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PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

January 27, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Textbook Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in 20-25 words:

Question 1.
What were the orders given by Guru Ji to the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji instructed the Sikhs of Punjab in his Hukamnama to consider Banda Bahadur as their leader in their struggle against the Mughals.

Question 2.
Why did Banda Bahadur come to Punjab from the South?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji had appointed Banda Bahadur as the leader of the Sikhs in Punjab. Hence, he came to Punjab from Deccan to undertake military action against the tyrannical Mughals.

Question 3.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Samana?
Answer:
Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji, lived in Samana. The other two executioners of two young Sahibzadas, namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Jalad Bhagal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Due to this reason, Banda Bahadur attacked Samana.

Question 4.
What was the reason for attacking Bhuna village by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
A contingent of Mughal soldiers guarding a Mughal treasury was camping at village Bhuna. Banda Bahadur needed money for his military campaigns. Hence, he attacked the village Bhuna.

Question 5.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Sadhaura?
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. Usman Khan was notorious for commiting atrocities on the Hindus. Usman Khan had also killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the battle of Bhangani.

Question 6.
Why did Banda Bahadur attack Chapparchiri and Sirhind?
Or
What was the reason for attacking Sirhind by Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab. He had also bricked alive the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind. That was why Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri.

Question 7.
What was the cause of the battle of Rahon?
Answer:
The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in arms against Faujdar Shamas Khan. The Sikhs had removed the Mughal officers by force and replaced them by Sikh officers. As a result, the battle of Rahon was fought between the Sikhs and the Mughals.

Question 8.
Wazir Khan was the Subedar of which place? Where did he fight against Banda Bahadur?
Answer:
Wazir Khan was appointed as the Subedar of Sirhind by the Mughals. He fought a battle with Banda Bahadur at Chapparchirri.

Question 9.
Write about the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was arrested along with about one thousand Sikh soldiers in 1715 and taken to Delhi. There, the Mughal tormentors plucked out his flesh with hot iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred.

Question 10.
When and between whom third battle of Panipat fought?
Answer:
Third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761 between Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas. ,

Question 11.
How was the Karorsinghia Misl named?
Answer:
The founder of Karorsinghia Misl was Karor Singh. His Misl was named as Karorsinghia Misl after his name.

Question 12.
Who was Sada Kaur?
Answer:
Sada Kaur was the mother-in-law of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. She belonged to the Kanhaiya Misl. She was a woman of extraordinary courage and ability.

Answer the following questions in 30-50 words:

Question 1.
Describe the meeting of Banda Bahadur and Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
Answer:
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Dass. His childhood name was Lakshman Dass. He was a Bairagi. In 1708, Guru Gobind Singh Ji visited South India. There, Madho Dass happened to meet’Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He was so much impressed by the graceful personality of Guru Sahib that he immediately adopted Guru Sahib as his Guru. Guru Sahib baptized him a Sikh and renamed him Gurbaksh Singh. Guru Sahib sent him to the Punjab* to lead the Sikhs. He became popular as Banda Bahadur in Punjab.

Question 2.
Write a note on the conquest of Samana by Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on October 26, 1709. The cause of the attack on Samana was that the executioner who had martyred Guru Teg Bahadur Ji and bricked the two young Sahibzadas in a wall at Sirhind belonged to Samana. The fight continued in the streets of Samana for many hours. It is said that the Sikhs killed nearly ten thousand Muslims. They also razed to the ground numerous buildings. The families of the executioners were completely liquidated. Banda Bahadur looted a large amount of money from Samana.

Question 3.
Write about the battle of Chapparchiri (Sirhind).
Answer:
The Subedar of Sirhind Wazir Khan had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in Punjab. Secondly, the two young Sahibzadas were bricked alive in a wall on his orders. Banda Bahadur determined to avenge the heinous crimes committed by Wazir Khan. When Banda Bahadur marched towards Sirhind, many people rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, who was an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army along with his thousand soldiers. However, later he deserted the Sikh army. On the other side, Wazir Khan had twenty thousand soldiers at his disposal. On May 22, 1710, a fierce battle took place at Chapparchirri, a place 16 kilometres away from Sirhind. Wazir Khan was slain in the battle. The enemy army became the victim of the swords of Sikhs in large numbers. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

Question 4.
Describe the battle of Gurdas Nangal.
Answer:
The Mughals were highly infuriated by the continuous victories of Banda Bahadur. Finally, in 1715, a large Mughal army attacked Banda’s army. Abdus Samad Khan was in command of that army. The Sikhs fought the Mughal army doggedly. However, they were forced to move to Haveli of Duni Chand at Gurdas Nangal, a place 6 kilometres west of Gurdaspur City. They again entrenched themselves in the mansion (haveli) of Bhai Duni Chand. In order to strengthen the defence of the Haveli, they dug out a moat around the building and filled it with water. In April 1715, the Mughal army landed near the haveli of Duni Chand and besieged it. The Sikhs put up a stiff resistance. The siege continued for eight months during which all the food supplies within the haveli were finished. Thus, compelled by the circumstances, the Sikhs accepted the defeat. Banda Bahadur and his about 1000 soldiers were arrested and taken to Lahore.

Question 5.
Which was the First Misl? Describe it.
Answer:
The Faizalpuria Misl was the first Misl which came into existence. The founder of this Misl was Nawab Kapur Singh. He had first occupied a village Faizalpur near Amritsar and named it Singhpur. It was, therefore, also called the Singpuria Misl.

In 1753, Nawab Kapur Singh died and his nephew Khushal Singh became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. By that time, the influence and dominance of the Sikhs had increased and Faizalpuria Misl extended its sway over a wide area. In 1796, Buddh Singh, son of Khushal Singh, became the chief of the Faizalpuria Misl. He was a brave and capable chief just like his father. In 1819, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexecFFaizalpuria Misl to his kingdom.

Answer the following questions in 100-120 words:

Question 1.
Describe the early conquests of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was a great military commander of his times. The strongest weapons of Banda Bahadur were his intrepidity and the blessings of Guru Gobind Singh Ji. He had come to Delhi on the instructions of Guru Sahib. He sent the Hukamnama of Guru Gobind Singh Ji to the Sikhs of Malwa, Doaba and Majha. Soon after, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. After organising the army with the help of those Sikhs, Banda Bahadur marched towards Punjab to take military action against the tyranny and oppression of the Mughals.

1. Attack on Sonipat. After leaving Delhi for Punjab, he first attacked Sonipat. At that time, only 500 Sikhs had joined him. However, the Faujdar of Sonipat had no courage to face the Sikh army on learning about the stories of their valour. He ran away from the town along with his soldiers.

2. Looting of Royal treasury at Bhuna (Kaithal). After Sonepat, Banda Bahadur reached Kaithal. He received a report that some soldiers were camping at a nearby village Bhuna with the land revenue collections. Banda Bahadur, who was in need of money for his military campaigns, attacked village Bhuna. The Faujdar of Kaithal came forward to fight a battle with him but was badly defeated. Banda Bahadur acquired all the money.

3. Victory of Samana. After Bhuna, Banda Bahadur marched towards Samana. Sayyid Jalaludin, the executioner of Guru Teg Bahadur, lived there. The executioners of two young Sahibzadas, (Sahibzadas Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh) namely, Jalad Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were also inhabitants of Samana. Banda Bahadur attacked Samana on November 26, 1709 and punished them. The fight continued for many hours in the streets of Samana. The Sikh soldiers razed to the ground the imposing buildings of Samana and put nearly ten thousand Muslims to sword. The families of Sayyid Jalaludin, Shasal Beg and Baghal Beg were killed. Banda Bahadur acquired a large booty during the attack. He appointed Bhai Fateh Singh as the administrator of Samana.

4. Victory of Ghurram. One week after the victory of Samana, Banda Bahadur attacked Ghurram. The Pathans of Ghurram offered resistance to the Sikh army. However, they saved their lives by running away. The Sikh army looted a lot of money from Ghurram.

5. Attack on Kapuri. From Ghurram, Banda Bahadur reached Kapuri. The ruler of Kapuri, Qutbudirt was notorious for inflicting atrocities on the Hindus. Banda Bahadur defeated him and put him to death! Banda Bahadur burned down his haveli.

6. Victory of Sadhaura (Qatalgarhi). The ruler of Sadhaura, Usman Khan, was notorious for committing atrocities on the Hindus. He had killed Buddhu Shah for having supported Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the victory of Bhangani. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhora. After defeating Usman Khan, the Sikhs ravaged Sadhora,, town. Some of the Muslims took shelter in the haveli of Buddhu Shah. The Sikh army chopped off their heads. As a result, the place came to be ’known as Quatalgarhi.

7. Victory of Mukhalispur. After Sadhora, Banda Bahadur invaded Mukhalispur and easily occupied it. He changed the name of the fort to Lohgarh. Later, Banda Bahadur made Lohgarh as his capital.

8. Victory of Chapparchirri and Sirhind: The main target of the military expedition of Banda Bahadur was Sirhind where Subedar Wazir Khan lived, who had troubled Guru Gobind Singh Ji throughout his stay in the Punjab and afterwards also. He was also responsible for the martyrdom of two young Sahibzadas. That was why Banda Bahadur wanted to take revenge upon him. When Banda Bahadur approached Sirhind, thousands of Sikhs rallied under his flag. A nephew of Sucha Nand, an employee of Sirhind administration, also joined the invading Sikh army with his one thousand soldiers. Wazir Khan also came forward with his 2000 soldiers. A fierce battle was fought at Chapparchirri (near Sirhind) on 22 May, 1710 A.D. between the two armies. However, some of the Sikhs indulged in looting only and deserted the army during the course of the battle. The nephew of Sucha Nand also ran away from the field. At such a crucial juncture, Banda Bahadur charged forward and encouraged the loyal Sikhs. Finally, he killed Wazir Khan. A large number of Mughal soldiers were slain by the Sikhs. The dead body of Wazir Khan was hanged from a tree. The nose of Sucha Nand was pierced and he was paraded in the town.

9. Attack on Saharanpur and Jalalabad: In the meantime, Banda Bahadur got report that Jalal Khan, the governor of Jalalabad, was committing atrocities on his Hindu subjects. Therefore, he invaded Jalalabad. On his way, he occupied Saharanpur also. However, Banda Bahadur returned without conquering Jalalabad because of heavy rains and he had received an urgent message from the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to come to their help.

10. Control over Jalandhar Doab: The continuous victories of Banda Bahadur had infused a new spirit of courage among the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab. The Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab had risen in revolt against the Faujdar Shams Khan. Shams Khan sent a huge army against the Sikhs after declaring Jihad. Banda Bahadur arrived at the right time to assist the Sikhs in their revolt. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs emerged victorious. In this way, the regions of Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur came under the control of the Sikhs.

11. Control over Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot: Encouraged by the victories of Bapda Bahadur, nearly 8000 Sikhs revolted against their Muslim rulers. Soon they took in their possession the region of Amritsar, Batala, Kalanaur and Pathankot.

Question 2.
Describe the battles between Bahadur Shah and Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur spread awe and fear amoag the Mughal rulers of Punjab. When the Mughal Emperor received the report about actual condition in the Punjab, he got infuriated. The emperor, therefore, directed all his attention towards Punjab. On June 27, 1710, he left Ajmer for Punjab.

The emperor also directed the Subedars of Delhi, Avadh, and Nizams and Faujdars of Muradabad and Allahabad to come along with their armies to Punjab.
1. Battle of Eminabad: Bahadur Shah, Feroze Khan Mewati and Mahabat Khan in command of a large army marched against Banda Bahadur and his Sikh army. Bhai Binod Singh and Ram Singh engaged the Mughal army in a battle on October 26, 1710 at Eminabad, a place between Banesar and Tarawari. At one time, the Sikh army pushed back Mahabat Khan. But as the number of Mughal soldiers was quite large, the Sikhs were defeated. The Sikhs were highly insulted. The dead bodies of the Sikhs were hanged on the trees on the roadsides. Bahadur Shah appointed Feroze Khan Mewati as the Faujdar of Sirhind.

2. Battle of Sadhaura: When Banda Bahadur learnt about the defeat of Sikh army, he immediately marched against the enemy. At that time, the Mughal army was camping at Sadhaura. The Mughal army was trying to seek some better place for camping. On December 4, 1710 a Mughal contingent left Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur exploited the opportunity to attack the remaining army at Sadhaura. He inflicted heavy losses on the Mughals. However, by the evening, the search party of the Mughal army returned. As a result, the Sikh army was forced to discontinue the attack and move back to the fort of Lohgarh.

3. Battle of Lohgarh: By this time, Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah himself took over the command to act against Banda Bahadur. He directed his commander Munim Khan to move towards the fort of Lohgarh with an order to gauge the actual strength of the Sikh army. Munim Khan overstepped the instructions of the Emperor and attacked Lohgarh on December 10, 1710 A.D. The other Mughal commanders were forced to join him in this expedition. The Sikhs gave them a tough fight. However, the Sikhs faced hardships because of the scarcity of the provisions. They were not fully prepared to fight a battle. In such a situation, one of the Sikhs, namely Gulab Singh wore the dress of Banda Bahadur and took over the command of the fort in place of Banda Bahadur. It helped Banda Bahadur to leave Lohgarh safely and he reached Nahan along with his Sikhs on December 11, 1710. Munim Khan stormed the fort of Lohgarh and captured it. Gulab Singh was killed. However, Bahadur Shah felt frustrated when he found that he was not able to capture Banda Bahadur. Hence, the Emperor sent his army under Hamid Khan after Banda Bahadur towards Nahan. The Emperor himself marched through Sadhaura, Badowal, Ropar, Hoshiarpur, Kalanaur, etc. and reached Lahpre.

4. The activities of Banda Bahadur in the Hilly Regions: Banda Bahadur sent a message to the Sikhs living in the hilly regions to join him. Very soon, a large number of Sikhs gathered at Kiratpur.

First of all, Banda Bahadur issued a directive ^o the old enemy of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, named Bhim Chand of Bilaspur to accept his suzerainty. When Bhim Chand refused to follow his command, Banda Bahadur attacked Bilaspur. A fierce battle took place. Bhim Chand and his 1300 soldiers were killed in the battle. It was one of the glorious victories of the Sikhs.
The rest of the hilly chiefs were terrified by the victory of Banda Bahadur. Some of them even presented gifts and recognised his suzerainty. Raja Siddha Sen of Mandi even openly announced that he was a follower of the Sikh Gurus.
From Mandi, Banda Bahadur marched towards Kullu. The ruler of Kullu, Raja Man Singh was able to trap Banda Bahadur by a trick. However, Banda Bahadur soon set himself free.
From Kullu, Banda Bahadur marched towards the kingdom of Chamba. The Raja of Chamba, Raja Udai Singh welcomed him and even married a girl from his family to Banda Bahadur. A son was born to Banda Bahadur in 1711, who was named Ajay Singh.
Battle of Baihrampur: Next, Banda Bahadur marched from the hills of Raipur and Baihrampur and came down to the plains. There, he was again attacked by Faujdar of Jammu, Baizd Khan Khaishgi. A battle was fought on June 4, 1711, near Baihrampur. Bhai Bhag Singh and Bhai Fateh Singh displayed their skills with great courage and won the battle for the Sikhs.

After the victory of Baihrampur, Banda Bahadur attacked Raipur, Kalanaur, and Batala and occupied those towns. But, he soon lost those territories. Banda Bahadur again took shelter in the mountains. But Bahadur Shah and his army failed to destroy Banda Bahadur’s power and the Sikh army.

Question 3.
Describe the battles fought by Banda Bahadur in the Ganga-Yamuna region.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm spread among the common people because of continuous victories won by Banda Bahadur. The people became hopeful that Banda Bahadur would free them from the tyranny of the Mughals. So many Hindus and Muslims started embracing Sikh religion. The inhabitants of Muslim villages like Unarasa were converted to Sikh religion.

The Faujdar of Jalalabad did not tolerate it. He imprisoned many Sikhs of that village. Banda Bahadur, on getting this report, set out towards Unarasa to get the Sikhs released.
1. Attack on Saharanpur: The Sikhs attacked Saharanpur after crossing the river Yamuna. The Faujdar of Saharanpur ran away to Delhi on the arrival of Sikhs. His subordinates tried to resist the attacks of the Sikhs but were badly defeated. The Sikh army occupied a major portion of Saharanpur. They changed the name of Saharanpur to Bhagnagar.

2. Battle of Bihat: After Saharanpur, Banda Bahadur marched towards Bihat. The Pirzadas of Bihat were commiting atrocities on the Hindus. They used to slaughter cows at public places. Banda Bahadur put many Pirzadas to sword. It is said that only one Pirzada escaped the sword of Banda Bahadur because at that time he was away to Bulandshahr.

3. Attack on Ambeta: After Bihat, Banda Bahadur attacked Ambeta. The Afghans (Pathans) of Ambeta were very rich. They did not oppose the Sikh army. The Sikh army acquired a lot of money from them.

4. Attack on Nanota: The Sikhs attacked Nanota on July 21,1710. The Sheikhzadas of Nanota were experts in archery. They gave a tough fight to the Sikh army. The fight spread over to the streets and market of the town. Finally, the Sikh army won the victory and three hundred Sheikhzadas were killed.

5. Attack on Unarasa: After the victory of Nanota, Banda Bahadur turned to Jalalabad and Unarasa, which were his main targets. Banda Bahadur sent the message through his representative to Jalal Khan to ask him to immediately release the imprisoned Sikhs and quietly accept the suzerainty of Banda Bahadur. Jalal Khan refused to accept the orders of Banda Bahadur. He even insulted the representative of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur now stormed Unarasa. A fierce battle took place and the Sikhs won it. Jalal Khan and his nephews Jamal Khan and Pir Khan were killed.

Activity:

Question 1.
Show the places of battles fought by Bandu BaIiadurIhempofPunjab.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions History Chapter 6 Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals 1

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Banda Bahadur and the Sikh Misals Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word:

Question 1.
What did Madho Dass call himself after conifng under the influence of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
Answer:
Madho Dass called himself a Dass (a humble servent) or Banda (a reliable follower of Guru Sahib).

Question 2.
Write one important victory won by the Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Victory of Sirhind.

Question 3.
Why did the Sikhs lose the battle of Gurdas Nangal?
Answer:
The Sikhs ran short of food supplies during the long siege of haveli of Bhai Duni Chand.

Question 4.
Write one important feature of the victories of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The victories of Banda Bahadur united the Sikhs in the bond of unity and showed them the path of independence.

Question 5.
Write any one cause of the failure of Banda Bahadur in establishing a more permanent rule of the Sikhs in Punjab.
Answer:
(1) Banda Bahadur had become unpopular among the Sikhs.

Question 6.
In which two groups (Dais) did Nawab Kapur Singh divide the Khalsa soldiers in 1734?
Answer:
In 1734, Nawab Kapur Singh divided the Sikh soldiers into two groups, Buddha Dal and Tarun Dal.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of the word Misl?
Or
How did the word Misl originate?
Answer:
The Misl is an Arabic word, which means all are equals.

Question 8.
How many Sikh Misls were there?
Answer:
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.

Question 9.
Write the name of the founder of the Ahluwalia Misl.
Answer:
Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

Question 10.
Which Misl was founded by Sardar Charhat Singh?
Answer:
Sukherchakia.

Question 11.
Who was the founder of Karorsinghia Misl?
Answer:
Karor Singh.

Question 12.
When and where Banda was executed by the Mughal ruler?
Answer:
In June 1716 at Delhi.

Question 13.
Who was Wazir Khan?
Answer:
Governor of Sirhind.

Question 14.
What was the name of Banda Bahadur’s son?
Answer:
Ajay Singh.

Question 15.
Who was the founder of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Chaudhri Phul Singh, a Sandhu Jat.

Question 16.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Phulkian Misl?
Answer:
Baba Ala Singh.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Guru Gobind Singh Ji sent Banda Bahadur to the _________ to lead the Sikhs in their struggle against the ___________
Answer:
Punjab, Mughals

Question 2.
The third Battle of Panipat was fought in between the _________ and_________
Answer:
1761, Marathas and Ahmed Shah Abdali

Question 3.
Jasa Singh Ahluwalia was the founder of the ________ Misl.
Answer:
Ahluwalia

Question 4.
Banda Bahadur attacked Sirhind and Chapparchiri to punish the Subedar of
Answer:
Wazir Khan, Sirhind

Question 5.
The Phulkian Misl was founded by Chaudhri
Answer:
Phul Singh.

True or False:

Question 1.
Banda was defeated in his battle with Wazir Khan, Subedar of Sirhind.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Banda was executed at Lahore.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
There were twelve Sikh Misls in the Punjab.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The original name of Banda Bahadur was Madho Das.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Sukherchakya Misl was founded by Sardar Charat Singh.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A long dark period in the Sikh history followed the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
True

Match the following:

Question 1.

(A)	(B)
1. Nawab Kapoor Singh	(a) Bhangi Misi
2. Banda Bahadur	(b) Ramgarhiya Misi
	(c) Chapparchiri
	(d) Faizalpuria Misi

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about any four main military achievements of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
The brief description of the main military achievements of Banda Bahadur is as follows:
1. Looting of Samana and Kapuri. Banda Bahadur made his first attack on Samana and looted it badly. Then, he stormed Kapuri. He also ravaged the town of Kapuri.

2. Attack on Sadhaura. The ruler of Sadhaura was ill-treating the Hindu inhabitants of Sadhaura. Banda Bahadur attacked Sadhaura to punish its ruler Usman Khan. He massacred the Muslims in such a large number that the place came to be known as Qatalgarhi.

3. Victory over Sirhind. The two young Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji were bricked alive in a wall at Sirhind. Banda Bahadur massacred the Muslims of Sirhind to avenge the heinous crime. The Subedar of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, was also killed in the battle.

4. Conquest of Jalandhar Doab. The’icontinuous victories of Banda Bahadur encouraged the Sikhs of Jalandhar Doab to rise against the Mughal subedar. They revolted against its Faujdar Shamas Khan and sought the help of Banda Bahadur. A fierce battle took place between the Sikhs and the Muslims at Rahon. The Sikhs won the battle of Rahon and occupied the region bf Jalandhar and Hoshiarpur.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the martyrdom of Banda Bahadur.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur and his Sikh soldiers were made prisoners at Gurdas Nangal. They were taken first to Lahore and then to Delhi. Banda Bahadur was paraded in the market places of Delhi and publicly insulted. Finally on June 9, 1716, the Mughal government passed the orders for the execution of Banda Bahadur. He was badly tortured before his execution. His son was cut into pieces before his eyes. His flesh was plucked out with red-iron rods. In this manner, Banda Bahadur was martyred. About 740 of his followers were also executed at Delhi.

Question 3.
Give four reasons because of which Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom.
Answer:
Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent Sikh kingdom in Punjab due to the following causes:

Kingly Life Style of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur had adopted the kingly life style and abandoned the ways of saints. It reduced the respect of Banda Bahadur among the Sikhs.
Merciless and Brutal Massacres. According to Lala Daulat Ram, Banda Bahadur indulged in very brutal general massacres without sparing any Hindu or Muslim while on his Punjab expeditions. He lost the support of the Sikhs and Hindus due to large scale mindless killings.
Powerful Mughal Empire. The Mughal Empire had yet not lost its vitality. Therefore, Banda Bahadur and his few thousand Sikhs could not fight against the Mughal Empire for long.
Limited Resources of Banda Bahadur. Banda Bahadur was not able to establish a permanent kingdom due to his limited resources. The Sikhs did not have enough resources to finish the power of the Mughal Empire.

