PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 1.
Name the specific components and the linkage between them that form deoxyadenosine.
Answer:
Nitrogenous base (Adenine) and pentose sugar and N-glycosidic linkage.

Question 2.
Why is RNA more reactive in comparison to DNA?
Answer:
RNA is more reactive because:

  • It is single stranded.
  • Every nucleotide has an additional OH group present at position 2 in the ribose.
  • Mutates faster as compared to DNA.

Question 3.
In an experiment, DNA is treated with a compound which tends to place itself amongst the stacks of nitrogenous base pairs. As a result of this, the distance between two consecutive base increases from 0.34 nm to 0.44 nm. Calculate the length of DNA double helix, which has 2 × 109 bp in saturating the presence of this compound. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The new length of DNA helix would be
= 2 × 10-9 × 0.44 × 10-9bp.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 4.
In a nucleus, the number of RNA nucleoside triphosphates is 10 times more than the number of DNA nucleoside triphosphates,
still only DNA nucleotides are added during the DNA replication, and not the RNA nucleotides. Why?
[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
DNA polymerase is highly specific to recognise only deoxyribonucleoside r triphosphates. Therefore, it cannot hold RNA nucleotides.

Question 5.
Name the enzyme involved in the continuous replication of DNA strand. Mention the polarity of the template strand.
Answer:
DNA polymerase is involved in continuous replication of DNA strand. The polarity of template strand is 3′ → 5′.

Question 6.
What is a cistron?
Answer:
Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide chain.

Question 7.
Name the transcriptionally active region of chromatin in a nucleus.
Answer:
Euchromatin or Exon.

Question 8.
Write the function of RNA polymerase n.
Answer:
RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA or hnRNA.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 9.
Mention the two additional processings which /mRNA needs to
undergo after splicing so as to become functional.
Answer:
Capping and tailing.

Question 10.
Give an example of a codon having dual function.
Answer:
AUG has dual function. It acts as initiation codon and also codes for methionine.

Question 11.
Sometimes cattle or even human beings give birth to their young ones that have extremely different sets of organs like limbs/position of eye(s), etc. Why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
This is due to a disturbance in coordinated regulation of expression of sets of genes associated with organ development or due to mutations.

Question 12.
How does a degenerate code differ from an unambiguous one?
Answer:
Degenerate code means that one amino acid can be coded by more than one codon. Unambiguous code means that one codon codes for only one amino acid.

Question 13.
What is aminoacylation? State its significance.
Answer:
Aminoacylation of t-RNA involves activation of amino acids by ATP which gets linked to OH’ present at the 3′ end of specific t-RNA. The process is also called charging of t-RNA.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 14.
Mention how c|oes DNA polymorphism arise in a population?
Answer:
DNA polymorphism in a population arise due to presence of inheritable mutations at high frequency.

Question 15.
How is repetitive/satellite DNA separated from bulk genomic DNA for various genetic experiments?
Answer:
By using density gradient centrifugation, where satellite DNA forms small peaks.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Recall the experiments done by Frederick Griffith, Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, where DNA was speculated to be the genetic material. If RNA, instead of DNA was the genetic material, would the heat killed strain of Pneumococcus have transformed the 12-strain into virulent strain? Explain.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
RNA is more labile and prone to degradation, owing to the presence of 2’OH group in its ribose. Hence, heat-killed S-strain may not have retained its ability to transform the R-strain into virulent form if RNA was its genetic material.

Question 2.
Name a few enzymes involved in DNA replication other than DNA polymerase and ligase. Name the key functions for each of them. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The enzymes involved in DNA replication other than DNA polymerase and ligase are listed below with their functions:\

  • Helicase – Opens the helix
  • Topoisomerases – Removes the tension caused due to unwinding
  • DNA ligase – Joins the cut DNA strands

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 3.
Following are the features of genetic codes. What does each one indicate?
Stop codon; Unambiguous codon; Degenerate codon; Universal codon.
Answer:

  • Stop codon is a codon, which does not code for any amino acid and here the polypeptide chain is released e.g., 3 codons – UAA, UAG, UGA.
  • Unambiguous codon : One codon codes for only one specific amino acid.
  • Degenerate codon : Here, one amino acid is coded by more than one codon e.g., amino acid glycine is coded by four codons (GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG).
  • Universal codon means a codon specifies the same amino acid in all
    the organisms even in a virus. ,

Question 4.
A single base mutation in a gene may not ‘always’ result in loss or gain of function. Do you think the statement is correct? Defend your answer. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The statement is correct because of degeneracy of codons, mutations at third base of codon, usually does not result into any change in phenotype. This is called silent mutations but at other times it can lead to loss or formation of malformed protein changing the phenotype.

Question 5.
(a) Name the scientist who called tRNA an adapter molecule.
(b) Draw a clover leaf structure of fRNA showing the following:
(i) Tyrosine attached to its amino acid site.
(ii) Anticodon for this amino acid in its correct site (codon for tyrosine is UCA).
(c) What does the actual structure of JRNA look like?
Answer:
(a) Francis Crick
(b) PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 1
(c) The actual structure of t-RNA looks like inverted L.

Question 6.
A low level of expression of lac operon occurs at all the time. Can you explain the logic behind this phenomena. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
In the complete absence of expression of lac operon, permease will not be synthesised which is essential for transport of lactose from medium into the cells. And if lactose cannot be transported into the cell, then it cannot act as inducer. Hence, cannot relieve the lac operon from its repressed state. Therefore, lac operon is always expressed.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 7.
Would it be appropriate to use DNA probes such as VNTR in DNA fingerprinting of a bacteriophage? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Bacteriophage does not have repetitive sequences such as VNTRs in its genome, as its genome is very small (i.e., 5386bp) and have all the coding sequence. Therefore, DNA fingerprinting is not done for phages.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Describe Meselson and Stahl’s experiment that was carried in 1958 on E.coil. Write the conclusion they arrived at after the experiment.
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl (1958) grew E. coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl (15N is the heavy isotope of nitrogen) as
the only nitrogen source for many generations. The result was that 15N was incorporated into newly synthesised DNA (as well as other nitrogen containing compounds). This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from the normal DNA by centrifugation in a cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient.

They transferred the cells into a medium with normal 14NH4Cl and took samples at various definite time intervals as the cells multiplied, and extracted the DNA that remained as double-stranded helices. The various samples were separated independently as CsCl gradients to measure the densities of DNA.

Thus, the DNA that was extracted from the culture one generation after the transfer from 15N to 14N medium (that is after 20 minutes; E.coli divides in 20 minutes) had a hybrid or intermediate density. DNA extracted from the culture after another generation (that is after 40 minutes, II generation) was composed of equal amounts of hybrid DNA and of light DNA.

Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl’s experiment demonstrated that DNA replication is semi-conservative.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 2
Generation I Generation II

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 2.
(a) Describe the series of experiments of F. Griffith. Comment on the significance of the results obtained.
(b) State the contribution of MacLeod, McCarty and Avery.
Answer:
(a) Frederick Griffith (1928), a British doctor, was studying the pathogenicity of different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae. It has two strains- (i) virulent cause pneumonia, has S-type of bacteria, covered by sheath of mucilage, (ii) non-virulent do not produce the disease, has R-type of bacteria, devoid of sheath of mucilage.

Griffith found that on injecting live R-type bacteria did not produce the disease while live S-type caused pneumonia and the death in mice. However, when heat-killed S-type injected, they did not produce the disease. Finally, Griffith injected a combination of live-R-type and heat-killed S-type bacteria into mice. Some mice survived while others developed the disease of pneumonia and died. Autopsy of dead mice showed that they possessed both the type of bacteria (virulent-S-type and non-virulent-R-type) in living form through the mice that had been injected with dead virulent (S-type) and living non-virulent (R-type) bacteria.

From the above experiment, Frederick Griffith concluded that the occurrence of living S-type virulent bacteria is possible only by their formation from R-type non-virulent bacteria which pick-up the trait of virulence from dead bacteria. This phenomenon is called Griffith effect or transformation. Griffith proposed that the transforming principle is a chemical substance released by heat-killed S-type, which changed the S-type into S-bacteria. It was a permanent change as the new S-type formed only S-type progeny.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 3
(b) Avery, MacLeod, McCarty discovered that DNA from the heat-killed S-strain caused the living R-strain bacteria to become transformed into living S-type. They found proteases and RNAases did not affect transformation while DNAases inhibit transformation. They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Molecular Basis of Inheritance Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Group the following as nitrogenous bases and nucleosides:
Adenine, Cytidine, Thymine, Guanosine, Uracil and Cytosine.
Answer:
Nitrogenous Bases: Adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine.
Nucleosides: Cytidine and guanosine.

Question 2.
If a double stranded DNA has 20 per cent of cytosine, calculate the per cent of adenine in the DNA.
Answer:
According to Chargaffs rule, the DNA molecule should have an equal ratio of pyrimidine (cytosine and thymine) and purine (adenine and guanine). It means that the number of adenine molecules is equal to thymine molecules and the number of guanine molecules is equal to cytosine molecules.
% A = % T and % G = % C
If double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, then according to the law, it would have 20% of guanine.
Thus, percentage of G + C content = 40%
The remaining 60% represents both A + T molecule. Since adenine and guanine are always present in equal numbers, the percentage of adenine molecule is 30%.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 3.
If the sequence of one strand of DNA is written as follows: 5-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3′
Write down the sequence of complementary strand in 5′ → 3′ direction.
Answer:
The DNA strands are complementary to each other with respect to base sequence. Hence, if the sequence of one strand of DNA is
5′- ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC – 3′
Then, the sequence of complementary strand in 5′-3′ direction will be
3′- TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG – 5′
Therefore, the sequence of nucleotides on DNA polypeptide in 5′-3′ direction is
5′- GCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCAT – 3′

Question 4.
If the sequence of the coding strand in a transcription unit is written as follows:
5′ – ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3 Write down the sequence of mRNA.
Answer:
If the coding strand in a transcription unit is
5′ – ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3′
Then, the template strand in 3′ to 5′ direction would be
3′ – TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG-5′
It is known that the sequence of mRNA is same as the coding strand of DNA.
However, in RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil.
Hence, the sequence of mRNA will be
5′ – AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-3′

Question 5.
Which property of DNA double helix led Watson and Crick to hypothesise semi-conservative mode of DNA replication? Explain.
Answer:
Watson and Crick observed that the two strands of DNA are f anti-parallel and complementary to each other with respect to their base sequences. This type of arrangement in DNA molecule led to the hypothesis that DNA replication is semi-conservative. It means that the double stranded DNA molecule separates and then, each of the separated strand acts as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand. As a result, each DNA molecule would have one parental strand and a newly synthesised daughter strand.

Since only one parental strand is conserved in each daughter molecule, it is known as semi-conservative mode of replication.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 1

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Quetion 6.
Depending upon the chemical nature of the template (DNA or RNA) and the nature of nucleic acids synthesised from it (DNA or RNA), list the types of nucleic acid polymerases.
Answer:
There are two different types of nucleic acid polymerases.

  1. DNA-dependent DNA polymerases
  2. DNA-dependent RNA polymerases

The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases use a DNA template strand for synthesising a new strand of DNA, whereas DNA-dependent RNA polymerases use a DNA template strand for synthesising a new strand of RNA.

Question 7.
How did Hershey and Chase differentiate between DNA and protein in their experiment while proving that DNA is the genetic material?
Answer:
Hershey and Chase worked with bacteriophage and E.coli to prove that DNA is the genetic material. They used different radioactive isotopes to label DNA and protein coat of the bacteriophage.

