, many people rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, who was an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army along with his thousand soldiers. However, later he deserted the Sikh army. On the other side, Wazir Khan had twenty thousand soldiers at his disposal. On May 22, 1710, a fierce battle took place at Chapparchirri, a place 16 kilometres away from Sirhind. Wazir Khan was slain in the battle. The enemy army became the victim of the swords of Sikhs in large numbers. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

Question 4.
Describe the battle of Gurdas Nangal.
Answer:
The Mughals were highly infuriated by the continuous victories of Banda Bahadur. Finally, in 1715, a large Mughal army attacked Banda’s army. Abdus Samad Khan was in command of that army. The Sikhs fought the Mughal army doggedly. However, they were forced to move to Haveli of Duni Chand at Gurdas Nangal, a place 6 kilometres west of Gurdaspur City. They again entrenched themselves in the mansion (haveli) of Bhai Duni Chand. In order to strengthen the defence of the Haveli, they dug out a moat around the building and filled it with water. In April 1715, the Mughal army landed near the haveli of Duni Chand and besieged it. The Sikhs put up a stiff resistance. The siege continued for eight months during which all the food supplies within the haveli were finished. Thus, compelled by the circumstances, the Sikhs accepted the defeat. Banda Bahadur and his about 1000 soldiers were arrested and taken to Lahore.

Question 5.
Which was the First Misl? Describe it.
Answer:
The Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl which came into existence. The founder of this Misl was Nawab Kapur Singh. He had first occupied a village Faizalpur near Amritsar and named it Singhpur. It was, therefore, also called the Singpuria Misl.

In 1753, Nawab Kapur Singh died and his nephew Khushal Singh became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. By that time, the influence and dominance of the Sikhs had increased and Faizalpuria Misl extended its sway over a wide area. In 1796, Buddh Singh, son of Khushal Singh, became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. He was a brave and capable chief just like his father. In 1819, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexecFFaizalpuria Misl to his kingdom.

Answer the following questions in 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Describe the early conquests of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was a great military commander of his times. The strongest weapons of Banda Bahadur were his intrepidity and the blessings of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He had come to Delhi on the instructions of Guru Sahib. He sent the Hukamnama of Guru Gobind Singh Ji to the Sikhs of Malwa, Doaba and Majha. Soon after, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. After organising the army with the help of those Sikhs, Banda Bahadur marched towards Punjab to take military action against the tyranny and oppression of the Mughals.

1. Attack on Sonipat. After leaving Delhi for Punjab, he first attacked Sonipat. At that time, only 500 Sikhs had joined him. However, the Faujdar of Sonipat had no courage to face the Sikh army on learning about the stories of their valour. He ran away from the town along with his soldiers.

2. Looting of Royal treasury at Bhuna (Kaithal). After Sonepat, Banda Bahadur reached Kaithal. He received a report that some soldiers were camping at a nearby village Bhuna with the land revenue collections. Banda Bahadur, who was in need of money for his military campaigns, attacked village Bhuna. The Faujdar of Kaithal came forward to fight a battle with him but was badly defeated. Banda Bahadur acquired all the money.

3. Victory of Samana. After Bhuna, Banda Bahadur marched towards Samana. Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Teg Bahadur, lived there. The executioners of two young Sahibzadas, (Sahibzadas Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh) namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on November 26, 1709 and punished them. The fight continued for many hours in the streets of Samana. The Sikh soldiers razed to the ground the imposing buildings of Samana and put nearly ten thousand Muslims to sword. The families of Sayyid Jalaludin, Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were killed. Banda Bahadur acquired a large booty during the attack. He appointed Bhai Fateh Singh as the administrator of Samana.

4. Victory of Ghurram. One week after the victory of Samana, Banda Bahadur attacked Ghurram. The Pathans of Ghurram offered resistance to the Sikh army. However, they saved their lives by running away. The Sikh army looted a lot of money from Ghurram.

5. Attack on Kapuri. From Ghurram, Banda Bahadur reached Kapuri. The ruler of Kapuri, Qutbudirt was notorious for inflicting atrocities on the Hindus. Banda Bahadur defeated him and put him to death! Banda Bahadur burned down his haveli.

6. Victory of Sadhaura (Qatalgarhi). The ruler of Sadhaura, Usman Khan, was notorious for committing atrocities on the Hindus. He had killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the victory of Bhangani. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhora. After defeating Usman Khan, the Sikhs ravaged Sadhora,, town. Some of the Muslims took shelter in the haveli of Buddhu Shah. The Sikh army chopped off their heads. As a result, the place came to be ’known as Quatalgarhi.

7. Victory of Mukhalispur. After Sadhora, Banda Bahadur invaded Mukhalispur and easily occupied it. He changed the name of the fort to Lohgarh. Later, Banda Bahadur made Lohgarh as his capital.

8. Victory of Chapparchirri and Sirhind: The main target of the military expedition of Banda Bahadur was Sirhind where Subedar Wazir Khan lived, who had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab and afterwards also. He was also responsible for the martyrdom of two young Sahibzadas. That was why Banda Bahadur wanted to take revenge upon him. When Banda Bahadur approached Sirhind, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army with his one thousand soldiers. Wazir Khan also came forward with his 2000 soldiers. A fierce battle was fought at Chapparchirri (near Sirhind) on 22 May, 1710 A.D. between the two armies. However, some of the Sikhs indulged in looting only and deserted the army during the course of the battle. The nephew of Sucha Nand also ran away from the field. At such a crucial juncture, Banda Bahadur charged forward and encouraged the loyal Sikhs. Finally, he killed Wazir Khan. A large number of Mughal soldiers were slain by the Sikhs. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

9. Attack on Saharanpur and Jalalabad: In the meantime, Banda Bahadur got report that Jalal Khan, the governor of Jalalabad, was committing atrocities on his Hindu subjects. Therefore, he invaded Jalalabad. On his way, he occupied Saharanpur also. However, Banda Bahadur returned without conquering Jalalabad because of heavy rains and he had received an urgent message from the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to come to their help.

10. Control over Jalandhar Doab: The continuous victories of Banda Bahadur had infused a new spirit of courage among the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab. The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in revolt against the Faujdar Shams Khan. Shams Khan sent a huge army against the Sikhs after declaring Jihad. Banda Bahadur arrived at the right time to assist the Sikhs in their revolt. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs emerged victorious. In this way, the regions of Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur came under the control of the Sikhs.

11. Control over Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot: Encouraged by the victories of Bapda Bahadur, nearly 8000 Sikhs revolted against their Muslim rulers. Soon they took in their possession the region of Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot.

Question 2.
Describe the battles between Bahadur Shah and Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur spread awe and fear amoag the Mughal rulers of Punjab. When the Mughal Emperor received the report about actual condition in the Punjab, he got infuriated. The emperor, therefore, directed all his attention towards Punjab. On June 27, 1710, he left Ajmer for Punjab.

The emperor also directed the Subedars of Delhi, Avadh, and Nizams and Faujdars of Muradabad and Allahabad to come along with their armies to Punjab.
1. Battle of Eminabad: Bahadur Shah, Feroze Khan Mewati and Mahabat Khan in command of a large army marched against Banda Bahadur and his Sikh army. Bhai Binod Singh and Ram Singh engaged the Mughal army in a battle on October 26, 1710 at Eminabad, a place between Banesar and Tarawari. At one time, the Sikh army pushed back Mahabat Khan. But as the number of Mughal soldiers was quite large, the Sikhs were defeated. The Sikhs were highly insulted. The dead bodies of the Sikhs were hanged on the trees on the roadsides. Bahadur Shah appointed Feroze Khan Mewati as the Faujdar of Sirhind.

2. Battle of Sadhaura: When Banda Bahadur learnt about the defeat of Sikh army, he immediately marched against the enemy. At that time, the Mughal army was camping at Sadhaura. The Mughal army was trying to seek some better place for camping. On December 4, 1710 a Mughal contingent left Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur exploited the opportunity to attack the remaining army at Sadhaura. He inflicted heavy losses on the Mughals. However, by the evening, the search party of the Mughal army returned. As a result, the Sikh army was forced to discontinue the attack and move back to the fort of Lohgarh.

3. Battle of Lohgarh: By this time, Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah himself took over the command to act against Banda Bahadur. He directed his commander Munim Khan to move towards the fort of Lohgarh with an order to gauge the actual strength of the Sikh army. Munim Khan overstepped the instructions of the Emperor and attacked Lohgarh on December 10, 1710 A.D. The other Mughal commanders were forced to join him in this expedition. The Sikhs gave them a tough fight. However, the Sikhs faced hardships because of the scarcity of the provisions. They were not fully prepared to fight a battle. In such a situation, one of the Sikhs, namely Gulab Singh wore the dress of Banda Bahadur and took over the command of the fort in place of Banda Bahadur. It helped Banda Bahadur to leave Lohgarh safely and he reached Nahan along with his Sikhs on December 11, 1710. Munim Khan stormed the fort of Lohgarh and captured it. Gulab Singh was killed. However, Bahadur Shah felt frustrated when he found that he was not able to capture Banda Bahadur. Hence, the Emperor sent his army under Hamid Khan after Banda Bahadur towards Nahan. The Emperor himself marched through Sadhaura, Badowal, Ropar, Hoshiarpur, Kalanaur, etc. and reached Lahpre.

4. The activities of Banda Bahadur in the Hilly Regions: Banda Bahadur sent a message to the Sikhs living in the hilly regions to join him. Very soon, a large number of Sikhs gathered at Kiratpur.

First of all, Banda Bahadur issued a directive ^o the old enemy of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, named Bhim Chand of Bilaspur to accept his suzerainty. When Bhim Chand refused to follow his command, Banda Bahadur attacked Bilaspur. A fierce battle took place. Bhim Chand and his 1300 soldiers were killed in the battle. It was one of the glorious victories of the Sikhs.
The rest of the hilly chiefs were terrified by the victory of Banda Bahadur. Some of them even presented gifts and recognised his suzerainty. Raja Siddha Sen of Mandi even openly announced that he was a follower of the Sikh Gurus.
From Mandi, Banda Bahadur marched towards Kullu. The ruler of Kullu, Raja Man Singh was able to trap Banda Bahadur by a trick. However, Banda Bahadur soon set himself free.
From Kullu, Banda Bahadur marched towards the kingdom of Chamba. The Raja of Chamba, Raja Udai Singh welcomed him and even married a girl from his family to Banda Bahadur. A son was born to Banda Bahadur in 1711, who was named Ajay Singh.
Battle of Baihrampur: Next, Banda Bahadur marched from the hills of Raipur and Baihrampur and came down to the plains. There, he was again attacked by Faujdar of Jammu, Baizd Khan Khaishgi. A battle was fought on June 4, 1711, near Baihrampur. Bhai Bhag Singh and Bhai Fateh Singh displayed their skills with great courage and won the battle for the Sikhs.

After the victory of Baihrampur, Banda Bahadur attacked Raipur, Kalanaur, and Batala and occupied those towns. But, he soon lost those territories. Banda Bahadur again took shelter in the mountains. But Bahadur Shah and his army failed to destroy Banda Bahadur’s power and the Sikh army.

Question 3.
Describe the battles fought by Banda Bahadur in the Ganga-Yamuna region.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm spread among the common people because of continuous victories won by Banda Bahadur. The people became hopeful that Banda Bahadur would free them from the tyranny of the Mughals. So many Hindus and Muslims started embracing Sikh religion. The inhabitants of Muslim villages like Unarasa were converted to Sikh religion.

The Faujdar of Jalalabad did not tolerate it. He imprisoned many Sikhs of that village. Banda Bahadur, on getting this report, set out towards Unarasa to get the Sikhs released.
1. Attack on Saharanpur: The Sikhs attacked Saharanpur after crossing the river Yamuna. The Faujdar of Saharanpur ran away to Delhi on the arrival of Sikhs. His subordinates tried to resist the attacks of the Sikhs but were badly defeated. The Sikh army occupied a major portion of Saharanpur. They changed the name of Saharanpur to Bhagnagar.

2. Battle of Bihat: After Saharanpur, Banda Bahadur marched towards Bihat. The Pirzadas of Bihat were commiting atrocities on the Hindus. They used to slaughter cows at public places. Banda Bahadur put many Pirzadas to sword. It is said that only one Pirzada escaped the sword of Banda Bahadur because at that time he was away to Bulandshahr.

3. Attack on Ambeta: After Bihat, Banda Bahadur attacked Ambeta. The Afghans (Pathans) of Ambeta were very rich. They did not oppose the Sikh army. The Sikh army acquired a lot of money from them.

4. Attack on Nanota: The Sikhs attacked Nanota on July 21,1710. The Sheikhzadas of Nanota were experts in archery. They gave a tough fight to the Sikh army. The fight spread over to the streets and market of the town. Finally, the Sikh army won the victory and three hundred Sheikhzadas were killed.

5. Attack on Unarasa: After the victory of Nanota, Banda Bahadur turned to Jalalabad and Unarasa, which were his main targets. Banda Bahadur sent the message through his representative to Jalal Khan to ask him to immediately release the imprisoned Sikhs and quietly accept the suzerainty of Banda Bahadur. Jalal Khan refused to accept the orders of Banda Bahadur. He even insulted the representative of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur now stormed Unarasa. A fierce battle took place and the Sikhs won it. Jalal Khan and his nephews Jamal Khan and Pir Khan were killed.

Activity:

Question 1.
Show the places of battles fought by Bandu BaIiadurIhempofPunjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word:

Question 1.
What did Madho Dass call himself after conifng under the influence of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
Madho Dass called himself a Dass (a humble servent) or Banda (a reliable follower of Guru Sahib).

Question 2.
Write one important victory won by the Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Victory of Sirhind.

Question 3.
Why did the Sikhs lose the battle of Gurdas Nangal?
Answer:
The Sikhs ran short of food supplies during the long siege of haveli of Bhai Duni Chand.

Question 4.
Write one important feature of the victories of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The victories of Banda Bahadur united the Sikhs in the bond of unity and showed them the path of independence.

Question 5.
Write any one cause of the failure of Banda Bahadur in establishing a more permanent rule of the Sikhs in Punjab.
Answer:
(1) Banda Bahadur had become unpopular among the Sikhs.

Question 6.
In which two groups (Dais) did Nawab Kapur Singh divide the Khalsa soldiers in 1734?
Answer:
In 1734, Nawab Kapur Singh divided the Sikh soldiers into two groups, Buddha Dal and Tarun Dal.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of the word Misl?
Or
How did the word Misl originate?
Answer:
The Misl is an Arabic word, which means all are equals.

Question 8.
How many Sikh Misls were there?
Answer:
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.

Question 9.
Write the name of the founder of the Ahluwalia Misl.
Answer:
Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

Question 10.
Which Misl was founded by Sardar Charhat Singh?
Answer:
Sukherchakia.

Question 11.
Who was the founder of Karorsinghia Misl?
Answer:
Karor Singh.

Question 12.
When and where Banda was executed by the Mughal ruler?
Answer:
In June 1716 at Delhi.

Question 13.
Who was Wazir Khan?
Answer:
Governor of Sirhind.

Question 14.
What was the name of Banda Bahadur’s son?
Answer:
Ajay Singh.