Question 4.
Who was the founder of the Ahluwralia Misl? How did he expand the power of the Ahluwalia Misl?
Answer:
The founder of Ahluwalia Misl was Jassa Singh Ahluwalia.

Jassa Singh successfully opposed the oppression of Mir Mannu (the Subedar of Lahore) from 1748 to 1753.
In 1761, Jassa Singh attacked Lahore and defeated its Subedar Khwaja Obed. The Sikhs occupied Lahore.
In 1762, Ahmed Shah Abdali attacked Punjab. Jassa Singh was defeated at Kup. However, Jassa Singh re-established himself. In 1763, the Sikhs under the leadership of Jassa Singh looted Kasur and Sirhind.
In 1764, Jassa Singh invaded Delhi and looted it.

Question 5.
What was the position of Marathas on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh?
Answer:
Ahmed Shah Abdali had defeated Marathas in the third battle of Panipat in 1761 and thrown them out of Punjab. However, by the end of the 18th century, they had again extended their sway in the,North India.

Daulat Rao Sindhia, the Maratha chief had established his control over Delhi. He started attacking the region of Satluj and Yamuna Doab. However, his advance was checked by the British, a new power on the political scene of India.

Question 6.
Describe the position of the East India Company on the eve of the rise of Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of the British Empire under the East India Company from 1772 to 1785. He checked the Marathas from extending their sway over Punjab by involving them in military engagements. However, the succeeding Governors-General, especially Cornwallis (1786 to 1793) and John Shore (1793 to 1798) an acting Governor-General) did not try to extend the territories of the British Empire under East India Company. In 1798, Lord Wellesley became the Governor-General. He was a soldier by training. He entered into subsidiary alliances with Hyderabad, Mysore, Carnatic, Tanjore, Awadh, etc. He also fought against the Marathas. The, Marathas were therefore not able to give attention to the Punjab. In 1803, the East India Company occupied Delhi after defeating Daulat Rao Scindia and brought it under the control of the British Empire.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the following Misls:
1. Phulkian,
2. Dalewalia,
3. Nishanwalia,
4. Karorsinghia, and
5. Shahid Misl.
Answer:
A brief description of the history of the above Misls is as follows:
1. Phulkian Misl:
A Sandhu Jat Chaudhari Phul Singh laid the foundation of the Phulkian Misl. The most powerful ruler of this Misl, however, was Baba Ala Singh. Baba Ala Singh had conquered the territories around Barnala in the beginning. In 1762. Ahmed Shah Abdali appointed him Nawab of Malwa region. In 1764, Baba Ala Singh defeated the Subedar of Sirhind Zain Khan. Abdali honoured Baba Ala Singh by awarding him with a kettledrum (Nagra) and Flag in 1765. Baba Ala Singh died in 1765. After the death of Baba Ala Singh, Amar Singh took over the reins of Phulkian Misl. He annexed the area of Bhatinda, Rohtak, and Hansi to the territories of his Misl. Ahmed Shah Abdali awarded him the title Raja-i-Rajanan. After the death of Amar Singh, his son Sahib Singh became the chief of the Phulkian Misl. He was a weak ruler. Finally, by a treaty in 1809, the East India Company made Phulkian Misl a protectorate of the British Empire.

2. Dalewalia Misl:
Gulab Singh established the Dalewalia Misl. He was an inhabitant of a village Dalewal which was situated on the banks of river Ravi. Thus, the Misl was called Dalewal Misl. The most popular and powerful chief of this Misl was Tara Singh Gheba. He kept an army of 7500 soldiers. He was a very wealthy chief. As long as he was alive,
Maharaja Ranjit Singh maintained friendly relations with him. The day, Tara Singh died, Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed this Misl into his Empire. The wife of Tara Singh protested strongly against his action but was not able to achieve anything.

3. Nishanwalia Misl:
Sangat Singh and Mohar Singh founded the Nishanwalia Misl. They used to carry the banner of Khalsa (Nishan) during their eariler years. Therefore, this Misl was called Nishanwalia Misl. The territory of this Misl was Ambala and Shahabad. It was not politically much important Misl.

4. Karorsinghia Misl:
Karor Singh founded this Misl. The most popular chief of this Misl was Baghel Singh. Baghel Singh had conquered the territories of Banga, Nawanshahar, etc. The main centre of the activities of this Misl was 20 miles away from Karnal, the place where the Misl shifted its activities. Baghel Singh had an army of 12000 soldiers. After the death of Subedar Zain Khan of Sirhind, Baghel Singh had tried to extend the territories of his Misl towards the north of Satluj. Jodh Singh succeeded Baghel Singh. Jodh Singh had conquered some territory in the Malwa region and annexed it to his Misl. Finally, a major portion of the territory of this Misl became part of the Kalsia kingdom and Maharaja Ranjit Singh annexed the rest of its territory.

5. Shahid or Nihang Misl:
Sudha Singh, a Granthi of Damdama Sahib, laid the foundation of this Misl. Sudha Singh died while fighting the Muslim rulers. Hence, this Misl was called Shahid Misl. After him, the Misl was headed by Baba Deep Singh, Karam Singh, Gurbaksh Singh, etc. successively. Most of the members of this Misl were Akalis or Nihangs. Therefore, this Misl was also called Nihang Misl. About 2000 soldiers of this Misl were Nihangs. This Misl had been helping the other Misls during their times of need and crisis.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Mention four basic principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the four main principles of India’s foreign policy :

Faith in the policy of non-alignment
Faith in the principles of Panchsheel,
Full faith in the U.N.
Opposition to colonialism and imperialism.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Panchsheel?
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, P.M. of China formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence for the nations of the world. These five principles are calledTanchsheel. The main objective of Panchsheel is to maintain world peace by promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means making decisions independently on the basis of merit to solve international problems. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Question 4.
Describe one basic reason which created bad blood between India and the United State of America.
Answer:
India has refused to join military pacts set up by America.

Question 5.
What is the Atomic Policy of India?
Answer:
To use the atomic energy for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 6.
Enumerate the number of permanent members and non-permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
The Security Council has 15 members. Out of them five are permanent members. The remaining ten are temporary members. Each temporary member is elected for a term of 2 years by the General Assembly. The five permanent members are: U.S.A., Russia, Great Britain, France and China.

Question 7.
When the UN came into existence and how many were its original members?
Answer:
The United Nations was founded on October 24, 1945. It had 51 original (founder) members.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Disarmament?
Answer:
Disarmament means destruction or reduction of arms. The term implies voluntary destruction of arms and the creation of world without arms.

Question 9.
Describe the basic cause of tension and stagnation of relations between India and China.
Answer:
The border dispute is the main cause of tension between India and China. This tension became intense when China attacked India in 1962.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the main principles of Indian foreign policy.
Or
Write down three principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The following are the main principles of Indian Foreign Policy :

Non-alignment. It is the basic principle of India’s foreign policy. India was the first country that initiated the policy of Noii-alignment.
Opposition to Imperialism. India has always opposed imperialism and colonialism.
Opposition to the policy of Caste, ColoSr and Discrimination etc. India has always raised voice against the policy of Caste, Colour and Discrimination.
Faith in the United Nations. India is a founder member of the United Nations and has full faith in the aims and principles of the United Nations.
Panchsheel. Panchsheel is an important principle of Indian foreign policy.
Friendly Relations with other States. India is always ready to have friendly relations with other States of the world.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on Panchsheel.
Answer:
On April 29, 1954, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India and Chou-en-Lai, the Prime Minister of China held a meeting in Delhi. They formulated five principles of peaceful co-existence between the nations of the world. These principles are called Panchsheel.

Following are these principles:

Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
Non-aggression. In other words, the disputes among the nations should be settled by negotiations.
Non-interference in the internal affairs of other states.
To endeavour to achieve mutual gains and co-operation.
To adhere to the policy of peaceful co-existence among different nations Live and let live. If these principles are respected, there can be no danger of any deadly war in the world.

Question 3.
Describe the meaning of the’^bficy of Non-alignment and reasons for its adoption by India.
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc and having friendly relations with all the countries. It also means taking decisions independently on the basis of merit while solving international problems. Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru was one of the founders of this policy.

Reasons. At the time of our independence, there were two power blocs in the world: the American bloc and the Russian bloc. ‘There existed tension between the two blocs. Thus there was a cold war between them. Newly^^.d countries could reduce this tension and make progress with the aid of both, tfiesel.two.blocs. So they did not join any bloc and formed their own group. Pandit Jawaharl, ejiru based India’s foreign policy on the principle of Non-alignment.

Question 4.
Describe the organisation and functions of the General Assembly, Security Council and International, Court of Justice.
Answer:
General Assembly. It is made up of all the member nations of the U.N.O. each of whom has one vote. However, each member state can send five representatives to attend its meetings. The Assembly takes decisions on ordinary matters by a simple majority. It passes the annual budget of U.N.O.

Security Council: It is made up of 15 members out of Ayhqm five are permanent members. The remaining ten members are elected for a term of two years by the General Assembly.

The Security Council is entrusted with the task of preserving world peace. It tries to settle disputes between the different nations in a just and fair manner.

International Court of Justice:
It is called “The World Court”. The Court hears and decides, disputes arising between states according to International Law. It also gives advice to the General Assembly on legal matters.

Question 5.
Describe the role of India in the United Nations.
Answer:
India is one of the 51 founder members of the United Nations. From the very beginning, the Indian leaders have been keeping a firm faith in this great institution. It has been playing an important role in the functioning of the United Nations.

India stood for anti-colonialism. India along with other members got the resolution passed against imperialism and colonialism in 1950.
Admission of New States. India tried her best for the admission of Communist China and Bangladesh. ,
Cooperation in ending wars in other Countries. India supported the peace efforts of the United Nations to put an end to the wars in Egypt, Congo, Korea and Indo-China.
Against Racial Discrimination. India, with the cooperation of the United Nations, raised a strong voice against the policy of racial discrimination followed by the imperialist government in South Africa.
Human Rights. With the cooperation of the United Nations, India raised a strong voice of protest against the countries.which violated the human rights.
Support of Disarmament. India have so supported disarmament for lessening the possibility of wars.

Question 6.
Describe the main reasons which Abated tension and hostility between India and Pakistan.
Or
Write a short note on the Indo-Pak relationship and their main dispute.
Answer:
India has made every effort to establish friendly relations with Pakistan but the tension and hatred between the two countries has never ended. The two countries had border disputes, river water distribution disputes and had to make settlement of evacuee property. The dispute about the sharing of river waters between the two countries was settled with the help of the World Bank^ through the Indus Water Treaty in 1960. The settlement of border disputes and the prql^em of evacuee property have been solved to a great extent. But the Kashmir problem is the bone of contention between the two countries.

Question 7.
Discuss briefly Indo-American relations.
Answer:
India and U.S.A. are the two largest democracies in the world. During 1947-2001 the relations between the two countries were marked by two opposite features. On one side, there was a spirit of co-operation and friendship between the two countries. But on the other, their relations were strained and conflicting. There has been, however, a marked improvement in the relations between the two countries since 2000 A.D. Both these countries are fighting against terrorism

The U.S.A. had begun to give massive military aid to Pakistan. This was strongly opposed by India. The lowest point in the Indo-US relations came in 1971 when India signed the Treaty of peace, friendship and co-operation with the USSR. India’s peaceful nuclear explosion on May 18, 1974, at Pokhran was strongly criticised by the US leaders and the people. There has been a marked improvement in the relations between America and India since 2001 A.D. The President of the U.S.A. Barack Obama visited India in January 2015.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Indian Foreign Policy and United Nations Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Describe one cause of tension between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan has been claiming Kashmir since independence whereas it is an integral part of India.

Question 2.
Describe one positive aspect of Indo-Pak relationship.
Answer:
On 17th Feb., 1999, India and Pakistan signed a formal agreement for launching the Delhi-Lahore Bus Service.

Question 3.
Give the names of the founder countries of the Non-alignment Movement.
Answer:
India, Yugoslavia and Egypt.

Question 4.
Mention any one object of the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
To maintain international peace and security.

Question 5.
Mention one important function of the Security Council.
Answer:
To help in maintaining international peace and security.

Question 6.
Throw light on any ope aspect of India’s policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Not to join any of the power blocs.

Question 7.
Mention any one cause for the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace in the world.

Question 8.
Give one example of the work done by the U.N. for world peace.
Answer:
In 1949, it made the Dutch forces to vacate Indonesia.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can be his best self.

Question 10.
Why is disarmament necessary? Give one reason.
Answer:
To save humanity from total destrubtidh.

Question 11.
What was Marshall Plan of America?
Answer:
The Marshall Plan was a big programme of American aid-to the European nations to rebuild their war shattered economies.

Question 12.
Why were SEATO and Baghdad pacts prepared by the U.S.A.?
Answer:
To check spread of communism.

Question 13.
What is India’s Atomic or Nuclear Policy?
Answer:
India wants to make’ the use of atomic energy.for constructive and peaceful purposes.

Question 14.
What is meant by atomic weapons?
Answer:
The weapons which are exploded by the use of atomic or nuclear energy are called atomic weapons.

Question 15.
Which powers colonised Africa?
Answer:
The continent of Africa was colonised by Britain, France, Italy, Portugal and Belgium.

Question 16.
When was Bangla Desh created?
Answer:
In 1971.

Question 17.
Write down the names of two permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
England and U.S.A.

Question 18.
What is meant by policy of Non-alignment?
Answer:
Non-alignment implies not belonging to any power bloc but to have friendly relations with all countries.

Question 19.
Write down the names of two organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
1. General Assembly and
2. Security Council.

Question 20.
Enumerate the number of non-permanent members of Security Council of UNO.
Answer:10.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
There are ____________ organs of the United Nations.
Answer:
six

Question 2.
United Nations was established on ___________
Answer:
24th October, 1945

Question 3.
Originally United Nations consisted of ___________ members.
Answer:
51

Question 4.
Pt. ___________ is rightly acknowledged as the chief architect of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 5.
The train characteristic of India’s foreign policy is ___________
Answer:
Non-alignment,

Question 6.
India has full faith in the ___________ of United Nations.
Answer:
principles

Question 7.
At present United Nations consists of ____________ members.
Answer:
193

Question 8.
The word ‘Panchsheel’ stands for principles.
Answer:
five

Question 9.
___________ is a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Kashmir

Question 10.
There are ___________ permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
China made a sudden attack on India in:
(a) August 1962
(b) September 1962
(c) October 1962
(d) September 1965.
Answer:
(c) October 1962

Question 2.
The Principles of Panchsheel were signed between the Heads of the Govt. of:
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Japan
(d) Inia and Nepal.
Answer:
(a) India and China

Question 3.
The architect of Non-alignment is:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Dr. Rajinder Praad
(c) Atal Behari Vajpaye
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 4.
India became a member of U.N. in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1960.
Answer:
(a) 1945

Question 5.
Which organ of United Nations has all the member states as Its members?
(a) Security Council
(b) General Assembly
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Economic and Social Council.
Answer:
(b) General Assembly

Question 6.
Bangladesh was established in:
(a) 1965
(b) 1972
(c) 1971
(d) 1970.
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 7.
International Court of Justice has _________________ Judges.
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 22
(d) 20.
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a basic principle of India’s foreign policy?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Friendly relations with other states
(c) Faith in United Nations
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.
Answer:
(d) Faith in Imperialism and Colonialism.

Question 9.
Who was the first woman president of the U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit
(d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur.
Answer:
(c) Vijya Luxmi Pandit

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a permament member of U.N. Security Council?
(a) India
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Russia
(d) England.
Answer:
(a) India

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are security and defence so important for India today?
Answer:
It was easier to defend the frontiers of India in ancient times. The Himalayas served as the sentinal in the north. The ocean protected us in the south. But now the high Himalayas and the deep oceans have lost their importance as the protectors of the country. Due to the progress of science and technology, the mountains ánd the seas are no longer barriers to check the enemy. So it has become very important for India to defend her borders. Secondly, our relations with some of our neighbours are not very friendly. We have to defend ourselves against them. So India’s need for defence and security is greater these days.

Question 2.
Write the names of any four organs of the United Nations. Explain one important function of each organ.
Answer:
Following are the four main organs of the United Nations.

General Assembly,
Security Council,
Economic and Social Council and
International Court of Justice.

Question 3.
Give some suggestions to Improve the relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
The relations between India and Pakistan can be improved by promoting common interests of both the countries.

The following steps should be taken in this direction:

Trade relations between both the countries should be strengthened.
Efforts should be made to improve cultural and educational relations between the two countries.
There should be friendly sports matches between the teams of the two countries.

Question 4.
When was the United Nations established? Mention its aims.
Answer:
The United Nations was established, on 24th October 1945. The number of its founder members was 51. But now about 209 countries of the world are its members. India is one of its founder members.

Following are its aims :

To settle the disputes between the states through peaceful means.
To promote friendly relations among the member states.
To find solutions to social and economic problems of the world.
To protect and uphold the freedom and rights of man.
To maintain world peace.
To strive hard to achieve these objects.

Question 5.
Write the full names of ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO. Write the functions of any two of these organisations.
Answer:
ILO, UNESCO, FAO and WHO are specialized agencies of the United Nations.
1. ILO: Its full name is International Labour Organisation.
Its functions are as under :

It tries to improve the living and. working conditions of the labourers.
To fix minimum wages and hours of work for the workers.

2. UNESCO: Its full name is United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation. Its main function is to promote educational, scientific and cultural co-operation among the member nations of the world.

3. FAO: Its full name is Food and Agricultural Organisation. Its main function is to
formulate schemes to increase agricultural production and consider the food situation of all the nations. . ,

4. WHO: Its full name is World Health Organisation. Its main function is to protect the health of people and to eradicate diseases.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the following :
(i) SAARC
(ii) Veto Power.
Answer:
(i) SAARC: Its full name is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It is an organisation of developing countries of South Asia. Its members are—India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. Some similarities are found in the cultural and economic problems of these countries. The representatives of these countries sit together to solve their problems and promote mutual cooperation.

(ii) Veto Power: The permanent members of the Security Council possess Veto power. These members are United States, Britain, China, France and Russia. For all effective decisions of this body, the unanimity of these five big powers is compulsory. This implies that these big powers have a veto on all important decisions of the council and anyone of these five powers can prevent it from taking any action against any country.

Question 7.
Mention some positive aspects of Indo-China relationship.
Answer:

Both the countries have agreed to solve their border dispute through a special committee consisting of officials from the both sides.
Both the countries have agreed to extend economic co-operation to each other. There is a considerable increase in the trade between the two countries.
In 1988, the then Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, visited China. The Chinese Prisident visited India in December 1991 and again in 2014. The way for the restoration of friendly relations between the two countries became clear. Since then many good-will missions have’been exchanged between the two countries.

Question 8.
Write down six features of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

To make efforts for security and peace in the world.
To support the movements for self-determination in the colonies.
To oppose racialism.
Settlement of international disputes by peaceful methods.
To co-operate with U.N.O. and its Specialized Agencies.
To support the Non-Alignment movement and to remain away from the military blocs.

Question 9.
Write a short note on United N&tibns’ Security Council.
Answer:
The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The UNSC was formed in 1945 following World War II to address the failings of the previoifs international organisation i.e. the League of Nations to maintain world peace. The Security Council consists of 15 members. Soviet Union (Russia), United Kingdom, France, China and United States of America are its five permanent members. These countries can veto any resolution. There are 10 non-permanent members elected on regional basis to serve for a term of two years. The Council held its first session on 17th January, 1946.

Question 10.
What is the contribution of India to promote world peace?
Answer:
Following the policy of Non-Alignment, Indi%has always condemned colonialism and imperialism.

Question 11.
Enumerate six main organs of the U. N. O.
Answer:
Following are the names of the chief organs of the U. N. 0.:

The General Assembly.
The Security Council.
Economic and Social Council.
The Trusteeship Council.
The Secretariat.
International Court of Justice.

Question 12.
Name five permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
Following are the names of five permanent members of the Security Council of the U.N. – United States of America, Great Britain, Russia, China, and France.

Question 13.
Briefly explain the International Court of Justice.
Answer:
There is a total of fifteen judges in the International Court of Justice. Its headquarter is the Hague in Holland. Its main task is to settle the disputes between the U.N.O.’s member countries.

Question 14.
Write down a note on Secretary-General of the U. N.O.
Answer:
The head of the Secretariate of U.N.O. is called Secretary-General. He is appointed by the U. N. Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for five years. Now Antonio Guterres is Secretary-General of UNO.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we write balanced chemical equations?
Answer:
To understand the method to write balanced chemical equation, let us take an example.
Zinc + Sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + hydrogen This equation can be written as below
Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂

Check the number of atoms on both sides of the arrow.

Element	No. of atoms in reactants (LHS)	No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Zn	1	1
H	2	2
S	1	1
0	4	4

In the equation, number of atoms are same on the both sides of the arrow, thus it is balanced chemical equation.
Now let us try to balance the following chemical equation
Fe + H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂

Step I: Make a list of atoms of different elements in the unbalanced equation

Element	No. of atoms in reactants (LHS)	No. of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe	1	3
H	2	2
0	1	4

Step II: Choose a compound with maximum number of atoms for balancing whether it is reactant or product. Choose an element with maximum number of atoms in the choosen compound. On this basis we choose Fe₃O₄ and in it we choose the element oxygen. On the right, there are four atoms of oxygen and on the left only one.

To balance, oxygen atom

Atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In product
(i) initially	1 (In H₂O)	4 (In Fe₃O₄)
(iii) after balancing	1 × 4	4

To equalize the number of atoms, we can not change the formulae of elements and compounds taking part in the reaction e.g. to balance oxygen atoms we can put coefficient ‘4’ and can write 4H20 but we cannot write H204 or (H₂O)₄ or (H₂O₄).

A partially balanced equation will be
Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂
(Partially balanced equation)

Step III: Fe and H are still unbalanced. Choose any one and move ahead. To balance hydrogen atoms, on left side, make number at atoms of hydrogen ‘4’.

Atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In product
Initially	8 (4 In H₂O)	2 (In H₂)
After balancing	8	2 × 4

Now equation becomes
Fe + 4 H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂

Step IV: Check the above equation and choose third element which still is unbalanced. We will find that only iron is the element, which remains to be balanced.

To balance Fe we take 3 atoms of Fe on the left side.
3Fe + 4 H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂

Step V: At the end, let us count the number ofatoms of elements on both sides of the equation
3 Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂(Balanced equation)

Number of atoms of every element on both sides of the equation are equal. Therefore this equation is now balanced. This method of balancing chemical equations is known as hit and trial method because we use smallest integral coefficient to balance the equation.

Step VI: To write the symbols for physical states. There is no information given about the physical state in the above balanced equation.
To make chemical equation more informative, write the physical states with the reactants and products. To represent the states of solid, liquid, gas, aqueous of the reactants and products we write (s), (l), (g) and (aq) respectively with them. When reactant or product is present in the form of solution in water then word (aq) is written.

