PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Respiration in Organisms Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 117)

Question 1.
How long were you able to hold your breath?
Answer:
Up to 35 seconds.

Question 2.
Why can we not hold our breath for a long time?
Answer:
We need oxygen all the time within our body, by holding breath for too long the amount of Carbon dioxide will increase which can be fatal.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Think and answer (Textbook Page No. 118)

Question 1.
In which condition the rate of breathing is slowest ?
Answer:
After resting, the respiratory rate is at least 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A lower rate is a sign of a physical problem.

Question 2.
What is your normal breathing rate ?
Answer:
20 breaths per minute.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 121)

Question 1.
What does the rubber sheet represent ?
Answer:
The Diaphragm represents the rubber seat.

Question 2.
Which organs are represented by balloons ?
Answer:
The two lungs represent the balloons.

Question 3.
Can you explain the mechanism of breathing with the help of this model ?
Answer:
Yes, because it is working model of breathing. Therefore, this will explain that action completely.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 118)

Question 1.
Why does lime water turn milky ?
Answer:
When we blow in lime water the exhaled carbon dioxide reacts with lime water to make lime water milky.

Question 2.
What is the formula of lime water ?
Answer:
Chemical formula of Lime water: Ca(OH)2

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Respiration in Organisms Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Lactic acid is produced during ………………….. respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic

(ii) Taking in of air rich in oxygen is called ………………… .
Answer:
Breathing

(iii) The number of times a person breathes in a minute is termed as ……………………. .
Answer:
Breathing rate

(iv) Exchange of gases in the leaves of plants takes place through ……………….. .
Answer:
Stomata

(v) The skin of an earthworm is …………….. to touch.
Answer:
Wet and slippery

2. State True or False:

(i) Frogs breathe through their skin as well as lungs.
Answer:
True

(ii) We cannot feel breathing movements in our body.
Answer:
False

(iii) Aerobic respiration produces more energy than anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

(iv) During heavy exercise the breathing rate of a person slows down.
Answer:
True

(v) Insects have organ, called trachea for respiration.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Lenticels (a) Gills
(ii) Yeast (b) Old stem
(iii) Fish (c) Skin
(iv) Stomata (d) Alcohol
(v) Earthworm (e) Leaves

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Lenticels (b) Old stem
(ii) Yeast (d) Alcohol
(iii) Fish (a) Gills
(iv) Stomata (e) Leaves
(v) Earthworm (c) Skin

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The earthworms respire through:
(a) Trachea
(b) Gills
(c) Lungs
(d) Skin.
Answer:
(d) Skin

Question (ii)
Respiration helps in:
(a) Digestion
(b) Energy production
(c) Locomotion
(d) Chromosomes.
Answer:
(b) Energy production.

Question (iii)
In cockroaches, air enters the body through:
(a) Skin
(b) Lungs
(c) Spiracles
(d) Gills.
Answer:
(c) Spiracles.

Question (iv)
In old and woody stem gaseous exchange take place through:
(a) Stomata
(b) Lenticels
(c) Root hair
(d) Do not respire.
Answer:
(b) Lenticels.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Question (v)
During heavy exercise we get cramps due to:
(a) Glucose
(b) Oxygen
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Alcohol.
Answer:
(c) Lactic acid.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define the term breathing rate.
Answer:
Breathing Rate. The number of times a person breathes in a minute, is called the breathing rate. Breathing once means inhaling once and exhaling once.

Question (ii)
What is respiration ? Name two types of respiration.
Answer:
Respiration. This is a simple physical activity during which oxygen-rich air from the atmosphere is drawn into the respiratory organs (lungs in humans). This part of the respiratory system is called breathing and after breathing, carbon dioxide-rich air is expelled from the respiratory tract into the atmosphere.
There are two types of respirations:

  1. Aerobic respiration.
  2. Anaerobic respiration.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why do we get muscle cramps after heavy excercise ?
Answer:
After exercise we feel tired due to Anaerobic respiration. In the absence of oxygen, lactic acid is formed due to the partial oxidation of glucose. Lactic acid builds up in the muscles causing fatigue and stiffness.

Question (ii)
Why does an over watered potted plant die ?
Answer:
When we water the plants more than what plants need, they die. This is because more water fills the air spaces between the soil particles. As a result, the roots of the plants do not get enough oxygen.

Question (iii)
Why do we often sneeze when we inhale a lot of dust-laden air ?
Answer:
When we inhale in a dusty environment, the unwanted dust particles get trapped in the nasal passage, nasal hair and mucus causing irritation or itching in the nose which makes us sneeze. With the onset of sneezing, those unnecessary dust particles are expelled and clean air begins to enter our lungs.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How respiration is different from breathing ?
Answer:
Differences between Respiratory and Breathing.

Respiration Breathing
(1) This action takes place in cells. (1) This action takes place outside the cells.
(2) Energy is produced in this action. (2) This action does not produce energy.
(3) It is a chemical reaction. (3) It is a physical activity in which gases are exchanged.
(4) Respiratory organs are not required in this activity. (4) The respiratory organs (lungs) are required.
(5) It requires enzymes. (5) Enzymes are not required in this activity.
(6) This action produces carbon dioxide and energy. (6) It releases carbon dioxide.
(7) It involves oxidation of glucose. (7) It draws in oxygen.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Question (ii)
Draw a labelled diagram of human respiratory system.
Answer:
Labelled diagram of human Respiratory System:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms 1

Question (iii)
List similarities and differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Difference between Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration :

Aerobic Respiration Anaerobic Respiration
(1) This action occurs in the presence of oxygen. (1) This action takes place in the absence of oxygen.
(2) This action takes place in both the biological fluid and the mitochondria biological fluid. (2) This action takes place only in the of the cells.
(3) In aerobic respiration, complete oxidation of glucose occurs. (3) In anaerobic respiration incomplete oxidation of glucose takes place.
(4) In this action CO2 and water are formed. (4) Alcohol and carbon dioxide are formed in this process.
(5) In this action from a molecule of glucose 38 ATP molecules are free. (5) From a molecule of glucose in this action 2 ATP molecules are free.
(6) Complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose releases 673 kcal of energy. (6) Partial oxidation of one molecule of glucose releasing 21 kilo calorie of energy.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Respiration in Organisms Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Organisms that do not require oxygen for respiration are called ………………..
Answer:
Anaerobic organisms

(ii) Accumulation of ………………….. causes stiffness in muscles.
Answer:
Lactic acid

(iii) Our breathing rate ………………… when we do exercise or work hard.
Answer:
Increases

(iv) The leaves of plants use ……………….. for the exchange of gases.
Answer:
Stomata

(v) Fishes breathe through …………………..
Answer:
Gills

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(a) Yeast (i) Earthworm
(b) Diaphragm (ii) Gills
(c) Skin (iii) Alcohol
(d) Leaves (iv) Chest Cavity
(e) Fish (v) Stomata
(f) Frog (vi) Lungs and skin

Answer:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(a) Yeast (iii) Alcohol
(b) Diaphragm (iv) Chest Cavity
(c) Skin (i) Earthworm
(d) Leaves (v) Stomata
(e) Fish (vi) Gills
(f) Frog (vii) Lungs and skin

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which one of the following is an anaerobic organism ?
(a) Cow
(b) Yeast
(c) Frog
(d) Butterfly.
Answer:
(b) Yeast.

Question (ii)
The percentage of CO2 in exhaled air is:
(a) 0.4%
(b) 4%
(c) 4.4%
(d) 14.4%.
Answer:
(c) 4.4%.

Question (iii)
The products of anaerobic respiration are:
(a) Carbohydrate and O2
(b) Ethylalcohol and CO2
(c) Carbohydrate and CO2
(d) Ethylalcohol and O2
Answer:
(b) Ethylalcohol and CO2

Question (iv)
Respiratory organs of fish are:
(a) Skin
(b) Lungs
(c) Gills
(d) Stomata.
Answer:
(c) Gills.

Question (v)
Plants carry out photosynthesis only during:
(a) Night
(b) Day
(c) Day and Night
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Day

Question (vi)
Respiratory organs of frog are:
(a) Lungs and Skin
(b) Gills
(c) Only skin
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Lungs and Skin.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Question (vii)
The Vital biological system of organisms is:
(a) Digestion
(b) Reproduction
(c) Excretion
(d) Respiration.
Answer:
(d) Respiration.

Question (viii)
Which organism uses more than one organ for respiration?
(a) Fish
(b) Cockroach
(c) Human
(d) Frog.
Answer:
(d) Frog.

Question (ix)
Air enters ¡n the body of cockroach:
(a) Through lungs
(b) Through gilds
(e) Through spricales
(d) Through skin.
Answer:
(e) Through spricals.

4. State True or False:

(i) During heavy exercise the breathing rate of a person slows down.
Answer:
False

(ii) Plants carry out photosynthesis only during the day and respiration only at night.
Answer:
False

(iii) Frogs breathe through their apart from skin.
Answer:
True

(iv) The fishes have lungs for respiration.
Answer:
False

(v) The size of the chest cavity increases during inhalation.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Very Short Answer Type Qucstions

Question 1.
Name the energy giving processes.
Answer:
Nutrition and respiration.

Question 2.
What are the end products of aerobic respiration ?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water and energy.

Question 3.
What are the end products of anaerobic respiration ?
Answer:
Ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) and carbon dioxide (CO2).

Question 4.
Define breathing.
Answer:
Breathing. The process by which organisms take oxygen from environment and release carbon dioxide, is called breathing.

Question 5.
What are the two main processes in respiration ?
Answer:
The two main processes in respiration are:
(i) Breathing i.e. taking in O2 and giving out CO2.
(ii) Using O2 in the cells (internal respiration).

Question 6.
What are anaerobes ?
Answer:
Anaerobes. Organisms which can survive in absence of free air are called anaerobes.

Question 7.
Give an example of anaerobe.
Answer:
Yeast.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Question 8.
What is cellular respiration ?
Answer:
Cellular respiration. Respiration taking place in living cells is called cellular respiration.

Question 9.
Which functions of cell need energy ?
Answer:
Nutrition, transport, excretion, reproduction.

Question 10.
What is the reason of cramps in legs ?
Answer:
Formation of lactic acid.

Question 11.
How can the muscles of legs be relieved ?
Answer:
By massaging or taking hot water bath.

Question 12.
When does breathing rate increase ?
Answer:
During exercise or running.

Question 13.
What is diaphragm ?
Answer:
Diaphragm. It is a large muscular sheet forming the floor of chest cavity.

Question 14.
What happens to chest cavity during inhalation ?
Answer:
During inhalation, the space in chest cavity increases.

Question 15.
When does the space in chest cavity decrease ?
Answer:
During exhalation.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is anaerobic respiration ?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration. Some cells like bacteria and yeast release energy by breaking down glucose into ethyl alcohol and CO2 in the absence of oxygen. This process is called anaerobic respiration.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Question 2.
What are stomata ? Give two functions of stomata.
Answer:
Stomata. These are the small holes (pores) present on the lower surface of leaves. It is guarded by two kidney-shaped guard cells. The light affects its opening.
Functions. (i) Exchange of gases, (ii) Control of transpiration.

Question 3.
Explain respiration in plants.
Answer:
Respiration in plants. Plants, during the process of photosynthesis, give off oxygen which is utilized during respiration.
Stomata are the openings located on the lower surface of the leaves which are guarded by two kidney-shaped guard cells. Through stomatal opening exchange of gases takes place.

Question 4.
Is respiration the same as breathing ?
Answer:
Resiration and breathing are not the same processes. During respiration oxidation of food occurs along with the release of energy. It is purely a chemical process. Breathing is purely a physical process. It mainly occurs by inhalation and exhalation. In breathing simply exchange of gases occurs, where O2 is drawn in and carbon dioxide is thrown out.

Question 5.
Give chemical equation for Aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + Water + energy.
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

Question 6.
Give an account of movement of ribs during inhalation and exhalation processes.
Answer:
Movement of Ribs

  1. During inhalation. Ribs move up and outwards to increase space in chest cavity.
  2. During exhalation. Ribs move down and inwards to decrease space in chest cavity.

Question 7.
Describe the importance of respiration in plants. .
Answer:
Importance of respiration in plants. During respiration the energy rich foodstuffs (glucose and fructose) are changed into water and carbon dioxide accompanied by the release of usable energy which is necessary for the sustenance of plant life. The carbon dioxide so released is made use of in the manufacture of food by the plant during the process of photosynthesis.

Question 8.
Give an account of respiration in fishes.
Answer:
Respiration in fishes. Fishes live in water and breathe through gills which is their breathing organ. Fishes take in water through their mouth and force is out through the gills. In gills water and blood flow in opposite direction to increase diffusion of oxygen.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms 2

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Show by an experiment that CO2 is present in the exhaled air.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms 3
We can prove by the following experiment that CO2 is present in the exhaled air:
Experiment. Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure. Exhale air through your mouth into the tube provided for this purpose. You will notice that the lime water is kept in test B. Through which exhaled air is passing has turned milky.

On the other hand, test tube A through which exhaled air is not passing has shown slight milkiness due to atmosphere air entering from the side tube. It proves that carbon dioxide is present in exhaled air which has turned lime water present in test tube B milky and milkiness is due to the formation of calcium carbonate in the figure.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms 4

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Sports injuries and their Treatment Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Sports Injuries?
Answer:
Injuries are common things in human life. There is a little risk of injury during work. If there is a minor mistake or negligence, there can be an injury. Similarly, players receive injuries in the playground, they receive injuries. There is a difference between the injuries we receive during the general work & the injuries received in the playgrounds.

If a player comes to the ground fully prepared & carefully, there are fewer chances of injuries for him as compared to other players, but we cannot say that he will not receive injuries at all, every player receives some injuries in his sports life. Common injuries received during playing games can be cured within one or two days, but sometimes a player receives a serious injury, as a result he has to be out of the field for a long time.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 2.
What are Exposed Injuries?
Answer:
These kind of injuries are generally received in playground during playing games. These injuries are received on outer parts of the body & these can be seen clearly.
It is of three types-
1. Abrasion:
Under this kind of injury the outer part of the skin is peeled off due to abrasion, even internal part of the. skin is also peeled off. This Injury is received, when a player falls on hard ground.

2. Incision:
Sometimes players strike against each other very hard during the game as a result one player’s sharp body part like elbow, knee or other sharp part hits the other player & his skin gets torn as a result. The player may receive this injury due to striking in some hard objects.

3. Punctured Wound:
This Injury received during game is considered very serious. This injury is caused by some sharp or pointed objects.

Question 3.
Which injuries are called unexposed injuries?
Answer:
These injuries are visible on the outer part of the body. They are called unexposed or invisible injuries. These injuries are received usually on heavy muscles or on joints. The main cause of these injuries is over strain or burden put of the muscles or on Joints. The player feels sharp pain in these injuries and it takes much time to heal the injury.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 4.
What is the difference between dislocation and fracture?
Answer:
Dislocation:
People misunderstand dislocation as fracture whereas there is a great difference between both injuries. The bone dislocates from the joint due to overstrain or sudden jerk. The affected joint stops moving in this injury and the player is unable to play. This injury is received while running fast in the ground, striking hard against other player, hitting a pole or a table or over bending of joint while falling down.

Fracture:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture. Breaking of the bone is a serious injury. It causes a great pain to the player and takes a long time in healing. There are many kinds of fracture, among these there are common and serious injuries as well.

Question 5.
What is fracture? Write its symptoms & treatments of the fracture.
Answer:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture. Breaking of bone is a serious injury. It causes a great pain to the player & takes a long time in healing. There are many kinds of fracture, among these there are common & serious injuries as well.

Symptoms:

  • The Injured bone gets deformed.
  • There is severe pain on the injured Spot.
  • There can be cracking sound. If the bone is moved.
  • The injured body parts stops working.

Treatment:
The Injured bone should be supported with iron or wooden plate by tying them up with it, after the fracture even gauge can be used to support the injured bone. It should not be moved at all. One must try to stop bleeding, if it flows from the injury. The player should be taken to the doctor immediately so that X-ray of the injury can be done to know in details of it.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 6.
What are the main causes of sports injuries?
Answer:
(a) Lack of knowledge:
The player should have complete knowledge of the rules & the equipments used in the games. Sometimes the players starts playing without having the complete knowledge of sports equipments and hence, there remain a risk of injury.

(b) Lack of Physical ability:
There is a great importance of training for good performance in games. If a player starts playing without proper training of the game he may receive injuries due to lack of strength, speed and flexibility.

(c) Negligence: A minor negligence may become the reason of an injury received in playground.

(d) Faulty methods of warming up:
Warming up of the body is very necessary before playing a game, so that muscles of a player are able to bear the burden of the game properly.