Question 15.
Who was the founder of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Chaudhri Phul Singh, a Sandhu Jat.

Question 16.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Baba Ala Singh.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Guru Gobind Singh Ji sent Banda Bahadur to the _________ to lead the Sikhs in their struggle against the ___________
Answer:
Punjab, Mughals

Question 2.
The third Battle of Panipat was fought in between the _________ and_________
Answer:
1761, Marathas and Ahmed Shah Abdali

Question 3.
Jasa Singh Ahluwalia was the founder of the ________ Misl.
Answer:
Ahluwalia

Question 4.
Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri to punish the Subedar of
Answer:
Wazir Khan, Sirhind

Question 5.
The Phulkian Misl was founded by Chaudhri
Answer:
Phul Singh.

True or False:

Question 1.
Banda was defeated in his battle with Wazir Khan, Subedar of Sirhind.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Banda was executed at Lahore.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Das.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Sukherchakya Misl was founded by Sardar Charat Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A long dark period in the Sikh history followed the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
True

Match the following:

Question 1.

(A)	(B)
1. Nawab Kapoor Singh	(a) Bhangi Misi
2. Banda Bahadur	(b) Ramgarhiya Misi
	(c) Chapparchiri
	(d) Faizalpuria Misi

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about any four main military achievements of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The brief description of the main military achievements of Banda Bahadur is as follows:
1. Looting of Samana and Kapuri. Banda Bahadur made his first attack on Samana and looted it badly. Then, he stormed Kapuri. He also ravaged the town of Kapuri.

2. Attack on Sadhaura. The ruler of Sadhaura was ill-treating the Hindu inhabitants of Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. He massacred the Muslims in such a large number that the place came to be known as Qatalgarhi.

3. Victory over Sirhind. The two young Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji were bricked alive in a wall at Sirhind. Banda Bahadur massacred the Muslims of Sirhind to avenge the heinous crime. The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, was also killed in the battle.

4. Conquest of Jalandhar Doab. The’icontinuous victories of Banda Bahadur encouraged the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to rise against the Mughal subedar. They revolted against its Faujdar Shamas Khan and sought the help of Banda Bahadur. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and the Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs won the battle of Rahon and occupied the region bf Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur and his Sikh soldiers were made prisoners at Gurdas Nangal. They were taken first to Lahore and then to Delhi. Banda Bahadur was paraded in the market places of Delhi and publicly insulted. Finally on June 9, 1716, the Mughal government passed the orders for the execution of Banda Bahadur. He was badly tortured before his execution. His son was cut into pieces before his eyes. His flesh was plucked out with red-iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred. About 740 of his followers were also executed at Delhi.

Question 3.
Give four reasons because of which Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom in Punjab due to the following causes:

Kingly Life Style of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur had adopted the kingly life style and abandoned the ways of saints. It reduced the respect of Banda Bahadur among the Sikhs.
Merciless and Brutal Massacres. According to Lala Daulat Ram, Banda Bahadur indulged in very brutal general massacres without sparing any Hindu or Muslim while on his Punjab expeditions. He lost the support of the Sikhs and Hindus due to large scale mindless killings.
Powerful Mughal Empire. The Mughal Empire had yet not lost its vitality. Therefore, Banda Bahadur and his few thousand Sikhs could not fight against the Mughal Empire for long.
Limited Resources of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent kingdom due to his limited resources. The Sikhs did not have enough resources to finish the power of the Mughal Empire.

Question 4.
Who was the founder of the Ahluwralia Misl? How did he expand the power of the Ahluwalia Misl?
Answer:
The founder of Ahluwalia Misl was Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

Jassa Singh successfully opposed the oppression of Mir Mannu (the Subedar of Lahore) from 1748 to 1753.
In 1761, Jassa Singh attacked Lahore and defeated its Subedar Khwaja Obed. The Sikhs occupied Lahore.
In 1762, Ahmed Shah Abdali attacked Punjab. Jassa Singh was defeated at Kup. However, Jassa Singh re-established himself. In 1763, the Sikhs under the leadership of Jassa Singh looted Kasur and Sirhind.
In 1764, Jassa Singh invaded Delhi and looted it.

Question 5.
What was the position of Marathas on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Ahmed Shah Abdali had defeated Marathas in the third battle of Panipat in 1761 and thrown them out of Punjab. However, by the end of the 18th century, they had again extended their sway in the,North India.

Daulat Rao Sindhia, the Maratha chief had established his control over Delhi. He started attacking the region of Satluj and Yamuna Doab. However, his advance was checked by the British, a new power on the political scene of India.

Question 6.
Describe the position of the East India Company on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of the British Empire under the East India Company from 1772 to 1785. He checked the Marathas from extending their sway over Punjab by involving them in military engagements. However, the succeeding Governors-General, especially Cornwallis (1786 to 1793) and John Shore (1793 to 1798) an acting Governor-General) did not try to extend the territories of the British Empire under East India Company. In 1798, Lord Wellesley became the Governor-General. He was a soldier by training. He entered into subsidiary alliances with Hyderabad, Mysore, Carnatic, Tanjore, Awadh, etc. He also fought against the Marathas. The, Marathas were therefore not able to give attention to the Punjab. In 1803, the East India Company occupied Delhi after defeating Daulat Rao Scindia and brought it under the control of the British Empire.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the following Misls:
1. Phulkian,
2. Dalewalia,
3. Nishanwalia,
4. Karorsinghia, and
5. Shahid Misl.
Answer:
A brief description of the history of the above Misls is as follows:
1. Phulkian Misl:
A Sandhu Jat Chaudhari Phul Singh laid the foundation of the Phulkian Misl. The most powerful ruler of this Misl, however, was Baba Ala Singh. Baba Ala Singh had conquered the territories around Barnala in the beginning. In 1762. Ahmed Shah Abdali appointed him Nawab of Malwa region. In 1764, Baba Ala Singh defeated the Subedar of Sirhind Zain Khan. Abdali honoured Baba Ala Singh by awarding him with a kettledrum (Nagra) and Flag in 1765. Baba Ala Singh died in 1765. After the death of Baba Ala Singh, Amar Singh took over the reins of Phulkian Misl. He annexed the area of Bhatinda, Rohtak, and Hansi to the territories of his Misl. Ahmed Shah Abdali awarded him the title Raja-i-Rajanan. After the death of Amar Singh, his son Sahib Singh became the chief of the Phulkian Misl. He was a weak ruler. Finally, by a treaty in 1809, the East India Company made Phulkian Misl a protectorate of the British Empire.

2. Dalewalia Misl:
Gulab Singh established the Dalewalia Misl. He was an inhabitant of a village Dalewal which was situated on the banks of river Ravi. Thus, the Misl was called Dalewal Misl. The most popular and powerful chief of this Misl was Tara Singh Gheba. He kept an army of 7500 soldiers. He was a very wealthy chief. As long as he was alive,
Maharaja Ranjit Singh maintained friendly relations with him. The day, Tara Singh died, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed this Misl into his Empire. The wife of Tara Singh protested strongly against his action but was not able to achieve anything.

3. Nishanwalia Misl:
Sangat Singh and Mohar Singh founded the Nishanwalia Misl. They used to carry the banner of Khalsa (Nishan) during their eariler years. Therefore, this Misl was called Nishanwalia Misl. The territory of this Misl was Ambala and Shahabad. It was not politically much important Misl.

4. Karorsinghia Misl:
Karor Singh founded this Misl. The most popular chief of this Misl was Baghel Singh. Baghel Singh had conquered the territories of Banga, Nawanshahar, etc. The main centre of the activities of this Misl was 20 miles away from Karnal, the place where the Misl shifted its activities. Baghel Singh had an army of 12000 soldiers. After the death of Subedar Zain Khan of Sirhind, Baghel Singh had tried to extend the territories of his Misl towards the north of Satluj. Jodh Singh succeeded Baghel Singh. Jodh Singh had conquered some territory in the Malwa region and annexed it to his Misl. Finally, a major portion of the territory of this Misl became part of the Kalsia kingdom and Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed the rest of its territory.

5. Shahid or Nihang Misl:
Sudha Singh, a Granthi of Damdama Sahib, laid the foundation of this Misl. Sudha Singh died while fighting the Muslim rulers. Hence, this Misl was called Shahid Misl. After him, the Misl was headed by Baba Deep Singh, Karam Singh, Gurbaksh Singh, etc. successively. Most of the members of this Misl were Akalis or Nihangs. Therefore, this Misl was also called Nihang Misl. About 2000 soldiers of this Misl were Nihangs. This Misl had been helping the other Misls during their times of need and crisis.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

April 7, 2026January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention four basic principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the four main principles of India’s foreign policy :

Faith in the policy of non-alignment
Faith in the principles of Panchsheel,
Full faith in the U.N.
Opposition to colonialism and imperialism.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Panchsheel?
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, P.M. of China formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence for the nations of the world. These five principles are calledTanchsheel. The main objective of Panchsheel is to maintain world peace by promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means making decisions independently on the basis of merit to solve international problems. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Question 4.
Describe one basic reason which created bad blood between India and the United State of America.
Answer:
India has refused to join military pacts set up by America.

Question 5.
What is the Atomic Policy of India?
Answer:
To use the atomic energy for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 6.
Enumerate the number of permanent members and non-permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
The Security Council has 15 members. Out of them five are permanent members. The remaining ten are temporary members. Each temporary member is elected for a term of 2 years by the General Assembly. The five permanent members are: U.S.A., Russia, Great Britain, France and China.

Question 7.
When the UN came into existence and how many were its original members?
Answer:
The United Nations was founded on October 24, 1945. It had 51 original (founder) members.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Disarmament?
Answer:
Disarmament means destruction or reduction of arms. The term implies voluntary destruction of arms and the creation of world without arms.

Question 9.
Describe the basic cause of tension and stagnation of relations between India and China.
Answer:
The border dispute is the main cause of tension between India and China. This tension became intense when China attacked India in 1962.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main principles of Indian foreign policy.
Or
Write down three principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the main principles of Indian Foreign Policy :

Non-alignment. It is the basic principle of India’s foreign policy. India was the first country that initiated the policy of Noii-alignment.
Opposition to Imperialism. India has always opposed imperialism and colonialism.
Opposition to the policy of Caste, ColoSr and Discrimination etc. India has always raised voice against the policy of Caste, Colour and Discrimination.
Faith in the United Nations. India is a founder member of the United Nations and has full faith in the aims and principles of the United Nations.
Panchsheel. Panchsheel is an important principle of Indian foreign policy.
Friendly Relations with other States. India is always ready to have friendly relations with other States of the world.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on Panchsheel.
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, the Prime Minister of China held a meeting in Delhi. They formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence between the nations of the world. These principles are called Panchsheel.

Following are these principles:

Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
Non-aggression. In other words, the disputes among the nations should be settled by negotiations.
Non-interference in the internal affairs of other states.
To endeavour to achieve mutual gains and co-operation.
To adhere to the policy of peaceful co-existence among different nations Live and let live. If these principles are respected, there can be no danger of any deadly war in the world.

Question 3.
Describe the meaning of the’^bficy of Non-alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc and having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means taking decisions independently on the basis of merit while solving international problems. Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Reasons. At the time of our independence, there were two power blocs in the world: the American bloc and the Russian bloc. ‘There existed tension between the two blocs. Thus there was a cold war between them. Newly^^.d countries could reduce this tension and make progress with the aid of both, tfiesel.two.blocs. So they did not join any bloc and formed their own group. Pandit Jawaharl, ejiru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Describe the organisation and functions of the General Assembly, Security Council and International, Court of Justice.
Answer:
General Assembly. It is made up of all the member nations of the U.N.O. each of whom has one vote. However, each member state can send five representatives to attend its meetings. The Assembly takes decisions on ordinary matters by a simple majority. It passes the annual budget of U.N.O.

Security Council: It is made up of 15 members out of Ayhqm five are permanent members. The remaining ten members are elected for a term of two years by the General Assembly.

The Security Council is entrusted with the task of preserving world peace. It tries to settle disputes between the different nations in a just and fair manner.

International Court of Justice:
It is called “The World Court”. The Court hears and decides, disputes arising between states according to International Law. It also gives advice to the General Assembly on legal matters.

Question 5.
Describe the role of India in the United Nations.
Answer:
India is one of the 51 founder members of the United Nations. From the very beginning, the Indian leaders have been keeping a firm faith in this great institution. It has been playing an important role in the functioning of the United Nations.

India stood for anti-colonialism. India along with other members got the resolution passed against imperialism and colonialism in 1950.
Admission of New States. India tried her best for the admission of Communist China and Bangladesh. ,
Cooperation in ending wars in other Countries. India supported the peace efforts of the United Nations to put an end to the wars in Egypt, Congo, Korea and Indo-China.
Against Racial Discrimination. India, with the cooperation of the United Nations, raised a strong voice against the policy of racial discrimination followed by the imperialist government in South Africa.
Human Rights. With the cooperation of the United Nations, India raised a strong voice of protest against the countries.which violated the human rights.
Support of Disarmament. India have so supported disarmament for lessening the possibility of wars.

Question 6.
Describe the main reasons which Abated tension and hostility between India and Pakistan.
Or
Write a short note on the Indo-Pak relationship and their main dispute.
Answer:
India has made every effort to establish friendly relations with Pakistan but the tension and hatred between the two countries has never ended. The two countries had border disputes, river water distribution disputes and had to make settlement of evacuee property. The dispute about the sharing of river waters between the two countries was settled with the help of the World Bank^ through the Indus Water Treaty in 1960. The settlement of border disputes and the prql^em of evacuee property have been solved to a great extent. But the Kashmir problem is the bone of contention between the two countries.

Question 7.
Discuss briefly Indo-American relations.
Answer:
India and U.S.A. are the two largest democracies in the world. During 1947-2001 the relations between the two countries were marked by two opposite features. On one side, there was a spirit of co-operation and friendship between the two countries. But on the other, their relations were strained and conflicting. There has been, however, a marked improvement in the relations between the two countries since 2000 A.D. Both these countries are fighting against terrorism

The U.S.A. had begun to give massive military aid to Pakistan. This was strongly opposed by India. The lowest point in the Indo-US relations came in 1971 when India signed the Treaty of peace, friendship and co-operation with the USSR. India’s peaceful nuclear explosion on May 18, 1974, at Pokhran was strongly criticised by the US leaders and the people. There has been a marked improvement in the relations between America and India since 2001 A.D. The President of the U.S.A. Barack Obama visited India in January 2015.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Describe one cause of tension between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan has been claiming Kashmir since independence whereas it is an integral part of India.

Question 2.
Describe one positive aspect of Indo-Pak relationship.
Answer:
On 17th Feb., 1999, India and Pakistan signed a formal agreement for launching the Delhi-Lahore Bus Service.

Question 3.
Give the names of the founder countries of the Non-alignment Movement.
Answer:
India, Yugoslavia and Egypt.

Question 4.
Mention any one object of the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
To maintain international peace and security.

Question 5.
Mention one important function of the Security Council.
Answer:
To help in maintaining international peace and security.

Question 6.
Throw light on any ope aspect of India’s policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Not to join any of the power blocs.