Thus, balanced equation will be
3Fe(s) + 4H₂O (g) → Fe₃O₄(s) + 4H₂(g)
when (g) is used with water, then it means that water is used in the form of steam in the reaction. Usually, physical state is not mentioned in the chemical equation until it is very necessary.

Sometimes the conditions of the reaction like temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. are shown over or under the arrow e.g.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 2.
Give types of chemical reactions with examples.
Answer:
The various types of chemical reactions are :
1. Combination reactions: In these reactions two or more than two reactants combine to form a single product. Such reactions are known as combination reactions.

Example: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydoxide (slaked lime) and a lot of heat is evolved.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
In this reaction calcium oxide and water combine to give single product calcium hydroxide.

2. Dissociation or Decomposition reactions: In these reactions single reactant breaks into two or more than two new substances. Such reactions are called dissociation reactions.

Examples of dissociation reaction :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

3. Displacement reactions: When an element displaces another element from a compound, then it is called displacement reaction.

Examples:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

4. Double displacement reactions. In such a reaction two different atoms or group of atoms exchange themselves with each other.

Example :
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5

Question 3.
Briefly describe oxidation and reduction with suitable examples.
Answer:
Oxidation. Oxidation of a substance takes place in a reaction when there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen in it and opposite to it reduction takes places when there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Example: A black coating of copper (II) oxide is seen on copper powder. Why this black substance is formed?
This copper oxide is formed due to combination of copper with oxygen.

If on this heated substance hydrogen gas is allowed to flow, this black coloured coating changes into brown colour because in these circumstances reverse reaction takes place and copper is again obtained.

When there is gain of oxygen in a substance in a reaction we say oxidation of the substance has taken place and when there is loss of oxygen we say reduction of the substance has taken place.

There is loss of oxygen in copper (II) oxide, therefore it gets reduced. There is gain of oxygen in hydrogen, therefore it is oxidized. Thus, in a reaction one of the reactant is oxidized and other reactant is reduced. Such type of reactions are called reduction-oxidation reactions or redox reactions.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

Other examples of redox reaction are :

ZnO + C → Zn + CO
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
In this reaction carbon is oxidized to become CO and ZnO is reduced to Zn.
In this reaction HCl is oxidized to Cl₂ and MnO₂ is reduced to MnCl₂.

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
(i) H₂ + N₂ → NH₃
Answer:
3H₂ + N₂ → 2NHg

(ii) BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → AlCl₃ + BaSO₄
Answer:
3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₂ → 2AlCl₃ + 3BaSO₄

(iii) H₂S + O₂ → SO₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2H₂S + 3O₂ → 2SO₂ + 2H₂O

(iv) KBr + BaI₂ → KI +BaBr₂
Answer:
2KBr + BaI₂ → 2KI + BaBr₂

(v) Al + CuCl₂ → AlCl₃ + Cu
Answer:
2Al + 3CuCl₂ → 2AlCl₃ + 3Cu

(vi) AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO₃)₂ +Ag
Answer:
2AgNOg + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

(vii) Al (OH)₃ → Al₂O3 + H₂O
Answer:
2Al(OH)₃ → Al₂O₃ + 3H₂O

(viii) NH₃ + CuO → Cu + N₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2NH₃ + 3CuO → Cu + N₂ + 3H₂O

(ix) KClO₃ → KCl + O₂
Answer:
2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂

(x) BaCl₂ + K₂SO₄ → 2BaSO₄ + KCl
Answer:
BaCl₂ + K₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2KCl.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples from our daily life to show that chemical changes do take place in our daily life.
Answer:

Fermentation of grapes take place.
Our body digests the food.
In summer, if milk is left in the room, we can see a change in it as it becomes sour.

Question 2.
Differentiate between balanced and skeletal chemical equation.
Answer:
Balanced equation. If number of atoms of each element are same before and after the reaction, then such a reaction is balanced chemical reaction.

Skeletal chemical equation. When number of atoms of each element before and after the reaction are not same then such a chemical equation is called skeletal Chemical equation.

Question 3.
What are the necessary requirements while writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
These are :

It represents a true chemical change.
It should be balanced.
It should represent physical states of the reactants and products.
It should indicate the necessary conditions required for the reaction to occur.
It should represent heat changes during reactions.

Question 4.
Give one example each of balanced and skeletal equation.
Answer:
2KCl + O₂ → 2 KCl(s) + 3O₂(g)
This is example of balanced equation.
Zn + AgNO₃(aq) → Zn (NO₃)₂ + Ag
This is example of skeletal equation.

Question 5.
Give chemical formula for slaked lime and one use of it.
Answer:
Chemical formula -Ca(OH)₂. Solution of slaked lime is used for white washing the buildings.

Question 6.
Why there is a shine on the walls after two-three days of white washing?
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present in the air and form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. After 2-3 days of white wash, calcium carbonate is formed due to which there is a shine on the walls.

Question 7.
Give chemical formula of marble and give reaction to show bow it is formed?
Answer:
Marble is also known as calcium carbonate.
Its chemical formula is CaCO₃ Reaction to show its formation
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 10

Question 8.
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
How oxidation and reduction in the above reaction is taking place? What is the name of such reaction?
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11
Such a reaction is called redox reaction.

Question 9.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12
Complete the above reaction and tell the colour of the product.
Answer:
Above reaction is :

colour of PbO is yellow.

Question 10.
Give colours of following solutions.
1. FeSO₄
Answer:
FeSO₄ → green

2. CuS04
Answer:
CuSO₄ → blue

Question 11.
What is rusting? What is the chemical formula of rust. What is its loss?
Answer:
New articles made up of iron are shiny but after some time a reddish brown coating is seen on their surface. Usually it is called rusting of iron.

Chemical formula of rust – Fe₂O₃.H₂O (Hydrated iron (III) oxide)
It is powdery substance that gets removed from the surface and due to this iron articles are getting damaged.

Question 12.
Fats are oils containing foods, when kept for long time then what change take place in them? What is name of this process?
Answer:
Fats and oils containing foods, when kept for long time, results in the change of their taste and smell. This process is named as rancidity.

Question 13.
How can we stop rancidity?
Answer:

To slower down the rate of oxidation, antioxidants are added to food items.
By keeping food items in air tight containers.
By flushing nitrogen gas in packets of chips so as to stop the oxidation of chips.

Question 14.
Zinc metal can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. But copper metal can not displace zinc from the solution of Zinc sulphate. Give reason.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. Copper is less reactive than zinc thus copper can not displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.

Question 15.
What happens when zinc rod is placed in copper sulphate solution? Give chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
zinc is more reactive than copper. It wall displace copper from solution of copper sulphate and zinc sulphate is formed. Blue colour of the solution of copper sulphate change to white slowly.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 14

Question 16.
What is lime mitigation? Why there is sound of shuun-shuun in this process? Give chemical equation representing the reaction.
Answer:
When quick lime is mixed with water, it changes to slaked lime. This is lime mitigation. This is a exothermic reaction and heat is evolved due to which there is sound of shuun-shuun is produced.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 15

Question 17.
Write names of the substances which got reduced and oxidized.
1. SO₂ + 3H₂S → 2H₃O + 3S
Answer:
In SO₂, S is reduced and in H₂S, S is oxidized.

2. 2Al + 3HCl → 2AlCl₂ + 3H₂
Answer:
Aluminium is reduced and chlorine is oxidized.

3. 2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S + 2H₂O
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and sulphur is reduced.

4. Zn + 2AgNOa → An (NO₃)₂ + 3Ag
Answer:
Zinc is oxidised and silver is reduced.

5. H₂ + CuO → Cu + H₂O.
Answer:
Hydrogen is oxidised and copper is reduced.

Question 18.
What does a complete chemical equation represent and why is it necessary to balance a chemical equation?
Answer:
A complete chemical equation represents reactants, products and their physical state in a symbolic form.
A chemical equation is balanced so that number of atoms of every element in reactants and products becomes equal. Therefore it is necessary to balance the chemical equation.

Question 19.
What type of reactions are combustion of coal and formation of water? Represent by chemical equation.
Answer:
1. Combustion of Coal:
C(s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g)

2. Formation of water from H₂ and O₂ :
2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)

Question 20.
How is dissociation reaction different from combination reaction?
Answer:
In a combination reaction two or more than two substance combine to give a single new substance where as in dissociation reaction a single substance breaks or dissociates into two or more than two new substances.

Question 21.
Give two examples of dissociation reaction.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 16

Question 22.
What is the difference between oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
In reaction, some substance gain or loose oxygen and hydrogen. If there is gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen from a substance then it is called oxidation. Loss of oxygen and gain of hydrogen is called reduction.

Question 23.
Give two examples of corrosion.
Answer:
Examples of corrosion are :

black coating on silver
green coating on copper.

Question 24.
Which type of reaction is shown in figure given below and define it.
Answer:
Displacement Reaction. It is a reaction in which more active element (metal or non-metal) displaces less active element (metal or non-metal) from its solution of its compound.
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 17

Question 25.
What is shown in the figure given ahead? Also indicate 1 and 2 in the figure .
Answer:
The figure represents electro-lysis of water :

Oxygen gas
Hydrogen gas

PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 18

Question 26.
The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions:
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 19
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction.
Answer:
Photochemical decomposition

(ii) Write the chemical equations.
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do we get on the combustion of magnesium ribbon?
Answer:
We get a white powder of Magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
What is law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
In any chemical reaction, mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

Question 3.
Define balanced chemical equation.
Answer:
If number of atoms of each element before and after the chemical reaction are equal, then such a chemical reaction is balanced equation.

Question 4.
Give one example of balanced equation.
Answer:
3 Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂.

Question 5.
If (g) is written with water, then what does it represent?
Answer:
Water is in the form of vapour or steam.

Question 6.
Sometimes we show the conditions of a reaction like pressure, temperature, catalyst etc. where do we write it.
Answer:
Above and below the arrow.

Question 7.
How does a new substance form in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
By breaking and making of bonds between atoms.

Question 8.
Define combination reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which two or more than two reactants combine to give single product is called combination reaction.

Question 9.
What is the use of slaked lime?
Answer:
For whitewashing the buildings.

Question 10.
Write chemical formula for Marble.
Answer:
CaCO₃.

Question 11.
What do we get on the combustion of natural gas?
Answer:
CO₂, H₂O and energy.

Question 12.
Write formula for ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
FeSO₄.7H₂O.

Question 13.
What is formed of grey colour from silver chloride in sun light?
Answer:
Silver metal.

Question 14.

Where is above reaction used?
Answer:
Black and white photography.

Question 15.
Why after some time shining iron articles become dull?
Answer:
Due to rust.

Question 16.
What is the colour of rust coating on iron?
Answer:
Brown colour.

Question 17.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
When a metal comes in contact with moisture, acid etc. it gets corroded and the process is called corrosion.

Question 18.
What is the colour of coating on silver due to corrosion?
Answer:
Black coating.

Question 19.
What is the colour of coating on copper due to corrosion?
Answer:
Green coating.

Question 20.
Due to which process, there is a change in smell and taste of food items which contain fat and oils?
Answer:
This change is due to oxidation and is called rancidity.

Question 21.
What do the manufacturer of chips flush in the packets of chips to prevent oxidation?
Answer:
Nitrogen gas.

Question 22.
What is the colour of coating of copper(II) oxide?
Answer:
Black colour.

Question 23.
What is other name of oxidation-reduction reaction.
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Question 24.
When does oxidation of substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is gain of O₂ or loss of H₂.

Question 25.
When does reduction of a substance take place in a reaction?
Answer:
When there is loss of O₂ or gain of H₂.

Question 26.
White coloured silver chloride change to which colour in sunlight?
Answer:
In grey colour.

Question 27.
Give one example of endothermic reaction.
Answer:
3AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl₂(g)

Question 28.
In w hat calcium carbonate dissociate when heat is given to it?
Answer:
Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 29.
Write chemical formula for slaked lime.
Answer:
Ca(OH)₂.

Question 30.
What is special there in potato, rice and bread?
Answer:
Carbohydrate.

Question 31.
What do we get on the decomposition of carbohydrate?
Answer:
Glucose.

Question 32.
Write the reaction for combination of natural gas?
Answer:
CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g) + energy.

Question 33.
What type of reaction is combination of coal and formation of water from H₂ and O₂?
Answer:
Combination reaction.

Question 34.

What is A in above reaction.
Answer:
Chlorophyll.

Question 35.
What is skeletal chemical equation?
Answer:
If in a chemical reaction, number of atoms of each element on left hand side is not equal to number of atoms of each element on right hand side such a reaction is called skeletal chemical equation.

Question 36.
What are products?
Answer:
In a chemical reaction new substances are formed which are known as products.

Question 37.
What are reactants?
Answer:
Those substances which take part in a chemical reaction and undergo chemical changes are called reactants.

Question 38.
What is reduction reaction?
Answer:
It is a reaction in which there is loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen.

Question 39.
What is oxidation reaction?
Answer:
It is reaction in which there is loss of hydrogen or gain of oxygen.

Question 40.
If in a reaction one reactant is reduced and other is oxidised, what is name of such a reaction?
Answer:
Redox reaction.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The chemical reaction given below represents :
BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) →
BaSO₄(s) + 2 NaCl(aq)
(A) Decomposition reaction
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Double diplacement reaction.
Answer:
(D) Double displacement reaction

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out is called:
(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Polymerisation reaction
(D) All.
Answer:
(A) Exothermic reaction

Question 3.
During electrolysis, hydrogen and oxygen are produced in the ratio by volume :
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:2
(D) 4:1.
Answer:
(A) 2: 1.

Question 4.
The chemical formula of rust is:
(A) Fe₂O₃
(B) FeCO₃
(C) Fe₂O₃ .xH₂O
(D) FeCO₃ xH₂O.
Answer:
(C) Fe₂O₃ .xH₂O

Question 5.
Which is an example of a decomposition reaction?
PSEB 10th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 23
Answer:

Question 6.
Redox reaction involves:
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Both oxidation and reduction
(D) None.
Answer:
(C) Both oxidation and reduction

Question 7.
In a packet of chips oxygen is replaced by gas:
(A) CO₂
(B) SO₂
(C) N₂
(D) O₃.
Answer:
(C) N₂

Question 8.
Zn(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)
What type of chemical reaction is shown by the above equation?
(A) Combination reaction
(B) Dissociation reaction
(C) Displacement reaction
(D) Double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(C) Displacement reaction.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Complete the following chemical equation.

Answer:

Question 2.
Respiration is an ________ reaction.
Answer:
Respiration is an exothermic reaction.

Question 3.
Rusting of iron is a ________ reaction.
Answer:
Rusting iron is a redox reaction.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 28 Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is called the F.I.R.
Answer:
First investigation report

Question 2.
__________ is the highest court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court.

Question 3.
The main organs of the government are __________
Answer:
Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

Question 4.
The supreme court judges remains in office upto the age of years, while the high court judges upto the age of __________ year.
Answer:
65, 62

Question 5.
PIL means __________
Answer:
Public interest litigation.

Question 6.
Criminal cases are registered under Article
Answer:
134.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗):

Question 1.
Judiciary is called the defender of the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Dual Judiciary System is in practice in India.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
An appeal cannot be made in High Court against the District court decisions.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
The Prime Minister appoint the Judges.
Answer:

Question 5.
Criminal cases are related to quarrels regarding land and property.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Under which has the Supreme Court been provided special powers?
(A) Article 134
(B) Article 135
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 137.
Answer:
(C) Article 136.

Question 2.
How are the High Court formed?
(A) District level
(B) Tehsil Level
(C) State Level
(D) Village Level.
Answer:
(C) State Level.

Question 3.
How can the Public Interest cases be fijed?
(A) For defending self interest
(B) For defending government interest
(C) For defending public interest
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) For defending Public interest.

IV. Answer the following questions in not more than 15 words :

Question 1.
What is Judiciary?
Answer:
Judiciary is that part of government which does the work of Justice. It protects the constitution and fundamental rights. It also gives punishment to those who violate the law.

Question 2.
Which is the highest court of India and where is it located?
Answer:
Highest court of India is known as the Supreme Court and Supreme Court of India is situated in Delhi, the Capital of India.

Question 3.
What are the main Cases?
Answer:
Mainly suits are of two types-Civil suits and Criminal suits. Suits of fundamental rights, marriage, divorce, property, land disputes are included in civil suits. Suits of quarrel, violence, murder, etc. comes in the category of criminal suits.

Question 4.
What are civil cases?
Answer:
Civil cases are related with general public. Suits of fundamental rights of citizens, marriage, divorce, rape, property and land disputes comes in the category of civil suits. They are related with the personal life.

Question 5.
Who are legal Adviser?
Answer:
Whichever lawyer takes up case from the side of government is known as legal adviser.

Question 6.
What is public interest litigation?
Answer:
Public interest litigation can be filed against any department, official or institution of the government. It is necessary that this type of suit should be related with public interest. We cannot use public interest litigation for the protection of our personal interests. This type of case is fought by public prosecutor.

Question 7.
What is F.I.R.?
Answer:
Meaning of F.I.R. is informing the police quickly if any incident occurs in the surrounding. This information is being given to the nearest police station.

V. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of Judiciary.
Answer:
Judiciary is that part of government that does the work of giving justice. Judiciary is of great importance in Democratic government because it is known as the caretaker of the constitution. It takes care of democracy and it is the supporter of rights and freedoms. The importance of the Judiciary is more in federalism because it resolves the disputes which occur between center and different states. It also has to play a great role for the security and impartial explanation of the constitution. Quality of Judiciary is the topmost criteria of checking quality of any government.

Question 2.
Write the special powers of the judiciary of India.
Answer:
Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is related to listening of appeals. It takes up the appeals against decisions of high court. These appeals are of three types-Constitutional, Civil and Criminal.
1. Constitutional Appeal
(a) If a high court of any state issues a certificate about any civil or criminal case that more constitutional explanation,is required in this case then appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court.
(b) If high court does not issue such certificate then-Supreme Court itself can give approval and can take up the case.

2. Civil Appeals,
(a) If high court proves that any legal question of general importance in any case arises then appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court.
(b) In some specific cases, appeal can be made in Supreme Court against the decision of high court even without the approval of high court.

3. Criminal Appeals. Supreme Court can listen the criminal appeals against the decisions of high court under the following conditions :
(a) Any such suit in which lower court has not found any person guilty but high court has given him the Death Sentence.
(b) If high court has called any case from the lower court itself and has given death sentence to the culprit.
(c) If high court proves that the case is eligible for further appeal.

Except this under Article 136, Supreme Court has the special right to listen to appeal of any case against the decision of high courts.

Question 3.
Write about the Judiciary system of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court is situated in the capital of the country, High Courts in different ‘states and District Courts are situated in districts. Gram Panchayat is being organized at village level to give justice to the people. But the scope of righs of Gram Panchayat is not very wide. It solves only cases of small disputes. It is not authorised to give imprisonment to any criminal. It generally fines the criminals.

Question 4.
What are criminal cases? What is difference between civil and criminal cases?
Answer:
Cases of violence, quarrels, abusing, murder, etc. are included in criminal cases. When any person suffers physical loss or his body hurt or any of his body part hurts then this type of issue comes under the category of criminal cases. For example, if any person captures land of other person illegally then it is a subject of civil case. But when both the parties struck and quarrel with each other and if physical loss is there then this case becomes civil as well as criminal. Intention of murder is also included in criminal case. If proceeding of criminal case against anyone under I.P.C. 134 starts then he can be given death penalty.

On contrary to that, civil cases are associated with fundamental rights, marriage, divorce, rape, land disputes. In this way they are related with personal life of the person.

Question 5.
Where can FIR be registered? Explain the role of judiciary in the event of the FIR not being registered.
Answer:
The meaning of F.I.R. is giving first information of any incident to the police. This complaint can be registered at any nearby police station. Police of any police centre cannot deny to register this information. But even then if F.I.R. of any person is not being registered at any police centre then he can take the help of high court or Supreme Court.

It is written in our Constitution that any court can. direct the police to register F.I.R. Except this court itself can register the F.I.R. and can direct the police to investigate the matter. There are certain privileges with Supreme Court. But no such example came around us in which any police officer declined to register F.I.R.’ of any incident.” In this case courts of the country are given specific rights.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Judiciary and Its Special Jurisdiction Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and :
(a) 13 other Judges
(b) 25 other Judges
(c) 20 other Judges
(d) 33 other Judges.
Answer:
(d) 33 other Judges.

Question 2.
The Judges of the Supreme Court of India retire at the age :
(a) 62
(b) 65
(c) 60
(d) 50.
Answer:
(b) 65.

Question 3.
Number of Judges of the Supreme Court is fixed by :
(a) Parliament
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(a) Parliament.

Question 4.
Supreme Court sits at :
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Shimla.
Answer:
(b) Delhi.

Question 5.
Salary of the Chief Justice of India is :
(a) ₹ 26,000
(b) ₹ 2,80,000
(c) ₹ 28,000
(d) ₹ 30,000.
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,80,000

Question 6.
While appointing the Judges of the Supreme Court it is obligatory for the President to consult the :
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Law Minister
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India.
Answer:
(d) Chief Justice of India.

Question 7.
Whom does Supreme Court advise
(a) Cabinet
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Parliament.
Answer:
(c) President.

Question 8.
Which one of the following is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) Cabinet.
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court.

Question 9.
The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the :
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) People
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President.
Answer:
(d) President.

Question 10.
Judicial Review power is with :
(o) Parliament
(6) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Both with Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
(d) Both with Supreme Court and High Court.

Question 11.
In India, the power of Judicial Review is :
(a) Extra-constitutional
(b) Unconstitutional
(c) Constitutional
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Constitutional.

Question 12.
Which one of the following does not fall within the original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the State
(b) Disputes between the States
(c) Disputes related to Fundamental Rights
(d) Disputes related to the Directive Principles.
Answer:
(d) Disputes related to the Directive Principles.

Question 13.
Harinder Singh, a resident of Gaushala road has many marriage palaces near his house. He is troubled by the noise caused by these palaces till late in the night. He also understands that the same noise troubles the students, the elders and patients as well. Subsequently he Hies a petition against the urban administration in the High Court. Under which type will the High Court register this petition?
(a) Civil Case
(b) Criminal Case
(c) Public Interest Case
(d) Appeal.
Answer:
(c) Public Interest Case.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is known as first information report.
Answer:
F.I.R.

Question 2.
__________ is the highest court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 3.
__________, __________ and __________ are the main organs of Government.
Answer:
Legislature, Executive, Judiciarty,

Question 4.
The judges of Supreme Court retire at the age of __________ years.
Answer:
65.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Judiciary is known as guardian of the Constitution.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Dual Judicial System is implemented in India.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Appeal cannot be filed in high Court against the decision of District Court.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
Judges are appointed by the Prime Minister.
Answer:
(✗)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Supreme Court	(i) State’s Court
2. High Court	(ii) Property Dispute
3. Criminal Case	(iii) Delhi
4. Civil Case	(iv) Violence

Answer:

A	B
1. Supreme Court	(iii) Delhi
2. High Court	(i) State’s Court
3. Criminal Case	(iv) Violence
4. Civil Case	(ii) Property Dispute

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the term of Judges of Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
Judges of Supreme Court can remain on their post till 65 years of age and judges of High Court can remain on their post till the age of 62 years.