(e) Improper playgrounds:
Sometime due to unlevelled playground, pits scattering of sharp objects and nails causes injuries. The playground should be checked properly before playing.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Sports injuries and their Treatment Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Types of exposed injury:
(A) Abrasion
(B) Incision
(C) Punctvfred wound
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 2.
What is Dislocation?
(A) When bone of joint misplaced
(B) Joint become immovable
(C) Player is unable to play
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Causes of Sprain.
(A) Heavy pain on the joint
(B) Swelling on the affected joint
(C) The place of joint become red
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
What are the main causes of Sports Injuries?
(A) Lack of knowledge
(B) Lack of physical ability
(C) Negligence
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 5.
Write the symptoms of fracture.
(A) Bone gets deformed
(B) Injured parts stop working
(C) Severe pain in the part of injury
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 6.
Causes of Sprain.
(A) Severe pain on injured place
(B) Player can not run
(C) Swelling on the spot
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should not be there in playfield?
Answer:
Pieces of glass and stones.

Question 2.
What Should not be there near the boundary line of field?
Answer:
Wire and Wall.

Question 3.
What types of equipment should be used in play?
Answer:
It should.be of International level.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 4.
In which spirit we should not play?
Answer:
Revenge.

Question 5.
What type of ground is?
Answer:
Even.

Question 6.
Write the type of Injuries of Sports?
Answer:
It is of 2 Types:

  • Exposed injuries
  • Unexposed injuries

Question 7.
What is Sprain?
Answer:
Sprain is the Injury of joints. Tissue which connect the joints are affected in the injury. Pressure is put on joints of the player while running in the playground. Tissues of his joints get strained or broken is called sprain.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 8.
What is Strain?
Answer:
This is an injury of the tissues & generally received on the heavy muscles. A Player’s muscles are pulled under this injury’ as a result he feels a severe pain & he is unable to work, run or to do any other activity properly.

Question 9.
What is dislocation?
Answer:
People misunderstand dislocation as fracture. The bone dislocates from the joint due to over strain. The affected, joint stops moving in this injury & the player is unable to play

Question 10.
What is Fracture?
Answer:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write down the symptoms of dislocation of bone?
Answer:

  • The joint is deformed
  • There is severe pain
  • There is swelling on the joint & the skin turns red.

Question 2.
Write the Symptoms of Fracture.
Answer:

  • The injured bone gets deformed.
  • The injured body parts stop Working.
  • There is severe pain on the injured spot.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 3.
Write the causes of injuries in the field of sports?
Answer:

  • Lack of Knowledge
  • Lack of Physical ability
  • Negligence
  • Faulty Methods of Warming up
  • Improper Playgrounds.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Strain? Write its symptoms & treatment.
Answer:
Strain is an injury of tissues & generally received on heavy muscles. A player’s muscles are pulled under this injury as a result he feels a severe pain & he is unable to walk, run to do any other activity properly.

Symptoms:

  • There is a severe pain on the injury spot.
  • The injury spot turns red.
  • There is a Swelling on the spot.
  • There is a huge pain during any movement.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Sports injuries and their Treatment

Question 2.
What is Fracture? Write its symptoms & treatment?
Answer:
Bone broken into two pieces due to an injury is called fracture. Breaking of the bone is serious injury. It causes a great pain to the player & takes a long time in healing.

Symptoms:

  • The Injured bone gets deformed.
  • There is a severe pain on injured spot.
  • There can be cracking sound, if the bone is moved.
  • The injured body part stops working.

Treatment:
The injured bone should be supported with iron or wooden plate by tying them up with it. Even gauge can be used to support the injured bone. One must try to stop bleeding, if it flows from the injury. The player should be taken to the doctor, so that X-ray of the injury can be done to know the details.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Why did Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invite Babar to attack on India?
Answer:
The nobles invited Babar to fight the Lodhis because of the following reasons :

  1. The Lodhi kings tried to suppress the power of their nobles who had tried to become independent rulers in different provinces.
  2. Ibrahim Lodhi, the last of the Lodhi kings, was proud, cruel and inefficient.
  3. He also ill-treated Daulat Khan Lodhi, the Goveror of Punjab.
  4. The nobles had thought that after plundering some parts of northern India, Babar, like other invaders, will leave for Kabul and then they would be able to assert their independence.

Question 2.
What do you know about Babar’s conquests?
Answer:
In the first battle of Panipat in 1526 A.D., Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodhi and occupied Delhi and Agra. Rana Sanga became angry with this. As a result, he led a huge army against Babar in the battle of Kanwah. Rana Sanga was defeated in the battle of Kanwah by Babar. With this victory, North India came under complete control of Babar.

Babar also defeated the Rajputs in the battle of Chandri in 1528 A.D. Babar also defeated the Afghans in 1529 A.D. at the battle of Ghaghara. He died in 1530 A.D.

Question 3.
Write about the conquests of Akbar,
Answer:
At the time of Humayun’s death, Akbar was only thirteen years old. He was not a ruler of any part of India. Akbar’s first conflict came with Hemu. He was an ambitious general of one of the Afghan princes. A battle of Panipat was fought between Bairam Khan, the Regent of Akbar and Hemu. Hemu was defeated in the battle of Panipat. Akbar captured Delhi and Agra which the Mughals had lost.

In 1560 A.D., Akbar himself took the reigns of the administration. After that his victories are as under :
1. Victories in North India :

  • Victories over Rajputs. In 1562 A.D., Akbar attacked the Rajputs. The King of Amber, Raja Bihari Mai accepted the subordination of Akbar and married his daughter to him. Besides, other Rajput rulers also accepted the subordination of Akbar e.g. Kalinjar, Marwar, Jaisalmer, Bikaner etc.
  • Struggle of Mewar. The ruler of Mewar Rana Pratap never wanted to . accept the subordination of Akbar. In 1569 A.D. Akbar occupied the capital of Mewar, Chittor. Still Maharana Pratap continued his struggle with the Mughals.
  • Victory over Gujarat. In 1572-73 A.D., Akbar got victory over Gujarat, (in) Victory over Bihar-Bengal. In 1574-76 A.D., Akbar defeated the rulers of Bihar and Bengal and occupied those states.
  • Other victories. Slowly Akbar got hold of Kashmir, Sindh, Orissa, Balochistan and Kandhar.

2. Victories in South India. After north India, Akbar shifted his attention to south India, then in south India he got the following victories :

  • Victory in Bijapur and Golkunda. This was achieved in 1591 A.D.
  • Victory over Khandesh. In 1601 A.D. Sultan Ali Khan of Khandesh accepted the subordination of Akbar. •
  • Control over Ahmednagar. In 1601 A.D., Akbar’s army defeated Chand Bibi of Ahmednagar and took control of the city.
  • Control over Berar. Akbar even took control over the Berar area of south India.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 4.
What do you mean by the Agrarian system of the Mughals?
Answer:
In Mughal state, the main source of revenue was Land Tax.

Improvement in the tradition of Land Tax.

  1. The crop produce in some parts of the state was more than the other. The kind of crop too was different, so Akbar managed to collect land tax differently.
  2. The total production of the empire and the total revenue collected on it.
  3. One-third of the production was decided to be the land tax. This helped the peasants a lot.
  4. In case of drought or excessive rains, the land revenue was often remitted.
  5. The land was measured in ‘bighas’.

Classification of Land: Akbar classified the land into four parts :

  • Polaj Land: It was very fertile land. Any crop could be sown on this land at anytime.
  • Parauti Land: On this land, sowing could be done after one or two years.
  • Chhachhar Land: The sowing could be done after three-four years.
  • Barren Land: Sowing could be done after five-six years.

Collection of Land Tax: The land tax collection systems were as follows :

  • Kankut System: According to this system the govt, would collect land tax by approximating the value of the standing crop.
  • Batai System: According to this system when the crop was harvested, then 1/3 part was taken by the govt.
  • Nasak System: According to this system the crop of the whole village was approximated and the land tax was fixed.

The Mughal govt, gave loans to the farmers to make more and more land agriculturable. At the time of drought and flood, the land tax was given exemption.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Tuzuk-i-Babari is the autobiography of ________
Answer:
Babar

Question 2.
The battle of Kanwaha was fought between Babar and ________
Answer:
Rana Sanga

Question 3.
Akbar defeated Hemu in ________
Answer:
1556 A.D, Panipat

Question 4.
Babar wrote ________
Answer:
Tuzuk-i-Babari

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 5.
Abul Fazl wrote ________
Answer:
Akbarnama.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
The Mughals came to India in 1525 A.D.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Daulat Khan Lodhi and Rana Sanga invited Babar to invade India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Sher Shah Suri was a Mughal ruler.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Rajputs were very well treated during the reign of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Deccan policy of Aurangzeb strengthened the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, show the extent of Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 2.
Collect the pictures of Mughal Emperors and paste in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When Akbar came into Power?
(a) 1560
(b) 1558
(c) 1564
(d) 1556
Answer:
(d) 1556.

Question 2.
Who wrote Ain-i-Akbari?
(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Tansen
(c) Raja Man Singh
(d) Todar Mai
Answer:
(a) Abul Fazl.

Question 3.
Mughal tradition of succession was to divide state into ________ of the father.
(a) Sons
(b) Daughters
(c) A & B Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Sons.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 4.
Mother of Jahangir was the princess of
(a) Raikot
(b) Amber
(c) Ajmer
(d) Jaisalmer.
Answer:
(b) Amber.

Question 5.
Term Mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a
(a) Jagir
(b) Land
(c) Mansab
(d) Suba.
Answer:
(c) Mansab.

Question 6.
The Mansabdars were required to maintain specified number of
(a) Horses
(b) Cavalry men
(c) Soldiers
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Cavalry men.

Question 7.
Revenue Minister of Akbar was
(a) Todar Mai
(b) Tansen
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Birbal.
Answer:
(a) Todar Mai.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 8.
Revenue circle with its own schedule revenue rates for individual crops is known as
(a) Mansab
(b) Zat
(c) Zabt
(d) Jagir.
Answer:
(b) Zat.

Question 9.
Whole of the Mughal Empire was divided into “different
(a) Cities
(b) Towns
(c) Faujdars
(d) Subas.
Answer:
(d) Subas.

Question 10.
Subedar of every Suba was supported by officer like
(a) Bakshi
(c) Sadr
(b) Faujdar
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When and between whom was the first battle of Panipat fought? Who was defeated?
Answer:
It was fought in 1526 A.D., between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim Lodhi was defeated in this battle.

Question 2.
Who was Babar? Write in brief about his victories.
Answer:

  • Babar was a good general and he knew how to use his soldiers to the best advantage.
  • Babar had brought artillery from central Asia and this was one of the main reasons for his success.
  • Babar’s cavalry was better trained.
  • The soldiers of Lodhi King were not faithful to him.
  • Babar arranged his soldiers in such a way that they could easily move from one part of the battle to another.

Babar’s Victories. Babar was the founder of the Mughal empire in India. He was a great conqueror who within a period of four years (1526-1529) won four battles:

  1. Battle of Panipat
  2. Battle of Kanwaha
  3. Battle of Chaderi and
  4. Battle of Ghagra.

In these battles, he proved himself to be a great military genius. He was also a great writer who patronised great scholars. His autobiography known as ‘Tuzuk-i-Babari’, in Turkish language, is a great piece of literature. He died in 1530 A.D. and was buried at Kabul in a beautiful grave.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 3.
Who exiled Humayun from India and when? When did he regain his state?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri exiled Humayun in 1540 A.D., but Humayun regained his state after defeating his successor Sikandar Suri in 1555 A.D. In 1556 A.D. Humayun died.

Question 4.
Who was Sher Shah? Why was he successful? Why is it said that he might have become a great Sultan?
Answer:
Sheh Shah Suri was an Afghan king. He defeated Humayun and founded the Suri Dynasty.

Reasons of his success:

  1. Sher Shah was a determined man.
  2. Before becoming the ruler, he administered the jagir of his father, so he had the experience of administration.
  3. He was liberal and well-wisher of his people. Sher Shah Suri died in A.D. 1545.

Sher Shah ruled Delhi only for five years. He administered his state well. His land revenue system was of highest order. He did many works for the welfare of the people. His army was well disciplined. Thus we see that Sher Shah did many important works in a brief tenure of his rule. Had he lived for longer period, he would have been the greatest ruler.

Question 5.
What were the features of the administration of Sher Shah Suri?
Answer:
Sher Shah ruled only for a short span of five years (1540-45 A.D.) but even during such a short period, he had achieved so much that it is said that he might have become a great Sultan.

There are many reasons for his success or greatness :
1. Man of Great Qualities: He was a great military genius and clever statesman. He duped Humayun several times and ultimately defeated him.

2. Administrative Reforms: Sher Shah was successful because he was a great administrator. He appointed efficient and honest officers to administer his state well. He treated all his subjects alike and even appointed Hindus on high posts.

3. Gearing up the Revenue Administration: Sher Shah got the whole land measured. A new assessment was made in order to fix a just tax. Land revenue was fixed at nearly one-third of the produce. Land revenue could be paid both in cash or in kind.

4. Reforming the Military Administration: Sher Shah fully knew that if he wanted to be successful he must organize his army on a strong footing. As such, he organized his army into a strong military force. .

5. Construction of Roads and Highways: Sher Shah built several good roads for promoting trade and commerce for the safe travel of the public.

Question 6.
Who made Altbar sit on the throne and when?
Answer:
It was Bairam Khan in 1556 A.D.

Question 7.
Who was Bairam Khan? When did Akbar depose him from his post?
Answer:
Bairam Khan was patron of Akbar. He was deposed in 1560 A.D. by Akbar.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 8.
Name the main features of Akbar’s Rajput policy.
Answer:
Akbar captured the Rajput kingdoms of Gwalior, Ajmer and Malwa. These conquests brought him into the neighbourhood of the Rajput kingdoms. Akbar was very far-sighted. He realised that there could be no permanent Mughal rule in India without the help and loyalty of Rajput princes. So he made friends with them. He entered into marital alliances between his family and various Rajput royal families. He himself married a number of Rajput princesses. They became his sincere friends, trusted advisers and his loyal and gallant comrades on the battlefield. Rhagwan Dass and Man Singh were his famous Rajput generals. But the Rana of Mewar, Rana Partap did not relent to Akbar.

Question 9.
Write about the central administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
The description is as follows :
1. King. King was the chief of administration. He had many assistants to help him, e.g. Wakil, Diwan-i-Ala, Mir-Bakshi, Sadar-i-Sadur, Qazi-ul-Qazat and Khan-i- Saman.

2. Wakil. He was the prime minister of the state. He would give information to the emperor about chief happenings. He would always carry out the orders of the emperor.

3. Diwan-i-Ala was the finance minister. He would take care of income-expenditure account of the state. He would also make laws about the taxes.

4. Mir Bakshi. He would keep records of Mansabdars. He would distribute salary to them. He would also take care of military institutions.

5. Sadar-i-Sadur. He was the chief of department of religious affairs. He would keep an account of religious affairs and educational institutions.

6. Qazi-ul-Qazat. He would give his opinions to emperor on Islamic laws for delivering the justice.

7. Khan-i-Saman. He would take care of the royal family and factories.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the state administrative system of Akbar/Mughals.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into 15 states for running his administration properly. The main state officials were as follows.

  • Subedar: He was the highest official of the state. His main function was to keep law and order in the state.
  • Diwan: He was the chief of finance of the state. The accounts of income-expenditure of state were under his department.
  • Bakshi: He would take care of military arrangements as well as horses.
  • Sadar: He would prepare details about saints, seers, peers and fakirs.
  • Waqiyanavis: He was the chief of detective department.
  • Kotwal: He was the police official. His main function was to maintain peace and order in the city.

Question 11.
Write a comment on the local administration of the Mughals/Akbar.
Answer:
Akbar had divided his empire into states and states were further sub-divided into districts, parganas and villages :
1. Administration of District :

  • Faujdar: He was the chief administrator of the district. He would carry out the orders of the Badshah and maintain law and order.
  • Amil-Guzar: His main function was to collect taxes.
  • Bitikchi and Khazandar: Both these official were the assistants of Amil Guzar.

2. Administration of Parganas:

  • Shiqdar: To maintain law and order in the pargana.
  • Amil: To collect land tax.
  • Potdar and Qanungo: Both these were assistants of Amil.

3. Administration of Villages: Most villages were administered by Panchayats. These developed the villages and take care of the village conflicts. ‘Chowdhary’, ‘Muqqadam’ and ‘Patwari’ were the assistants of Panchayat.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 12.
Write a short note of Mansabdari System.
Answer:
The Mansabdari system was the most important feature of the Mughal administration. The Mansab means rank. Each noble was given a mansab or rank and was called the mansabdar. The mansab or rank was based on the numbers of mounted soldiers at the command of the officers. Each mansabdar was required to perform any civil and military duty as was assigned to him by the emperor. Mansab was not hereditary. Hence it could not be passed on to his descendants. Thus every mansabdar owed his allegiance to the emperor.

Classes of Mansabdars. In the period of Akbar, Mansabdars had 33 classes. The lowest mansabdar had 10 soldiers and the highest mansabdar had 10,000 soldiers in his subordination.

Duties of Mansabdars. Mansabdars were appointed by the emperor at the recommendation of Mir Bakhshi. He could be put to any work. The salary was also given according to his class. He could be promoted as well as denoted in status as well as salary.