Question 7.
Mention any one cause for the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace in the world.

Question 8.
Give one example of the work done by the U.N. for world peace.
Answer:
In 1949, it made the Dutch forces to vacate Indonesia.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can be his best self.

Question 10.
Why is disarmament necessary? Give one reason.
Answer:
To save humanity from total destrubtidh.

Question 11.
What was Marshall Plan of America?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was a big programme of American aid-to the European nations to rebuild their war shattered economies.

Question 12.
Why were SEATO and Baghdad pacts prepared by the U.S.A.?
Answer:
To check spread of communism.

Question 13.
What is India’s Atomic or Nuclear Policy?
Answer:
India wants to make’ the use of atomic energy.for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 14.
What is meant by atomic weapons?
Answer:
The weapons which are exploded by the use of atomic or nuclear energy are called atomic weapons.

Question 15.
Which powers colonised Africa?
Answer:
The continent of Africa was colonised by Britain, France, Italy, Portugal and Belgium.

Question 16.
When was Bangla Desh created?
Answer:
In 1971.

Question 17.
Write down the names of two permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
England and U.S.A.

Question 18.
What is meant by policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but to have friendly relations with all countries.

Question 19.
Write down the names of two organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
1. General Assembly and
2. Security Council.

Question 20.
Enumerate the number of non-permanent members of Security Council of UNO.
Answer:10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
There are ____________ organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
United Nations was established on ___________
Answer:
24th October, 1945

Question 3.
Originally United Nations consisted of ___________ members.
Answer:
51

Question 4.
Pt. ___________ is rightly acknowledged as the chief architect of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 5.
The train characteristic of India’s foreign policy is ___________
Answer:
Non-alignment,

Question 6.
India has full faith in the ___________ of United Nations.
Answer:
principles

Question 7.
At present United Nations consists of ____________ members.
Answer:
193

Question 8.
The word ‘Panchsheel’ stands for principles.
Answer:
five

Question 9.
___________ is a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Kashmir

Question 10.
There are ___________ permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
China made a sudden attack on India in:
(a) August 1962
(b) September 1962
(c) October 1962
(d) September 1965.
Answer:
(c) October 1962

Question 2.
The Principles of Panchsheel were signed between the Heads of the Govt. of:
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Japan
(d) Inia and Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India and China

Question 3.
The architect of Non-alignment is:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Dr. Rajinder Praad
(c) Atal Behari Vajpaye
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 4.
India became a member of U.N. in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1960.
Answer:
(a) 1945

Question 5.
Which organ of United Nations has all the member states as Its members?
(a) Security Council
(b) General Assembly
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Economic and Social Council.
Answer:
(b) General Assembly

Question 6.
Bangladesh was established in:
(a) 1965
(b) 1972
(c) 1971
(d) 1970.
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 7.
International Court of Justice has _________________ Judges.
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 22
(d) 20.
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a basic principle of India’s foreign policy?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Friendly relations with other states
(c) Faith in United Nations
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.
Answer:
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.

Question 9.
Who was the first woman president of the U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit
(d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur.
Answer:
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a permament member of U.N. Security Council?
(a) India
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Russia
(d) England.
Answer:
(a) India

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are security and defence so important for India today?
Answer:
It was easier to defend the frontiers of India in ancient times. The Himalayas served as the sentinal in the north. The ocean protected us in the south. But now the high Himalayas and the deep oceans have lost their importance as the protectors of the country. Due to the progress of science and technology, the mountains ánd the seas are no longer barriers to check the enemy. So it has become very important for India to defend her borders. Secondly, our relations with some of our neighbours are not very friendly. We have to defend ourselves against them. So India’s need for defence and security is greater these days.

Question 2.
Write the names of any four organs of the United Nations. Explain one important function of each organ.
Answer:
Following are the four main organs of the United Nations.

General Assembly,
Security Council,
Economic and Social Council and
International Court of Justice.

Question 3.
Give some suggestions to Improve the relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
The relations between India and Pakistan can be improved by promoting common interests of both the countries.

The following steps should be taken in this direction:

Trade relations between both the countries should be strengthened.
Efforts should be made to improve cultural and educational relations between the two countries.
There should be friendly sports matches between the teams of the two countries.

Question 4.
When was the United Nations established? Mention its aims.
Answer:
The United Nations was established, on 24th October 1945. The number of its founder members was 51. But now about 209 countries of the world are its members. India is one of its founder members.

Following are its aims :

To settle the disputes between the states through peaceful means.
To promote friendly relations among the member states.
To find solutions to social and economic problems of the world.
To protect and uphold the freedom and rights of man.
To maintain world peace.
To strive hard to achieve these objects.

Question 5.
Write the full names of ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO. Write the functions of any two of these organisations.
Answer:
ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO are specialized agencies of the United Nations.
1. ILO: Its full name is International Labour Organisation.
Its functions are as under :

It tries to improve the living and. working conditions of the labourers.
To fix minimum wages and hours of work for the workers.

2. UNESCO: Its full name is United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation. Its main function is to promote educational, scientific and cultural co-operation among the member nations of the world.

3. FAO: Its full name is Food and Agricultural Organisation. Its main function is to
formulate schemes to increase agricultural production and consider the food situation of all the nations. . ,

4. WHO: Its full name is World Health Organisation. Its main function is to protect the health of people and to eradicate diseases.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the following :
(i) SAARC
(ii) Veto Power.
Answer:
(i) SAARC: Its full name is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It is an organisation of developing countries of South Asia. Its members are—India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. Some similarities are found in the cultural and economic problems of these countries. The representatives of these countries sit together to solve their problems and promote mutual cooperation.

(ii) Veto Power: The permanent members of the Security Council possess Veto power. These members are United States, Britain, China, France and Russia. For all effective decisions of this body, the unanimity of these five big powers is compulsory. This implies that these big powers have a veto on all important decisions of the council and anyone of these five powers can prevent it from taking any action against any country.

Question 7.
Mention some positive aspects of Indo-China relationship.
Answer:

Both the countries have agreed to solve their border dispute through a special committee consisting of officials from the both sides.
Both the countries have agreed to extend economic co-operation to each other. There is a considerable increase in the trade between the two countries.
In 1988, the then Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, visited China. The Chinese Prisident visited India in December 1991 and again in 2014. The way for the restoration of friendly relations between the two countries became clear. Since then many good-will missions have’been exchanged between the two countries.

Question 8.
Write down six features of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

To make efforts for security and peace in the world.
To support the movements for self-determination in the colonies.
To oppose racialism.
Settlement of international disputes by peaceful methods.
To co-operate with U.N.O. and its Specialized Agencies.
To support the Non-Alignment movement and to remain away from the military blocs.

Question 9.
Write a short note on United N&tibns’ Security Council.
Answer:
The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The UNSC was formed in 1945 following World War II to address the failings of the previoifs international organisation i.e. the League of Nations to maintain world peace. The Security Council consists of 15 members. Soviet Union (Russia), United Kingdom, France, China and United States of America are its five permanent members. These countries can veto any resolution. There are 10 non-permanent members elected on regional basis to serve for a term of two years. The Council held its first session on 17th January, 1946.

Question 10.
What is the contribution of India to promote world peace?
Answer:
Following the policy of Non-Alignment, Indi%has always condemned colonialism and imperialism.

Question 11.
Enumerate six main organs of the U. N. O.
Answer:
Following are the names of the chief organs of the U. N. 0.:

The General Assembly.
The Security Council.
Economic and Social Council.
The Trusteeship Council.
The Secretariat.
International Court of Justice.

Question 12.
Name five permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
Following are the names of five permanent members of the Security Council of the U.N. – United States of America, Great Britain, Russia, China, and France.

Question 13.
Briefly explain the International Court of Justice.
Answer:
There is a total of fifteen judges in the International Court of Justice. Its headquarter is the Hague in Holland. Its main task is to settle the disputes between the U.N.O.’s member countries.

Question 14.
Write down a note on Secretary-General of the U. N.O.
Answer:
The head of the Secretariate of U.N.O. is called Secretary-General. He is appointed by the U. N. Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for five years. Now Antonio Guterres is Secretary-General of UNO.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we write balanced chemical equations?
Answer:
To understand the method to write balanced chemical equation, let us take an example.
Zinc + Sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + hydrogen This equation can be written as below
Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂

Check the number of atoms on both sides of the arrow.

Element	No. of atoms in reactants (LHS)	No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Zn	1	1
H	2	2
S	1	1
0	4	4

In the equation, number of atoms are same on the both sides of the arrow, thus it is balanced chemical equation.
Now let us try to balance the following chemical equation
Fe + H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂

Step I: Make a list of atoms of different elements in the unbalanced equation

Element	No. of atoms in reactants (LHS)	No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe	1	3
H	2	2
0	1	4

Step II: Choose a compound with maximum number of atoms for balancing whether it is reactant or product. Choose an element with maximum number of atoms in the choosen compound. On this basis we choose Fe₃O₄ and in it we choose the element oxygen. On the right, there are four atoms of oxygen and on the left only one.

To balance, oxygen atom

Atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In product
(i) initially	1 (In H₂O)	4 (In Fe₃O₄)
(iii) after balancing	1 × 4	4

To equalize the number of atoms, we can not change the formulae of elements and compounds taking part in the reaction e.g. to balance oxygen atoms we can put coefficient ‘4’ and can write 4H20 but we cannot write H204 or (H₂O)₄ or (H₂O₄).

A partially balanced equation will be
Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂
(Partially balanced equation)

Step III: Fe and H are still unbalanced. Choose any one and move ahead. To balance hydrogen atoms, on left side, make number at atoms of hydrogen ‘4’.

Atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In product
Initially	8 (4 In H₂O)	2 (In H₂)
After balancing	8	2 × 4

Now equation becomes
Fe + 4 H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂

Step IV: Check the above equation and choose third element which still is unbalanced. We will find that only iron is the element, which remains to be balanced.

To balance Fe we take 3 atoms of Fe on the left side.
3Fe + 4 H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂

Step V: At the end, let us count the number ofatoms of elements on both sides of the equation
3 Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂(Balanced equation)

Number of atoms of every element on both sides of the equation are equal. Therefore this equation is now balanced. This method of balancing chemical equations is known as hit and trial method because we use smallest integral coefficient to balance the equation.

Step VI: To write the symbols for physical states. There is no information given about the physical state in the above balanced equation.
To make chemical equation more informative, write the physical states with the reactants and products. To represent the states of solid, liquid, gas, aqueous of the reactants and products we write (s), (l), (g) and (aq) respectively with them. When reactant or product is present in the form of solution in water then word (aq) is written.

Thus, balanced equation will be
3Fe(s) + 4H₂O (g) → Fe₃O₄(s) + 4H₂(g)
when (g) is used with water, then it means that water is used in the form of steam in the reaction. Usually, physical state is not mentioned in the chemical equation until it is very necessary.

Sometimes the conditions of the reaction like temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. are shown over or under the arrow e.g.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 2.
Give types of chemical reactions with examples.
Answer:
The various types of chemical reactions are :
1. Combination reactions: In these reactions two or more than two reactants combine to form a single product. Such reactions are known as combination reactions.

Example: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydoxide (slaked lime) and a lot of heat is evolved.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
In this reaction calcium oxide and water combine to give single product calcium hydroxide.

2. Dissociation or Decomposition reactions: In these reactions single reactant breaks into two or more than two new substances. Such reactions are called dissociation reactions.

Examples of dissociation reaction :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

3. Displacement reactions: When an element displaces another element from a compound, then it is called displacement reaction.

Examples:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

4. Double displacement reactions. In such a reaction two different atoms or group of atoms exchange themselves with each other.

Example :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5

Question 3.
Briefly describe oxidation and reduction with suitable examples.
Answer:
Oxidation. Oxidation of a substance takes place in a reaction when there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen in it and opposite to it reduction takes places when there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Example: A black coating of copper (II) oxide is seen on copper powder. Why this black substance is formed?
This copper oxide is formed due to combination of copper with oxygen.

If on this heated substance hydrogen gas is allowed to flow, this black coloured coating changes into brown colour because in these circumstances reverse reaction takes place and copper is again obtained.

When there is gain of oxygen in a substance in a reaction we say oxidation of the substance has taken place and when there is loss of oxygen we say reduction of the substance has taken place.

There is loss of oxygen in copper (II) oxide, therefore it gets reduced. There is gain of oxygen in hydrogen, therefore it is oxidized. Thus, in a reaction one of the reactant is oxidized and other reactant is reduced. Such type of reactions are called reduction-oxidation reactions or redox reactions.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

Other examples of redox reaction are :

ZnO + C → Zn + CO
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
In this reaction carbon is oxidized to become CO and ZnO is reduced to Zn.
In this reaction HCl is oxidized to Cl₂ and MnO₂ is reduced to MnCl₂.

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
(i) H₂ + N₂ → NH₃
Answer:
3H₂ + N₂ → 2NHg

(ii) BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → AlCl₃ + BaSO₄
Answer:
3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₂ → 2AlCl₃ + 3BaSO₄

(iii) H₂S + O₂ → SO₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2H₂S + 3O₂ → 2SO₂ + 2H₂O

(iv) KBr + BaI₂ → KI +BaBr₂
Answer:
2KBr + BaI₂ → 2KI + BaBr₂

(v) Al + CuCl₂ → AlCl₃ + Cu
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl₂ → 2AlCl₃ + 3Cu

(vi) AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO₃)₂ +Ag
Answer:
2AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(vii) Al (OH)₃ → Al₂O3 + H₂O
Answer:
2Al(OH)₃ → Al₂O₃ + 3H₂O

(viii) NH₃ + CuO → Cu + N₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2NH₃ + 3CuO → Cu + N₂ + 3H₂O

(ix) KClO₃ → KCl + O₂
Answer:
2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂

(x) BaCl₂ + K₂SO₄ → 2BaSO₄ + KCl
Answer:
BaCl₂ + K₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2KCl.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples from our daily life to show that chemical changes do take place in our daily life.
Answer:

Fermentation of grapes take place.
Our body digests the food.
In summer, if milk is left in the room, we can see a change in it as it becomes sour.

Question 2.
Differentiate between balanced and skeletal chemical equation.
Answer:
Balanced equation. If number of atoms of each element are same before and after the reaction, then such a reaction is balanced chemical reaction.

Skeletal chemical equation. When number of atoms of each element before and after the reaction are not same then such a chemical equation is called skeletal Chemical equation.

Question 3.
What are the necessary requirements while writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
These are :

It represents a true chemical change.
It should be balanced.
It should represent physical states of the reactants and products.
It should indicate the necessary conditions required for the reaction to occur.
It should represent heat changes during reactions.

Question 4.
Give one example each of balanced and skeletal equation.
Answer:
2KCl + O₂ → 2 KCl(s) + 3O₂(g)
This is example of balanced equation.
Zn + AgNO₃(aq) → Zn (NO₃)₂ + Ag
This is example of skeletal equation.

Question 5.
Give chemical formula for slaked lime and one use of it.
Answer:
Chemical formula -Ca(OH)₂. Solution of slaked lime is used for white washing the buildings.