Question 2.
Which privilege is given to Supreme Court by Article 136 of the Constitution?
Answer:
Article 136 of the Constitution has given privilege to Supreme Court that it can listen to any appeal against the decision of High Court in that particular case.

Question 3.
What is Special Courts Act?
Answer:
According to Special Courts Act, appeal can be made only in Supreme Court against the decision of High Court. It is necessary to appeal within 30 days after the decision being given by Special Court.

Question 4.
Describe the composition of Supreme Court,
Answer:
At present Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and 30 other Judges. Article 127 (1) makes provision for the appointment of adhoc judges also.

Question 5.
How the judges of Supreme Court are appointed?
Answer:
The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President on the recomendation of Chief Justice of India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Structure of Single Judiciary has been established in India.” Clarify.
Answer:
All the courts of the country are connected with each other. Highest court of the country, Supreme Court, is situated in New Delhi, the capital of India. States have their own high courts. Session Court is there at the district level. Except this Sub-division officer (civil) is there at Tehsil level. Gram Panchayats, Municipal Committees arid Municipal Councils have been established to provide justice to people at local level. High courts are under Supreme Court and district courts are under high courts. In this way court of sub-divisional magistrate is under district court. From this it is clear that structure of single judiciary has been established in the country.

Question 2.
How Judiciary has been made independent and impartial?
Answer:
The following provisions have been kept to., make judiciary independent and impartial in India :

Judiciary has been kept separated from legislature and executive so that no government or party could be able to control it.
Judges are appointed by the President according to their ability.
According to the rules made for term of judges, judges of Supreme Court can remain on their post till the age of 65 years and Judges of High Court can remain till the age of 62 years. Process of removing them from their post is not very easy.
Salary of judges is also more than others. It cannot be reduced during their term of office.

Question 3.
Which type of efforts can a person do to register an FIR or First Information Report?
Answer:
The meaning of F.I.R. is by registering report of any incident to the police. This report can be registered at the nearby police station. According to the law, police of any police station cannot deny to register F.I.R. If it does not register the report then the S.H.O. (Station House Incharge) can be called to do so. If S.H.O. also denies to register the FIR then Deputy Suprintendent of Police can be met regarding this. If even he (D.S.P.) denies to do so then person can approach Suprintendent of Police. If he also does so then FIR can be registered in any police station of the country.

Question 4.
Who appoints the Judges?
Answer:
Mainly judges are appointed by the President. He appoints the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and then with his advice, he appoints other judges of Supreme Court.

While appointing judges of High Court, he takes advice of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court as well as of Chief Justice of High Court and Governor of that particular state. Judges of District courts are appointed by Governor of State and he takes advice of the High Court in this case.

Question 5.
Express your views on the moving of cases from a lower court to the upper courts.
Answer:
A system of providing justice to citizens has been kept in the Indian Constitution. If it seems that justice has not been done in any case then any citizen can take the shelter of the high court. Appeals can be made in High Court against the decision of the District Court and appeals can also be made in Supreme Court against the decision of the High Court. High Court is committed to accepting the decision of the Supreme Court. In the same way, District Court is committed to accepting the decision of the High Court.

Question 6.
Write about the role of the Public Prosecutor.
Or
Who are government prosecutors?
Answer:
Public prosecutors are those lawyers who fight any case in favour of the government. Different types of public prosecutors are there for different types of suits. It means that there are different public prosecutors of cases like cases between government and government officials, cases of public property, criminal cases, civil cases, etc. In all these cases public prosecutor stands in favour of the government and he defends the government in every case.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 29 Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Social, Political and Economic justice is promised in __________
Answer:
Preamble

Question 2.
The preamble promises justice to the Indian citizen.
Answer:
Social

Question 3.
Freedom has been given from Article __________ to __________ of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
25, 28

Question 4.
There are more than __________ castes in India.
Answer:
3000

Question 5.
The were massacred in Delhi in 1984.
Answer:
Sikhs

Question 6.
__________ languages are recognised by the constitution of India.
Answer:
22

Question 7.
The Mandal Commission was set up in __________
Answer:
1978

Question 8.
The Mandal Commission has identified __________ Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes.
Answer:
3743.

II. Put a tick against the Right (✓) and a cross against the wrong (✗) :

Question 1.
The social inequalities do not affect the government.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
54% of the Indian population is illiterate today.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Hindi is the National language of the India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Seats are reserved for Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes even today.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
The 73 and 74 Amendment of the constitution govern the Local self government in the villages and the cities.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 6.
Reservation has been given to the schedule caste and schedule tribes in local self government.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 7.
Social inequalities are coming to an end in the Indian society.
Answer:
(✗)

III. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who said, caste is the most important party in India?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru
(C) Shri Jai Parkash Narain
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(C) Shri Jai Parkash Narain.

Question 2.
Which Fundamental Right has been added to the Constitution of India to ensure social justice to the Indian people?
(A) Right to Liberty
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to Equality
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) Right to Equality.

Question 3.
Whose Motto fs ‘Read All, develop all’?
(A) RMSA
(B) SSA
(C) National Education Commission
(D) PSEB.
Answer:
(D) PSEB.

Question 4.
For whom is reservation of seats permissible in government jobs?
(A) Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes
(B) Only for Backward Classes
(C) Schedule caste, Schedule Tribes and Backward Classes.
(D) Only for poor people.
Answer:
(C) Schedule Caste, Schedule Tribes and Backward Classes.

IV. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words:

Question 1.
What do you mean by social inequality?
Answer:
Many types of inequalities exist in our society on the basis of Caste, Community, Language etc. It is known as social inequality.

Question 2.
What do you understand by casteism and untouchability?
Answer:
Casteism. The Indian society is divided in many classes on the name of caste. Sense of higher and lower exists in these classes. It is known as casteism.

Untouchability. People of lower castes in India were hated by people of higher castes. Some people even considered it as a sin if they would be touched by any person of lower caste. This custom was known as Untouchability.

Question 3.
What is illiteracy?
Answer:
The meaning of illiteracy is that people are unable to read and write. These types of people are easily deviated by our politicians. According to one survey, around 34.62% of total population of India is illiterate.

Question 4.
What is meant by Linguism?
Answer:
Hundreds of languages are spoken in India. Some people consider their language as better language than the others. They even hate those people who speak other language. This custom is known as Linguism.

Question 5.
What is meant by reservation?
Answer:
Many castes in India are backward because they are being exploited by other castes. They are given the names of Scheduled Castes. Some seats are reserved for them in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and in government jobs. It is known as reservation.

Question 6.
Has Scanaging been discontinued?
Answer:
Yes, Scavaging been discontinued by passing certain laws.

Question 7.
How does illiteracy affect Democracy?
Answer:
If any one is unable to read and write, then he can be called as illiterate. According to Census survey of 2011, around 25% of total population is illiterate. Illiteracy is one of the biggest curse because it is the root cause of many social evils. Many evils occur due to this like unemployment, religious fundamentalism, regionalism, casteism, superstitions, poverty, etc. Illiterate, person cannot become a good citizen. Illiterate persons are easily deviated by political leaders.

Impact of Illiteracy:

Illiteracy is the root cause of the social inequalities.
It creates obstacles in the way of success of democracy.
It is an obstacle in the formation of public opinion.
Illiterate persons can easily deviate on a wrong path.
Illiterate persons are unable to properly use their right to vote.
Illiteracy is the black spot on the face of society.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Effects of Social Inequalities and Social Justice Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following is a Marginal group?
(a) Muslims
(b) Dalits
(c) Adivasis
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 2.
Untouchability is abolished under which article of the constitution?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 14.
Answer:
(a) Article 17.

Question 3.
Reservation Policy is adopted by the government for the benefits of :
(a) Scheduled castes
(b) Backward classes
(c) Scheduled tribes
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 4.
Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act was passed in :
(a) 1989
(b) 1983
(c) 1993
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1993.

Question 5.
When Safai Karamchari Andolan and 13 other organizations Died a PIL in the Supreme Court?
(a) 1989
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2000.
Answer:
(c) 2003.

Question 6.
What is the Literacy rates among the tribal people. According to 2001 census?
(o) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 31%
(d) 29.5%.
Answer:
(d) 29.5%.

Question 7.
How much of India’s population is illiterate?
(a) 25.96%
(b) 20.64%
(c) 30.86%
(d) 24.64%.
Answer:
(a) 25.96%.

Question 8.
How many approximately castes are there in India?
(o) 2000
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 5000.
Answer:
(b) 3000.

Question 9.
Which of these is a type of inequality is there in India?
(a) Commvmalism
(b) Untouchability
(e) Illiteracy
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
In the year 2002, this right was given by the 86th Amendment in the Constitution to implement it, an ACT was passed in 2009. In April 2010, it was implement in all over India. (P.S.E.B. 2020)
(a) Right to information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to live
(d) Right to Equality.
Answer:
(b) Right to Education.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
It is promised in the __________ to provide Social, Political and Economic justice.
Answer:
Preamble

Question 2.
Articles __________ to __________ provide as right to freedom of religion.
Answer:
25, 28

Question 3.
More than castes are there in India.
Answer:
3000

Question 4.
__________ languages are sanctioned in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
22

Question 5.
Mandal Commission was established in __________
Answer:
1978

Question 6.
Mandal Commission identified __________ Scheduled Castes and Tribes in India.
Answer:
3743.

Tick the Right (✓) or Wrong (✗) Answer :

Question 1.
Social inequalities do not influence democratic government.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Around 54% population in India is illiterate.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Hindi is the official language in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Reservation policy exists for scheduled castes and tribes.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
73rd and 74th amendment provides local self government in villages and eities.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 6.
Presently social inequalities are reducing in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Match the Following :

Question 1.

A	B
1. Untouchability Offence Act	(i) 1978
2. Formation of Mandal Commission	(ii) 1955
3. Right to Equality	(iii) Article 25-28
4. Right to Freedom of Religion	(iv) Article 14-18

Answer:

A	B
1. Untouchability Offence Act	(ii) 1955
2. Formation of Mandal Commission	(i) 1978
3. Right to Equality	(iv) Article 14-18
4. Right to Freedom of Religion	(iii) Article 25-28

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the three most important elements included in the Indian Constitution which determine the social equality.
Answer:
Equality, Liberty and Secularism.

Question 2.
According to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which three types of justice shall be given to all the citizens?
Answer:
Social, economic and political.

Question 3.
Give any four types of social inequalities.
Answer:

Communalism
Casteism and Untouchability
Linguism
Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Why untouchability has been declared as a legal offence?
Answer:
Untouchability is an inhuman custom. It is the largest obstacle in the successful functioning of democracy. That’s why, untouchability has been declared as a legal offence.

Question 5.
What efforts are being done by government to eradicate Illiteracy?
Answer:
Our government is taking many steps to eradicate illiteracy from the society. ‘Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan’ is being run in whole of the country. Free and compulsory education has been started upto class VIII. Educational institutions have been increased. Right of education has been included in Fundamental Rights.

Question 6.
How many languages are legally sanctioned in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
22 languages are legally sanctioned by the Constitution and Hindi language has been given the legal sanction of National Language.

Question 7.
What do you mean by communal inequality?
Answer:
People of many religions and communities live over here in India. Religious fundamentalism exists in some persons of these Communities which gives rise to Communalism. It is known as Communal inequality.

Question 8.
What were the people called who use to pick human waste from the households?
Answer:
Some people were forced to pick human waste on their heads to throw it outside. These people were known as untouchables.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Communal Inequality in India.
Answer:
Communalism is the first form of social inequality. Many religions exist over here in India. Some people of different religions are fundamentalists and they give birth to communalism. As a result, communalism has become one of the part of social and political life. Due to this religious intolerance, India was divided in two parts in 1947 A.D. Communal riots in the country is the result of this religious intolerance. This intolerance also exists in Indian politics. Leaders call for vote on the name of religions and religious sentiments of the people are encouraged. As a result the atmosphere of religious tension occurs from time to time in the country.

People are given religious freedom by Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution. According to it, all religions are equal in front of law. People are given freedom to adopt and propagate any religion.

Question 2.
What is meant by Custom of picking human waste from households? Why it has been stopped?
Answer:
Custom of picking human waste from households is a custom of hatredness. This custom was going on from centuries. According to it, few people were forced to pick human waste, of others on their heads to throw it outside.

These people were considered as untouchables. They were hated by everyone. It was necessary to eradicate this evil from society in modern age: Governments tried to eradicate this custom from time to time. Now this custom has been legally eradicated. If any one tries to use this custom, then he is being punished by law.

Question 3.
Give brief description of marginal groups of India.
Answer:
Marginal groups are those groups of our society, which remained backward for a long-long time due to social and economic reasons.

Brief description of these groups is given ahead :

Scheduled Castes: There is no clear constitutional definition of Scheduled Castes. But we can only say that these castes are related to those people who were behaved like untouchables. According to Census of 2011, their population in India was 15% of the total population of the country.
Scheduled Tribes: There is no clear constitutional definition of Scheduled Tribes as well. These are exploited tribes of society. They were remained away from our society due to their backwardness. According to Census of 2011, their population in India was 7.5% of the total population of the country.
Backward Classes: They are not defined by the Constitution as well. Actually this is the weakest class of our society. According to Mandal Commission, their population in India was 41% of the total population of the country.
Minorities: Minorities are those people from religious or linguistic point of view, whose numbers are less in the country. According to Census Survey of 2011 they are around 18.42% of the total population of the country.

Question 4.
Write in detail the effects of communal inequality.
Answer:
Following are the impacts of communal inequality :

Political parties are organised on the basis of religion.
Many religion based pressure groups affect the Indian democracy.
Inequality encourages violence in communal Indian social life.
Specific religion is given importance in formation of Council of Ministers.
Communalism stops the people to do impartial voting.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Linguism? Write its effects also.
Answer:
Meaning of Linguism is division of society on the basis of language. Hundreds of languages are spoken in India. People are being divided on the basis of language. They dislike those persons who speak other languages. Many states are formed, in India, on the basis of language. Even today, demand of forming new states on the basis of language is being raised. Classes are formed among people on the basis of language. People give preference to their regional language and culture instead of national interests.

Impacts:

Demand of new states, on the basis of language, is being raised.
Political parties are being organized on the basis of religion.
Movements are going on, on the basis of religion.
Language gives encouragement to regionalism and communalism.
Discrimination and violence occur among the people on the basis of language.
Linguism also affects the election process.

Question 6.
What is reservation? Explain in detail.
Answer:
One of the largest group of Indian society isrbackward because they were being exploited from the ages. They were given the name of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. According to Articles 330 and 332 of the Constitution, there is a provision of keeping reserved seats for them in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies according to their proportion in population. It is known as reservation. In the beginning, this system was kept for 10 years but due to different constitutional amendments this systems has been raised till 2020 A.D.

In the same way, according to 72nd and 73rd amendment of the Constitution, now seats are reserved for Scheduled castes and Women in rural and local self-bodies. Even seats for Scheduled Castes are reserved in government jobs. In 1978 A.D, Mandal Commission recommended to reserve seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward classes but this report has not been implemented till today. May be it will be implemented in the near future. Demand of keeping one third seats reserved for women is being raised from time to time. Actually Indian political system is being affected by politics of caste. It has been rightly said by Shri Jai Prakash Narayan that, “Caste in India is the most important political party.”

Question 7.
Write the effects and explain in detail about casteism.
Answer:
Casteism. People of more than 3000 castes live over here in India. Sense of higher or lower, based on caste, exists among them. It is known as caste inequality. Because of this inequality, people of some castes are unable to use public wells. They are even not allowed to enter temples or any other public places. Politics is going on in the name of the caste and different political parties motivates the people to work against people of other castes.

Impacts:

Political parties are being formed on the basis of caste.
Leaders call for the vote on the name of caste during elections.
System of giving special facilities to certain castes has divided our society.
Inhuman practice of untouchability has been encouraged due to casteism.
Many a times caste becomes one of the result of conflict and violence.
Caste-based pressure groups are being formed and they have a very bad impact on democracy.

Question 8.
Do you think untouchability is inhuman? Explain why?
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that untouchability is an inhuman practice. One of the largest classes of our society was exploited from the ages due to this practice. They were being hated by higher castes. They were even not allowed to touch the people of higher castes. From the impacts of untouchability, it becomes clear that it is an inhuman practice.

Impacts:

The customs of untouchability give rise to social inequality.
This custom gives -birth to an inferiority complex among people.
This custom gives rise to violence.
People are unable to get political education.
Many people were not allowed to enter politics due to untouchability.
So that is why untouchability has been declared illegal.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
20 century is called The Golden Era of democracy. A trend towards democracy started among the Europeans. British and America remarked that first world war was fought for the security of demoracy and the principle of self-decision. Many new countries came into existence after 1st World War. These countries preferred to adopt democrative system. Those countries who were prey to imperialism expressed their desire to demolish imperialism and establish democracy.
But this golden period of democracy soon disappeared and democracy had to face adverse circumstances. After 1st World War, democracy had to face a set back in Italy and Germany due to the birth of two movements which were not in favour of democracy. The advent of ideology of Nazism in Germany and Facism in Italy proved disastrous for democracy. Both the ideologies were in the favour of dictatorship. Due to these ideologies, the tragedy of second world war happened between 1939-45.
(а) Which century is known as the Golden Era of democracy and why?
Answer:
20th century is known as the Golden Era of democracy because this was the time when European people started looking towards democracy. Even the first World War (1914-18) was fought for the security of democracy and the principle of self-decision. Many new countries were formed after the war and they all adopted the democratic set-up.

(b) Why did the Golden period of democracy end very soon?
Answer:
The Golden era of democracy ended after first World War because it faced adverse circumstances. Nazism and fascism started in Germany and Italy respectively and dictatorship established over there. This dictatorship encouraged the imperial policy and that’s why second World War started which lasted till 1945.

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Like India, there was colonialism in Ghana, (African Continent) : Firstly, it was known as Gold Coast. It was among the first country of Africa which got independence from the Britishers in 1957. This country inspired other countries of Africa for independence. A great personality of Ghana, who was the son of a goldsmith (Name- Kqame Nkrumah)-led this freedom movement and got his country freed. He became 1st Prime Minister and later on became the President of Ghana. He was a friend of Pt. Nehru. He inspired the people of other countries of Africa continent to establish democracy. He got himself elected as President for the ‘lifetime’. But soon in 1966, he was dethroned by a military conspiracy 3Military dictatorship was established in Ghana. Like Ghana the Countries which adopted democracy after Independence could not retain it continuously but in India working of democracy is still continue after independence.
(a) Tell something about Ghana’s struggle for independence.
Answer:
Ghana was earlier known as Gold Coast which is situated in Africa. Ghana was also a victim of Colonialism and was under the occupation of the British. Kagame Nkrumah led the freedom struggle of Ghana and got the country independent from the British in 1957 A.D.

(b) Briefly tell about Kqame Nkrumah.
Answer:
Kqame Nkrumah was the son of a goldsmith. He led Ghana’s freedom struggle against the British and got his country independent. He became the first Prime Minister of Ghana and later on became the President for the lifetime. But soon in 1966, he was dethroned by a military conspiracy. Military dictatorship was then established in Ghana.

Question 3.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Democracy is such a structural arrangement where free and fair participation of people is ensured to get the political power. In democarcy the people control the government. Sometime democracy is called as the rule of masses (entire public). But it is merely a hypothesis as all the people are not of the same opinion. Democracy is sometimes called the government of the majority. This is also not appropriate. For example, many times an anarchist becomes successful to win the support of the majority on the basis of violence or misuse of power. Shall we call such a government as democratic?
The freedom to elect is the root or base of democracy. The existence of democracy lies in the difference of opinion. Every person has .his own view to solve national problems. In democracy difference of opinion is shown through ballots and not bullets. There is no place for violence in democracy. In election any ideology becomes successful to win the support of majority of people and becomes successful to hold political power.
(a) What is meant by democracy?
Answer:
Democarcy is a type of government in which government is elected for a fixed period of time through Universal Adult Franchise and this government works for the welfare of people. In this way democracy is such a structural arrangement where free and fair participation of people is ensured to get the political power.

(b) Give features of democracy?
Answer:

Democracy is a type of government.
Right to choose is the main base of democracy.
Government is elected for a fixed period of time.
Every person has the right to cast one vote and value of each vote is same.
Democracy allows us to correct our mistakes.

Question 4.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian Fijian. In democracy the principle of ‘One person—one vote—one value’ is applicable. Therefore, we can’t call Fiji as a democractic country.
Now we will take an example of Mexico. It became independent in 1930. Mexico holds elections after every six years to elect its President. The power of government never remains in the hands of military or dictator. But until 2000 every election was won by PRI party. Other parties were free to contest the election. But being in power, PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party) party was known to use unfair means. Government officials and officers were forced to attend meeting of PRI Party. Government teachers were directed to insist the parents to cast their votes in favour of PRI Party. The polling booths were shifted from one place to another in the eleventh hour on polling day so that the opposition leader might not be successful to cast their votes. All these examples reveal that only periodical elections are not sufficient but free and fair poll is essential. If a party wins the election by unfair or suppressive means we will not call it true democracy.
(а) What is meant by free and fair elections?
Answer:
The meaning of free and fair elections is that the elections must take place impartially and without any impact or pressure. Ruling party must not use unfair means to win 6ver the votes and people must choose their representatives without any fear.

(b) Which unfair methods were used in Mexico to win elections?
Answer:
From 1930 to 2000 A.D., only one party in Mexico won elections and the party was PRI. It used following unfair means to win elections.

Government officials were forced to attend meetings of PRI.
Government teachers were directed to insist the parents to cast their votes in favour of PRI.
The polling booths were shifted from one place to another in the eleventh hour on polling day so that the opposition leaders might not be successful to cast their votes.

Question 5.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
India became independent on 15 August, 1947. But the process of making constitution for India had been started before independence. Leaders of India adopted Parliamentary democratic system for India which is the main feature of our constitution. The constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly which was elected indirectly. It took two years, eleven months and eighteen days to frame the constitution.
The demand for the Constituent Assembly for framing Indian Constitution was raised by Congress for the first time in 1935. The British Government accepted it in 1940. The election of Constituent Assembly was made on Nov. 19, 1946 indirectly from the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The total number of members of the Constituent Assembly was 389, of whom 93 were representatives from the Indian States, 292 from the Provinces (British India) and 4 from the area of Chief Commissioners.
(a) From whom and when India got independence?
Answer:
India got independence from the British on 15th August 1947 A.D.

(b) Give two main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

Indian Constitution is the written constitution and is the lengthiest in the world.
Parliamentary form of government is adopted in India.

(c) How were the members of the Constituent Assembly elected?
Answer:
The demand for framing the Indian Constitution was raised by Congress for the first time in 1935. According to the recommendations of the Constituent Assembly, the members of Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The Constituent Assembly had 389 members, of whom 93 were representatives from the Indian States, 292 from the Provinces of the British India and 4 from the area of Chief Commissioners.

Question 6.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
The Preamble to the constitution states the objects which the constitution seeks to establish and promote. It is the window of the constitution from which we can have a glimpse of objectives, principles and features of our constitution.
It is considered to be a part of constitution because it can be amended like other articles of constitution. Though the preamble is not enforceable in a court of Law, it provides a key to the understanding and interpretation of the constitution.
The Preamble declares India as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. It ensures to all its citizens justice, social, economic and political. It ensures them liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. It ensures them equality of opportunity and status among them all. It declares fraternity assuming the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.
(a) What is meant by the Preamble?
Answer:
Preamble is nothing but the nutshell of the Indian Constitution. The Preamble tells us about the basic objectives and features of the constitution. The Preamble is known as the part of the Indian Constitution.