They grew some bacteriophages on a medium containing radioactive phosphorus (32) to identify DNA and some on a medium containing radioactive sulphur (35S) to identify protein. Then, these radioactive labelled phages were allowed to infect E.coli bacteria. After infecting, the protein coat of the bacteriophage was separated’from the bacterial cell by blending and then subjected to the process of centrifugation. Since the protein coat was lighter, it was found in the supernatant while the infected bacteria got settled at the bottom of the centrifuge tube. Hence, it was proved that DNA is the genetic material as it was transferred from virus to bacteria.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 2

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 8.
Differentiate between the following :
(a) Repetitive DNA and Satellite DNA
(b) mRNA and tRNA
(c) Template strand and Coding strand Arts,
Answer:
(a) Repetitive DNA and Satellite DNA

Repetitive DNA Satellite DNA
Repetitive DNA are DNA sequences that contain small segments, which are repeated many times. Satellite DNA are DNA sequences that contain highly repetitive DNA.

(b) mRNA and tRNA

mRNA tRNA
1. mRNA or messenger RNA acts as a template for the process of transcription. tRNA or transfer RNA acts as an adaptor molecule that carries a specific amino acid to mRNA for the synthesis of polypeptide.
2. It is a linear molecule. It has clover leaf shape.

(c) Template strand and Coding strand

Template strand Coding strand
1. Template strand of DNA acts as a template for the synthesis of mRNA during transcription. Coding strand is a sequence of DNA that has the same base sequence as that of mRNA (except thymine that is replaced by uracil in DNA).
2. It runs from 3′ to 5′. It runs from 5′ to 3′.

Question 9.
List two essential roles of ribosome during translation.
Answer:
The important functions of ribosome during translation are as follows :
(a) Ribosome acts as the site where protein synthesis takes place from individual amino .acids. It is made up of two subunits.
The smaller subunit comes in contact with mRNA and forms a protein synthesising complex whereas the larger subunit acts as an amino acid binding site.

(b) Ribosome acts as a catalyst for forming peptide bond. For example, 23s r-RNA in bacteria acts as a ribozyme.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 10.
In the medium where E. coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the lac operon. Then, why does lac operon shut down some time after addition of lactose in the medium?
Answer:
Lac operon is a segment of DNA that is made up of three adjacent structural genes, namely, an operator gene, a promoter gene, and a regulator gene. It works in a coordinated manner to metabolise lactose into glucose and galactose.

In lac operon, lactose acts as an inducer. It binds to the repressor and inactivates it. Once the lactose binds to the repressor, RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region. Hence, three structural genes express their product and respective enzymes are produced. These enzymes act on lactose so that lactose is metabolised into glucose and galactose. After sometime, when the level of inducer decreases as it is completely metabolised by enzymes, it causes synthesis of the repressor from regulator gene. The repressor binds to the operator gene and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. Hence, the transcription is stopped. This type of regulation is known as negative regulation.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 3

Question 11.
Explain (in one or two lines) the function of the following:
(a) Promoter
(b) tRNA
(c) Exons
Answer:
(a) Promoter: Promoter is a region of DNA that helps in initiating the process of transcription. It serves as the binding site for RNA polymerase.

(b) tRNA: tRNA or transfer RNA is a small RNA that reads the genetic code present on mRNA. It carries specific amino acid to mRNA on ribosome during translation of proteins.

(c) Exons: Exons are coding sequences of DNA in eukaryotes that transcribe for proteins.

Question 12.
Why is the Human Genome project called a mega project?
Answer:
Human genome project was considered to be a mega project because it had a specific goal to sequence every base pair present in the human genome. It took around 13 years for its completion and got accomplished in year 2006. It was a large scale project, which aimed at developing new technology and generating new information in the field of genomic studies. As a result of it, several new areas and avenues have opened up in the field of genetics, biotechnology, and medical sciences. It provided clues regarding the understanding of human biology.

Question 13.
What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention its application.
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting is a technique used to identify and analyse the variations in various individuals at the level of DNA. It is based on variability and polymorphism in DNA sequences.
Applications

  1. It is used in forensic science to identify potential crime suspects.
  2. It is used to establish paternity and family relationships.
  3. It is used to identify and protect the commercial varieties of crops and livestock.
  4. It is used to find out the evolutionary history of an organism and trace out the linkages between groups of various organisms.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 14.
Briefly describe the following:
(a) Transcription
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Translation
(d) Bioinformatics
Answer:
(a) Transcription: It is the process of synthesis of RNA from DNA template. A segment of DNA gets copied into mRNA during the process. The process of transcription starts at the promoter region of the template DNA and terminates at the terminator region. The segment of DNA between these two regions is known as transcription unit. The transcription requires RNA polymerase enzyme, a DNA template, four types of ribonucleotides, and certain cofactors such as Mg2+.
The three important events that occur during the process of transcription are as follows:

  1. Initiation
  2. Elongation
  3. Termination

The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and certain initiation factors bind at the double stranded DNA at the promoter region of the template strand and initiate the process of transcription. RNA polymerase moves along the DNA and leads to the unwinding of DNA duplex into two separate strands. Then, one of the strands, called sense strand, acts as template for mRNA synthesis. The enzyme, RNA polymerase, utilises nucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) as raw material and polymerises them to form mRNA according to the complementary bases present on the template DNA«. This process of opening of helix-and elongation of polynucleotide chain continues until the enzyme reaches the terminator region. As RNA polymerase reaches the terminator region, the newly synthesised mRNA transcripted along with enzyme is released. Another factor called terminator factor is required for the termination of the transcription.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 4

(b) Polymorphism: It is a form of genetic variation in which distinct nucleotide sequence can exist at a particular site in a DNA molecule. This heritable mutation is observed at a high frequency in a population. It arises due to mutation either in somatic cell or in the germ cells. The germ cell mutation can be transmitted from parents to their offsprings. This results in accumulation of various mutations in a population, leading to variation and polymorphism in the population. This plays a very important role in the process of evolution and tracing human history.

(c) Translation: It is the process of polymerising amino acid to form a polypeptide chain. The triplet sequence of base pairs in mRNA defines the order and sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
The process of translation involves following three steps:

  1. Initiation
  2. Elongation
  3. Termination

During the initiation of the translation, tRNA gets charged when the amino acid binds to it using ATP. The start (initiation) codon (AUG) present on mRNA is recognised only by the charged tRNA. The ribosome acts as an actual site for the process of translation and contains two separate sites in a large subunit for the attachment of subsequent amino acids. The small subunit of ribosome binds to mRNA at the initiation codon (AUG) followed by the large subunit. Then, it initiates the process of translation. During the elongation process, the ribosome moves one codon downstream along with mRNA so as to leave the space for binding of another charged tRNA. The amino acid brought by tRNA gets linked with the previous amino acid through a peptide bond and this process continues resulting in the formation of a polypeptide chain. When the ribosome reaches one or more STOP codon (VAA, UAG, and UGA), the process of translation gets terminated. The polypeptide chain is released and the ribosomes get detached from mRNA.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 5

(d) Bioinformatics: It is the application of computational and statistical techniques to the field of molecular biology. It solves the practical problems arising from the management and analysis of biological data. The field of bioinformatics developed after the completion of human genome project (HGP). This is because enormous amount of data has been generated during the process of HGP that has to be managed and stored for easy access and interpretation for future use by various scientists. Hence, bioinformatics involves the creation of biological databases that store the vast information of biology.

It develops certain tools for easy and efficient access to the information and its utilisation. Bioinformatics has developed new algorithms and statistical methods to find out the relationship between the data, to predict protein structure and their functions, and to cluster the protein sequences into their related families.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 1.
Mention any two contrasting traits with respect to seeds in pea plant that were studied by Mendel.
Answer:
Round/Wrinkled, Yellow/Green.

Question 2.
Name the type of cross that would help to find the genotype of a pea plant bearing violet flowers.
Answer:
Test Cross.

Question 3.
State a difference between a gene and an allele.
Answer:
Gene is a unit of heredity passed from’one generation to next generation and determine the expression of any morphological or physiological inheritable character of an organism.

Alleles are alternative form of a gene, occupying the same position on homologous chromosomes and affecting the alternative forms (contrasting traits) of the same character.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 4.
A garden pea plant (A) produced inflated yellow pod, and another plant (B) of the same species produced constricted green pods. Identify the dominant traits.
Answer:
Inflated green pod is the dominant trait.

Question 5.
Mention the type of allele that expresses itself only in homozygous state in an organism.
Answer:
Recessive allele.

Question 6.
A garden pea plant produced axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant traits.
Answer:
Axial, violet flower.

Question 7.
What are ‘true breeding lines’ that are used to study inheritance pattern of traits in plants?
Answer:
True breeding lines are plants which have undergone continuous self-pollination for several generations. These are homozygous for traits.

Question 8.
Name the stage of cell division where segregation of an independent pair of chromosomes occurs.
Answer:
Anaphase-I of Meiosis-I.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 9.
A male honeybee has 16 chromosomes whereas its female has 32 chromosomest Give one reason.
Answer:
A male honeybee with 16 chromosomes develops parthenogenetically from an unfertilised egg and is haploid (n) whereas the female honeybee with 32 chromosomes develops from a fertilised egg, the zygote and is diploid (2n).

Question 10.
Why is it that the father never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his sons? Explain.
Answer:
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease and the defective gene is present on X chromosome only and not on Y chromosome. Father never passes X chromosome to the son as father only contributes Y chromosome to the son.

Question 11.
Write the chromosomal defect in individuals affected with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Answer:
Klinefelter syndrome is caused due to the presence of an additional X-chromosome in the genotype of an individual i.e., 44 + XXY.

Question 12.
State the chromosomal defect in individuals with Turner’s syndrome.
Answer:
In Turner’s syndrome, the karyotype of the individual is 44 + XO. The X-chromosome is missing. It is due to the non-disjunction of X-chromosomes during oogenesis/spermatogenesis.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865, but it remained unrecognised till 1900. Give three reasons for the delay in accepting his work.
Answer:

  • The communication was not easy in those days and his work could not be widely publicised.
  • His concept of genes as stable and discrete units that controlled the expression of traits and of the pair of alleles which did not ‘blend’ each other was not accepted by contemporaries as an explanation for the apparently continuous variation seen in nature.
  • Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomena was totally new and unacceptable to many of the biologists of his time.
  • Though Mendel’s work suggested that factors (genes) were discrete units, he could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors what they were made of.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 2.
The pedigree chart given below shows a particular trait which is absent in parents but present in the next generation irrespective of sexes.
Draw your conclusion on the basis of the pedigree. [NCERT Exemplar]
PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation 1
Answer:
The pedigree chart shows that the trait is autosomal linked and recessive in nature. But, the parents are carriers (i.e. heterozygous) hence, among the offsprings only few show the trait irrespective of sex. The other offsprings are either normal or carrier.

Question 3.
What is Down’s syndrome? Give its symptoms and cause. Why is it that the chances of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases if the age of the mother exceeds forty years?
[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Down’s syndrome is a human genetic disorder caused due to trisomy of chromosome 21. Such individuals are anploid and have 47 chromosomes (2n + 1). The symptoms include mental retardation, growth abnormalities, constantly open mouth, dwarfness, etc. The reason for the disorder is the non-disjunction (failure to separate) of homologous chromosome of pair 21 during meiotic division in the ovum.

The chance of having a child with Down’s syndrome increase with the age of the mother (40+) because ova are present in females since their birth and therefore older cells are more prone to chromosomal non-disjunction because of various physicochemical exposures during the mother’s life-time.

