Class 9 – Page 25 – PSEB Solutions

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
20 century is called The Golden Era of democracy. A trend towards democracy started among the Europeans. British and America remarked that first world war was fought for the security of demoracy and the principle of self-decision. Many new countries came into existence after 1st World War. These countries preferred to adopt democrative system. Those countries who were prey to imperialism expressed their desire to demolish imperialism and establish democracy.
But this golden period of democracy soon disappeared and democracy had to face adverse circumstances. After 1st World War, democracy had to face a set back in Italy and Germany due to the birth of two movements which were not in favour of democracy. The advent of ideology of Nazism in Germany and Facism in Italy proved disastrous for democracy. Both the ideologies were in the favour of dictatorship. Due to these ideologies, the tragedy of second world war happened between 1939-45.
(а) Which century is known as the Golden Era of democracy and why?
Answer:
20th century is known as the Golden Era of democracy because this was the time when European people started looking towards democracy. Even the first World War (1914-18) was fought for the security of democracy and the principle of self-decision. Many new countries were formed after the war and they all adopted the democratic set-up.

(b) Why did the Golden period of democracy end very soon?
Answer:
The Golden era of democracy ended after first World War because it faced adverse circumstances. Nazism and fascism started in Germany and Italy respectively and dictatorship established over there. This dictatorship encouraged the imperial policy and that’s why second World War started which lasted till 1945.

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Like India, there was colonialism in Ghana, (African Continent) : Firstly, it was known as Gold Coast. It was among the first country of Africa which got independence from the Britishers in 1957. This country inspired other countries of Africa for independence. A great personality of Ghana, who was the son of a goldsmith (Name- Kqame Nkrumah)-led this freedom movement and got his country freed. He became 1st Prime Minister and later on became the President of Ghana. He was a friend of Pt. Nehru. He inspired the people of other countries of Africa continent to establish democracy. He got himself elected as President for the ‘lifetime’. But soon in 1966, he was dethroned by a military conspiracy 3Military dictatorship was established in Ghana. Like Ghana the Countries which adopted democracy after Independence could not retain it continuously but in India working of democracy is still continue after independence.
(a) Tell something about Ghana’s struggle for independence.
Answer:
Ghana was earlier known as Gold Coast which is situated in Africa. Ghana was also a victim of Colonialism and was under the occupation of the British. Kagame Nkrumah led the freedom struggle of Ghana and got the country independent from the British in 1957 A.D.

(b) Briefly tell about Kqame Nkrumah.
Answer:
Kqame Nkrumah was the son of a goldsmith. He led Ghana’s freedom struggle against the British and got his country independent. He became the first Prime Minister of Ghana and later on became the President for the lifetime. But soon in 1966, he was dethroned by a military conspiracy. Military dictatorship was then established in Ghana.

Question 3.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Democracy is such a structural arrangement where free and fair participation of people is ensured to get the political power. In democarcy the people control the government. Sometime democracy is called as the rule of masses (entire public). But it is merely a hypothesis as all the people are not of the same opinion. Democracy is sometimes called the government of the majority. This is also not appropriate. For example, many times an anarchist becomes successful to win the support of the majority on the basis of violence or misuse of power. Shall we call such a government as democratic?
The freedom to elect is the root or base of democracy. The existence of democracy lies in the difference of opinion. Every person has .his own view to solve national problems. In democracy difference of opinion is shown through ballots and not bullets. There is no place for violence in democracy. In election any ideology becomes successful to win the support of majority of people and becomes successful to hold political power.
(a) What is meant by democracy?
Answer:
Democarcy is a type of government in which government is elected for a fixed period of time through Universal Adult Franchise and this government works for the welfare of people. In this way democracy is such a structural arrangement where free and fair participation of people is ensured to get the political power.

(b) Give features of democracy?
Answer:

Democracy is a type of government.
Right to choose is the main base of democracy.
Government is elected for a fixed period of time.
Every person has the right to cast one vote and value of each vote is same.
Democracy allows us to correct our mistakes.

Question 4.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian Fijian. In democracy the principle of ‘One person—one vote—one value’ is applicable. Therefore, we can’t call Fiji as a democractic country.
Now we will take an example of Mexico. It became independent in 1930. Mexico holds elections after every six years to elect its President. The power of government never remains in the hands of military or dictator. But until 2000 every election was won by PRI party. Other parties were free to contest the election. But being in power, PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party) party was known to use unfair means. Government officials and officers were forced to attend meeting of PRI Party. Government teachers were directed to insist the parents to cast their votes in favour of PRI Party. The polling booths were shifted from one place to another in the eleventh hour on polling day so that the opposition leader might not be successful to cast their votes. All these examples reveal that only periodical elections are not sufficient but free and fair poll is essential. If a party wins the election by unfair or suppressive means we will not call it true democracy.
(а) What is meant by free and fair elections?
Answer:
The meaning of free and fair elections is that the elections must take place impartially and without any impact or pressure. Ruling party must not use unfair means to win 6ver the votes and people must choose their representatives without any fear.

(b) Which unfair methods were used in Mexico to win elections?
Answer:
From 1930 to 2000 A.D., only one party in Mexico won elections and the party was PRI. It used following unfair means to win elections.

Government officials were forced to attend meetings of PRI.
Government teachers were directed to insist the parents to cast their votes in favour of PRI.
The polling booths were shifted from one place to another in the eleventh hour on polling day so that the opposition leaders might not be successful to cast their votes.

Question 5.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
India became independent on 15 August, 1947. But the process of making constitution for India had been started before independence. Leaders of India adopted Parliamentary democratic system for India which is the main feature of our constitution. The constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly which was elected indirectly. It took two years, eleven months and eighteen days to frame the constitution.
The demand for the Constituent Assembly for framing Indian Constitution was raised by Congress for the first time in 1935. The British Government accepted it in 1940. The election of Constituent Assembly was made on Nov. 19, 1946 indirectly from the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The total number of members of the Constituent Assembly was 389, of whom 93 were representatives from the Indian States, 292 from the Provinces (British India) and 4 from the area of Chief Commissioners.
(a) From whom and when India got independence?
Answer:
India got independence from the British on 15th August 1947 A.D.

(b) Give two main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

Indian Constitution is the written constitution and is the lengthiest in the world.
Parliamentary form of government is adopted in India.

(c) How were the members of the Constituent Assembly elected?
Answer:
The demand for framing the Indian Constitution was raised by Congress for the first time in 1935. According to the recommendations of the Constituent Assembly, the members of Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The Constituent Assembly had 389 members, of whom 93 were representatives from the Indian States, 292 from the Provinces of the British India and 4 from the area of Chief Commissioners.

Question 6.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
The Preamble to the constitution states the objects which the constitution seeks to establish and promote. It is the window of the constitution from which we can have a glimpse of objectives, principles and features of our constitution.
It is considered to be a part of constitution because it can be amended like other articles of constitution. Though the preamble is not enforceable in a court of Law, it provides a key to the understanding and interpretation of the constitution.
The Preamble declares India as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. It ensures to all its citizens justice, social, economic and political. It ensures them liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. It ensures them equality of opportunity and status among them all. It declares fraternity assuming the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.
(a) What is meant by the Preamble?
Answer:
Preamble is nothing but the nutshell of the Indian Constitution. The Preamble tells us about the basic objectives and features of the constitution. The Preamble is known as the part of the Indian Constitution.

(b) What is the importance of the Preamble of the Constitution?
Answer:

The Preamble declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
It ensures to all its citizens justice, social, economic and political.
It ensures them liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
It ensures them equality of opportunity and status among them all.

Question 7.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
The constitution of India is the largest and the most comprehensive of all the written constitutions of the world. Originally, it consists of 395 Articles and 8 schedules. Now it exists of 12 schedules and many new articles have been added under the original articles. It is extended due to a number of amendments. After 42nd constitutional amendment two new parts 4A & 14A were added to it. The 9th schedule was added in 1951 under first amendment. The 10th schedule regarding ‘Anti Defection Law’ was added in 1985 by 52nd Constitutional Amendment. The 11th schedule regarding power, authority and responsibility of Panchayati Raj Institution was added under 73rd constitutional amendment in 1992. The 12th schedule was added in 1992 under 74th Constitutional Amendment. It is realed to local self-government in Urban area (Municipalities.)
(a) Why is the Indian Constitution lengthiest in the world?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is lengthiest in the world as originally it had 395 articles and 8 schedules. Later on many new schedules and articles were added in it. Now there are 450 articles and 12 schedules in it. Every minute detail is given in it. Many Constitutional Amendments were added in it and that’s why it has become more lengthy.

(b) What were 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?
Answer:
To establish local Self Government in the country, 73rd and 74th Amendments were made in the Constitution. According to 73rd Amendment, a three tier structure of Local Self Government was established in rural areas. According to 74th Amendment, Local Self Government was established in urban areas.

Question 8.
Read the source and answer the following questions
In Parliamentary System, Head of the state is President, Governor General, King or Queen. In India, France and Austria, President is the head of the State. In Canada, Australia, New Zealand Governor-General is the head of state while in Japan, England, Denmark, Holland, Sweden and Norway King or Queen is the head of the State. The head of these-countries are titular or nominal executive. The main features of the Parliamentary System is that constitutionally head of the country has enormous powers but practically he does not use these powers. Practically, the cabinet exercises these powers. The hea,d of Parliamentary form of Government is like India’s President. The cabinet runs the administration in the name of State Head but the entire responsibility of Government lies on its shoulder.
(a) What do you mean by Parliamentary form of government.
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government in which government is elected from within the Parliament. It means that the Parliament will be elected by the people and then government will be elected from within the Parliament. The Parliament will keep control over the government which will take Parliament’s permission for every work.

(b) Give features of Parliamentary systeng.
Answer:

In Parliamentary system there is a Head of the State such as the President of India. He is the nominal Head of the country.
Constitutionally, Head of the country is given enormous powers but practically, he does not use all of his powers.
Council of Ministers uses all the powers of the Head of the country. In this way Council of Ministers is responisble to run administration of the country.

Question 9.
Read the source and answer the given questions :
In the Parliamentary system, Prime-Minister leads the cabinet. In the lower house of the Parliament-Prime Minister is the leader of the party with majority. Therefore, he is the leader of the Parliament also. Chief of the state appoints ministers at his recommendations. He presides over the meetings of the cabinet. He decides dates and agenda of cabinet meetings. He consults the cabinet but his decision is final on disputable issues. He distributes the departments among ministers. The Prime- Minister coordinates and supervises the works of ministers. If any minister does not cooperate or is not agreed at his policies then he has to resign. If he does not resign then Prime-Minister can request the President to remove him from his designation. He is the main spokesman of the Government. He informs the President about the decision of the cabinet. He takes the opinion of the President on some specific and important matters. Though he is not bound to follow the opinion of the President yet he thinks over it very seriously.
(a) What is the role of Prime Minister in Parliamentary System?
Answer:
Prime Minister holds the most important position in Parliamentary system because he is the Real Executive Head of country. The President acts only on his advice. Even the President appoints council of ministers on the advice of Prime Minister. He is answerable to the Parliament for his government’s acts. He is actually spokesperson of government.

(b) Discuss functions of Prime Minister.
Answer:

He gets his Council of Ministers appointed by the President.
He divides different departments to Ministers. He can change their departments and, if required, can remove them.
He acts as a link between the President and Council of Ministers.
He informs the President about the decisions of the cabinet.
He represents India at International level.
He presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers.

Question 10.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
All the ministers of the Council of Ministers are responsible to the Parliament. If the parliament passes ‘Censure Motion’ against one minister then whole Council of Ministers, have to resign. If a policy is framed for one department in the Council of Ministers then its responsibility lies on the whole Council of Ministers.
Every minister is personally responsible for his department. If the work of any department is not up to the mark the Prime Minister can ask the minister, of the concerned department to resign. If the minister does not submit his resignation then the Prime Minister can ask the President to remove that minister.
(a) What do you mean by Collective Responsibility of Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The meaning of Collective Responsibility of Council of Ministers is that they are collectively responsible towards Parliament. If a non-confidence motion passes against any minister, the whole of the Council of Ministers will have to resign. It is often said that the Council of Ministers swim and sink together.

(b) What is individual responsibility of Ministers?
Answer:
The meaning of individual responsibility of Ministers is that every minister is responsible for the functioning of his department. If any minister’s department is not working properly, he can be called for an explanation. Members of Parliament can ask any question related to their department and it is must for the ministers to reply. In this way ministers are individually responsible to the Prime Minister and Parliament for the functions of their respective departments.

Question 11.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Fair and free election is the pillar of democracy. Fair and free election implies that voters should cast his/her vote without any fear or pressure. Secondly, he should not misuse his vote under any temptation. The election commission played a significant role in holding fair and free elections. The evils of elections cannot be eradicated till the voter is not awaken. Undoubtedly, the government made many reforms in this direction, for example under the Anti defection act there is complete prohibition on defection. If a winning candidate changes his party then his candidature will be cancelled. But defection still survives in one or the other form. Before election many candidates are competent for election ticket. Those candidates who are not alloted tickets by their party, join other political parties.
(а) What do you mean by free and fair elections?
Answer:
The meaning of free and fair elections is that the voters must cast their vote without having any fear or pressure. Secondly, they must not sell their vote in lieu of money or anything else. Free and fair elections is one of the important base of democracy and in its absense, democracy cannot work smoothly.

(b) What steps have been taken to eradicate evils of elections?
Answer:
Many evils prevail in election system such as use of money, threatening voters, defection of leaders from one party to another etc. Many efforts are made to remove these evils such as:

According to Anti-Defection Laws, no elected M.P. or M.L.A. can change his party. If he will, his membership would be cancelled.
While filling a nomination form, a candidate will have to fill an affidavit containing information about his wealth, moveable and immoveable property and criminal cases pending against him. It tells the people about the character of that leader.
Each political party has to file Income Tax Return so that people must come to know that how money comes to parties.

Question 12.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Periodical Election is an essential feature of the Parliamentary democracy. To establish democracy without election is merely a hypothesis. The basic principle of democracy is to entrust the every citizen right to vote at his/her will. There is clear provision in our constitution about the election of President and Vice President. For the remaining elections, Parliament makes provision from time to time. Single voter list is prepared for the election of Lok Sabha, the State Legislative Assemblies and Local bodies. On the basis of regional representation people of all religions and groups elect the candidate. No constituency is made on the basis of any particular religion or group.
(а) What do you mean by Regular or Periodic Elections?
Answer:
The meaning of regular or periodic elections is that the elections must be conducted after a fixed period of time which can be different in different countries. In India, it is 5 years. If elections are not conducted after a fixed period of time, it is a great danger to democracy. So, periodic elections are must and people must get regular chance to elect their leader.

(b) What is the relation of democracy and elections?
Answer:
Democracy and elections are directly related as the former cannot be maintained without the presence of later. In democracy, representatives are directly elected by the people and democracy sustains only because of elections. If there are no elections, there is no democray. The main base of democracy is to provide the people right to elect their representatives. In this way they both are closely related to each other.

Question 13.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
While living in sociey man enjoys many facilities. For example, he is having freedom of speech and expression. He can convey his ideas through speech and writings. He can move freely throughout the territory of India. He can practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business. He can profess or practise any religion. Man can celebrate his rituals and festivals collectively. People have been blessed with the facility to live with their family. But man can enjoy all these facilities while living in the society. In simple language, these facilities can be named as rights. But, no one can enjoy that facility which is not in the interest of the whole society. So, Rights are those genuine demands by Individual or group of Individuals which are recognised by society and state.
(a) What do you mean by Rights?
Answer:
Rights are those genuine demands by an individual or a group of individuals which are recognised by society and state. In other words, rights are such conditions which are must for an individual to live a happy life. In their absence, we cannot live a happy and prosperous life.

(b) What is the importance of Rights in our lives?
Answer:
Rights play an important role in our lives because :

Rights are the facilities to give us a better life.
Rights give us equality in society.
Only with rights, we can express our feelings and can do anything whatever we want.

Question 14.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
In Indian constitution there are some motives for the personality development of citizens and to ensure their honour. Therefore, the maker of our constitution tried to fulfil these motives by enlisting the fundamental rights in the constitution. The democractic nature of any country is known by the fundamental rights entitled to the citizens of that country.
Indian citizens did not have fundamental rights before independence. But demand of fundamental rights was raised time to time in India’s freedom movement. In 1895, Bal Gangadhar Tilak asked the British Government to pass the ‘Swaraj Bill’. The Bill included right to freedom of thought and expression, equality before law and some other rights for Indian people. In 1928, a demand for equal rights for men and women was also raised through ‘Nehru Report’. But the British Government rejected all these demands. In the Government of India Act 1935, the list of fundamental rights for Indian citizens was not incorporated.
(a) How can we come to know that any country is democratic or not?
Answer:
We can only come to know about any country is democratic or not by looking at the fundamental rights provided to the people. If people are provided with all the fundamental rights we can call that country as democratic.

(b) What was the condition of fundamental rights before independence?
Answer:
Before Indian Independence, people had no rights at all because the British government always followed repressive policies. That’s why many a times, basic rights were demanded from the government. In 1895, Bal Gangadhar Tilak demanded from the government to pass Swaraj Bill and certain rights as well. In 1928, a demand for equal rights for men and women was also raised through Nehru Report. But the British Government did not accept the demands. Even rights were not included in the Government of India Act, 1935. But after 1947, when Indian constitution was formed, people were given all the fundamental rights.

Question 15.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Art. 25 provides freedom of conscience and faith in any religion. This right has been given to justify the aims of India’s being secular as mentioned in the preamble of our constitution. Right to freedom of religion is given to foreigners also.

Art. 26 provides :

Establish and maintain institution for religious and charitable purposes and to preach any religion.
Manage its own affairs in matters of religion and administer such moveable and immoveable .property in accordance with law.

Art. 27 refers that the state cannot compel any citizen to pay any taxes or donations for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institutions.
Under Art. 28, no religious instructions can be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of state funds. However educational institutions of private sector can give religious education. But they can’t compel any students to participate in it.
(a) What is Right to Freedom of Religion?
Answer:
All the citizens of India are given right to freeedom of religion under Articles 25-28. According to this right, citizens are free to adopt, profess and propagate their religion. No one can force them to adopt any other religion.

(b) Explain Articles 26 and 27 of the Indian constitution.
Answer:
Article 26 :

It establishes and maintains institutions for religious and charitable purposes and preaches any religion.
Manages its own affairs in matters of religion and administers such moveable and immoveable property in accordance with law.

Article 27: It refers that the State cannot compel any citizen to pay any taxes or donations for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institutions.

Question 16.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Power of Judicial review means to sit on judgement over the order of the executive and Laws of the Legislature for their constitutional validity. If any order passed by the executive and a Law passed by a legislature violates the constitution or is not in accordance with the constitution the Supreme Court can declare such an order or Law null and void. The power of judicial review has been entitled to the Supreme Court due to Federal System of the government and of fundamental rights in constitution. This power of judicial review ensures that centre and state government should work in their jurisdiction and should protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
(а) What is meant by the power of Judical Review?
Answer:
The power of judicial review is given to judiciary in India. According to this, if judiciary feels that any law made by the Parliament is against the basic structure of the constitution, it can declare that law null and void or illegal. In this way judiciary can review any law which is its power of judicial review.

(b) What is the importance of the power of Judicial review?
Answer:
The power of judicial review is quite important because it helps in helping Legislature and Executive under control. If legislative passes any bill against the basic provisions of the Constitution, Judiciary can declare that bill illegal and can restore the basic provisions of the Constitution. Supreme Court is known as the Guardian of the Constitution and through the power of judicial review, constitutional provisions are protected. Due to this power of Judiciary, Central and State governments never violate their jurisdiction and fundamental rights of the citizens.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The directive principles of the Indian Constitution have been adopted from
Answer:
Ireland.

Question 2.
__________ was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(i) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(ii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iv) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Republic state has a head :
(i) hereditory successor
(ii) military dictator
(iii) directly or indirectly elected by people
(iv) nominated.
Answer:
(iii) directly or indirectly elected by people.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) Statements :

Question 1.
Socialist, Secular and integrity words were incorporated in our Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
India is a sovereign, secular and democratic republic.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did India become free?
Answer:
On 15th August, 1947.

Question 2.
“A Constitution is the collection of principles according to which Government powers, rights of the governed and the relations between the two are adjusted.” Who is the author of this statement?
Answer:
Wooles.

Question 3.
How much time was taken to draft the constitution of India?
Answer:
2 years, 11 months and 18 days.

Question 4.
How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
389 members (299 after 15 Aug, 1947).

Question 5.
When was the announcement of division of India made?
Answer:
It was announced on 3rd June, 1947.

Question 6.
How many members remain in the Constituent Assembly after the division of India?
Answer:
There remain 299 members in the Constituent Assembly after the division of India.

Question 7.
Write any two unitary features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

There is only one Constitution for both Centre and States.
All the citizens are given single citizenship.

Question 8.
Write any two federal features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution is the written Constitution.
(ii) Powers are divided between Central and State governments.

Question 9.
Write any two freedom provided by the Constitution of India to its citizens.
Answer:

Freedom to adopt any occupation.
Freedom to move in any part of the country.

Question 10.
With which words the ‘Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins?
Answer:
We the people of India.

Question 11.
Which new words were incorporated to the Constitution of India under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976?
Answer:
With the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, words Socialist, Secular and Integrity were incorporated to the Constitution.