Question 13.
What do you know about Nur Jahan? What was her importance in Jahangir’s Court?
Answer:
Nur Jahan was a talented woman. Her original name was Mehr-un-Nisa. Jahangir married her in 1611 A.D. She set the fashion in dress and manners at the court. She had a great consideration in the Mughal court. She had a great influence in the administration. There was hardly any affair of importance in which she was not consulted. Jahangir fell ill for a long period. During this period she became a real ruler of the empire. Her name was associated with Jahangir on coins and privy seals.

Question 14.
“The reign of Aurangzeb (1658-1707) is described as the most disturbed among Mughal emperors.” ‘Why?
Answer:
The reign of Aurangzeb is described as the most disturbed due to the following reasons or facts :
1. Aurangzeb was a Sunni Muslim bigot. He ill-treated the followers of other religions. He ill-treated even the Sufi Saints.

2. Aurangzeb imposed Zazia on all the non-Muslim subjects particularly on the Hindus. He also destroyed their temples.

3. Aurangzeb martyred the ninth Guru of Sikhs, Guru Teg Bahadur Ji at Delhi. As a result, the Sikhs became sworn enemies of the Mughals.

4. The Rajput rulers of Mewar and Marwar also rose against the Mughals because they were discontented by the policies of Aurangzeb.

5. To conquer the Deccan states of Bijapur and Golkunda, Aurangzeb remained away from his capital for full 25 years (1682-1707 A.D.) His absence from his capital encouraged disruptive forces and gave rise to discontentment among the people.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 15.
How were the Marathas able to build up a strong and independent state? Was Aurangzeb able to control their rebellion?
Answer:
Following were the reasons for the establishment of an independent state of the Marathas.
1. Geographical reasons: Marathas lived in the hilly region of Maharashtra. They got natural forts on the hills. These forts helped them to establish an independent state.

2. Impact of Bhakti Movement: The Marathas were greatly benefited by the conversings of Bhakti movement in Deccan. The mutual differences of Marathas were reduced and a sense of brotherhood originated among them.

3. Political experience: After the decline of Delhi Sultanate, a number of small states were established in Deccan. They had a close look of the political life, which brought an awakening among them.

4. Hard workers: Marathas were the inhabitants of the hilly region. They struggled to earn their living. This habit of hard work made them brave.

5. Leadership of Shivaji: They were fortunate enough to have the leader like Shivaji. He united the scattered Marathas community and established a strong and independent state.

Rebellion of Marathas: The Marathas had become a great power. Aurangzeb wanted to crush them but could not succeed. In 1674 Shivaji declared himself an independent ruler. After Shivaji’s death, his son Shambhaji sat on throne. In 1689, Aurangzeb killed Shambhaji and occupied Maratha areas but Marathas continued their struggle under Raja Ram and afterwards his queen Tarabai. In 1707 A.D. after the death of Aurangzeb, Marathas reoccupied a large area of Mughals.

Question 16.
Describe the Sikh struggle against the Mughals during and after the administration of Aurangzeb. _
Answer:
The struggle of Sri Guru Teg Bahadur Ji: After Sri Guru Har Krishanji, Sri Guru Teg Bahadurji became the 9th Guru. He was against the anti-Hindu policies of Aurangzeb. So Aurangzeb was annoyed with Guruji. Guruji raised his voice against Aurangzeb when he tried to demolish the gurdwaras and he also spoke against Aurangzeb when he tried to expel the citizens who were having soft corners for the Guruji. Guruji was brought to Delhi and was asked to convert to Islam. Guruji declined and then he was severely tortured and he was martyred in Delhi’s Chandni Chowk in 1675 A.D.

Struggle of Guru Gobind Sahib Ji. Sri Guru Gobind Sahibji became the 10th Guru and continued his struggle against Mughal cruelty. In 1699 A.D., he founded the ‘Khalsa Panth’ and after that there was a struggle between the Sikhs and the Mughals. Guruji’s two elder sons Sahibzada Ajit Singh and Sahibzada Jujhar Singh became martyrs. Guruji’s younger two sons Sahibzada Zorawar Singh and Sahibzada Fateh Singh were buried alive in the wall at Sirhind.

Struggle of the Sikhs after Aurangzeb’s death. In 1707 A.D., Aurangzeb died. His successor Bahadur Shah tried to establish friendly relations with Sikhs but the Faujdar of Sirhind Wajir Khan sent a Pathan who by deception put knife into Guruji’s stomach. Guruji’s soul became one with God in 1708 A.D. After that the struggle continued under the leadership of Banda Singh Bahadur

Question 17.
Comment on the Deccan policy of Aurangzeb.
Answer:
Aurangzeb spent almost 25 years of his life in south India. He was a Sunni Muslim. So, he wanted to crush the independent Shia states of Bijapur and Golkonda in south India. These states helped Marathas against Mughals, so he wanted to crush the power of Marathas also.

In 1686 A.D., Aurangzeb occupied Bijapur and in 1687 A.D., he occupied Golkunda also. Shivaji died in 1680 A.D. but still Marathas continued their struggle. Aurangzeb failed to crush Marathas. In 1707 A.D., he died.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 18.
What were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
Following were the causes that brought about the break-up of the Mughal empire :

  • The successors of Aurangzeb were weak rulers.
  • The Mughal empire met with financial troubles.
  • Mughal administration was no longer as efficient as it used to be under Akbar.
  • The military administration of the Mughals had also become weaker.
  • Mughal India showed little awareness to the discoveries which the new science of Europe was revealing to Europeans.

Question 19.
Write about the visits of Europeans during Mughal period in India.
Answer:
During the period of Jahangir many European traders came to India. William Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe were the main visitors.

William Hawkins stayed in India for three years (1608-1611 A.D.). Based on his reports the British government established a factory in Surat in 1612 A.D.

Sir Thomas Roe was an English man who visited the court of Jahangir as an Ambassador from King James I. He remained at Agra for three years hoping to obtain some sort of permanant agreement with regard to trade which would place the English commerce in East Indian waters upon a sound basis. But he failed in his object. Sir Thomas Roe had left a very interesting account of his travels and experiences in India. He also left a wonderful account of king’s life and about the splendour and magnificence of the imperial court.

Question 20.
Describe the political condition of India during the Babar’s invasion.?
Answer:
The political condition was very pitiable. There was no centralized authority. The states were always fighting with each other.

  • The magnificence of Delhi Sultanate had declined. It was limited to Delhi and its nearby areas.
  • In Mewar, Rana Sanga had become quite powerful.
  • The Governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi was thinking of taking revenge from Delhi Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi.
  • The rulers of Bengal and Bihar had also became powerful.
  • In South India, there were many states. Vijaynagar was the main kingdom. Bahmani Kingdom was also divided into many parts.

Question 21.
Write notes on each of the following :
1. Humayun
Answer:
Humayun: Humayun was the eldest son of Babar. He sat on the throne in 1530 A.D. He was defeated by Sher Shah Suri, in 1540 A.D. in the battles of Chausa and Kanauj. He spent almost 15 years in Persia. He succeeded in getting back his throne in 1555 A.D. but next year he died.

The following were the difficulties that he had to face at the time of accession :

  • Although Babar had conquered a vast territory in India and founded a Mughal dynasty but he did not live long enough to make it secure against his enemies. So Humayun faced with trouble from the beginning.
  • Being new to India the Mughals had difficulty in consolidating their position.
  • The Afghan nobles attacked the newly founded kingdom because they wanted them to leave India.
  • Bahadur Shah was the ruler of Gujarat and Sher Shah an ambitious Afghan king also threatened Delhi.

2. Jahangir
Answer:
Jahangir: Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards, made peace with him on liberal terms and thus ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his ruling period are as follows :

  1. He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
  2. Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after torture for five days, Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
  3. Another important event was the marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace).
  4. In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
  5. Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because :
    (a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
    (b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
    (c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs. .
    (d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

3. Shah Jahan.
Answer:
Shah Jahan: Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram, He sat on the throne in 1628 A.D., after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as follows :

  • The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
  • In 1628 A.D, Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
  • He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
  • Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architecture. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

The Peacock Throne was a golden jewel-studded throne which he used. It was later looted by Shah of Iran and taken to his country. Other beautiful buildings built by Shah Jahan were Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid, Red Fort at Delhi and Red Fort at Agra. Shah Jahan built a new city Shah Jahanabad as his capital.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Creation of an Empire - The Mughal Empire

Question 22.
Give an account of the main features of Shah Jahan and Jahangir’s rule.
Answer:
1. Shah Jahan (1628-1657 A.D.): Shah Jahan was the son of Mughal emperor Jahangir. His real name was Khurram. He sat on the throne in 1628, after the death of Jahangir. He ruled for almost 29 years.

Some main events of his ruling period are as given ahead :

  • The Bundels from hilly areas declared a rebellion. Shah Jahan sent a big army to crush this rebellion and compelled Jhujhar Singh to sign a treaty with Mughals.
  • In 1628 A.D., Shah Jahan celebrated the occasion of Noroz and organised a big lunch on this occasion.
  • He was in deep love with his wife Mumtaz Mahal. When she died on 7th June, 1631, Shah Jahan went into deep depression.
  • Shah Jahan was very fond of building magnificent buildings. He is known as an Engineer King. His reign is called the golden age of Mughal architectures. He is reminded even today for his two things the Taj Mahal and the Peacock Throne. He had built the Taj Mahal in the memory of his queen Mumtaz Mahal.

The Peacock Throne was a golden jewel-studded throne which he used. It was later looted by Shah of Iran and taken to his country. Other beautiful buildings built by Shah Jahan were Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid, Red Fort at Delhi and Red Fort at Agra. Shah Jahan built a new city Shah Jahanabad as his capital.

2. Jahangir (1605-1627 A.D.). Jahangir was the son of Akbar the Great. After the death of Akbar in 1605 A.D., he sat on the throne. He sent a military expedition against the son of Maharana Pratap-Rana Amar Singh. But afterwards; made peace with him on liberal terms and thu3 ended the long struggle between the Mughals and Mewar state.

The main events of his rutirig period are as follows:

  • He faced a rebellion from his son Khusro but he crushed this rebellion.
  • Jahangir subjected Guru Arjan Devji to death penalty in a false case and after a torture for five days. Guruji became martyr in 1606 A.D.
  • Another important event was marriage to Noor Jahan. He gave Nur Jahan the name of ‘Noor Mahal’ (Light of the Palace.).
  • In the court of Jahangir two diplomats from England, Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe came. They had come to India in order to obtain trading facilities.
  • Jahangir’s reign was most peaceful because ;
    (a) There were not too many campaigns in the reign of Jahangir.
    (b) The struggle between Akbar and Rana of Mewar too was brought to an end by Jahangir.
    (c) In order to create peace in the country Jahangir adopted the policy of matrimonial relations with Rajputs.
    (d) The struggle of the Mughals with Ahmednagar state, which had become a cause of anxiety, also came to an end.

This brought peace in the whole kingdom. Contrary to it, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb had to face many revolts and wars. This was the main cause of disturbance during their reigns.

Question 23.
Illustrate how Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari are used to reconstruct history.
Answer:
These are two famous creations of ‘Abul Fazl’. These books tell us about the court of Akbar, his victories, his administration, his social, economic and religious policy, art and architecture.

Question 24.
What do you mean by Mansabdari System?
Answer:
The Mughal rulers appointed the members of different classes in the administration. These appointees were known as Mansabdars under the Mansabdari system, court used to fix the post, income and the position of a Mansabdar. Mansabdar belonged to the civil and military departments of the country.

There were many categories of Zat and Sawar Mansabdar.

  1. The first category: Mansabdars held equal Zat and Sawar i.e. 5000/5000.
  2. The second category: Their sawar mansab was more than the half of their zat mansab i. e. 5000/3000.
  3. The third category: They held their sawar mansab less than the half of their zat mansab i.e. 5000/2000.

Mansabdars were appointed by the Mughal emperors on their own or on the recommendation of the Mir Bakshi. There were 33 categories of the Mansabdars during the reign of Akbar. Its rank was from 10 to 10,000. These could be appointed in any department. They were given their salaries according to their ranks.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Posture and Its Deformities Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by body posture? How does our body stand on both legs?
Answer:
Posture may imply the proper care of the structure of the body. A good posture is one that has less pressure on different organs of the body and by which these organs may remain at ease and do the maximum work. In case the posture is not kept right, many deformities arise in the body. If we try to arrive at the precise definition of posture, the uppermost thought in our mind is that we have to keep our body in such a way that keeps balance among all the different organs of our body.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 1
Posture is indeed, deeply related to human body. The person who.does not pay attention to his posture suffers from many weakness and deformities small children should be asked to give proper attention to posture in childhood itself so that they may not become prey to the posture related deformities and weakness and may lead a healthy and comfortable life. A good & balanced posture is the relative correct position of various parts of our body.

A person with good and balanced posture looks natural & graceful in his positions of standing, sitting, walking, sleeping & reading. When weight of upper parts of body is uniformly distributed on lower parts of body, a line may be drawn from the head to foot, indicating-the weight line. This weight line starts from uppermost part of the head & goes down at the level of knees. It starts from the end of the skull & passing through vertebrae of back it passes through the hip, knee and ankle & goes downward. In this way, the weight of the parts of the body is uniformly disturbed from the top of the bottom.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 2.
What are the qualities of a good posture?
Answer:

  • We have to spend less energy by possessing balance posture.
  • Movements become very easy.
  • Balance posture influence others.
  • A person possessing good posture develop self-confidence.
  • Very active and clever in all daily work.
  • Good posture does not put pressure on bones or muscles.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of having a good posture?
Answer:
Good health is the first precondition of good body posture. A straight & balanced body is beautiful to look at. It gives a good impression to others and one feels good about oneself whereas people make fun of a man with asymmetrical body. So having a good symmetrical body.

A straight & balanced body puts less pressure on the muscles because the weight is balanced and equally divided between front & back muscles. If the posture is good internal organs work properly without any problem. It is easier for a man to achieve good posture without much effort, when he is young, say, till the age of twenty.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 4.
How are deformities formed in the body posture? Write down the main deformities of the body.
Answer:
1. Vocation:
A person sits, get up, walk according to the nature of work such as sitting work or standing work or some type of work, so his body parts change their nature of working eg. a person who has to work sitting in chair with the head down his body take the shape according to his sitting posture.

2. Nutritious food:
For the better physical structure and nourishment, a nutritious food is not taken, the body structure & development are badly affected. In the lack of calcium, bones become bending towards one side.

3. Bad habits:
Bad postures are also affected by mimic activities of bad posture persons are not balancing at the time of walking, getting up & running.

4. Proper Dress: Our body is stressed due to tight clothes, boots, pants, shirts so our dress should be proper.

5. Over weight: Body also feels abnormal due to over weight & wears bad posture.

6. Due to Injury: Walking is also effected by some injury & body bears bad posture.

Physical deformities:

  • Kyphosis
  • Lordosis
  • Scoliosis
  • Having both kyphosis & Lordosis
  • Knock knees
  • Flat foot
  • Depressed chest
  • Pigeon shaped chest
  • Flat chest
  • Bent neck.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 5.
Give the reasons of kyphosis. What are the exercises recommended to correct the deformity?
Answer:
It is a type of curvature, he neck leans forward & backward. In kyphosis the spinal cord bends in the shape of bow. The chest cannot remain erect. This condition in a boy develops due to continuous sitting for hours in one incorrect posture. If the fault is correct indue time the backbone comes to its right position. In case the back gets completely bent, it becomes difficult to bring it back to its right position. The improper posture creates kyphosis, as a result of which heart & legs donot function properly.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 2
Causes:

  • Reading in dim light, while bending forward.
  • Short eye sight.
  • Head of hearing.
  • Use of worthless furniture for sitting.
  • Wearing tight & shapless clothes.
  • Weakening of muscles by less or no exercise.
  • Quick development of body.
  • Sickness or accident.

Prevention:

  • Keeping the straight body while doing daily activities walking, sitting & standing.
  • The chin should be up. The chest forward & heat straight.
  • While resting on the back of the chair the head should be bent back with the eyes looking straight forward.
  • Deep breathing exercises should be alone.
  • Push ups, swimming & other chest exercises should be done.
  • Back shoulders should be supported by pillow.
  • Hanging from walls bars. The back should be towards the wall bars.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 6.
Give the reasons of lordosis. What exercises are recommended to correct the deformity?
Answer:
Causes:

  • The habit of walking with belly protruding in younger age.
  • Not taking balanced diet in chilhood.
  • Taking excessive food.
  • Women’s giving birth to many children.
  • Not doing exercise.
    PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 3

Preventions:

  • Standing fully erect, bending the trunk forward & then straightening.
  • Lying on the back and then raising. Head & legs turn by turn.
  • Lying on the back, rising & again lying.
  • Practising ‘hal-asana’.
  • Standing attentively & touching the feet with hands again & again.