(b) What is the importance of the Preamble of the Constitution?
Answer:

The Preamble declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
It ensures to all its citizens justice, social, economic and political.
It ensures them liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
It ensures them equality of opportunity and status among them all.

Question 7.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
The constitution of India is the largest and the most comprehensive of all the written constitutions of the world. Originally, it consists of 395 Articles and 8 schedules. Now it exists of 12 schedules and many new articles have been added under the original articles. It is extended due to a number of amendments. After 42nd constitutional amendment two new parts 4A & 14A were added to it. The 9th schedule was added in 1951 under first amendment. The 10th schedule regarding ‘Anti Defection Law’ was added in 1985 by 52nd Constitutional Amendment. The 11th schedule regarding power, authority and responsibility of Panchayati Raj Institution was added under 73rd constitutional amendment in 1992. The 12th schedule was added in 1992 under 74th Constitutional Amendment. It is realed to local self-government in Urban area (Municipalities.)
(a) Why is the Indian Constitution lengthiest in the world?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is lengthiest in the world as originally it had 395 articles and 8 schedules. Later on many new schedules and articles were added in it. Now there are 450 articles and 12 schedules in it. Every minute detail is given in it. Many Constitutional Amendments were added in it and that’s why it has become more lengthy.

(b) What were 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?
Answer:
To establish local Self Government in the country, 73rd and 74th Amendments were made in the Constitution. According to 73rd Amendment, a three tier structure of Local Self Government was established in rural areas. According to 74th Amendment, Local Self Government was established in urban areas.

Question 8.
Read the source and answer the following questions
In Parliamentary System, Head of the state is President, Governor General, King or Queen. In India, France and Austria, President is the head of the State. In Canada, Australia, New Zealand Governor-General is the head of state while in Japan, England, Denmark, Holland, Sweden and Norway King or Queen is the head of the State. The head of these-countries are titular or nominal executive. The main features of the Parliamentary System is that constitutionally head of the country has enormous powers but practically he does not use these powers. Practically, the cabinet exercises these powers. The hea,d of Parliamentary form of Government is like India’s President. The cabinet runs the administration in the name of State Head but the entire responsibility of Government lies on its shoulder.
(a) What do you mean by Parliamentary form of government.
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government in which government is elected from within the Parliament. It means that the Parliament will be elected by the people and then government will be elected from within the Parliament. The Parliament will keep control over the government which will take Parliament’s permission for every work.

(b) Give features of Parliamentary systeng.
Answer:

In Parliamentary system there is a Head of the State such as the President of India. He is the nominal Head of the country.
Constitutionally, Head of the country is given enormous powers but practically, he does not use all of his powers.
Council of Ministers uses all the powers of the Head of the country. In this way Council of Ministers is responisble to run administration of the country.

Question 9.
Read the source and answer the given questions :
In the Parliamentary system, Prime-Minister leads the cabinet. In the lower house of the Parliament-Prime Minister is the leader of the party with majority. Therefore, he is the leader of the Parliament also. Chief of the state appoints ministers at his recommendations. He presides over the meetings of the cabinet. He decides dates and agenda of cabinet meetings. He consults the cabinet but his decision is final on disputable issues. He distributes the departments among ministers. The Prime- Minister coordinates and supervises the works of ministers. If any minister does not cooperate or is not agreed at his policies then he has to resign. If he does not resign then Prime-Minister can request the President to remove him from his designation. He is the main spokesman of the Government. He informs the President about the decision of the cabinet. He takes the opinion of the President on some specific and important matters. Though he is not bound to follow the opinion of the President yet he thinks over it very seriously.
(a) What is the role of Prime Minister in Parliamentary System?
Answer:
Prime Minister holds the most important position in Parliamentary system because he is the Real Executive Head of country. The President acts only on his advice. Even the President appoints council of ministers on the advice of Prime Minister. He is answerable to the Parliament for his government’s acts. He is actually spokesperson of government.

(b) Discuss functions of Prime Minister.
Answer:

He gets his Council of Ministers appointed by the President.
He divides different departments to Ministers. He can change their departments and, if required, can remove them.
He acts as a link between the President and Council of Ministers.
He informs the President about the decisions of the cabinet.
He represents India at International level.
He presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers.

Question 10.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
All the ministers of the Council of Ministers are responsible to the Parliament. If the parliament passes ‘Censure Motion’ against one minister then whole Council of Ministers, have to resign. If a policy is framed for one department in the Council of Ministers then its responsibility lies on the whole Council of Ministers.
Every minister is personally responsible for his department. If the work of any department is not up to the mark the Prime Minister can ask the minister, of the concerned department to resign. If the minister does not submit his resignation then the Prime Minister can ask the President to remove that minister.
(a) What do you mean by Collective Responsibility of Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The meaning of Collective Responsibility of Council of Ministers is that they are collectively responsible towards Parliament. If a non-confidence motion passes against any minister, the whole of the Council of Ministers will have to resign. It is often said that the Council of Ministers swim and sink together.

(b) What is individual responsibility of Ministers?
Answer:
The meaning of individual responsibility of Ministers is that every minister is responsible for the functioning of his department. If any minister’s department is not working properly, he can be called for an explanation. Members of Parliament can ask any question related to their department and it is must for the ministers to reply. In this way ministers are individually responsible to the Prime Minister and Parliament for the functions of their respective departments.

Question 11.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Fair and free election is the pillar of democracy. Fair and free election implies that voters should cast his/her vote without any fear or pressure. Secondly, he should not misuse his vote under any temptation. The election commission played a significant role in holding fair and free elections. The evils of elections cannot be eradicated till the voter is not awaken. Undoubtedly, the government made many reforms in this direction, for example under the Anti defection act there is complete prohibition on defection. If a winning candidate changes his party then his candidature will be cancelled. But defection still survives in one or the other form. Before election many candidates are competent for election ticket. Those candidates who are not alloted tickets by their party, join other political parties.
(а) What do you mean by free and fair elections?
Answer:
The meaning of free and fair elections is that the voters must cast their vote without having any fear or pressure. Secondly, they must not sell their vote in lieu of money or anything else. Free and fair elections is one of the important base of democracy and in its absense, democracy cannot work smoothly.

(b) What steps have been taken to eradicate evils of elections?
Answer:
Many evils prevail in election system such as use of money, threatening voters, defection of leaders from one party to another etc. Many efforts are made to remove these evils such as:

According to Anti-Defection Laws, no elected M.P. or M.L.A. can change his party. If he will, his membership would be cancelled.
While filling a nomination form, a candidate will have to fill an affidavit containing information about his wealth, moveable and immoveable property and criminal cases pending against him. It tells the people about the character of that leader.
Each political party has to file Income Tax Return so that people must come to know that how money comes to parties.

Question 12.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Periodical Election is an essential feature of the Parliamentary democracy. To establish democracy without election is merely a hypothesis. The basic principle of democracy is to entrust the every citizen right to vote at his/her will. There is clear provision in our constitution about the election of President and Vice President. For the remaining elections, Parliament makes provision from time to time. Single voter list is prepared for the election of Lok Sabha, the State Legislative Assemblies and Local bodies. On the basis of regional representation people of all religions and groups elect the candidate. No constituency is made on the basis of any particular religion or group.
(а) What do you mean by Regular or Periodic Elections?
Answer:
The meaning of regular or periodic elections is that the elections must be conducted after a fixed period of time which can be different in different countries. In India, it is 5 years. If elections are not conducted after a fixed period of time, it is a great danger to democracy. So, periodic elections are must and people must get regular chance to elect their leader.

(b) What is the relation of democracy and elections?
Answer:
Democracy and elections are directly related as the former cannot be maintained without the presence of later. In democracy, representatives are directly elected by the people and democracy sustains only because of elections. If there are no elections, there is no democray. The main base of democracy is to provide the people right to elect their representatives. In this way they both are closely related to each other.

Question 13.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
While living in sociey man enjoys many facilities. For example, he is having freedom of speech and expression. He can convey his ideas through speech and writings. He can move freely throughout the territory of India. He can practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business. He can profess or practise any religion. Man can celebrate his rituals and festivals collectively. People have been blessed with the facility to live with their family. But man can enjoy all these facilities while living in the society. In simple language, these facilities can be named as rights. But, no one can enjoy that facility which is not in the interest of the whole society. So, Rights are those genuine demands by Individual or group of Individuals which are recognised by society and state.
(a) What do you mean by Rights?
Answer:
Rights are those genuine demands by an individual or a group of individuals which are recognised by society and state. In other words, rights are such conditions which are must for an individual to live a happy life. In their absence, we cannot live a happy and prosperous life.

(b) What is the importance of Rights in our lives?
Answer:
Rights play an important role in our lives because :

Rights are the facilities to give us a better life.
Rights give us equality in society.
Only with rights, we can express our feelings and can do anything whatever we want.

Question 14.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
In Indian constitution there are some motives for the personality development of citizens and to ensure their honour. Therefore, the maker of our constitution tried to fulfil these motives by enlisting the fundamental rights in the constitution. The democractic nature of any country is known by the fundamental rights entitled to the citizens of that country.
Indian citizens did not have fundamental rights before independence. But demand of fundamental rights was raised time to time in India’s freedom movement. In 1895, Bal Gangadhar Tilak asked the British Government to pass the ‘Swaraj Bill’. The Bill included right to freedom of thought and expression, equality before law and some other rights for Indian people. In 1928, a demand for equal rights for men and women was also raised through ‘Nehru Report’. But the British Government rejected all these demands. In the Government of India Act 1935, the list of fundamental rights for Indian citizens was not incorporated.
(a) How can we come to know that any country is democratic or not?
Answer:
We can only come to know about any country is democratic or not by looking at the fundamental rights provided to the people. If people are provided with all the fundamental rights we can call that country as democratic.

(b) What was the condition of fundamental rights before independence?
Answer:
Before Indian Independence, people had no rights at all because the British government always followed repressive policies. That’s why many a times, basic rights were demanded from the government. In 1895, Bal Gangadhar Tilak demanded from the government to pass Swaraj Bill and certain rights as well. In 1928, a demand for equal rights for men and women was also raised through Nehru Report. But the British Government did not accept the demands. Even rights were not included in the Government of India Act, 1935. But after 1947, when Indian constitution was formed, people were given all the fundamental rights.

Question 15.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Art. 25 provides freedom of conscience and faith in any religion. This right has been given to justify the aims of India’s being secular as mentioned in the preamble of our constitution. Right to freedom of religion is given to foreigners also.

Art. 26 provides :

Establish and maintain institution for religious and charitable purposes and to preach any religion.
Manage its own affairs in matters of religion and administer such moveable and immoveable .property in accordance with law.

Art. 27 refers that the state cannot compel any citizen to pay any taxes or donations for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institutions.
Under Art. 28, no religious instructions can be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of state funds. However educational institutions of private sector can give religious education. But they can’t compel any students to participate in it.
(a) What is Right to Freedom of Religion?
Answer:
All the citizens of India are given right to freeedom of religion under Articles 25-28. According to this right, citizens are free to adopt, profess and propagate their religion. No one can force them to adopt any other religion.

(b) Explain Articles 26 and 27 of the Indian constitution.
Answer:
Article 26 :

It establishes and maintains institutions for religious and charitable purposes and preaches any religion.
Manages its own affairs in matters of religion and administers such moveable and immoveable property in accordance with law.

Article 27: It refers that the State cannot compel any citizen to pay any taxes or donations for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institutions.

Question 16.
Read the source and answer the following questions :
Power of Judicial review means to sit on judgement over the order of the executive and Laws of the Legislature for their constitutional validity. If any order passed by the executive and a Law passed by a legislature violates the constitution or is not in accordance with the constitution the Supreme Court can declare such an order or Law null and void. The power of judicial review has been entitled to the Supreme Court due to Federal System of the government and of fundamental rights in constitution. This power of judicial review ensures that centre and state government should work in their jurisdiction and should protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
(а) What is meant by the power of Judical Review?
Answer:
The power of judicial review is given to judiciary in India. According to this, if judiciary feels that any law made by the Parliament is against the basic structure of the constitution, it can declare that law null and void or illegal. In this way judiciary can review any law which is its power of judicial review.

(b) What is the importance of the power of Judicial review?
Answer:
The power of judicial review is quite important because it helps in helping Legislature and Executive under control. If legislative passes any bill against the basic provisions of the Constitution, Judiciary can declare that bill illegal and can restore the basic provisions of the Constitution. Supreme Court is known as the Guardian of the Constitution and through the power of judicial review, constitutional provisions are protected. Due to this power of Judiciary, Central and State governments never violate their jurisdiction and fundamental rights of the citizens.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The directive principles of the Indian Constitution have been adopted from
Answer:
Ireland.

Question 2.
__________ was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(i) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(ii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iv) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Republic state has a head :
(i) hereditory successor
(ii) military dictator
(iii) directly or indirectly elected by people
(iv) nominated.
Answer:
(iii) directly or indirectly elected by people.

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) Statements :

Question 1.
Socialist, Secular and integrity words were incorporated in our Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
India is a sovereign, secular and democratic republic.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did India become free?
Answer:
On 15th August, 1947.

Question 2.
“A Constitution is the collection of principles according to which Government powers, rights of the governed and the relations between the two are adjusted.” Who is the author of this statement?
Answer:
Wooles.

Question 3.
How much time was taken to draft the constitution of India?
Answer:
2 years, 11 months and 18 days.

Question 4.
How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
389 members (299 after 15 Aug, 1947).

Question 5.
When was the announcement of division of India made?
Answer:
It was announced on 3rd June, 1947.

Question 6.
How many members remain in the Constituent Assembly after the division of India?
Answer:
There remain 299 members in the Constituent Assembly after the division of India.

Question 7.
Write any two unitary features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

There is only one Constitution for both Centre and States.
All the citizens are given single citizenship.

Question 8.
Write any two federal features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution is the written Constitution.
(ii) Powers are divided between Central and State governments.

Question 9.
Write any two freedom provided by the Constitution of India to its citizens.
Answer:

Freedom to adopt any occupation.
Freedom to move in any part of the country.

Question 10.
With which words the ‘Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins?
Answer:
We the people of India.

Question 11.
Which new words were incorporated to the Constitution of India under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976?
Answer:
With the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, words Socialist, Secular and Integrity were incorporated to the Constitution.

Question 12.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On which main objects the ‘Preamble to the Indian Constitution throw light?
Answer:
The Preamble throws light on the following features of the Indian Constitution.

It says that India is a sovereign, socialist, democratic, secular republic.
It resolves to give social, economic and political justice to all of its citizens.
It provides equality of opportunity and status and freedom to all the citizens, express, belief and profess.
It also declares to maintain individual integrity, national unity and integrity.

Question 2.
Which is a republic country?
Answer:
India is a republic country. The meaning of republic is that head of the country is directly or indirectly elected by the people. Head of the country is elected for a fixed period of time and there is no place of hereditary system in it. Republic is one of the important feature of the Indian Constitution.

Question 3.
India is a secular state, give arguments in its favour.
Answer:

Preamble of the Constitution has declared India a secular state.
All the citizens are free to profess their religion and even to change their religion.
Under the Right to Equality, it is said that no one will be discriminated on the basis of religion.
All the religions in India are treated equally and there is no state religion.

Question 4.
What do you mean by federal structure or federal government? From the Constitution of which country this feature has been taken?
Answer:
The meaning of federal structure or federal government is the division of powers between two level of government and these two levels are central government and state governments. Powers are divided between the both but central government is given more powerful. The federal structure of the’ Indian Constitution is taken from the Canadian Constitution.

Question 5.
The Constitution of India was prepared on November 26,1949 but it came into force on Jan. 26, 1950. Why the date of January 26 was fixed? Comment.
Answer:
At the Lahore session of Congress, 1929, it was decided to celebrate India’s first independence day on 26 January, 1930 although India was not independent. From then onwards, 26 January was celebrated as independence day till 1947. But in 1947, India got its real independence as 15 August. So, to keep the historical importance of 26 January, it was decided to implement the Indian Constitution on this day. In this way 26 January became the Republic day of India.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of Sovereign State?
Answer:
The meaning of Sovereign state is that the country is completely free to take decisions on its external and internal matters. Whenever country is required to form its internal policy or keeping relations with other countries, it is free from any type of pressure. No one can force the country to take any decision.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has given all its adult citizens, the right to vote and this is known as Universal Adult Franchise. All the Indian citizens with the age of 18 years more are given the right to vote without any discrimination. Initially it was 21 years but with the 61st Constitutional Amendment, the age of casting vote was reduced to 18 years.

Question 8.
Write any four unitary features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

All the Indian Citizens are given single citizenship.
All the governments are given single Constitution.
A single unified Judicial system is set up for the whole country.
The Indian Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries and names of the states.
Governors of the states act as the representatives of Central Government and they are appointed by the Central government.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the preamble of Indian Constitution in the original form.
Answer:
We The People of India having solemly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular

Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizen :
Justice, social, economic and political:
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship,
Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; –
In Our Constituent Assembly this twenty-Sixth day of November 1949 do Hereby Adopt, Enact And Give To Ourselves This Constitution.

Question 2.
India is a secular state. Explain the statement.
Answer:
By inserting the word ‘Secular’ in the Preamble of the Constitution by 42nd amendment. India is declared a secular state in clear words. Such a system is adopted in the Constitution that India is made secular state without any doubt. Right to freedom of religion has been granted to all persons residing in India under Articles 25-28 of Indian Constitution. According to this right, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion. State has no religion of its own. The state shows full neutrality in the religious matter. All this shows that India is a secular State.

Question 3.
What do you mean by a Sovereign State? Explain in brief.
Answer:
By sovereign means that now, after the promulgation of .the Constitution. India is not subject to any foreign rule. India is now a sovereign state, internally as well as externally. No other country can compel India to follow or not to follow a particular policy. We can now make any law, remaining of course within the limits imposed by our own Constitution. We can also amend our Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Establishment of Indian Democracy and its Nature Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The Constituent Assembly was set up under the recommendations of:
(a) Cripps Proposals
(b) C.R. Plan
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935.
Answer:
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan.

Question 2.
Which National Leader demanded in 1924 that a Round Table Conference should be called to frame a Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal
(b) Pt. Motilal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dr. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(b) Pt. Motilal Nehru.

Question 3.
The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in :
(a) Jan. 1945
(b) July 1946
(c) August 1946
(d) Dec. 1946.
Answer:
(b) July 1946.

Question 4.
According to the Cabinet Mission Plan, the Constituent Assembly was to consist of:
(a) 285 Members
(b) 380 Members
(c) 389 Members
(d) 490 Members
Answer:
(b) 389 Members.

Question 5.
The Constituent Assembly was not a sovereign body in the beginning but it became a sovereign body after :
(a) July 1946
(b) 15th August, 1947
(c) 26 Jan, 1950
(d) 19th Dec. 1946.
Answer:
(b) 15th August, 1947.

Question 6.
Who was the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachindanand Sinha
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Sachindanand Sinha.

Question 7.
Who was permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 8.
Who moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?
(а) Dr. Ambedkar
(б) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Answer:
(b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 9.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. B.R. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel.
Answer:
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 10.
After a great labour, the Constitution was ready on :
(a) 26th Dec., 1949
(6) 26th Jan., 1950
(c) 25th Dec., 1949
(d) 26 Nov., 1949.
Answer:
(d) 26th Nov.,’1949.

Question 11.
How much time did it take to make the Indian Constitution?
(а) 1 year, 11 months and 18 days
(б) 2 years, 10 months and 18 days
(c) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days
(d) 2 years, 6 months and 18 days.
Answer:
(c) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days.

Question 12.
The Indian Constitution was enforced on :
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th Jan., 1950
(c) 9th Dec., 1950
(d) 15th August, 1950.
Answer:
(b) 26th Jan., 1950.

Question 13.
The Constitution of India was adopted by:
(a) The British Parliament
(b) The Governor General
(c) The Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament of India.
Answer:
(c) The Constituent Assembly.

Question 14.
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on :
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 25th January, 1950
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 25th November, 1949.
Answer:
(c) 26th November, 1949.

Question 15.
Which amendment of the Constitution added the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble?
(a) 44th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 46th amendment
(d) 50th amendment.
Answer:
(b) 42nd amendment.

Question 16.
What is the meaning of: “We, the people’ of India’?
(a) That the people of India are direct rulers of the country
(b) That the ultimate sovereignty is vested with the people
(c) That the power is in the hands of few.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) That the ultimate sovereignty is vested with the people.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
The Indian Constitution was formed by the __________
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly had __________ members.
Answer:
389

Question 3.
__________ was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 4.
In India __________ administrative system is adopted.
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 5.
Parliamentary form of government in India is taken from __________
Answer:
England.

True/False:

Question 1.
The Indian Constitution was formed by the parliament.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9th December, 1946.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru gave the objective resolution to the Constituent Assembly,
Answer:
True

Question 4.
After 15th August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly had 389 members.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
It took four years to prepare the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Under whose recommendation the Constituent Assembly was set up?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was set up on the recommendation of Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.

Question 2.
When was the Constituent Assembly of India established?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was established in July, 1946.

Question 3.
Name the person who was chosen as temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Sachindanand Sinha, the oldest member of the Constituent Assembly was elected the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When did the Constituent Assembly meet for the first time?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on December 9, 1946.

Question 5.
Who was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajindra Prasad was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 6.
Name the body that framed the Indian Constitution and state when it was constituted?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly and the Constituent Assembly was constituted in July, 1946.

Question 7.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Question 8.
Who moved the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru moved the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 9.
When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949.

Question 10.
When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Or
When was the Constitution of India promulgated?
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into effect on January 26, 1950.

Question 11.
How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly consisted of 389 members (299 after 15th Aug. 1947).

Question 12.
Name the body which adopted the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India.

Question 13.
How much time did Constituent Assembly take to make the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to frame the Constitution.

Question 14.
Mention the name of four countries where written Constitution exist.
Answer:

U.S.A.
France.
India.
South Africa.

Question 15.
What is meant by Preamble?
Answer:
The Preamble is a summary of the objectives and the basic philosophy of the Constitution. It helps in the interpretation of the Constitution.

Question 16.
With which words the Preamble of Indian Constitution starts?
Answer:
The Preamble of Indian Constitution starts with “We the People of India ”

Question 17.
What new words have been added to Preamble of our Constitution under the 42nd amendment?
Answer:
Socialist and Secular.

Question 18.
How many amendments have been made in the Preamble?
Answer:
Only one amendment (42nd) has been made in the Preamble so far.

Question 19.
What is the source of the authority according to the Preamble?
Answer:
The Preamble expresses in a very clear language that the people are the ultimate source of all authority.

Question 20.
For how many days, the draft of Indian Constitution was discussed in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
114 days.

Question 21.
Name any four countries whose major features of constitution were incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
England, U.S.A., Canada, Ireland.

Question 22.
Why is the Indian Constitution considered the alive Constitution?
Answer:
Because from time to time and according to needs, it has been changed and developed.

Question 23.
How is India a republic?
Answer:
India is a republic because the President is indirectly elected (by an electoral college) by the people for a fixed period.