Question 4.
Differentiate between male and female heterogamety.
Answer:
In male heterogamety, the male is heteromorphic and have XY or XO type of sex chromosomes and produce two types of sperms, 50% with X- chromosome and 50% with Y-chromosome or none. The sex of the offspring depends upon the type of sperm, which fuses with egg e.g., mammals, Drosophila, grasshopper.

In female heterogamety, the female is heteromorphic and heterogametic and have ZW or ZO type of sex chromosomes and produce two types of eggs. The sex of the offspring depends upon the type of egg, which is fertilised, e.g., bird and some reptiles, butterflies and moths.

Question 5.
Explain mechanism of sex-determination in birds.
Answer:
Sex-determination in birds is opposite to human beings. Here the females contain heteromorphic sex chromosomes (AA + ZW) while the males have homomorphic (AA + ZZ) chromosomes. Thus, there is female heterogamety. The females are heterogametic and produce two types of eggs (A + Z) and (A + W). The male gametes are of one type (A + Z).

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 6.
Why are human females rarely haemophilic? Explain. How do haemophilic patients suffer?
Answer:
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. The females have XX chromosomes and the males have XY chromosomes. If one of the two X chromosomes is normal, she remains a carrier and not diseased. Females will haemophilic only when both the X chromosomes carry the haemophilia gene, and this is possible only when the mother is a carrier and father is haemophilic. Haemophilic patients suffer from non-stop bleeding and nd clotting.

Question 7.
How do genes and chromosomes share similarity from the point of view of genetical studies? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
By 1902, the chromosome movement during meiosis had been worked out.
Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri (1902) noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour of genes and used chromosome movement to explain Mendel’s laws.
They studied the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis (equational division) and during meiosis (reduction division). The chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs and the two alleles of gene pair are located on homologous sites of homologous chromosomes.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation 2
Chromosomes segregate when germ cells are formed.

Question 8.
Write short notes on –
(i) Phenylketonuria
(ii) Aneuploidy
Answer:
(i) Phenylketonuria : It is an inborn error of metabolism. The affected individual lack an enzyme called phenylalanine hydroxylase that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine. As a result, phenylalanine gets accumulated and converted into phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives in brain, causing mental retardation. These are also excreted through urine due to their absorption by kidney.

(ii) Aneuploidy: It is a phenomenon which occurs due to non¬disjunction resulting into gain or loss of one or more chromosomes, during meiosis.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
(a) A garden pea plant bearing terminal, violet flowers, when crossed with another pea plant bearing axial, violet flowers, produced axial, violet flowers and axial, white flowers in the ratio of 3 : 1. Work out the cross showing the genotypes of the parent pea plants and their progeny.
(b) Name and state the law that can be derived from this cross and not from a monohybrid cross.
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation 3

(b) Law of Independent Assortment : When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of character.

Question 12.
(a) Write the blood group of people with genotype IAIB. Give reasons in support of your answer.
(b) In one family, the four children each have a different blood group. Their mother has blood group A and their father has blood group B. Work out a cross to explain how it is possible.
Answer:
(a) Blood group AB. Both the alleles IA and IB are co-dominant and express themselves completely.
(b) A cross is carried out between heterozygous father (of blood group B) and heterozygous mother (of blood group A) to get four children with different blood groups.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation 4
All the four blood groups are controlled by three allelic genes IA, IB, i
and thus it shows phenomena of multiple allelism. Both IA and IB are dominant over i. However, when together, both are dominant and show the phenomena of co-dominance forming the blood group AB. Six genotypes are possible with combination of these three alleles.

Question 3.
(A) Why are colourblindness and thalassemia categorised as Mendelian disorders? Write the symptoms of these diseases seen in people suffering from them.
(B) About 8% of human male population suffers from colourblindness whereas only about 0.4% of human female population suffers from this disease. Write an explanation to show how it is possible.
Answer:
(A) Colourblindness and thalassemia are categorised as Mendelian disorders because they are (i) due to alteration or mutation in a single gene (ii) transmission to the offspring follow principle of inheritance (iii) can be studied by pedigree analysis.
Symptoms of Colourblindness
(a) Difficulty in distinguishing between colours

  • Protanopia-red colourblindness
  • Deuternopia-green colourblindness
  • Tritanopia-blue colourblindness

(b) Rapid eye movement (in rare cases)
(c) Inability to see shades or tones of the same colour.
(d) In rare cases, some people see only black, white and grey.

Symptoms of Thalassemia
(a) Formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecules resulting into haemolytic anaemia.
(b) Slow growth, delayed puberty.
(c) Bones become wider than normal, brittle and break easily
(d) Poor appetite
(e) A pale and listless appearance
(f) Dark urine
(g) Enlarged spleen, liver or heart.

(B) Colourblindness is a recessive sex-linked disorder in which the patient cannot distinguish red-green colour. The gene for colourblindness is present on X-chromosome. Presence of colourblindness in 8% human male population, is due to the presence of a single X-chromosome in male. There is no chance of dominant and recessive condition, as there is a single gene. Hemizygous condition is enough for the occurrence of defect in males. In females, due to presence of two X-chromosomes, the single gene of colourblindness cannot express and such females are carriers (XXc) for a female to be colourblind, both of her X-chromosome, carry gene for colourblindness(XcXc).

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Organisms and Populations Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is diapause different from hibernation?
Answer:
Diapause is a stage of suspended development to cope with unfavourable conditions. Many species of Zooplankton and insects exhibit diapause to tide over adverse climatic conditions during their development. Hibernation or winter sleep is a resting stage wherein animals escape winters of cold) by hiding themselves in their shelters. They escape the winter season by entering a state of inactivity by slowing their metabolism. The phenomenon of hibernation is exhibited by bats, squirrels, and other rodents.

Question 2.
If a marine fish is placed in a freshwater aquarium, will the fish be able to survive? Why or why not?
Answer:
If a marine fish is placed in a freshwater aquarium, then its chances of survival will diminish. This is because their bodies are adapted to high salt concentrations of the marine environment. In freshwater conditions, they are unable to regulate the water entering their body (through osmosis). Water enters their body due to the hypotonic environment outside. This results in the swelling up of the body, eventually leading to the death of the marine fish.

Question 3.
Define phenotypic adaptation. Give one example.
Answer:
Phenotypic adaptation involves changes in the body of an organism in response to genetic mutation or certain environmental changes. These responsive adjustments occur in an organism in order to cope with environmental conditions present in their natural habitats. For example, desert plants have thick cuticles and sunken stomata on the surface of their leaves to prevent transpiration. Similarly, elephants have long ears that act as thermoregulators.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

Question 4.
Most living organisms cannot survive at temperatures above 45°C. How are some microbes able to live in habitats with temperatures exceeding 100°C?
Answer:
Archaebacteria (Thermophiles) are ancient forms of bacteria found in hot water springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents. They are able to survive in high temperatures (which far exceed 100°C) because their bodies have adapted to such environmental conditions. These organisms contain specialised thermo-resistant enzymes, which carry out metabolic functions that do not get destroyed at such high temperatures.

Question 5.
List the attributes that populations but not individuals possess.
Answer:
A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans.

The main attributes or characteristics of a population residing in a given area are as follows :
(a) Birth Rate (Natality): It is the ratio of live births in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the number of individuals added to the population with respect to the members of the population.

(b) Death Rate (Mortality): It is the ratio of deaths in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the loss of individuals with respect to the members of the population.

(c) Sex Ratio: It is the number of males or females per thousand individuals.

(d) Age Distribution: It is the percentage of individuals of different ages in a given population. At any given time, the population is composed of individuals that are present in various age groups. The age distribution pattern is commonly represented through age pyramids.

(e) Population Density: It is defined as the number of individuals of a population present per unit area at a given time.

Question 6.
If a population growing exponentially double in size in 3 years, what is the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the population?
Answer:
A population grows exponentially if sufficient amounts of food resources are available to the individual. Its exponential growth can be calculated by the following integral form of the exponential growth equation:
Nt = N0ert
where,
Nt = Population density after time t
N0= Population density at time zero
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
e = Base of natural logarithms (2.71828)

From the above equation, we can calculate the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of a population.
Now, as per the question,
Present population density = x
Then, population density after two years = 2x
t = 3 years
Substituting these values in the formula, we get
⇒ 2x = x e3r
⇒ 2 = e3r

Applying log on both sides,
⇒ log2 = 3r log e
⇒ \(\frac{\log 2}{3 \log e}\) = r
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations 1
Hence, the intrinsic rate of increase for the above-illustrated population is 0.2311.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

Question 7.
Name important defence mechanisms in plants against herbivory.
Answer:
Several plants have evolved various defence mechanisms both morphological and chemical to protect themselves against herbivory,
(1) Morphological Defence Mechanisms

  • Cactus leaves (Opuntia) are modified into sharp spines (thorns) to deter herbivores from feeding on them.
  • Sharp thorns along with leaves are present in Acacia to deter herbivores.
  • In some plants, the margins of their leaves are spiny or have sharp edges that prevent herbivores from feeding on them.

(2) Chemical Defence Mechanisms

  • All parts of Calotropis weeds contain toxic cardiac glycosides, which can prove to be fatal if ingested by herbivores.
  • Chemical substances such as nicotine, caffeine, quinine, and opium are produced in plants as a part of self-defence.

Question 8.
An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango tree. How do you describe this interaction between the orchid and the mango t tree?
Answer:
An orchid plant growing on the branch of a mango tree is an epiphyte. f Epiphytes are plants growing on other plants which however, do not derive nutrition from them. Therefore, the relationship between a mango tree and an orchid is an example of commensalisms, where one species gets benefited while the other remains unaffected. In the above interaction, the orchid is benefited as it gets support while the mango tree remains unaffected.

Question 9.
What is the ecological principle behind the biological control method of managing with pest insects?
Answer:
The basis of various biological control methods is on the concept of predation. Predation is a biological interaction between the predator and the prey, whereby the predator feeds on the prey. Hence, the predators regulate the population of preys in a habitat, thereby helping in the management of pest insects.

Question 10.
Distinguish between the following:
(a) Hibernation and Aestivation
(b) Ectotherms and Endotherms
Answer:
(a) Hibernation and Aestivation

Hibernation Aestivation
1. Hibernation is a state of reduced activity in some organisms to escape cold winter conditions. Aesrivarion is a state of reduced activity in some organisms to escape desiccation due to heat in summers.
2. Bears and squirrels inhabiting cold regions are examples of animals that hibernate during winters. Fishes and snails are examples of organisms aestivating during summers.

(b) Ectotherms and Endotherms

Ectotherms Endotherms
1. Ectotherms ate cold-blooded animals. Their temperature varies with their surroundings. Endotherms are warm-blooded animals. They maintain a constant body temperature.
2. Fishes, amphibians, and reptiles are ectothermic animals. birds and mammals are endothermal animals.

Question 11.
Write a short note on
(a) Adaptations of Desert Plants and Animals
(b) Adaptations of plants to water scarcity
(c) Behavioural adaptations in animals
(d) Importance of light to plants
(e) Effect of temperature or water scarcity and the adaptations of animals.
Answer:
(a) Adaptations of Desert Plants and Animals
(i) Adaptations of Desert Plants: Plants found in deserts are well adapted to cope with harsh desert conditions such as water scarcity and scorching heat. Plants have an extensive root system to tap underground water. They bear thick cuticles and sunken stomata o.i the surface of their leaves to reduce transpiration.

In Opuntia, the leaves are entirely modified into spines and photosynthesis is carried out by green stems. Desert plants have special pathways to synthesise food, called CAM (C4 pathway). It enables the stomata to remain closed during the day to reduce the loss of water through transpiration.