Question 7.
Why flat foot are formed? Give the recomended exercises for flat foot. Write down the method of finding out whether the foot is flat or not.
Answer:
If we look carefully at the sole of the feet, we find that there is an arch which goes upward toward toe. When the muscles of the feet become weak & lose, there arches lose their curvaciousness & the feet become flat. A flat foot cannot bear the bodv weight well. It causes pain. Runing & walking becomes difficult.
PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 4
Reasons:
Lack of exercise, Obesity, standing for long hours wearing ill-fitting shoes, wrong and faulty body posture.
Test of flat foot-spread some soft & wet soil levelled on the ground. Then placing your foot on it & move forward. If the foot is normal, it will look like the foot in figure. The figure makes it clear that the inner portion of the sole of the normal foot does not touch the ground while the whole sole of the flat foot touches the ground because its aches have become straight.

Exercises:

  • Walking & running on the toes.
  • Walking & running slowly on heels.
  • Cycling forcefully with toes.
  • Climbing the stair bars.
  • Dancing.
  • Walking on heels & toes of foot.
  • Walking on the slope of the triagular wooden board.
    PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities 5

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 8.
What deformities are formed in the chest bones? How can it be corrected?
Answer:
Depressed Chest: In this type of deformity the bones get pressed inward.

Flat Chest: In it the ribs instead of protruding carer gets flattened to the level of the chest bones.

Pigeon-Type Chest: In this type of deformity the chest bones get raised upward.

Causes:

  • Not doing exercises regularly.
  • Some dangerous diseases.
  • Bending excessively forward while sitting, standing or walking.
  • Deficiency of phosphorus, calcium & vitamin D.

Corrective Exercise:

  • Cutting the fodder with hand driven toka.
  • Practising breathing exercises.
  • Doing arm & trunk exercises.
  • Performing ‘dandas’ while hanging from a pole.
  • Performing ‘dandas’.

Question 9.
Give the reasons for the following deformities. Also write down the exercises recommended for them:
1. Bent neck
2. Knock knees
3. Flat chest.
Answer:
1. Bent neck:
When the muscles on one side of the neck become weak & loose & those of the other side shrink, the neck turns on one side.

Reasons:

  • Carrying the child only on one side.
  • Making the infant lie on one side for long hours.
  • Having weak eye-sight on one side.
  • Bad posture while-studying.

2. Knock knees:
Deficiency of calcium, phosphorus & vitamin D can cause bent bones in small children. The lack of above nutrients make the bones weak & they cannot bear the body weight because of which the bones turn inwards. A person with knock knees cannot stand at attention. His knees knock with each other when he tries to put his feet together in the attention.

3. Flat Chest:
In it the ribs instead of protruding nearer gets flattened to the level of the chest bones. Depressed chest-In this type of deformity, the bones get pressed inward.

4. Pigeon-type Chest:
In this type of deformity the chest bones get raised upward. These deformities occur in early childhood, destructing the respiratory process.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 10.
Give a list of Good habits which help in having a good Posture.
Answer:

  • Sufficient amounts of Calcium, Phosphorus & Vitamin D should be included in diet of children.
  • The children should be given sun bath and massage at least twice a week.
  • Eyesight should be got tested at regular intervals.
  • It is not good to stand for a long time putting weight only on feet.
  • Good quality furniture with proper shape and sufficient light should be provided for school-going children.
  • Breathing exercises should be done daily.
  • Narrow-fitting clothes and shoes should not be worn.
  • Exercises should be done regularly.
  • Specific exercise for the particular problem of the posture should be done as per requirement.

Question 11.
Explain about Lordosis.
Answer:
Lordosis is a different type of curvature from kyphosis. In this type of defc nity the spine is bent not from the upper side, but it leans forward from the stomach. Lordosis can be checked at an early stage. It is not possible to rectify it at a later stage.

Exercises Related to Lordosis:
1. Bend knees forward while allowing hips to bend back behind, keeping back straight and knees pointed in same direction as feet. Descend until thighs are just parallel to floor. Extend knees and hips until legs are straight. Come back in starting position and then repeat the same.

2. Lie down in prone position, with hands under abdomen. Then keep hips and shoulders down, press hands up on abdomen and raise lower back.

3. Sit on a chair with feet wide apart. Bend and position your shoulders between knees. Then reach to the floor under back of chair, and hold this position for some duration.

4. Lunge forward with knee on a mat. Take position of the foot beyond knee. Place both hands on knee. Straighten hips of rear leg by pushing hips forward and hold stretch. Repeat with opposite side.

5. Sit down with knees extended, feet together and hands at sides. After that bend forward, touching the fingers to toes. Hold this position for some time. Then come back and repeat.

6. Lie in prone position on the floor. Keep the palms of your hands on the floor according to shoulders’ width. Push torso up keeping pelvis on floor. Hold this position for some time.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Posture and Its Deformities Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What are the benefits of good posture?
(A) Good looking body
(B) Running, activeness
(C) Healthy body
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(A) Good looking body

Question 2.
Deformities of the body:
(A) Kyphosis
(B) Lordosis
(C) Scoliosis
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Causes of Kyphosis:
(A) Weak eye sight
(B) Hard hearing
(C) Sickness or accident
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
Method of corrective of Kyphosis.
(A) Keeping the straight body
(B) The Chin should be up
(C) Deep breathing exercises should be done
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 5.
Reasons of Lordosis:
(A) No taking balance diet in Childhood
(B) Taking excessive food
(C) No doing exercises
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 6.
Pretention of Lordosis Corrective.
(A) Standing fully or erect, bending the trunk forward
(B) Lying on the back and then moving head and legs turn by turn
(C) Lying on the back rising and again lying
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 7.
Exercises to removed the flatrfoot.
(A) Walking and running on the toes
(B) Walking and running on heels
(C) Climbing the stairs bar
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
After how long a person derived the posture of standing on both legs?
Answer:
After lakhs of years.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Question 2.
What is attached to the after and before of bones?
Answer:
Muscles.

Question 3.
If the Muscles don’t have co-ordination and balance then what happens?
Answer:
Body bends forward.

Question 4.
How the straight body looks?
Answer:
Beautiful.

Question 5.
At what age body posture becomes good and bad?
Answer:
20 years.

Question 6.
What steps should be taken to keep the body fit?
Answer:
Exercise.

Question 7.
Which type of foot cannot bear the weight of the body?
Answer:
Flat foot.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 3 Posture and Its Deformities

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define body posture.
Answer:
If the body frame is straight and in good shape and if the lower part of the body balances the upper part well, it can be called a good body posture.

Question 2.
what deformities are formed in chest?
Answer:

  • Depressed chest
  • Pigeon chest
  • Flat chest

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Windows Explorer Textbook Questions and Answers

Choose the Suitable Option and fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
Windows Explorer has two panes. These are …………… and …………….
(a) First, Second
(b) Left, Right
(c) Top, Bottom
(d) File, Folder.
Answer:
(b) Left, Right

Question 2.
……………. type and date of modified of a file.
(a) Details
(b) Tiles
(c) List
(d) Content.
Answer:
(a) Details

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
………………… command is used to move an item from its place.
(a) Copy
(b) Paste
(c) Cut
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Cut

Question 4.
A …………. combination of pictures, colors and sounds on our computer.
(a) Background
(b) Desktop
(c) Screen Saver
(d) Theme.
Answer:
(d) Theme.

Question 5.
A …………. software program that becomes activated after the computer is not in use for a specified duration of time.
(a) Background
(b) Desktop
(c) Screen Saver
(d) Theme.
Answer:
(c) Screen Saver.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which Window application is used for management of flies?
Answer:
Windows Explorer is used to manage files properly.

Question 2.
What do we call a folder inside another folder?
Answer:
Sub-folder.

Question 3.
What is the method of opening Windows Explorer?
Answer:
There are ways to open Windows Explorer.

  • Press Windows key + E.
  • Type Explorer in the Run box.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
Write the name of any default library of Window.
Answer:
By default Windows has four libraries-Documents, Music, Pictures, and Videos.

Question 5.
Which option is used to make a duplicate of an item?
Answer:
The copy/paste option is used to make a duplicate of an item.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many panes are available in Window Explorer? Write their names.
Answer:
Windows Explorer has two panes.

  • Left pane
  • Right pane.

Question 2.
Write the name of different parts of Window Explorer.
Answer:
Windows Explorer has the following components:

  1. Title bar
  2. Back and forward buttons
  3. Address bar
  4. Search box
  5. Menu bar
  6. Tool bar
  7. Status bar.

Question 3.
Define File and Folder.
Answer:
A file is a common storage unit in a computer in which data, programs, software, etc. are stored. Computers have different files that have different functions. The data stored in the file can be “updated, deleted, edited” at any time.
The folder is where the files are stored. We can save more than one file and folder in one folder. For example I have a box containing 10 apples. In this example the box is a folder and the apples are the files saved in it. Another folder inside any folder is called a sub-folder.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Windows Explorer? Give different ways to open Windows Explorer.
Answer:
Windows Explorer is also called File Explorer. It is used to view files and folders on our computer. We can open the data, folder and library of the disk in the computer and also search for an item. We can use it to open, delete, rename, copy, move and create new folders.
We can open window explorer in many ways. Some of these are as follow:

  • Just press Win key +E and File Explorer starts immediately.
    Or
  • Click Windows-Keys > All Programs > Accessories > Windows Explorer.
    Or
  • Press Windows key – the search box will open. Now type file explorer in it.
    Or
  • Press Windows key +R key together. The Run box will open. Now type explorer in it.
    Or
  • By default, Windows 10 includes a File Explorer shortcut on the taskbar. Its icon looks like a folder. Click or tap on it and File Explorer is opened.

Question 2.
Explain different views of Windows Explorer.
Answer:
View means how files and folders appear in a computer system. Explorer has five types of views. These are:
1. Small, Medium, Large and Extra Large Icons View:
Items in this view are in more than one row and each item appears in the shape of an icon. Each item has a name.

2. Tiles Icon View:
Items in this view are in more than one row and each item appears in the shape of an icon. Each item has a name. It contains other information, such as the type of file and its size.

3. List Icon View:
Items in this view are in more than one column. Each item has a name and the icon, is to the left of the name.

4. Content Icon View:
Items in this view appear in the column. Each item is in the shape of an icon. It has a name and type of the file is written below it. Some other properties such as modification date and size below it are also visible. By default this view is used for search.

5. Detail Icon View:
Each item appears as a table row. The first column contains the name of the item in the form of a small icon and the rest of the column lists its properties such as its size and the date and type of modification.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
What are the options to customize the Desktop in Windows Environment?
Answer:
Customizing is the process of changing the settings of a desktop.
1. Themes:
Themes are a combination of pictures, colors, and sounds. It has background, screen saver, border color and sound scheme.
Windows has the following themes:

  • My Themes
  • Arrow Themes
  • Basic and High Contrast The-mes Following are the steps to apply the theme:

Open Settings.

  • Click on Personalization.
  • Click on Themes.
  • Click the Get more themes in the Microsoft Store option.
  • Select the theme you want.
  • Click the Get button.
  • Click the Apply button.
  • Click the newly added theme to apply it from the “Themes” page.

2. Desktop Background:
It is a wallpaper image that appears behind the icons on your computer’s desktop. It can be in JPEG or Gif format. The following are steps to change the desktop background:

  • Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu. The Personalization window appears.
  • Click the Desktop Background link. The Desktop Background dialog box appears.
  • Select a category of desktop background options from the Picture Location list box and then click the image from the background preview list that you want to use.
  • The background is previewed on your desktop. Click Save Changes.

3. Screen Saver:
Screen saver is the graphics that appear on the screen after not working on the computer for some time. It is used for security and protection of the screen. We can set our own screen saver.
Steps to set the screen saver: Here are the steps to set up a screen saver:

  • Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu. The Personalization window appears.
  • Click the Lock Screen option. The lock screen dialog box appears.
  • In the Screen Saver Settings window, choose a screen saver from the drop-down list.
  • Click on the Preview button to preview the screen saver.
  • The screensaver has to be set to run automatically from the desktop. So type the time setting in the Wait option that appears in the picture.
  • Click on Apply button and press Ok button.

Question 4.
How can we Copy items using the ‘send to’ option?
Answer:
The Send to Option is an easy way to copy one or more items or programs to a new location. Following are the steps to use Send to option:

  • Select the item to be copied.
  • Press the right mouse button; select the option “Send To” from the menu.
  • Now select the specified location. By default, the Send To sub menu contains the following locations:
    • Compressed (zipped) folder
    • Desktop (Create Short-cut)
    • Documents Library
    • Fax and mail recipients
    • Removable devices, such as: USB. Memory Sticks
  • Select the option as needed.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 5.
Write about Screen Saver.
Answer:
Screen saver is the graphics that appear on the screen after not working on the computer for some time. It is used for security and protection of the screen. We can set our own screen saver.
Steps to set the Screen Saver:
Here are the steps to set up a screen saver:

  • Right-click the desktop and choose Personalize from the shortcut menu; The Personalization window appears.
  • Click the Lock Screen option. The lock screen dialog box appears.
  • In the Screen Saver Settings window, choose a screen saver from the drop-down list.
  • Click on the Preview button to-preview the screen saver.
  • The screensaver has to be set to run automatically from the desktop. So type the time setting in the Wait option that appears in the picture.
  • Click on Apply button and press Ok button

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Windows Explorer Important Questions and Answers

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Windows Explorer has ………. views.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(d) Five.

Question 2.
The ………………. command is used to run the program.
(a) Calculator
(b) Window
(c) View
(d) Bun.
Answer:
(d) Bun.

Question 3.
The …………. view displays the files as a list.
(a) Tile
(b) Content
(c) Large
(d) I&t.
Answer:
(d) I&t.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
The ………… option is used to copy files and folders.
(a) Cut
(b) Copy
(c) Paste
(d) Run.
Answer:
(b) Copy

Question 5.
Explorer can be run by typing …………….. in the run box.
(a) Exp
(b) Explorer
(c) Command
(d) GMD.
Answer:
(b) Explorer

Question 6.
The …………… option is used to find files and folders.
(a) Select
(b) File
(c) Search
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Search

Question 7.
The calculator is opened by typing …………….. in the run box.
(a) Calculator
(b) Cal
(c) Calc
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Calc

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 8.
The ………… command is used to remove an item from its place.
(a) Copy
(b) Paste
(c) Cut
(d) Delete.
Answer:
(c) Cut

2. True/False

Question 1.
Explorer is used to manage folders.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A folder can contain many files and folders.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
How to open Explorer
Start> All Programs> Accessories> Windows Explorer
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
Explorer is a system software.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
“Invert Selection” option is used to reverse the selection.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
To select all files in a folder press Ctrl+A keys.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
A single file can contain many files and folders.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Windows Explorer is an operating system.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
The Copy option is used to duplicate an item.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

3. Match the Columns

Column A Column B
1. Views of Explorer (a) List
2. Calculator (b) Deleted files
3. Desktop (c) Picture, Music
4. My Documents (d) Background
5. Recycle Bin (e) Calculations.

Answer:

Column A Column B.
1. Views of Explorer (a) List
2. Calculator (e) Calculations.
3. Desktop (d) Background
4. My Documents (c) Picture, Music
5. Recycle Bin (b) Deleted files

4. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Windows Explorer?
Answer:
Windows Explorer is a very important application of operating system. This manages files and folders. It helps to keep files and folders in the correct order i.e cut, copy, paste and delete them.

Question 2.
How to delete files and folders?
Answer:
Delete command is used to delete a file or folder. Following are the steps to delete file/folder:

  • Select the file or folder you want to delete.
  • Press the Delete key from the keyboard. A message will appear asking for deletion.
  • Click on “Yes”. Item will be deleted.

If you want to delete file permanently then you will need to empty the Recycle Bin.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
Write down steps to create a new folder.
Answer:
Here are some ways to Create a File in Explorer:

  • Select the drive or folder in the left pane where you want to create the place of the cursor where you want to add your folder.
  • In File Explorer, click on the Home menu item.
  • From the Home ribbon, click on the New folder button.
  • Enter the name of your new folder and press enter key.

Question 4.
How is a file or folder restored?
Answer:
Sometimes when we delete a file or folder we feel the need for it later. The Recycle Bin feature can be used to store files and folders again. The steps to restore a file or folder are as follows:

  • Double click on the Recycle Bin. (The Recycle Bin window will open.)
  • Click on the file or folder to be restored.
  • Click on File. Restore menu.