Question 12.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On which main objects the ‘Preamble to the Indian Constitution throw light?
Answer:
The Preamble throws light on the following features of the Indian Constitution.

It says that India is a sovereign, socialist, democratic, secular republic.
It resolves to give social, economic and political justice to all of its citizens.
It provides equality of opportunity and status and freedom to all the citizens, express, belief and profess.
It also declares to maintain individual integrity, national unity and integrity.

Question 2.
Which is a republic country?
Answer:
India is a republic country. The meaning of republic is that head of the country is directly or indirectly elected by the people. Head of the country is elected for a fixed period of time and there is no place of hereditary system in it. Republic is one of the important feature of the Indian Constitution.

Question 3.
India is a secular state, give arguments in its favour.
Answer:

Preamble of the Constitution has declared India a secular state.
All the citizens are free to profess their religion and even to change their religion.
Under the Right to Equality, it is said that no one will be discriminated on the basis of religion.
All the religions in India are treated equally and there is no state religion.

Question 4.
What do you mean by federal structure or federal government? From the Constitution of which country this feature has been taken?
Answer:
The meaning of federal structure or federal government is the division of powers between two level of government and these two levels are central government and state governments. Powers are divided between the both but central government is given more powerful. The federal structure of the’ Indian Constitution is taken from the Canadian Constitution.

Question 5.
The Constitution of India was prepared on November 26,1949 but it came into force on Jan. 26, 1950. Why the date of January 26 was fixed? Comment.
Answer:
At the Lahore session of Congress, 1929, it was decided to celebrate India’s first independence day on 26 January, 1930 although India was not independent. From then onwards, 26 January was celebrated as independence day till 1947. But in 1947, India got its real independence as 15 August. So, to keep the historical importance of 26 January, it was decided to implement the Indian Constitution on this day. In this way 26 January became the Republic day of India.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of Sovereign State?
Answer:
The meaning of Sovereign state is that the country is completely free to take decisions on its external and internal matters. Whenever country is required to form its internal policy or keeping relations with other countries, it is free from any type of pressure. No one can force the country to take any decision.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has given all its adult citizens, the right to vote and this is known as Universal Adult Franchise. All the Indian citizens with the age of 18 years more are given the right to vote without any discrimination. Initially it was 21 years but with the 61st Constitutional Amendment, the age of casting vote was reduced to 18 years.

Question 8.
Write any four unitary features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

All the Indian Citizens are given single citizenship.
All the governments are given single Constitution.
A single unified Judicial system is set up for the whole country.
The Indian Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries and names of the states.
Governors of the states act as the representatives of Central Government and they are appointed by the Central government.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the preamble of Indian Constitution in the original form.
Answer:
We The People of India having solemly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular

Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizen :
Justice, social, economic and political:
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship,
Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; –
In Our Constituent Assembly this twenty-Sixth day of November 1949 do Hereby Adopt, Enact And Give To Ourselves This Constitution.

Question 2.
India is a secular state. Explain the statement.
Answer:
By inserting the word ‘Secular’ in the Preamble of the Constitution by 42nd amendment. India is declared a secular state in clear words. Such a system is adopted in the Constitution that India is made secular state without any doubt. Right to freedom of religion has been granted to all persons residing in India under Articles 25-28 of Indian Constitution. According to this right, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion. State has no religion of its own. The state shows full neutrality in the religious matter. All this shows that India is a secular State.

Question 3.
What do you mean by a Sovereign State? Explain in brief.
Answer:
By sovereign means that now, after the promulgation of .the Constitution. India is not subject to any foreign rule. India is now a sovereign state, internally as well as externally. No other country can compel India to follow or not to follow a particular policy. We can now make any law, remaining of course within the limits imposed by our own Constitution. We can also amend our Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Constituent Assembly was set up under the recommendations of:
(a) Cripps Proposals
(b) C.R. Plan
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935.
Answer:
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan.

Question 2.
Which National Leader demanded in 1924 that a Round Table Conference should be called to frame a Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal
(b) Pt. Motilal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dr. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(b) Pt. Motilal Nehru.

Question 3.
The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in :
(a) Jan. 1945
(b) July 1946
(c) August 1946
(d) Dec. 1946.
Answer:
(b) July 1946.

Question 4.
According to the Cabinet Mission Plan, the Constituent Assembly was to consist of:
(a) 285 Members
(b) 380 Members
(c) 389 Members
(d) 490 Members
Answer:
(b) 389 Members.

Question 5.
The Constituent Assembly was not a sovereign body in the beginning but it became a sovereign body after :
(a) July 1946
(b) 15th August, 1947
(c) 26 Jan, 1950
(d) 19th Dec. 1946.
Answer:
(b) 15th August, 1947.

Question 6.
Who was the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachindanand Sinha
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Sachindanand Sinha.

Question 7.
Who was permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 8.
Who moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?
(а) Dr. Ambedkar
(б) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Answer:
(b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 9.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. B.R. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 10.
After a great labour, the Constitution was ready on :
(a) 26th Dec., 1949
(6) 26th Jan., 1950
(c) 25th Dec., 1949
(d) 26 Nov., 1949.
Answer:
(d) 26th Nov.,’1949.

Question 11.
How much time did it take to make the Indian Constitution?
(а) 1 year, 11 months and 18 days
(б) 2 years, 10 months and 18 days
(c) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days
(d) 2 years, 6 months and 18 days.
Answer:
(c) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days.

Question 12.
The Indian Constitution was enforced on :
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th Jan., 1950
(c) 9th Dec., 1950
(d) 15th August, 1950.
Answer:
(b) 26th Jan., 1950.

Question 13.
The Constitution of India was adopted by:
(a) The British Parliament
(b) The Governor General
(c) The Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament of India.
Answer:
(c) The Constituent Assembly.

Question 14.
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on :
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 25th January, 1950
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 25th November, 1949.
Answer:
(c) 26th November, 1949.

Question 15.
Which amendment of the Constitution added the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble?
(a) 44th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 46th amendment
(d) 50th amendment.
Answer:
(b) 42nd amendment.

Question 16.
What is the meaning of: “We, the people’ of India’?
(a) That the people of India are direct rulers of the country
(b) That the ultimate sovereignty is vested with the people
(c) That the power is in the hands of few.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) That the ultimate sovereignty is vested with the people.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
The Indian Constitution was formed by the __________
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly had __________ members.
Answer:
389

Question 3.
__________ was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 4.
In India __________ administrative system is adopted.
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 5.
Parliamentary form of government in India is taken from __________
Answer:
England.

True/False:

Question 1.
The Indian Constitution was formed by the parliament.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9th December, 1946.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru gave the objective resolution to the Constituent Assembly,
Answer:
True

Question 4.
After 15th August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly had 389 members.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
It took four years to prepare the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Under whose recommendation the Constituent Assembly was set up?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was set up on the recommendation of Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.

Question 2.
When was the Constituent Assembly of India established?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was established in July, 1946.

Question 3.
Name the person who was chosen as temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Sachindanand Sinha, the oldest member of the Constituent Assembly was elected the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When did the Constituent Assembly meet for the first time?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on December 9, 1946.

Question 5.
Who was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajindra Prasad was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 6.
Name the body that framed the Indian Constitution and state when it was constituted?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly and the Constituent Assembly was constituted in July, 1946.

Question 7.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Question 8.
Who moved the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru moved the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 9.
When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949.

Question 10.
When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Or
When was the Constitution of India promulgated?
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into effect on January 26, 1950.

Question 11.
How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly consisted of 389 members (299 after 15th Aug. 1947).

Question 12.
Name the body which adopted the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India.

Question 13.
How much time did Constituent Assembly take to make the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to frame the Constitution.

Question 14.
Mention the name of four countries where written Constitution exist.
Answer:

U.S.A.
France.
India.
South Africa.

Question 15.
What is meant by Preamble?
Answer:
The Preamble is a summary of the objectives and the basic philosophy of the Constitution. It helps in the interpretation of the Constitution.

Question 16.
With which words the Preamble of Indian Constitution starts?
Answer:
The Preamble of Indian Constitution starts with “We the People of India ”

Question 17.
What new words have been added to Preamble of our Constitution under the 42nd amendment?
Answer:
Socialist and Secular.

Question 18.
How many amendments have been made in the Preamble?
Answer:
Only one amendment (42nd) has been made in the Preamble so far.

Question 19.
What is the source of the authority according to the Preamble?
Answer:
The Preamble expresses in a very clear language that the people are the ultimate source of all authority.

Question 20.
For how many days, the draft of Indian Constitution was discussed in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
114 days.

Question 21.
Name any four countries whose major features of constitution were incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
England, U.S.A., Canada, Ireland.

Question 22.
Why is the Indian Constitution considered the alive Constitution?
Answer:
Because from time to time and according to needs, it has been changed and developed.

Question 23.
How is India a republic?
Answer:
India is a republic because the President is indirectly elected (by an electoral college) by the people for a fixed period.

Question 24.
Give two reasons to show that the Indian Constitution is a democratic country.
Answer:
(i) Government is run by the representatives of people.
(;ii) All the citizens are given equal political rights.

Question 25.
What do you mean by the Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:
The changes made in the Constitution are known as the Constitutional Amendments. .

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution is a collection of those rules and regulations according to which the administration of the state is run. The administration of each state is run in accordance with certain rules and regulations. It is the fundamental law reflecting the will of the people. It determines the powers Snd responsibilities of the state. It also states people’s rights and duties.

Question 2.
Why do we need a Constitution?
Answer:
All the democratic countries of the world have Constitutions. We need Constitution due to given below reasons :

Supreme Law of the Country. The Constitution of a state is the supreme law of the land. The government at the State and Central level work within the sphere of powers given to them by the Constitution.
Provide Basic Rules. The Constitution provides basic rules and principles on the basis of which government should be.
Knowledge about the Nature of Government. It is the Constitution which decides how the government will be organised.
Rule of Law. The Constitution of a state makes provision for rule of law.
Limitations on the Government. The Constitution puts limitations on the three organs of the government so that no organ should become absolute and arbitrary.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the meaning of the Preamble.
Answer:
The Constitution of India begins with a Preamble. The Preamble serves the purpose of a window through which we peep into the intentions of the makers of the constitution. In short, the Preamble is a summary of the objectives and basic philosophy of a Constitution. It helps in the interpretation of the Constitution. With the help of the Preamble we can understand the basic philosophy of the Constitution.

Question 4.
Mention the nature of state according to the Preamble of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
According to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution the nature of Indian State is as under :
(a) India is a Sovereign state;
(b) India is a Democratic state;
(c) India is a Secular state;
(d) India is a Socialist state and
(e) India is a Republic.

Question 5.
How is the Indian Constitution considered as the people’s Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is considered as the people’s Constitution. Members of the Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected by the provincial legislatures which were elected by the people. Actually all the important leaders were the members of the Constituent Assembly. Representatives of all the classes (Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, females) were included in it. If elections could have done on the basis of adult franchise, same people could have elected. In this way it is people’s Constitution.

Question 6.
Why there is more importance of the Constitution in democratic countries?
Answer:
In democracy, directly or indirectly people rule the country. In the constitution. On the one side complete description of the government’s powers is given and on the other side there are certain restrictions on it. People’s rights are completely explained in the constitution. No one can work against the Constitution. Courts are there to protect the Constitution and fundamental rights. That’s why the Constitution is of great importance in the democratic countries.

Question 7.
Discuss the circumstances which led to the formation of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Our Constitution was drafted by a Constituent Assembly composed of Indian people. Mahatma Gandhi mooted the idea of Constituent Assembly in 1922 and the Indian National Congress put the demand in a concrete form in 1935. But this demand of the Congress Party remained unfulfilled for a number of years. It was incorporated in the Cripps Proposals of 1942 that after the end of war a Constitution-making body would be set up to frame a new constitution. However, for various reasons the Cripps Proposals did not meet the approval of the Indian people. The Cabinet Mission plan 1946 proposed the constitution of an Assembly to frame the Constitution. The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in 1946 according to the Cabinet Mission Plan. Its first meeting was held on 9 December, 1946.

Question 8.
What is meant by the Rigid and Flexible Constitution?
Answer:
Indian Constitution is rigid as well as flexible in nature. The meaning of rigid constitution is that it cannot be easily changed or amended. To amend the constitution, government needs great majority in the parliament which, most of the times, they don’t have. The meaning of flexible Constitution is that if government has the required majority, it can amend the Constitution very easily. If political parties will come together, they can also amend it quite easily.

Question 9.
Indian Constitution is lengthiest in the world. Clarify.
Answer:
Indian Constitution is the lengthiest Constitution among all the Constitutions of the world. Originally it had 395 Articles and 8 schedules. After 1950, many new clauses were added in it and that’s why presently it has 450 Articles and 12 schedules. 103 Amendments have been done in it. That’s why it has become more lengthy.

Question 10.
What is meant by the written Constitution?
Answer:
Our Constitution is the written Constitution which was made with the great hard work of 2 years 11 months and 18 days of the Constituent Assembly. Federal structure of the government was kept over here and that’s why it was required to keep it in the written forms so that the disputes between the central government and state governments could be resolved with ease. On contrary to this, the British Constitution is an unwritten Constitution based on customs and conventions. Our Constitution is in written form and that’s why it is quite transparent.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly. In this context explain the following :
(a) Draft Committee
Answer:
Draft Committee: On August 29, 1947, the Constituent Assembly elected a Drafting Committee from among its members Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was its Chairman. Besides its Chairman, its other members were : N. Gopala Swamy Ayyangar, Alladikrishna Swamy Ayyer, Dr. K.M Munshi, N. Madhav Rao, Sayyad Mohammad Sadaulla and D.P. Khaitan, Sh. B.N. Rao was appointed adviser of the Drafting Committee. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar played a very important role in drafting the Constitution and he has rightly been called the father of the Draft Constitution.

(b) Adoption and promulgation of the Constitution of free India.
Answer:
A draft Constitution was prepared in February, 1948 and it was presented before the Constituent Assembly on February 21, 1948. Draft was published in all the leading newspapers of the country to elicit public opinion. A national debate was held on the Draft Constitution. On November 4, 1948 general discussion began on the Draft. It continued upto October 17, 1949.

During this time 7635 amendments were presented out of which 2473 amendments were discussed. At last on November 26, 1949 the Constituent Assembly adopted the new Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly took 2 years 11 months, and 18 days to frame the Constitution. The new Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950.

Question 2.
‘India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic’. Explain.
Answer:
The preamble proclaims that the people of India have resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.’
(а) India is a Sovereign State. It means that now, after the promulgation of the Constitution, India is not subject to any foreign rule. India is fully sovereign, internally as well as externally. No other country can compel India to follow or not to follow a particular policy.

(b) India is a Socialist State. Natural resources and wealth of the nation should be used for the welfare of the whole society. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

(c) India is a Secular State. There is no official religion of the state. Freedom of religion has been granted to all persons residing in India. All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to practise and propagate religion.

(d) India is a Democratic State. Indian polity is based on democratic principles. The people elect their representatives on the basis of adult franchise. All citizens enjoy equal political rights. The government is run according to some basic rules.

(e) India is a Republican State. The word ‘Republic’ means that the head of the state shall be an elected one for a fixed tenure.The head of the state (President) is elected for a period of five years. There is no room for a hereditary monarch like the one in England.

Question 3.
Examine the significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. It does not have any legal force. Still it has special significance.

The significance of the Preamble is as follows :

Source of Authority. The Preamble expresses in a very clear language that people are the ultimate source of all authority. It is the people who have adopted and enacted the Constitution; It is the people who have given ‘the Constitution to themselves.’ The words, we the people of India, are very significant.
Nature of Indian Polity. The Preamble emphasises the fact that India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
Symbol of Objectives. The Preamble is the symbol of those objectives which the Constitution makers pledged to attain. The Preamble assures the people of India Justice—Social, Economic and Political.
Key to the Constitution. The Preamble is the soul and spirit of the Constitution. The Preamble is the mirror of the Constitution. It is a jewel set in the Constitution.
Guide to the Government. The Preamble to the Constitution provides guidelines to the government of the day.
Guidelines to the Judiciary. Whenever a Court of Justice has to explain some articles of the Constitution then it takes the help of the ideas expressed through the Preamble of the Constitution.
Yardstick to evaluate the performance of the Government. The Preamble enables the people to assess and evaluate the performance of the government in the light of the objectives laid down in the Preamble. It keeps the government on its toe.

Question 4.
Indian Constitution is taken from many sources. Explain.
Answer:
Before the making of Indian Constitution, Constituent Assembly studied different Constitutions of different countries. It also studied different laws made by the British Parliament for India. It took all the good aspects of different sources and their description is given below :

Britain. Parliamentary system, process of making laws, special privileges of Parliament, Rule of law, Single citizenship, Cabinet system, System of two houses.
U.S.A. Fundamental Rights, Structure and powers of Supreme Court, judicial review, post of Vice President, independence of judiciary, preamble.
Canada. Federal structure, Residuary powers, Appointment of Governors by centre,.
Ireland. Directive principles of state policy, The process of election of the President, Nomination of Rajya Sabha members by the President, the Process of Removal of the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts.
Germany. Emergency powers of the President.
U.S.S.R. Fundamental Duties.
France. Republic, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
South Africa. Constitutional Amendment.

Question 5.
Describe some of the key features of Federalism.
Answer:
In the federal system, there are two types of governments central government and state governments. The central governments solves the national problems and state governments solve local problems. Actually in this type of system powers are divided among central authority and the different units of that union. There is one government for the entire country and different provinces have different governments.

Both levels have their own powers. Some of the main features of federalism are given below :

Written Constitution: A written Constitution is essential in a federation in the sense that both the centre and the states should be definite and about their sphere of action.
Division of Powers: The powers of the government in a federation are distributed between the centre and the states.
Independent Judiciary: The presence of an independent and powerful judiciary is most essential in a federation.
Bi-cameralism: Some people are of the opinion that the legislature in a federation should be bi-cameral.
Rigid Constitution: The Constitution should be rigid so that it is not easily changed by impatient hands. The amending procedure is invariably more difficult than the enactment of ordinary laws. In almost all federal states amendments require favourable action by the parliament and a large majority of states.
Supremacy of the Constitution: In a federation Constitution is supreme both the centre and the states should run the administration in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. The supremacy of the constitution is maintained by the Supreme Court.
Double Citizenship: In some federal states citizens enjoy double citizens. An individual is citizen of the state as well as he is citizen of the whole country.
Federation exists in U.S.A., Switzerland, India etc. India has a federal system of government having all features of a federation.

Question 6.
On what basis division of powers is made between the union and the state governments in a federal system?
Or
How powers are divided in our country the Federal of India between centre and states?
Answer:
In our country India, Constitution has clearly demarcated the powers between different levels. Every level is given certain subjects to make laws related to its jurisdiction and they are not allowed to interfere in other’s matters. Actually, this distribution is three folded. Three types of lists are given in the Constitution in which subjects are divided.

These three lists and their jurisdiction is given below:

Union List. Union list is a list of 97 (presently 100) subjects on which the Central government can make laws. Union list includes the subjects of national importance like defence, finance, foreign affairs, post and telegraph, banking, etc. Only the Central government can take decisions regarding these matters.
State List. State list is a list of 66 (presently 61) subjects on which state government can make laws, Central government has nothing to do with it. Matters of local importance like police, agriculture, irrigation, commerce trade, etc. are included in it. State governments alone can make laws on the subjects given in this list.
Concurrent list. The concurrent list is a list of 47 (presently 52) subjects that are of common interest for both central and state governments. Issues like forests, education, trade unions, etc. are included in it. Both Central and state governments can make laws on these issues. But if there will be any clash of laws then the laws made by the Central government will prevail. In this way, powers are divided into Central and state governments in the Indian federal system.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Parliamentary Democracy

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Parliamentary Democracy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Parliamentary Democracy

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB India’s Parliamentary Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_________ appoints the judges of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
The President.

Question 2.
The President of India exercises all his powers only on the advice of _________
Answer:
Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which is the final authority for making laws in India?
(i) The Cabinet
(ii) The Parliament
(iii) The Lok Sabha
(iv) The President.
Answer:
(ii) The Parliament.

Question 2.
Who chairs the cabinet meetings?
(i) The President
(ii) The Governor
(iii) The Prime Minister
(iv) The Party President.
Answer:
(iii) The Prime Minister

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) statements :

Question 1.
The Prime Minister is the Constitutional Head of our country.
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Indian Parliament comprises the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In India which form of the government has been adopted in centre and states?
Answer:
In India parliamentary form of government has been adopted at central and state level.

Question 2.
In parliamentary system, who is the real executive of the country?
Answer:
Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Who is nominal executive in India?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive in India.

Question 4.
Who is included in the electoral college for the Indian President?
Answer:
The elected members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha (M.P.’s) and State Legislative Assemblies (including Delhi and Puducherry.)

Question 5.
Name any two features of the Parliamentary system.
Answer:

In the Parliamentary system, there is a nominal head of the country.
After elections whichever party gets clear cut majority in Parliament (Lok Sabha) forms the government.

Question 6.
What is called the lower house of the Parliament?
Answer:
Lok Sabha is called the lower house of the Parliament.

Question 7.
How many members can be nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
12 members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha.

Question 8.
What is the tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha members are elected for six years but one third retire after every two years.