Question 6.
Why there is a shine on the walls after two-three days of white washing?
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present in the air and form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. After 2-3 days of white wash, calcium carbonate is formed due to which there is a shine on the walls.

Question 7.
Give chemical formula of marble and give reaction to show bow it is formed?
Answer:
Marble is also known as calcium carbonate.
Its chemical formula is CaCO₃ Reaction to show its formation
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 10

Question 8.
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
How oxidation and reduction in the above reaction is taking place? What is the name of such reaction?
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11
Such a reaction is called redox reaction.

Question 9.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12
Complete the above reaction and tell the colour of the product.
Answer:
Above reaction is :

colour of PbO is yellow.

Question 10.
Give colours of following solutions.
1. FeSO₄
Answer:
FeSO₄ → green

2. CuS04
Answer:
CuSO₄ → blue

Question 11.
What is rusting? What is the chemical formula of rust. What is its loss?
Answer:
New articles made up of iron are shiny but after some time a reddish brown coating is seen on their surface. Usually it is called rusting of iron.

Chemical formula of rust – Fe₂O₃.H₂O (Hydrated iron (III) oxide)
It is powdery substance that gets removed from the surface and due to this iron articles are getting damaged.

Question 12.
Fats are oils containing foods, when kept for long time then what change take place in them? What is name of this process?
Answer:
Fats and oils containing foods, when kept for long time, results in the change of their taste and smell. This process is named as rancidity.

Question 13.
How can we stop rancidity?
Answer:

To slower down the rate of oxidation, antioxidants are added to food items.
By keeping food items in air tight containers.
By flushing nitrogen gas in packets of chips so as to stop the oxidation of chips.

Question 14.
Zinc metal can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. But copper metal can not displace zinc from the solution of Zinc sulphate. Give reason.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. Copper is less reactive than zinc thus copper can not displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.

Question 15.
What happens when zinc rod is placed in copper sulphate solution? Give chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It wall displace copper from solution of copper sulphate and zinc sulphate is formed. Blue colour of the solution of copper sulphate change to white slowly.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 14

Question 16.
What is lime mitigation? Why there is sound of shuun-shuun in this process? Give chemical equation representing the reaction.
Answer:
When quick lime is mixed with water, it changes to slaked lime. This is lime mitigation. This is a exothermic reaction and heat is evolved due to which there is sound of shuun-shuun is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 15

Question 17.
Write names of the substances which got reduced and oxidized.
1. SO₂ + 3H₂S → 2H₃O + 3S
Answer:
In SO₂, S is reduced and in H₂S, S is oxidized.

2. 2Al + 3HCl → 2AlCl₂ + 3H₂
Answer:
Aluminium is reduced and chlorine is oxidized.

3. 2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S + 2H₂O
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and sulphur is reduced.

4. Zn + 2AgNOa → An (NO₃)₂ + 3Ag
Answer:
Zinc is oxidised and silver is reduced.

5. H₂ + CuO → Cu + H₂O.
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and copper is reduced.

Question 18.
What does a complete chemical equation represent and why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?
Answer:
A complete chemical equation represents reactants, products and their physical state in a symbolic form.
A chemical equation is balanced so that number of atoms of every element in reactants and products becomes equal. Therefore it is necessary to balance the chemical equation.

Question 19.
What type of reactions are combustion of coal and formation of water? Represent by chemical equation.
Answer:
1. Combustion of Coal:
C(s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g)

2. Formation of water from H₂ and O₂ :
2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)

Question 20.
How is dissociation reaction different from combination reaction?
Answer:
In a combination reaction two or more than two substance combine to give a single new substance where as in dissociation reaction a single substance breaks or dissociates into two or more than two new substances.

Question 21.
Give two examples of dissociation reaction.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 16

Question 22.
What is the difference between oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
In reaction, some substance gain or loose oxygen and hydrogen. If there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen from a substance then it is called oxidation. Loss of oxygen and gain of hydrogen is called reduction.

Question 23.
Give two examples of corrosion.
Answer:
Examples of corrosion are :

black coating on silver
green coating on copper.

Question 24.
Which type of reaction is shown in figure given below and define it.
Answer:
Displacement Reaction. It is a reaction in which more active element (metal or non-metal) displaces less active element (metal or non-metal) from its solution of its compound.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 17

Question 25.
What is shown in the figure given ahead? Also indicate 1 and 2 in the figure .
Answer:
The figure represents electro-lysis of water :

Oxygen gas
Hydrogen gas

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 18

Question 26.
The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 19
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction.
Answer:
Photochemical decomposition

(ii) Write the chemical equations.
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do we get on the combustion of magnesium ribbon?
Answer:
We get a white powder of Magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
What is law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
In any chemical reaction, mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

Question 3.
Define balanced chemical equation.
Answer:
If number of atoms of each element before and after the chemical reaction are equal, then such a chemical reaction is balanced equation.

Question 4.
Give one example of balanced equation.
Answer:
3 Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂.

Question 5.
If (g) is written with water, then what does it represent?
Answer:
Water is in the form of vapour or steam.

Question 6.
Sometimes we show the conditions of a reaction like pressure, temperature, catalyst etc. where do we write it.
Answer:
Above and below the arrow.

Question 7.
How does a new substance form in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
By breaking and making of bonds between atoms.

Question 8.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which two or more than two reactants combine to give single product is called combination reaction.

Question 9.
What is the use of slaked lime?
Answer:
For whitewashing the buildings.

Question 10.
Write chemical formula for Marble.
Answer:
CaCO₃.

Question 11.
What do we get on the combustion of natural gas?
Answer:
CO₂, H₂O and energy.

Question 12.
Write formula for ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
FeSO₄.7H₂O.

Question 13.
What is formed of grey colour from silver chloride in sun light?
Answer:
Silver metal.

Question 14.

Where is above reaction used?
Answer:
Black and white photography.

Question 15.
Why after some time shining iron articles become dull?
Answer:
Due to rust.

Question 16.
What is the colour of rust coating on iron?
Answer:
Brown colour.

Question 17.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
When a metal comes in contact with moisture, acid etc. it gets corroded and the process is called corrosion.

Question 18.
What is the colour of coating on silver due to corrosion?
Answer:
Black coating.

Question 19.
What is the colour of coating on copper due to corrosion?
Answer:
Green coating.

Question 20.
Due to which process, there is a change in smell and taste of food items which contain fat and oils?
Answer:
This change is due to oxidation and is called rancidity.

Question 21.
What do the manufacturer of chips flush in the packets of chips to prevent oxidation?
Answer:
Nitrogen gas.

Question 22.
What is the colour of coating of copper(II) oxide?
Answer:
Black colour.

Question 23.
What is other name of oxidation-reduction reaction.
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Question 24.
When does oxidation of substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is gain of O₂ or loss of H₂.

Question 25.
When does reduction of a substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is loss of O₂ or gain of H₂.

Question 26.
White coloured silver chloride change to which colour in sunlight?
Answer:
In grey colour.

Question 27.
Give one example of endothermic reaction.
Answer:
3AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl₂(g)

Question 28.
In w hat calcium carbonate dissociate when heat is given to it?
Answer:
Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 29.
Write chemical formula for slaked lime.
Answer:
Ca(OH)₂.

Question 30.
What is special there in potato, rice and bread?
Answer:
Carbohydrate.

Question 31.
What do we get on the decomposition of carbohydrate?
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 32.
Write the reaction for combination of natural gas?
Answer:
CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g) + energy.

Question 33.
What type of reaction is combination of coal and formation of water from H₂ and O₂?
Answer:
Combination reaction.

Question 34.

What is A in above reaction.
Answer:
Chlorophyll.

Question 35.
What is skeletal chemical equation?
Answer:
If in a chemical reaction, number of atoms of each element on left hand side is not equal to number of atoms of each element on right hand side such a reaction is called skeletal chemical equation.

Question 36.
What are products?
Answer:
In a chemical reaction new substances are formed which are known as products.

Question 37.
What are reactants?
Answer:
Those substances which take part in a chemical reaction and undergo chemical changes are called reactants.

Question 38.
What is reduction reaction?
Answer:
It is a reaction in which there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Question 39.
What is oxidation reaction?
Answer:
It is reaction in which there is loss of hydrogen or gain of oxygen.

Question 40.
If in a reaction one reactant is reduced and other is oxidised, what is name of such a reaction?
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The chemical reaction given below represents :
BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) →
BaSO₄(s) + 2 NaCl(aq)
(A) Decomposition reaction
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Double diplacement reaction.
Answer:
(D) Double displacement reaction

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out is called:
(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Polymerisation reaction
(D) All.
Answer:
(A) Exothermic reaction

Question 3.
During electrolysis, hydrogen and oxygen are produced in the ratio by volume :
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:2
(D) 4:1.
Answer:
(A) 2: 1.

Question 4.
The chemical formula of rust is:
(A) Fe₂O₃
(B) FeCO₃
(C) Fe₂O₃ .xH₂O
(D) FeCO₃ xH₂O.
Answer:
(C) Fe₂O₃ .xH₂O

Question 5.
Which is an example of a decomposition reaction?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 23
Answer:

Question 6.
Redox reaction involves:
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Both oxidation and reduction
(D) None.
Answer:
(C) Both oxidation and reduction

Question 7.
In a packet of chips oxygen is replaced by gas:
(A) CO₂
(B) SO₂
(C) N₂
(D) O₃.
Answer:
(C) N₂

Question 8.
Zn(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)
What type of chemical reaction is shown by the above equation?
(A) Combination reaction
(B) Dissociation reaction
(C) Displacement reaction
(D) Double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(C) Displacement reaction.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Complete the following chemical equation.

Answer:

Question 2.
Respiration is an ________ reaction.
Answer:
Respiration is an exothermic reaction.

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a ________ reaction.
Answer:
Rusting iron is a redox reaction.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is called the F.I.R.
Answer:
First investigation report

Question 2.
__________ is the highest court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court.

Question 3.
The main organs of the government are __________
Answer:
Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

Question 4.
The supreme court judges remains in office upto the age of years, while the high court judges upto the age of __________ year.
Answer:
65, 62

Question 5.
PIL means __________
Answer:
Public interest litigation.

Question 6.
Criminal cases are registered under Article
Answer:
134.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗):

Question 1.
Judiciary is called the defender of the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Dual Judiciary System is in practice in India.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
An appeal cannot be made in High Court against the District court decisions.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
The Prime Minister appoint the Judges.
Answer:

Question 5.
Criminal cases are related to quarrels regarding land and property.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Under which has the Supreme Court been provided special powers?
(A) Article 134
(B) Article 135
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 137.
Answer:
(C) Article 136.

Question 2.
How are the High Court formed?
(A) District level
(B) Tehsil Level
(C) State Level
(D) Village Level.
Answer:
(C) State Level.

Question 3.
How can the Public Interest cases be fijed?
(A) For defending self interest
(B) For defending government interest
(C) For defending public interest
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) For defending Public interest.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
What is Judiciary?
Answer:
Judiciary is that part of government which does the work of Justice. It protects the constitution and fundamental rights. It also gives punishment to those who violate the law.

Question 2.
Which is the highest court of India and where is it located?
Answer:
Highest court of India is known as the Supreme Court and Supreme Court of India is situated in Delhi, the Capital of India.

Question 3.
What are the main Cases?
Answer:
Mainly suits are of two types-Civil suits and Criminal suits. Suits of fundamental rights, marriage, divorce, property, land disputes are included in civil suits. Suits of quarrel, violence, murder, etc. comes in the category of criminal suits.

Question 4.
What are civil cases?
Answer:
Civil cases are related with general public. Suits of fundamental rights of citizens, marriage, divorce, rape, property and land disputes comes in the category of civil suits. They are related with the personal life.

Question 5.
Who are legal Adviser?
Answer:
Whichever lawyer takes up case from the side of government is known as legal adviser.

Question 6.
What is public interest litigation?
Answer:
Public interest litigation can be filed against any department, official or institution of the government. It is necessary that this type of suit should be related with public interest. We cannot use public interest litigation for the protection of our personal interests. This type of case is fought by public prosecutor.

Question 7.
What is F.I.R.?
Answer:
Meaning of F.I.R. is informing the police quickly if any incident occurs in the surrounding. This information is being given to the nearest police station.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of Judiciary.
Answer:
Judiciary is that part of government that does the work of giving justice. Judiciary is of great importance in Democratic government because it is known as the caretaker of the constitution. It takes care of democracy and it is the supporter of rights and freedoms. The importance of the Judiciary is more in federalism because it resolves the disputes which occur between center and different states. It also has to play a great role for the security and impartial explanation of the constitution. Quality of Judiciary is the topmost criteria of checking quality of any government.

Question 2.
Write the special powers of the judiciary of India.
Answer:
Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is related to listening of appeals. It takes up the appeals against decisions of high court. These appeals are of three types-Constitutional, Civil and Criminal.
1. Constitutional Appeal
(a) If a high court of any state issues a certificate about any civil or criminal case that more constitutional explanation,is required in this case then appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court.
(b) If high court does not issue such certificate then-Supreme Court itself can give approval and can take up the case.

2. Civil Appeals,
(a) If high court proves that any legal question of general importance in any case arises then appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court.
(b) In some specific cases, appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court even without the approval of high court.

3. Criminal Appeals. Supreme Court can listen the criminal appeals against the decisions of high court under the following conditions :
(a) Any such suit in which lower court has not found any person guilty but high court has given him the Death Sentence.
(b) If high court has called any case from the lower court itself and has given death sentence to the culprit.
(c) If high court proves that the case is eligible for further appeal.

Except this under Article 136, Supreme Court has the special right to listen to appeal of any case against the decision of high courts.

Question 3.
Write about the Judiciary system of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is situated in the capital of the country, High Courts in different ‘states and District Courts are situated in districts. Gram Panchayat is being organized at village level to give justice to the people. But the scope of righs of Gram Panchayat is not very wide. It solves only cases of small disputes. It is not authorised to give imprisonment to any criminal. It generally fines the criminals.

Question 4.
What are criminal cases? What is difference between civil and criminal cases?
Answer:
Cases of violence, quarrels, abusing, murder, etc. are included in criminal cases. When any person suffers physical loss or his body hurt or any of his body part hurts then this type of issue comes under the category of criminal cases. For example, if any person captures land of other person illegally then it is a subject of civil case. But when both the parties struck and quarrel with each other and if physical loss is there then this case becomes civil as well as criminal. Intention of murder is also included in criminal case. If proceeding of criminal case against anyone under I.P.C. 134 starts then he can be given death penalty.

On contrary to that, civil cases are associated with fundamental rights, marriage, divorce, rape, land disputes. In this way they are related with personal life of the person.

Question 5.
Where can FIR be registered? Explain the role of judiciary in the event of the FIR not being registered.
Answer:
The meaning of F.I.R. is giving first information of any incident to the police. This complaint can be registered at any nearby police station. Police of any police centre cannot deny to register this information. But even then if F.I.R. of any person is not being registered at any police centre then he can take the help of high court or Supreme Court.