Question 5.
What do you know about calculators?
Answer:
Calculator:
Calculator is like a program with the help of which calculations are done. With its help +, c, z etc. calculations are done. For example, to multiply 2 by 5, first click on 2. Then click on the multiplication sign. Then click on 5. Then click the = sign. 10 will appear as a result.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

5. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a series of locations? Explain in detail.
Answer:
Series of Locations:
The folders and drives in the computer, the computer connected to the network and its shared folders, drives and printers are arranged in a tree shape. This sequence is called a series of locations. It contains the following items:

1. Favorites:
The top most folder in this series is the Desktop folder. It contains desktop, downloads and recent place items.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 1

2. Library Folder:
By default this folder contains four libraries, such as; Documents, music, photos and videos. These folders contain related items; Such as pictures in pictures folder, related videos in video folder, etc.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 2

3. Personal Folder:
Your personal folder is named after the user name to which you have logged in to the computer and by default it contains the following folders; such as Contacts, Downloads, Favorites, Links, My Documents, My Music, My Pictures, My Videos, Saved Games and Search.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 3

4. MY Computer:
Disks in a computer; such as C: drive, D: Drive, E: Drive etc. and other connected devices such as Printer, USB, memory- stick and camera are attached to the computer, they are visible here.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 4

5. Network: If you are connected to a local network, you see other computers and devices in it.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 5

6. Control Panel:
Control Panel is used to configure hardware and software of computer system and to change settings of computer system.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 6

7. Recycle Bin: It contains deleted files/folders or programs.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer 7

Question 2.
How are items selected? Write different ways to do this.
Answer:
Selecting the Items:
Usually before doing any work on a file or folder such as opening a file, closing a file, deleting file, copy a file etc. we have to select it. There are different ways to select a single file/folder or multiple files/folders.

1. Selecting a Single Item:
If more than one item is available and you want to select one of the items in it, it can be selected by clicking with the mouse on that file.

2. Selecting More Than One File:
There are a few ways to select more than one file at a time:

(a) If your viewing your files as icons, you can click and drag the mouse to draw a box around the files you want to select. When you’re done, release the mouse; the files will be selected. You can now move, copy, or delete all of these files at the same time.

(b) Selecting All Items:
If you want to select all files in a folder at the same time, open the folder in File Explorer and press Ctrl+A or click “Select all” option from the “Select” group on the Home tab. All of the files in the folder will be selected.

(c) Select items using the Shift key:
To select a group of files from a folder, click the first file, press and hold the Shift key on your keyboard, then click the last file. All of the files between the first and last ones will be selected.

(d) Selecting an item using (Ctrl key):
To select specific files from a folder, press and hold the Control key on your keyboard, then click the files you want to select.

3. Reverse selection: To reverse the selection, select the “Invert Selection” option in the Edit menu.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 3.
Write different ways to create a folder.
Answer:
Creating a Folder
If you want to create a new folder, it is created in the current location. Here are some ways to create a folder:
1. Open the File explorer, click on the “New Folder” button option.
2. The new folder will appear.
Type the desired name for the folder and press Enter.
Or
Press the Ctrl + Shift + N keys together from the keyboard. The new folder will appear. Type the name of the folder and press Enter key.
Or
Right-click on a blank space, click “New” => “Folder” in the context menu. The new folder will appear. Type the name of the folder and press Enter key.
Or

  • Place the cursor where you want to add your folder.
  • In File Explorer, click on the Home menu item.
  • From the Home button, click on the New folder button.
  • Enter the name of your new folder and press

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 2 Windows Explorer

Question 4.
Write the steps to rename the item.
Answer:
Re-naming the Item:
You can change the name of any file or folder. Here are the steps to rename an item:
1. Click the file or folder, wait about one second, and click again. An editable text field will Explore appear. open
2. Type the desired name on your keyboard and press Enter. The name will be changed.

Or
1. You can also right-click the Cut folder and select “Rename” copy option from the menu that create shortcut appears. An editable text field will appear.
2. Type the desired name from Properties keyboard and press Enter. The name will be changed.

Question 5.
Write the steps to delete an item.
Answer:
Delete a File or Folder:
If you no longer need to use a file, you can delete it. When you delete a file, it is moved to the Recycle Bin, If you change your mind, you can move the file from the Recycle Bin back to its original location. If you’re sure you want to permanently delete the file, you will need to empty the Recycle Bin. Following are the steps to delete file/folder:

  • Select the file or folder you want to delete.
  • Press the Delete key from the keyboard. A message will appear asking for deletion.
  • Click on “Yes”. Item will be deleted.

Question 6.
Write the steps for copying or pasting items.
Answer:
Copying or Pasting Items:
To copy a file/folder the steps are as follow:
1. Select the item to be copied.


2. Select the “Copy” option from the “Clipboard” group on the “Home” tab.
Or
Press Ctrl + c keys from the keyboard.
Right-click on the file/folder you want to copy. A menu will open. From this menu select the “copy” option. Now your file/folder will be copied. Steps to paste the file/Folder are as follow:
1. Place the cursor where you want to paste the file/folder.
2. Select the “Paste” option from the “Clipboard” group on the “Home” tab.
3. Your copied item will now be pasted.
Or
Press the Ctrl + V key from the keyboard.
Or
Locate and right-click the desired location, then select “Paste” option from the menu appeared.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Motion and Time Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
What is a simple pendulum?
Answer:
Simple pendulum. It consists of a heavy mass (metal sphere) tied to a thread and suspended a fixed point of rigid support.

Question 2.
What is the to and fro motion of a simple pendulum called?
Answer:
The to and fro motion of a simple pendulum is called oscillation.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question 3.
The time taken for one oscillation of the pendulum is called its ……………… .
Answer:
Time Period.

Question 4
………………… is the number of oscillations per unit time.
Answer:
Frequency.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 163)

Question 1.
What do we measure by using a stop clock ?
Answer:
Stop clock is used to measure short-time intervals.

Question 2.
What is the unit of measuring distance ?
Or
Name the S.I. unit of distance.
Answer:
Meter.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Motion and Time Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The motion of an object in a straight line is called ……………… .
Answer:
Linear motion

(ii) A clock is used to measure …………………. .
Answer:
Time

(iii) The distance-time graph for uniform speed is a ………………. line.
Answer:
Straight line

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

(iv) The motion of a simple pendulum is called ………………….. motion.
Answer:
Oscillatory

2. Write True or False:

(i) Speed is the distance travelled by an object per unit time.
Answer:
True

(ii) The S.I. unit of speed is Km/s.
Answer:
False

(iii) The time taken to complete one oscillation of a pendulum is its time period.
Answer:
True

(iv) The instrument used to measure the speed of a vehicle is odometer.
Answer:
True

Match the Column I with Column II:

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 1
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 2
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 3

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is a Distance-Time Graph for an object at rest ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 4
Answer:
(c) A straight line graph parallel to horizontal (x-axis) axis

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question (ii)
Which of the following relation is a correct for finding speed of an object ?
(a) Speed = Distance × Time
(b) Speed = Distance/Time
(c) Speed = Time/Distance
(d) Speed = 1 /Distance × Time.
Answer:
(b) Speed = Distance/Time

Question (iii)
Simple pendulum is an example of ……………….. motion.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 5
(a) Rectilinear motion
(b) Oscillatory motion
(c) Periodic motion
(d) Rotational motion.
Answer:
(c) Periodic motion

Question (iv)
A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 15 minutes and then with speed of 60 km/h for the next 15 minutes. The total distance covered by the car is:
(a) 100 km
(b) 25 km
(c) 15 Km
(d) 10 Km
Answer:
(b) 25 km.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define speed. Give its S.I. units ?
Answer:
Speed. The distance travelled per unit time is called speed of the object.
Speed (v) = Total distance covered (s)/ Total time spent (t)
S.I. unit of speed is m/s.

Question (ii)
Which instruments were used for measuring time by the ancient people ?
Answer:
In ancient times, people measured time by natural phenomena. Over time some devices were invented for measuring time. Some of them are given below:
(1) Solar Clock. A change in the position of the sun due to a change in the position of the shadow is used to measure time.
(2) Hour Glass. To measure the time it takes one hour for sand to flow from one bulb to another.
(3) Water Clock. Used to measure the flow of water from one vessel to another at a particular time.
(4) Pendulum. A simple pendulum takes equal time for each oscillation. So Pendulum was used to measure time.

Question (iii)
Name the instruments used for measuring : (a) the speed of a moving vehicle, (b) the distance moved by a vehicles.
Answer:
(a) Instrument for measuring speed of a moving vehicle is Speedometer.
(b) Instrument for measuring distance covered by a vehicle is Odometer.

Question (iv)
What is Graph ? Give its types.
Answer:
Graph. A graph is a pictorial representation of variation of one quantity with respect to the other quantity. When one quantity is changed, the value of the other quantity also changes by itself.

Types of Graph. There are several types of graphs, such as:

  1. Linear graph,
  2. Bar graph,
  3. Pie chart.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Differentiate between slow and fast motion. Give examples.
Answer:
Slow motion. If an object takes too long to cover a short distance, its motion is called slow motion. Example : Motion of tortoise and snail.

Fast motion. If an object takes less time to cover the same distance, its motion is fast motion.
Example : Racing car and leopard is fast motion.

Question (ii)
Differentiate between uniform and non-uniform motion. Give examples.
Answer:
Uniform motion.
If an object travels equal distances in equal interval of time regardless of the however small the interval may be their its motion is called uniform motion.
For example : A bus covers a distance of 10 km in the first 15 minutes and a distance of 10 km in the next 15 minutes, then again in the next 15 minutes it covers the same distance of 10 km. The bus is said to have uniform motion.

Non-uniform motion.
If an object does not cover equal distances in equal interval of time however small the time interval may be, then the motion of that object is called non-uniform motion.
Example : Suppose a car covers a distance of 25 km in 10 minutes on a straight road and travels 30 km in the next 10 minutes and 20 km in the next 10 minutes, then the car is said to have is non-uniform motion.

Question (iii)
Ajay goes to his school 600 meters away from his house. Find the speed in ms-1, with which he must walk to reach his school in 5 minutes.
Solution:
Distance from Ajay’s school from his house = 600 meters
Time taken to cover the distance from school to house = 5 minutes
We know 1 minute = 60 sec.
So, Time taken = 5 × 60 seconds
= 300 seconds
Total distance covered = 600
Now speed of Ajay = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 6
= \(\frac{600 \text { metres }}{300 \text { second }}\)
= 2 m/s

Question (iv)
The distance between two stations is 216 km. In how many hours will a train reach the destination which is moving at a speed of 20 m/s ?
Answer:
Distance between two stations = 216 km
Speed of train = 20 m/s. [∵ 1km/h = \(\frac {5}{18}\) m/s]
= 20 x \(\frac {18}{5}\) km/h
= 72 km/h
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 7

Question (v)
Find the time period of a simple pendulum, which takes 20 s to complete 50 oscillations ?
Solution:
Number of oscillations of a simple pendulum = 50
Time taken to complete 50 oscillations = 20 seconds
We know, Frequency = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 8
= \(\frac {20}{50}\)
= \(\frac {2}{5}\) = 0.4 sec-1

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Describe the method to find the time period of a simple pendulum.
Answer:
Make a simple pendulum by tying a metal sphere with one end of a thread about 1 meter long as shown in the diagram. If there is a fan running around, turn it off. Now let the bob of the pendulum come to rest in the middle position. Mark the middle position with chalk on the floor. Take a stop watch or mobile or wrist watch to measure the time period of the pendulum. Hold the bob and ensure that the thread is stretched and take it one extreme. Now release the sphere slowly. When the sphere is at its starting end, start the stop watch. Count the oscillations.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 9
Note the time taken by the pendulum to complete 20 oscillations. Record your observations in the table below. Time taken by the pendulum to complete one oscillation is called its time period. It is measured in second.

Sr. No. Time taken for 20 oscillations Time period
1.

2.

3.

Repeat this action 3-4 times and note observations in the table above.
You will notice that the time period of pendulum will be almost the same each time.

Question (ii)
A car moves a distance of 60 km in 1st hour, 75 km in 2nd hour, 55 km in 3rd hour and 50 km in 4th hour. Plot a distance-time graph for the motion of the car.
(1) Find the speed of the car for the whole journey.
(2) Find the speed of the car between 1st and 3rd hour.
Answer:
(1) Distance covered in the entire journey = 60 km + 75km + 55 km +50 km
= 240 km
And, Total time spent = 4 hours
The average speed of the car = The total distance covered/Total time spent
= 240 km/4 hr
= 60 km/hr

(2) Speed from the first hour to the third hour
Distance covered = 75 km + 55km
= 130 km
= 2 hours
Car speed between the first hour and the third hour =130 km/2hr = 65 km/hr
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 10

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question (iii)
Figure shown below represents the distance-time graph for the motion of two vehicles A and B. Which one of them is moving faster ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 11
Answer:
Study of the distance-time graph of both the vehicles shows that the ratio of distance and time for vehicle A is higher than that of vehicle B, hence the speed of vehicle A is higher than that of vehicle B.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Motion and Time Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The distance covered by an object in unit time is called …………………
Answer:
Speed

(ii) The time taken by a pendulum to make a swing is called ………………………..
Answer:
Time period

(iii) An instrument used to measure the distance covered by vehicles is called ……………….
Answer:
Odometer

(iv) …………………… is the instrument that measures the speed of moving vehicles.
Answer:
Speedometer

(v) A graph drawn for the distance and time taken for a uniform motion is ………………………
Answer:
Straight line parallel to time axis

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 12
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 13
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 14
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 15

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The basic unit of time is:
(a) Minute
(b) Hour
(c) Second
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Second.

Question (ii)
The Speed of train is expressed in :
(a) m/h
(b) km/h
(c) cm/h
d) mm/h.
Answer:
(b) km/h.

Question (iii)
The S.I. unit of speed is:
(a) m/s
(b) km/s
(c) cm/s
(d) mm/s.
Answer:
(a) m/s.

Question (iv)
Which of the following relation is correct:
(a) Speed = Distance × Time
(b) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}\)
(c) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Time }}{\text { Distance }}\)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}\)

Question (v)
A motion which repeats itself after fixed interval of time is:
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Periodic motion.
(c) Time period
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Periodic motion.

Question (vi)
The device which measures the distance moved by the vehicle is called:
(a) Speedometer
(b) Odometer
(c) Pendulum
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Odometer.

Question (vii)
The time taken by a vibrating body to complete one oscillation is called:
(a) Time period
(b) Oscillation
(c) Uniform motion
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Time period.

Question (viii)
Which of the following Distance-Time Graph shows the object at rest position ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 16
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) (i).

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question (ix)
What is the basic unit of speed ?
(a) km/min.
(b) m/min.
(c) km/hr.
(d) m/s.
Answer:
(d) m/s.

State True or False:

(i) The basic unit of time is second.
Answer:
True

(ii) Every object moves with a constant speed.
Answer:
False

(iii) Distances between two cities is measured in kilometres.
Answer:
True

(iv) The time period of a given pendulum is not constant.
Answer:
False

(v) The speed of a train is expressed in m/h.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The rate at which distance is covered corresponds to which quantity-speed or velocity ?
Answer:
Speed.

Question 2.
The rate at which displacement is covered corresponds to which quantity, speed or velocity ?
Answer:
Velocity.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question 3.
What is formula of average speed ?
Total distance covered
Answer:
Average speed = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 17

Question 4.
Name two types of motions.
Answer:
(i) Uniform motion
(ii) Non-uniform motion.

Question 5.
Working of clock depends on which type of motion ?
Answer:
Periodic motion.

Question 6.
Name any two time measuring devices.
Answer:
(1) Clock,
(2) watch.

Question 7.
What is metallic ball of a pendulum known as ?
Answer:
Bob of the Pendulum.

Question 8.
What type of motion is shown by simple pendulum ?
Answer:
Oscillatory motion / Periodic motion

Question 9.
What is basic unit of time ?
Answer:
Second.

Question 10.
What are larger units of time ?
Answer:
Minute, hour

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Question 11.
What is odometer ?
Answer:
Odometer. The device which measures the distance moved by the vehicle, is called odometer.

Question 12.
What is function of speedometer ?
Answer:
It records speed directly in km/h.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which devices were used for measuring time before pendulum clocks ?
Answer:
(i) Sundial.
(ii) Water clock,
(iii) Sand clock.

Question 2.
What important points are to be kept in mind while choosing the most suitable scale for drawing a graph ?
Answer:
Points to be considered while choosing the scale for drawing a graph :
(0 The difference between the highest and the lowest values of each quantity.
(ii) The intermediate values of each quantity.
(iii) To utilize the maximum part of the graph paper.

Question 3.
What is a simple pendulum ?
Answer:
Simple pendulum. It consists of a small metallic ball or a piece of stone suspended from a rigid support by a thread. The metallic ball is called the bob of the pendulum.

Question 4.
Classify the following as Linear, circular or Periodic motion :
(i) Motion of your hands while running.
(ii) Motion of a horse pulling a cart on a straight road.
(iii) Motion of a child in a merry go round.
(iv) Motion of a child over see-saw.
(v) Motion of the hammer of an electric bell.
(vi) Motion of a train on a straight bridge.
Answer:
(i) Periodic motion
(ii) Linear motion
(iii) circular motion
(iv) Periodic motion
(v) Periodic
(vi) Linear Motion.