(ii) Adaptations of Desert Animals: Animals found in deserts such as desert kangaroo rats, lizards, snakes, etc. are well adapted to their habitat. The kangaroo rat found in the deserts of Arizona never drinks water in its life. It has the ability to concentrate its urine to conserve water. Desert lizards and snakes bask in the sun during early morning and burrow themselves in the sand during afternoons to escape the heat of the day. These adaptations occur in desert animals to prevent the loss of water.

(b) Adaptations of Plants to Water Scarcity: Plants found in deserts are well adapted to cope with water scarcity and scorching heat of the desert. Plants have an extensive root system to tap underground water. They bear thick cuticles and sunken stomata on the, surface of their leaves to reduce transpiration. In Opuntia, the leaves are modified into
spines and the process of photosynthesis is carried out by green stems. Desert plants have special pathways to synthesise food, called CAM. (C4 pathway). It enables their stomata to remain closed during the day to reduce water loss by transpiration.

(c) Behavioural Adaptations in Animals: Certain organisms are affected by temperature variations. These organisms undergo adaptations such as hibernation, aestivation, migration, etc. to escape environmental stress to suit their natural habitat. These adaptations in the behaviour of an organism are called behavioural adaptations. For example, ectodermal animals and certain endotherms exhibit behavioural adaptations. Ectotherms are cold-blooded animals such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, etc.

Their temperature varies with their surroundings. For example, the desert lizard basks in the sun during early hours when the temperature is quite low. However, as the temperature begins to rise, the lizard burrows itself inside the sand to escape the scorching sun. Similar burrowing strategies are exhibited by other desert animals. Certain endotherms (warm-blooded animals) such as birds and mammals escape cold and hot weather conditions by hibernating during winters and aestivating during summers. They hide themselves in shelters such as caves, burrows, etc. to protect against temperature variations.

(d) Importance of Light to Plants: Sunlight acts as the ultimate source of energy for plants. Plants are autotrophic organisms, which need light for carrying out the process of photosynthesis. Light also plays an important role in generating photoperiodic responses! occurring in plants. Plants respond to changes in intensity of light
during various seasons to meet their photoperiodic requirements for flowering. Light also plays an important role in aquatic habitats for ‘ vertical distribution of plants in the sea.

(e) Effect of Temperature or Water Scarcity and the Adaptations of Animals: Temperature is the most important
ecological factor. Average temperature on the Earth varies from one place to another. These variations in temperature affect the distribution of animals on the Earth. Animals that can tolerate a wide range of temperature are called eurythermal. Those which can tolerate a narrow range of temperature are called stenothermal animals.

Animals also undergo adaptations to suit their natural habitats. For example, animals found in colder areas have shorter ears and limbs that prevent the loss of heat from their body. Also, animals found in Polar regions have thick layers of fat below their skin and thick coats of fur to prevent the loss of heat.

Some organisms exhibit various behavioural changes to suit their natural habitat. These adaptations present in the behaviour of an organism to escape environmental stresses are called behavioural adaptations. For example, desert lizards are ectotherms. This means that they do not have a temperature regulatory mechanism to escape temperature variations.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

Question 12.
List the various abiotic environmental factors.
Answer:
All non-living components of an ecosystem form abiotic components. It includes factors such as temperature, water, light, and soil.

Question 13.
Give an example for:
(a) An endothermic animal
(b) An ectothermic animal
(c) An organism of benthic zone
Answer:
(a) Endothermic Animal: Birds such as crows, sparrows, pigeons, cranes, etc. and mammals such as bears, cows, rats, rabbits, etc. are endothermic animals.

(b) Ectothermic Animal: Fishes such as sharks, amphibians such as frogs, and reptiles such as tortoises, snakes, and lizards are ectothermic animals.

(c) Organism of Benthic Zone: Decomposing bacteria is an example of an organism found in the benthic zone of a water body.

Question 14.
Define population and community.
Answer:
Population: A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans.

Community: A community is defined as a group of individuals of different species, living within a certain geographical area. Such individuals can be similar or dissimilar, but cannot reproduce with the members of other species.

Question 15.
Define the following terms and give one example for each:
(a) Commensalism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Camouflage
(d) Mutualism
(e) Interspecific competition
Answer:
(a) Commensalism: Commensalism is an interaction between two species in which one species gets benefited while the other remains unaffected. An orchid growing on the branches of a mango tree and barnacles attached to the body of whales are examples of commensalisms.

(b) Parasitism: It is an interaction between two species in which one species (usually smaller) gets positively affected, while the other species (usually larger) is negatively affected. An example of this is liver fluke. Liver fluke is a parasite that lives inside the liver of the host body and derives nutrition from it. Hence, the parasite is benefited as it derives nutrition from the host, while the host is negatively affected as the parasite reduces the host fitness, making its body weak.

(c) Camouflage: It is a strategy adopted by prey species to escape their predators. Organisms are cryptically coloured so that they can easily mingle in their surroundings and escape their predators. Many species of frogs and insects camouflage in their surroundings and escape their predators.

(d) Mutualism: It is an interaction between two species in which both species involved are benefited. For example, lichens show a mutual symbiotic relationship between fungi and blue-green algae, where both are equally benefited from each other.

(e) Interspecific Competition: It is an interaction between individuals of different species where both species get negatively affected. For example, the competition between flamingoes and resident fishes in South American lakes for common food resources i.e., zooplankton.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

Question 16.
With the help of suitable diagram describe the logistic population growth curve.
Answer:
The logistic population growth curve is commonly observed in yeast cells that are grown under laboratory conditions. It includes five phases: the lag phase, positive acceleration phase, exponential phase, negative acceleration phase, and stationary phase.
(a) Lag Phase: Initially, the population of the yeast cell is very small. This is because of the limited resource present in the habitat.

(b) Positive Acceleration Phase: During this phase, the yeast cell adapts to the new environment and starts increasing its population. However, at the beginning of this phase, the growth of the cell is very limited.

(c) Exponential Phase: During this phase, the population of the yeast cell increases suddenly due to rapid growth. The population grows exponentially due to the availability of sufficient food resources, constant environment, and the absence of any interspecific competition. As a result, the curve rises steeply upwards.

(d) Negative Acceleration Phase: During this phase, the
environmental resistance increases and the growth rate of the population decreases. This occurs due to an increased competition among the yeast cells for food and shelter.

(e) Stationary Phase: During this phase, the population becomes stable. The number of cells produced in a population equals the number of cells that die. Also, the population of the species is said to have reached nature’s carrying capacity in its habitat.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations 2
A Verhulst-pearl logistic curve is also known as an S-Shaped growth curve.

Question 17.
Select the statement which explains best parasitism.
(a) One organism is benefited.
(b) Both the organisms are benefited.
(c) One organism is benefited, other is not affected.
(d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.
Answer:
(d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.
Parasitism is an interaction between two species in which one species (parasite) derives benefit while the other species (host) is harmed. For example, ticks and lice (parasites) present on the human body represent this interaction wherein the parasites receive benefit (as they derive nourishment by feeding on the blood of humans). On the other hand, these parasites reduce host fitness and cause harm to the human body.

Question 18.
List any three important characteristics of a population and explain.
Answer:
A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species, residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans.
Three important characteristics of a population are as follows :
(a) Birth Rate (Natality): It is the ratio of live births in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the number of individuals added to the population with respect to the members of the population.

(b) Death Rate (Mortality): It is the ratio of deaths in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the loss of individuals with respect to the members of the population.

(c) Age Distribution: It is the percentage of individuals of different ages in a given population. At any given time, a population is composed of individuals that are present in various age groups. The age distribution pattern is commonly represented through a^e pyramids.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is ‘stratification’ represented in a forest ecosystem?
Answer:
Stratification is the vertical distribution of species at different levels. Trees occupy top vertical strata or layer, shrubs the second layer and herbs/grasses occupy the bottom layers.

Question 2.
Write a difference between net primary productivity and gross primary productivity.
Answer:
Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. Net primary productivity (NPP) is the available biomass for the consumption by heterotrophs.
GPP – R = NPP.

Question 3.
Why is the rate of assimilation of energy at the herbivore level called secondary productivity? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
It is because the biomass available to the consumer for consumption is a resultant of the primary productivity from plants.

Question 4.
Why is an earthworm called a detritivore?
Answer:
This is because earthworm breaks down detritus into smaller particles.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Question 5.
Justify the pitcher plant as a producer. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Pitcher plant is chlorophyllous and is thus capable of photosynthesis and act as producer.

Question 6.
Name any two organisms which occupy more than one trophic level in an ecosystem? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Man and sparrow.

Question 7.
What is common to earthworm, mushroom, soil mites, and dung beetle in an ecosystem? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
They are all detritivores, i.e., decomposing organisms which feed on dead remains of plants and animals.

Question 8.
“Man can be a primary as well as a secondary consumer.” Justify this statement.
Answer:
Man has a varied diet. When on a vegetarian diet, they are primary consumers, and when on a non-vegetarian diet, they are secondary consumers.

Question 9.
Name an omnivore which occurs in both grazing food chain and the decomposer food chain. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Sparrow/crow.

Question 10.
Differentiate between standing state and standing crop in an ecosystem.
Answer:
In an ecosystem, standing crop is the mass of living material in each trophic level at a particular time. Whereas standing state refers to the amount- of nutrients in the soil at any given time.

Question 11.
Under what conditions would a particular stage in the process of succession revert back to an earlier stage? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Natural or human-induced disturbances like fire, deforestation, etc.

Question 12.
Climax stage is achieved quickly in secondary succession as compared to primary succession. Why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The rate of succession is much faster in secondary succession as the substratum (soil) is already present as compared to primary succession where the process starts from a bare area (rock).

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
What is an incomplete ecosystem? Explain with the help of a suitable example. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
An ecosystem is a functional unit with biotic and abiotic factors interacting with one another resulting in a physical structure. Absence of any component will make an ecosystem incomplete as it will hinder the functioning of the ecosystem. Examples of such an ecosystem can be a fish tank or deep aphotic zone of the oceans where producers are absent.

Question 2.
Justify the importance of decomposers in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water, and nutrients. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs. Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that break down dead and waste into simple, inorganic materials, which are subsequently absorbed by them.

Question 3.
“In a food chain, a trophic level represents a functional level, not a species.” Explain.
Answer:
Trophic level in a food chain is a level at which organisms obtain their food. Each trophic level has a specific mode of obtaining food. Thus, trophic level represents the mode of obtaining food and not the species. The species has no significance in the food chain. In the food chain, there are generally four trophic levels-producers or autotrophs, the first trophic level; primary consumer/herbivore secondary trophic level; secondary consumer/carnivore third trophic level and finally tertiary consumers (top carnivores) representing fourth trophic level. Thus, in a food chain, trophic levels represent a functional level and which species represent the trophic level, does not matter.

Question 4.
How does primary succession start in water to the climax community? Explain.
Answer:
In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons. They are replaced with time by free-floating angiosperms, then by rooted hydrophytes; sedges, grasses, and finally the trees. The climax again would be a forest. With time the water body is converted into land.