Question 9.
What is the name of the Head of the State in Canada and Australia?
Answer:
Governor General is the Head of State in Canada and Australia.

Question 10.
Who makes an oath to the Prime Minister and other ministers?
Answer:
The President makes an oath to the Prime Minister and other ministers.

Question 11.
Who presides over the meetings of the cabinet?
Answer:
Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the cabinet.

Question 12.
Give the names of two forms of Govt; on the basis of relationship between executive and legislative.
Answer:

Parliamentary Govt.: In this Council of Ministers is responsible to Legislature for its actions.
Presidential form of Govt.: In this executive cannot be removed by Legislature.

Question 13.
From which country Parliamentary system in India has been taken?
Answer:
Parliamentary form of Government is taken from the Constitution of England.

Question 14.
What is the name of the lower and upper house of Parliament in England?
Answer:

Lower House-House of Commons.
Upper House-House of Lords.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is the Prime Minister elected?
Answer:
After the general elections of Lok Sabha whichever party or group gets majority, elects its leader who is called by the President to form the government. The President appoints him the Prime Minister and on his advice he also appoints the Council of Ministers.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of the collective responsibility of the ministers?
Answer:

The council of ministers is responsible towards the Parliament or legislature. It means that it does not matter whether any minister is happy with the decision of council of ministers or not, he is required to support the decision in the Parliament.
If the Parliament (Lok Sabha) passes no-confidence motion against any minister, it is considered no confidence against the whole council of ministers. In this case Prime Minister and his council of ministers are bound to resign.
Members of parliament can ask ministers any question regarding their departments.

Question 3.
How does the legislature control over the activity of ministers?
Answer:

The council of ministers is responsible towards the Parliament or legislature. It means that it does not matter whether any minister is happy with the decision of council of ministers or not, he is required to support the decision in the Parliament.
If the Parliament (Lok Sabha) passes no-confidence motion against any minister, it is considered no confidence against the whole council of ministers. In this case Prime Minister and his council of ministers are bound to resign.
Members of parliament can ask ministers any question regarding their departments.

Question 4.
Explain briefly any three duties of the Prime Minister.
Answer:

Prime Minister creates the Council of Ministers.
He distributes different portfolios to different ministers.
He acts as a link between the President and Council of Ministers.
He can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha even before the completion of his term.
He presides over the meetings of Council of Ministers.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the structure of the parliament.
Answer:
The two Houses of the Parliaments are :

Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha.

Term of the Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha is elected for 5 years. But the President can dissolve it earlier too. During emergency due to external aggression or internal insurrection its term can be extended.

Term of the Rajya Sabha: Rajya Sabha is a permanent house. But after every two years one third (l/3rd) of its members retire and new ones are elected in their place. Thus every member is elected for a term of six years.

Question 6.
How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be 250. Out of these 12 members are nominated by the President. The remaining 238 members represent the States and Union Territories. The representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of their Legislative Assemblies and in case of Union Territories are chosen in such a manner as the Parliament may by law determine. At present Rajya Sabha consists of 245 members.

Question 7.
Describe any four powers of the President.
Answer:

The President can Summon, prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
He can address the two Houses of the Parliament jointly or he may address them independently.
He nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and two members to the Lok Sabha.
No bill passed by the Parliament can become an Act without the assent of the President.
He gives approval to many bills passed by the State Legislatures.

Question 8.
Write a note on the structure of the council of ministers.
Answer:
Article 75 of the Constitution says that the President shall appoint the Prime Minister and on his advice, he shall also appoint the Council of Ministers. But he cannot appoint any of the minister of his own. It is the discretionary power of the Prime Minister as to whom he wants to get appointed as minister.

There are three types of ministers.

Cabinet Ministers. They are the most trustworthy ministers and are given independent charge of an important portfolio.
Minister of State. They may or may not be given independent charge of any portfolio or can be asked to assist any cabinet minister.
Deputy Minister. They are not given any independent charge but are asked either to assist any cabinet minister or minister of state.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the structure of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be 250. Out of these 12 members are nominated by the President. The remaining 238 members represent the States and Union Territories. The representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of their Legislative Assemblies and in case of Union Territories are chosen in such a manner as the Parliament may by law determine. At present Rajya Sabha consists of 245 members.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the leadership of Prime Minister in the Parliamentry system.
Answer:
As a leader the Prime Minister has following powers :
(a) Leader of the Cabinet. The Prime Minister is the leader of the Cabinet.

(b) Powers regarding Appointment. He exercises very vast powers of patronage which are the following :

Appointment of Ministers.
Appointment of Ambassadors.
Appointment of Governors.
Appointment of Attorney General.
Appointment of C.A.G.
Appointment of various Commissions and Committees.

To recommend to the President about summoning and proroguing of the Parliament.
To advise the President to dissolve Lok Sabha.
To issue ordinances and propose Legislation.
To make details of skeleton Laws made by the Parliament.
To act as a Leader of the Parliament.

(d) Powers regarding the Party. The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party. He guides the policy formulation of his party.

Pt. Nehru combined in himself the powers of a party chief and the leader of the majority party.

He is the leader of his party.
He popularises his party among the masses.
He cares that the opposition does not have any complaint against him.

(e) Powers as an Advisor. The Prime Minister exercises a good deal of advisory powers :

He is the Chief Advisor of the President.
He exercises practically all the powers of the President.
He serves as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Explain in brief qualifications, election and tenure for the President of India.
Answer:
Election. The President is elected indirectly by an electoral college. Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States (including Delhi and Puducherry) constitute the Electoral College. The voting is held on the basis of proportional representation by the single transferable vote system.

Qualifications :

He should be a citizen of India.
He must have completed the age of 35 years.
He must be qualified to be elected as member of the Lok Sabha.
He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government or local authosrity.

Tenure: The President is elected for a period of five years. The President can be removed from office by impeachment only. He can be impeached for violation of the Constitution. The impeachment charge may be initiated by either House of Parliament. If a resolution is passed by a two-third majority of the total membership of the House then the resolution is sent to the other House. If the other House also passes the resolution by a two-third majority then the President is removed from his office.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the collective and individual responsibility of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Collective Responsibility-Article 75 (3) of the Indian Constitution clearly says that the council of ministers is collectively responsible towards Lok Sabha. Council of Ministers can remain on their post till they have majority in Lok Sabha or they have confidence of Lok Sabha. If the majority of Lok Sabha votes against them, they all collectively will have to resign. Council of Ministers acts as a unit and if no confidence motion is passed against any minister, they all will have to resign. It has been said that the “Council of Ministers swim and sink together.”

Individual Responsibility. If all the ministers are collectively responsible then they also have some individual responsibilities. All the ministers are individually responsible for their departments. If any department is unable to function in a better way, Prime Minister can ask for the resignation of the concerned minister. If he refuses to resign, Prime Minister can get him removed by the President.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide India’s Parliamentary Democracy Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Indian Parliament consists of _________
(a) 1
(b) 2.
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2.

Question 2.
Upper House of the Parliament is known as
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
(a) Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
Lower House of the Parliament is known as
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
(c) Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
Who is the President of India?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Pranav Mukherjee
(c) Pratibha Patil
(d) Ramnath Kovind.
Answer:
(d) Ramnath Kovind.

Question 5.
Who is the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Rahul Gandhi
(d) Pranav Mukherjee.
Answer:
(a) Narendra Modi.

Question 6.
Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) Vice President.
Answer:
(a) President.

Question 7.
Who was elected as the speaker of 17th Lok Sabha in 2019?
(a) Om Birla
(b) Hamid Ansari
(c) Sonia Gandhi
(d) P. Thambi Durai.
Answer:
(a) Om Birla.

Question 8.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Vice President.
Answer:
(c) President.

Question 9.
Who protects the fundamental rights of the citizens?
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Speaker
(d) Prime Minister.
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
In India _________ is known as the Head of country.
Answer:
President

Question 2.
After the elections of Lok Sabha in 2014, _________ formed the government.
Answer:
Narendra Modi

Question 3.
In India real powers are in the hands of _________
Answer:
Prime Minister

Question 4.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and _________ are included in Parliament.
Answer:
President

Question 5.
Lok Sabha can have maximum _________ members.
Answer:
552

Question 6.
Rajya Sabha can have maximum _________ members.
Answer:
250

Question 7.
The President can appoint 2 members of,_________ community to Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Anglo-Indian

Question 8.
The age of _________ years is required to become the President of India.
Answer:
35.

True/False:

Question 1.
There is presidential form of govt, in India.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
After the passing of No Confidence Motion, government needs to resign.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
It is not compulsory to be a member of parliament to become a minister.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Lok Sabha is just like house of commons in England.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The President can nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Head of Lok Sabha is known as the Speaker.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
For ordinary bill, prior permission of the President is required.
Answer:
False.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two Houses of Parliament.
Answer:
Lower House is called Lok Sabha and Upper House is called Rajya Sabha.

Question 2.
What constitutes the Indian Parliament?
Answer:
The President,, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
Who is represented by Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha respresents the States.

Question 4.
What is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha? What is the present strength of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha can have maximum of 250 members. Presently it has 245 members.

Question 5.
How many members can the President nominate to Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The President an nominate 12 members Cb Rajya Sabha.

Question 6.
What is the tenure of Rajya Sabha members?
Answer:
6 years but one third members retire after every two years.

Question 7.
Who is the presiding officer of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The Vice President is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Question 8.
Who calls the session of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The President calls the session of Lok Sabha.

Question 9.
Which house of the parliament is more powerful?
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

Question 10.
In which house can an ordinary bill be first introduced?
Answer:
An ordinary bill can be introduced in any of the house.

Question 11.
In which house can a money bill be first introduced?
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

Question 12.
Who is the presiding officer of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Speaker is the presiding officer of Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
What is the term of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are elected for a tenure of 5 years.

Question 14.
Give one power of the parliament.
Answer:
The parliament makes laws for the country.

Question 15.
What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha? What is its present strength?
Answer:
Lok Sabha can have a maximum strength of 552. Presently it is 545.

Question 16.
Give one function of the presiding officer of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
He presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha.

Question 17.
Give a restriction on the supremacy of Parliament.
Answer:
Indian Constitution is written which restricts the supremacy of the Parliament.

Question 18.
Under which conditions, a joint session of Parliament is called?
Answer:
To resolve a dispute between both the houses, a joint session can be called. Question 19. Give one qualification to become the member of Rajya Sabha. Answer:The person must have minimum age of 30 years.

Question 20.
Give one special power of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
It can declare a subject of state list as of national importance and can authorise the parliament to make laws on the subject.

Question 21.
Give one qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The person must have the age of 25 years.

Question 22.
Is Rajya Sabha a nominal house? Give one reason in its favour.
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is not given any power concerning money.

Question 23.
What is the difference between the elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected whereas the members of Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected.

Question 24.
Give one equal power of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
For the passing of an ordinary bill, both the houses have equal power.

Question 25.
Give one special power of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Bypassing no-confidence motion, Lok Sabha can remove the government.

Question 26.
Give one function of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
He regulates the proceedings of the housfe

Question 27.
How is the Speaker of Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:
He is elected by the members within themselves.

Question 28.
Who was elected as the Speaker of 16th Lok Sabha in 2014?
Answer:
Sumitra Mahajan.

Question 29.
Give one difference between money bill and an ordinary bill.
Answer:
An ordinary bill can be introduced in any of the house but money bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.

Question 30.
What is meant by collective responsibility?
Answer:
It means that ministers are collectively responsible towards parliament. If no confidence motion passes against one minister, whole of the council of ministers need to resign.

Question 31.
Which government system is adopted in India?
Answer:
India has adopted parliamentary form of government.

Question 32.
How can the Parliament remove the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
By passing no confidence motion in Lok Sabha.

Question 33.
Who can dissolve Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The President can dissolve Lok Sabha on the advice of Prime Minister.

Question 34.
Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or an ordinary bill?
Answer:
The Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Question 35.
Who are included in the central executive?
Answer:
In the central executive, the President, Vice President, Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are included.

Question 36.
Who elects the President of India?
Answer:
The President is elected by an electoral college.

Question 37.
Who are included in the electoral college?
Answer:
The elected members of parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the elected members of state legislative assemblies (including Delhi and Puducherry).

Question 38.
What is the tenure of President? Can he be elected again?
Answer:
The tenure of President is 5 years and he can be re-elected.

Question 39.
Name the first and present President of India.
Answer:
The first President of India was Dr. Rajendra Prasad and the present President of India is Ramnath Kovind.

Question 40.
Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
The Prime Minister of India is appointed by the President.

Question 41.
Who appoints the minister?
Answer:
The ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister.

Question 42.
What is the tenure of Prime Minister?
Answer:
Prime Minister does not have a definite tenure. His tenure depends upon the majority of Lok Sabha.

Question 43.
What is the salary of the President of India?
Answer:
The Indian President gets ₹ 5 lac per month.

Question 44.
When can the President declare national emergency?
Answer:
The President can declare national emergency in case of war, foreign attack or an armed rebellion.

Question 45.
How many types of emergencies are there?
Answer:
Emergency is of three types.

Question 46.
When can the President issue an ordinance?
Answer:
In case of recess of the Parliament the President can issue an ordinance. Question 47. How many members can the President nominate to Lok Sabha? Answer:The President can nominate two Anglo Indian members to Lok Sabha.

Question 48.
Give one executive power of the President.
Answer:
He appoints the leader of majority party as the Prime Minister of’India.

Question 49.
Give one legislative power of the President.
Answer:
He signs the bills passed by the parliament.

Question 50.
Give one financial power of the President.
Answer:
He gives prior sanction to the money bill before its introduction to Lok Sabha.

Question 51.
Give one feature of the council of ministers.
Answer:
There is a great relation between parliament and the council of ministers.

Question 52.
Give one function of the central council of ministers.
Answer:
It makes internal and external policy of India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the membership of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The maximum membership of Lok Sabha is 552 but presently it is 545. Out of these 545, 543 are the directly elected members and 2 are nominated by the President from Anglo-Indian Community. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250 but presently it is 245. Out of 245 members. 233 are elected by the state legislative assemblies and 12 are nominated by the President.

Question 2.
Give any three functions of the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

He presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha.
He is responsible to maintain peace in the house and also to carry on its smooth functioning.
He permits the members to speak in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
What is the difference between the elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people and every citizen with the age of 18 years or more have the right to vote. One candidate is elected from a parliamentary constituency and whosoever gets maximum votes is declared as the winner. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies. In this way, the members of Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected.

Question 4.
Give three powers of Lok Sabha.
Answer:

By passing no confidence motion, it can remove the government.
Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
In case of any deadlock between both the houses on any ordinary bill, a joint session of parliament is called in which Lok Sabha’s will prevails due to its more numerical strength.

Question 5.
What are the qualifications of the members of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

He must b§ a citizen of India.
He must have completed 25 years of ago.
He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
He must possess such other qualifications as may he prescribed by the parliament.
No person can be a member of both Houses of Parliament.

Question 6.
What are the qualifications required for the membership of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:

He must be a citizen of India.
He must have completed 30 years of ago.
He must possess such other qualifications as are prescribed by the Parliament.
He should not hold any office of profit under the government of India or any State government.

Question 7.
Write a note on the Speaker.
Answer:
The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. He is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the House ; maintains order in the House and conducts the business of the House in accordance with the rules of the House. The Constitution also provides for the office of the Deputy Speaker.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the supremacy of the Parliament?
Answer:
The meaning of the supermacy of the Parliament is that the ultimate authority of making laws in the country lies in the hands of the Parliament. The bill passed by the Parliament is signed by the President. It makes laws on the subjects of union list, concurrent list, residuary powers and in case of emergency from the state list as well. It takes part in the process of election of the President and Vice President. It can request the President to remove any judge of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. It keeps control over the income and expenditure of the government. It can amend the Constitution. Except this, it keeps control over the government through different methods. So, it is clear that the Parliament is supreme in the country.

Question 9.
What is meant by Parliament? Name its houses and their tenure.
Answer:
The central legislature is known as parliament. It has two houses Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It is the institution which make laws on the subjects of national importance. Laws made by the parliament are implemented in whole of the country.

Tenure of Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha is elected for five years but it can be dissolved by the President (on the advise of P.M.) even before the completion of its term. During emergency, its tenure can be increased.
Tenure of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house which cannot be dissolved in any case. Its members are elected for six years but one third of the total members retire after every two years.

Question 10.
What is meant by No-confidence Motion?
Answer:
No-confidence means that the leader of the House has lost the confidence of the majority of members and is no longer wanted to lead the party and the government. The no-confidence motion is a formal resolution tabled in the houses to see whether the leader enjoys the confidence of the members of the house. If the motion is passed the leader resigns and is replaced by the new incumbent.

Question 11.
Explain the election process of the members of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament. Its member are directly elected by the people. Every Indian citizen with the age of 18 years or more has the right to vote during Lok Sabha election. Few seats in Lok Sabha are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. If the President feels that the Anglo Indian community is not represented in Lok Sabha, he can nominate 2 Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha.

Members of Lok Sabha are elected on the basis of population. For the purpose of elections, whole of the country is divided into equal parts. That’s why larger states send more members to Lok Sabha.

Question 12.
Give financial powers of Lok Sabha.
Answer:

Budget and money bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha can delay a money bill maximum upto 14 days or it will be considered automatically passed.
Money of the country is kept under the control of the Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
Give three powers of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Under the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has been vested with two special and exclusive powers.

They are :

Under Article 249 the Rajya Sabha may declare by resolution, passed by two-third majority of its members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List.
Rajya Sabha is competent to create one or more All India Services if it passes a resolution by two-thirds majority.
Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the proposal for removing the Vice-President.

Question 14.
How is the Indian President elected?
Answer:
The President is elected indirectly by an electoral college. Elected members of both the houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States constitute the Electoral College. The voting is held on the basis of proportional representation by the single transferable vote system.

Question 15.
The President is the nominal head of the state. How?
Answer:
Whole of the administration runs on the name of the President but he is the nominal head of the country. There is parliamentary form of government in India where the President is given enormous powers but he cannot use them of his own. He can use these powers on the advice of Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers. Actual powers are in the hands of Council of Ministers. The President is the constitutional but nominal head of the country.

Question 16.
Write down the legislative powers of the President.
Answer:

The President can convene, prorogue and dissolve the parliament.
He can address the two Houses of the parliament jointly or he may address them independently.
He nominates 12 persons to the Rajya Sabha and two persons to the Lok Sabha.
No bill passed by the Parliament can become an act without the assent of the President.

Question 17.
Can the President become a dictator?
Answer:
The President cannot become a dictator. Even during the times of emergency, he cannot become a dictator. Its major reason is that the parliamentary system of government is adopted in India in which he is the nominal head. Actually his powers are used by the Prime minister and his council of ministers. If he tries to work according to his wish, he can be removed through £he process of impeachment. He can declare emergency only on the written advice of the cabinet. Parliament can remove emergency only by passing a resolution with simple majority.

Question 18.
Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
Answer:
The President appoints the Prime Minister. He invites the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha and appoints him the Prime Minister. If no single party has a majority, many parties may form a coalition to make a majority and elect a leader. Then the leader of the coalition will be appointed as the Prime Minister.

Question 19.
Mention any two functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
1. Formation of the Council of Ministers. First and important function of the Prime Minister is the formation of the Council of Ministers. He prepares the list of the ministers according to his sweet will. Nobody can be appointed a minister against the wishes of the Prime Minister.

2. Distribution of Portfolios. Another major function of the Prime Minister is to distribute portfolios among the ministers. He decides what department is to be allotted to a particular Minister.

Question 20.
Why it is said that the Prime Minister is at the head of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is at the head of the Council of Ministers because the Council of Ministers has no existence without the Prime Minister. He can make or unmake the Council of Ministers. The resignation or death of the Prime Minister leads to the dissolution of the Council of Ministers.

Question 21.
What is the relationship between the President and the Prime Minister in our country?
Answer:
India has Parliamentary form of government. Therefore, the Prime Minister enjoys a better position than the President. The President is the head of Executive but all of his powers are exercised by the Prime Minister. According to 42nd Amendment it has become binding on the President to accept the Prime Minister’s advice. The Prime Minister submits his list of Ministers to the President and the President appoints them. The Prime Minister keeps the President informed of the proceedings of the cabinet. Thus, he serves as a link between the President and the Cabinet.

Question 22.
Discuss about the types of Ministers.
Answer:
There are three types of ministers.

Cabinet Ministers. They are the most trustworthy ministers and are given independent charge of an important portfolio.
Minister of State. They may or may not be given independent charge of any portfolio or can be asked to assist any cabinet minister.
Deputy Minister. They are not given any independent charge but are asked either to assist any cabinet minister or minister of state.

Question 23.
Give any three functions of the cabinet.
Answer:
Following are the functions of the cabinet :

Making national policy: The most important function of the cabinet is to make internal policy and to formulate the policy of public welfare.
Regulating foreign relations: Cabinet forms the foreign policy and regulates the relations with other countries.
Control over administration: Every department is under the control of a minister and the concerned minister tries to run the administration in a proper way.

Question 24.
Give three features of the Indian cabinet.
Answer:
Following are the features of the Indian cabinet :

Nominal head. The President is the nominal head. Whole of the country’s administration is run on the name of the President but actually, it is run by the cabinet.
Relation between executive and legislature. In parliamentary form of government, council of ministers is the executive and it has close relations with the legislature.
Prime Minister Leader. Indian cabinet works under the guidance of the Prime Minister. Every minister has to accept the order of the Prime Minister or he can be removed.