It is written in our Constitution that any court can. direct the police to register F.I.R. Except this court itself can register the F.I.R. and can direct the police to investigate the matter. There are certain privileges with Supreme Court. But no such example came around us in which any police officer declined to register F.I.R.’ of any incident.” In this case courts of the country are given specific rights.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and :
(a) 13 other Judges
(b) 25 other Judges
(c) 20 other Judges
(d) 33 other Judges.
Answer:
(d) 33 other Judges.

Question 2.
The Judges of the Supreme Court of India retire at the age :
(a) 62
(b) 65
(c) 60
(d) 50.
Answer:
(b) 65.

Question 3.
Number of Judges of the Supreme Court is fixed by :
(a) Parliament
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(a) Parliament.

Question 4.
Supreme Court sits at :
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Shimla.
Answer:
(b) Delhi.

Question 5.
Salary of the Chief Justice of India is :
(a) ₹ 26,000
(b) ₹ 2,80,000
(c) ₹ 28,000
(d) ₹ 30,000.
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,80,000

Question 6.
While appointing the Judges of the Supreme Court it is obligatory for the President to consult the :
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Law Minister
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India.
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice of India.

Question 7.
Whom does Supreme Court advise
(a) Cabinet
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Parliament.
Answer:
(c) President.

Question 8.
Which one of the following is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court.

Question 9.
The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the :
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) People
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President.
Answer:
(d) President.

Question 10.
Judicial Review power is with :
(o) Parliament
(6) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Both with Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
(d) Both with Supreme Court and High Court.

Question 11.
In India, the power of Judicial Review is :
(a) Extra-constitutional
(b) Unconstitutional
(c) Constitutional
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Constitutional.

Question 12.
Which one of the following does not fall within the original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the State
(b) Disputes between the States
(c) Disputes related to Fundamental Rights
(d) Disputes related to the Directive Principles.
Answer:
(d) Disputes related to the Directive Principles.

Question 13.
Harinder Singh, a resident of Gaushala road has many marriage palaces near his house. He is troubled by the noise caused by these palaces till late in the night. He also understands that the same noise troubles the students, the elders and patients as well. Subsequently he Hies a petition against the urban administration in the High Court. Under which type will the High Court register this petition?
(a) Civil Case
(b) Criminal Case
(c) Public Interest Case
(d) Appeal.
Answer:
(c) Public Interest Case.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is known as first information report.
Answer:
F.I.R.

Question 2.
__________ is the highest court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 3.
__________, __________ and __________ are the main organs of Government.
Answer:
Legislature, Executive, Judiciarty,

Question 4.
The judges of Supreme Court retire at the age of __________ years.
Answer:
65.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Judiciary is known as guardian of the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Dual Judicial System is implemented in India.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Appeal cannot be filed in high Court against the decision of District Court.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
Judges are appointed by the Prime Minister.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Supreme Court	(i) State’s Court
2. High Court	(ii) Property Dispute
3. Criminal Case	(iii) Delhi
4. Civil Case	(iv) Violence

Answer:

A	B
1. Supreme Court	(iii) Delhi
2. High Court	(i) State’s Court
3. Criminal Case	(iv) Violence
4. Civil Case	(ii) Property Dispute

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the term of Judges of Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
Judges of Supreme Court can remain on their post till 65 years of age and judges of High Court can remain on their post till the age of 62 years.

Question 2.
Which privilege is given to Supreme Court by Article 136 of the Constitution?
Answer:
Article 136 of the Constitution has given privilege to Supreme Court that it can listen to any appeal against the decision of High Court in that particular case.

Question 3.
What is Special Courts Act?
Answer:
According to Special Courts Act, appeal can be made only in Supreme Court against the decision of High Court. It is necessary to appeal within 30 days after the decision being given by Special Court.

Question 4.
Describe the composition of Supreme Court,
Answer:
At present Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and 30 other Judges. Article 127 (1) makes provision for the appointment of adhoc judges also.

Question 5.
How the judges of Supreme Court are appointed?
Answer:
The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President on the recomendation of Chief Justice of India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Structure of Single Judiciary has been established in India.” Clarify.
Answer:
All the courts of the country are connected with each other. Highest court of the country, Supreme Court, is situated in New Delhi, the capital of India. States have their own high courts. Session Court is there at the district level. Except this Sub-division officer (civil) is there at Tehsil level. Gram Panchayats, Municipal Committees arid Municipal Councils have been established to provide justice to people at local level. High courts are under Supreme Court and district courts are under high courts. In this way court of sub-divisional magistrate is under district court. From this it is clear that structure of single judiciary has been established in the country.

Question 2.
How Judiciary has been made independent and impartial?
Answer:
The following provisions have been kept to., make judiciary independent and impartial in India :

Judiciary has been kept separated from legislature and executive so that no government or party could be able to control it.
Judges are appointed by the President according to their ability.
According to the rules made for term of judges, judges of Supreme Court can remain on their post till the age of 65 years and Judges of High Court can remain till the age of 62 years. Process of removing them from their post is not very easy.
Salary of judges is also more than others. It cannot be reduced during their term of office.

Question 3.
Which type of efforts can a person do to register an FIR or First Information Report?
Answer:
The meaning of F.I.R. is by registering report of any incident to the police. This report can be registered at the nearby police station. According to the law, police of any police station cannot deny to register F.I.R. If it does not register the report then the S.H.O. (Station House Incharge) can be called to do so. If S.H.O. also denies to register the FIR then Deputy Suprintendent of Police can be met regarding this. If even he (D.S.P.) denies to do so then person can approach Suprintendent of Police. If he also does so then FIR can be registered in any police station of the country.

Question 4.
Who appoints the Judges?
Answer:
Mainly judges are appointed by the President. He appoints the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and then with his advice, he appoints other judges of Supreme Court.

While appointing judges of High Court, he takes advice of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court as well as of Chief Justice of High Court and Governor of that particular state. Judges of District courts are appointed by Governor of State and he takes advice of the High Court in this case.

Question 5.
Express your views on the moving of cases from a lower court to the upper courts.
Answer:
A system of providing justice to citizens has been kept in the Indian Constitution. If it seems that justice has not been done in any case then any citizen can take the shelter of the high court. Appeals can be made in High Court against the decision of the District Court and appeals can also be made in Supreme Court against the decision of the High Court. High Court is committed to accepting the decision of the Supreme Court. In the same way, District Court is committed to accepting the decision of the High Court.

Question 6.
Write about the role of the Public Prosecutor.
Or
Who are government prosecutors?
Answer:
Public prosecutors are those lawyers who fight any case in favour of the government. Different types of public prosecutors are there for different types of suits. It means that there are different public prosecutors of cases like cases between government and government officials, cases of public property, criminal cases, civil cases, etc. In all these cases public prosecutor stands in favour of the government and he defends the government in every case.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Social, Political and Economic justice is promised in __________
Answer:
Preamble

Question 2.
The preamble promises justice to the Indian citizen.
Answer:
Social

Question 3.
Freedom has been given from Article __________ to __________ of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
25, 28

Question 4.
There are more than __________ castes in India.
Answer:
3000

Question 5.
The were massacred in Delhi in 1984.
Answer:
Sikhs

Question 6.
__________ languages are recognised by the constitution of India.
Answer:
22

Question 7.
The Mandal Commission was set up in __________
Answer:
1978

Question 8.
The Mandal Commission has identified __________ Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes.
Answer:
3743.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗) :

Question 1.
The social inequalities do not affect the government.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
54% of the Indian population is illiterate today.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Hindi is the National language of the India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Seats are reserved for Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes even today.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
The 73 and 74 Amendment of the constitution govern the Local self government in the villages and the cities.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 6.
Reservation has been given to the schedule caste and schedule tribes in local self government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 7.
Social inequalities are coming to an end in the Indian society.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who said, caste is the most important party in India?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru
(C) Shri Jai Parkash Narain
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(C) Shri Jai Parkash Narain.

Question 2.
Which Fundamental Right has been added to the Constitution of India to ensure social justice to the Indian people?
(A) Right to Liberty
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to Equality
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) Right to Equality.

Question 3.
Whose Motto fs ‘Read All, develop all’?
(A) RMSA
(B) SSA
(C) National Education Commission
(D) PSEB.
Answer:
(D) PSEB.

Question 4.
For whom is reservation of seats permissible in government jobs?
(A) Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes
(B) Only for Backward Classes
(C) Schedule caste, Schedule Tribes and Backward Classes.
(D) Only for poor people.
Answer:
(C) Schedule Caste, Schedule Tribes and Backward Classes.

IV. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words:

Question 1.
What do you mean by social inequality?
Answer:
Many types of inequalities exist in our society on the basis of Caste, Community, Language etc. It is known as social inequality.

Question 2.
What do you understand by casteism and untouchability?
Answer:
Casteism. The Indian society is divided in many classes on the name of caste. Sense of higher and lower exists in these classes. It is known as casteism.

Untouchability. People of lower castes in India were hated by people of higher castes. Some people even considered it as a sin if they would be touched by any person of lower caste. This custom was known as Untouchability.

Question 3.
What is illiteracy?
Answer:
The meaning of illiteracy is that people are unable to read and write. These types of people are easily deviated by our politicians. According to one survey, around 34.62% of total population of India is illiterate.

Question 4.
What is meant by Linguism?
Answer:
Hundreds of languages are spoken in India. Some people consider their language as better language than the others. They even hate those people who speak other language. This custom is known as Linguism.

Question 5.
What is meant by reservation?
Answer:
Many castes in India are backward because they are being exploited by other castes. They are given the names of Scheduled Castes. Some seats are reserved for them in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and in government jobs. It is known as reservation.

Question 6.
Has Scanaging been discontinued?
Answer:
Yes, Scavaging been discontinued by passing certain laws.

Question 7.
How does illiteracy affect Democracy?
Answer:
If any one is unable to read and write, then he can be called as illiterate. According to Census survey of 2011, around 25% of total population is illiterate. Illiteracy is one of the biggest curse because it is the root cause of many social evils. Many evils occur due to this like unemployment, religious fundamentalism, regionalism, casteism, superstitions, poverty, etc. Illiterate, person cannot become a good citizen. Illiterate persons are easily deviated by political leaders.

Impact of Illiteracy:

Illiteracy is the root cause of the social inequalities.
It creates obstacles in the way of success of democracy.
It is an obstacle in the formation of public opinion.
Illiterate persons can easily deviate on a wrong path.
Illiterate persons are unable to properly use their right to vote.
Illiteracy is the black spot on the face of society.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following is a Marginal group?
(a) Muslims
(b) Dalits
(c) Adivasis
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 2.
Untouchability is abolished under which article of the constitution?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 14.
Answer:
(a) Article 17.

Question 3.
Reservation Policy is adopted by the government for the benefits of :
(a) Scheduled castes
(b) Backward classes
(c) Scheduled tribes
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 4.
Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act was passed in :
(a) 1989
(b) 1983
(c) 1993
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1993.

Question 5.
When Safai Karamchari Andolan and 13 other organizations Died a PIL in the Supreme Court?
(a) 1989
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2000.
Answer:
(c) 2003.

Question 6.
What is the Literacy rates among the tribal people. According to 2001 census?
(o) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 31%
(d) 29.5%.
Answer:
(d) 29.5%.

Question 7.
How much of India’s population is illiterate?
(a) 25.96%
(b) 20.64%
(c) 30.86%
(d) 24.64%.
Answer:
(a) 25.96%.

Question 8.
How many approximately castes are there in India?
(o) 2000
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 5000.
Answer:
(b) 3000.

Question 9.
Which of these is a type of inequality is there in India?
(a) Commvmalism
(b) Untouchability
(e) Illiteracy
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
In the year 2002, this right was given by the 86th Amendment in the Constitution to implement it, an ACT was passed in 2009. In April 2010, it was implement in all over India. (P.S.E.B. 2020)
(a) Right to information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to live
(d) Right to Equality.
Answer:
(b) Right to Education.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
It is promised in the __________ to provide Social, Political and Economic justice.
Answer:
Preamble

Question 2.
Articles __________ to __________ provide as right to freedom of religion.
Answer:
25, 28

Question 3.
More than castes are there in India.
Answer:
3000

Question 4.
__________ languages are sanctioned in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
22

Question 5.
Mandal Commission was established in __________
Answer:
1978

Question 6.
Mandal Commission identified __________ Scheduled Castes and Tribes in India.
Answer:
3743.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Social inequalities do not influence democratic government.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Around 54% population in India is illiterate.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Hindi is the official language in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Reservation policy exists for scheduled castes and tribes.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
73rd and 74th amendment provides local self government in villages and eities.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 6.
Presently social inequalities are reducing in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Untouchability Offence Act	(i) 1978
2. Formation of Mandal Commission	(ii) 1955
3. Right to Equality	(iii) Article 25-28
4. Right to Freedom of Religion	(iv) Article 14-18

Answer:

A	B
1. Untouchability Offence Act	(ii) 1955
2. Formation of Mandal Commission	(i) 1978
3. Right to Equality	(iv) Article 14-18
4. Right to Freedom of Religion	(iii) Article 25-28

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the three most important elements included in the Indian Constitution which determine the social equality.
Answer:
Equality, Liberty and Secularism.

Question 2.
According to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which three types of justice shall be given to all the citizens?
Answer:
Social, economic and political.

Question 3.
Give any four types of social inequalities.
Answer:

Communalism
Casteism and Untouchability
Linguism
Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Why untouchability has been declared as a legal offence?
Answer:
Untouchability is an inhuman custom. It is the largest obstacle in the successful functioning of democracy. That’s why, untouchability has been declared as a legal offence.

Question 5.
What efforts are being done by government to eradicate Illiteracy?
Answer:
Our government is taking many steps to eradicate illiteracy from the society. ‘Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan’ is being run in whole of the country. Free and compulsory education has been started upto class VIII. Educational institutions have been increased. Right of education has been included in Fundamental Rights.

Question 6.
How many languages are legally sanctioned in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
22 languages are legally sanctioned by the Constitution and Hindi language has been given the legal sanction of National Language.

Question 7.
What do you mean by communal inequality?
Answer:
People of many religions and communities live over here in India. Religious fundamentalism exists in some persons of these Communities which gives rise to Communalism. It is known as Communal inequality.

Question 8.
What were the people called who use to pick human waste from the households?
Answer:
Some people were forced to pick human waste on their heads to throw it outside. These people were known as untouchables.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Communal Inequality in India.
Answer:
Communalism is the first form of social inequality. Many religions exist over here in India. Some people of different religions are fundamentalists and they give birth to communalism. As a result, communalism has become one of the part of social and political life. Due to this religious intolerance, India was divided in two parts in 1947 A.D. Communal riots in the country is the result of this religious intolerance. This intolerance also exists in Indian politics. Leaders call for vote on the name of religions and religious sentiments of the people are encouraged. As a result the atmosphere of religious tension occurs from time to time in the country.

People are given religious freedom by Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution. According to it, all religions are equal in front of law. People are given freedom to adopt and propagate any religion.

Question 2.
What is meant by Custom of picking human waste from households? Why it has been stopped?
Answer:
Custom of picking human waste from households is a custom of hatredness. This custom was going on from centuries. According to it, few people were forced to pick human waste, of others on their heads to throw it outside.

These people were considered as untouchables. They were hated by everyone. It was necessary to eradicate this evil from society in modern age: Governments tried to eradicate this custom from time to time. Now this custom has been legally eradicated. If any one tries to use this custom, then he is being punished by law.