Question 5.
Why are nutrient cycles in nature called biogeochemical cycles? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Nutrient cycles are called biogeochemical cycles because ions/molecules of a nutrient are transferred from the environment (rocks, air and water) to organisms (life) and then brought back to the environment in a cyclic pathway.
The literal meaning of biogeochemical is bio-living organisms and geo-rocks, air, and water.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Question 6.
(a) State any two differences between phosphorus and carbon cycles in nature.
(b) Write the importance of phosphorus in living organisms.
Answer:
(a)

Phosphorus cycle Carbon cycle
1. It is a sedimentary cycle. It is a gaseous cycle.
2. Atmospheric inputs through rainfall are much smaller. Atmospheric inputs through rainfall are more.
3. Gaseous exchange of phosphorus between organism and environment is nil. Gaseous exchange of carbon between organism and environment is much more.

(b) Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids, and cellular energy transfer systems.

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Explain succession of plants in xerophytic habitat until it reaches climax community.
Answer:
Xerarch Succession:

  • It starts in primary bare, dry area such as rocks or sand dunes, etc.
  • The pioneer species on the rock are usually lichens and blue-green algae under humid conditions.
  • They secrete acids to dissolve rocks, help in weathering and soil formation.
  • Little soil formation makes the way to the appearance of small plants like bryophytes (mosses). They accumulate more soil and organic matter.
  • With time, they are succeeded by bigger plants; perennial grasses and shrubs.
  • After several more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed.
  • Climax community remains stable as long as environment remains unchanged.
  • With time, the xerophytic habitat gets converted into mesic habitat.

Question 2.
Describe the advantages for keeping the ecosystems healthy.
Answer:
An healthy ecosystem is stable and have a functional balance amongst different populations found in ecosystem. Ecosystem advantages are benefits provided by ecosystem processes to environment in its cleaning and maintenance, enhancing aesthetic beauty, maintenance of biodiversity, protection of soil, water and land sources besides providing a habitat to wildlife, tribals and grazing areas. The important advantages are given ahead :

(i) Oxygen Release : (Purify air) Suspended particulate matter is intercepted by vegetation and made to settle down. Air is thus removed of its pollutants. It is further purified by removal of carbon dioxide and release of oxygen during photosynthetic activity of vegetation.

(ii) Water: Most of rainwater is held over the soil by plant litter like a sponge. It slowly percolates down and becomes the source of all springs, rivulets and rivers. The water is clean and fresh.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

(iii) Prevention of Floods: As there is little runoff, flood water is not formed.

(iv) Protection of Soil: Maintenance of soil fertility depends upon a good soil cover and optimum nutrient cycling. Soil cover also protects the soil from air and water erosion. Soil particles remain bound together by plant roots. Landslides are rare.

(v) Biodiversity: Natural ecosystems are a source of biodiversity with a variety of genes, gene pools, species and habitats.

(vi) Climate: Ecosystems, especially forests, maintain good climatic conditions by increasing humidity, reducing extremes of temperature and increasing periodicity of rainfall.

(vii) Nutrient Cycling: It is one of the most important ecosystem services which maintains the continuity of life on earth. Through cycling, biogenetic nutrients are made available all the time for absorption.

(viii) Pollination: Insects, especially bees, and birds visit areas around the forests for pollination of crop plants, bushes, and trees.

(ix) Pest Control: In natural ecosystem, pests are kept under control by their natural predators. Maintenance of natural ecosystems will allow the predators to free the nearby areas of pests.

(x) Wildlife: Ecosystems provide habitats to wildlife.

(xi) Aesthetic Value: Ecosystems also provide aesthetic, cultural, and spiritual value.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Ecosystem Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Plants are called as ……………………………. because they fix carbon dioxide.
(b) In an ecosystem dominated by trees, the pyramid (of numbers) is ………………….. type.
(c) In aquatic ecosystems, the limiting factor for the productivity is ………………………. .
(d) Common detritivores in our ecosystem are …………………………. .
(e) The major reservoir of carbon on earth is …………………………….. .
Answer:
(a) autotrophs
(b) inverted
(c) light
(d) earthworms
(e) oceans.

Question 2.
Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers
Answer:
(a) Producers (decomposers can be maximum but they are excluded from the food chain ).

Question 3.
The second trophic level in a lake is
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton
Zooplankton are primary consumers in aquatic food chains that feed upon phytoplankton. Therefore, they are present at the second trophic level in a lake.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Question 4.
Secondary producers are
(a) Herbivores
(b) Producers
(c) Carnivores
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above
Plants are the only producers. Thus, they are called primary producers. There are no other producers in a food chain.

Question 5.
What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) in the incident solar radiation?
(a) 100%
(b) 50 %
(c) 1-5%
Answer:
(b) 50%
Out of total incident solar radiation, about fifty percent of it forms photosynthetically active radiation or PAR.

Question 6.
Distinguish between
(a) Grazing food chain and detritus food chain
(b) Production and decomposition
(c) Upright and inverted pyramid
(d) Food chain and Food web
(e) Litter and detritus
(f) Primary and secondary productivity
Answer:
(a) Grazing food chain and detritus food chain

Grazing food chain Detritus food chain
1. In this food chain, energy is derived from the Sun. In this food chain, energy comes from organic matter (or detritus) generated in trophic levels of the grazing food chain.
2. It begins with producers, present at the first trophic level. The plant biomass is then eaten by herbivores, which in turn are consumed by a variety of carnivores. begins with detritus such as dead bodies of animals or fallen leaves, which are then eaten by decomposers or detrivores. These detritivores are in turn consumed
by their predators.
3. This food chain is usually large. It is usually smaller as compared to the grazing food chain.

(b) Production and decomposition

Production Decomposition
1. It is the rare of producing organic matter (food) by producers. It is the process of breaking down of complex organic matter or biomass from the body of dead plants and animals with the help of decomposers into organic raw material such as CO2, H2O and other nutrients.
2. It depends on the photosynthetic cápacity of the producers. It occurs with the help of decomposers.
3. Sunlight is required by plants for primary production. Sunlight is not required for decomposition by clecomposers.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

(c) upright and inverted pyramid

Upright pyramid Inverted pyramid
1. The pyramid of energy is upright. always The pyramid of biomass and the pyramid of, numbers can be inverted.
2. In the upright pyramid, the number and biomass of organisms in the producer level of an ecosystem is the highest, which keeps on decreasing at each trophic level in a food chain. In an inverted pyramid, the number and biomass of organisms in the producer level of an ecosystem is the lowest, which keeps on increasing at each tropic level.

(d) Food chain and food web

Food chain Food web
1. The transfer of energy from producers to top consumers through a series of organisms is called food chain. A number of food chain inter-connected with each other forming a web-like pattern is called food web.
2. One organism holds only one position. One organism can hold more than one position.
3. The flow of energy can be easily calculated. The flow of energy is very difficult to calculate.
4. It is always straight and proceed in a progressive straight line. Instead of straight line, it is a series of branching lines.
5. Competition is limited to members of same trophic level. Competition is amongst members of same and different trophic levels.

(e) Litter and detritus

Litter Detritus
l. It is made of dried fallen plant matter. It is freshly deposited organic matter, i. e. remains of plants and animals.
2. It is found above the ground. It is found both above and below the ground.

(f) Primary and secondary productivity

Primary productivity Secondary_productivity
1. Primary productivity is the amount of energy accumulation or amount of biomass produced per unit area over a time period. Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumer.
2.  It is of two types, gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). They are
related as: GPP – R = NPP, where R is respiratory losses.
It is also of two types gross secondary productivity (GSP) and net secondary productivity (NSP). They are related as: NSP = GSP – R
Where R is respiratory losses.

Question 7.
Describe the components of an ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is defined as an interacting unit that includes both the biological community as well as the non-living components of an area. The living and the non-living components of an ecosystem interact amongst themselves and function as a unit, which gets evident during the processes of nutrient cycling, energy flow, decomposition, and productivity. There are many ecosystems such as ponds, forests, grasslands, etc.

The two components of an ecosystem are as follows :
(a) Biotic Component: It is the living component of an ecosystem that includes biotic factors such as producers, consumers, decomposers, etc. Producers include plants and algae. They contain chlorophyll pigment, which helps them carry out the process of photosynthesis in the presence of light.

Thus, they are also called converters or transducers. Consumers or heterotrophs are organisms that are directly (primary consumers) or indirectly (secondary and tertiary consumers) dependent on producers for their food. Decomposers include micro-organisms such as bacteria and fungi. They obtain nutrients by breaking down the remains of dead plants and animals.

(b) Abiotic Component: They are the non-living component of an ecosystem such as light, temperature, water, soil, air, inorganic nutrients, etc.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Question 8.
Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of number and biomass.
Answer:
An ecological pyramid is a graphical representation of various ecological parameters such as the number of individuals present at each trophic level, the amount of energy, or the biomass present at each trophic level.
Ecological pyramids represent producers at the base, while the apex represents the top-level consumers present in the ecosystem.
There are three types of pyramids:

  1. Pyramid of numbers
  2. Pyramid of energy
  3. Pyramid of biomass

1. Pyramid of Numbers: It is a graphical representation of the number of individuals present at each trophic level in a food chain of an ecosystem. The pyramid of numbers can be upright or inverted depending on the number of producers. For example, in a grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of numbers is upright.

In this type of a food chain, the number of producers (plants) is followed by the number of herbivores (mice), which in turn is followed by the number of secondary consumers (snakes) and tertiary carnivores (eagles). Hence, the number of individuals at the producer level will be the maximum, while the number of individuals present at top carnivores will be least.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem 1
On the other hand, in a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is inverted. In this type of a food chain, a single tree (producer) provides food to several fruit-eating birds, which in turn support several insect species.

2. Pyramid of Biomass: A pyramid of biomass is a graphical representation of the total amount of living matter present at each trophic level of an ecosystem. It can be upright or inverted. It is upright in grasslands and forest ecosystems as the amount of biomass present at the producer level is higher than at the top carnivore level.
The pyramid of biomass is inverted in a pond ecosystem as the biomass of fishes far exceeds the biomass of zooplankton (upon which they feed).
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem 2

Question 9.
What is primary productivity? Give brief description of factors that affect primary productivity.
Answer:
It is defined as the amount of organic matter or biomass produced by producers per unit area over a period of time. Primary productivity of an ecosystem depends on the variety of environmental factors such as light, temperature, water, precipitation, etc. It also depends on the availability of nutrients and the availability of plants to carry out photosynthesis.

Question 10.
Define decomposition and describe the processes and products of decomposition.
Answer:
Decomposition is the process that involves the breakdown of complex organic matter or biomass from the body of dead plants and animals with the help of decomposers into inorganic raw materials such as carbon dioxide, water, and other nutrients. The various processes involved in decomposition are as follows :
1. Fragmentation: It is the first step in the process of decomposition. It involves the breakdown of detritus into smaller pieces by the action of detritivores such as earthworms.

2. Leaching: It is a process where the water-soluble nutrients go down into the soil layers and get locked as unavailable salts.

3. Catabolism: It is a process in which bacteria and fungi degrade detritus through various enzymes into smaller pieces.

4. Humification: The next step is humification which leads to the formation of a dark-colored colloidal substance called humus, which acts as reservoir of nutrients for plants.

5. Mineralisation: The humus is further degraded by the action of microbes, which finally leads to the release of inorganic nutrients into the soil. This process of releasing inorganic nutrients from the humus is known as mineralization.

Decomposition produces a dark-colored, nutrient-rich substance called humus. Humus finally degrades and releases inorganic raw materials such as C02, water, and other nutrients in the soil.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Question 11.
Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Energy enters an ecosystem from the Sun. Solar radiations pass through the atmosphere and are absorbed by the Earth’s surface. These radiations help plants in carrying out the process of photosynthesis.
Also, they help maintain the Earth’s temperature for the survival of living organisms. Some solar radiations are reflected by the Earth’s surface.