Question 24.
Give two reasons to show that the Indian Constitution is a democratic country.
Answer:
(i) Government is run by the representatives of people.
(;ii) All the citizens are given equal political rights.

Question 25.
What do you mean by the Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:
The changes made in the Constitution are known as the Constitutional Amendments. .

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution is a collection of those rules and regulations according to which the administration of the state is run. The administration of each state is run in accordance with certain rules and regulations. It is the fundamental law reflecting the will of the people. It determines the powers Snd responsibilities of the state. It also states people’s rights and duties.

Question 2.
Why do we need a Constitution?
Answer:
All the democratic countries of the world have Constitutions. We need Constitution due to given below reasons :

Supreme Law of the Country. The Constitution of a state is the supreme law of the land. The government at the State and Central level work within the sphere of powers given to them by the Constitution.
Provide Basic Rules. The Constitution provides basic rules and principles on the basis of which government should be.
Knowledge about the Nature of Government. It is the Constitution which decides how the government will be organised.
Rule of Law. The Constitution of a state makes provision for rule of law.
Limitations on the Government. The Constitution puts limitations on the three organs of the government so that no organ should become absolute and arbitrary.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the meaning of the Preamble.
Answer:
The Constitution of India begins with a Preamble. The Preamble serves the purpose of a window through which we peep into the intentions of the makers of the constitution. In short, the Preamble is a summary of the objectives and basic philosophy of a Constitution. It helps in the interpretation of the Constitution. With the help of the Preamble we can understand the basic philosophy of the Constitution.

Question 4.
Mention the nature of state according to the Preamble of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
According to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution the nature of Indian State is as under :
(a) India is a Sovereign state;
(b) India is a Democratic state;
(c) India is a Secular state;
(d) India is a Socialist state and
(e) India is a Republic.

Question 5.
How is the Indian Constitution considered as the people’s Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is considered as the people’s Constitution. Members of the Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected by the provincial legislatures which were elected by the people. Actually all the important leaders were the members of the Constituent Assembly. Representatives of all the classes (Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, females) were included in it. If elections could have done on the basis of adult franchise, same people could have elected. In this way it is people’s Constitution.

Question 6.
Why there is more importance of the Constitution in democratic countries?
Answer:
In democracy, directly or indirectly people rule the country. In the constitution. On the one side complete description of the government’s powers is given and on the other side there are certain restrictions on it. People’s rights are completely explained in the constitution. No one can work against the Constitution. Courts are there to protect the Constitution and fundamental rights. That’s why the Constitution is of great importance in the democratic countries.

Question 7.
Discuss the circumstances which led to the formation of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Our Constitution was drafted by a Constituent Assembly composed of Indian people. Mahatma Gandhi mooted the idea of Constituent Assembly in 1922 and the Indian National Congress put the demand in a concrete form in 1935. But this demand of the Congress Party remained unfulfilled for a number of years. It was incorporated in the Cripps Proposals of 1942 that after the end of war a Constitution-making body would be set up to frame a new constitution. However, for various reasons the Cripps Proposals did not meet the approval of the Indian people. The Cabinet Mission plan 1946 proposed the constitution of an Assembly to frame the Constitution. The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in 1946 according to the Cabinet Mission Plan. Its first meeting was held on 9 December, 1946.

Question 8.
What is meant by the Rigid and Flexible Constitution?
Answer:
Indian Constitution is rigid as well as flexible in nature. The meaning of rigid constitution is that it cannot be easily changed or amended. To amend the constitution, government needs great majority in the parliament which, most of the times, they don’t have. The meaning of flexible Constitution is that if government has the required majority, it can amend the Constitution very easily. If political parties will come together, they can also amend it quite easily.

Question 9.
Indian Constitution is lengthiest in the world. Clarify.
Answer:
Indian Constitution is the lengthiest Constitution among all the Constitutions of the world. Originally it had 395 Articles and 8 schedules. After 1950, many new clauses were added in it and that’s why presently it has 450 Articles and 12 schedules. 103 Amendments have been done in it. That’s why it has become more lengthy.

Question 10.
What is meant by the written Constitution?
Answer:
Our Constitution is the written Constitution which was made with the great hard work of 2 years 11 months and 18 days of the Constituent Assembly. Federal structure of the government was kept over here and that’s why it was required to keep it in the written forms so that the disputes between the central government and state governments could be resolved with ease. On contrary to this, the British Constitution is an unwritten Constitution based on customs and conventions. Our Constitution is in written form and that’s why it is quite transparent.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly. In this context explain the following :
(a) Draft Committee
Answer:
Draft Committee: On August 29, 1947, the Constituent Assembly elected a Drafting Committee from among its members Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was its Chairman. Besides its Chairman, its other members were : N. Gopala Swamy Ayyangar, Alladikrishna Swamy Ayyer, Dr. K.M Munshi, N. Madhav Rao, Sayyad Mohammad Sadaulla and D.P. Khaitan, Sh. B.N. Rao was appointed adviser of the Drafting Committee. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar played a very important role in drafting the Constitution and he has rightly been called the father of the Draft Constitution.

(b) Adoption and promulgation of the Constitution of free India.
Answer:
A draft Constitution was prepared in February, 1948 and it was presented before the Constituent Assembly on February 21, 1948. Draft was published in all the leading newspapers of the country to elicit public opinion. A national debate was held on the Draft Constitution. On November 4, 1948 general discussion began on the Draft. It continued upto October 17, 1949.

During this time 7635 amendments were presented out of which 2473 amendments were discussed. At last on November 26, 1949 the Constituent Assembly adopted the new Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly took 2 years 11 months, and 18 days to frame the Constitution. The new Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950.

Question 2.
‘India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic’. Explain.
Answer:
The preamble proclaims that the people of India have resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.’
(а) India is a Sovereign State. It means that now, after the promulgation of the Constitution, India is not subject to any foreign rule. India is fully sovereign, internally as well as externally. No other country can compel India to follow or not to follow a particular policy.

(b) India is a Socialist State. Natural resources and wealth of the nation should be used for the welfare of the whole society. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

(c) India is a Secular State. There is no official religion of the state. Freedom of religion has been granted to all persons residing in India. All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to practise and propagate religion.

(d) India is a Democratic State. Indian polity is based on democratic principles. The people elect their representatives on the basis of adult franchise. All citizens enjoy equal political rights. The government is run according to some basic rules.

(e) India is a Republican State. The word ‘Republic’ means that the head of the state shall be an elected one for a fixed tenure.The head of the state (President) is elected for a period of five years. There is no room for a hereditary monarch like the one in England.

Question 3.
Examine the significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. It does not have any legal force. Still it has special significance.

The significance of the Preamble is as follows :

Source of Authority. The Preamble expresses in a very clear language that people are the ultimate source of all authority. It is the people who have adopted and enacted the Constitution; It is the people who have given ‘the Constitution to themselves.’ The words, we the people of India, are very significant.
Nature of Indian Polity. The Preamble emphasises the fact that India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
Symbol of Objectives. The Preamble is the symbol of those objectives which the Constitution makers pledged to attain. The Preamble assures the people of India Justice—Social, Economic and Political.
Key to the Constitution. The Preamble is the soul and spirit of the Constitution. The Preamble is the mirror of the Constitution. It is a jewel set in the Constitution.
Guide to the Government. The Preamble to the Constitution provides guidelines to the government of the day.
Guidelines to the Judiciary. Whenever a Court of Justice has to explain some articles of the Constitution then it takes the help of the ideas expressed through the Preamble of the Constitution.
Yardstick to evaluate the performance of the Government. The Preamble enables the people to assess and evaluate the performance of the government in the light of the objectives laid down in the Preamble. It keeps the government on its toe.

Question 4.
Indian Constitution is taken from many sources. Explain.
Answer:
Before the making of Indian Constitution, Constituent Assembly studied different Constitutions of different countries. It also studied different laws made by the British Parliament for India. It took all the good aspects of different sources and their description is given below :

Britain. Parliamentary system, process of making laws, special privileges of Parliament, Rule of law, Single citizenship, Cabinet system, System of two houses.
U.S.A. Fundamental Rights, Structure and powers of Supreme Court, judicial review, post of Vice President, independence of judiciary, preamble.
Canada. Federal structure, Residuary powers, Appointment of Governors by centre,.
Ireland. Directive principles of state policy, The process of election of the President, Nomination of Rajya Sabha members by the President, the Process of Removal of the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts.
Germany. Emergency powers of the President.
U.S.S.R. Fundamental Duties.
France. Republic, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
South Africa. Constitutional Amendment.

Question 5.
Describe some of the key features of Federalism.
Answer:
In the federal system, there are two types of governments central government and state governments. The central governments solves the national problems and state governments solve local problems. Actually in this type of system powers are divided among central authority and the different units of that union. There is one government for the entire country and different provinces have different governments.

Both levels have their own powers. Some of the main features of federalism are given below :

Written Constitution: A written Constitution is essential in a federation in the sense that both the centre and the states should be definite and about their sphere of action.
Division of Powers: The powers of the government in a federation are distributed between the centre and the states.
Independent Judiciary: The presence of an independent and powerful judiciary is most essential in a federation.
Bi-cameralism: Some people are of the opinion that the legislature in a federation should be bi-cameral.
Rigid Constitution: The Constitution should be rigid so that it is not easily changed by impatient hands. The amending procedure is invariably more difficult than the enactment of ordinary laws. In almost all federal states amendments require favourable action by the parliament and a large majority of states.
Supremacy of the Constitution: In a federation Constitution is supreme both the centre and the states should run the administration in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. The supremacy of the constitution is maintained by the Supreme Court.
Double Citizenship: In some federal states citizens enjoy double citizens. An individual is citizen of the state as well as he is citizen of the whole country.
Federation exists in U.S.A., Switzerland, India etc. India has a federal system of government having all features of a federation.

Question 6.
On what basis division of powers is made between the union and the state governments in a federal system?
Or
How powers are divided in our country the Federal of India between centre and states?
Answer:
In our country India, Constitution has clearly demarcated the powers between different levels. Every level is given certain subjects to make laws related to its jurisdiction and they are not allowed to interfere in other’s matters. Actually, this distribution is three folded. Three types of lists are given in the Constitution in which subjects are divided.

These three lists and their jurisdiction is given below:

Union List. Union list is a list of 97 (presently 100) subjects on which the Central government can make laws. Union list includes the subjects of national importance like defence, finance, foreign affairs, post and telegraph, banking, etc. Only the Central government can take decisions regarding these matters.
State List. State list is a list of 66 (presently 61) subjects on which state government can make laws, Central government has nothing to do with it. Matters of local importance like police, agriculture, irrigation, commerce trade, etc. are included in it. State governments alone can make laws on the subjects given in this list.
Concurrent list. The concurrent list is a list of 47 (presently 52) subjects that are of common interest for both central and state governments. Issues like forests, education, trade unions, etc. are included in it. Both Central and state governments can make laws on these issues. But if there will be any clash of laws then the laws made by the Central government will prevail. In this way, powers are divided into Central and state governments in the Indian federal system.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Parliamentary Democracy

January 25, 2024January 24, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 4 India’s Parliamentary Democracy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Parliamentary Democracy

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB India’s Parliamentary Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_________ appoints the judges of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
The President.

Question 2.
The President of India exercises all his powers only on the advice of _________
Answer:
Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which is the final authority for making laws in India?
(i) The Cabinet
(ii) The Parliament
(iii) The Lok Sabha
(iv) The President.
Answer:
(ii) The Parliament.

Question 2.
Who chairs the cabinet meetings?
(i) The President
(ii) The Governor
(iii) The Prime Minister
(iv) The Party President.
Answer:
(iii) The Prime Minister

III. Write T (for True) and F (for False) statements :

Question 1.
The Prime Minister is the Constitutional Head of our country.
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Indian Parliament comprises the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.
Answer:
True.

IV. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In India which form of the government has been adopted in centre and states?
Answer:
In India parliamentary form of government has been adopted at central and state level.

Question 2.
In parliamentary system, who is the real executive of the country?
Answer:
Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Who is nominal executive in India?
Answer:
The President is the nominal executive in India.

Question 4.
Who is included in the electoral college for the Indian President?
Answer:
The elected members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha (M.P.’s) and State Legislative Assemblies (including Delhi and Puducherry.)

Question 5.
Name any two features of the Parliamentary system.
Answer:

In the Parliamentary system, there is a nominal head of the country.
After elections whichever party gets clear cut majority in Parliament (Lok Sabha) forms the government.

Question 6.
What is called the lower house of the Parliament?
Answer:
Lok Sabha is called the lower house of the Parliament.

Question 7.
How many members can be nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
12 members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha.

Question 8.
What is the tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha members are elected for six years but one third retire after every two years.

Question 9.
What is the name of the Head of the State in Canada and Australia?
Answer:
Governor General is the Head of State in Canada and Australia.

Question 10.
Who makes an oath to the Prime Minister and other ministers?
Answer:
The President makes an oath to the Prime Minister and other ministers.

Question 11.
Who presides over the meetings of the cabinet?
Answer:
Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the cabinet.

Question 12.
Give the names of two forms of Govt; on the basis of relationship between executive and legislative.
Answer:

Parliamentary Govt.: In this Council of Ministers is responsible to Legislature for its actions.
Presidential form of Govt.: In this executive cannot be removed by Legislature.

Question 13.
From which country Parliamentary system in India has been taken?
Answer:
Parliamentary form of Government is taken from the Constitution of England.

Question 14.
What is the name of the lower and upper house of Parliament in England?
Answer:

Lower House-House of Commons.
Upper House-House of Lords.

V. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is the Prime Minister elected?
Answer:
After the general elections of Lok Sabha whichever party or group gets majority, elects its leader who is called by the President to form the government. The President appoints him the Prime Minister and on his advice he also appoints the Council of Ministers.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of the collective responsibility of the ministers?
Answer:

The council of ministers is responsible towards the Parliament or legislature. It means that it does not matter whether any minister is happy with the decision of council of ministers or not, he is required to support the decision in the Parliament.
If the Parliament (Lok Sabha) passes no-confidence motion against any minister, it is considered no confidence against the whole council of ministers. In this case Prime Minister and his council of ministers are bound to resign.
Members of parliament can ask ministers any question regarding their departments.

Question 3.
How does the legislature control over the activity of ministers?
Answer:

The council of ministers is responsible towards the Parliament or legislature. It means that it does not matter whether any minister is happy with the decision of council of ministers or not, he is required to support the decision in the Parliament.
If the Parliament (Lok Sabha) passes no-confidence motion against any minister, it is considered no confidence against the whole council of ministers. In this case Prime Minister and his council of ministers are bound to resign.
Members of parliament can ask ministers any question regarding their departments.

Question 4.
Explain briefly any three duties of the Prime Minister.
Answer:

Prime Minister creates the Council of Ministers.
He distributes different portfolios to different ministers.
He acts as a link between the President and Council of Ministers.
He can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha even before the completion of his term.
He presides over the meetings of Council of Ministers.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the structure of the parliament.
Answer:
The two Houses of the Parliaments are :

Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha.

Term of the Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha is elected for 5 years. But the President can dissolve it earlier too. During emergency due to external aggression or internal insurrection its term can be extended.

Term of the Rajya Sabha: Rajya Sabha is a permanent house. But after every two years one third (l/3rd) of its members retire and new ones are elected in their place. Thus every member is elected for a term of six years.

Question 6.
How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be 250. Out of these 12 members are nominated by the President. The remaining 238 members represent the States and Union Territories. The representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of their Legislative Assemblies and in case of Union Territories are chosen in such a manner as the Parliament may by law determine. At present Rajya Sabha consists of 245 members.

Question 7.
Describe any four powers of the President.
Answer:

The President can Summon, prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
He can address the two Houses of the Parliament jointly or he may address them independently.
He nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and two members to the Lok Sabha.
No bill passed by the Parliament can become an Act without the assent of the President.
He gives approval to many bills passed by the State Legislatures.

Question 8.
Write a note on the structure of the council of ministers.
Answer:
Article 75 of the Constitution says that the President shall appoint the Prime Minister and on his advice, he shall also appoint the Council of Ministers. But he cannot appoint any of the minister of his own. It is the discretionary power of the Prime Minister as to whom he wants to get appointed as minister.

There are three types of ministers.

Cabinet Ministers. They are the most trustworthy ministers and are given independent charge of an important portfolio.
Minister of State. They may or may not be given independent charge of any portfolio or can be asked to assist any cabinet minister.
Deputy Minister. They are not given any independent charge but are asked either to assist any cabinet minister or minister of state.

VI. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the structure of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be 250. Out of these 12 members are nominated by the President. The remaining 238 members represent the States and Union Territories. The representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of their Legislative Assemblies and in case of Union Territories are chosen in such a manner as the Parliament may by law determine. At present Rajya Sabha consists of 245 members.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the leadership of Prime Minister in the Parliamentry system.
Answer:
As a leader the Prime Minister has following powers :
(a) Leader of the Cabinet. The Prime Minister is the leader of the Cabinet.

(b) Powers regarding Appointment. He exercises very vast powers of patronage which are the following :

Appointment of Ministers.
Appointment of Ambassadors.
Appointment of Governors.
Appointment of Attorney General.
Appointment of C.A.G.
Appointment of various Commissions and Committees.

To recommend to the President about summoning and proroguing of the Parliament.
To advise the President to dissolve Lok Sabha.
To issue ordinances and propose Legislation.
To make details of skeleton Laws made by the Parliament.
To act as a Leader of the Parliament.

(d) Powers regarding the Party. The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party. He guides the policy formulation of his party.

Pt. Nehru combined in himself the powers of a party chief and the leader of the majority party.

He is the leader of his party.
He popularises his party among the masses.
He cares that the opposition does not have any complaint against him.

(e) Powers as an Advisor. The Prime Minister exercises a good deal of advisory powers :

He is the Chief Advisor of the President.
He exercises practically all the powers of the President.
He serves as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Explain in brief qualifications, election and tenure for the President of India.
Answer:
Election. The President is elected indirectly by an electoral college. Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States (including Delhi and Puducherry) constitute the Electoral College. The voting is held on the basis of proportional representation by the single transferable vote system.

Qualifications :

He should be a citizen of India.
He must have completed the age of 35 years.
He must be qualified to be elected as member of the Lok Sabha.
He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government or local authosrity.

Tenure: The President is elected for a period of five years. The President can be removed from office by impeachment only. He can be impeached for violation of the Constitution. The impeachment charge may be initiated by either House of Parliament. If a resolution is passed by a two-third majority of the total membership of the House then the resolution is sent to the other House. If the other House also passes the resolution by a two-third majority then the President is removed from his office.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the collective and individual responsibility of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Collective Responsibility-Article 75 (3) of the Indian Constitution clearly says that the council of ministers is collectively responsible towards Lok Sabha. Council of Ministers can remain on their post till they have majority in Lok Sabha or they have confidence of Lok Sabha. If the majority of Lok Sabha votes against them, they all collectively will have to resign. Council of Ministers acts as a unit and if no confidence motion is passed against any minister, they all will have to resign. It has been said that the “Council of Ministers swim and sink together.”

Individual Responsibility. If all the ministers are collectively responsible then they also have some individual responsibilities. All the ministers are individually responsible for their departments. If any department is unable to function in a better way, Prime Minister can ask for the resignation of the concerned minister. If he refuses to resign, Prime Minister can get him removed by the President.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide India’s Parliamentary Democracy Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Indian Parliament consists of _________
(a) 1
(b) 2.
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2.

Question 2.
Upper House of the Parliament is known as
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
(a) Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
Lower House of the Parliament is known as
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
(c) Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
Who is the President of India?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Pranav Mukherjee
(c) Pratibha Patil
(d) Ramnath Kovind.
Answer:
(d) Ramnath Kovind.

Question 5.
Who is the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Rahul Gandhi
(d) Pranav Mukherjee.
Answer:
(a) Narendra Modi.

Question 6.
Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) Vice President.
Answer:
(a) President.

Question 7.
Who was elected as the speaker of 17th Lok Sabha in 2019?
(a) Om Birla
(b) Hamid Ansari
(c) Sonia Gandhi
(d) P. Thambi Durai.
Answer:
(a) Om Birla.

Question 8.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Vice President.
Answer:
(c) President.

Question 9.
Who protects the fundamental rights of the citizens?
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Speaker
(d) Prime Minister.
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
In India _________ is known as the Head of country.
Answer:
President

Question 2.
After the elections of Lok Sabha in 2014, _________ formed the government.
Answer:
Narendra Modi

Question 3.
In India real powers are in the hands of _________
Answer:
Prime Minister

Question 4.
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and _________ are included in Parliament.
Answer:
President

Question 5.
Lok Sabha can have maximum _________ members.
Answer:
552

Question 6.
Rajya Sabha can have maximum _________ members.
Answer:
250

Question 7.
The President can appoint 2 members of,_________ community to Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Anglo-Indian

Question 8.
The age of _________ years is required to become the President of India.
Answer:
35.

True/False:

Question 1.
There is presidential form of govt, in India.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
After the passing of No Confidence Motion, government needs to resign.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
It is not compulsory to be a member of parliament to become a minister.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Lok Sabha is just like house of commons in England.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The President can nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Head of Lok Sabha is known as the Speaker.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
For ordinary bill, prior permission of the President is required.
Answer:
False.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two Houses of Parliament.
Answer:
Lower House is called Lok Sabha and Upper House is called Rajya Sabha.

Question 2.
What constitutes the Indian Parliament?
Answer:
The President,, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
Who is represented by Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha respresents the States.

Question 4.
What is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha? What is the present strength of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha can have maximum of 250 members. Presently it has 245 members.

Question 5.
How many members can the President nominate to Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The President an nominate 12 members Cb Rajya Sabha.

Question 6.
What is the tenure of Rajya Sabha members?
Answer:
6 years but one third members retire after every two years.

Question 7.
Who is the presiding officer of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The Vice President is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Question 8.
Who calls the session of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The President calls the session of Lok Sabha.

Question 9.
Which house of the parliament is more powerful?
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

Question 10.
In which house can an ordinary bill be first introduced?
Answer:
An ordinary bill can be introduced in any of the house.

Question 11.
In which house can a money bill be first introduced?
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

Question 12.
Who is the presiding officer of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Speaker is the presiding officer of Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
What is the term of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are elected for a tenure of 5 years.

Question 14.
Give one power of the parliament.
Answer:
The parliament makes laws for the country.

Question 15.
What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha? What is its present strength?
Answer:
Lok Sabha can have a maximum strength of 552. Presently it is 545.

Question 16.
Give one function of the presiding officer of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
He presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha.

Question 17.
Give a restriction on the supremacy of Parliament.
Answer:
Indian Constitution is written which restricts the supremacy of the Parliament.

Question 18.
Under which conditions, a joint session of Parliament is called?
Answer:
To resolve a dispute between both the houses, a joint session can be called. Question 19. Give one qualification to become the member of Rajya Sabha. Answer:The person must have minimum age of 30 years.

Question 20.
Give one special power of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
It can declare a subject of state list as of national importance and can authorise the parliament to make laws on the subject.

Question 21.
Give one qualification to become the member of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The person must have the age of 25 years.

Question 22.
Is Rajya Sabha a nominal house? Give one reason in its favour.
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is not given any power concerning money.