Question 25.
Can the Prime Minister become a dictator?
Answer:
The Prime Minister cannot become a dictator because :

He is responsible towards the Parliament which can remove him if he tries to do so.
Parliament (Lok Sabha) can remove him by passing a no-confidence motion.
He cannot work against the public opinion.
He is required to care about the opposition party.

Question 26.
Discuss the mutual relations between the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha. He gets the Council of Ministers appointed by the President and distributes them different portfolios. He presides over the meetings of the council of Ministers. If any minister does not work according to the Prime Minister, he can be asked to resign. If any minister refuses to resign, he can dissolve whole of the Council of Ministers and can create it again sans that minister.

Question 27.
Give judicial powers of the President.
Answer:

The President appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
The President has the powers to grant pardon or reduce the sentence awarded to a criminal.
The President has the power to reprieve (temporarily suspend) the sentence.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the powers of the Union Parliament.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the Union Parliament :

Legislative Powers. The Parliament can frame laws on the subjects mentioned in the Union List and Concurrent List. Under certain special circumstances the Parliament gets the right to frame laws on the subjects mentioned in the State List.
Financial Powers. The Parliament controls the finances of the country. The budget is passed by the Parliament.
Executive Power’s. The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are responsible to the Parliament for their actions and policies. The Parliament has the power to remove the Council of Ministers by passing a vote of no-confidence.
Judicial Powers. The Parliament can remove the President from office through impeachment. The Parliament can remove the judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court by passing a resolution to that effect.
Electoral Powers. The elected members of Parliament participate in the election of the President. The Vice President is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament.
Amendment of the Constitution. Under Article 368 .the Parliament can make any amendment in the Constitution but it has no. power to change the basic structure of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Write down the Executive powers of the President.
Answer:
The President is the Chief Executive or Head of the State. According to Art. 53 (1) of the Constitution, the executive powers of the Union have been vested in the President. He may exercise these powers himself or get them exercised through officers subordinate to him.
1. Administration is run in the name of the President. The entire administration of India is conducted in his name and all government decisions are formally announced as his decisions. Laws passed by the Parliament are promulgated in his name.

2. Appointments. (i) He appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister, (ii) He appoints the Attorney General, the Comptroller and the Auditor General. Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission, the Chairman and Members of Joint Public Service Commission, the Election Commission, Finance Commission, the Official Language Commission and Commission for the Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Backward Classes, etc. He also appoints the State Governors, Lt. Governors and Chief Commissioners of the Union Territories. He also sends and receives diplomatic representatives.

3. Military Powers. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces, but the exercise of military powers of the President is regulated by the Parliament. The President cannot declare war or employ forces without the sanction of the Parliament or in anticipation of the sanction by the Parliament.

4. Powers Relating to Foreign Affairs. The President has extensive diplomatic powers. He represents his country in International affairs. He appoints Indian representatives to foreign countries and also receives diplomatic representatives of other states which have been recognised by the Parliament.

5. Power of Direction, Control and Co-ordination. The President has the power of direction, control and co-ordination of the work in the states. He can issue directions to the states for the compliance of union law.

Question 3.
Explain the .legislative powers of the Indian President.
Answer:
Following are the legislative powers of the Indian President provided by Art. 123 of the Constitution.
1. Power to Summon, Prorogue and Dissolve the Parliament. The President can convene, prorogue and dissolve the Parliament. He can order fresh elections to the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. He must call the session of the Parliament within 6 months.

2. Address to the Parliament. He can address the two Houses of the Parliament jointly or he may address them independently. The first session of the Parliament after the General elections is inaugurated by the President. He also addresses the first session of the Parliament every year. In his address the President explains the policy of the Government- to the House.

3. Nominates the Members to the Parliament. He nominates 12 persons to the Rajya Sabha. These persons must have distinguished themselves in the fields of art, literature, science and social service. He can nominate two persons of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if he feels that the community has not got adequate representation.

4. Assent on Bills. No bill passed by the Parliament can become an Act without the assent of the President. He can reject an ordinary bill only once and when passed for the second time, the President is to give his assent.

5. Approval to Money Bills. He gives approval to money bills passed by the State Legislatures.

6. Joint Session. He can call a joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament. If the two Chambers differ on an ordinary bill, only then he calls a joint session.

7. Power to Send Messages. He can send messages to any House from time to time.

8. Ordinance. During the intervals of the session of the Parliament, he can issue ordinances. These ordinances have the force of laws.

Question 4.
Discuss the Legislative’s control over the Executive.
Answer:
Our country has adopted the parliamentary form of government. Parliament can keep control over the Council of Ministers in many ways. It can force the Council of Ministers to work in its way.

Questions: The members of parliament can ask any question to any minister regarding the functioning of their department and it is must for the concerned ministers to reply.
Discussion: Parliament can discuss the presidential address to the parliament and can criticise all of its policies.
Adjournment Motion: To discuss any serious problem, members of parliament can raise adjournment motion. Its aim is to stop the normal preceedings and firstly discuss that problem. In this government can be criticised.
To remove the Council of Ministers: If parliament is not satisfied with the working of the council of ministers, it can remove whole of the council by passing no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha.

Question 5.
Give a few features of the parliamentary form of government.
Answer:
The parliamentary form of government is a system in which the council of ministers is responsible towards the parliament for its political policies and functions. The Head of the state is the nomical head and is not responsible towards parliament.

Features:

Nominal Executive. In a parliamentary system, the head of the country i.e. the President is the nominal head because real powers lie in the hands of the prime minister and his council of ministers.
Clear Majority. In parliamentary form, the government is run by the political party which gets the majority in elections. This party elects its leader who is called by the President to form the government.
Compulsory Membership of Parliament. To become a minister, it is a must for a person to be a member of parliament. If anyone is not a member of parliament, on the advice of the Prime Minister, the President can make him a minister. But it is a must for him to acquire the membership within 6 months or he will have to leave his post.
Collective Responsibility. The council of ministers is collectively responsible towards the legislature. They can be asked any question within the parliament. If parliament (Lok Sabha) passes a no-confidence motion against them, they can be removed from their post.
The leadership of the Prime Minister. In the parliamentary form of government, Prime Minister is the leader of the council of ministers. The President appoints different ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. Prime Minister looks after the functioning of different ministers and tries to maintain balance among them.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 10 Fishery

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Fishery Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Name two exotic breeds of fish.
Answer:
Common carp, silver carp.

Question 2.
What should be the depth of the pond?
Answer:
It should be 6-7 feet.

Question 3.
What should be the pH of water for fish rearing?
Answer:
pH should be between 7-9.

Question 4.
Which fertilizer can be used in the new fish pond?
Answer:
Urea and single superphosphate.

Question 5.
How many fingerlings can be put in one acre?
Answer:
4000 fingerlings per acre.

Question 6.
What is the source of fish seed?
Answer:
College of fishery, GADVASU, Ludhiana or Government hatcheries.

Question 7.
Name two Indian breeds of fish.
Answer:
Katla, Rohu.

Question 8.
What type of soil is required for fish pond?
Answer:
Clayey soil.

Question 9.
What should be the size of commercial fish pond?
Answer:
1 to 5 acre and 6-7 feet deep.

Question 10.
Name one carnivorous fish.
Answer:
Malhi, Singhara.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Name Indian and Exotic breeds of fish.
Answer:
Indian breeds of fish are – Katla, Rohu, Mrigal. Exotic carps, Common carp, Silver carp, Grass carp.

Question 2.
What do you know about design of fish pond?
Answer:
For commercial fishery, pond should have an area of.l to 5 acre and it should be 6-7 feet deep. Base of the pond should be plain but sides should be sloppy. There should be proper arrangement of inflow and outflow of water. Put values on inlet and outlet pipes for this purpose. Make pond in February and put fish seed in it in March-April. There should be a one Kanal nursery pond also.

Question 3.
Explain about the quality of water used for fishery.
Answer:
Water used in the pond for fishery should have pH between 7-9. Oxygen dissolved in water and pH of water plays an important role in the survival and growth of fish. If pH of pond water is below 7 then add ground calcium carbonate (80-100 kg per acre) in the pond water. Dissolve this calcium carbonate in water outside the pond and when it is cool then add this in pond.

Question 4.
What should be the ratio of different fish breeds in a pond?
Answer:
Seed fish can be put in the following ratio :

Katla 20%, Common carp 20%, Mrigal 10%, Rohu 30%, Silver carp 10%, and Grass carp 10%.
Katla 25%, Mrigal 20%, Rohu 35% and Common carp 20%.

Question 5.
How weeds can be removed from fish pond?
Answer:
Water level should be kept upto 5-6 feet in old ponds to check the growth of weeds. Following methods can be used to control weeds :

Physical approach. Remove all the water from the pond and remove all the weeds using barbed wire.
Biological approach. Grass carp and silver carp can control many types of weeds.

Question 6.
Write precautions for using canal water in the pond.
Answer:
If the pond is to be filled with canal water then wire mesh should be put at the mouth of the inlet pipe. This prevents the entry of carnivorous fish in the fish pond.

Question 7.
Write about enemies of fish in pond.
Answer:

Carnivorous fish – Malhi, Singhara.
Weed fish – Shisha, Puthi Kanghi.
Frogs and Snakes.

Question 8.
How feeding is done in pond?
Answer:
There should be’25% protein in fish feed. Finely ground the feed and soak it in water for 3-4 hours. Make bolls of this feed. Put these in baskets, trays or plastic bags having holes. Keep these at 2-3 feet below the water level.

Question 9.
Write about health management of fish.
Answer:
Dip the fish seed (fingerlings) in solution of potassium permanganate (100 gram per litre) before putting them into the pond. This helps in preventing the diseases. Monitor the fish stock for health related problems at fortnight interval.

Question 10.
From where fishery training can be obtained?
Answer:
It can be obtained from District Fishery Officer, Deputy Director, GADVASU Ludhiana, Deputy Director, Krishi Vigyan Kendra.

Question 1.
Write a note on selection of site, design and digging of fish pond.
Answer:
Selection of site for pond. Select a land which have clayey soil for making pond. Clayey soil prevents the seepage of water. Do puddling in light soil. Water source should be near the pond so that it can be filled easily. If canal water is to be used put wire mesh at the mouth of inlet pipe to prevent entry of carnivorous fish into the pond. Design and digging. For commercial fishery, pond should have an area of 1 to 5 acre and it should be 6-7 feet deep. Base of the pond should be plain but sides should be sloppy. There should be proper arrangement of inflow and outflow of water. Put valves on inlet and outlet pipes for this purpose. Make pond in February and put fish seed in it in March-April. There should be a one Kanal nursery pond also.

Question 2.
How old ponds can be used for fish rearing?
Answer:
Water level should be kept upto 5-6 feet in old ponds to check the growth of weeds. Following methods can be used to control weeds :
1. Physical approach. Remove all the water from the pond and remove all the weeds using barbed wire.
2. Biological approach. Grass carp and silver carp can control many types of weeds.
Control of enemies of fish. Old pond may contain following enemies of fish

Carnivorous fish – Malhi, Singhara.
Weed fish – Shisha, puthi Kanghi.
Frogs and Snakes.

Remove these by using the net and kill the snakes carefully.

Question 3.
How weeds can be removed from old ponds?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 4.
What type of manures and fertilizers are used in fish ponds?
Answer:
Plankton is natural food for fish. To maintain regular supply of plankton in the newly constructed pond. Put farmyard manure, biogas slurry, poultry manure, urea and single superphosphate. Always add fertilizers before 15 days of adding fish seed in the pond. Rate of adding fertilizer in the old pond depends upon the quality of water and production of plankton in it.

Question 5.
What is the role of Government Department of Fishery and Veterinary University in fishery development?
Answer:
Before starting the occupation of fishery get training from Fishery Department, Punjab. Department arranges five day training for this purpose. One can get training from District Fishery Officer, Deputy Director, GADVASU, Ludhiana or from Krishi Vigyan Kendra.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
When does a fish become marketable?
Answer:
When it becomes 500 gram.

Question 2.
Name a weed fish.
Answer:
Puthi Kanghi.

Question 3.
What is natural food for fish?
Answer:
Plankton.

Question 4.
What should be the depth of pond?
Answer:
6-7 feet.

Question 5.
What types of soil should be selected for making pond for fishery?
Answer:
Clayey soil.

Question 6.
Why do we select clayey soil for pond?
Answer:
Because this type of soil is suitable to hold water for a longer time and seepage is less in it.

Question 7.
In which month pond should be made?
Answer:
In the month of February.

Question 8.
What type of carps can eat weeds?
Answer:
Common carp, silver carp.

Question 9.
Name weed fish.
Answer:
Shisha, Puthi Kanghi.

Question 10.
Carnivorous fish are
Answer:
Singhara, Malta.

Question 11.
If pH of water is less than 7 what should we add?
Answer:
We should add ground calcium carbonate 80-100 kg per acre.

Short Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
Write about catching fish and putting fish seed.
Answer:
When fish attains a weight of 500 grams it becomes marketable. Remove such fish from the pond and put same number and breed of fingerlings in the pond by taking these fingerlings from the nursery.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Fishery Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. When is fish ready for marketing?
(a) 500 gram
(b) 50 gram
(c) 10 gram
(d) 20 gram
Answer:
(a) 500 gram

2. Weed fish is :
(a) Katla
(b) Mrigal
(c) Puthi Kangi
(d) Rohu
Answer:
(c) Puthi Kangi

3. Put seed fish at the rate of ……………. per acre.
(a) 4000
(b) 15000
(c) 1000
(d) 500
Answer:
(a) 4000

4. Carnivorus fish is :
(a) Singhara
(b) Malhi
(c) Dola
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

5. pH of water for fish rearing :
(a) 7-9
(b) 2-3
(c) 13-14
(d) 11-12
Answer:
(a) 7-9

True/False:

1. Indian breeds of fish are-Catla, Rohu, Mrigal.
Answer:
True

2. Pond size should be 1-5 acre and it should be 6-7 feet deep.
Answer:
True

3. Keep water level in pond upto 2-3 feet.
Answer:
False

4. There should be 10% protein in fish feed.
Answer:
False

5. One should not get training before starting the occupation of the fishery.
Answer:
False

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Put seed fish of 1-2 inch size at the rate of …………… per acre.
Answer:
4000

2. …………… gram fish is ready for marketing.
Answer:
500

3. Fish farming or fishery is a subsidiary occupation and is more …………… than agriculture.
Answer:
profitable

4. Fish pond should be made in …………… land.
Answer:
clayey

5. pH of the water should be …………… If it is less than 7 use lime water.
Answer:
7-9

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1. Name two breeds of pig.
Answer:
White Yorkshire, Landrace.

Question 2.
How many piglets can be produced by a female pig in a year?
Answer:
20-24 in a year.

Question 3.
How many times does a female pig produce piglets?
Answer:
Twice a year.

Question 4.
How much protein should be in the feed of a dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15%.

Question 5.
What is the weight of rabbits at age of 12 weeks?
Answer:
1 to 1.5 kg in 3 months (12 weeks).

Question 6.
Name the breeds of goat.
Answer:

Indigenous – Beetal, Jamnapari.
Exotic – Saanen, Alpine, Boer.

Question 7.
Name the breeds of sheep.
Answer:
erino, Corridale.

Question 8.
Name the native place of Beetal goat.
Answer:
Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarn taran, and Ferozepur.

Question 9.
Name the native place of Jamnapari breed.
Answer:
Western Uttar Pardesh.

Question 10.
Name the age of castration of male pigglets.
Answer:
At the age of 3-4 weeks.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Explain the difference between indigenous and exotic breeds of pig.
Answer:
Local indigenous breeds of pigs have a poor growth rate and piglets produced are also less in number.
Exotic breeds grow rapidly and also produce more piglets per year.

Question 2. Explain about economic feeding of pigs.
Answer:
Leftover vegetables in the market, hotel, hostel, etc.; restaurant waste, sugarcane, press mud, buttermilk (Lassi), etc. can be given to pigs as feed.

Question 3.
What is the composition of feed of pigs?
Answer:
Piglets should be given 20-22% protein, and roughage should not be more than 5%. Growing pigs should be given 16-18% protein and adults should also be given 2-3 kg green fodder.

Question 4.
Write the qualities of a good goat.
Answer:
Good quality goat is selected on the basis of its lactation milk for 120 days. It should be able to produce first kidding up to the age of 2 years. It should be high yielding and its body should belong. The udder should be large and teats medium-sized pointing forward. It should have soft shiny hair.

Question 5.
Name the wool and meat-type breeds of rabbits.
Answer:

Breeds of rabbit for wool – German Angora, British Angora, Russian Angora.
Breeds of rabbit for meat – Grey Giant, Soviet Chinchilla, White Giant, Newzealand white.

Question 6.
Which type of feed is liked by rabbits?
Answer:
Rabbit is a vegetarian animal. It likes to eat Napier bajra, bajra, cowpea, guinea grass, berseem, green leaves and vegetables etc.

Question 7.
Give a description of nest or box used for rabbit.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animal can be kept in a cage of size 2x2x1 feet.

Question 8.
How many times rabbit produces kitten annually and what is the total number of kittens produced?
Answer:
Rabbit can give birth to 5-7 young ones at one time and can give birth 6-7 times in a year. Thus giving birth to 30-50 young . ones in a year.

Question 9.
What is the wool yield of various breeds of rabbits?
Answer:

Breed of Rabbit	Wool
Russian angora	215 gram
British angora	230 gram
German angora	530 gram

Question 10.
What is the protein content in rabbit feed?
Answer:
Protein should be 12-15% in the feed of a dry female and for a milking female protein should be 16-20% in the feed.

Question 1.
What are the basic points for profitable piggery?
Answer:

Selection of breed.
Select healthy male and female animals.
Providing balanced feed.
Optimum management e.g. for shed, health management against diseases.
A healthy sow should have tight skin, soft hair, bright eyes, strong legs, and 12 teats.
Mating should be done at the age of 8-9 months and when the weight of the sow is about 90 kg.
Get the piglets castrated at the age of 3-4 weeks if they are meant for meat (pork).

Question 2.
Give details of shed for pigs.
Answer:
Shed should be at higher elevation than the ground level. It should not be costly, but it should be comfortable. For a growing pig 8 square feet, for a dry, female 10-12 square feet space is enough. 20 young animals can be reared in 160 square feet space. Ten sows (females pigs) can be kept in one room. There should be guard railing in the room of sows to prevent crushing of newborn piglet under the mother pig. Railing should be 10-12 inch high and should be away from the wall by 10-12 inches.

Question 3.
Write a note on sheep and goat shed.
Answer:
Sheds should be open and airy. The flooring should be damp proof. Length of shed should be in East-West’direction. A goat or sheep needs only 10 square feet of space. Lamb requires 4 square feet space. There should be wall 5-6 feet high all around the shed or barbed wire to prevent stray animals entering into the shed. Plant deciduous shady trees like mulberry, poplar, dharek etc. around the shed.

Question 4.
Give composition of rabbit feed.
Answer:
Feed of Rabbit includes cereals, pulses, green and dry fodder, carrots, cabbage, legumes and kitchen waste. Feed is given in pellet form to reduce respiratory problems and wastage of feed. Dry female should be given 12-15% protein in its feed whereas milking female should be given 16-20% protein in its feed. Rabbit can be given a concentrate which is mixture of wheat, maize, bajra, meat meal, rice polish, ground nut cakes, minerals mixture and common salt etc. Rabbits like to take cowpea, Guinea grass, spinach, green leaves and vegetables, napier bajra, berseem etc. Rabbits consume water also which is 10% of its body weight. Therefore there should be proper arrangement of drinking water.

Question 5.
Give details of cages used for rabbits.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animals can be kept in 2x2x1 feet cages. Weaned kitten are also kept in cages. One cage can be used to keep 20 young animals. Males and females should be kept separately.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about size and colour of White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
Size, medium, colour, white.

Question 2.
Which breed of pig is popular in north India?
Answer:
White Yorkshire.

Question 3.
Landrace breed of pig is Native of which country?
Answer:
Denmark.

Question 4.
When does a healthy female pig come in heat for the first time?
Answer:
At the age of 5-6 months.

Question 5.
How much protein should be present in the feed of growing pigs?
Answer:
16-18%.

Question 6.
How much space is required by a growing pigs?
Answer:
8 square feet.

Question 7.
How much space is required by a non-milking female pig?
Answer:
10-12 sQuestion feet.

Question 8.
What should be the height of railing of the room of female pig?
Answer:
10-12 inch.

Question 9.
Which animal is called poor man’s cow?
Answer:
Goat.

Question 10.
Name Indigenous breeds of goat.
Answer:
Beetal, Jamnapari.

Question 11.
How many days of milk is the basis of selection of a goat?
Answer:
120 days.

Question 12.
What is gestation period for goat/sheep?
Answer:
145-157 days.

Question 13.
What should be the direction of shed?
Answer:
East-West.

Question 14.
How much space is required by sheep or goat?
Answer:
10 square feet.

Question 15.
How much space is required by youngone of sheep or goat (i.e. lamb)?
Answer:
4 square feet.

Question 16.
How many times youngones are produced by goat/ sheep in a year?
Answer:
Three times.

Question 17.
How many times a female rabbit gives birth in a year?
Answer:
6-7 times.