Question 3.
Give brief description of marginal groups of India.
Answer:
Marginal groups are those groups of our society, which remained backward for a long-long time due to social and economic reasons.

Brief description of these groups is given ahead :

Scheduled Castes: There is no clear constitutional definition of Scheduled Castes. But we can only say that these castes are related to those people who were behaved like untouchables. According to Census of 2011, their population in India was 15% of the total population of the country.
Scheduled Tribes: There is no clear constitutional definition of Scheduled Tribes as well. These are exploited tribes of society. They were remained away from our society due to their backwardness. According to Census of 2011, their population in India was 7.5% of the total population of the country.
Backward Classes: They are not defined by the Constitution as well. Actually this is the weakest class of our society. According to Mandal Commission, their population in India was 41% of the total population of the country.
Minorities: Minorities are those people from religious or linguistic point of view, whose numbers are less in the country. According to Census Survey of 2011 they are around 18.42% of the total population of the country.

Question 4.
Write in detail the effects of communal inequality.
Answer:
Following are the impacts of communal inequality :

Political parties are organised on the basis of religion.
Many religion based pressure groups affect the Indian democracy.
Inequality encourages violence in communal Indian social life.
Specific religion is given importance in formation of Council of Ministers.
Communalism stops the people to do impartial voting.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Linguism? Write its effects also.
Answer:
Meaning of Linguism is division of society on the basis of language. Hundreds of languages are spoken in India. People are being divided on the basis of language. They dislike those persons who speak other languages. Many states are formed, in India, on the basis of language. Even today, demand of forming new states on the basis of language is being raised. Classes are formed among people on the basis of language. People give preference to their regional language and culture instead of national interests.

Impacts:

Demand of new states, on the basis of language, is being raised.
Political parties are being organized on the basis of religion.
Movements are going on, on the basis of religion.
Language gives encouragement to regionalism and communalism.
Discrimination and violence occur among the people on the basis of language.
Linguism also affects the election process.

Question 6.
What is reservation? Explain in detail.
Answer:
One of the largest group of Indian society isrbackward because they were being exploited from the ages. They were given the name of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. According to Articles 330 and 332 of the Constitution, there is a provision of keeping reserved seats for them in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies according to their proportion in population. It is known as reservation. In the beginning, this system was kept for 10 years but due to different constitutional amendments this systems has been raised till 2020 A.D.

In the same way, according to 72nd and 73rd amendment of the Constitution, now seats are reserved for Scheduled castes and Women in rural and local self-bodies. Even seats for Scheduled Castes are reserved in government jobs. In 1978 A.D, Mandal Commission recommended to reserve seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward classes but this report has not been implemented till today. May be it will be implemented in the near future. Demand of keeping one third seats reserved for women is being raised from time to time. Actually Indian political system is being affected by politics of caste. It has been rightly said by Shri Jai Prakash Narayan that, “Caste in India is the most important political party.”

Question 7.
Write the effects and explain in detail about casteism.
Answer:
Casteism. People of more than 3000 castes live over here in India. Sense of higher or lower, based on caste, exists among them. It is known as caste inequality. Because of this inequality, people of some castes are unable to use public wells. They are even not allowed to enter temples or any other public places. Politics is going on in the name of the caste and different political parties motivates the people to work against people of other castes.

Impacts:

Political parties are being formed on the basis of caste.
Leaders call for the vote on the name of caste during elections.
System of giving special facilities to certain castes has divided our society.
Inhuman practice of untouchability has been encouraged due to casteism.
Many a times caste becomes one of the result of conflict and violence.
Caste-based pressure groups are being formed and they have a very bad impact on democracy.

Question 8.
Do you think untouchability is inhuman? Explain why?
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that untouchability is an inhuman practice. One of the largest classes of our society was exploited from the ages due to this practice. They were being hated by higher castes. They were even not allowed to touch the people of higher castes. From the impacts of untouchability, it becomes clear that it is an inhuman practice.

Impacts:

The customs of untouchability give rise to social inequality.
This custom gives -birth to an inferiority complex among people.
This custom gives rise to violence.
People are unable to get political education.
Many people were not allowed to enter politics due to untouchability.
So that is why untouchability has been declared illegal.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
20 century is called The Golden Era of democracy. A trend towards democracy started among the Europeans. British and America remarked that first world war was fought for the security of demoracy and the principle of self-decision. Many new countries came into existence after 1st World War. These countries preferred to adopt democrative system. Those countries who were prey to imperialism expressed their desire to demolish imperialism and establish democracy.
But this golden period of democracy soon disappeared and democracy had to face adverse circumstances. After 1st World War, democracy had to face a set back in Italy and Germany due to the birth of two movements which were not in favour of democracy. The advent of ideology of Nazism in Germany and Facism in Italy proved disastrous for democracy. Both the ideologies were in the favour of dictatorship. Due to these ideologies, the tragedy of second world war happened between 1939-45.
(а) Which century is known as the Golden Era of democracy and why?
Answer:
20th century is known as the Golden Era of democracy because this was the time when European people started looking towards democracy. Even the first World War (1914-18) was fought for the security of democracy and the principle of self-decision. Many new countries were formed after the war and they all adopted the democratic set-up.

(b) Why did the Golden period of democracy end very soon?
Answer:
The Golden era of democracy ended after first World War because it faced adverse circumstances. Nazism and fascism started in Germany and Italy respectively and dictatorship established over there. This dictatorship encouraged the imperial policy and that’s why second World War started which lasted till 1945.

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Like India, there was colonialism in Ghana, (African Continent) : Firstly, it was known as Gold Coast. It was among the first country of Africa which got independence from the Britishers in 1957. This country inspired other countries of Africa for independence. A great personality of Ghana, who was the son of a goldsmith (Name- Kqame Nkrumah)-led this freedom movement and got his country freed. He became 1st Prime Minister and later on became the President of Ghana. He was a friend of Pt. Nehru. He inspired the people of other countries of Africa continent to establish democracy. He got himself elected as President for the ‘lifetime’. But soon in 1966, he was dethroned by a military conspiracy 3Military dictatorship was established in Ghana. Like Ghana the Countries which adopted democracy after Independence could not retain it continuously but in India working of democracy is still continue after independence.
(a) Tell something about Ghana’s struggle for independence.
Answer:
Ghana was earlier known as Gold Coast which is situated in Africa. Ghana was also a victim of Colonialism and was under the occupation of the British. Kagame Nkrumah led the freedom struggle of Ghana and got the country independent from the British in 1957 A.D.

(b) Briefly tell about Kqame Nkrumah.
Answer:
Kqame Nkrumah was the son of a goldsmith. He led Ghana’s freedom struggle against the British and got his country independent. He became the first Prime Minister of Ghana and later on became the President for the lifetime. But soon in 1966, he was dethroned by a military conspiracy. Military dictatorship was then established in Ghana.

Question 3.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Democracy is such a structural arrangement where free and fair participation of people is ensured to get the political power. In democarcy the people control the government. Sometime democracy is called as the rule of masses (entire public). But it is merely a hypothesis as all the people are not of the same opinion. Democracy is sometimes called the government of the majority. This is also not appropriate. For example, many times an anarchist becomes successful to win the support of the majority on the basis of violence or misuse of power. Shall we call such a government as democratic?
The freedom to elect is the root or base of democracy. The existence of democracy lies in the difference of opinion. Every person has .his own view to solve national problems. In democracy difference of opinion is shown through ballots and not bullets. There is no place for violence in democracy. In election any ideology becomes successful to win the support of majority of people and becomes successful to hold political power.
(a) What is meant by democracy?
Answer:
Democarcy is a type of government in which government is elected for a fixed period of time through Universal Adult Franchise and this government works for the welfare of people. In this way democracy is such a structural arrangement where free and fair participation of people is ensured to get the political power.

(b) Give features of democracy?
Answer:

Democracy is a type of government.
Right to choose is the main base of democracy.
Government is elected for a fixed period of time.
Every person has the right to cast one vote and value of each vote is same.
Democracy allows us to correct our mistakes.

Question 4.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian Fijian. In democracy the principle of ‘One person—one vote—one value’ is applicable. Therefore, we can’t call Fiji as a democractic country.
Now we will take an example of Mexico. It became independent in 1930. Mexico holds elections after every six years to elect its President. The power of government never remains in the hands of military or dictator. But until 2000 every election was won by PRI party. Other parties were free to contest the election. But being in power, PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party) party was known to use unfair means. Government officials and officers were forced to attend meeting of PRI Party. Government teachers were directed to insist the parents to cast their votes in favour of PRI Party. The polling booths were shifted from one place to another in the eleventh hour on polling day so that the opposition leader might not be successful to cast their votes. All these examples reveal that only periodical elections are not sufficient but free and fair poll is essential. If a party wins the election by unfair or suppressive means we will not call it true democracy.
(а) What is meant by free and fair elections?
Answer:
The meaning of free and fair elections is that the elections must take place impartially and without any impact or pressure. Ruling party must not use unfair means to win 6ver the votes and people must choose their representatives without any fear.

(b) Which unfair methods were used in Mexico to win elections?
Answer:
From 1930 to 2000 A.D., only one party in Mexico won elections and the party was PRI. It used following unfair means to win elections.

Government officials were forced to attend meetings of PRI.
Government teachers were directed to insist the parents to cast their votes in favour of PRI.
The polling booths were shifted from one place to another in the eleventh hour on polling day so that the opposition leaders might not be successful to cast their votes.

Question 5.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
India became independent on 15 August, 1947. But the process of making constitution for India had been started before independence. Leaders of India adopted Parliamentary democratic system for India which is the main feature of our constitution. The constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly which was elected indirectly. It took two years, eleven months and eighteen days to frame the constitution.
The demand for the Constituent Assembly for framing Indian Constitution was raised by Congress for the first time in 1935. The British Government accepted it in 1940. The election of Constituent Assembly was made on Nov. 19, 1946 indirectly from the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The total number of members of the Constituent Assembly was 389, of whom 93 were representatives from the Indian States, 292 from the Provinces (British India) and 4 from the area of Chief Commissioners.
(a) From whom and when India got independence?
Answer:
India got independence from the British on 15th August 1947 A.D.

(b) Give two main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

Indian Constitution is the written constitution and is the lengthiest in the world.
Parliamentary form of government is adopted in India.

(c) How were the members of the Constituent Assembly elected?
Answer:
The demand for framing the Indian Constitution was raised by Congress for the first time in 1935. According to the recommendations of the Constituent Assembly, the members of Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The Constituent Assembly had 389 members, of whom 93 were representatives from the Indian States, 292 from the Provinces of the British India and 4 from the area of Chief Commissioners.

Question 6.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
The Preamble to the constitution states the objects which the constitution seeks to establish and promote. It is the window of the constitution from which we can have a glimpse of objectives, principles and features of our constitution.
It is considered to be a part of constitution because it can be amended like other articles of constitution. Though the preamble is not enforceable in a court of Law, it provides a key to the understanding and interpretation of the constitution.
The Preamble declares India as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. It ensures to all its citizens justice, social, economic and political. It ensures them liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. It ensures them equality of opportunity and status among them all. It declares fraternity assuming the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.
(a) What is meant by the Preamble?
Answer:
Preamble is nothing but the nutshell of the Indian Constitution. The Preamble tells us about the basic objectives and features of the constitution. The Preamble is known as the part of the Indian Constitution.

(b) What is the importance of the Preamble of the Constitution?
Answer:

The Preamble declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
It ensures to all its citizens justice, social, economic and political.
It ensures them liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
It ensures them equality of opportunity and status among them all.

Question 7.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
The constitution of India is the largest and the most comprehensive of all the written constitutions of the world. Originally, it consists of 395 Articles and 8 schedules. Now it exists of 12 schedules and many new articles have been added under the original articles. It is extended due to a number of amendments. After 42nd constitutional amendment two new parts 4A & 14A were added to it. The 9th schedule was added in 1951 under first amendment. The 10th schedule regarding ‘Anti Defection Law’ was added in 1985 by 52nd Constitutional Amendment. The 11th schedule regarding power, authority and responsibility of Panchayati Raj Institution was added under 73rd constitutional amendment in 1992. The 12th schedule was added in 1992 under 74th Constitutional Amendment. It is realed to local self-government in Urban area (Municipalities.)
(a) Why is the Indian Constitution lengthiest in the world?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is lengthiest in the world as originally it had 395 articles and 8 schedules. Later on many new schedules and articles were added in it. Now there are 450 articles and 12 schedules in it. Every minute detail is given in it. Many Constitutional Amendments were added in it and that’s why it has become more lengthy.

(b) What were 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?
Answer:
To establish local Self Government in the country, 73rd and 74th Amendments were made in the Constitution. According to 73rd Amendment, a three tier structure of Local Self Government was established in rural areas. According to 74th Amendment, Local Self Government was established in urban areas.

Question 8.
Read the source and answer the following questions
In Parliamentary System, Head of the state is President, Governor General, King or Queen. In India, France and Austria, President is the head of the State. In Canada, Australia, New Zealand Governor-General is the head of state while in Japan, England, Denmark, Holland, Sweden and Norway King or Queen is the head of the State. The head of these-countries are titular or nominal executive. The main features of the Parliamentary System is that constitutionally head of the country has enormous powers but practically he does not use these powers. Practically, the cabinet exercises these powers. The hea,d of Parliamentary form of Government is like India’s President. The cabinet runs the administration in the name of State Head but the entire responsibility of Government lies on its shoulder.
(a) What do you mean by Parliamentary form of government.
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government in which government is elected from within the Parliament. It means that the Parliament will be elected by the people and then government will be elected from within the Parliament. The Parliament will keep control over the government which will take Parliament’s permission for every work.

(b) Give features of Parliamentary systeng.
Answer:

In Parliamentary system there is a Head of the State such as the President of India. He is the nominal Head of the country.
Constitutionally, Head of the country is given enormous powers but practically, he does not use all of his powers.
Council of Ministers uses all the powers of the Head of the country. In this way Council of Ministers is responisble to run administration of the country.

Question 9.
Read the source and answer the given questions :
In the Parliamentary system, Prime-Minister leads the cabinet. In the lower house of the Parliament-Prime Minister is the leader of the party with majority. Therefore, he is the leader of the Parliament also. Chief of the state appoints ministers at his recommendations. He presides over the meetings of the cabinet. He decides dates and agenda of cabinet meetings. He consults the cabinet but his decision is final on disputable issues. He distributes the departments among ministers. The Prime- Minister coordinates and supervises the works of ministers. If any minister does not cooperate or is not agreed at his policies then he has to resign. If he does not resign then Prime-Minister can request the President to remove him from his designation. He is the main spokesman of the Government. He informs the President about the decision of the cabinet. He takes the opinion of the President on some specific and important matters. Though he is not bound to follow the opinion of the President yet he thinks over it very seriously.
(a) What is the role of Prime Minister in Parliamentary System?
Answer:
Prime Minister holds the most important position in Parliamentary system because he is the Real Executive Head of country. The President acts only on his advice. Even the President appoints council of ministers on the advice of Prime Minister. He is answerable to the Parliament for his government’s acts. He is actually spokesperson of government.