Question 5.
A simple pendulum takes 32 s to complete 20 oscillations. What is the time period of the pendulum ?
Solution:
Number of oscillations = 20
Time taken to complete 20 oscillations = 32 s
∴ Time period of pendulum = PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 18
(i.e. time taken to complete 1 oscillation) = \(\frac {32}{20}\)
= \(\frac {8}{5}\)
= 1.6 s

Question 6.
The distance between two stations is 200 km. A train takes 4 hours to cover this distance. Calculate the speed of the train.
Solution:
Distance covered by train between two stations = 200 km
Time taken t = 4 hr
∴ Speed of the train =PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 19
= \(\frac{200 \mathrm{~km}}{4 \mathrm{hr}}\)
= 50 km/hr

Question 7.
Salma takes 15 minutes from her house to reach her school on a bicycle. If the bicycle has a speed of 2 m/s, calculate the distance between her house and her school.
Time taken = 15 min.
= 15 × 60
= 900 sec
Speed of bicycle = 2 m/s
Distance covered = Speed × Time
= 2 × 900 m
= 1800 m
= \(\frac{1800}{1000}\)
= 1.8 km.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Define
(i) Periodic motion
(ii) Oscillatory motion
(iii) Oscillation
(iv) Time period.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 13 Motion and Time 20
(i) Periodic motion. A motion that repeats itself after a fixed interval of time is periodic motion.
(ii) Oscillatory motion. To and fro motion of an object about a fixed mean position is oscillatory or vibratory motion.
(iii) Oscillation. The motion of the pendulum from one extreme position to another extreme position and back to the first extreme position is one complete oscillation.
(iv) Time period. The time taken by a vibrating particle to complete one oscillation is called the time period of the pendulum.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Typing Tutor Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
To use number pad, ……………. should be kept ON.
(a) Num lock
(b) Caps lock
(c) Scroll lock
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Num lock

Question 2.
In home-row, …………… key is pressed with the little finger of left hand,
(a) A
(b) S
(c) D
(d) F.
Answer:
(a) A

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 3.
In home row, ……………. key is pressed with Middle finger of right hand.
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) ;
Answer:
(b) K

Question 4.
In second row, ………………. key is pressed with ring finger of left hand.
(a) Q
(b) W
(c) E
(d) R.
Answer:
(b) W

Question 5.
In third row, …………….. key is pressed with the index finger of right hand.
(a) B
(b) N
(c) M
(d) M, N.
Answer:
(d) M, N.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
For typing purpose, a keyboard can be divided in how many parts?
Answer:
The keyboard for typing is divided into two parts. The first part is on the left side and the second part is on the right side.

Question 2.
Write the name of the technique for typing with all fingers without looking at the keyboard.
Answer:
Touch typing technology allows us to type without looking.

Question 3.
Write the name of any one font.
Answer:
Anmol Lipi font.

Question 4.
Which finger is used to press spacebar during typing?
Answer:
The thumb of your right hand is used to press the space bar key.

Question 5.
Which key is used to go to new line during typing?
Answer:
Enter key is used to move to new line.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is touch typing?
Answer:
This is a technique by which we learn how to type correctly without looking at the keyboard. The keyboard is divided into two parts, left side and right side. Typing is done by placing the fingers on right position accordingly.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 1

Question 2.
Describe the position of our fingers on Home Row Key.
Answer:
The “home row” is the center row of keys on a keyboard. It starts from the alphabet A. The fingers are always rest on this line. The position of the fingers on this row is as follows:
First of all, the fourth finger (little finger) of our left hand is on the ‘A’ key, then third finger on the ‘S’ key, then second finger on the ‘D’ key and then first finger on the ‘F’ key and alternately on the ‘7’ key. The fourth, third, second and first fingers of the right hand should be on ‘L’, ‘K’, ‘J’ and ‘H’ respectively. Thumbs of both hands should be on space bar.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 2

Left Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger A
Ring Finger S
Middle Finger D
Index Finger F & G
Right Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger ;
Ring Finger L
Middle Finger K
Index Finger J & H

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 3.
What are the tips to improve typing speed?
Answer:
Typing speed can be increased by keeping the following in mind:

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 3

    • Concentrate in consistently, comfortably and correctly typing.
    • The position of our hands I fingers should always be on the home-row We should always start from this position and come back to the saine position. We should move from the home-row position to other keys.
    • As we press each key, we should repeat that letter in our mind.
    • We should focus on pressing the right key rather than speed. Speed will increase automatically with time and practice.
    • Do not look at the keyboard.

Question 4.
While typing numbers from numeric keypad, which hand we should use? Explain the position of your fingers on numeric keypad
Answer:
The numeric keypad is located on the right hand side of the keyboard and has a total of 17 keys. They act as a calculator. While using the numeric keypad Num lock key must be turned on. Use the right hand when typing numbcon the numeric keypad.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 4
The position of the fingers on the numeric keypad is as follows:

      • The thumb of the right hand is on the ‘0’
      • On the first finger of the right hand ‘4’
      • The second finger of the right hand on the ‘5’ The third finger of the right hand on the ‘6’

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the proper posture while typing.
Answer:

      • The computer monitor should be in front of our eyes.
      • Our focus should be on the monitor.
      • Our fingers should be on the home-row keys.
      • We should sit straight and in front of the keyboard.
      • We should quickly press each key and return to the home- row position.
      • Our feet should be straight on the ground.
        PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 5

Question 2.
Explain Following Keys
(a) Enter key
(b) Backspace key
(c) Shift key Answer:
Answer:
(a) Enter Key: This key is used to move to a new line. We use the smallest finger of our right hand to press the Enter
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 6
(b) Backspace key:
This key is used to delete a character to the left of the cursor. We use the little finger of our right hand for this.

(c) Shift Key:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters. If you want to type a capital letter with your left hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand similarly, to write a capital letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 7

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Typing Tutor Important Questions and Answers

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 1.
Type master is used for learning,
(a) Programming
(b) Computer
(c) Printing
(d) Typing.
Answer:
(d) Typing.

Question 2.
Keyboard is divided into sections.
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) Five.
Answer:
(b) Four

Question 3.
The numeric pad is on the side.
(a) Right
(b) Left
(c) Upper
(d) Lower.
Answer:
(a) Right

Question 4.
The key is on both sides of the keyboard.
(a) Function
(b) Special
(c) Arrow
(d) Shift.
Answer:
(d) Shift.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

2. True/False

Question 1.
The typemaster helps to improve the typing speed.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In touch typing we can type without touching the keyboard.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
The numeric pad is on the right side of the keyboard.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Text is typed with a numeric pad.
Answer:
False.

Question 5.
Shift key is only one.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write instructions for keyboard expertise.
Answer:

  • Do not press the keys too quickly.
  • Press the keys evenly and equally.
  • Make it a habit to press the keys lightly.
  • After typing each word, press the space bar with the thumb of your right hand.
  • Your eyes, hands and brain need to be in perfect balance as you type.

Question 2.
What is a type master?
Answer:
Type master is a program that helps you learn to type and improve your speed. It helps us to type without looking at the keyboard.

Question 3.
What is numeric keypad?
Answer:
The numeric keypad is located on the right hand side of the keyboard and has a total of 17 keys. They act as a calculator. While using the numeric keypad Num lock key must be turned on. Use the right hand when typing numbers on the numeric keypad.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 4.
What is a shift key?
Answer:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters. If you want to type a capital letter with your left hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand similarly, to write a capital letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.

Question 5.
State the position of the fingers on the second row.
Answer:
The keys on the above line of the home row are called the keys on the second line. It starts with the letter Q’. Turn the fourth finger (little finger) of your left hand on the ‘Q’ key, the third finger on the ‘W’ key, the second finger on the ‘E’ key and the first finger on the ‘R’ key or the “T” key. Similarly, place the fourth finger of the right hand on the ‘P’ key, the third finger on the ‘O’ key, the second finger on the T key and the first finger on the ‘U ’or‘ Y ’key alternately.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 9

Left Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger Q
Ring Finger W
Middle Finger E
Index Finger R & T
Right Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger P
Ring Finger O
Middle Finger I
Index Finger U & Y

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give some instructions for keyboard mastery.
Answer:
Typing speed can be increased by keeping the following in mind:
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 10

      • Concentrate in consistently, comfortably and correctly typing.
      • The position of our hands I fingers should always be on the home-row We should always start from this position and come back to the saine position. We should move from the home-row position to other keys.
      • As we press each key, we should repeat that letter in our mind.
      • We should focus on pressing the right key rather than speed. Speed will increase automatically with time and practice.
      • Do not look at the keyboard.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 2.
Write a note on shift key.
Answer:
Shift Key:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters, If you want to type a capital letter with your left
hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand. Similarly, to write a capit.al letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.

Question 3.
State the position of the fingers on the fourth row.
Answer:
Fourth Row:
The fourth row corresponds to the numeric keys. Be careful while typing the numbers. Our fingers should be on the home row. To type the numbers 100 correctly, it is recommended to press the numeric key with the corresponding finger and then bring it back to the home row, If all work is related to numbers, keep your fingers on the fourth line.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor 11

Left Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger Z
Ring Finger X
Middle Finger C
Index Finger V & B
Right Hand
Little/ Pinky Finger /
Ring Finger .
Middle Finger ,
Index Finger M & N

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 4.
Write in detail about the special keys of the key board.
Answer:
Special Keys on Keyboard:
The special keys of the keyboard are as follows:
1. Enter Key:
This key is used to move to a new line, We use the smallest finger of our right hand to press the Enter key.

2. Space Bar: The space-bar key is used 1.0 leave a space in two words. We use our thumb to press the space key.

3. Shift Key:
This key is located on both side of the keyboard. It is used to write capital letters. If you want to type a capital letter with your left hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of your right hand. Similarly, to write a capital letter with the right hand, press the shift key with the fourth finger of the left hand.

4. Backspace:
This key is used to delete a character to the left of the cursor. We use the little finger of our right hand for this.

5. Caps lock Key:
If the whole word, line or paragraph is to be written in capital letters, keep the Caps Lock Key in ON position. We use the little finger of our left hand for this.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 1 Typing Tutor

Question 5.
What are some ways to avoid stress and mistakes while typing on the computer?
Answer:
How to Avoid the Stress of Typing:
Stress and mistakes while typing on computer can be avoided as follows.

  • Set your keyboard so that it is straight and slightly raised at the back. Do not keep your keyboard tilted downwards.
  • Sit properly in front of your computer. Our screen should be two feet away from u and our copy should be in front of our eyes.
  • Stretch your arms before starting work and also during intervals and strengthen your arms with exercise.
  • We should re-st our wrists when we are not typing.
  • When typing, keep your wrists straight and bend your elbows at a 90 degree angle. Our wrists should not rest on the table while typing.
  • If sitting on a chair, our knees are bent 90 degrees and our feet are straight on the ground, then the height of our chair is perfect.
  • Exercise daily. This helps our body avoid stress after typing.
  • Rest for a short time instead of a large interval while typing.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Nutrition in Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The process of obtaining and utilization of food by an organism is called ……………..
Answer:
nutrition

(ii) ………………. from the air is taken in through the tiny pores called stomata present on the surface of leaves.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

(iii) ……………… is the initial product of photosynthesis.
Answer:
glucose (Carbohydrate)

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

(iv) The plants which depend on the food produced by other plants are called ………………..
Answer:
heterotrophs

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbohydrates is not an essential component of food.
Answer:
False

(ii) All green plants are autotrophs.
Answer:
True

(iii) Euglena is an organism that has both plant and animal like characters.
Answer:
True

(iv) Sunlight is not necessary for photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus (a) Parasite
2. Rhizobium (b) Feaves
3. Chlorophyll (c) Feguminous plants
4. Cuscuta (d) Saprophyte

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Agaricus (d) Saprophyte
2. Rhizobium (c) Leguminous plants
3. Chlorophyll (b) Leaves
4. Cuscuta (a) Parasite

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
An Organism that fixes atmospheric nitrogen in the soil is :
(a) Amarbel
(b) Mushroom
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Chlorophyll
Answer:
(c) Rhizobium.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question (ii)
The Organisms that cannot prepare their own food and depends on others for food are known as :
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Fleterotrophs
(c) Nutrients
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(b) Heterotrophs.

Question (iii)
Food factory of the plants is :
(a) Leaf
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Leaf.

Question (iv)
Which of the following is a saprophyte ?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Agaricus
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Protein
Answer:
(c) Cuscuta.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition. The act of obtaining and using food by the organism is called nutrition. Not all living things have the same food.

Question (ii)
What is photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis. It is a process in which food (carbohydrates) is produced by the plants. During this process, carbon dioxide and water are synthesized into glucose (simple carbohydrates) in the presence of sunlight by plant’s green matter (chlorophyll pigment).
Through this action green plants convert light energy into chemical energy.
Chemical Equation :
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 1

Question (iii)
Name the raw materials required for photosynthesis.
Answer:
Ingredients for photosynthesis :

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Water
  3. Solar Energy

Question (iv)
What are insectivorous plants ?
Answer:
Insectivorous plants. Plants that have a system for catching and digesting organisms are called insectivorous plants, such as pitcher plant. The leaves of these plants are transformed into pot compositions to catch insects.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you mean by parasitic mode of nutrition ?
Answer:
Parasitic Nutrition. Nutrition in which the parasitic organism harms another organism and derives its food from it is called parasitic nutrition.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question (ii)
Explain symbiotic relationship.
Answer:
Symbiotic relationship. Two different organisms co-exist with each other and depend on each other for their nourishment, then it is called symbiotic relationship. In this kind of relationship both the beings get benefit from each other. Like the fungus found on the roots of many plants. The fungus gets nourishment from the roots of the plant and in turn absorbs water and minerals from the soil. Fungus and moss are a good example of symbiotic relationship. Here the fungi absorb water from the earth and in turn the algae provide food through photosynthesis.

Question (iii)
How does the pitcher plant catch insects ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 2
The pitcher plant transforms its leaves into pot-like structures to catch insects. This pot-like creation has curly hair on the face. When an insect sits on it, it slips down and cannpt climb up again and falls to the bottom of the pot. The enzymes present at the bottom digest the insect.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
How are nutrients replenished in the soil ?
Answer:
Regain of nutrients by soil. Plants continue to absorb water, minerals and other nutrients from the soil which leads to lack of nutrients in the soil. Time to time nutrition should be provided to the soil so that the fertility of the soil is maintained. Farmers usually recreate these nutrient deficiencies by mixing manure in the soil and Fertilizers (which contain one or more preservatives) to fulfil nutrients.
In forest the forest waste, leaves and animal waste is decomposed by decomposers into nutrients to improve fertility of the soil.

Question (ii)
What do you mean by nutrients ? Explain various modes of nutrition in plants.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals are the main components of food. They help in the formation and function of the body and are called nutrients.

The main methods of nutrition in plants are :
(a) Autotrophic Nutrition. Those who prepare their own food from simple foods are called Autotrophs. This process of preparing food by such plants is called Autotrophic nutrition. All green plants are Autotrophic. In this method, chlorophyll, a green pigment present in plants, takes carbon dioxide and water from the air and makes food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of solar energy. This action is called photosynthesis. Example-all green plants.

(b) Heterotrophic Nutrition. Some plants do not have green pigment (chlorophyll) and cannot make their own food, so they rely on food prepared by other plants for food. Such plants are called Heterotrophic plants and this method of obtaining food is called Heterotrophic nutrition. Example. Amar Bel.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Nutrition in Plants Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Green plants are called …………….. since they synthesise their own food.
Answer:
Autotrophs

(ii) The food synthesised by the plants is stored as ………………..
Answer:
Starch

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

(iii) In photosynthesis solar energy is captured by the pigment called …………….. .
Answer:
Chlorophyll

(iv) During photosynthesis plants take ……………… and produce …………….. .
Answer:
Carbondioxide, Oxygen

2. State True or False:

(i) Carbondioxide is released during photosynthesis.
Answer:
False

(ii) Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs.
Answer:
False

(iii) The product of photosynthesis is not a protein.
Answer:
False

(iv) During photosynthesis solar energy is converted into chemical energy.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column I with Column II :

Column I Column II
(i) Chlorophyll (a) Bacteria
(ii) Nitrogen (b) Pitcher plant
(iii) Amarbel (c) Leaf
(iv) Animals (d) Parasite
(v) Insects (e) Heterotrophs

Answer:

Column I Column II
(i) Chlorophyll (c) Leaf
(ii) Nitrogen (a) Bacteria
(iii) Amarbel (d) Parasite
(iv) Animals (e) Heterotrophs
(v) Insects (b) Pitcher plant

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
The organisms which depend upon other organisms for food are called ……………..
(a) Symbionts
(b) Parasites
(c) Autotrophs
(d) Saprophytes.
Answer:
(b) Parasites.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 2.
Which part of the plant usually contains stomata ?
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) Flower.
Answer:
(c) Leaves.

Question 3.
Which gas is released during photosynthesis ?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen.
Answer:
(a) Oxygen.

Question 4.
What is the unit of living beings
(a) Organ
(b) Organ system
(c) Cell
(d) Tissue.
Answer:
(c) Cell.

Question 5.
What is the ultimate source of energy in the living beings ?
(a) Moon
(b) Sun
(c) Stars
(d) Planet.
Answer:
(b) Sun.