Only 2-10% of solar energy is captured by green plants (producers) during photosynthesis to be converted into food.
The rate at which the biomass is produced by plants during photosynthesis is termed as ‘gross primary productivity.
When these green plants are consumed by herbivores, only 10% of the stored energy from producers is transferred to herbivores. The remaining 90 % of this energy is used by plants for various processes such as respiration, growth, and reproduction. Similarly, only 10% of the energy of herbivores is transferred to carnivores. This is known as ten percent law of energy flow.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem 3

Question 12.
Write important features of a sedimentary cycle in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Sedimentary cycles have their reservoirs in the Earth’s crust or rocks. Nutrient elements are found in the sediments of the Earth. Elements such as sulphur, phosphorus, potassium, and calcium have sedimentary cycles.
Sedimentary cycles are very slow. They take a long time to complete their circulation and are considered as less perfect cycles. This is because during recycling, nutrient elements may get locked in the reservoir pool, thereby taking a very long time to come out and continue circulation. Thus, it usually goes out of circulation for a long time.

Question 13.
Outline salient features of carbon cycling in an ecosystem.
Answer:
The carbon cycle is an important gaseous cycle which has its reservoir pool in the atmosphere.
All living organisms contain carbon as a major body constituent. Carbon is a fundamental element found in all living forms. All biomolecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins required for life processes are made of carbon.
Carbon is incorporated into living forms through a fundamental process called ‘photosynthesis’.

Photosynthesis uses sunlight and atmospheric carbon dioxide to produce a carbon compound called ‘glucose’.
This glucose molecule is utilised by other living organisms. Thus, atmospheric carbon is incorporated in living forms.
Now, it is necessary to recycle this absorbed carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere to complete the cycle.

There are various processes by which carbon is recycled back into the atmosphere in the form of carbon dioxide gas.
The process of respiration breaks down glucose molecules to produce carbon dioxide gas. The process of decomposition also releases carbon dioxide from dead bodies of plants and animals into the atmosphere. Combustion of fuels, industrialization, deforestation, volcanic eruptions and forest fires act as other major sources of carbon dioxide.
PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystem 4

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
A charge ‘q’ is moved from a point A above a dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ to a point B below the dipole in equatorial plane without acceleration. Find the work done in the process.
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 1
Answer:
Work done in the process is zero. Because, equatorial plane of a dipole is equipotential surface and work done in moving charge oh equipotential surface is zero.
W = qVAB = q × 0 = 0

Question 2.
A point charge Q is placed at point O as shown in the figure. Is the potential difference (VA – VB) positive, negative or zero if Q is
(i) positive
(ii) negative
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 2
Answer:
Let the distance of points A and B from charge Q be rA and rB, respectively.
∴ Potential difference between points A and B
VA – VB = \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\left[\frac{1}{r_{A}}-\frac{1}{r_{B}}\right]\)
As rA = OA, rB = rB = OB
and rA < rB, \(\frac{1}{r_{A}}>\frac{1}{r_{B}}\)
There,[latex]\frac{1}{r_{A}}-\frac{1}{r_{B}}[/latex] has positive value.
(VA – VB) depends on the nature of charge q.
(VA – VB) is positive when Q > 0
(VA – VB ) is negative when Q < 0

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Question 3.
A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that potential on its surface is 10 V. What is the potential at the centre of the sphere?
Answer:
The electric potential at every point inside the charged spherical shell is same and equal to the electric potential on its surface.
The electric potential at the centre of sphere is 10 V.

Question 4.
Can two equipotential surfaces intersect each other? Justify your answer.
No, two equipotential surfaces cannot intersect each other because

  1. Two normals can be drawn at intersecting point on two surfaces which gives two directions of E at the same point which is impossible.
  2. Also two values of potential at the same point is not possible.

Question 5.
Why electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor and has the same value as on its surface?
Since, electric field intensity inside the conductor is zero. So, electrostatic potential is a constant.
But, E = –\(\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta r}\)
∴ E = 0, ΔV = 0
or V2 – V1 =0, V2 – V1
The potential at every point inside the conductor remains same.

Question 6.
In a certain 0.5 cm3 of space, electric potential is found to be 7 V throughout. What is the electric field in this region?
Answer:
Zero, because electric potential is same throughout as
E = \(\frac{d V}{d r}\)

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Question 7.
Distinguish between a dielectric and a conductor.
Answer:
Dielectrics are non-conductors and do not have free electrons at all. While conductor has free electrons in its any volume which makes it able to pass the electricity through it.

Question 8.
The given graph shows the variation of charge q versus potential difference V for two capacitors C1 and C2. Both the capacitors have same plate separation but plate area of C2 is greater than that C1. Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and why?
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 3
Answer:
Line B corresponds to Q because slope (q/V) of B is less than slope of A.

Question 9.
Do free electrons travel to region of higher potential or lower potential? (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
Free electrons would travel to regions of higher potentials as they are negatively charged.

Question 10.
Can there be a potential difference between two adjacent conductors carrying the same charge? (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
Yes, if the sizes are different.

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Question 11.
Prove that, if an insulated, uncharged, conductor is placed near a charged conductor and no other conductors are present, the uncharged body must intermediate in potential between that of the charged body and that of infinity. (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
Let us take any path from the charged conductor to the uncharged conductor along the direction of electric field. Therefore, the electric potential decrease along this path.
Now, another path from the uncharged conductor to infinity will again continually lower the potential further. This ensures that the uncharged body must be intermediate in potential between that of the charged body and that of infinity.

Question 12.
A test charge q is made to move in the electric field of a point charge Q along two different closed paths [figure]. First path has sections along and perpendicular to lines of electric field.
Second path is a rectangular loop of the same area as the first loop. How does the work done compare in the two cases? (NCERT Exemplar)
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 4
Answer:
As electric field is conservative, work done will be zero in both the cases.

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
What is electrostatic shielding? How is this property used in actual practice? Is the potential in the cavity of a charged conductor zero?
Answer:
Whatever be the charge and field configuration outside, any cavity in a conductor remains shielded from outside electric influence. The field inside a conductor is zero. This is known as electrostatic shielding.

  • Sensitive instruments are shielded from outside electrical influences by enclosing them in a hollow conductor.
  • During lightning it is safest to sit inside a car, rather than near a tree. The metallic body of a car becomes an electrostatic shielding from lightening.

Potential inside the cavity is not zero. Potential is constant.

Question 2.
Two capacitors of unknown capacitances C1 and C2 are connected first in series and then in parallel across a battery of 100 V. If the energy stored in the two combinations is 0.045 J and 0.25 J respectively, determine the value of C1 and C2. Also calculate the charge on each capacitor in parallel combination.
Answer:
Energy stored in a capacitor,
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 5
Q1 = C1V = 38.2 × 10-6 × 100 = 38.2 × 10-4 C
Q2 = C2V = 11.8 × 10-6 × 100 = 11.8 × 10-4C

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Question 3.
Calculate the equivalent capacitance between points A and B in the circuit below. If a battery of 10 V is connected across A and B, calculate the charge drawn from the battery by the circuit.
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 6
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 7
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 8

Question 4.
A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab is inserted to completely fill the space between the plates.
How will
(a) its capacitance
(b) electric field between the plates and
(c) energy stored in the capacitor be affected? Justify your answer giving necessary mathematical expression for each case.
Answer:
On introduction of dielectric slab in a isolated charged capacitor.
(a) The capacitance (C’) becomes K times of original capacitor as
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\)
and C ‘ = \(\frac{K \varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\)

(b) The total charge on the capacitor remains conserved on introduction of dielectric slab. Also, the capacitance of capacitor increases to K times of original values.
∴ CV = C’V’
CV = (KC)V’
⇒ V’ = \(\frac{V}{K}\)
∴ New electrical field,
E’ = \(\frac{V^{\prime}}{d}=\left(\frac{V / K}{d}\right)=\left(\frac{V}{d}\right) \frac{1}{K}=\frac{E}{K}\)
∴ On introduction of dielectric medium new electric field E’ becomes \(\) times of its original value.
(c) Energy stored initially,
U = \(\frac{q^{2}}{2 C}\)
Energy stored later,
U’ = \(\frac{q^{2}}{2(K C)}\) [< C’ = KG]
where, K = dielectric constant of medium
⇒ U’ = \(\frac{1}{K}\left(\frac{q^{2}}{2 C}\right)\)
⇒ U’ = \(\frac{1}{K}\) × U
The energy stored in the capacitor decreases and becomes \(\frac{1}{K}\) times of original energy.

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Question 5.
Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are connected to a battery of V volts with the switch S closed. The switch is now opened and the free space between the plates of the capacitors is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K. Find the ratio of the total electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before and after the introduction of the dielectric.
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 9
Answer:
Let C be the capacitance of each capacitor.
With switch S closed, the two capacitor are in parallel.
∴ Equivalent capacitance is 2 C.
∴ Energy stored = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(2C)V2
U1 = CV2 …………… (1)
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 10
Now, when switch is opened and then free space of capacitors are filled with dielectric, the capacitance of each capacitor will be KC. For capacitor B, the charge will remain as before and for A, the potential difference will remain same.

Charge on each capacitor in the previous case will be CV.
∴ Energy stored in capacitor A in circuit case is
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 11
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 12

Question 6.
Consider two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 with R1 > R2. If the two are at the same potential, the larger sphere has more charge than the smaller sphere. State whether the charge density of the smaller sphere is more or less than that of the larger one. (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 13

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Question 7.
Calculate potential on the axis of a ring due to charge Q uniformly distributed along the ring of radius R.
(NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
Let us take point P to be at a distance x from the centre of the ring, as shown in figure. The charge element dq is at a distance x from point P. Therefore, V can be written as
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 14
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 15

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
(i) Explain using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behaviour of a
(a) conductor and
(b) dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarisation of a dielectric and write its relation with susceptibility.

(ii) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q on its surface. A point charge \(\frac{Q}{2}\) is placed at its centre C and an other charge +2Q is placed outside the shell at a distance x from the centre as shown in the figure. Find (a) the force on the charge at the centre of shell and at the point A, (b) the electric flux through the shell.
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 16
Answer:
(i) When a capacitor is placed in an external electric field, the free charges present inside the conductor redistribute themselves in such a manner that the electric field due to induced charges opposes the external field within the conductor. This happens until a static- situation is achieved, i.e., when the two fields cancels each other and the net electrostatic field in the conductor becomes zero.

In contrast to conductors, dielectrics are non- conducting substances, i.e., they have no charge carriers. Thus, in a dielectric, free movement of charges is not possible. It turns out that the external field induces dipole moment by stretching molecules of the dielectric. The collective effect of all the molecular dipole moments is the net charge on the surface of the dielectric which produces a field that opposes the external field. However, the opposing field is so induced does not exactly cancel the external field, ft only reduces it. The extent of the effect depends on the nature of dielectric.

Both polar and non-polar dielectric develop net dipole moment in the presence of an external field. The dipole moment per unit volume is called polarisation and is denoted by P for linear isotropic dielectrics.
P = %E

(a) At point C, inside the shell.
The electric field inside a spherical shell is zero. Thus, the force experienced by charge at the centre C will also be zero.
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 17

PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Question 2.
(a) Find the ratio of the potential differences that must he applied across the parallel and series combination of two capacitors C 1and C2 with their capacitances in the ratio 1:2 so that the energy stored in the two cases becomes the same.