(b) Discuss functions of Prime Minister.
Answer:

He gets his Council of Ministers appointed by the President.
He divides different departments to Ministers. He can change their departments and, if required, can remove them.
He acts as a link between the President and Council of Ministers.
He informs the President about the decisions of the cabinet.
He represents India at International level.
He presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers.

Question 10.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
All the ministers of the Council of Ministers are responsible to the Parliament. If the parliament passes ‘Censure Motion’ against one minister then whole Council of Ministers, have to resign. If a policy is framed for one department in the Council of Ministers then its responsibility lies on the whole Council of Ministers.
Every minister is personally responsible for his department. If the work of any department is not up to the mark the Prime Minister can ask the minister, of the concerned department to resign. If the minister does not submit his resignation then the Prime Minister can ask the President to remove that minister.
(a) What do you mean by Collective Responsibility of Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The meaning of Collective Responsibility of Council of Ministers is that they are collectively responsible towards Parliament. If a non-confidence motion passes against any minister, the whole of the Council of Ministers will have to resign. It is often said that the Council of Ministers swim and sink together.

(b) What is individual responsibility of Ministers?
Answer:
The meaning of individual responsibility of Ministers is that every minister is responsible for the functioning of his department. If any minister’s department is not working properly, he can be called for an explanation. Members of Parliament can ask any question related to their department and it is must for the ministers to reply. In this way ministers are individually responsible to the Prime Minister and Parliament for the functions of their respective departments.

Question 11.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Fair and free election is the pillar of democracy. Fair and free election implies that voters should cast his/her vote without any fear or pressure. Secondly, he should not misuse his vote under any temptation. The election commission played a significant role in holding fair and free elections. The evils of elections cannot be eradicated till the voter is not awaken. Undoubtedly, the government made many reforms in this direction, for example under the Anti defection act there is complete prohibition on defection. If a winning candidate changes his party then his candidature will be cancelled. But defection still survives in one or the other form. Before election many candidates are competent for election ticket. Those candidates who are not alloted tickets by their party, join other political parties.
(а) What do you mean by free and fair elections?
Answer:
The meaning of free and fair elections is that the voters must cast their vote without having any fear or pressure. Secondly, they must not sell their vote in lieu of money or anything else. Free and fair elections is one of the important base of democracy and in its absense, democracy cannot work smoothly.

(b) What steps have been taken to eradicate evils of elections?
Answer:
Many evils prevail in election system such as use of money, threatening voters, defection of leaders from one party to another etc. Many efforts are made to remove these evils such as:

According to Anti-Defection Laws, no elected M.P. or M.L.A. can change his party. If he will, his membership would be cancelled.
While filling a nomination form, a candidate will have to fill an affidavit containing information about his wealth, moveable and immoveable property and criminal cases pending against him. It tells the people about the character of that leader.
Each political party has to file Income Tax Return so that people must come to know that how money comes to parties.

Question 12.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Periodical Election is an essential feature of the Parliamentary democracy. To establish democracy without election is merely a hypothesis. The basic principle of democracy is to entrust the every citizen right to vote at his/her will. There is clear provision in our constitution about the election of President and Vice President. For the remaining elections, Parliament makes provision from time to time. Single voter list is prepared for the election of Lok Sabha, the State Legislative Assemblies and Local bodies. On the basis of regional representation people of all religions and groups elect the candidate. No constituency is made on the basis of any particular religion or group.
(а) What do you mean by Regular or Periodic Elections?
Answer:
The meaning of regular or periodic elections is that the elections must be conducted after a fixed period of time which can be different in different countries. In India, it is 5 years. If elections are not conducted after a fixed period of time, it is a great danger to democracy. So, periodic elections are must and people must get regular chance to elect their leader.

(b) What is the relation of democracy and elections?
Answer:
Democracy and elections are directly related as the former cannot be maintained without the presence of later. In democracy, representatives are directly elected by the people and democracy sustains only because of elections. If there are no elections, there is no democray. The main base of democracy is to provide the people right to elect their representatives. In this way they both are closely related to each other.

Question 13.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
While living in sociey man enjoys many facilities. For example, he is having freedom of speech and expression. He can convey his ideas through speech and writings. He can move freely throughout the territory of India. He can practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business. He can profess or practise any religion. Man can celebrate his rituals and festivals collectively. People have been blessed with the facility to live with their family. But man can enjoy all these facilities while living in the society. In simple language, these facilities can be named as rights. But, no one can enjoy that facility which is not in the interest of the whole society. So, Rights are those genuine demands by Individual or group of Individuals which are recognised by society and state.
(a) What do you mean by Rights?
Answer:
Rights are those genuine demands by an individual or a group of individuals which are recognised by society and state. In other words, rights are such conditions which are must for an individual to live a happy life. In their absence, we cannot live a happy and prosperous life.

(b) What is the importance of Rights in our lives?
Answer:
Rights play an important role in our lives because :

Rights are the facilities to give us a better life.
Rights give us equality in society.
Only with rights, we can express our feelings and can do anything whatever we want.

Question 14.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
In Indian constitution there are some motives for the personality development of citizens and to ensure their honour. Therefore, the maker of our constitution tried to fulfil these motives by enlisting the fundamental rights in the constitution. The democractic nature of any country is known by the fundamental rights entitled to the citizens of that country.
Indian citizens did not have fundamental rights before independence. But demand of fundamental rights was raised time to time in India’s freedom movement. In 1895, Bal Gangadhar Tilak asked the British Government to pass the ‘Swaraj Bill’. The Bill included right to freedom of thought and expression, equality before law and some other rights for Indian people. In 1928, a demand for equal rights for men and women was also raised through ‘Nehru Report’. But the British Government rejected all these demands. In the Government of India Act 1935, the list of fundamental rights for Indian citizens was not incorporated.
(a) How can we come to know that any country is democratic or not?
Answer:
We can only come to know about any country is democratic or not by looking at the fundamental rights provided to the people. If people are provided with all the fundamental rights we can call that country as democratic.

(b) What was the condition of fundamental rights before independence?
Answer:
Before Indian Independence, people had no rights at all because the British government always followed repressive policies. That’s why many a times, basic rights were demanded from the government. In 1895, Bal Gangadhar Tilak demanded from the government to pass Swaraj Bill and certain rights as well. In 1928, a demand for equal rights for men and women was also raised through Nehru Report. But the British Government did not accept the demands. Even rights were not included in the Government of India Act, 1935. But after 1947, when Indian constitution was formed, people were given all the fundamental rights.

Question 15.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Art. 25 provides freedom of conscience and faith in any religion. This right has been given to justify the aims of India’s being secular as mentioned in the preamble of our constitution. Right to freedom of religion is given to foreigners also.

Art. 26 provides :

Establish and maintain institution for religious and charitable purposes and to preach any religion.
Manage its own affairs in matters of religion and administer such moveable and immoveable .property in accordance with law.

Art. 27 refers that the state cannot compel any citizen to pay any taxes or donations for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institutions.
Under Art. 28, no religious instructions can be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of state funds. However educational institutions of private sector can give religious education. But they can’t compel any students to participate in it.
(a) What is Right to Freedom of Religion?
Answer:
All the citizens of India are given right to freeedom of religion under Articles 25-28. According to this right, citizens are free to adopt, profess and propagate their religion. No one can force them to adopt any other religion.

(b) Explain Articles 26 and 27 of the Indian constitution.
Answer:
Article 26 :

It establishes and maintains institutions for religious and charitable purposes and preaches any religion.
Manages its own affairs in matters of religion and administers such moveable and immoveable property in accordance with law.

Article 27: It refers that the State cannot compel any citizen to pay any taxes or donations for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institutions.

Question 16.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Power of Judicial review means to sit on judgement over the order of the executive and Laws of the Legislature for their constitutional validity. If any order passed by the executive and a Law passed by a legislature violates the constitution or is not in accordance with the constitution the Supreme Court can declare such an order or Law null and void. The power of judicial review has been entitled to the Supreme Court due to Federal System of the government and of fundamental rights in constitution. This power of judicial review ensures that centre and state government should work in their jurisdiction and should protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
(а) What is meant by the power of Judical Review?
Answer:
The power of judicial review is given to judiciary in India. According to this, if judiciary feels that any law made by the Parliament is against the basic structure of the constitution, it can declare that law null and void or illegal. In this way judiciary can review any law which is its power of judicial review.

(b) What is the importance of the power of Judicial review?
Answer:
The power of judicial review is quite important because it helps in helping Legislature and Executive under control. If legislative passes any bill against the basic provisions of the Constitution, Judiciary can declare that bill illegal and can restore the basic provisions of the Constitution. Supreme Court is known as the Guardian of the Constitution and through the power of judicial review, constitutional provisions are protected. Due to this power of Judiciary, Central and State governments never violate their jurisdiction and fundamental rights of the citizens.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The directive principles of the Indian Constitution have been adopted from
Answer:
Ireland.

Question 2.
__________ was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(i) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(ii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iv) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Republic state has a head :
(i) hereditory successor
(ii) military dictator
(iii) directly or indirectly elected by people
(iv) nominated.
Answer:
(iii) directly or indirectly elected by people.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) Statements :

Question 1.
Socialist, Secular and integrity words were incorporated in our Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
India is a sovereign, secular and democratic republic.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did India become free?
Answer:
On 15th August, 1947.

Question 2.
“A Constitution is the collection of principles according to which Government powers, rights of the governed and the relations between the two are adjusted.” Who is the author of this statement?
Answer:
Wooles.

Question 3.
How much time was taken to draft the constitution of India?
Answer:
2 years, 11 months and 18 days.

Question 4.
How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
389 members (299 after 15 Aug, 1947).

Question 5.
When was the announcement of division of India made?
Answer:
It was announced on 3rd June, 1947.

Question 6.
How many members remain in the Constituent Assembly after the division of India?
Answer:
There remain 299 members in the Constituent Assembly after the division of India.

Question 7.
Write any two unitary features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

There is only one Constitution for both Centre and States.
All the citizens are given single citizenship.

Question 8.
Write any two federal features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution is the written Constitution.
(ii) Powers are divided between Central and State governments.

Question 9.
Write any two freedom provided by the Constitution of India to its citizens.
Answer:

Freedom to adopt any occupation.
Freedom to move in any part of the country.

Question 10.
With which words the ‘Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins?
Answer:
We the people of India.

Question 11.
Which new words were incorporated to the Constitution of India under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976?
Answer:
With the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, words Socialist, Secular and Integrity were incorporated to the Constitution.

Question 12.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On which main objects the ‘Preamble to the Indian Constitution throw light?
Answer:
The Preamble throws light on the following features of the Indian Constitution.

It says that India is a sovereign, socialist, democratic, secular republic.
It resolves to give social, economic and political justice to all of its citizens.
It provides equality of opportunity and status and freedom to all the citizens, express, belief and profess.
It also declares to maintain individual integrity, national unity and integrity.

Question 2.
Which is a republic country?
Answer:
India is a republic country. The meaning of republic is that head of the country is directly or indirectly elected by the people. Head of the country is elected for a fixed period of time and there is no place of hereditary system in it. Republic is one of the important feature of the Indian Constitution.

Question 3.
India is a secular state, give arguments in its favour.
Answer:

Preamble of the Constitution has declared India a secular state.
All the citizens are free to profess their religion and even to change their religion.
Under the Right to Equality, it is said that no one will be discriminated on the basis of religion.
All the religions in India are treated equally and there is no state religion.

Question 4.
What do you mean by federal structure or federal government? From the Constitution of which country this feature has been taken?
Answer:
The meaning of federal structure or federal government is the division of powers between two level of government and these two levels are central government and state governments. Powers are divided between the both but central government is given more powerful. The federal structure of the’ Indian Constitution is taken from the Canadian Constitution.

Question 5.
The Constitution of India was prepared on November 26,1949 but it came into force on Jan. 26, 1950. Why the date of January 26 was fixed? Comment.
Answer:
At the Lahore session of Congress, 1929, it was decided to celebrate India’s first independence day on 26 January, 1930 although India was not independent. From then onwards, 26 January was celebrated as independence day till 1947. But in 1947, India got its real independence as 15 August. So, to keep the historical importance of 26 January, it was decided to implement the Indian Constitution on this day. In this way 26 January became the Republic day of India.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of Sovereign State?
Answer:
The meaning of Sovereign state is that the country is completely free to take decisions on its external and internal matters. Whenever country is required to form its internal policy or keeping relations with other countries, it is free from any type of pressure. No one can force the country to take any decision.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has given all its adult citizens, the right to vote and this is known as Universal Adult Franchise. All the Indian citizens with the age of 18 years more are given the right to vote without any discrimination. Initially it was 21 years but with the 61st Constitutional Amendment, the age of casting vote was reduced to 18 years.

Question 8.
Write any four unitary features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

All the Indian Citizens are given single citizenship.
All the governments are given single Constitution.
A single unified Judicial system is set up for the whole country.
The Indian Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries and names of the states.
Governors of the states act as the representatives of Central Government and they are appointed by the Central government.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the preamble of Indian Constitution in the original form.
Answer:
We The People of India having solemly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular

Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizen :
Justice, social, economic and political:
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship,
Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; –
In Our Constituent Assembly this twenty-Sixth day of November 1949 do Hereby Adopt, Enact And Give To Ourselves This Constitution.

Question 2.
India is a secular state. Explain the statement.
Answer:
By inserting the word ‘Secular’ in the Preamble of the Constitution by 42nd amendment. India is declared a secular state in clear words. Such a system is adopted in the Constitution that India is made secular state without any doubt. Right to freedom of religion has been granted to all persons residing in India under Articles 25-28 of Indian Constitution. According to this right, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion. State has no religion of its own. The state shows full neutrality in the religious matter. All this shows that India is a secular State.

Question 3.
What do you mean by a Sovereign State? Explain in brief.
Answer:
By sovereign means that now, after the promulgation of .the Constitution. India is not subject to any foreign rule. India is now a sovereign state, internally as well as externally. No other country can compel India to follow or not to follow a particular policy. We can now make any law, remaining of course within the limits imposed by our own Constitution. We can also amend our Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Constituent Assembly was set up under the recommendations of:
(a) Cripps Proposals
(b) C.R. Plan
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935.
Answer:
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan.

Question 2.
Which National Leader demanded in 1924 that a Round Table Conference should be called to frame a Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal
(b) Pt. Motilal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dr. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(b) Pt. Motilal Nehru.

Question 3.
The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in :
(a) Jan. 1945
(b) July 1946
(c) August 1946
(d) Dec. 1946.
Answer:
(b) July 1946.

Question 4.
According to the Cabinet Mission Plan, the Constituent Assembly was to consist of:
(a) 285 Members
(b) 380 Members
(c) 389 Members
(d) 490 Members
Answer:
(b) 389 Members.

Question 5.
The Constituent Assembly was not a sovereign body in the beginning but it became a sovereign body after :
(a) July 1946
(b) 15th August, 1947
(c) 26 Jan, 1950
(d) 19th Dec. 1946.
Answer:
(b) 15th August, 1947.

Question 6.
Who was the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachindanand Sinha
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Sachindanand Sinha.