Question 6.
Name one eatable fungus.
(a) Alga
(b) Bacteria
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Mushroom.
Answer:
(d) Mushroom.

Question 7.
Plants breathe through:
(a) Epidermis
(b) Buds
(c) Stomata
(d) Root hairs.
Answer:
(c) Stomata.

Question 8.
What are green coloured thread like structures over the pond water called ?
(a) Fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Amoeba
(d) Paramecium.
Answer:
(b) Algae.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients. Carbohydrates, vitamins, fats, proteins, minerals, roughage.

Question 2.
How do plants synthesise food ?
Answer:
Green plants synthesise their food material using carbondioxide, water and solar energy.

Question 3.
Name the various type of nutrition.
Answer:
Types of Nutrients. Autotrophic, Heterotrophic, Saprotrophic and Parasitic.

Question 4.
What are openings / pores in a leaf known as ?
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 5.
What is function of chlorophyll in a leaf ?
Answer:
Chlorophyll capture the energy of sunlight.

Question 6.
Which is ultimate source of energy for all living organisms ?
Answer:
Sun.

Question 7.
What are products of photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Carbohydrates and oxygen.

Question 8.
Name the various parts of plants which take part in photosynthesis.
Answer:
Green stems and green leaves.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 9.
Besides green leaves, which other coloured leaves are found in plants ?
Answer:
Deep red, violet or brown.

Question 10.
What is algae ?
Answer:
Algae It is a slimy, green patch found in pond or in stagnant water.

Question 11.
Do algae photosynthesis ? Why ?
Answer:
Yes, algae do photosynthesis as they contain chlorophyll.

Question 12.
From which elements are carbohydrates made up of ?
Answer:
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Question 13.
Name some four human parasites.
Answer:

  1. Mosquitoes
  2. lice
  3. bed bug
  4. leech.

Question 14.
Write one eatable fungus.
Answer:
Mushrooms.

Question 15.
Where does mould grow ?
Answer:
Moist and rainy areas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the definite word for the following:
(i) Weak stem parasitic plant.
(ii) A plant in which both Autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition are found,
(iii) The holes through which gases are exchanged in the leaves.
Answer:
(i) Amar bel (Cuscuta)
(ii) Pitcher plant
(iii) Stomata

Question 2.
Differentiate autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer:
Differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition.

Autotrophic nutrition Heterotrophic nutrition
(1) Organisms prepare their own food by obtaining energy from sun. (1) Organisms obtain ready-made food from other plants or animals.
(2) It occurs in green plants and blue green algae. (2) It occurs in parasitic plants, fungi, most of bacteria and animals.

Question 3.
Why do coloured leaves photosynthesise when they are not green in colour ?
Answer:
Coloured leaves (red, brown etc.) do contain chlorophyll but large amount of red, brown pigment mask the green colour. So, they can photosynthesise.

Question 4.
How do fungus grow on the things ?
Answer:
Spores of fungi are present in air. When they land on wet and warm things, they germinate.

Question 5.
How do lichens show symbiotic relationship ?
Answer:
Lichens, a chlorophyll partner algae and non-green fungus live together. The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to algae while algae provides food which is synthesised by it. So they both show symbiotic relationship.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Question 6.
Explain the parasitic relationship between Rhizobium and plants.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 3
Rhizobium is a bacterium that lives in nodules on the roots of legumes. It converts the nitrogen in the air into a usable form which is used by the plant and in return provides shelter and food to bacteria.

Question 7.
What do you understand by a parasites, saprophytes and symbiosis ? Give one example for each.
Answer:

  • Parasites. Those plants or animals which obtain their food from a host and also get shelter from it, are known as parasites, e.g. Cuscuta and Viscum etc.
  • Symbiosis. It is a type of relationship which is mutually beneficial for both the parents (host and parasite), e.g. Lichens are combination of algae and fungi. The fungus holds the algal cells in its mat of web-like hyphae and in return supplies water and dissolved minerals.
  • Saprophytes. Those organisms which grow on dead and decaying organic matter and obtain their food from decomposed bodies are known as saprophytes, e.g. Bacteria, mushrooms etc.

Question 8.
Distinguish between a parasite and a saprotroph.
Answer:
Differences between a parasite and saprotroph.

Parasite Saprotroph
(1) These organisms depend upon other living organisms for its food.
Example : Cuscuta, tape- worms, roundworms.
(1) These organisms obtain their food from dead organic matter.
Example : Fungi, bacteria.
(2) They produce special type of organs like suckers, hooks to obtain their food. (2) They secrete some enzymes to decompose complex molecules into simple form.

Question 9.
What are the conditions required for Autotrophic nutrition and its basic and by-products ?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is essential for Autotrophic nutrition which requires the following conditions : (1) sunlight (2) chlorophyll (green pigment), (3) carbon dioxide and (4) water.

The by-products of this process are: The basic products of photosynthesis are oxygen gas and glucose. Afterwards glucose is stored in the form of starch.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Symbiosis is beneficial for both the partners, justify.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants 4
Symbiosis. The type of association in which both the partner’s benefit is called symbiosis.
In plants like lichens, there is an association between green algae and non-green fungus. The fungus forms a mat of web-like hyphae to hold the algal cells. The fungal hyphae supply water and minerals to the algae. The algae can synthesize food for themselves as well as for the fungus.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Winds, Storms and Cyclones Intext Questions and Answers

Think and answer (Textbook Page No. 85)

Question 1.
The can gets crushed because of the atmospheric pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Air exerts pressure. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Both balloons should be of equal size. (True/False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The fast moving wind creates …………………. pressure.
Answer:
More.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 87)

Question 1.
The air ……………. on heating.
Answer:
expands.

Question 2.
On cooling the boiling tube, the balloon expands. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Hot air is ……………………… than cold air.
Answer:
lighter.

Question 2.
The paper cup over the burning candle comes down as it becomes heavier. (True / False)
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Winds, Storms and Cyclones Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Air exerts …………………..
Answer:
Pressure

(ii) Moving air is called …………………
Answer:
Wind

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Near earth the …………………. air rises up and ………………………. air comes down.
Answer:
hot, cold

(iv) Winds are generated due to ………………………….. heating of earth.
Answer:
uneven

(v) The centre of a cyclone is called its ………………. .
Answer:
Eye

2. State True or False:

(i) A bicycle tube expands when we fill air in it.
Answer:
True

(ii) Air moves from a region of low pressure to high pressure.
Answer:
False

(iii) The speed of wind can be measured by an instrument called Anemometer.
Answer:
True

(iv) Thunder is a loud sound produced by lightning.
Answer:
True

(v) We should ignore the cyclone warnings.
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is not an example of air exerting pressure ?
(a) Flying a kite
(b) Filling air in bicycle tube
(c) Filling air in balloon
(d) Hot air balloon.
Answer:
(d) Hot air balloon.

Question (ii)
Moving air is called ………………… .
(a) Wind
(b) Cyclones
(c) Lightning
(d) Storm.
Answer:
(a) Wind.

Question (iii)
Which is the property of air ?
(a) Expands on cooling
(b) Contracts of heating
(c) Expands on heating
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Expands on heating

Question (iv)
Winds are produced due to ……………………. .
(a) Heating of air
(b) Cooling of land
(c) Heating of water
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.
Answer:
(d) Uneven heating of land and water.

Question (v)
High speed winds can cause …………………… .
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclones
(c) Tornado
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Cyclones

4. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 1
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 2

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Which property of air is described by the inflated balloon ?
Answer:
Moving air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (ii)
Which is lighter, cold air or hot air ?
Answer:
Hot air is lighter than cold air.

Question (iii)
Which region of earth gets maximum heat from the sun ?
Answer:
Equator and its adjoining areas are exposed to direct sunlight for a long time, resulting in higher temperatures in the vicinity of the equator.

Question (iv)
Which winds bring rain in India ?
Answer:
Rainfall in India is caused by monsoon winds. These winds filled with water vapour come from the sea.

Question (v)
Name the instrument used for measuring the speed of wind.
Answer:
Wind / air speed can be measured with an Anemometer.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why are the holes made in hanging banners and hoardings ?
Answer:
Holes are made on hanging banners and advertisements so that they cannot be blown away due to blowing winds or wind pressure. The air will pass through the holes and there will be no pressure on the banner.

Question (ii)
In which situation does the uneven heating of the earth produces winds ?
Answer:
The sun does not heat different parts of the earth uniformly. So there is a difference in temperature and pressure. The wind that moves from a high pressure area to a low pressure area is called a wind. The higher the pressure, the higher is the wind speed.

Question (iii)
Which winds blow from ocean to land in summer ? What is their significance ?
Answer:
In summer season, the air near the surface of the earth becomes warmer and lighter and rises upwards. The air above the sea is colder and heavier than the air on the earth. So the wind moves from the ocean to the land. This cool breeze from the ocean is called Sea breeze. Due to this breeze, the weather is very pleasant for the people living near the coastal areas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iv)
What is the difference between a thunderstorm and a cyclone ?
Answer:
Thunder Storm.
Lightning strikes thunderstorms and heat up the air to a higher temperature, causing the air to expand faster and produce a louder sound. This loud sound is called thunder. The wind that blows with rain is called a storm. Sometimes a storm is accompanied by a thunder, which is then called a thunderstorm.

Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Question (v)
State effective measures to be taken in areas vulnerable to cyclones ?
Answer:
Effective safety measures to be adopted in areas prone to post-cyclone :
1. Measures to be taken by the government :

  • Tall and dense trees of native species should be planted on the coastal areas to reduce wind/wind speed.
  • Ponds should be constructed in coastal areas to absorb excess water.
  • Cyclone shelters should be constructed in cyclone sensitive areas.
  • To issue early warning to the people of the affected area by adopting advance information technology.

2. Measures that can be adopted by the people :

  • Do not ignore cyclone warnings.
  • Areas that have frequent cyclones should be evacuated.
  • Make appropriate arrangements to move their livestock, valuables and household members to safer places.

Question (vi)
What is a Tornado ? Give two safety measures.
Answer:
Tornado. It is strong rotating winds in Funnel shaped cloud. Its diameter varies from 1 m to 1 km. On account of very low pressure at the centre of the funnel it pulls the dust, debris and even people and vehicles towards the centre.
Safety measures from Tornado:

  • Take shelter inside a room, having no window. If a room without window is unavailable then closed all doors and windows.
  • If a person is in the vehicle or driving, he should get out of it and sit in low laying area.
  • Whenever you face tornado you can protect yourself by sitting on your knees and
    putting down your head by wrapping arms around your neck.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain why does a tin can get crushed when water is boiled in it and after closing it cold water is poured on it ?
Answer:
When water is boiled in an iron container, all the air in the container heats up and becomes lighter and rises upwards. In this way all the air in the box goes out. On further heating, the boiling water turns into steam and the can is filled with water. Covering the vessel with a lid ensures that the vapours are trapped inside the container. This reduces the air pressure inside the box compared to the outside air. In this way on pouring cold water the outside air pressure causes the box to shrink inwards.

Question (ii)
Explain with an activity that air expands on heating.
Answer:
Air expands by heating. This fact can be proved by the following activity:
Activity.
Take a thick glass test tube. Tightly tie a balloon over its mouth with tape. Take hot water in a beaker. Place the test tube in the water such that balloon stays out of the water. Watch the balloon for 3-4 minutes to look for any change in the size of balloon. Now take out the test tube from water and let it cool down to normal temperature. In another beaker take a small amount of ice cold water and place the test tube carrying balloon in the beaker. Wait for 3-4 minutes. Observe the change in size.

You will notice that the balloon placed in hot water swells (increases in size) after some time and the balloon when on the other placed in cold water shrinks (decreases in size).

Conclusion.
When the test tube is placed in hot water, the air in the balloon heats up and expands causing the balloon to inflate. This indicates that the air expands on healing. When the test tube is placed in ice, the air present in balloon contracts. It shows cooling causes air to contraction.

Question (iii)
How is a cyclone formed ? Describe how a cyclone caused widespread destruction in Odisha in 1999.
Answer:
Formation of Cyclone.
When water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change it into vapours for the formation of cloud. These water vapours cool and condense to form raindrops and release the absorbed heat. This heat causes the surrounding air to heat up and form a low pressure area. A strong wind blows towards this low pressure center. This action is repeated several times to form a low pressure area and dense clouds from the center of a strong wind.

Many layers of high winds begin to revolve around the low pressure center. This condition is called a cyclone. Center of the storm is a quiet area called the Eye of cyclone. The area of the eye is free from clouds. Outside the Eye is a circle of clouds and thunderstorms. The wind blows here at a speed of 150 to 250 kilometre per hour.

Destruction caused by cyclone in Odisha. A very strong cyclone strike to Indian state Odisha on 18 October, 1999. The speed of this cyclone was 200 km/h and it destroyed 45000 houses leaving 70,000 people homeless. Again on 29th October 1999 a cyclone hits Odhisa with a speed of 260 km/h accompanied by 9 meter high wave. Many people lost their lives and property worth of crores was destroyed.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Winds, Storms and Cyclones Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Wind is air.
Answer:
moving

(ii) Winds are generated due to heating on the earth.
Answer:
uneven

(iii) Near the earth’s surface air rises up whereas air comes down.
Answer:
warm, cooler

(iv) Air moves from a region of pressure to a region of pressure.
Answer:
high, low

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (b) Sunlight
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (c) Blows away the roof
(iv) High speed air over the roof (d) Winds, storms and cyclones.

Answer:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) Hot air (b) Sunlight
(ii) Changes in atmospheric pressure cause (d) Winds, storms and cyclones
(iii) The eye of the cyclone (a) Low pressure area of the cyclone
(iv) High speed air over the roof (c) Blows away the roof

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following place is likely to be affected by a cyclone?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Jaipur
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question (ii)
An instrument used to measure wind speed is called ………………. .
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Thermometer
(d) Lactometer.
Answer:
(a) Anemometer.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question (iii)
How many hours in advance cyclone chart is issued of expected storm by satellites and radars ?
(a) 72
(b) 48
(c) 96
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 48

Question (iv)
Which winds carry water and bring rain ?
(a) Unequal
(b) Equal
(c) Monsoon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Monsoon.

Question (v)
A dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from sky to the ground is called ……………….
(a) Wind
(b) Tornado
(c) Cyclone
(d Monsoon.
Answer:
(b) Tornado.

Question (vi)
Hurricane in America, Typhoon in Japan are nothing but ………………. only.
(a) Cyclones
(b) Tornado
(c) Monsoon wind
(d) Thunder storms.
Answer:
(a) Cyclones.

Question (vii)
In which year did Orissa was hit by a cyclone ?
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2004.
Answer:
(a) 1999.

State True or False:

(i) Wind always blows from low pressure area to high pressure area.
Answer:
False

(ii) Wind speed is measured with an anemometer.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(iii) Heavy rains accompanied by strong winds are called cyclones.
Answer:
False

(iv) A hurricane is a storm with strong winds blowing through a funnel-shaped cloud.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What disaster fell on 18 October, 1999 in India ?
Answer:
A cyclone hits Orissa.

Question 2.
When did second cyclone hit Orissa ?
Answer:
29 October, 1999.

Question 3.
What was the number of homeless people hit by cyclone ?
Answer:
About 700000 people.

Question 4.
What is wind ?
Answer:
Air in motion.

Question 5.
Give the characteristic of air.
Answer:
Air exerts pressure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 6.
Why do we fill air into bicycle tubes ?
Answer:
To keep the tube tight so that it can run smoothly on a surface.

Question 7.
What happens to air pressure when speed of wind is increased ?
Answer:
Air pressure reduces.

Question 8.
Why does hot air move upwards ?
Answer:
Because it is lighter than cold air.

Question 9.
What are monsoon winds ?
Answer:
Monsoon winds are those winds which come from the oceans and seas and carry water with them and bring rain.

Question 10.
Name few natural disasters caused by wind.
Answer:
Cyclones, thunder storms, tornadoes etc.

Question 11.
In winter what is direction of winds ?
Answer:
From land to oceans.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a cyclone ? On which factors it depends ?
Answer:
Cyclone. A low pressure system with very- high speed winds revolving around it is called cyclone.
Wind speed, wind direction, humidity and temperature are some factors which contribute to the development of a cyclone.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 2.
Give a brief account of formation of thunderstorms.
Answer:
In hot, humid climate, the rising temperature produces strong winds. These rise upwards and carry lot of water droplets. These water droplets freeze at height and fall downwards. The swift falling water droplets along with rising air produce lightning and sound. This phenomenon is called thunderstorm.

Question 3.
How are clouds important to farmers ?
Answer:
Importance of clouds to farmers.

  1. Clouds are important for harvest. If harvest is good, farmers are happy.
  2. Clouds bring rains.
  3. They make the weather pleasant.

Question 4.
How will you help your neighbours in case cyclone approaches your village/town ?
Answer:
Helping neighbours during cyclones:

  1. Moving them to cyclone shelters.
  2. Shifting their household property to safer places.
  3. Providing them medical aid.