(b) Show that the potential energy of a dipole making angle θ with the direction of the field is given by u(θ) = – p \(\). Hence find out the amount of work done in rotating it from the position of unstable equilibrium to the stable equilibrium.
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 18
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 19

(b) As charges +q and -q traverse equal distance under equal and opposite forces; therefore, net work done in bringing the dipole in the region of electric field perpendicular to field-direction will be zero, i.e.,W1 = 0.
PSEB 12th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 20
Now, the dipole is rotated and brought to orientation making an angle θ with the field direction (i.e., θ0 = 90° and θ1 = θ°), therefore, work done
W2 = pE (cosθ0 – cosθ 1)
= pE (cos 90° – cos θ) = -pE cos θ

∴Total work done in bringing the electric dipole from infinity, i.e., electric potential energy of electric dipole. Thus, work done by external torque in rotating a dipole in uniform electric field is stored as the potential energy of the system.

U = W1 + W2 = 0 – pEcosθ
= -pE cosθ
In vector form
U = – \(\vec{p} \cdot \vec{E}\)
For rotating dipole from position of unstable equilibrium (θ0 =180°) to the stable equilibrium (θ = 0°)
∴W = pE (cos 180° – cos0°)
= pE (-1 -1) = -2 pE

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Transport in Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the factors affecting the rate of diffusion?
Answer:
Factors affecting the rate of diffusion are as follows:

  • Gradient of concentration
  • Permeability of membrane
  • Temperature
  • Pressure

Question 2.
What are porins? What role do they play in diffusion?
Answer:
The porins are proteins that form huge pores in the outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria allowing molecules up to the size of small proteins to pass through. Porins facilitate diffusion.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Question 3.
Describe the role played by protein pumps during active transport in plants.
Answer:
Protein pumps use energy to carry substances across the cell membrane. These pumps can transport substances from a low concentration to a high concentration (‘uphill’ transport). Transport rate reaches a maximum when all the protein transporters are being used or are saturated. Like enzymes, the carrier protein is very specific in what it carries across the membrane. These proteins are sensitive to inhibitors that react with protein side chains.

Question 4.
Explain why pure water has the maximum water potential.
Answer:
Water molecules possess kinetic energy. In liquid and gaseous form, they are in random motion that is both rapid and constant. The greater the concentration of water in a system, the greater is its kinetic energy or ‘water potential’. Hence, pure water will have the greatest water potential. Water potential is denoted by the Greek symbol psi or \p and is, expressed in pressure units such as pascals (Pa).

Question 5.
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Diffusion and Osmosis
(b) Transpiration and Evaporation
(c) Osmotic pressure and Osmotic Potential
(d) Imbibition and Diffusion
(e) Apoplast and Symplast Pathways of Movement of Water in Plants
(f) Guttation and Transpiration

(a) Differences between Diffusion and Osmosis

Diffusion Osmosis
1. It is a movement of molecules from high concentration to low concentration. It is a movement of molecules from high concentration to low concentration
2. It does not require any driving force. It occurs in response to a driving force.

(b) Differences between Transpiration and Evaporation

Transpiration Evaporation
1. It is the loss of water through the aerial parts of plants. It is the loss of water from free surface of water.
2. It occurs in living tissues. It occurs in non-living surfaces.
3. It is both physical and physiological process. It is only a physical process, controlled by environmental factors.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

(c) Differences between Osmotic Pressure and Osmotic Potential

Osmotic Pressure Osmotic Potential
1. It is the pressure required to stop the movement of water molecules through a semipermeable

membrane.

It is the amount by which water potential is reduced by the presence of solute.
2. Osmotic pressure is the positive pressure. Osmotic potential is negative.

(d) Differences between Imbibition and Diffusion

Imbibition Diffusion
It is a special type of diffusion, where water is absorbed by solids-colloids causing them to increase in volume. For example, absorption of water by dry seeds and dry wood. In diffusion, molecules move in a random fashion. It is not dependent on a living system.

(e) Differences between Apoplast and Symplast Pathways of Movement of Water in Plants

Apoplast Symplast
1. It is the system of adjacent cell walls that is continuous throughout the plant except casparian strips of the endodermis of the roots. It is the system of interconnected protoplast.
2. Water moves through the intercellular spaces and the walls of cells. Water travels through the cytoplasm
3. Movement does not involve crossing the cell membrane. Water has to move in cells through the cell membrane.

(f) Differences between Guttation and Transpiration

Guttation Transpiration
1. It occurs through hydathodes, present at the vein ends. It occurs through general surface stomata and lenticles.
2. It occurs in leaves only. It can occur through all aerial parts.
3. It does not occur in deficient water conditions and never leads to wilting. It can occur in water deficient conditions leading to wilting.
4. It is regulated by humidity, temperature and presence of water in soil. It is regulated by a number of external and internal factors such as relative humidity, temperature, opening and closing of stomata, etc.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Question 6.
Briefly describe water potential. What are the factors affecting it?
Answer:
Water potential is the potential energy of water relative to pure free water (e.g., deionised water). It quantifies the tendency of water to move from one area to another due to osmosis, gravity, mecanical pressure or matrix effects including surface tension. Water potential is measured in units of pressure and is commonly represented by the Greek letter (psi). This concept has proved especially useful in understanding water movement within plants, animals and soil.

Water potential of a cell is affected by both solute and pressure potential. The relationship between them is as follows:
Ψw = Ψs + Ψp

Question 7.
What happens when a pressure greater than the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution?
Answer:
If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution its water potential increases. It is equivalent to pumping water from one place to another. Pressure can be build up in a plant system when water enters a plant cell due to diffusion causing a pressure build up against the cell wall. It makes the cell turgid, this increases the pressure potential. Pressure potential is usually positive. It is denoted by Ψs.

Question 8.
(a) With the help of well-labelled diagrams, describe the process of plasmolysis in plants, giving appropriate examples.
(b) Explain what will happen to a plant cell if it is kept in a solution having higher water potential.
Answer:
(a) Plasmolysis occurs when water moves out of the cell and the cell membrane of a plant cell shrinks away from its cell wall. This occurs when the cell is kept in a solution that is hypertonic (has more solutes) to the protoplasm. Water moves out from the cell through diffusion and causes the protoplasm to shrink away from the walls. In such situation, cell becomes plasmolysed.

When the cell is placed in an isotonic solution. There is not flow of water towards the inside or outside. If the external solution balances the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm, it is said to be isotonic. When the water flow into the cell and out of the cells are in equilibrium the cell is called flaccid.
PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants 1
(b) When the plant cell is kept in a solution having high water potential (hypotonic solution or dilute solution as compared to cytoplasm), water diffuses into the cell causing the cytoplasm to build up a pressure against the wall, called turgor pressure. The pressure exerted by the protoplasts due to entry of water against the rigid walls is called pressure potential (Ψp). Because of the rigidity of the cell wall, the cell does not rupture. This turgor pressure is ultimately responsible for enlargement of cells.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Question 9.
How is the mycorrhizal association helpful in absorption of water and minerals in plants?
Answer:
A mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a fungus with a root system. The fungal filaments form a network around the young root or they penetrate the root cells. The hyphae have a very large surface area that absorb mineral ions and water from the soil from a much larger volume of soil that perhaps a root cannot do. The fungus provides minerals and water to the roots, in turn the roots provide sugars and N-containing compounds to the mycorrhizae.

Question 10.
What role does root pressure play in water movement in plants?
Answer:
Root pressure can provide only modest push during water transport in plants. The main role of root pressure is in re-establishing the continuous chain of water molecules in the xylem. The continuous chain often breaks due to enormous tension created by transpiration pull.

Question 11.
Describe transpiration pull model of water transport in plants. What are the factors influencing transpiration? How is it useful to plants?
Answer:
Transpiration occurs mainly through the stomata in the leaves. As water evaporates through the stomata, since the thin film of water over the cells is continuous, it results in pulling of water, molecule by molecule, into the leaf from the xylem. Also, because of lower concentration of water vapour in the atmosphere as compared to the substomatal cavity and intercellular spaces, water diffuses into the surrounding air. This creates a transpiration pull.

Factors Affecting Transpiration: Temperature, light, humidity and wind speed.
Importance of Transpiration: Transport of liquids and minerals is facilitated because of transpiration.

Question 12.
Discuss the factors responsible for ascent of xylem sap in plants.
Answer:
The transpiration driven ascent of xylem sap depends mainly on the following physical properties of water:

  • Cohesion: Mutual attraction between water molecules.
  • Adhesion: Attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces (such as the surface of tracheary elements).
  • Surface Tension: Water molecules are attracted to each other in the liquid phase more than to water in the gas phase.

These properties give water high tensile strength, i.e., an ability to resist a pulling force and high capillarity, i.e., the ability to rise in thin tubes. In plants, capillarity is aided by the small diameter of the tracheary elements, the tracheids and vessel elements.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Question 13.
What essential role does the root endodermis play during mineral absorption in plants?
Answer:
The endodermis of roots have many transport proteins embedded in their plasma membrane. They let some solutes cross the membrane but not all. Transport proteins in endodermis cells enable plant cells lo adjust the quantity and types of solutes to be absorbed from the soil. It regulates the quantity and type of minerals and ions, that reach the xylem tissue of plants.

Question 14.
Explain why xylem transport is unidirectional and phloem transport bi-directional?
Answer:
The source sink (food making tissue-tissue which stores food) relationship is variable in plants so, the direction of movement in the phloem can be upwards downwards, i.e., bi-directional. It is opposite to xylem, where the movement is always unidirectional. Hence, unlike one-way flow of water in transpiration, food in phloem sap can be transported in any required direction so long there is a source of sugar and a sink is able to use, store or remove the sugar. Here, in case of unidirectional flow in xylem tissue, it is important to note that root endodermis because of the layer of suberin has the ability to actively transport ions in one direction only.

Question 15.
Explain pressure flow hypothesis of translocation of sugars in plants.
Answer:
The Pressure Flow or Mass Flow Hypothesis: The accepted mechanism used for the translocation of sugars from source to sink is called the pressure flow hypothesis. As glucose is prepared at the source (by photosynthesis) it is converted to sucrose (a disaccharide). The sugar is then moved in the form of sucrose into the companion cells and then into the living phloem sieve tube cells by active transport.

As osmotic pressure builds up the phloem sap will move to areas of lower pressure. At the sink, osmotic pressure must be reduced. Again active transport is necessary to move the sucrose out of the phloem sap and into the cells which will use the sugar converting it into energy, starch or cellulose. As sugars are removed, the osmotic pressure decreases and water moves out of the phloem.

Hydrostatic pressure in the phloem sieve tube increases, pressure flow begins and the sap moves through the phloem. Meanwhile, at the sink, incoming sugars are actively transported out of the phloem and removed as complex carbohydrates. The loss of solute produces a high water potential in the phloem and water passes out, returning eventually to xylem.

PSEB 11th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Question 16.
What causes the opening and clog” T of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The immediate cause of the opening or closing-of the stomata is a change in the turgidity of the guard cells. The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore or stomatal, aperture, is thick and elastic. When, turgidity increases within the two guard cells flanking each stomatal aperture or pore, the thin outer walls bulge out and force the inner walls into a crescent shape. The opening of the stoma is also aided due to the orientation of the microfibrils in the cell walls of the guard cells. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than longitudinally making it easier for the stoma to open. When the guard cells lose turgor, due to water loss (or water stress) the elastic inner walls regain their original shape, the guard cells become flaccid and the stoma closes.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Very short answer type questions

Question 1.
Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive functions. Comment. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Reproductive health refers to the total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, behavioural, psychological and social.

Question 2.
The present population growth rate in India is alarming. Suggest ways to check it. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

  • By increasing marriageable age.
  • By promoting use of birth control measure.
  • By educating people about consequences of un- controlled population growth.