Question 7.
Who was permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 8.
Who moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?
(а) Dr. Ambedkar
(б) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Answer:
(b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 9.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. B.R. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 10.
After a great labour, the Constitution was ready on :
(a) 26th Dec., 1949
(6) 26th Jan., 1950
(c) 25th Dec., 1949
(d) 26 Nov., 1949.
Answer:
(d) 26th Nov.,’1949.

Question 11.
How much time did it take to make the Indian Constitution?
(а) 1 year, 11 months and 18 days
(б) 2 years, 10 months and 18 days
(c) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days
(d) 2 years, 6 months and 18 days.
Answer:
(c) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days.

Question 12.
The Indian Constitution was enforced on :
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th Jan., 1950
(c) 9th Dec., 1950
(d) 15th August, 1950.
Answer:
(b) 26th Jan., 1950.

Question 13.
The Constitution of India was adopted by:
(a) The British Parliament
(b) The Governor General
(c) The Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament of India.
Answer:
(c) The Constituent Assembly.

Question 14.
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on :
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 25th January, 1950
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 25th November, 1949.
Answer:
(c) 26th November, 1949.

Question 15.
Which amendment of the Constitution added the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble?
(a) 44th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 46th amendment
(d) 50th amendment.
Answer:
(b) 42nd amendment.

Question 16.
What is the meaning of: “We, the people’ of India’?
(a) That the people of India are direct rulers of the country
(b) That the ultimate sovereignty is vested with the people
(c) That the power is in the hands of few.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) That the ultimate sovereignty is vested with the people.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
The Indian Constitution was formed by the __________
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly had __________ members.
Answer:
389

Question 3.
__________ was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 4.
In India __________ administrative system is adopted.
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 5.
Parliamentary form of government in India is taken from __________
Answer:
England.

True/False:

Question 1.
The Indian Constitution was formed by the parliament.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9th December, 1946.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru gave the objective resolution to the Constituent Assembly,
Answer:
True

Question 4.
After 15th August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly had 389 members.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
It took four years to prepare the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Under whose recommendation the Constituent Assembly was set up?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was set up on the recommendation of Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.

Question 2.
When was the Constituent Assembly of India established?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was established in July, 1946.

Question 3.
Name the person who was chosen as temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Sachindanand Sinha, the oldest member of the Constituent Assembly was elected the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When did the Constituent Assembly meet for the first time?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on December 9, 1946.

Question 5.
Who was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajindra Prasad was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 6.
Name the body that framed the Indian Constitution and state when it was constituted?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly and the Constituent Assembly was constituted in July, 1946.

Question 7.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Question 8.
Who moved the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru moved the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 9.
When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949.

Question 10.
When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Or
When was the Constitution of India promulgated?
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into effect on January 26, 1950.

Question 11.
How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly consisted of 389 members (299 after 15th Aug. 1947).

Question 12.
Name the body which adopted the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India.

Question 13.
How much time did Constituent Assembly take to make the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to frame the Constitution.

Question 14.
Mention the name of four countries where written Constitution exist.
Answer:

U.S.A.
France.
India.
South Africa.

Question 15.
What is meant by Preamble?
Answer:
The Preamble is a summary of the objectives and the basic philosophy of the Constitution. It helps in the interpretation of the Constitution.

Question 16.
With which words the Preamble of Indian Constitution starts?
Answer:
The Preamble of Indian Constitution starts with “We the People of India ”

Question 17.
What new words have been added to Preamble of our Constitution under the 42nd amendment?
Answer:
Socialist and Secular.

Question 18.
How many amendments have been made in the Preamble?
Answer:
Only one amendment (42nd) has been made in the Preamble so far.

Question 19.
What is the source of the authority according to the Preamble?
Answer:
The Preamble expresses in a very clear language that the people are the ultimate source of all authority.

Question 20.
For how many days, the draft of Indian Constitution was discussed in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
114 days.

Question 21.
Name any four countries whose major features of constitution were incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
England, U.S.A., Canada, Ireland.

Question 22.
Why is the Indian Constitution considered the alive Constitution?
Answer:
Because from time to time and according to needs, it has been changed and developed.

Question 23.
How is India a republic?
Answer:
India is a republic because the President is indirectly elected (by an electoral college) by the people for a fixed period.

Question 24.
Give two reasons to show that the Indian Constitution is a democratic country.
Answer:
(i) Government is run by the representatives of people.
(;ii) All the citizens are given equal political rights.

Question 25.
What do you mean by the Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:
The changes made in the Constitution are known as the Constitutional Amendments. .

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution is a collection of those rules and regulations according to which the administration of the state is run. The administration of each state is run in accordance with certain rules and regulations. It is the fundamental law reflecting the will of the people. It determines the powers Snd responsibilities of the state. It also states people’s rights and duties.

Question 2.
Why do we need a Constitution?
Answer:
All the democratic countries of the world have Constitutions. We need Constitution due to given below reasons :

Supreme Law of the Country. The Constitution of a state is the supreme law of the land. The government at the State and Central level work within the sphere of powers given to them by the Constitution.
Provide Basic Rules. The Constitution provides basic rules and principles on the basis of which government should be.
Knowledge about the Nature of Government. It is the Constitution which decides how the government will be organised.
Rule of Law. The Constitution of a state makes provision for rule of law.
Limitations on the Government. The Constitution puts limitations on the three organs of the government so that no organ should become absolute and arbitrary.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the meaning of the Preamble.
Answer:
The Constitution of India begins with a Preamble. The Preamble serves the purpose of a window through which we peep into the intentions of the makers of the constitution. In short, the Preamble is a summary of the objectives and basic philosophy of a Constitution. It helps in the interpretation of the Constitution. With the help of the Preamble we can understand the basic philosophy of the Constitution.

Question 4.
Mention the nature of state according to the Preamble of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
According to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution the nature of Indian State is as under :
(a) India is a Sovereign state;
(b) India is a Democratic state;
(c) India is a Secular state;
(d) India is a Socialist state and
(e) India is a Republic.

Question 5.
How is the Indian Constitution considered as the people’s Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is considered as the people’s Constitution. Members of the Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected by the provincial legislatures which were elected by the people. Actually all the important leaders were the members of the Constituent Assembly. Representatives of all the classes (Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, females) were included in it. If elections could have done on the basis of adult franchise, same people could have elected. In this way it is people’s Constitution.

Question 6.
Why there is more importance of the Constitution in democratic countries?
Answer:
In democracy, directly or indirectly people rule the country. In the constitution. On the one side complete description of the government’s powers is given and on the other side there are certain restrictions on it. People’s rights are completely explained in the constitution. No one can work against the Constitution. Courts are there to protect the Constitution and fundamental rights. That’s why the Constitution is of great importance in the democratic countries.

Question 7.
Discuss the circumstances which led to the formation of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Our Constitution was drafted by a Constituent Assembly composed of Indian people. Mahatma Gandhi mooted the idea of Constituent Assembly in 1922 and the Indian National Congress put the demand in a concrete form in 1935. But this demand of the Congress Party remained unfulfilled for a number of years. It was incorporated in the Cripps Proposals of 1942 that after the end of war a Constitution-making body would be set up to frame a new constitution. However, for various reasons the Cripps Proposals did not meet the approval of the Indian people. The Cabinet Mission plan 1946 proposed the constitution of an Assembly to frame the Constitution. The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in 1946 according to the Cabinet Mission Plan. Its first meeting was held on 9 December, 1946.

Question 8.
What is meant by the Rigid and Flexible Constitution?
Answer:
Indian Constitution is rigid as well as flexible in nature. The meaning of rigid constitution is that it cannot be easily changed or amended. To amend the constitution, government needs great majority in the parliament which, most of the times, they don’t have. The meaning of flexible Constitution is that if government has the required majority, it can amend the Constitution very easily. If political parties will come together, they can also amend it quite easily.

Question 9.
Indian Constitution is lengthiest in the world. Clarify.
Answer:
Indian Constitution is the lengthiest Constitution among all the Constitutions of the world. Originally it had 395 Articles and 8 schedules. After 1950, many new clauses were added in it and that’s why presently it has 450 Articles and 12 schedules. 103 Amendments have been done in it. That’s why it has become more lengthy.

Question 10.
What is meant by the written Constitution?
Answer:
Our Constitution is the written Constitution which was made with the great hard work of 2 years 11 months and 18 days of the Constituent Assembly. Federal structure of the government was kept over here and that’s why it was required to keep it in the written forms so that the disputes between the central government and state governments could be resolved with ease. On contrary to this, the British Constitution is an unwritten Constitution based on customs and conventions. Our Constitution is in written form and that’s why it is quite transparent.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly. In this context explain the following :
(a) Draft Committee
Answer:
Draft Committee: On August 29, 1947, the Constituent Assembly elected a Drafting Committee from among its members Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was its Chairman. Besides its Chairman, its other members were : N. Gopala Swamy Ayyangar, Alladikrishna Swamy Ayyer, Dr. K.M Munshi, N. Madhav Rao, Sayyad Mohammad Sadaulla and D.P. Khaitan, Sh. B.N. Rao was appointed adviser of the Drafting Committee. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar played a very important role in drafting the Constitution and he has rightly been called the father of the Draft Constitution.

(b) Adoption and promulgation of the Constitution of free India.
Answer:
A draft Constitution was prepared in February, 1948 and it was presented before the Constituent Assembly on February 21, 1948. Draft was published in all the leading newspapers of the country to elicit public opinion. A national debate was held on the Draft Constitution. On November 4, 1948 general discussion began on the Draft. It continued upto October 17, 1949.

During this time 7635 amendments were presented out of which 2473 amendments were discussed. At last on November 26, 1949 the Constituent Assembly adopted the new Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly took 2 years 11 months, and 18 days to frame the Constitution. The new Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950.

Question 2.
‘India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic’. Explain.
Answer:
The preamble proclaims that the people of India have resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.’
(а) India is a Sovereign State. It means that now, after the promulgation of the Constitution, India is not subject to any foreign rule. India is fully sovereign, internally as well as externally. No other country can compel India to follow or not to follow a particular policy.

(b) India is a Socialist State. Natural resources and wealth of the nation should be used for the welfare of the whole society. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

(c) India is a Secular State. There is no official religion of the state. Freedom of religion has been granted to all persons residing in India. All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to practise and propagate religion.

(d) India is a Democratic State. Indian polity is based on democratic principles. The people elect their representatives on the basis of adult franchise. All citizens enjoy equal political rights. The government is run according to some basic rules.

(e) India is a Republican State. The word ‘Republic’ means that the head of the state shall be an elected one for a fixed tenure.The head of the state (President) is elected for a period of five years. There is no room for a hereditary monarch like the one in England.

Question 3.
Examine the significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. It does not have any legal force. Still it has special significance.

The significance of the Preamble is as follows :

Source of Authority. The Preamble expresses in a very clear language that people are the ultimate source of all authority. It is the people who have adopted and enacted the Constitution; It is the people who have given ‘the Constitution to themselves.’ The words, we the people of India, are very significant.
Nature of Indian Polity. The Preamble emphasises the fact that India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
Symbol of Objectives. The Preamble is the symbol of those objectives which the Constitution makers pledged to attain. The Preamble assures the people of India Justice—Social, Economic and Political.
Key to the Constitution. The Preamble is the soul and spirit of the Constitution. The Preamble is the mirror of the Constitution. It is a jewel set in the Constitution.
Guide to the Government. The Preamble to the Constitution provides guidelines to the government of the day.
Guidelines to the Judiciary. Whenever a Court of Justice has to explain some articles of the Constitution then it takes the help of the ideas expressed through the Preamble of the Constitution.
Yardstick to evaluate the performance of the Government. The Preamble enables the people to assess and evaluate the performance of the government in the light of the objectives laid down in the Preamble. It keeps the government on its toe.

Question 4.
Indian Constitution is taken from many sources. Explain.
Answer:
Before the making of Indian Constitution, Constituent Assembly studied different Constitutions of different countries. It also studied different laws made by the British Parliament for India. It took all the good aspects of different sources and their description is given below :

Britain. Parliamentary system, process of making laws, special privileges of Parliament, Rule of law, Single citizenship, Cabinet system, System of two houses.
U.S.A. Fundamental Rights, Structure and powers of Supreme Court, judicial review, post of Vice President, independence of judiciary, preamble.
Canada. Federal structure, Residuary powers, Appointment of Governors by centre,.
Ireland. Directive principles of state policy, The process of election of the President, Nomination of Rajya Sabha members by the President, the Process of Removal of the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts.
Germany. Emergency powers of the President.
U.S.S.R. Fundamental Duties.
France. Republic, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
South Africa. Constitutional Amendment.

Question 5.
Describe some of the key features of Federalism.
Answer:
In the federal system, there are two types of governments central government and state governments. The central governments solves the national problems and state governments solve local problems. Actually in this type of system powers are divided among central authority and the different units of that union. There is one government for the entire country and different provinces have different governments.

Both levels have their own powers. Some of the main features of federalism are given below :

Written Constitution: A written Constitution is essential in a federation in the sense that both the centre and the states should be definite and about their sphere of action.
Division of Powers: The powers of the government in a federation are distributed between the centre and the states.
Independent Judiciary: The presence of an independent and powerful judiciary is most essential in a federation.
Bi-cameralism: Some people are of the opinion that the legislature in a federation should be bi-cameral.
Rigid Constitution: The Constitution should be rigid so that it is not easily changed by impatient hands. The amending procedure is invariably more difficult than the enactment of ordinary laws. In almost all federal states amendments require favourable action by the parliament and a large majority of states.
Supremacy of the Constitution: In a federation Constitution is supreme both the centre and the states should run the administration in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. The supremacy of the constitution is maintained by the Supreme Court.
Double Citizenship: In some federal states citizens enjoy double citizens. An individual is citizen of the state as well as he is citizen of the whole country.
Federation exists in U.S.A., Switzerland, India etc. India has a federal system of government having all features of a federation.

Question 6.
On what basis division of powers is made between the union and the state governments in a federal system?
Or
How powers are divided in our country the Federal of India between centre and states?
Answer:
In our country India, Constitution has clearly demarcated the powers between different levels. Every level is given certain subjects to make laws related to its jurisdiction and they are not allowed to interfere in other’s matters. Actually, this distribution is three folded. Three types of lists are given in the Constitution in which subjects are divided.

These three lists and their jurisdiction is given below:

Union List. Union list is a list of 97 (presently 100) subjects on which the Central government can make laws. Union list includes the subjects of national importance like defence, finance, foreign affairs, post and telegraph, banking, etc. Only the Central government can take decisions regarding these matters.
State List. State list is a list of 66 (presently 61) subjects on which state government can make laws, Central government has nothing to do with it. Matters of local importance like police, agriculture, irrigation, commerce trade, etc. are included in it. State governments alone can make laws on the subjects given in this list.
Concurrent list. The concurrent list is a list of 47 (presently 52) subjects that are of common interest for both central and state governments. Issues like forests, education, trade unions, etc. are included in it. Both Central and state governments can make laws on these issues. But if there will be any clash of laws then the laws made by the Central government will prevail. In this way, powers are divided into Central and state governments in the Indian federal system.