Question 18.
How much is the average age of rabbit?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 19.
Name wool types of Rabbit.
Answer:
Russian Angora, German Angora.

Question 20.
Name meat types of rabbit?
Answer:
Soviet chinchilla, grey giant.

Question 21.
How much protein should be present in feed of dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15 %.

Question 22.
How much protein should be present in feed of milking female rabbit?
Answer:
16-20%.

Question 23.
How much green fodder and feed is eaten by a 6 week old rabbit?
Answer:
100 gram green fodder and 50 gram feed.

Question 24.
At what age wool can be taken for the first time from a rabbit?
Answer:
At the age of 4 months.

Question 25.
How much wool do we get from a rabbit in a year?
Answer:
500-700 gram.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
It is white colored medium-sized breed of pig. It has long body and erected ear.

Question 2.
Write about Landrace breed of pig.
Answer:
It is an exotic breed. Its colour is white, body is long and has drooping ears. It originally belongs to Denmark. Its meat has less fat.

Question 3.
Write about female pig when it comes to heat.
Answer:
Female pig comes in heat at the age of 5-6 months for the first time. But mating should be done when female attains a weight of 90 kg and is of 8-9 months old.

Question 4.
Write about health of female pig (sow).
Answer:
It should be healthy with soft and tight skin. It should have soft hair. Its eyes should be bright. It should have strong legs and 12 teats.

Question 5.
How much space is required by pigs?
Answer:
Growing pigs need 8 square feet space whereas dry female needs 10-12 feet space.

Question 6.
Why is guard railing fixed in the room of sow?
Answer:
This is put to prevent the crushing of the newborn piglets under their mother.

Question 7.
Write about the beetle breed of goat.
Answer:
It is black brownish with white spots on it. its ears are long, drooping and twisted. Its forehead is convex. It has large udder. First kidding occurs at an age of 18 months. It is found in Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarantarn, and Ferozepur.

Question 8.
Write about Jamnapari breed of goat.
Answer:
It is white in color and sometimes light brown. It has a long body and legs are also long. It has brown spots on the head and face. Its ears are long flat and drooping. The nose is convex. It gives a beautiful look and is found in Western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 9.
Write about shearing of wool in the case of rabbits.
Answer:
First-time wool cutting can be done at the age of 4 months. Wool should be at least 2 inches long. At the age of one year, maximum wool yield can be obtained. Annual production from one animal is 500-700 gm of wool.

Question 10.
Write about getting training about the rearing of sheep/goats, rabbits, etc.
Answer:
One can get training from the Deputy Director (Animal husbandry) of the concerned district, Rishi Vigyan Kendra, GADVASU Ludhiana.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details about breeds of goat.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Write details about the breeds of pigs.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. White Yorkshire is breed of :
(a) Hen
(b) Pig
(c) Cow
(d) Sheep
Answer:
(b) Pig

2. Breed of goat is :
(a) Saanen
(b) Boer
(c) Beetal
(d) Marino
Answer:
(d) Marino

3. Males which are for mutton purpose should be castrated at the age of:
(a) 2 month
(b) 10 month
(c) 15 month
(d) 20 month
Answer:
(a) 2 month

4. Female pig can give birth to piglets per farrowing :
(a 25-30
(b) 10-12
(c) 20-25
(d) 30-40
Answer:
(b) 10-12

5. Female rabit can become pregnant at the age of ……………….. for the first time :
(a) 3-4 month
(b) 6-9 month
(c) 15-20 month
(d) 12-13 month
Answer:
(b) 6-9 month

True/False:

1. Reproduction in pigs is very rapid and they also eat less.
Answer:
True

2. Healthy female pig comes in beat at the age of 3-4 months for the first time.
Answer:
False

3. In a shed of 160 square feet, 10 young pigs can be reared.
Answer:
False

4. Indigenous breeds of goat are-Beetal, Jamnapari.
Answer:
True

5. Breeds of sheep are-Marino, Corridale.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Female pig can give birth twice in a year and can produce ……………… piglets per farrowing.
Answer:
10-12

2. Gestation period of sheep and goat is same and is ……………. days.
Answer:
145-157

3. Female rabbit can become pregnant at the age of …………………… months for the first time.
Answer:
6-9

4. Annual wool yield from Russian, British and German Angora is respectively 215, 230, …………… grams.
Answer:
530

5. Average age of rabbit is ………………….. years.
Answer:
5

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Poultry Farming

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 8 Poultry Farming Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 8 Poultry Farming

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Poultry Farming Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
At what age hen starts laying eggs?
Answer:
After 160 days.

Question 2.
Name two breeds of meat-type poultry.
Answer:
IBL-80 Broiler and White Plymouth Rock.

Question 3.
What is the average egg weight?
Answer:
55 gram.

Question 4.
Which hen gives white eggs?
Answer:
White Leghorn.

Question 5.
How many eggs are produced by Rhode Island Red annually?
Answer:
180 eggs.

Question 6.
Which gas is produced in poultry litter?
Answer:
Ammonia.

Question 7.
Which device is used to give heat to chicks?
Answer:
Brooder.

Question 8.
What is the height of the poultry shed?
Answer:
10 feet.

Question 9.
What is the size of the cage for two birds?
Answer:
15 inches long and 12 inches wide.

Question 10.
Whether feed consumption increases or decreases in the winter season?
Answer:
Increases.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What is meant by poultry?
Answer:
The meaning of poultry is the rearing of birds (all types) to fulfill the economical needs of human beings. It includes chicken, turkey, ducks, geese, Japanese quails, emu, etc.

Question 2.
Give details of local desi breeds of layers.
Answer:
Breeds of the hen.

Sutlej Layer: Punjab Layer-1 and Punjab Layer-2 are two types of this breed. It lays 255-265 eggs annually. The average weight of one egg is 55 grams.
IBL-80 Broiler: It is a breed of hen which is reared for meat purposes. It weighs 1350-1450 grams at the age of 6 weeks.

Question 3.
Compare White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red hens.
Answer:

White Leghorn Hen	Rhode Island Red Hen
Its egg color is white.	Its egg color is brown.
It lays 220-250 eggs annually.	It lays 180 eggs annually.
It eats less.	It eats more.
Its meat is not tasty. It is egg giving breed.	It is used for meat purposes.

Question 4.
Which nutrients are required for the growth of birds?
Answer:
Birds require about 40 feed nutrients. These nutrients can be divided into 6 classes i.e. carbohydrates, proteins, fat, minerals, vitamins, and water.

Question 5.
Explain poultry shed.
Answer:
Sheds of hen must be made at a higher elevation and they should be connected with road so that the transport of eggs, feed, and poultry litter is made easy. Rainwater should not collect around the shed.

Question 6.
Explain poultry management in summer.
Answer:
Birds don’t have sweat glands in their body and they have enough feathers so they face difficulty in summers. Plant mulberry trees and grass should be around the shed. Sprinkle water on the roof of the shed as this reduces the temperature of the shed in the summer. Sidewalls shouldn’t be more than 1 to 1.5 feet high. The wire mesh net is a must on the side walls. A thick layer of straw should be spread on the roof of the shed. In extremely hot conditions sprinkle water on the hens with a spray pump. Change the water regularly and increase the number of waterers in the shed.

Question 7.
What is the importance of poultry litter management?
Answer:
Keep the litter dry always. Many diseases are caused by wet litter. Thus ammonia gas is produced which causes difficulties for birds and as well as humans.

Question 8.
Name the breeds reared for meat purposes.
Answer:
IBL-80 Broiler, Rhode Island Red, and White Plymouth Rock are the main breeds of hen which are reared for their meat.

Question 9.
Give details of the IBL-80 breed.
Answer:
This breed is reared for meat purposes. It weighs 1350:1450 grams in six weeks.

Question 10.
How poultry feed is prepared?
Answer:
It contains maize, broken rice, wheat, rice polish, groundnut cake, fish meal, limestone, and common salt, etc. Antibiotics are also added to their poultry feed.

Question 1.
Give details of exotic poultry breeds.
Answer:

White Leghorn: The egg of this breed is white. It lays 220-250 eggs annually. Its meat is not tasty. It is of small size and eats less feed.
Rhode Island Red: Its egg color is red. It lays 180 eggs annually. It eats more and it is reared for its meat.
White Plymouth Rock: It lays 140 eggs annually. Its egg color is brown and its weight is more than 60 grams. Its chick attains a bodyweight of 1 kg at the age of 2 months.

Question 2.
Explain the feed nutrients of poultry.
Answer:
For proper growth and egg production, birds need 40 types of feed nutrients. Deficiency of any nutrient may cause deterioration in health and egg production. These nutrients can be classified into six categories, carbohydrates, protein, fat, minerals, vitamins, and water.

Question 3.
What is the difference between summer and winter management of poultry?
Answer:
Summer management. Birds don’t have sweat glands in their body and they have enough feathers so they face difficulty in summers. Plant mulberry trees and grass should be around the shed. Sprinkle water on the roof of shed as this reduces the temperature of the shed m the summer. Side walls shouldn’t be more than 1 to 1.5 feet high.

Wire mesh net is must on the side walls. A thick layer of straw should be spreaded on the roof of the shed. In extreme hot conditions sprinkle water on the hens with spray pump. Change the water regularly and increase the number of waterers in the shed.

Winter Management. When temperature is below 0°C in winter it has bad effect on birds. If suitable temperature is not maintained in the shed then birds can eat 3-5 kg feed extra. Cover windows with curtains and stir the litter twice a week.

Question 4.
From where poultry training can be attained?
Answer:
Before starting a poultry farm, one should get proper training first. One can contact Deputy Director (Animal husbandary), GADVASU, Ludhiana or Krishi Vigyan Kendra of concerned district for this purpose.

Question 5.
Write a note on management of chicks.
Answer:
Chicks should be purchased from an approved and trusted hatchery. Keep young chicks in a brooder which is a device used to give warmth to the chicks. Keep the chicks in light for 24 hours for the first 6-8 weeks and give them balanced good quality feed.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How many eggs are given by Sutlej Layer in a year?
Answer:
255-265 annually.

Question 2.
What is average body weight of IBL-80 broiler at the age of 6 weeks?
Answer:
1230-1450 gram.

Question 3.
At what age hen starts laying eggs?
Answer:
At the age of 160 days:

Question 4.
What is the weight of egg given by Sutlej layer?
Answer:
Approximately 55 gram.

Question 5.
Write types of Sutlej layer.
Answer:
Punjab layer-1, Punjab layer-2

Question 6.
Give name of breeds of hen found in world?
Answer:
White Leghorn, Rhode Island Red, White Plymouth Rock.

Question 7.
How many eggs are given by White Leghorn?
Answer:
In a year about 220-250 eggs.

Question 8.
What is the colour of eggs given by Rhode island red?
Answer:
These are brown in colour.

Question 9.
How many eggs are given by white plymouth rock?
Answer:
About 140 eggs annually.

Question 10.
How many feed nutrients are required by hens?
Answer:
They need 40 feed nutrients.

Question 11.
In how many classes feed nutrients are divided which are required by hens?
Answer:
Six classes i.e. carbohydrates, proteins, fat, minerals, vitamins and water.

Question 12.
What should be the increase in protein, minerals and vitamins in feed of hen in summer?
Answer:
About 20-30%.

Question 13.
Wet litter leads to production of which gas?
Answer:
It leads to production of ammonia.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which of the birds are reared to fulfil the economical needs of human beings?
Answer:
Chicken, turkey, ducks, geese, emu, Japanese quails etc. are the birds which are reared to fulfil the economical needs of human beings.

Question 2.
Why do birds find it hard to beair hot season of summer?
Answer:
Birds do not have sweat glands but have enough of feathres and thus they find it hard to bear hot season of summer.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Poultry Farming Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Hen start laying eggs in :
(a) 50 days
(b) 160 days
(c) 500 days
(d) 250 days.
Answer:
(b) 160 days

2. Device which is used to keep chicks warm is called :
(a) microwave oven
(b) Brooder
(c) angeethi
(d) Tava
Answer:
(b) Brooder

3. Which gas is produced from little?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Helium
Answer:
(c) Ammonia

4. Colour of egg obtained from Rhode island, red is:
(a) Khaki
(b) White
(c) Black
(d) Orange
Answer:
(a) Khaki

5. Average weight of egg obtained from Sutlej layer is :
(a) 10 gram
(b) 20 gram
(c) 100 gram
(d) 55 gram
Answer:
(d) 55 gram

True/False:

1. ‘Poultry’ is a word that includes all types of birds that are reared to fulfill their economical needs.
Answer:
True

2. Sutlej Layer is a type of breed of hen that gives about 255-265 eggs annually and the weight of the egg is 55 grams. A hen starts laying egg at the age of 160 days.
Answer:
True

3. White Leghorn is an exotic breed that lay 100-200 eggs annually.
Answer:

4. Rhode Island Red gives about 180 eggs annually, egg is of brown colors.
Answer:
True

5. IBL – 80 Broiler is a breed of hen which is reared for meat purpose. At the age of 6 weeks its body weight becomes 1350-1450 gram.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Device which is used to keep chicks warm is called ……………..
Answer:
brooder

2. A Hen needs …………….. foot space.
Answer:
2 sq

3. Birds cannot sweat because they don’t have …………….. in the skin.
Answer:
sweat glands

4. White Plymouth Rock gives …………….. eggs annually and chick weight at the age of two months is 1 kg.
Answer:
140

5. Hens require about …………….. feed nutrients in their feed. Feed is divided into 6 parts i.e. carbohydrates, proteins, fat, minerals, vitamins, and water.
Answer:
40

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 7 Milk Products and their Marketing

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 7 Milk Products and their Marketing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 7 Milk Products and their Marketing

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Milk Products and their Marketing Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
What is the yield of Khoa from cow milk?
Answer:
We can. get 200-gram otKhoa from one-kilogram cow milk.

Question 2.
What is the yield of Khoa from buffalo milk?
Answer:
We can get 250 grams of Khoa from one kilogram of buffalo milk.

Question 3.
What is the yield of Paneer from cow milk?
Answer:
We can get 180 grams of Paneer from one-kilogram cow milk.

Question 4.
What is the yield of Paneer from buffalo milk?
Answer:
We can get 250 grams of Paneer from one-kilogram buffalo milk.

Question 5.
Write the names of fermented milk products.
Answer:
Dahi, Lassi.

Question 6.
What is the fat percentage in cow milk?
Answer:
At least 4%.

Question 7.
What is the solids-not-fat (SNF) percentage in cow milk?
Answer:
8.5% (SNF).

Question 8.
What is the fat percentage in buffalo milk?
Answer:
6% fat.

Question 9.
What is the solids-not-fat (SNF) percentage in buffalo milk?
Answer:
9% S.N.F.

Question 10.
What is the fat percentage of intoned milk?
Answer:
There is 3% of fat available in toned milk.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
What is the importance of milk in the human diet?
Answer:
Milk has high nutritive value and is easily digestible. Milk is a balanced diet and it is very significant amongst the vegetarian population. Nutrients like fat, protein, vitamins, bone-forming minerals are present in milk.

Question 2.
Which are the nutrients present in milk?
Answer:
Milk contains body-building proteins bone-forming minerals like calcium etc., vitamins, proteins, fats, etc. all the nutrients are present in milk.

Question 3.
Which milk products are being prepared on a commercial scale?
Answer:
Khoa, Paneer, Dahi, etc., and many sweets are prepared using Khoa and Paneer. Some other milk products prepared at the commercial level are standardized milk, toned milk, yogurt, skin milk powder, butter, ice cream, etc.

Question 4.
What is the shelf-life of Khoa?
Answer:
Khoa can be preserved for 13 days at room temperature and for two and a half months in a cold store.

Question 5.
How Ghee can be preserved for a long time?
Answer:
Ghee can be stored under sealed pack conditions in lacquered tin containers at 21°C and can be stored for 6-12 months. Moisture content should be low in Ghee.

Question 6.
What is the shelf-life of Paneer?
Answer:
If Paneer is prepared properly, it can be stored in a refrigerator for two weeks. Depending upon the method adopted to prepare Paneer it can be stored for 2-4 days to 5-6 months.

Question 7.
From where the training for the preparation of milk products can be obtained?
Answer:
From Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana, National Dairy Reeeardll Institute, Karnal (Haryana), Guru Angad Dev Vettfdnajy, and Animal Sciences University, Ludhiana.

Question 8.
Give the legal standards of double-toned milk and standardized milk.
Answer:

Milk Type	S.N.F. (%)	Fat (%)
Double Toned Milk	9%	1.5%
Standardized Milk	8.5%	4.5%

Question 9.
How Khoa can be preserved?
Answer:
The Khoa can be preserved by keeping it at low temperature in polythene bags for up to 13 days at room temperature and up to 75 days (two and half months) in cold storage.

Question 10.
Which are the sweets prepared from Khoa?
Answer:
Gulab Jamun, Burfi, Kalakand, Peda, etc. are the sweets that can be prepared from Khoa.

Question 1.
What are the advantages of selling milk products?
Answer:
Raw milk can spoil easily that is why milk products are prepared so that milk can be preserved for a longer time. As compared to milk, the milk products can be sold at higher prices and farmers can get more profit. Milk products are less voluminous than milk and have less weight than milk and the transportation cost is also less. There are no middlemen in marketing milk products and that is why profit is more. Family members also get self-employment at home.

Question 2.
What is a method of Paneer preparation?
Answer:
Some drops of lactic or citric acid are mixed (in natural or chemical form) in boiled hot milk which gets coagulated, whey is drained, and Paneer is obtained. This Paneer is pressed to get a single lump. This is stored in the refrigerator for two weeks.

Question 3.
Write the method of khoa preparation?
Answer:
Milk is heated continuously in a Karahi (Iron Pan) and constantly stirring-cum-scrapping is done by using Khunti (scrapper) till it reaches a semi-solid (doughy) stage. Then the contents of the pan are removed from the fire and worked up to make a solid mass known as Khoa-pat. We can get 200 grams of Khoa from 1 kg cow milk and 250 gram of Khoa from 1 kg of buffalo milk.

Question 4.
What are the legal standards for di£^milks?
Answer:
Following are the legal standards for SiffetenriT 41ks

Cow milk should have 4% fat and 8.5% SNF (SolTds-not-fat)
Buffalo milk should have 6% fat and 9% SNF (Solids-not- fat).
The legal standards for other fluid milk products are as under:
Toned milk should have 3.0% fat and 8.5% SNF.
Double-toned milk should have 1.5% fat and 9.0% SNF.
Standardized milk should have 4.5% fat and 8.5% SNF.

Question 5.
Which are the points to be kept in mind for successful marketing of milk products?
Answer:

We have to adopt hygienic conditions of milk during the processing of milk.
We have to maintain the legal standards of milk.
Farmers can prepare milk products that can be easily prepared and sold in the market.
There should be a proper linkage between farmers (milk producers) and the city market.
Farmers should sell their milk and milk products through cooperative societies to avoid middlemen.
Farmers should adopt the latest and modern techniques for processing milk.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why transportation of milk products is easy?
Answer:
Milk products are less in weight as compared to milk.

Question 2.
For how many days can we preserve Khoa at room temperature?
Answer:
For 13 days.

Question 3.
What is added to boiled hot milk to get Paneer?
Answer:
Citric Acid or lactic acid.

Question 4.
What is the reason for the spoiling of Ghee?
Answer:
Exposure to light, air, and water.

Question 5.
Which of the sweets can be prepared from Paneer?
Answer:
Rasgulla, Chhana murki.

Question 6.
Where is National Dairy Research Institute located?
Answer:
In Karnal (Haryana).

Question 7.
What is the fat percentage present in toned milk?
Answer:
3.0%.

Question 8.
What is the amount of S.N.F. intoned milk?
Answer:
8.5%.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
For whom milk is an essential part of the diet?
Answer:
Pregnant women, children, youngsters, adults, and also patients.

Question 2.
What is the advantage of selling milk products?
Answer:
We get more profit from milk products as compared to milk.

Question 3.
How is 50% of the total milk produced, consumed?
Answer:
50% of the total milk produced is consumed in the making of commonly used milk products.

Question 4.
What are the milk products made from milk?
Answer:
Khoa-based sweets, Chhana sweets, Kheer, Kulfi, Ice-cream, Toned milk, Makhan, etc.

Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
Write methods to prepare and preserve Ghee.
Answer:
Ghee is prepared from heating the Makhan or Cream. We can preserve Ghee by properly packing it. Don’t allow it to expose to light, air, and water and that is why it should be packed in sealed containers. Ghee with high moisture tends to spoil faster.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Milk Products and their Marketing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. We can get ……………. khoa from one kg milk of cow.
(a) 200 gram
(B) 500 gram
(c) 700 gram
(d) 300 gram.
Answer:
(a) 200 gram

2. Fat percentage in cow milk is :
(a) 4%
(b) 50%
(c) y2%
(d) 70%
Answer:
(b) 50%

3. Fat in toned milk is :
(a) 54%
(b) 3%
(c) 10%
(d) 25%.
Answer:
(b) 3%

4. Paneer obtained from one kg of buffalo milk is :
(a) 100 gram
(b) 50 gram
(c) 520 gram
(d) 250 gram
Answer:
(d) 250 gram

5. Percentage of SNF in double toned milk is :
(a) 3%
(b) 1%
(c) 9%
(d) 2%
Answer:
(c) 9%

True/False:

1. Milk products are—Khoa, Paneer (Cheese), Ghee, Dahi (curd), etc.
Answer:
True

2. We can get 200 grams of Khoa and 80 grams of Paneer from one-kilogram cow milk.
Answer:
False

3. Milk has high nutritive value like protein, calcium for bones, and other minerals.
Answer:
True

4. Milk is not a boon to mankind. Milk is ideal and unique food for mankind.
Answer:
False

5. Buffalo milk should have 6% of fat and the value of solid not-fat (S.N.F.) should be 9%.
Answer:
True

Fill in the Blanks:

1. ……………….. institutes play important role in the marketing of milk.
Answer:
Co-operative

2. Types of milk are – Toned milk, double toned milk and ………………..
Answer:
standardized milk

3. We can earn more profit by preparing different milk ………………..
Answer:
products

4. Raw milk can ……………….. easily. Therefore, milk can be processed and preserved for a long time by preparing different milk products.
Answer:
spoil

5. We can get 250 grams of Khoa and ……………….. of Paneer from one kg buffalo milk.
Answer:
250 grams

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Fundamental Rights of Citizen

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 6 Fundamental Rights of Citizen Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Fundamental Rights of Citizen

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Fundamental Rights of Citizen Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Indian Constitution provides fundamental rights to its citizens.
Answer:
Six.

Question 2.
Right to free and compulsory education to children of age group 6-14 is granted under _________ article by _________ constitutional amendment.
Answer:
21 A, 86th.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Child labour is banned under :
(i) Right to freedom
(ii) Right to equality
(iii) Right against exploitation
(iv) Right to constitutional remedies.
Answer:
(iii) Right against exploitation.

Question 2.
A secular state means :
(i) A state that recognises only one religion.
(ii) A state that has no religion.
(iii) A state that has multi religions.
(iv) A state that doesn’t establish any one religion.
Answer:
(ii) A state that has no religion.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) statements :

Question 1.
Rights are those essential conditions of life without which-no one can lead a full happy life.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Secularism means people are free to follow any religion.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which part of the Constitution Fundamental Rights are incorporated?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are incorporated in Part-Ill of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Which power has been conferred on Indian judiciary for the protection of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Indian judiciary is given the power to issue writs for the protection of fundamental rights under Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 3.
Give the name of the bill in which Bal Gangadhar Tilak had demanded some rights for Indians from the British.
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilk asked for the Swaraj Bill.

Question 4.
In which report equal rights for women were demanded from Britishers?
Answer:
Nehru Report.

Question 5.
What is reasonable claim recognised by the society and enforced by the state called?
Answer:
They are called Fundamental Rights.

Question 6.
When and under which amendment the right to property was excluded from the list of fundamental rights?
Answer:
In 1978 through 44th Constitutional Amendment, right to property was excluded from the list of fundamental rights.

Question 7.
Name any two fundamental rights which have been provided to the foreigners also.
Answer:
Right to Freedom, Right to Equality before Law, Right to Freedom of Religion.

Question 8.
Under which article, right to education has been enlisted in the list of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Article 21-A.

Question 9.
From which article to which article fundamental rights have been enlisted (enumerated) in the Constitution?
Answer:
Articles 14-32.

Question 10.
Under which article provision has been made against the evil of untouchability?
Answer:
Article 17.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief ‘Right to Equality’.
Answer:
Right to equality is the base of democracy which is given under Articles 14-18 of the Constitution.

Article 14 says that everyone is equal in front of law.
Article 15 says that there shall be no discrimination with any one on the basis of religion, caste, colour, race, gender etc.
Article 16 says that equal opportunities will be provided in matters of public employment.
Article 17 has abolished untouchability in the country.
Article 18 says that no titles will be provided except military or educational titles.

Question 2.
Write a note on ‘Power of Judicial Review’.
Answer:
Judicial review is the power given to judiciary according to which it can review any law made by the Parliament and state legislative assemblies. If that law is against the basic structure of the Constitution, it can declare that law unconstitutional and illegal (null and void). It can even declare any clause of that law illegal. Courts can declare only that law unconstitutional which comes in front of it in the form of a case.

Question 3.
What provisions have been made in Indian Constitution for freedom of judiciary?
Answer:

The judges of Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President. Hence there is no scope of Executive’s interference.
Judges can only be removed by the Parliament through the process of impeachment which in itself is quite a difficult process.
Except Financial Emergency, the salary of the judges can never be reduced or stopped.
After retirement, judges are given handsome pension.

Question 4.
Explain in brief ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’.
Answer:
Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28). Articles 25-28 deal with the right to freedom of religion, Right to freedom of religion has been guaranteed to all persons residing in India. Art. 25 provides that subject to public order, morality and health, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion.

Art. 28 prohibits imparting of religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out -of State funds.

Question 5.
Which liberties have been given to the Indian citizens under Article 19?
Answer:
Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22). Articles 19-22 of the Constitution guarantee to the citizens Rights of Freedom. Article 19 guarantees six freedoms viz.

Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression;
Right to assemble peacefully and without arms;
Right to form Associations;
Right to move freely throughout the territory of India;
Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
Right to practise any profession. Articles 20 to 22 guarantee personal liberty.

Question 6.
Write a note on Right against Exploitation.
Answer:
The Constitution of India recognises the dignity of the individual and protects him against any form of exploitation either by the State or by the privileged class in the Society. Traffic in human beings (Article 23) i.e. selling and buying of human beings and begar (forced labour) are prohibited. The Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory or mine (Article 24). Children are the future of the country; hence they must be protected against any form of exploitation.

Question 7.
‘How our fundamental rights are fundamental in nature? Explain.
Answer:
There is great importance of the Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution. The Fundamental Rights ensure the fullest physical, mental and moral development of every citizen and provide those basic freedoms and conditions which alone can make the life worth-living. The Fundamental Rights safeguard the individual by putting restriction on the arbitrariness of the Government.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the nature of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Part III of Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental Rights for the Indian citizens.

Following are the main features of Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution.
1. All Citizens are equally entitled to the Fundamental Rigths. The
Constitution declares that rights contained in Part III are to be enjoyed by all the citizens of India. There can be no discrimination.

2. Fundamental Rights are not Absolute. Fundamental rights are not absolute. The Constitution imposes certain restrictions on these rights.

3. Fundamental Rights can be suspended. Fundamental Rights can be restricted or suspended as the circumstances demand.

4. Fundamental Rights are Justiciable. These are justiciable. Art. 32 of the Constitution provides that if state or any other authority encroaches upon the rights of a person, the later can move to the Supreme Court and the High Courts for the enforcement of his rights.

5. No Natural Right is enumerated in the Constitution. The Indian Bill of Rights is not based on the theory of natural rights. Our Fundamental Rights have been specified in the Constitution. A Right which is not incorporated in Part III is not fundamental right.

6. These can be Amended. Fundamental Rights can be amended by the procedure given in Article 368. According to this Article, only Parliament is competent to amend the provisions of the Fundamental Rights with two-third majority of the total membership of the Parliament.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the provisions made under Articles 20-22.
Answer:
The Right to Freedom is regarded as the most fundamental right. Articles 19 to 22 deal with this right. Article 19 provides six freedoms: freedom of speech and expression; freedom of assembly; freedom of association; freedom of movement; freedom of residence and settlement; freedom of profession, occupation, trade or business. These freedoms are not absolute. The guarantee of each of these freedoms is limited by the Constitution.

Personal Liberty. Articles 20-22 aim at protecting the individual’s life and personal liberty.
(a) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law.
(b) No person shall be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law.
(c) No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
(d) The State shall not deny to any person equality before law.
(e) No person can be arrested in an arbitrary manner, nor can he be detained for an indefinite period.
(f) The Constitution also provides some safeguards to persons arrested under the preventive detention law.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the provisions made under Articles 25-28 with reference to the right to freedom of religion.
Answer:

Under Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution, citizens are given freedom of religion. Article 25 gives citizens the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Article 26 gives every one the freedom to manage religious affairs.
Article 26 gives the citizens freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
Article 28 gives the freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions. It also says that [28(1)] no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of state funds.

Question 4.
What do you know about right to constitutional remedies? Explain in brief.
Answer:
Right to Constitutional Remedies is the most significant right mentioned in the Constitution. This right is often described as the most fundamental of all the Fundamental Rights. Because all other rights given under part-III of the Constitution would become meaningless without this right. Our other rights are not only implemented by this right but safeguarded also. That is why many constitutional experts describe this right as the heart and soul of Fundamental Rights.

VII. Match the following:

Question 1.

Activity	Mach Options
(a) Article 15	(i) Freedom to profess any Religion, Freedom to Belief
(b) Article 23	(ii) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Article 32	(iii) Right to Free and Compulsory Education
(d) Article 22	(iv) prohibition of Discrimination
(e) Article 21A	(v) Prevention of Forced Labour and Traffic in Human beings
(f) Article 25	(vi) Rights to Prisoners of Conscience.

Answer:

Activity	Mach Options
(a) Article 15	(iv) prohibition of Discrimination
(b) Article 23	(v) Prevention of Forced Labour and Traffic in Human beings
(c) Article 32	(ii) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Article 22	(vi) Rights to Prisoners of Conscience.
(e) Article 21A	(iii) Right to Free and Compulsory Education
(f) Article 25	(i) Freedom to profess any Religion, Freedom to Belief

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Fundamental Rights of Citizen Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What is required for humans?
(a) Violence
(b) Ignorance
(c) Rights
(d) Unemployment.
Answer:
(c) Rights.

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given in part _________ of the Constitution.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth.
Answer:
(c) Third.

Question 3.
How many fundamental rights are given in the Constitution?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8.
Answer:
(b) 6.

Question 4.
Right to Freedom is given under Articles _________
(a) 14-18
(b) 19-22
(c) 23-24
(d) 25-28.
Answer:
(b) 19-22.

Question 5.
Right to Equality is given under Articles _________
(a) 14-18
(b) 19-22
(c) 23-24
(d) 25-28.
Answer:
(a) 14-18.

Question 6.
Articles _________ give us right against exploitation.
(a) 14-18
(b) 19-22
(c) 23-24
(d) 25-28.
Answer:
(c) 23-24.

Question 7.
Right to freedom of religion is given under Articles _________
(a) 23-24
(b) 25-28
(c) 14-18
(d) 19-22.
Answer:
(b) 25-28.

Question 8.
Right to constitutional remedies is given under Article _________
(a) 32
(b) 31
(c) 30
(d) 29.
Answer:
(a) 32.

Question 9.
Article _________ of the Constitution has abolished untouchability.
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18.
Answer:
(c) 17.

Question 10.
Which type of State is India?
(a) Secular State
(b) Hindu State
(c) Muslim State
(d) Sikh State.
Answer:
(a) Secular.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
In _________ A.D., Bal Gangadhar Tilak asked the British to pass Swaraj Bill.
Answer:
1895

Question 2.
In 1946 A.D _________ supported to give fundamental rights to Indian citizens.
Answer:
cabinet mission

Question 3.
Right to property was made a legal right with _________ constitutional amendment.
Answer:
44th

Question 4.
Right to education is kept under article _________
Answer:
21-A

Question 5.
_________ is abolished with Artick 17.
Answer:
untouchability

Question 6.
Article _________ gives us equality before law.
Answer:
15

Question 7. Right to constitutional remedies is given under article
Answer:
32.

True/False:

Question 1.
Rights create obstacles in life.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are given under Articles 14-32.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Article 15 prohibits any type of discrimination.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Under Article 19, the freedoms are given to the citizens.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
We don’t have freedom to choose occupation.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Article 24 is for the protection of children.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are rights?
Answer:
Humans need certain facilities for their development and such facilities are called rights.

Question 2.
Give one definition of rights.
Answer:
According to Bosanquet, “A right is a claim recognized by the society and enforced by state.”

Question 3.
Give an important fact of rights.
Answer:
Rights are given by society and enforced by state.

Question 4.
Give one feature of rights.
Answer:
Rights are the claims of independence to do any work which one gets from society.

Question 5.
What are legal rights?
Answer:
Legal rights are the rights which are sanctioned by the state and that person is punished who tries to disobey them.

Question 6.
Give two important political rights of citizens.
Answer:

Right to vote
Right to contest elections.

Question 7.
Give meaning of fundamental rights.
Answer:
The legal rights explained in the Constitution are called fundamental rights.

Question 8.
Why are rights necessary for an individual?
Answer:
Because they greatly help in all-round development of an individual.

Question 9.
In which part and articles of the Constitution .fundamental rights are mentioned?
Answer:
In 3rd part and under 12-35 Articles.

Question 10.
How many fundamental rights are given to the Indian citizens?
Answer:
Six fundamental rights (after 44th amendment).

Question 11.
With which fundamental right articles 14-18 are related?
Answer:
Articles 14-18 are related to the right to equality.

Question 12.
Under which articles, right to freedom is given?
Answer:
Right to freedom is given under articles 19-22.

Question 13.
Under which articles, right to freedom of religion is given?
Answer:
Articles 25-28.

Question 14.
Under which articles, the right against exploitation is given?
Answer:
Articles 23-24.

Question 15.
What do you mean by right to constitutional remedies?
Answer:
According to Article 32, if any one’s rights are violated then under this right, one can approach court to get his rights.

Question 16.
Give one feature of fundamental rights.
Answer:
Fundamental rights are justiciable and one can approach court if they are violated.

Question 17.
What do you mean by equality before law?
Answer:
It means that every one is equal in front of law and mo one can be discriminated on any basis.

Question 18.
Which titles can be given to the Indian citizens?
Answer:
Educational and Military titles.

Question 19.
Name any two freedoms given under Article 19.
Answer:

Freedom of speech and expression.
Freedom to form association.

Question 20.
Give one feature of right against exploitation.
Answer:
No one can force any one to do begar and no one can sell ahd purchase humans.

Question 21.
What is meant by right to freedom of religion?
Answer:
People are free to adopt, profess and propagate any religion arid they are free to establish religious institutions.

Question 22.
Name any two fundamental rights which make India a sec ular state.
Answer:

Under right to equality, all the citizens are given equal rights.
All the Indians are free to adopt any religion.

Question 23.
What is meant by cultural and educational right?
Answer:
Minorities are free to protect their language, script and culture and are free to establish educational institutions.

Question 24.
Name any two writs which can be filed in the Supreme Court to implement fundamental rights.
Answer:

Habeas Corpus
Mandamus.

Question 25.
With which constitutional amendment, the right to property was made the legal right?
Answer:
44th constitutional amendment.

Question 26.
Is there any limitation on fundamental rights?
Answer:
Yes, the Constitution has kept certain restrictions on fundamental rights. Parliament can limit them with the constitutional amendment.

Question 27.
What is meant by Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
Habeas Corpus is a Latin word that means “Let us have the body”.

Question 28.
What do you mean by Mandamus?
Answer:
Mandamus is a Latin word which means ‘We command’.

Question 29.
With which Article the Parliament is stopped to restrict fundamental rights?
Answer:
With Article 13, the Parliament is stopped from restricting fundamental rights.

Question 30.
Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during emergency?
Answer:
The right of individual freedom cannot be suspended even during emergency.

Question 31.
With which constitutional amendment the right to education was included in fundamental rights?
Answer:
With 86th constitutional amendment.

Question 32.
Who appoints the chief justice of India and other judges of Supreme Court?
Answer:
They all are appointed by the President.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Rights.
Answer:
Rights are those conditions of social life without which human personality cannot develop. The rights are recognised by the state. According to Bosanquet, “A right is a claim recognised by society and enforced by the state.”

Question 2.
Give two features of rights.
Answer:

Rights are possible only in society: There is no existence of rights out of society and they are not required as well.
Rights are limited: Rights cannot be unlimited and they are restricted powers which are necessary for individual development.

Question 3.
Give two definitions of rights.
Answer:

According to T.H. Green, “Rights are those powers which are necessary for the fulfilment of man’s vocation as a moral being.”
According to Wilde, “A right is a reasonable claim to the freedom in the exercise of certain activities.”

Question 4.
Give types of rights.
Answer:
Rights are of three types: Natural, Moral, and Legal.

Natural Rights: These are the rights which one gets from nature itself.
Moral Rights: Moral rights are based on one’s moral values. Such rights don’t have any legal sanction.
Legal Rights: Legal rights are sanctioned by the state. Law of the state implements such laws.

Legal rights are of four types:

fundamental rights,
social rights,
political rights and
economic rights.

Question 5.
Give two features of the fundamental rights given in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

Detailed rights. Fundamental rights given in. the Constitution are quite wide in scope. Citizens are given 6 fundamental rights and each right is explained in detail.
Right are for all the citizens. Fundamental rights given in the Constitution are for all citizens and no discrimination takes place while providing these rights.

Question 6.
What is meant by fundamental rights?
Answer:
Such legal rights which are given in the Constitution are known as fundamental rights. These are such rights which one gets right away after his birth and which are considered necessary for individual development. Citizens of India, U.S.A., Japan, France and other democratic countries are given fundamental rights.

Question 7.
Explain any two fundamental rights given to the Indian citizens.
Answer:

Equality before Law. Equality before law means that all are equal before law and that the law does not discriminate against any one on the grounds of birth, wealth, caste, creed, religion, etc. Equality before law ensures the rule of law in the country.
Right to Freedom of Religion. Right to Freedom of Religion means that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion.

Question 8.
Write down the names of Fundamental Rights given in our Constitution.
Answer:
Part III of our Constitution mentions the following Fundamental Rights :

Right to Equality
Right to Freedom.
Right against Exploitation.
Right to Freedom of Religion.
Cultural and Educational Rights.
Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 9.
Why was the Right to Property deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
Right to Property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights because the right to property created obstacle in the goal of the achievement of socialist pattern of society. The word ‘Compensation’ was a great stumbling block. The Supreme Court struck down the Anti-Zamindari Laws. Hence by 44th Amendment, Right to Property was deleted.

Question 10.
Mention any two conditions under which ‘Fundamental Rights’ can be restricted.
Answer:

During the proclamation of emergency caused by external aggression or armed rebellion, the President can by order suspend Fundamental Rights and their enforcement in the courts of law.
During emergency caused by internal disturbance, Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended in the disturbed area.

Question 11.
Give any two demerits of the fundamental rights given in the Constitution.
Answer:

Too much restriction. So many restrictions have been kept on the fundamental rights that their importance is reduced. There are so many restrictions on these rights that it is quite difficult for the citizens to understand the facilities given to them.
Lack of economic rights. Fundamental rights are also criticised on the base that no economic right is given in them. But in socialist countries, they are given to the citizens.

Question 12.
Why are rights necessary to the individuals?
Answer:
Rights are necessary to the individuals because man can develop all his mental, physical and spiritual qualities only if he is given certain rights and privileges by the State. Each State gives certain rights to the citizens which are essential for the development of the personality of the individuals. In brief, we can say that rights are essential for all round development of the individuals.

Question 13.
Differentiate between fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy.
Answer:

Fundamental rights are justiciable but directive principles are not. Fundamental rights can be implemented by the courts but not the directive principles.
The objective of fundamental rights is political democracy but the objective of directive principles is economic democracy.
Fundamental rights are the rights of people but directive principles are duties of the state.
Fundamental rights can be restricted but directive principles cannot be restricted.

Question 14.
What provisions are kept under Articles 23 and 24?
Answer:
The Constitution of India recognises the dignity of the individual and protects him against any form of exploitation either by the State or by the privileged class in the Society. Traffic in human beings (i.e.) selling and buying of human beings and begar (forced labour) are prohibited. The Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory or mine. Children are the future of the country ; hence they must be protected against any form of exploitation.

Question 15.
According to the right to constitutional remedies, which orders judiciary can issue?
Answer:
The Supreme Court and High Courts can issue five types of writs under Article 32 of the Constitution.

These writs are:

Writ of Habeas Corpus,
Writ of Mandamus,
Writ of Quo-Warranto,
Writ of Prohibition,
Writ of Certiorari.

Question 16.
Which provisions are kept under Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
1. Article-29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part’thereof having distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have right to conserve the same.

2. Article-30 provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The State shall not in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority.

Question 17.
What is meant by Mandamus?
Answer:
‘Mandamus’ is a Latin word which means ‘We command’. Mandamus is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform an act, which falls within its duty. This writ does not apply to the President and the Governors.

Question 18.
Why are Fundamental Rights enumerated in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are included in the Constitution to uphold the dignity of the individual. The object of enshrining Fundamental Rights in the Constitution is to sustain the proposition that the system of government recognised by the Constitution embodies the concept of limited government (i.e.) a government of laws and not of men. Another very important reason for the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India is to create a climate of trust and confidence in the minds of minorities living in the country.

Question 19.
Explain the idea of equality before law.
Answer:
The meaning of equality before law is that every one is equal in front of law and no one is given special rights. No one is above the law of land. Everyone, irrespective of his/her position, is under law and he can be tried in the court of law.

Law will not discriminate with any one on any basis. Another meaning of equality before law is under normal circumstances, everyone will be treated equally.

Question 20.
Explain the right to freedom of speech and expression.
Answer:
Everyone is given the freedom of speech and expression. Anyone can express his views by giving speech or in writing. Freedom of press, giving speech are the methods of freedom of expression. But if any one will try to raise question mark on the sovereignty or integrity of the country, provoking violence or give speech to provoke the people to work against the state, it is strictly prohibited.