Question 5.
What planning is required to deal with situation created by a cyclone ?
Answer:
Plans to deal with situation created by cyclone.

  • Shift essential household good, domestic animals to safer places.
  • Keep handy phone numbers of all emergency services like Police, fire brigade and medicle centres.
  • Avoid driving on roads with standing water.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How will you show air expands on heating ?
Answer:
Experiment to show air expands on heating. Take a boiling tube and fix a balloon tightly over the neck of the tube. Insert the boiling tube carrying balloon into a beaker containing hot water.
Watch the balloon for 2-3 minutes you will notice that the balloon has start inflating. This experiment shows that air expands on heating.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones 3

Question 2.
What precautions should be taken when a thunderstorm is accompanied by lightning?
Answer:
Precautions to be taken during lightning in thunderstorms accompanied by lightning:

  1. Never take shelter under an isolated tree.
  2. Do not lie on the ground.
  3. Do not use an umbrella having a metallic rod.
  4. Window, open garages, storage sheds, metal sheds are not safe places.
  5. Never stay in the water.
  6. Inside a car or bus is a safe place to take shelter.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Delhi Sultanate Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
What role was played by the historical buildings in constructing the history of the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
Historical Monuments. The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate e.g. Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.

Question 2.
How did Balban consolidate the Sultanate?
Answer:Balban became the Sultan of Delhi in 1266 A.D. He was the greatest of the slave kings of Delhi. He was a strong and iron willed ruler who believed that the power of the Sultan was absolute. He commanded absolute obedience from his amirs who had to bow in sajdah in his presence.

Problems faced by Balban. Balban had to face the following problems in order to consolidate the Sultanate :

  • He had to defend his Sultanate from the Mongol invasions on his northern frontiers.
  • He had to fight against the local rulers like the Rajputs who troubled him both within the Sultanate and on its borders.
  • His major problem was to deal with the powerful Turkish nobles who threatened his position as Sultan.
  • He crushed the rebellion of Mawatis near Delhi and the pirates of Doaba region.
  • He crushed the rebellion of Tugril Khan of Bengal.
  • His strong policy towards Mongols is known as “Blood and Iron policy”. In 1286 A.D. Balban died.

Question 3.
Why did Muhainmad-bin-Tughlaq shift the capital from Delhi to Devagiri?
Answer:
Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq had a large empire to rule. He wanted to build his captial at a place which was in the centre of his ruled area. So, in 1327, A.D., he decided to change his capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad).

There were two reasons for it :

  1. He believed that by doing so he could defend himself against the invasions of the Mongols.
  2. He thought that the administrative system will be better administer from Devagiri as compared to Delhi.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 4.
Describe the results of schemes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (1325-1351 A.D.) had high political ambitions. He made many political plans but all these plans were unsuccessful. The description about these plans and their results are as follows :
1. Taxation in Doab. He wanted to extend his empire. For this purpose, he needed money. So he increased the revenue of the land in Doab. But unluckily, the rains failed and the peasants found it hard to pay the increased revenue.

2. Transfer of the Capital. The Sultan transferred his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad because he wanted to have a better control over his Deccan territories. But it was not possible to control north Indian territories from Daulatabad.

3. Token Currency. He issued token coins of brass and copper which had made the same legal value as the coins of gold and silver. The people started minting copper and brass coins at their home which they would exchange with gold and silver from the royal treasury.

4. Plan to win Khurasan. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq wanted to be a great administrator. So, he decided to win Khurasan (Iran). So, he collected a big army. The soldiers were given the salary for one full year. Lot of money was spent on their training and weapons but after one year, he shed the idea of invading Khurasan and the army was disbanded. The unemployed soldiers; became rebels. The Sultan lost his confidence among the public. Many states declared freedom and Sultan lost control over his empire. In 1351 A.D. he died.

Causes of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq’s failure.

  • As given above, all his projects were visionary and beyond the people’s comprehension.
  • He lacked patience and people suffered because of his hasty actions.
  • He emptied his treasury as a result of his extravagant schemes and boundless generosity.
  • His empire was too vast to be controlled by one man.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Slave

Question 2.
Razia Sultana was a daughter of _______
Answer:
Iltutmish

Question 3.
Iltutmish became the ruler in _______
Answer:
1211 A.D

Question 4.
Iltutmish nominated _______ as his successor.
Answer:
Razia Sultana

Question 5.
Malik Kafur was the General of _______ Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 6.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq decided to shift his capital from _______ to Devagiri.
Answer:
Delhi

Question 7.
Timur invaded India during the reign of the rulers of the _______ Dynasty.
Answer:
Tughlaq.

III. Write True or False for each statement :

Question 1.
Iltutmish was a slave of Qutab-ud-din Aibak.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Balban was the first ruler of the slave dynasty.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Ala-ud-din Khalji introduced the market control policy.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The Lodhis were overthrown by the Sayyids.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 5.
Sikandar Lodhi and Babar clashed at the first battle of Panipat.
Answer:
False

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
On an outline map of India, mark the important extent of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of Indian Map.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of monuments of the Sultanate period and paste them in your note-book.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Delhi Sultanate Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When slave dynasty ruled Delhi?
(a) 1206-1290
(b) 1210-1320
(c) 1220-1315
(d) 1224-1296.
Answer:
(a) 1206-1290.

Question 2.
When Raziyya Sultan became queen of Delhi?
(a) 1246
(b) 1256
(c) 1236
(d) 1226.
Answer:
(c) 1236.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 3.
Which of these was not the Sultan of Delhi?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Akbar
(d) Muhammad Tughlaq.
Answer:
(c) Akbar.

Question 4.
Which of these Sultans implemented to keep control on prices?
(a) Muhammad Tughlaq
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Balban
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 5.
Which of these dynasties was the last dynasty of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Lodi dynasty
(b) Tughlaq dynasty
(c) Khalji dynasty
(d) Mughal dynasty.
Answer:
(a) Lodi dynasty.

Question 6.
Who defeated Mughal emperor Humayun?
(a) Balban
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Akbar
(d) Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
(d) Sher Shah Suri.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 7.
In which century Delhi became an important city?
(a) 12th century
(b) 15th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 17th century.
Answer:
(a) 12th century.

Question 8.
Which of the Delhi ruler is also known for its economic and military reforms?
(a) Balban
(b) Allauddin Khalji
(c) Babar
(d) Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
(b) Allauddin Khalji.

Question 9.
Chief Minister and adviser to Sultan was known as
(a) Patwari
(b) Ulama
(c) Wazir
(d) Iqtadar.
Answer:
(c) Wazir.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the time span of Sultanate period in India.
Answer:
It was from 1206 A.D. to 1526 A.D.

Question 2.
Which Kingdoms ruled over Delhi during the Sultanate period?
Answer:
They were Slave dynasty, the Khalji dynasty, Tughlaq dynasty, Sayyids and Lodhis.

Question 3.
Name some great Sultans of Sultanate period.
Answer:
Iltutmish, Balban, Alauddin Khalji, Mohammad Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 4.
How and when did Qutubudin Aibak die?
Answer:
In 1210 A.D., he died by falling from a horse.

Question 5.
Who was Aram Shah?
Answer:
He was a son of Qutub-ud-din Aibak who became the Sultan afterward. He was an incapable ruler, so he was made a prisoner by Iltutmish and later on killed.

Question 6.
What was Chalisa?
Answer:
Iltutmish appointed 40 Amirs to run administrative system. They were called Chalisa.

Question 7.
Wlho was Razia Sultana?
Answer:
She was the daughter of Iltutmish and who succeeded him after his death. She ruled from 1236 A.D. to 1240 A.D. She crushed the rebellion of state governors, but Amirs and army generals did not obey her. She was killed in 1240 A.D.

Question 8.
Describe in brief the ruling period of Qutubdin Aibak.
Answer:
He was the real founder of Turk state. He was the first ruler of Delhi Sultanate. At the time of ascending the throne, he had to face many difficulties. He occupied Punjab to stop the invasion of Yaldoz, who was the ruler of Ghazni. He made Lahore his capital. He was a great art lover. Many mosques in Delhi and Ajmer have been built by him. He started the construction of Qutub Minar, but in 1210 A.D. he fell from a horse and died.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 9.
Describe in brief the successes of Iltutmish.
Answer:
Iltutmish was one of the greatest rulers of the Slave dynasty. He ruled from 1211 to 1236 A.D.

Some of his achievements are the following :

  • He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi which remained the capital of all the Sultan-rulers.
  • For the first ten years, he remained busy in crushing his different rivals who were also claimants to the throne.
  • He organized the ruling elite or the nobles into a strong group of faithful nobles of forty known as ‘Chalisa’.
  • For the promotion of trade and commerce, many new coins like those of ‘Tanka’ and ‘JitaV were introduced.
  • He divided his empire into many big or small pieces of land, known as ‘Iqtas’ and handed them over to his nobles and officers in lieu of salary.
  • In 1221, he defended India against the Mongol invasion under Changez Khan.
  • He occupied the Rajputana castles of Ranthambhor, Gwalior and Ujjain.

Question 10.
Write a brief comment on Jallaludin Khalji.
Answer:
Jallaludin Khalji was the founder of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1290 to 1296 A.D. During his ruling period the Delhi Darbar became a centre of scandals. In 1296, his nephew and son-in-law Alauddin Khalji killed him and ascended the throne.

Question 11.
Write about the victories and reforms of Alauddin Khalji.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji was the most famous ruler of Khalji Dynasty. He ruled from 1296 A.D. to.1316 A.D. He was an optimist ruler. He wanted to established an empire in India.

Victories:

  • In 1299, he won Gujarat.
  • In 1301 A.D. he accupied Ranthambhor.
  • In 1303 A.D. Chittor was under his control.
  • He sent his General Malik Kafur to South India, where his army won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai, but Alauddin Khalji did not annex these areas into Delhi Sultanate.

Reforms of Alauddin Khalji:

  1. Economic reforms: He reduced the price of essential commodities. To control the
    prices, he appointed market officers. Anybody who went against his orders and rules was severely punished. .
  2. Military reforms: He started the custom of writing the physical measurements of the soldiers. He started paying cash salary to soldiers. He also appointed spies to control his empire.

Question 12.
Write about the administrative period of Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Answer:

  1. Feroz Shah considered the support of the nobles and the Ulema necessary for success.
  2. He made peace with them and kept them content by giving them grants of revenue.
  3. He was lenient in his dealings with the nobles.
  4. He allowed the orthodox ulema to influence state policy in certain matters.
  5. He improved his relations with the powerful groups at the court but at the same time, the power of the Sultan decreased.
  6. The governors of certain provinces like Bihar and Bengal had rebelled against the Sultanate.
  7. He tried to bring them under his control but he was not very successful.
  8. He established a department called ‘Diwan-i-Khairat’ to help the poor.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 13.
Write about the period of Ibrahim Lodhi.
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He ruled from 1517 A.D. to 1526 A.D. He wanted to make his central administration very powerful. But he was not liked by Afghan Chiefs and they created many difficulties for him. Infact, Ibrahim Lodhi was not a farsighted Sultan. He could make friendly relations with his Amirs, but he made them his enemies because of his egoistic behavior. As a result, they started revolts against Delhi Sultanate. In 1526 A.D., Ibrahim Lodhi was killed while fighting against Babar in the first battle of Panipat.

Question 14.
Describe in brief the Timur’s raid on India.
Answer:
Timur was a Turkish chief. He was brave, powerful and ambitious ruler of Central Asia.

Effects of Timur’s raid on India.

  • Timur’s raid on India gave a death blow to the Tughlaq dynasty and it ended in 1413 A.D.
  • Delhi Sultanate met with financial crisis.
  • A local governor occupied Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty.
  • Timur’s raid encouraged the Mughals to establish their empire in India.

Question 15.
Briefly comment on Sayyid Dynasty (1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D.).
Answer:
When Timur left Delhi he appointed Khizar Khan as the governor of Multan, Lahore and Depalpur. In 1414 A.D. Khizar Khan won Delhi and established Sayyid dynasty. This dynasty ruled from 1414 A.D. to 1451 A.D. The last ruler Ala-ud-din Alam Shah was defeated by the Governor of Lahore, Bahlol Lodhi.

Question 16.
Briefly introduce Behlol Lodhi and Sikandar Lodhi.
Answer:
Bahlol Lodhi. He was the founder of Lodhi dynasty and was its first ruler. He tried to restore the pride of Delhi Sultanate. He established law and order in the country. In 1488 A.D. he died. His son Sikandar Lodhi became his successor.

Sikandar Lodhi. He was (1488 A.D. – 1517 A.D.) the most powerful ruler of Lodhi dynasty. He was a good administrator. He performed many functions for the welfare of public. He brought reforms in agriculture and reduced the prices of essential commodities. In 1503 A.D., he established Agra city and made it his capital. He died in 1517 A.D.

Question 17.
Give a brief account of the Deccan campaigns of Ala-ud-din Khalji.
Answer:
Ala-ud-din Khalji sent a very big army under his army General Malik Kafur. Malik Kafur won the areas of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwar Samudra and Madurai but Ala- ud-din didn’t annex these areas to his ruling state.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 18.
Describe the development of political institutions during the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The description in brief is as follows :
1. Central Government. Sultan was an autocratic ruler who had unlimited powers. He ran his government with the help of ministers. All the departments were run by the concerned ministers according to the orders of the Sultan. The administrative system of Delhi Sultanate was mainly based on Islamic laws.

The following were the main ministers in-charge of different departments :

  • Wajir: He was the most important minister of the state. He was the chief of finance and land revenue. Many officials were employed for his assistance. Mushrif Mamalik (Accountant General) and ‘Mustafi-i-Mamalik’ (Auditor-General) were the main assistants.
  • Ariz-i-Mamalik: Minister of army.
  • Diwan-i-Insha: Minister of Spy Department.
  • Diwan-i-Risalat: Minister of External Affairs.
  • Sadar-i-Sadur: Minister of Religion & Education Affairs.

2. Provincial Administration. The empire was divided into many states and governors were appointed for these states. They were called Subedars, Muqtis or Walis. The states were further divided into parganas. A combination of. many villages created one Pargana. The chief official of Pargana was named ‘Amil’. The chief of a village was called ‘Muqadam’.

3. Military Arrangement. The army consisted of horses, elephants and soldiers. The military officers were usually granted jagirs but sometimes they were paid their salaries cash. The military power was must for crushing rebels. They could never think of their existence without a powerful army. So the Delhi Sultans used all the means of military arrangements.

Question 19.
Write short notes on the following :
1. The Court
Answer:
The Court: Delhi Sultans established their own Courts. The front seats were given to Princes. Ministers, Department’s Chiefs, other officials and foreign diplomats were given the permanent places. The Departmental Chiefs were always present in the Court to answer the questions posed by the Sultan.

2. The Nobility
Answer:
The Nobility: The Delhi Sultans were complete Autocrates. They ruled with the help of noble class. Most of them were related to Turk or Afghan families. But after the period of Allaudin Khalji, Muslims and Hindus were also employed as high officials. Thus a noble class was also developed among these religions. The central ministers, state governors and army chiefs, all belonged to noble class.

3. Land Control
Answer:
Land Control: Revenue -was the chief source of the income of the state. There were three systems prevalent at that time. These were Batai, Kankut and measurement of land. Revenue was collected either in cash or in some other form. Alauddin Khalji paid special attention towards land reforms. He got the measurement done and to look after the agriculture, he created a department called ‘Diwan-i-Must-Kharaz’. At that time the rate of land revenue was very high. Firoz Shah Tughlaq also developed agriculture. He got canals built for irrigation. The rate of land revenue was lowered and loans were remitted.

4. Resource Mobilization.
Answer:
Resource Mobilization: There were many temporary sources of revenue also namely—Kharaz, Khamas, Jakat and Zazia. Kharaz was taken from non-Muslims. It was 10% to 50% of the total produce. Khamas was the 1/5 part of plundered stock from battles. The Sultan had the right over this portion. The rest 4/5 part was distributed among the army. Jakat was a religious tax, which was charged from Muslims. It was 2.5% of their property. Zazia tax was again charged from non-Muslims. It is said that women, children and poor people were exempted from this tax. This tax was charged from 10 to 40 Takas on the basis of income.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 The Delhi Sultanate

Question 20.
Write the names of the main historical sources of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The main sources are as follows:
1. Accounts of Foreign Travellers: Iban-batuta and Marco Polo travelled to India during the Sultanate period and wrote accounts about the personality of Sultans and knowledge about different sectors.

2. Royal Description: Tughlaq Nama, Tarikh-i-Alahi, Tarikh-i-Firozshahi, Futuhat-i-Firozshahi, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, and Makhzari-i-Afghan, etc. were the royal descriptions, where we get knowledge about Delhi Sultans and main events.

3. Historical Monuments: The historical structures during the period of the Delhi Sultanate include Quwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alahi Darwaja, Tughlakabad, Hauz Khas, Lodhi Tomb, Firozshah Kotla, etc. These buildings and monuments give us knowledge and information about the artistic hobbies of Delhi Sultans.