Question 3.
Why do intensely lactating mothers not generally conceive? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Due to suppression of gonadotropins, ovulation and menstrual cycle do not take place.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 4.
Name an IUD that you would recommend to promote the cervix hostility to sperms.
Answer:
The hormone releasing IUD’s, e.g. progestasert, LNG-20 are , recommended to promote the cervix hostility to sperms.

Question 5.
Mention any tvgo events that are exhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to prevent pregnancy in humans.
Answer:
Two events that are exhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to prevent pregnancy in humans are ovulation and implantation.

Question 6.
Why is tubectomy considered a contraceptive method?
Answer:
Tubectomy involves cutting a piece of the fallopian tube and tying its ends. This way, the sperms are not able to reach the egg and it acts as a contraceptive method.

Question 7.
Mention the primary aim of the ‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART) programme. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART) is the collection of certain I1 special techniques. The primary aim of the ART programmes is to assist infertile couples to have children through certain special techniques (like ZIFT, IUT, GIFT, ICSI, AI, etc.), when corrective treatment for infertility problems is not possible.

Question 8.
Expand GIFT and ICSI.
Answer:
GIFT: Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
ICSI: Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Short answer type questions

Question 1.
Comment on the RCH programme of the government to improve the reproductive health of the people. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The basic aims of the RCH programmes are creating public awareness f regarding reproduction-related aspects and providing facilities to build up a healthy society with added emphasis on the health of mother and child.

Question 2.
(a) List any four characteristics of an ideal contraceptive.
(b) Name two intrauterine contraceptive devices that effect the motility of sperms.
Answer:
(a) An ideal contraceptive should be:

  • user friendly,
  • easily available,
  • effective,
  • reversible with no or least side-effects,
  • non-interfering with the sexual drive/desire and/or the sexual act of the user, (any four)

(b) Intrauterine Devices (IUDs): Lippes loop, copper releasing IUDs (Cu-T, Cu-7, multiload 375).

Question 3.
Name two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills. Why do they have high and effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.
Answer:
Hormonal preparations (progestogens or progesterons and estrogens) are highly effective contraceptive because they inhibit ovulation and implantation, e.g., Mala-D, Mala-L. Morning after pills are used as emergency contraceptives, to avoid pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse.

“Saheli”, a new oral pill is used “once-a-week” a non-steroidal preparation With very less side effects and high contraceptive value developed by CDRI in Lucknow, India.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 4.
Name and explain the surgical method advised to human males and females as a means of birth control. Mention its one advantage and one disadvantage.
Answer:
In the males-Vasectomy. In this method, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum. In the females-Tubectomy. In this method, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
Advantage: Highly effective
Disadvantage: Reversibility is very poor

Question 5.
A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic steps of the procedure would involve to conceive the baby.
Answer:
IVF is the technique used in the case of childless couple. In IVF or In Vitro fertilisation, fertilisation is carried out in a glass container outside the body of the mother. Purified semen is poured over the mature retrieved oocytes. The fertilised eggs are separated and allowed to remain in culture medium, maintained in incubator for 48-72 hours. During the period, the fertilised egg undergoes cleavage and reach 4-8 celled stage, 2-3 fertilised 4-8 celled embryos are transferred or implanted .into the uterus of the recipient surrogate mother, for further development up to delivery.
Note: Excess fertilised oocytes are cryopreserved for use in case of implantation failure.

Question 6.
Why is medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) carried out?
Answer:
MTP is carried out to get rid of unwanted pregnancies. It is also essential when the foetus is suffering from an incurable disease or when continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal to the mother and/or foetus.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Long answer type questions

Question 1.
Your school has been selected by the Department of Education to organise and host an interschool seminar on “Reproductive Health-Problems and Practices.” However, many parents are reluctant to permit their wards to attend it. Their argument is that the topic is “too embarrassing.”
Put forth four arguments with appropriate reasons and explanation to justify the topic to be very essential and timely.
Answer:
The selection of your school, to host a seminar on “Reproductive Health-Problems and Practices” is a matter great pride for the prestigious institute. The students will have an opportunity to listen to the diverse ideas, suggested by the learned speakers.

It is sad that many parents are reluctant to permit their wards to attend the seminar assuming that the topic is too embarrassing. The following arguments will justify the relevance of the topic in the present time:
(i) Introduction of sex education and the proper information about reproductive organs, adolescence and related changes will protect the youth from social evils like sex-abuse and sex-related crimes.

(ii) Right information about safe, healthy and hygienic sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) would help the people to lead a reproductive healthy life.

(iii) Decline in sex-ratio is a matter of great concern. The Govt, has put a I statutory ban on female foeticide. Both girls and boys have equal rights and equal opportunities in all spheres of life.

(iv) India is facing another problem of population explosion. It is eating, almost all the benefits of overall development. The benefits of development are not trickling down to the poor at lower strata. There is need for family planning, socially conscious healthy families of desired size i.e., Hum Do Humare Do.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Punjab State Board PSEB 12th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Healths

PSEB 12th Class Biology Guide Reproductive Health Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you think is the significance of reproductive health in a society?
Answer:
Reproductive health is the total well being in all aspects of reproduction. It includes physical, emotional, behavioural, and social well being. Sexually transmitted diseases such as AIDS, gonorrhoea, etc. are transferred from one individual to another through sexual contact. It can also lead to unwanted pregnancies.

Hence, it is necessary to create awareness among people, especially the youth, regarding various reproduction related aspects as the young individuals are the future of the country and they are most susceptible of acquiring sexually transmitted diseases. Creating awareness about the available birth control methods, sexually transmitted diseases and their preventive measures, and gender equality will help in bringing up a socially conscious healthy family. Spreading. awareness regarding uncontrolled population growth and social evils among young individuals will help in building up a reproductively healthy society.

Question 2.
Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention in the present scenario.
Answer:
Reproductive health is the total well being in all aspects of reproduction. The aspects which have to be given special attention in the present scenario are as follows:
1. Counselling and creating awareness among people, especially the youth, about various aspects of reproductive health, such as sexually transmitted diseases, available contraceptive methods, case of pregnant mothers, adolescence, etc.

2. Providing support and facilities such as medical assistance to people during pregnancy, STDs, abortions, contraceptives, infertility, etc. for building a reproductively healthy society.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 3.
Is sex education necessary in schools? Why?
Answer:
Yes, introduction of sex education in schools is necessary. It would provide right information to young individuals at the right time about various aspects of reproductive health such as reproductive organs, puberty, and adolescence related changes, safe sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases, etc.

The young individual or adolescents are more susceptible in acquiring various sexually transmitted diseases. Hence, providing information to them at the right time would help them to lead a reproductively healthy life and also protect them from the myths and misconceptions about various sex related issues.

Question 4.
Do you think that reproductive health in our country has improved in the past 50 years? If yes, mention some such areas of improvement.
Answer:
Yes, the reproductive health has tremendously improved in India in the last 50 years. The areas of improvement are as follows:

  1. Massive child immunisation programme, which has lead to a decrease in the infant mortality rate.
  2. Maternal and infant mortality rate, which has been decreased drastically due to better post natal care.
  3. Family planning, which has motivated people to have smaller families.
  4. Use of contraceptive, which has resulted in a decrease in the rate of sexually transmitted diseases and unwanted pregnancies.

Question 5.
What are the suggested reasons for population explosion?
Answer:
The human population is increasing day by day, leading to population explosion. It is because of the following two major reasons:
(a) Decreased death rate
(b) Increased birth rate and longevity
The death rate has decreased in the past 50 years. The factor leading to decreased death rate and increased birth rate are control of diseases, awareness and spread of education, improvement in medical facilities, ensured food supply in emergency situation, etc. All this has resulted in an increase in the longevity of an individual.

Question 6.
Is the use of contraceptives justified? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, the use of contraceptives is absolutely justified. The human population is increasing tremendously. Therefore, to regulate the population growth by regulating reproduction has become a necessary demand in the present times. Various contraceptive devices have been devised to reduce unwanted pregnancies, which help in bringing down the increased birth rate and hence, in checking population explosion.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 7.
Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option. Why?
Answer:
Contraceptive devices are used to prevent unwanted pregnancy and to prevent the spreading of STDs. There are many methods, such as natural, barrier, oral, and surgical methods, that prevent unwanted pregnancy. However, the complete removal of gonads cannot be a contraceptive option because it will lead to infertility and unavailability of certain hormones that are required for normal functioning of accessory reproductive parts. Therefore, only those contraceptive methods can be used that prevent the chances of fertilisation rather than making the person infertile forever.

Question 8.
Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country. Is this ban necessary? Comment.
Answer:
Amniocentesis is a pre-natal diagnostic technique that is used to determine the sex and metabolic disorders of the developing foetus in the mother’s uterus through the observation of the chromosomal patterns. This method was developed so as to determine any kind of genetic disorder present in the foetus. However, unfortunately, this technique is being misused to detect the sex of the child before birth and the female foetus is then aborted. Thus, to prevent the increasing female foeticides, it is necessary to ban the usage of amniocentesis technique for determining the sex of a child.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 9.
Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Answer:
Infertility is the inability of a couple to produce a baby even after unprotected intercourse. It might be due to abnormalities present in either male or female, or might be even both the partners. The techniques used to assist infertile couples to have children are as follows:
(a) Test Tube Babies: This involves in-vitro fertilisation where the sperms meet the egg outside the body of a female. The zygote, hence produced, is then transferred in the uterus or fallopian tube of a normal female. The babies produced from this method are known as test tube babies.

(b) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT): It is a technique that involves the transfer of gamete (ovum) from a donor into the fallopian tube of the recipient female who is unable to produce eggs, but has the ability to conceive and can provide right conditions for the development of an embryo.

(c) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI): It is a method of injecting sperm directly into the ovum to form an embryo in laboratory.

(d) Artificial Insemination: Artificial insemination is a method of transferring semen (sperm) from a healthy male donor into the vagina or uterus of the recipient female. It is employed when the male partner is not able to inseminate the female or has low sperm counts.

Question 10.
What are the measures one has to take to prevent from contracting STDs?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) get transferred from one individual to the other through sexual contact. Adolescents and young adults are at the greatest risk of acquiring these sexually transmitted diseases. Hence, creating awareness among the adolescents regarding its after-effects can prevent them from contracting STDs. The use of contraceptives, such as condoms, etc. while intercourse, can prevent the transfer of these diseases. Also, sex with unknown partners or multiple partners should be avoided as they may have such diseases. Specialists should be consulted immediately in case of doubt so as to assure early detection and cure of the disease.

Question 11.
State True/False with explanation.
(a) Abortions could happen spontaneously too. (True/False)
(b) Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to abnormalities/defects in the female partner. (True/False)
(c) Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception. (True/False)
(d) Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive health of the people. (True/False)
Answer:
(a) False
Abortion is term given for medical termination of pregnancy.

(b) False
Infertility is defined as the inability of the couple to produce baby even after unprotected coitus. It might occur due to abnormalities/defects in either male or female or both.

(c) False
Complete lactation or lactational amenorrhea is a natural method of contraception. Flowever, it is limited till lactation period, which continues till six months after parturition.

(d) True.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 12.
Correct the following statements:
(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(b) All sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
(d) In E. T. techniques, embryos are always transferred into the uterus.
Answer:
(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent the flow of gamete during intercourse.
(b) Some of the sexually transmitted diseases are curable if they are detected early and treated properly. AIDS is still an incurable disease.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among urban women.
(d) In embryo transfer technique, 8 celled embryos are transferred into the fallopian tube while more than 8 celled embryos are transferred into the uterus.