Question 21.
Explain the meaning of Writ of Quo-warranto.
Answer:
The writ of quo-warranto is used to prevent illegal assumption of any public office or usurpation of any public office by anybody. For example, a person of 60 years is appointed to fill a public office whereas the retirement age is 55. Now the appropriate High Court has a right to issue a writ of quo-warranto against that person and declare the office vacant.

Question 22.
Explain the Right to Education.
Answer:
In December, 2002, 86th constitutional amendment was passed and Article 21A was added in the Constitution. Under this Article, right to education was kept. Under this system, arrangements were made that all the children within the age group of 6 to 14 years must have the fundamental right of education. Along with this, arrangements were also made that it is the responsibility a of the parents to provide such opportunities to their children, with which they can get education. Government will also’make arrangements for providing education to the children above 6 years.

Question 23.
What is meant by independence of judiciary?
Answer:
The meaning of independence of judiciary is that the judges must be free, impartial and without any fear or pressure. Judges can only do impartial justice when they are not under any type of pressure. Judiciary must not be kept under legislature and executive and they must not have any right to interfere in the normal functioning of judiciary.

Question 24.
Write a short note on Supreme Court as the protector of Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Constitution makes the Supreme Court the ultimate guardian of Fundamental Rights and liberties of the people. Rights of the people have no meaning if they are not backed and upheld by judiciary. It is both the jurisdiction as well as the responsibility of Supreme Court to issue orders, directions and writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus. Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari, or any of them for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. However, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. State High Courts have also been given similar powers.

Question 25.
What steps have been taken to make independent Judiciary in India?
Answer:

In India method of the appointment of the judges is deviced in such a way that only able persons could become the judges.
The judges of Supreme Court and High Courts are given a very good salary.
The judges are kept in service for a pretty long period.
Legal qualifications have been prescribed to become the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
Judiciary has been given vast powers in India.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Rights? Explain its features.
Answer:
Humans need certain facilities for their development. They get these facilities only in society and such facilities are called rights. In simple words, rights are those facilities and opportunities which are very much necessary for the development of one’s personality. These rights are sanctioned by society. In other words, rights are those facilities with which we get authority to do or not to do any work.

Different authors have defined rights and their definitions are :

According to Green, “Rights are those powers which are necessary for the fulfilment of man’s vocation as a moral being.”
According to Bosanquet, “A right is a claim recognised by the society and enforced by state.”
According to Prof. Laski, “Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek to be himself at his best.”

Features:

Rights are possible only in society.
Rights are sanctioned by society.
Rights are claims of human beings.
Rights are logical and moral.
Rights are not unlimited.
Rights are used in public welfare.
Duties are also attached with rights.

Question 2.
Write an essay on ‘Fundamental Rights’ as incorporated in our Constitution.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights enumerated in the Indian Constitution are the most elaborate in the world. The Constitution of India provides for Fundamental Rights by developing a complete and separate Part (Part III) and classifies them under six categories. Six Fundamental Rights are as follows :
1. Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18.)
The Constitution declares all the citizens of India to be equal in the eyes of law. Law provides equal protection to all. The positive concept of equality is that special privileges of all kinds should be abolished. Untouchability is abolished.

2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22).
Articles 19-22 of the Constitution guarantee to the citizens Rights of Freedom. Article 19 guarantees six freedoms viz.

Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression;
Right to assemble peacefully and without arms;
Right to form Associations;
Right to move freely throughout the territory of India;
Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
Right to practise any profession. Articles 20 to 22 guarantee personal liberty.

3. Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24).
The Constitution of India recognises the dignity of the individual and protects him against any form of exploitation either by the State or by the privileged classes in the society. Art. 23 provides that traffic in human beings and begar (forced labour) and similar other forms of forced labour are prohibited.

Art. 24. prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in any factory, mine or any other hazardous (dangerous) employment.

4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28).
Articles 25-28 deal with the right to freedom of religion, Right to freedom of religion has been guaranteed to all persons residing in India. Art. 25 provides that subject to public order, morality and health, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion.

Art. 28 prohibits imparting of religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.

5. Cultural and Educational Rights. (Articles 29 and 30.)
Under Articles 29 and 30, the Constitution guarantees certain cultural and educational rights. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.

The Constitution protects the interests of the minorities in India. The Constitution provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

6. Right to Constitutional Remedies. (Article 32.)
Art. 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.

Question 3.
Discuss the Right to Equality as given in the Constitution.
Answer:
Right to Equality is the cornerstone of democracy: The Right to Equality is covered mainly by Articles 14-18. The

Right to Equality means :
1. Equality Before Law. Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees all persons equality before law and equal protection of law within the territory of India. There can be no discrimination between one citizen and another on the basis of caste, class, creed, sex or any of them. This ensures the Rule of Law in the country.

2. No Discrimination: Art. 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. The same Article provides that all the citizens shall have access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment, the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, etc.

3. Equality of Opportunity. The Constitution guarantees equality of opportunities for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for or discriminated against, in respect of any employment or office under the State.

4. Abolition of Untouchability. Untouchability has been a bane of the Indian society. Social Justice is impossible to achieve where untouchability is practised in any form. Article 17 abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form is forbidden.

5. Abolition of Titles. Art. 18 provides that no title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State. The Constitution prohibits citizens of India from accepting any title from any foreign country.

Fundamental Rights of Citizen PSEB 9th Class SST Notes

While living in society, people enjoy many facilities such as equality, expression of speech, to move anywhere, to adopt any occupation, to follow any religion etc. Such facilities are called rights.
We can say that the rights are such genuine demands of an individual or group of individuals which are recognized by society and state.
To give citizens a happy life and to maintain dignity of individuals, our Constitution has given us few rights which are known as fundamental rights. These are given in the 3rd part and under Articles 12-35 of the Constitution.
Our rights are quite lengthy and extensive, positive and negative, they are limited but justiceable and they cannot be violated.
Initially the Indian citizens were given seven fundamental rights out of which right to property was deleted in 1978 through 44th constitutional amendment and was made a legal right Consequently this number came down to six.
In 2002, through 86th constitutional amendment, children were given Right to Education (RTE) and it was kept under Article 21 A.
We are given six fundamental rights and these are :
(i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
(ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
(iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
(iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
(v) Cultural and Educational Right (Articles 29-30)
(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedy (Articles 32)
In our country, many provisions are kept to maintain security and independence of judiciary. This is done so that judiciary must give its decisions without any fear.
Our courts (Supreme Court and High Courts) are given the power of judicial review. It means that the judiciary can check any law made by legislature. If it feels that the law made by legislature is against the basic structure of the Constitution, it can declare that law illegal (null and void).
The power of judicial review is given so that the different organs of government must work according to their jurisdiction and according to the spirit of Constitution.
Fundamental Rights are fundamental because they are very much necessary for the all-around development of an individual.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Democracy and Election Politics

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Democracy and Election Politics Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the
Answer:
President.

Question 2.
First Lok Sabha Elections were held in _________
Answer:
1952.

Question 3.
Elected Member of Parliament is known as _________ in India.
Answer:
M.P.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
People’s representatives are
(i) Appointed
(ii) Elected by the people for a specific period
(iii) Permanently elected by the people
(iv) Selected by the President.
Answer:
(ii) Elected by the people for a specific period.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the pillar of Democracy?
(i) Political Parties
(ii) Fair and free elections
(iii) Poverty
(iv) Adult Suffrage.
Answer:
(iii) Poverty.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) Statements :

Question 1.
There is a Multi Party System in India.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The function of Election Commission is to direct, to control and to supervise the election.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the designation of the elected representatives of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
They are called Panch.

Question 2.
What is the designation of the elected representatives of the State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
They are designated as M.L.A.

Question 3.
Give the names of the election methods.
Answer:
Direct elections and Indirect elections.

Question 4.
Name the election method by which President and Vice President of India are elected.
Answer:
They are elected by indirect elections. They are elected by the representatives of the people.

Question 5.
Which institution is responsible for holding elections in India?
Answer:
Election Commission is responsible for holding elections in India.

Question 6.
Enumerate any two features of Indian Electoral System.
Answer:

Elections in India are conducted on the basis of adult franchise.
One candidate is elected from one electoral constituency.

Question 7.
Where can the petition regarding election dispute be filed?
Answer:
Election dispute related petition can be filed in the High Court.

Question 8.
Describe any two functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

Election Commission prepares voters’ list and even changes it from time to time.
Election Commission gives recognition to different political parties.

Question 9.
How many seats are there in Punjab for State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
There are 117 seats in Punjab State Legislative Assembly.

Question 10.
Who conducts the election process in India?
Answer:
The election process in India is conducted by the Election Commission in India. .

Question 11.
Who appoints the election commissioner and deputy election commissioners?
Answer:
They are appointed by the President of India.

Question 12.
What is the tenure of the office of the Chief Election Commissioner and Deputy Election Commissioners? °
Answer:
They are appointed for a period of 6 years or’till they attain the age of 65 years whichever comes earlier.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the significance of election in democratic countries.
Answer:

Without election, democracy is not possible. Without election, rule of the people is neither possible nor desirable.
Without election it is not possible to select the representatives. It is not possible for all the people to sit at one place and select the representatives on the basis of knowledge and education. Hence elections are needed for a democratic system.

Question 2.
Draw the flow chart of the stages of election process.
Answer:

Demarcation of the constituencies
Declaration of date of election
Filing of the nomination form
Withdrawal of nomination form
Election campaign
Closure of canvassing
Polling of votes
Counting of votes
Declaration of results.

Question 3.
What is meant by election campaign?
Answer:
After the last date of the withdrawal of nomination papers, all the candidates are given minimum of 20 days for canvassing. It is called election campaign. During the time of election campaign, all the candidates campaign for themselves to get maximum votes. Political parties and candidates announce their election manifesto to impress the public. Big promises are made with the public. Election campaign comes to an end 48 hours before the beginning of elections.

Question 4.
What do you mean by booth capturing?
Answer:
Enclosure of polling booth by one person or a group, forcing the polling staff to surrender, forcible possession on the polling booth is called booth capturing. According to law if anyone forcibly does so he will get minimum of 6 months of imprisonent and fine and the punishment can be increased upto 2 years. If any government official does so, he will get imprisonment of one year along with fine. This punishment can be increased up to 3 years.

Question 5.
Describe the role of political parties in election.
Answer:
In a train called democracy, political parties act as its wheels without which elections are not possible. We cannot think democracy without political parties. Whichever type of government is there, political parties are always there. It hardly matters whether a dictatorship like North Korea is there or a democratic set up like India, political parties are always there. In India, there is multiparty system. In India, there are 7 National parties and about 58 regional parties. If one counts all the political parties registered with the Election Commission, this number reaches up to 1700.

Question 6.
Name any four National Political Parties.
Answer:

Indian National Congress
Bhartiya Janta Party
Bahujan Samaj Party
Communist Party of India.

Question 7.
Name any four Regional Political Parties.
Answer:

Shiromani Akali Dal (Punjab)
Shiv Sena (Maharashtra)
Aam Aadmi Party (Delhi and Punjab)
Telugu Desham Party (Andhra Pradesh.)

Question 8.
How can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed from his office?
Answer:
The tenure of Chief Election Commissioner is 6 years or age of 65 years, whichever comes earlier but he can be removed even before the completion of his term. If both the houses of Parliament pass a censure motion with two-third majority and send that motion to the President, who can then remove him from his post.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in brief the salient features of Indian Electoral System.
Answer:
The main features of Indian Electoral System are :

Universal Adult Franchise: In India the system of universal adult franchise has been adopted for the election of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than eighteen years of age has the right to exercise his/her vote in election of members of the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies.
Direct Election: The Constitution provides for the system of direct election of the members of the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly of every state by the eligible voters.
Joint Electoral System: The Constitution of India provides for a system of joint electorates. Under the joint electorate system every voter in constituency is entitled to participate in electing representative from the constituency.
Single Member Constituency: The Constitution of India provides for a single member constituency. For this purpose the entire country is divided in 543 contituencies. Belonging voters elect their representatives. But only one representative represents his/her constitutency.

Question 2.
Explain in brief the function of Election Commission.
Answer:

Election Commission supervises, directs and controls the elections. Such elections include elections to Parliament, the legislature of every state and to the offices of the President and Vice-President.
Election Commission prepares electoral rolls and delimitations of constituencies. It also considers the objections raised in this regard. Revision of electoral rolls takes place before every general elections.
Election Commission appoints returning officers and assistant returning officers to conduct the election.
Election Commission allots election symbols to political parties and to the independent candidates.
The Election Commission is responsible to conduct free and fair election.
The Election Commission is authorised to recognise a political party.
The Election Commission fixes the timetable for the election.
The Election Commission prepares a code of conduct for all political parties and candidates and independent candidates who. are contesting election.
All election results are announced by the Election Commissioner.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the stages of Election Process.
Answer:
India is a democratic country. But India has adopted indirect democracy. The administration is run by the representatives of the people, who are elected for a fixed term. In India election procedure is as follows :

Constituencies: The first important task in election is delimitation of constituencies.
List of Voters: First, a temporary list of voters is prepared. If anybody’s name is excluded in the list, he can ask for inclusion of his/her name. But such a request is to by made within a fixed time.
Appointment: Senior and Junior staff for election purposes are appointed and supervised.
Polling Station: In each constitutency polling stations are established and fixed number of voters are directed to cast their votes there.
Filing of the Nomination Papers: After the appointment of the date of election, nomination papers are field in favour of candidate.
Withdrawal of Nomination: Candidates are allowed to withdraw their name from election. But this is to be done befsore the last date for withdrawal.
Scrutiny and Objections: On the fixed date nominations papers are scrutinised and those papers, which are not proper, are rejected and the names of eligible candidates are announced.
Propaganda. With the announcement of election, political parties and independent candidates start propaganda and try to influence the voters.
Polling: On the day of the polling, holiday is declared so that each voter can cast his vote. At polling booth voters are given ballot paper and the voter stamps against the name of the candidate, whom he/she wants to vote. After that the voter puts the ballot paper in the ballot box.
Counting of Votes: On the fixed date, ballot boxes are opened in the presence of the representatives of the candidates and votes are counted. A candidate getting the highest votes is declared elected. If a candidate fails to get one-sixth of the votes then he loses his security also.

Question 4.
Write a note on the importance of Elections.
Answer:
The election system is a political device through which a democratic state creates among its citizens a sense of involvement and participation in public affairs. The importance of election is as under :

Elections give chance to voters to take part in the political affairs of the country.
The election serves as a plebiscite, referendum or a mandate. Elections are the instruments for choosing the leaders and also determining the will of the people. Through election voters approve or reject the policies of the government.
Rosenan uses the term support-building as an all-embracing function of election. Through election legitimacy of the government is established.
Elections provide political stability.
Another important function of the elections is to bring the individual citizen into closer contact with the political system. It gives them the feeling that they are important part of the political system of the country.
Elections provide a means of protection to every voter.
Elections provide education to the voters. In fact, elections are training grounds for the people in the art of government.
Elections serve important functions in the area of political recruitment and training.
Elections are important agencies of political communications between the people and the government.
In a democratic state, elections are the means through which the will of people is expressed. Voters decide who shall govern them. Conflicts are decided by ballots and not by bullets.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Democracy and Election Politics Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
What type of democracy exists in India?
(а) Representative Democracy
(b) Direct Democracy
(c) Monarchical Democracy
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Representative Democracy.

Question 2.
After how many years elections in India are held for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
(a) 2 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 7 years.
Answer:
(c) 5 years.

Question 3.
What is the age to cast vote in India?
(a) 15 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 25 years.
Answer:
(b) 18 years.

Question 4.
Election Commission has members.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(c) 3.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Vice President.
Answer:
(a) President.

Question 6.
How many Lok Sabha elections have been conducted till today?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 16.
Answer:
(d) 16.

Question 7.
When were first elections held in India?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1955.
Answer:
(c) 1952.

Question 8.
When were 16th Lok Sabha elections held in India?
(a) 2006
(b) 2008
(c) 2007
(d) 2014.
Answer:
(d) 2014.

Question 9.
Name the state which used voter’s card for the first time.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Haryana.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_________ are of great importance in a democratic country.
Answer:
Elections

Question 2.
Chief Election Commissioner is appointed for_______ years.
Answer:
Six

Question 3.
Elections of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are held after _________ years.
Answer:
Five

Question 4.
There are _________ national parties in India.
Answer:
Seven

Question 5.
The elected members of Municipalities are known as _________
Answer:
Municipal Councillors

Question 6.
Election Commissioners are appointed by the _________
Answer:
President.

True/False:

Question 1.
Prime Minister can remove Chief Election Commissioner.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Elections are conducted by the government.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Elected members of Lok Sabha are known as M.L.A.S.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The function of amending voters’ list is of the Election Commission.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Election Commission gives sanction to political parties.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which system of government was adopted in India in 1950?
Answer:
Democratic form of government.

Question 2.
Which representative system is adopted in India?
Answer:
Regional Representative System.

Question 3.
After how many years elections for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly are held?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 4.
How many members of Lok Sabha are elected by the people?
Answer:
543.

Question 5.
Give one condition of democratic elections.
Answer:
Every one has the right to cast one vote and value of each vote is same.

Question 6.
Give one demerit of electoral competition.
Answer:
It leads to the creation of factionalism in the constituency.

Question 7.
What do you understand by general election?
Answer:
When election takes place after a fixed term, it is called general election. It is a democratic method used for choosing people’s representatives.

Question 8.
What is mid-term election?
Answer:
When the general election is held before the completion of term, it is called mid-term election.

Question 9.
What is by-election?
Answer:
When election is held to fill a particular seat, it is called by-election.

Question 10.
Give one feature of the Indian election system.
Answer:
Integrated election system is adopted in India.

Question 11.
Who is a voter in India?
Answer:
One who is of the age of 18 years and is registered with the election commission is a voter.

Question 12.
What is meant by voters’ list?
Answer:
The list in which names of voters’ of a constituency are given is known as Voters’ List.

Question 13.
Can Election Commission derecognise any political party?
Answer:
Yes, Election Commission can derecognise any National or regional party if they are unable to fulfil the required conditions.

Question 14.
In which part and Articles of the Constitution, the mention of Election is given?
Answer:
15th part and Articles 324-329A.

Question 15.
How many members does Election Commission have?
Answer:
Election Commission has 3 members-Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

Question 16.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President.

Question 17.
Give the tenure of Election Commissioners.
Answer:
They are appointed for a time period of 6 years.

Question 18.
Give one functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Election Commission conducts elections in the country and prepares voters’ list.

Question 19.
What is the importance of Election Symbol?
Answer:
Many of the Indian voters are illiterate. That’s why, just by looking at election symbol, they can cast their vote to their candidate.

Question 20.
What is meant by Election Petition?
Answer:
If any candidate uses wrong means to win election, opposition parties can file a case in the High Court and this is known as election petition.

Question 21.
Who hears the dispute related petition to election?
Answer:
The petition related to the dispute of election is heard in the High Court or the Supreme Court.

Question 22.
Give one demerit of the Indian election system.
Answer:
Communalism greatly affects the election process which is an obstacle in the way of social progress.

Question 23.
Give one way of bringing reforms in Elections.
Answer:
Those who try to capture booths must be severely punished.

Question 24.
In which year the first elections were held in India?
Answer:
In 1952.

Question 25.
Give one election-related reforms done by the Indian Government.
Answer:
Through 61 constitutional amendment, the age of casting vote was changed from 21 to 18 years.

Question 26.
Which methods are used for election campaigning?
Answer:
Election manifesto, meetings, door to door campaigning etc.

Question 27.
When does election campaign end?
Answer:
48 hours before the election.

Question 28.
Who conducts election in the country?
Answer:
Election Commission.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any three qualities of the Indian voter.
Answer:

He must be the citizen of India.
He must be of the age of 18 years or more.
His name must be in the voters’ list.

Question 2.
Tell something about the nature of elections in India.
Answer:

Due to 16 general elections in the country, election-related consciousness has aroused among the people.
Now people have started taking interest in elections.
Voters have come to know about the policies and programmes of political parties.

Question 3.
Write a short note on election symbols.
Answer:
Election Commission allots symbols to political parties participating in elections. These symbols are identification of political parties. In India maximum voters are illiterate. So by recognising election symbol they choose their favourite party and give vote to that party.

Question 4.
How does the independence of Election Commission affect the functioning of Indian democracy?
Answer:
To conduct elections in the country, the Constitution has arranged for an independent Election Commission. The independence of Election Commission has greatly affected Indian democracy. Its independence has given great contribution in strengthening and making Indian democracy a successful democracy. Due to its independence, it has been able to conduct free and fair 16 Lok Sabha elections. Only due to independent and impartial elections, people have great faith in democracy.

Question 5.
Explain two reforms to change the election process in India.
Answer:
Following reforms are necessary in the Indian election process:

Impartiality: Elections must be conducted in a fair manner. Sitting government must not have any interference in election and it must not use official machinery to win elections.
Expenses: People spend much more money than the fixed amount to win elections. It must be stopped.

Question 6.
What do you ‘mean by the cancellation of election?
Answer:
The meaning of cancellation of election is that if during campaigning, any candidate dies due to some reason, election for that constituency stands cancelled. In 1992, a change was rpade in the People’s Representative Act and it was said that in case of death of any independent candidate, election will not be cancelled.