Question 23.
What is the difference between the elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected whereas the members of Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected.

Question 24.
Give one equal power of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
For the passing of an ordinary bill, both the houses have equal power.

Question 25.
Give one special power of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Bypassing no-confidence motion, Lok Sabha can remove the government.

Question 26.
Give one function of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
He regulates the proceedings of the housfe

Question 27.
How is the Speaker of Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:
He is elected by the members within themselves.

Question 28.
Who was elected as the Speaker of 16th Lok Sabha in 2014?
Answer:
Sumitra Mahajan.

Question 29.
Give one difference between money bill and an ordinary bill.
Answer:
An ordinary bill can be introduced in any of the house but money bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.

Question 30.
What is meant by collective responsibility?
Answer:
It means that ministers are collectively responsible towards parliament. If no confidence motion passes against one minister, whole of the council of ministers need to resign.

Question 31.
Which government system is adopted in India?
Answer:
India has adopted parliamentary form of government.

Question 32.
How can the Parliament remove the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
By passing no confidence motion in Lok Sabha.

Question 33.
Who can dissolve Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The President can dissolve Lok Sabha on the advice of Prime Minister.

Question 34.
Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or an ordinary bill?
Answer:
The Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Question 35.
Who are included in the central executive?
Answer:
In the central executive, the President, Vice President, Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers are included.

Question 36.
Who elects the President of India?
Answer:
The President is elected by an electoral college.

Question 37.
Who are included in the electoral college?
Answer:
The elected members of parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the elected members of state legislative assemblies (including Delhi and Puducherry).

Question 38.
What is the tenure of President? Can he be elected again?
Answer:
The tenure of President is 5 years and he can be re-elected.

Question 39.
Name the first and present President of India.
Answer:
The first President of India was Dr. Rajendra Prasad and the present President of India is Ramnath Kovind.

Question 40.
Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
The Prime Minister of India is appointed by the President.

Question 41.
Who appoints the minister?
Answer:
The ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister.

Question 42.
What is the tenure of Prime Minister?
Answer:
Prime Minister does not have a definite tenure. His tenure depends upon the majority of Lok Sabha.

Question 43.
What is the salary of the President of India?
Answer:
The Indian President gets ₹ 5 lac per month.

Question 44.
When can the President declare national emergency?
Answer:
The President can declare national emergency in case of war, foreign attack or an armed rebellion.

Question 45.
How many types of emergencies are there?
Answer:
Emergency is of three types.

Question 46.
When can the President issue an ordinance?
Answer:
In case of recess of the Parliament the President can issue an ordinance. Question 47. How many members can the President nominate to Lok Sabha? Answer:The President can nominate two Anglo Indian members to Lok Sabha.

Question 48.
Give one executive power of the President.
Answer:
He appoints the leader of majority party as the Prime Minister of’India.

Question 49.
Give one legislative power of the President.
Answer:
He signs the bills passed by the parliament.

Question 50.
Give one financial power of the President.
Answer:
He gives prior sanction to the money bill before its introduction to Lok Sabha.

Question 51.
Give one feature of the council of ministers.
Answer:
There is a great relation between parliament and the council of ministers.

Question 52.
Give one function of the central council of ministers.
Answer:
It makes internal and external policy of India.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the membership of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The maximum membership of Lok Sabha is 552 but presently it is 545. Out of these 545, 543 are the directly elected members and 2 are nominated by the President from Anglo-Indian Community. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250 but presently it is 245. Out of 245 members. 233 are elected by the state legislative assemblies and 12 are nominated by the President.

Question 2.
Give any three functions of the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

He presides over the meetings of Rajya Sabha.
He is responsible to maintain peace in the house and also to carry on its smooth functioning.
He permits the members to speak in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
What is the difference between the elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people and every citizen with the age of 18 years or more have the right to vote. One candidate is elected from a parliamentary constituency and whosoever gets maximum votes is declared as the winner. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies. In this way, the members of Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected.

Question 4.
Give three powers of Lok Sabha.
Answer:

By passing no confidence motion, it can remove the government.
Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
In case of any deadlock between both the houses on any ordinary bill, a joint session of parliament is called in which Lok Sabha’s will prevails due to its more numerical strength.

Question 5.
What are the qualifications of the members of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

He must b§ a citizen of India.
He must have completed 25 years of ago.
He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
He must possess such other qualifications as may he prescribed by the parliament.
No person can be a member of both Houses of Parliament.

Question 6.
What are the qualifications required for the membership of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:

He must be a citizen of India.
He must have completed 30 years of ago.
He must possess such other qualifications as are prescribed by the Parliament.
He should not hold any office of profit under the government of India or any State government.

Question 7.
Write a note on the Speaker.
Answer:
The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. He is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the House ; maintains order in the House and conducts the business of the House in accordance with the rules of the House. The Constitution also provides for the office of the Deputy Speaker.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the supremacy of the Parliament?
Answer:
The meaning of the supermacy of the Parliament is that the ultimate authority of making laws in the country lies in the hands of the Parliament. The bill passed by the Parliament is signed by the President. It makes laws on the subjects of union list, concurrent list, residuary powers and in case of emergency from the state list as well. It takes part in the process of election of the President and Vice President. It can request the President to remove any judge of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. It keeps control over the income and expenditure of the government. It can amend the Constitution. Except this, it keeps control over the government through different methods. So, it is clear that the Parliament is supreme in the country.

Question 9.
What is meant by Parliament? Name its houses and their tenure.
Answer:
The central legislature is known as parliament. It has two houses Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It is the institution which make laws on the subjects of national importance. Laws made by the parliament are implemented in whole of the country.

Tenure of Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha is elected for five years but it can be dissolved by the President (on the advise of P.M.) even before the completion of its term. During emergency, its tenure can be increased.
Tenure of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house which cannot be dissolved in any case. Its members are elected for six years but one third of the total members retire after every two years.

Question 10.
What is meant by No-confidence Motion?
Answer:
No-confidence means that the leader of the House has lost the confidence of the majority of members and is no longer wanted to lead the party and the government. The no-confidence motion is a formal resolution tabled in the houses to see whether the leader enjoys the confidence of the members of the house. If the motion is passed the leader resigns and is replaced by the new incumbent.

Question 11.
Explain the election process of the members of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament. Its member are directly elected by the people. Every Indian citizen with the age of 18 years or more has the right to vote during Lok Sabha election. Few seats in Lok Sabha are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. If the President feels that the Anglo Indian community is not represented in Lok Sabha, he can nominate 2 Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha.

Members of Lok Sabha are elected on the basis of population. For the purpose of elections, whole of the country is divided into equal parts. That’s why larger states send more members to Lok Sabha.

Question 12.
Give financial powers of Lok Sabha.
Answer:

Budget and money bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha can delay a money bill maximum upto 14 days or it will be considered automatically passed.
Money of the country is kept under the control of the Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
Give three powers of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Under the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has been vested with two special and exclusive powers.

They are :

Under Article 249 the Rajya Sabha may declare by resolution, passed by two-third majority of its members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List.
Rajya Sabha is competent to create one or more All India Services if it passes a resolution by two-thirds majority.
Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the proposal for removing the Vice-President.

Question 14.
How is the Indian President elected?
Answer:
The President is elected indirectly by an electoral college. Elected members of both the houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States constitute the Electoral College. The voting is held on the basis of proportional representation by the single transferable vote system.

Question 15.
The President is the nominal head of the state. How?
Answer:
Whole of the administration runs on the name of the President but he is the nominal head of the country. There is parliamentary form of government in India where the President is given enormous powers but he cannot use them of his own. He can use these powers on the advice of Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers. Actual powers are in the hands of Council of Ministers. The President is the constitutional but nominal head of the country.

Question 16.
Write down the legislative powers of the President.
Answer:

The President can convene, prorogue and dissolve the parliament.
He can address the two Houses of the parliament jointly or he may address them independently.
He nominates 12 persons to the Rajya Sabha and two persons to the Lok Sabha.
No bill passed by the Parliament can become an act without the assent of the President.

Question 17.
Can the President become a dictator?
Answer:
The President cannot become a dictator. Even during the times of emergency, he cannot become a dictator. Its major reason is that the parliamentary system of government is adopted in India in which he is the nominal head. Actually his powers are used by the Prime minister and his council of ministers. If he tries to work according to his wish, he can be removed through £he process of impeachment. He can declare emergency only on the written advice of the cabinet. Parliament can remove emergency only by passing a resolution with simple majority.

Question 18.
Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
Answer:
The President appoints the Prime Minister. He invites the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha and appoints him the Prime Minister. If no single party has a majority, many parties may form a coalition to make a majority and elect a leader. Then the leader of the coalition will be appointed as the Prime Minister.

Question 19.
Mention any two functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
1. Formation of the Council of Ministers. First and important function of the Prime Minister is the formation of the Council of Ministers. He prepares the list of the ministers according to his sweet will. Nobody can be appointed a minister against the wishes of the Prime Minister.

2. Distribution of Portfolios. Another major function of the Prime Minister is to distribute portfolios among the ministers. He decides what department is to be allotted to a particular Minister.

Question 20.
Why it is said that the Prime Minister is at the head of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is at the head of the Council of Ministers because the Council of Ministers has no existence without the Prime Minister. He can make or unmake the Council of Ministers. The resignation or death of the Prime Minister leads to the dissolution of the Council of Ministers.

Question 21.
What is the relationship between the President and the Prime Minister in our country?
Answer:
India has Parliamentary form of government. Therefore, the Prime Minister enjoys a better position than the President. The President is the head of Executive but all of his powers are exercised by the Prime Minister. According to 42nd Amendment it has become binding on the President to accept the Prime Minister’s advice. The Prime Minister submits his list of Ministers to the President and the President appoints them. The Prime Minister keeps the President informed of the proceedings of the cabinet. Thus, he serves as a link between the President and the Cabinet.

Question 22.
Discuss about the types of Ministers.
Answer:
There are three types of ministers.

Cabinet Ministers. They are the most trustworthy ministers and are given independent charge of an important portfolio.
Minister of State. They may or may not be given independent charge of any portfolio or can be asked to assist any cabinet minister.
Deputy Minister. They are not given any independent charge but are asked either to assist any cabinet minister or minister of state.

Question 23.
Give any three functions of the cabinet.
Answer:
Following are the functions of the cabinet :

Making national policy: The most important function of the cabinet is to make internal policy and to formulate the policy of public welfare.
Regulating foreign relations: Cabinet forms the foreign policy and regulates the relations with other countries.
Control over administration: Every department is under the control of a minister and the concerned minister tries to run the administration in a proper way.

Question 24.
Give three features of the Indian cabinet.
Answer:
Following are the features of the Indian cabinet :

Nominal head. The President is the nominal head. Whole of the country’s administration is run on the name of the President but actually, it is run by the cabinet.
Relation between executive and legislature. In parliamentary form of government, council of ministers is the executive and it has close relations with the legislature.
Prime Minister Leader. Indian cabinet works under the guidance of the Prime Minister. Every minister has to accept the order of the Prime Minister or he can be removed.

Question 25.
Can the Prime Minister become a dictator?
Answer:
The Prime Minister cannot become a dictator because :

He is responsible towards the Parliament which can remove him if he tries to do so.
Parliament (Lok Sabha) can remove him by passing a no-confidence motion.
He cannot work against the public opinion.
He is required to care about the opposition party.

Question 26.
Discuss the mutual relations between the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha. He gets the Council of Ministers appointed by the President and distributes them different portfolios. He presides over the meetings of the council of Ministers. If any minister does not work according to the Prime Minister, he can be asked to resign. If any minister refuses to resign, he can dissolve whole of the Council of Ministers and can create it again sans that minister.

Question 27.
Give judicial powers of the President.
Answer:

The President appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
The President has the powers to grant pardon or reduce the sentence awarded to a criminal.
The President has the power to reprieve (temporarily suspend) the sentence.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the powers of the Union Parliament.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the Union Parliament :

Legislative Powers. The Parliament can frame laws on the subjects mentioned in the Union List and Concurrent List. Under certain special circumstances the Parliament gets the right to frame laws on the subjects mentioned in the State List.
Financial Powers. The Parliament controls the finances of the country. The budget is passed by the Parliament.
Executive Power’s. The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are responsible to the Parliament for their actions and policies. The Parliament has the power to remove the Council of Ministers by passing a vote of no-confidence.
Judicial Powers. The Parliament can remove the President from office through impeachment. The Parliament can remove the judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court by passing a resolution to that effect.
Electoral Powers. The elected members of Parliament participate in the election of the President. The Vice President is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament.
Amendment of the Constitution. Under Article 368 .the Parliament can make any amendment in the Constitution but it has no. power to change the basic structure of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Write down the Executive powers of the President.
Answer:
The President is the Chief Executive or Head of the State. According to Art. 53 (1) of the Constitution, the executive powers of the Union have been vested in the President. He may exercise these powers himself or get them exercised through officers subordinate to him.
1. Administration is run in the name of the President. The entire administration of India is conducted in his name and all government decisions are formally announced as his decisions. Laws passed by the Parliament are promulgated in his name.

2. Appointments. (i) He appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister, (ii) He appoints the Attorney General, the Comptroller and the Auditor General. Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission, the Chairman and Members of Joint Public Service Commission, the Election Commission, Finance Commission, the Official Language Commission and Commission for the Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Backward Classes, etc. He also appoints the State Governors, Lt. Governors and Chief Commissioners of the Union Territories. He also sends and receives diplomatic representatives.

3. Military Powers. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces, but the exercise of military powers of the President is regulated by the Parliament. The President cannot declare war or employ forces without the sanction of the Parliament or in anticipation of the sanction by the Parliament.

4. Powers Relating to Foreign Affairs. The President has extensive diplomatic powers. He represents his country in International affairs. He appoints Indian representatives to foreign countries and also receives diplomatic representatives of other states which have been recognised by the Parliament.

5. Power of Direction, Control and Co-ordination. The President has the power of direction, control and co-ordination of the work in the states. He can issue directions to the states for the compliance of union law.

Question 3.
Explain the .legislative powers of the Indian President.
Answer:
Following are the legislative powers of the Indian President provided by Art. 123 of the Constitution.
1. Power to Summon, Prorogue and Dissolve the Parliament. The President can convene, prorogue and dissolve the Parliament. He can order fresh elections to the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. He must call the session of the Parliament within 6 months.

2. Address to the Parliament. He can address the two Houses of the Parliament jointly or he may address them independently. The first session of the Parliament after the General elections is inaugurated by the President. He also addresses the first session of the Parliament every year. In his address the President explains the policy of the Government- to the House.

3. Nominates the Members to the Parliament. He nominates 12 persons to the Rajya Sabha. These persons must have distinguished themselves in the fields of art, literature, science and social service. He can nominate two persons of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if he feels that the community has not got adequate representation.

4. Assent on Bills. No bill passed by the Parliament can become an Act without the assent of the President. He can reject an ordinary bill only once and when passed for the second time, the President is to give his assent.

5. Approval to Money Bills. He gives approval to money bills passed by the State Legislatures.

6. Joint Session. He can call a joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament. If the two Chambers differ on an ordinary bill, only then he calls a joint session.

7. Power to Send Messages. He can send messages to any House from time to time.

8. Ordinance. During the intervals of the session of the Parliament, he can issue ordinances. These ordinances have the force of laws.

Question 4.
Discuss the Legislative’s control over the Executive.
Answer:
Our country has adopted the parliamentary form of government. Parliament can keep control over the Council of Ministers in many ways. It can force the Council of Ministers to work in its way.

Questions: The members of parliament can ask any question to any minister regarding the functioning of their department and it is must for the concerned ministers to reply.
Discussion: Parliament can discuss the presidential address to the parliament and can criticise all of its policies.
Adjournment Motion: To discuss any serious problem, members of parliament can raise adjournment motion. Its aim is to stop the normal preceedings and firstly discuss that problem. In this government can be criticised.
To remove the Council of Ministers: If parliament is not satisfied with the working of the council of ministers, it can remove whole of the council by passing no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha.

Question 5.
Give a few features of the parliamentary form of government.
Answer:
The parliamentary form of government is a system in which the council of ministers is responsible towards the parliament for its political policies and functions. The Head of the state is the nomical head and is not responsible towards parliament.

Features:

Nominal Executive. In a parliamentary system, the head of the country i.e. the President is the nominal head because real powers lie in the hands of the prime minister and his council of ministers.
Clear Majority. In parliamentary form, the government is run by the political party which gets the majority in elections. This party elects its leader who is called by the President to form the government.
Compulsory Membership of Parliament. To become a minister, it is a must for a person to be a member of parliament. If anyone is not a member of parliament, on the advice of the Prime Minister, the President can make him a minister. But it is a must for him to acquire the membership within 6 months or he will have to leave his post.
Collective Responsibility. The council of ministers is collectively responsible towards the legislature. They can be asked any question within the parliament. If parliament (Lok Sabha) passes a no-confidence motion against them, they can be removed from their post.
The leadership of the Prime Minister. In the parliamentary form of government, Prime Minister is the leader of the council of ministers. The President appoints different ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. Prime Minister looks after the functioning of different ministers and tries to maintain balance among them.

PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

PSEB 10th Class Science Guide Chemical Reactions and Equations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO₂(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(d) Lead oxide is being reduced.
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all.
Answer
(i) (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.
(c) decomposition reaction.
(d) displacement reaction.
Answer:
(d) displacement reaction.

Question 3.
What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings?
Tick the correct answer.
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.

Question 4.
What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?
Answer:
Balanced chemical equation. It is a chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element are equal on both sides of the equation.

The chemical equation should be balanced because law of conservation of mass holds good i.e., the total mass of the reactants must be equal to the total mass of the products.

Question 5.
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them :
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
Answer:
3H₂ (g) + N₂ → 2NH₃ (g)

(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
Answer:
2H₂S (g) + 3O₂ (g) → 2H₂O (l) + 2SO₂ (g)

(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
Answer:
3BaCl₂ + A12(SO₄)₃ → 2AlCl₃ (aq) + 3BaSO₄ (s)↓

(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer:
2K (s) + 2H₂O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H₂ (g)

Question 6.
Balance the following chemical equations :
(a) HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2H₂O

(b) NaOH + H₂SO4 → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
Answer:
2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O

(d) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + HCl
Answer:
BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2HCl

Question 7.
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
Answer:
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O

(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver.
Answer:
Zn + 2AgNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)₂ + 2Ag

(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl₂ + K₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2KCl

Question 8.
Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and identify the type of reaction in each case.
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide (s)
Answer:
2KBr (aq) + Bal₂ (aq) → 2KI (aq) + BaBr₂ (aq) — Double displacement reaction

(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
Answer:
ZnCO₃ (s) → ZnO (s) + CO₂ (g) — Decomposition reaction

(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
Answer:(a)
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl₂ (aq) + H₂ (g) — Displacement reaction

Question 9.
What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Or
Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reactions.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction. It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is given out.
e.g. C (s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ + Heat energy
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H₂O (l) + Heat energy

Endothermic reaction : It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is absorbed,
e.g. N₂ (g) + O₂ (g) → 2NO (g) — Heat energy
C (S) + H₂O (g) → CO + H₂ (g) — Heat energy.

Question 10.
Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction? Explain.
Answer:
During respiration oxidation of glucose occurs which produces heat energy.

Question 11.
Why are decomposition reactions called opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
During decomposition a single substance breaks down into two or more substances which is just the reverse of combination reaction.

Examples for decomposition reactions are :
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1

Question 12.
Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity.
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 2
Here electrical energy is supplied to bring about the reaction.

Question 13.
What is the difference between the displacement and double displacement reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
Displacement reaction: In this reaction a more active element displaces less active element from solution of its compound. Examples:
Fe (s) + CuSO₄ (aq) → FeSO₄ (aq) + Cu (s) ↓
Zn (s) + CuSO₄ (aq) → ZnSO₄ (aq) + Cu (s) ↓

Double displacement reaction: The reaction in which there is an exchange of ions between two reactants is called a double displacement reaction.
AgNO₃ (aq) + NaCl (aq) AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO₃ (aq)
BaCl₂ (aq) + Na₂SO₄ (aq) BaSO₄ (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 14.
In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Answer:
Cu (s) + 2AgNO₃ (aq) → Cu(NO₃)₂(aq) + 2Ag ↓

Question 15.
What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.
Answer:
Precipitation reaction. A reaction in which an insoluble product or precipitate is produced is called precipitation reaction.
AgNO₃ (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO₃ (aq)
BaCl₂ (aq) + Na2SO₄ (aq) → BaSO₄ (s) ↓ + 2NaCl (aq)

Question 16.
Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each :
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction.
Answer:
(a) Oxidation: A chemical reaction in which a substance gains oxygen or loses hydrogen is called oxidation.
Examples
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

(b) Reduction: A chemical reaction in which a substance loses oxygen or gains hydrogen is called reduction.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 4

Question 17.
A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Answer:
The element X is copper.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5
Therefore the black coloured compound formed is copper (II) oxide (CuO).

Question 18.
Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
Answer:
The iron articles can be protected from rusting by applying paint on them so that the iron surface does not come in contact with air (or oxygen) and moisture which causes rusting.

Question 19.
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Answer:
This is because food items are prevented from oxidation by oxygen or air.

Question 20.
Explain the following terms with one example each :
(a) Corrosion
Answer:
Corrosion: The slow eating up of metals by the action of air and moisture on their surfaces is called corrosion. For example, iron undergoes corrosion or rusting in the presence of moist air.

(b) Rancidity.
Answer:
Rancidity: When fats and oils or food containing oils and fats get oxidised with air or oxygen, their smells and tastes change, This process is called rancidity. For example, the packet containing potato chips is flushed with nitrogen gas to avoid rancidity.

Science Guide for Class 10 PSEB Chemical Reactions and Equations InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Answer:
Magnesium ribbon should be cleaned before burning to remove the protective layer of basic magnesium carbonate from its surface.

Question 2.
Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions.
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
Answer:
H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium Sulphate → Barium Sulphate + Aluminium Chloride
Answer:
3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 3BaSO₄ + 2AlCl₃

(iii) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Answer:
2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

Question 3.
Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions.
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
Answer:
BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO4(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride and water.
Answer:
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H₂O (l)

Question 4.
A solution of substance “X’ is used for white washing.
(i) Name the substance X’and write its formula.
Answer:
X is calcium oxide (quick lime) and its formula is CaO.

(ii) Write the reaction of the substance X named in (i) above with water.
Answer:
CaO (s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂ (aq)

Question 5.
Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in activity 1.7 double of the amount collected in the other? Name this gas.
Answer:
When electric current is passed through acidulated water, the reaction taking place is

Therefore hydrogen and oxygen produced are in the ratio 2 : 1 by volume. Hence volume of gas collected in one test tube is double the volume of gas collected in the other tube and this gas is hydrogen.

Question 6.
Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change, when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer:
This is because iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Therefore, the concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases and blue colour of solution gradually fades away.
PSEB 10th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7
The concentration of copper sulphate solution decreases as ferrous sulphate is produced.

Question 7.
Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in the activity 1.10 given in textbook
Answer:
NaCl (aq) + AgNO₃(ag) → NaNO₃(aq) +AgCl(s) ↓

Question 8.
Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions :
(i) 4Na(s) + O₂(g) → 2Na₂O (s)
(ii) CuO(s) + H₂(g) → Cu(s) + H₂O(l)
Answer:

Substance oxidised	Substance reduced
1. Na_(s)	H₂
2. H₂	CuO_(s)

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Civics Chapter 3 The State Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 The State Government

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
How many Chambers a State Legislative Assembly has? Give their names.
Answer:
In many states of India, the State Legislatures have one House. Some State Legislatures have two Houses. Where the State Legislature has two Houses, these are Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad. Where there is only one House, the name of the House is Vidhan Sabha pr Legislative Assembly.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions concerning State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
(a) The qualifications to become its member.
Answer:
Essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Legislative Assembly or the Vidhan Sabha. Following are the essential qualifications for a person to become the member of the Vidhan Sabha :

He must be a citizen of India.
He must have completed 25 years of age.
He must not be either an insolvent or a bankrupt or of unsound fnind.
He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the State Government.

(b) The maximum and minimum number of its members as per the Constitution.
Answer:
Number of Members. The number of members of the Vidhan Sabha is fixed by the Parliament on the basis of the population of the state concerned. It can have a maximum membership of 500 and a minimum of 60 persons.

(c) Mention the stages, an ordinary bill has to pass through.
Answer:
Stages of an ordinary bill. An ordinary bill, before becoming an act, has to pass through the following stages; At the first stage, the bill is introduced in the House and its first reading is done. At the second stage, a general discussion on each clause of the bill takes place. At the third stage, the debate is confined to the acceptance or rejection of the bill.

(d) The minimum age required to become the member of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
Minimum age limit for the member of the Vidhan Sabha.
The minimum age limit for contesting election to the Vidhan Sabha is 25 years.

(e) How is the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly elected?
Answer:
Election of the Speaker. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and maintains discipline and decorum in the House. He is elected by the House from amongst its own members.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions concerning Legislative Council of a state :
(а) How many members can be there of the Legislative Council?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad is the upper House of the State Legislature. The maximum strength of this House is fixed at one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha and a minimum of 40 members.

(b) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Council.
Answer:
Term of the members of Legislative Council.
The Legislative Council is a permanent house. The term of members is six years but one-third of its members retire after every two years.

(c) Mention the term of the members of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The term of the members of Legislative Assembly is 5 years but the Assembly can be dismissed by the President by using Article 356 even before the completion of its term.

(d) Name four states where the Lagislative Council Exists.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have Legislative Councils. It means these states have bicameral legislature.

Question 4.
Enumerate the four powers of the State Legislature.
Answer:
Following are the main powers of the State Legislature :

To exercise control over the Council of Ministers.
To pass the budget, and to impose, reduce or repeal taxes.
To make laws on the subjects included in the State List and the Concurrent List.
To punish those who violate the discipline of the House.

Question 5.
Do your state has bicameral legislatuse?
Answer:
Punjab has a unicameral legislature called Vidhan Sabha. Punjab has no Second Chamber or Vidhan Parishad.

Question 6.
How is the Governor of a State appointed?
Answer:
The Governor is the constitutional head of a state. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

Question 7.
Who and how is a Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor. He appoints a person who is the leader of the majority party in the State Vidhan Sabha.

Question 8.
Examine the role of the Governor during President’s rule in a state.
Answer:
If the President is satisfied either on the recommendation of the Governor or otherwise that the government cannot be carried on in a State in accordance with the Constitution, he declares constitutional emergency in the state. The Governor can dismiss the Council of Ministers and dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. He becomes the real head of the State.

Question 9.
Mention the term of the office of the Governor.
Answer:
The term of the Governor is five years. But before the expiry of this term, he can be removed from his office by the President. The President can ask him to hold this office even after five years of his term.

Question 10.
Name the three lists under which powers between union and states are distributed.
Answer:
There are three lists under which powers are divided between union government and state governments :

Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which only union government can make laws.
State List. This list contains 66 subjects on which state government can make laws.
Concurrent List. This list contains 47 subjects on which both union government and state governments can make laws. But in case of clash of laws, central law prevails.

Question 11.
What do you understand by Lok Adalats?
Answer:
Lok Adalats haye been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi on Oct. 6, 1985. It decided 150 cases in a single day.

Question 12.
When and who appoints Finance Commission?
Answer:
The president of India appoints the Finance Commission at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as the deemed necessary by him/her.

II. Answer the following questions in short :

Question 1.
Briefly describe the administrative powers of the Governor.
Or
Explain three powers of the Governor
Answer:
Following are the executive powers of the Governor of a state :

All executive actions of the State are taken in his name.
It is his responsibility to maintain law and order in the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist hini in this work.
He appoints the Chief Minister, and on his advice, other ministers of his Council of Ministers.
He makes high appointments like those of the Advocate General, Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission, etc.
He is also consulted by the President in matters relating to the appointment of the judges for the High Court of his State.

Question 2.
Examine the process of appointment of the Council of Ministers in a state.
Answer:
The Constitution of India establishes Parliamentary form of government at the State level and at the Centre. The Governor, therefore, is a nominal head of the State. There is a provision for a Council of Ministers to assist him. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the State. The Governor appoints a person as the Chief Minister who is the leader of the majority party in the Legislative Assembly. He also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Governor can neither delete nor add any new name to the list, given to him by the Chief Minister.

Question 3.
Explain the discretionary powers of a Governor.
Answer:
The Governor has some powers which he can use on his own discretion. These are called his discretionary powers.

The Governor can exercise these powers in the following cases :

When no party holds a clear majority in the State Vidhan Sabha, he shall exercise his discretion in the appointment of the Chief Minister.
In the event of the failure of the constitutional machinery in the state, he may recommend the imposition of the President’s rule in his state.
To safeguard the interests of the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in his state.
To reserve any bill passed by the state legislature for the approval of the President.
The Governor can dismiss the ministry if he is convinced that it has lost the majority support.

Question 4.
How a declaration of the breakdown of constitutional machinery affects the State Government?
Answer:

The President can use all the powers or any of the executive powers of the state.
The powers taken over by him shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him. These powers are generally exercised by the state Governor.
He can suspend or dissolve the legislative assembly of the state.
The Parliament can make laws on any subject on the State list for that State.
The Parliament passes the annual budget of the state.
The Council of Ministers of the state is dismissed.

Question 5.
Distinguish between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
There are the following differences between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers :

The Council of Ministers consists of about 60 ministers, whereas the Cabinet has only 15-20 members.
The Cabinet is the inner part of the Council of Minister. That is why, it is commonly termed as wheel within a wheel.
The Cabinet formulates all the policies of the state whereas the Council of Ministers does not take part in policy making.
The meetings of the Cabinet are held once or twice a week but the meetings of the Council of Ministers are very rarely held.

Question 6.
Examine the four main functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
Following are the four main functions of the Council of Ministers :

Formulation of Policies. The first important function of the Council of Ministers of a state is the formulation of the policies on the basis of which the administration of the state is to be conducted.
Administration. The Council of Ministers is the real executive of the state. Each minister is made incharge of a department and it is his responsibility to run the administration of the department smoothly.
Legislative functions. It is the Council of Ministers that decides the time of summoning and prorougation of the legislature. The Governor’s address is prepared by the council. Majority of the bills are introduced in the legislature by the Council of Ministers.
Financial functions. It is the Council of Ministers which prepares the budget and decides the financial policy of the state. It decides which new taxes are to be imposed. It also decides which taxes are to be increased or decreased.

Question 7.
How a money bill becomes an Act in a State Legislature?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced by a minister only in the Vidhan Sabha. In a State, which has bicameral legislature, the money bill, after being passed by the Vidhan Sabha, is sent to the Vidhan Parishad. The Vidhan Parishad can keep pending the money bill for 14 days. After this, it sends the bill to Vidhan Sabha with or without its suggestions. The Vidhan Sabha has power to reject or accept these suggestions. Then the bill passed by the Vidhan Sabha is sent to the Governor for approval. The bill, after getting the assent of the Governor, becomes an act.

Question 8.
Explain the original jurisdiction or administrative powers of a High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can be brought before the High Court directly. This is called the original jurisdiction of the High Court. The High Court has original jurisdictions in the following cases :

Any case regarding the fundamental rights can be brought directly to the High Court. The High Court is empowered to issue five kinds of writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
The State High Courts like the Supreme Court can strike down any law passed by the State Legislature or the Parliament or any order of the executive if it violates any provision of the Constitution.

Question 9.
Describe the Appellate jurisdiction of a High Court.
Answer:

The High Court can hear appeals against the decision of the lower courts in most of the revenue and criminal cases.
The High Court can hear appeals in criminal cases in which the accused has been sentenced to four years imprisonment by the Sessions Judge. The Sessions Judge of a district court can award death sentence in criminal cases. But such a sentence is subject to the confirmation of the High Court.

Question 10.
‘A High Court is a Court of Record’. How?
Answer:
According to Article 251, every State High Court is a Court of Record, and as such its decisions are recorded and the courts subordinate to it accept these decisions as judicial precedents.

Question 11.
Examine the organization and main functions of the Lok Adalats.
Answer:
Lok Adalats. The Lok Adalats have been set up in the country with a view to providing speedy and cheap justice to the poor. Justice P.N. Bhagwati is regarded as its founder. The first Lok Adalat held its session at Delhi in October 6, 1985 and settled many cases in a single day. Our courts have heavy work-load. Lakhs of cases are pending. The system provides the simplest way to file a petition for a poor citizen in the Lok Adalat through a simple letter written on a postcard. In 1987, these Lok Adalats got legal recognition.

Question 12.
Describe briefly the relations between the Union and States on one of the following :
(a) Legislative Relations
(b) Administrative Relations
(c) Financial Relations.
Answer:
(а) Legislative Relations. The union legislature can make laws on the subjects given in the Union list and Concurrent list while the State Legislature can make laws on the State list and the Concurrent list. Only the Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List as well as the Concurrent List during the declaration of emergency in the State (Art. 356).

(b) Administrative Relations. The administrative powers of the State shall be so exercised that they do not come into conflict with executive powers of the Centre. The Union government can issue instructions to the States for that purpose if it thinks it necessary. The executive powers of the union government shall also extend to the giving of directions to a state regarding the construction and maintenance .of the means of communication declared to be of national and military importance.

(c) Financial Relations. The sources of income are divided between the Centre and the States. The important sources of income of the Central Government are such as

Customs and export duties.
Income tax.
Estate duty.
Interstate trade tax.

Sources of Income of the States are such as :

Land revenue
House tax
Taxes on succession to agricultural land
V.A. tax.

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide The State Government Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one line or one word :

Question 1.
Where is Punjab High Court located?
Answer:
Punjab High Court is located at Chandigarh.

Question 2.
How many States and Union Territories are there in the Indian Republic?
Answer:
There are twenty-eight States and eight Union Territories in India.

Question 3.
On what basis have the states been classified?
Answer:
In India, the states have been organised on a linguistic basis.

Question 4.
What is called a Union Territory?
Answer:
An administrative unit the administration of which is under the Union Government.

Question 5.
On which lists of subjects can the State Government make laws?
Answer:
The State Legislature can make laws on the subjects in the State list and Concurrent list.

Question 6.
In which House can a money bill be introduced?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced only in the Vidhan Sabha.

Question 7.
Who is the real head of a State Government?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the real head of a State Government.

Question 8.
Mention two qualifications for the office of the Governor.
Answer:
He must be a citizen of India and must have completed 35 years of age.

Question 9.
Write any one executive power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State.

Question 10.
Mention any one legislative function of the Governor.
Answer:
He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.

Question 11.
Mention any one financial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Budget of the State is presented to the Legislative Assembly in his name.

Question 12.
Write any one judicial power of the Governor.
Answer:
The Governor is consulted by the President in the appointment of the judges of the High Court.

Question 13.
How many minimum sessions of the State Legislature must be held in a year?
Answer:
The State Legislature must hold at least two sessions in a year.

Question 14.
Who is the chipf adviser of the Governor?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is the chief adviser of the Governor.

Question 15.
Write any one power of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
The Chief Minister prepares a list of the ministers and sends it to the Governor for approval.

Question 18.
What is the number of members of the Punjab Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
The Punjab Legislative Assembly consists of 117 members.

Question 17.
Who can appoint the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor is appointed by the President of India.

Question 18.
Who appoints the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.

Question 19.
What is the tenure of the Governor?
Answer:
The tenure of the Governor is five years.

Question 20.
What is tenure of Legislative Council?
Answer:
Legislative Council is a permanent body. Its one-third members retire by rotation after every two years and these members can be re-elected. The tenure of each member is six years.

Question 21.
What is the name of the Governor of the Punjab?
Answer:
V.P. Singh Bednore.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
There are _________ States in India.
Answer:
28

Question 2.
There are _________ Union Territories in India.
Answer:
8

Question 3.
In Punjab there is _________ Legislature.
Answer:
unicameral

Question 4.
The _________ is the Chief advisor of the Governor.
Answer:
Chief Minister

Question 5.
The Governor is appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 6.
The tenure of the Governor is _________
Answer:
five

Question 7.
The Chief Minister is appointed by the _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 8.
The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the _________
Answer:
President

Question 9.
The strength of the Punjab Legislative Assembly is _________
Answer:
117

Question 10.
The Judges of the High Court retire at the age of _________ years.
Answer:
sixty-two

Question 11.
The constitutional head of the state is _________
Answer:
Governor

Question 12.
The Legislative Council is a _________ House.
Answer:
Permanent

Question 13.
The tenure of the Legislative Assembly is _________ years.
Answer:
five.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The Governor of a state is :
(a) Head of Govt.
(b) Head of the State
(c) Head of the Union Territory
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Head of the State

Question 2.
Two Houses of the State Legislature are :
(а) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Legislative Council and Lok Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council
(d) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council

Question 3.
Who is the constitutional head of the state?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(a) Governor

Question 4.
The term of office of the Governor is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 6 years.
Answer:
(b) 5 years

Question 5.
The tenure of the Legistative Assembly in normal time is :
(a) 4 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years.
Answer:
(d) 5 years.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the composition of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
Answer:
The Vidhan Sabha consists of the members directly elected by the people of the State on the basis of adult franchise. According to the Constitution, its maximum membership shall not exceed 500 and shall not be below 60. A citizen having attained the age of 25 years is eligible to be elected to this house. The tenure of the Vidhan Sabha is five years. This house has a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker to conduct its meetings. The House elects them from among its members.

Question 2.
How is the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) organised?
Answer:
The membership of the Vidhan Parishad cannot exceed one-third of the membership of the Vidhan Sabha with a minimum of 40 members. Its members are elected or nominated as under:

1/3rd members are elected by the Vidhan Sabha from amongst persons who are not its members.
1/3rd members are elected by the local bodies of the state.
1/12th of members are elected by persons of at least three years’ standing as teachers in educational institutions not lower in standard than that of a secondary school.
1/12th of members are elected by the university graduates of at least three years’ standing in the state.
1/6th members are nominated by the Governor from amongst persons possessing special knowledge and experience in the fields of arts, literature, science, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the position of the Governor as a representative of the Central Government.
Answer:
The Governor of an Indian State is the head of the State but he is the representative of the Centre also. The following facts prove it :

He acts as a link between Central Government and the State Government. He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President.
If the Governor feels that administration of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he can recommend to the President to declare emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state. In that case, the President may impose President’s Rule in that state.
The State Vidhan Sabha and the Council of Ministers may be suspended or dissolved. During the emergency the Governor acts as a representative of the Central Government. He runs the administration with the help of an Advisory Council.

Question 4.
Mention the grounds on the basis of which the Governor can recommend President’s rule in the state.
Answer:
The Governor can recommend to the President for the imposition of President’s rule in his state if he is satisfied that :

the constitutional machinery has broken down in the state; and
the ruling party has lost the support of the majority of legislators.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the ‘Union Territories’.
Answer:
There are, at present, eight Union Territories apart from the 2S States. Since the area and population covered by them is small, so these are not given the status of a full-fledged state. The administration of the Union Territories is under the control of the President acting through a Lt. Governor or a Chief Commissioner. The Parliament may constitute, for every such territory, a Council of Advisors to the Chief Commissioner which may partly be elected and partly nominated.

Question 6.
List out three similarities in the organisation of Central and the State Governments.
Answer:
The following are three similarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

The Constitution’ establishes the parliamentary form of government both at the Centre and in the units.
Both at the Centre and in the States there exists’ independent impartial judicial system with a single hierarchy of coy^s to administer justice on, both the Union and the State laws.
The legislature of the Centre is bicameral and so it is in many states such as Bihar, Tamilnadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh.

Question 7.
List out three dissimilarities in the organisation of the Centre and State Governments.
Answer:
The following are the three dissimilarities with regard to the organisation of Central and State Governments :

The head of the state at the centre is an elected President; but the Governor, the head of the state, is nominated.
The central legislature is bicameral but most of the states have unicameral legislatures.
There is no office like that of the Vice-President in the States.

Question 8.
Give four non-legislative functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
The following are the non-legislative functions of the State Legislature :

The State Legislature exercises control over the finances of the State.
The Legislature’deliberates on the no-confidence motion against the Government.
The elected members of the State Legislature elect the members of Rajya Sabha.
Each of the Houses of the Legislature elects its own Chairman and Deputy Chairman.

Question 9.
Mention three major legislative functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the legislative functions of the Governor :

He summons, adjourns and prorogues the State Legislature.
All bills passed by the legislature are sent to him for his approval.
He can issue ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature.

Question 10.
Mention three major executive functions of the Governor.
Answer:
The following are the executive functions of the Governor :

He appoints the Chief Minister and on his advice the other ministers.
He appoints the Advocate General of the State, the Chairman and the members of the Public Service Commission and other officials of the State.
The Chief Minister informs the Governor about all decisions of the Council of Ministers and supplies him information relating to the administration of the State.

Question 11.
Mention the four major functions of the State Governments.
Answer:
The State Governments perform the following functions :

The most important function of each State Government is to maintain law and order in its State.
It is also the function of the State Government to provide the citizens with basic amenities of life.
It provides educational facilities to its citizens.
The Government is also expected to look after the economic welfare of the citizens by undertaking development programmes.

Question 12.
Explain three powers of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Following are the powers of the Chief Minister :

Appointment of the Minister*. The Chief Minister prepares a list of his Ministers and sends it to the Governor.
Distribution of Portfolios. The Chief Minister distributes the portfolios among the ministers.
Removal of Ministers. He can ask a minister to resign. If that minister refuses to resign, the Chief Minister can ask the Governor to remove him from the Cabinet.
Head of the Council of Ministers. The Chief Minister calls the meetings of the Council of Ministers and presides over the meetings.

Question 13.
Describe the position of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Position of the Chief Minister, In fact, the Chief Minister is the most important and powerful authority in the State. There is no field of the State administration which is not under the control of the Chief Minister. A minister remains in office so long as he continues to enjoy the confidence of the Chief Minister. He is the pivot around which the whole administration of the state revolves.

Question 14.
Discuss the administrative powers of the High Court.
Answer:
Following are the administrative powers of the High Court:

It exercises the power of superintendence and control over all the subordinate courts.
It makes rules and regulations for the transaction of business of the subordinate courts.
It frames rules for the promotion of the judges.

Question 15.
Write a note on the District Courts.
Answer:
For the convenience of judicial administration, a state is divided into districts. There are subordinate courts in every district which are under, the control of the District and Sessions Judge. The District and Sessions Judge is appointed by the State Governor in consultation with the High Court. A person to be eligible for appointment to the post of District and Sessions Judge should be an advocate of at least 7 years’ standing or should have served in the central or state government. The High Court exercises control over the district courts.

Question 16.
What are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has created a very strong Centre. There are three Lists : Central List, State List and Concurrent List, distributing the powers between the Centre and the States. The Central Government has a large number of powers. It has co-equal powers with the States to legislate on the Concurrent List and in the event of any difference between the Centre and the State, on any law, the central law prevails. The residuary powers are also with the Centre.

During the emergency the Centre gets powers to legislate even on State List. Yet another implication of the declaration of emergency in the country is that the federal structure turns into unitary one, thus making the Centre all powerful.

Question 17.
How have the powers of government been divided between the Union and the States?
Answer:
Powers of the government have clearly been divided between the onion and the states. There are three different lists of the Subjects:

The Union List. There are 97 subjects in the Union list. Only Union Government can make laws on these subjects. The main subjects, are Railways, Post and Telegraph, Coinage and Currency, Defence, and Foreign Affairs.
The State List. There are 66 subjects in this list. The state governments make laws on them. The main subjects are law and order, police, agriculture, irrigation, and public works.
The Concurrent List. There are 47 subjects on the concurrent list such as Family Planning, Marriage and Divorce, control over press, Education etc. In this list are those subjects on which both the Centre and the States can make laws. But if the two laws are contradictory, the law made by the Centre prevails.

Question 18.
Discuss the relationship between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Governor is the executive head of the State. He is the nominal head of the State. He is to act on the advice of the State Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot act according to his discretion while appointing the Chief Minister and other members of the Council of Ministers. Only the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly is appointed the Chief Minister by him. However, if no party gets clear majority, he is at liberty to appoint the Chief Minister. Other ministers are appointed by him on the advice of the Chief Minister. He distributes portfolios among the ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. But under certain circumstances, he becomes the real head of the state. He acts as the agent of the centre in the state in times of Constitutional Emergency. He also enjoys certain discretionary powers.

Question 19.
What are the powers of the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor has many legislative, executive, financial and judicial powers.

He organises the Council of Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister,
He appoints members of the State Public Service Commission,
The bills passed by the State Legislature are sent to him for assent.
Before the start of every financial year, he causes to be laid through the Finance Minister annual Budget before the Legislature,
He advises the President about’ the appointment of the judges of the High Court,
He can reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President. He can send report to the President with regard to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the State.

Question 20.
Describe the powers of State Legislature.
Answer:
1. Legislative Powers. It can legislate on all subjects included in the state list and concurrent list as well. If its legislation on some subjects of the concurrent list is contrary to the parliamentary law then it becomes null and void to the extent it is contrary to that.

2. Financial Powers. It has complete control over the financial affairs of the state. The finance minister presents the state budget before the legislative assembly every year. To impose or reduce or abolish all taxes is within its executive powers.

3. Executive Powers. The. council of ministers headed by Chief Minister is the real executive and it is directly and collectively responsible to the legislative assembly.

4. Miscellaneous functions,

Members of the legislative assembly participate in the election of the President and the Vice President of India.
The legislative assembly elects its own Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
It can create a contingency fund of the State which is controlled by the (Governor.
It can suspend its own members if they disrupt the proceedings of the House.

Question 21.
Explain the original jurisdiction and powers regarding*the fundamental rights of the High Court.
Answer:
Some cases can directly be brought to a High Court. They are cases relating to fundamental rights, wills, divorce, marriages, contempt of court etc. Election disputes can also be heard by the High Court. The High Courts of Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai can hear civil cases of a value exceeding Rs. 20,00Q or more.

In case regarding fundamental rights, the High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
The High Court can declare unconstitutional any law passed by the State Legislature or any executive order of a State Government which it finds violative of any of the provisions of the Constitution. Laws declared unconstitutional by a High Court cannot be enforced.

Question 22.
How is a money bill passed in a State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
A money bill can be introduced in a State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha). After a bill is passed by it, the bill is sent to Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) which can delay it for 14 days only.