Question 7.
Explain any two stages of the election process in India.
Answer:
Given below are the two stages of the election process in India :

Electoral Notification: The election process is formally set into motion by a presidential announcement calling upon electors to elect their representatives to the Lok Sabha. At the same time the Election Commission issues notification specifying the timetable for nominations, scrutity, withdrawals and polling.
Filing of Nomination Papers: The Election Commission fixes last date for filing the nomination papers for election. The nomination papers of the candidates are filed with the returning officer appointed by the Election Commission.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give five arguments in favour of adult franchise in India.
Answer:

In democracy, power lies within the hands of the people. That’s why on the basis of equality, every one should have the right to vote.
The impact of laws is same on all the citizens. That’s why all the citizens must have the right to vote.
The right to vote is very much necessary for individual development.
The government elected through adult franchise is more powerful because it is a type of government which is elected through the constitutional means.
Adult franchise encourages political consciousness and people get political education with adult franchise.

Question 2.
Explain different methods of election campaign.
Answer:
As soon as Election Commission issues notification for the date of polling, different political parties and independent candidates start their election campaign within prescribed rules.

The following are the important techniques of election campaign :
1. Election Manifesto. Every main political party and sometimes independent candidates issue Election Manifesto. Election Manifesto is a document which contains the policies and programme of political parties. By comparing the election manifesto of the various political parties voters can understand the views and policies of different parties on different issues.

2. Public Meetings and Processions. Members of different political parties and candidates arrange public meetings and processions by which they try to persuade the voters in their favour through their speeches and personality. For example, Mr. Narender Modi, in his election campaign in 2014 of 45 days, addressed 285 scheduled public meetings, reaching out in person to more than 50 million people.

3. Wall-paintings’, Posters and Big Leaflets etc. Wall-paintings, posters etc. are other important techniques of election-campaign which not only make colourful different walls of cities, but also print the minds of common men.

4. T.V. and Radjo. In the present age, the most sophisticated way of campaigning is to broadcast speeches of leaders of political parties on T.V. and Radio. In 1977, it was started for the first time in India and the system continues till date.
5. Door to Door Canvassing. In this technique the leaders of different political parties go from door to door or area to area canvassing for their candidates.

6. Slogans. It is a very popular and influential technique of election campaign. In 1971, ‘Garibi Hatao’ and in 1980, ‘Indira Lao Desh Bachao’ were very popular slogans of Congress (I).

7. Flags and Banners. Flags and banners are another method of election campaign.

8. Loudspeakers and Gramophones. Different party-workers and candidates arrange different types of vechicles and fit loudspeakers and gramophones on them for noisy canvassing from mohalla to mohalla.

Question 3.
Write five reasons of less people’s participation in elections in India.
Answer:
Indian democracy is the largest democracy in the world. During the 16th Lok Sabha elections in 2014, the number of voters stood at more than 81 crore 40 lakhs. But many voters in India do not cast their vote.

The reasons for less people’s participation are given below :

Illiteracy: A large number of Indian population is illiterate. An illiterate person cannot understand the meaning of voting right and he even hardly knows how to cast his caste to the best candidate.
Poverty: Poor people cannot even think of contesting elections. They don’t even understand the importance of their vote and are even ready to sell their vote.
Unemployment: A lot many individuals are unemployed. They don’t understand the value of their vote and generally sell their vote to the candidate whosoever wish to buy it.
Non-participation in politics: People do not participate in political activities as they consider it a wastage of time.
Election booths situated at far off places: Many a time election booths are situated at far off places and people don’t like to move to such places only to cast their vote.

Question 4.
Explain the composition of the Election Commission.
Answer:
In the Election Commission, there can be a Chief Election Commissioner and few more other members. This number is fixed by the President. In 1989, Congress government appointed two more election commissioners but the government of National Front changed this decision. On 1st October, 1993, two new Election Commissioners, M.S. Gill and G.V.G. Krishnamurthy were appointed and an important step was taken for making it a three member Commission. In December 1993, the Indian Parliament passed a bill and made it a multi member Commission. The Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners (total of 3) are appointed by the President.

Question 5.
Mention main drawbacks in Indian electoral system.
Answer:
Following are the major drawbacks in Indian electoral system :
1. The distortion df Seat-Vote Ratio. The first and foremost defect of the present electoral system is that there is no relationship between the votes secured by a party and its stsrength in the Assembly or the Parliament. The number of seats secured by a particular party is not proportionate to the votes polled in their favour.

2. Money Power. Another important drawback of Indian electoral system is the growing influence of money in elections. The expenses incurred on elections are so huge that parties tend to give ticket to a millionaire. The high cost of electioneering has resulted in corrupt practices.

3. Independent Candidates. Independent candidates are also proving headache for Indian electoral system. These candidates join hands with any particular party according to opportunity.

4. Role of Caste. Right from the selection of a candidate by a party to the election of a legislator by the voters the caste factor plays a key role.

5. Misuse of Public Media. It is being alleged that the Congress was using the governmnt monopoly in radio and television for the party. This thing has gone a long way in helping the party in power by projecting its image. These public media have thus been abused.

6. Importance of Individual Candidates. The existing system of election gives more importance to the individual candidates than the political party. The result is that these important individuals dictate their terms for remaining in the party.

7. Defect in Single Member Constituency System. Election on the basis of single-member constituency system results in tension and bitterness among different sections of the population.

Question 6.
Examine the major suggestions for electoral reforms.
Answer:
Following remedies are suggested to improve the Indian Electoral System.

The present electoral system of single-member constituencies should be replaced by system of proportional representation.
Strict action should be taken against those who indulge in booth capturing and bogus voting.
There should be a provision for recall.
The elections including the polling should be so conducted that the people are in a position to exercise their franchise freely, without intimidation, coercion, interference, undue inducement by political parties and others.
The number of polling booths in a constituency should be increased.
The electoral rolls should be open for additions and deletions every three months after the general revision is completed.
Every effort should be made to check the role of money in elections.
Election petitions should be disposed of expeditiously. ‘
The state must share election expenses.
Ministers and other officials must not misuse the official machinery.
Eligible voters should be given identity cards.
The Election Commission has suggested that election need not be countermanded on the death of any candidate.
Every political party, registered with the Election Commission, should publish its accounts annually.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Physical Education Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When Indian Olympic Association came into existence?
Answer:
In 1927.

Question 2.
Who was the first president of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. Dorab Ji Jotsi.

Question 3.
Who was the first Assistant Secretory of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. J.D. Sondhi.

Question 4.
The Office Bearers of Indian Olympic Association are elected after five years. (Right or Wrong.)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
Write any more work of I.O.A.
Answer:
To organise competition of different games and provide the information to International Olympic Committe.

Question 6.
What do you mean I.O.A.
Answer:
International Olympic Association.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Question 7.
What stands for I.O.C?
Answer:
International Olympic Committee.

Question 8.
Write the name of one Sports Federations of your choice.
Answer:
Basket Ball Federation of India.

Question 9.
Name any two Indian Sport Federations which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:

Indian Hockey Federation.
All India Football Association.

Question 10.
Write any one objective of Indian Olympic Committee.
Answer:
To promote Olympic Movement and patronise Amateur sport.

Question 11.
Where were the first modern Olympic games held?
Answer:
They were held in Athens, Greece in 1981.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about C.K. Naidu Trophy.
Answer:
C.K. Naidu Trophy:
This tournament is organised by the Schools Games Federation of India every year. The trophy is named after a very outstanding and famous cricket player C.K. Naidu. This competition is for school boys and is conducted on knock-out basis. The losing team goes out of the tournament.

Question 2.
What do you know about Ranji Trophy?
Answer:
Ranji Trophy:
A meeting of sports lovers was held at Shimla in 1934 under the presidentship of Sir Sikandar Hyat. A proposal to conduct National Level Cricket Competition was discussed in this meeting. Maharaja Sir Bhupinder Singh of Patiala decided to donate a trophy in the name of Mr. Ranjit Singh, who was very outstanding cricketer, for the national level cricket tournament.

This competition is organised every year by the Cricket Control Board. It is organised on inter-state level on league basis. The winner teams of the states from their zone again play on knock out basis. The state of Maharashtra (Bombay) have won this trophy more than fifteen times. The Railways Sports Board also participate in the tournament.

Question 3.
Write few lines regarding Santosh Trophy.
Answer:
Santosh Trophy:
The king of Kooch Bihar Maharaja Santosh donated a trophy for National Football Competition which became very famous as Santosh Trophy. This tournament is organised by one of the members of Indian Football Association every year. All the different. states of India, Railways and Senior teams participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Bengal has won this trophy many times and Punjab won this championship in 1970 at Jalandhar.

Question 4.
What do you know about Rovers Cup?
Answer:
Rovers Cup:
This Football tournament is organised every year by Rovers Cup Tournament Committee. All good teams from different parts of the country participate in this competition which is organised as knock out cum league basis.

Question 5.
Write regarding Subroto Mukerjee Cup.
Answer:
Subroto Mukerjee Cup:
It is also known as Junior Durand Competition. This tournament is organised to commend the sweet memory of Air Marshall Subroto Mukerjee. This tournament is organised every year in Delhi by Durand Committee. In this tournament upto Sixteen year old players can take part. The very outstanding players of this tournament awarded scholarships by the Govt, of India.

Question 6.
Write a note on Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship)
Answer:
Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship):
Indian Hockey Association organised first National Hockey Championship in 1927. This competition is famous as National Hockey Competition. A citizen of Newzealand named Mooris presented a shield for the winners of National Competition in 1935. This competition was organised after every two years from 1928-1944.

In 1946 the Punjab state won this championship and the shield of this competition was lying with the then secretary of Mr. Bakshish Ali Sheikh. After the partition of India in 1947 this shield remained in Pakistan. After the partition the owners of “The Sports and Pastime” and “The Hindu” and Chennai (Madras) donated a new cup for this competition in the honour of Chief Editor Late Sh. Ranga Swami.

For this reason National Hockey Championship is known as Ranga Swami Cup Tournament. Since 1947, National Hockey Championship has been organised every year. Uttar Pradesh won this championship for first time and Punjab had an honour to win this championship in 1949. This competition was earlier organised on knock out basis but these days it is organised on League cum Knock out basis.

Question 7.
What do you know about Agha Khan Cup?
Answer:
Agha Khan Cup:
Maharaja Agha Khan had donated a cup in 1860 for the first time for the competition. This tournament became famous as Agha Khan Cup after his name. The Charlier Regiment won this cup permanently in 1912. Maharaj Agha Khan donated another cup for the competition. The winning team of this championship is awarded the same cup these days. The Bombay Gymkhana had an honour to win this cup for the first time. The Punjab Police won this Agha Khan cup in 1948. This tournament is organised by the Agha Khan tournament Committee. The most outstanding teams of India participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised as knock out basis.

Question 8.
Write about Bombay Gold Cup or All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition.
Answer:
Bombay Gold Cup:
Bombay state got prepared a Gold Cup worth 10,000/- from its provincial funds and donated it for the competition which became famous as Bombay Gold Cup Tournament. This competition is organised by the Bombay (Now Maharashtra) Hockey Association every year. Lousit Anion Club Bombay won this prestigious cup the first time. Punjab Hawks had an honour to win this cup in 1928. This competition is organised on knock cum league basis.

All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition:
This tournament originated in 1964 in the sacred memory of Late Prime Minister Sh. Jawahar Lal Nehru. In the sacred memory of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru this tournament was named Nehru Hockey Competition. This competition is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams participate in this tournament. Uttar Pradesh had the honour to win the inaugural championship. The prize distribution is performed by the President of India every year in this competition.

Question 9.
Write a note on the following:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition
2. Beigton Cup.
Answer:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition:
Nehru Hockey Tournament Committee organises this Junior Hockey Competition every year in Delhi. In this competition only 14-16 year old players can take part. The outstanding teams of different states participate in this tournament. The Education Dept, of Govt, of India gives scholarship to all outstanding sports persons. The final match of this tournament is played on 14th November on the birthday of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

2. Beigton Cup:
This is the oldest competition of our country which was organised for the first time in 1895. This cup was donated by Legal Advisor Sh. T.D. Beigton of Bengal. For this reason this tournament is known as Beigton Cup Tournament. Naval V.A.C. won this cup on the first occasion, Unfortunately this original cup was stolen from Railway Institute Asansole but Railway Institute has donated another same type of cup for the competition which is awarded to the winners of this tournament even today. This competition is organised every year by the West Bengal Hockey Association on knock out basis. Very outstanding teams take part in this competition. Punjab Police got an opportunity to win this cup in 1966.

Question 10.
What do you know about Durand Cup Competition?
Answer:
Durand Cup:
This cup was donated by the Foreign Secretary of British India Mr. Mortimor Durand in 1895 for the competition of British soldiers. Firstly this competition was played at Shimla. The name of this tournament was Shimla Tournament. This competiton was organised in Delhi after 1950. The Regiment of Black Begh won this cup permanently in 1899.

Afterwards Mr. Mortimor donated another cup for this competition. In this tournament after 1931, civilians teams also started taking part along with military teams. Patiala Tigers got opportunity to participate in this tournament as civilian team. This tournament is organised every year on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams of the country and abroad participate in this tournament.

Question 11.
Write a note on sports competitions in India.
Answer:
Everybody possesses a spirit of competition. This spirit inspires him to take steps forward for his progress in his life. This spirit also helps him to get honours in his life. The competitions were held in Ancient India, some of which were in very bad taste. In combat a player used to kill his opponent. But with the passage of time the spirit of brotherhood emerged in sports competitions. The competition satisfied the emotions of person these days. In these competitions he can get skill and become experts.

He become successful in his best performance in the field of sports. These competitions not only provide recreation but also make him healthy. In Ancient times. Horse Riding, Archery, Javelin throwing and wrestling were most popular activities. The competition of these events were organised. With the passage of time and due to the Britishers contact with Indians the game of Hockey, Foot Ball and Cricket became popular and national level competition of these games are organised these days.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in detail about Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Athens in 1896. Mr. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olymplic games. India took part in Olympic in 1900. The Indian Olympic Association. The Indian Olympic Association was founded in 1927. It came into existence with the efforts of Sh. A.G. Neohren and Mr. H.C. Buck. Its first President was Mr. Dorabji Tata. Mr. G.D. Sondhi was its Assistant Secretary. This Association has been working since 1927, and is affiliated to International Olympic Association.

Selection of Office Bearers:
The office bearers of this Association are selected for four years.,Nobody can hold a post for more than eight years. In other words, nobody can participate in the election for more than two terms. National Sports Federations and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective International Sports Federations. The National Federations have state-level bodies in their respective games such as State Olympic Association, etc. They control the organization of tournaments in states.

Working:
Its office bearers are elected every fourth year.
The following are the members of its Executive Council:

President
Seven Vice-Presidents
One General Secretary
Two Assistant Secretaries
One Honorary Treasurer
Five members are elected from among the representatives of State Olympic Associations.
Nine members are elected from among the representatives of National Federation/Associations and Service Sports Control Board.

The members of this association are elected for four years. No office bearer can hold his post for more than two consecutive terms or eight years.

Functions of Indian Olympic Association:

To organise Amateur Sport competition in India and conform them to the international Olympic Committee.
To make plans. To make short term and long term plans with the help and co-operation of State Olympic Association for non professional players.
To use Olympic Flag and the motto on behalf of India and settle all issues regarding dispute of any state Olympic Association and follow the Olympic chart.
To establish different state Olympic Associations in all states and supervise their expenditure.
To allow All Associations of different games to participate in international competitions and give financial assistance for these competitions.
This committee insists that every year Olympic week must be celebrated in the month of August. The Olympic movement and its Philosophy must be popularised among Indians.

Question 2.
Describe the main Objectives of Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Objectives:
This Association has been constituted with the following objectives in view:
1. For the progress of the Olympic Movement and development of Amateur Games.

2. For the encouragement and promotion of physical, moral and cultural education of the youth in order to make them good and healthy citizens of high character.

3. For enforcing all rules formulated by International Olympic Association.

4. To protect and enforce the right of the use of Olympic flag and insignia only by the association. To ensure that both remain confined to Olympic games.

5. To function fully like a government organization, and take hold of all the matters pertaining to the Olympic games in the country.

6. To apprise the countrymen with the value and importance of Amateur games.

7. To control all Indian sports teams and their organization with the co-operation of Indian Sports Federations and Associations the teams which fall under International Olympic Committee and which participate in Olympic games and such other games.

8. To enforce rules with the co-operation of national sports federations, and associations.

9. To maintain the high ideals of sports and promote the interest of the people in Olympic games and those games which are under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

10.To control all matters relating to India’s Participation in the Olympic games and those games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

11.To arrange with the co-operation of national sports federations and associations economic assistance, transportation, care and welfare of those Indian teams which take part in the Olympic games and other games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

12. It certifies Indian players participating in international competitions as regards to their amateur level.

13. It promotes the people’s interest in Olympic games, and towards this objective it forms Olympic Association in each state and a National Amateur Sports Federation.

14. It acts as a mediator between National Sports Federation and Indian Govt, for financial assistance.

15. It affiliates the state-level Olympic Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation. The state level Olympic

16. Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation send their annual reports to the International Olympic Association.

17. It initiates disciplinary action against that Federation that brings dishonour through some improper deed.

18. It will do anything to promote Amateur Sports and games.

Question 3.
What do you know about Olympic Chart?
Answer:
Olympic Chart:
All sports competitions at the national and international levels are organized under the supervision of National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association. There is no discrimination of caste, colour, and creed, etc. in it. But the Olympic Chart is silent over the question of governmental intervention in case National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association function in a way as to hurt the interests of sports in the country.

But the members of the International Olympic Committee have time and again said that the government which provides funds to various sports organization should remain vigilant as to how these funds are being utilized. The government can supervise the functioning of all sports bodies. The International Federation seeks the views of the government when National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to perform their duties, or when opposite Federations come into being.

The government of the country in which international games such as Asian Games are being held holds such responsibility. The government should provide adequate financial help to federations so that sports and games may be developed in the country. It should not remain a silent spectator if National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to discharge their duties properly, such as in the fair selection of teams and their training. Keeping in view these points, the government has framed certain guidelines for these sports bodies, but it is pity that many a time these guidelines are totally ignored.

Question 4.
Describe the functions of All Indian Sports Federations or State Sports Associations.
Answer:
All Indian Sports Federation and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective international sports Federation. All sports Federations have established their State Associations in all states of India just like state Olympic Association.

Functions:
1. To Conduct Competitions: To conduct senior and juniors sports competitions every year at district, state and national levels.

2. Planning: To frame a One-year and Four-year plans to prepare a national team.

3. To arrange equipment:
To arrange equipment and other essential items to raise the standard of games. If some items are to be imported from abroad, these are to be got through Indian Olympic Association or Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala with the help of Union Education Ministry.

4. Attendance of Selectors: It ensures the attendance of its selectors at the Senior or Junior level competitions at the state or national level.

5. Prepare and Publish List of Probabilities: To prepare and publish national and international probabilities.

6. To appoint National Coach: Each National Federation/ Association will appoint a National Coach.

7. Help in Selection of National Teams:
It will help Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.) to select national teams for international competitions.

8. To Frame Rules of Games: In co-operation with Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala, it frames rules of games.

9. Training of Umpires and Coaches:
It helps Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala and Indian Olympic Association in the training of umpires and coaches.

10. To Prepare a Panel of Selectors: It prepares a panel of selectors purely on merit basis.

11. Selection of Office Bearers:
The selection of its office bearers should be done according to the constitution of the Federation. At the time of selection it should invite one observer each from Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.)

12. Settling Disputes:
If there is some dispute in some Sports Federation, it is referred to I.O.A. or I.I.C.S. Its decision has to be obeyed. If there is some dispute between Indian Olympic Association and National Sports Federation, it is referred to and decided by All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.).

13. Audit of Accounts: It is the responsibility of the Federation to present the audited report of its accounts in time.

Question 5.
Write the names of different Associations of India which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Associations.
Answer:
Federations or Associations Regarding Different Games or Sports. The various Federations or Associations of different games or sports are as follow:

The Indian Hockey Federation, 1925
The All India Football Federation, 1937
The Swimming Federation of India, 1940
The Amateur Athletic Federation of India, 1544
The Wrestling Federation of India, 1948
The Volleyball Federation of India, 1951
The Basketball Federation of India, 1950
The National Rifle Association of India, 1953
The Gymnastic Federation of India, 1951
The Indian Amateur Boxing Federation, 1958
The National Cycle Federation, 1938
The Board of Control for Cricket in India, 1926
The All India Tennis Association, 1920
The Table Tennis Federation of India, 1938
The All India Badminton Association, 1934
The Indian Hand Ball Association, 1969-70
The Archery Association, 1968
The Kabaddi Federation of India, 1951-52
The Indian Polo Association, 1892
The Indian Weight Lifting Federation, 1935
The Indian Billiards Association, 1940
The Indian Squash Racket Association, 1953

In addition to the above Federations and Associations, there are some national level sports bodies which have their own identity-

The Service Sports Control Boards, 1919 (restructured in 1945)
School Games Federation of India, 1954
Inter Varsity Sports Control Board.
The Railway Sports Control Board.
All India Police Sports Council Board.

Similarly, there are associations of different games in different states. They are affiliated to National Sports Federation/Association. Their chief functions are to organise Inter-District sports competitions in their respective states, organize coaching camps, and ensure the participation of state teams in national level competitions.