Class 7

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Development of Regional Cultures Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Write the names of regional languages of North India during the medieval period (800-1200 A.D.).
Answer:

  1. Regional languages developed more in the Sultanate period. All the Bhakti saints throughout India preached in local languages. These languages further took the form of our present languages.
  2. Braj, Avadhi, Punjabi, Gujarati, Bengali, Kannada, Telugu and Tamil developed in this period.
  3. Persian was the national language of this period. Therefore Indian languages were highly influenced by the Persian language. Many Persian words became a part of Indian languages.
  4. During this period, the mixture of the Persian and the Hindi language gave birth to Urdu language.
  5. During the Sultanate period, many Sanskrit scriptures were translated into regional languages.

Question 2.
Write the names of regional languages during the Delhi Sultanate period.
Answer:
These were Braj, Avadhi, Punjabi, Gujarati, Bengali, Kannada, Telugu and Tamil.

Question 3.
Who was considered the founder of Punjabi literature?
Answer:
The famous Punjabi Sufi Saint Baba Farid Shakkarganj was the founder of Punjabi literature.

Question 4.
How many Vars did Bhai Gurdas compose?
Answer:
He wrote 39 Vars in Punjabi language. He was a great poet. Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji honoured him by saying that these “Vars” are the key to Sri Guru Granth Sahibji.

Question 5.
Name four famous poets who gave an important contribution to Punjabi literature.
Answer:
Shah Hussain, Bulle Shah, Damodar and Waris Shah.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

Question 6.
Give a brief account of Adi Granth Sahib.
Answer:
Sri Adi Granth Sahib Ji was compiled by Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji in 1604 A.D. The hymns that were included of Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji , Guru Angad Dev Ji, Guru Amar Das Ji, Guru Ram Das Ji and Guru Arjan Dev Ji. Later on the hymns of Sri Guru Teg Bahadur Ji were also added in Sri Guru Granth Sahibji. Besides, some Hindu saints and Muslim saints have also contributed to Sri Guru Granth Sahibji. In all these holy hymns, praise and respect have been shown towards God. Sri Guru Granth Sahibji has the highest place in the Punjabi literature.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_________ was the writer of Geet Govinda.
Answer:
Jaidev

Question 2.
Prithviraj Rabo was written by _________
Answer:
Chand Bardai

Question 3.
Adi Granth Sahib was composed by _________ in 1604 A.D
Answer:
Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji

Question 4.
Krishan Ray was a famous of Sanskrit and Telugu languages.
Answer:
poet

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

Question 5.
Amir Khusro was a _________ musician and poet.
Answer:
famous.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
Ramanuja, Jaideva were the famous Sanskrit writers of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Abul Fazle did not write Ain-i-Akbari.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Tansen was the most famous singer of Akbar’s court
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Muhammad Tughluq’s portrait is a fine example of painting during the medieval period.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

Question 5.
The art of music did not flourish under the Rajput rulers.
Answer:
False

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.
table-1
Answer:
table-2

V. Activity:

Question 1.
Write a brief essay on the development of Punjabi literature during the medieval period.
Answer:
1. Baba Farid Shakkarganj (1173-1265): He was a famous Sufi saint of Puryab. He is called the founder of Punjabi literature. He wrote his literature in Lehandi or Multani language. His 112 Salokas and 4 Shabads were given a place in Adi Granth Sahib Ji by Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji.

2. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji (1469-1539): He started a new age in Punjabi literature. His literature is great from every angle. He wrote Japuji Sahib, Asa-Di-War, Babarvani. Infact Guruji’s contribution is invaluable.

3. Damodar: Damodar was a contemporary of Akbar. He wrote the story of Heer Ranjha in Lehandi or Multani language. It shows the village culture of his times.

4. Waris Shah (1707-1798): Waris Shah has a pride of place in Punjabi literature. He wrote Heer, which is a great contribution to Punjabi literature.

5. Shah Muhammad (1782-1863): He wrote Jang Nama. He has praised the period of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. This creation is an invaluable treasure of Punjabi literature.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Development of Regional Cultures Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
_________ was a Rajput Ruler.
(a) Akbar
(b) Birbal
(c) Prithviraj Chauhan
(d) Shahjahan.
Answer:
(c) Prithviraj Chauhan.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

Question 2.
Which of these was a strong emotion of Rajputs?
(a) Loyalty
(b) Valour
(c) Friendship
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
_________ females used to sit alive on the funeral pyre of their husbands.
(a) Brahmin
(b) Vaishya
(c) Shudra
(d) Rajput.
Answer:
(d) Rajput.

Question 4.
_________ were a caste of storytellers in temples of North India.
(a) Kathak
(b) Brahmins
(c) Vermans
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Kathak.

Question 5.
Legends of Radha Krishna enacted in folk plays called
(a) Ram Lila
(b) Rasa Lila
(c) Jatak Tales
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(6) Rasa Lila.

Question 6.
Which of these is the patronage of Kathak dance?
(a) Wajid Ali Shah
(b) Prithvi Raj
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Iltutmish.
Answer:
(a) Wajid Ali Shah.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

Question 7.
_________ is recognised as one of six classical forms of dance in country after independence.
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Manipuri
(d) Kathak.
Answer:
(d) Kathak.

Question 8.
Which of these Mughal emperors was patron of highly skilled painters?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 9.
Which of these is included in the term Pir?
(a) Animistic spirits
(b) Sufis
(c) Religious personalities
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How did Urdu language come into being?
Answer:
The Turks started Persian language in India but with the passage of time, the Hindi and Persian languages got mixed up and a new language Urdu came into being.

Question 2.
Describe the development of languages during the Mughal period.
Answer:
During the Mughal period, Persian language was the most developed language. So, the Mughal period is known as the Golden age of Persian language. Persian was the official language of the Mughal empire. As a result in Punjab, the Persian language developed very fast. Akbar got the translation done of the Ramayana, Mahabharata from Sanskrit to Persian language, Punjabi and Hindi languages also developed greatly. The Urdu language was also being used.

Question 3.
Throw light on the development of literature during Rajput period.
Answer:
Chand Bardai wrote ‘Prithvi Raj Raso\ The state poet of Bengal, Jaidev wrote the epic ‘Geet Govind’ where there is a description of the love of Radha and Krishna. Kalhan wrote a historical scripture ‘Raj Tarangini’. This scripture gives us the knowledge about Kashmir history. ‘Bilhan wrote ‘Vikramank Dev Charit’. It contains the life history of Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI. Another magnificent creation in Sanskrit language is called Katha Sarit Sagar. It is a compilation of stories.

Question 4.
Describe the contribution of the following in the Punjabi language and literature.
Answer:
1. Baba Farid Shakkarganj (1173-1265): He was a famous Sufi saint of Puryab. He is called the founder of Punjabi literature. He wrote his literature in Lehandi or Multani language. His 112 Salokas and 4 Shabads were given a place in Adi Granth Sahib Ji by Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji.

2. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji (1469-1539): He started a new age in Punjabi literature. His literature is great from every angle. He wrote Japuji Sahib, Asa-Di-War, Babarvani. Infact Guruji’s contribution is invaluable.

3. Damodar: Damodar was a contemporary of Akbar. He wrote the story of Heer Ranjha in Lehandi or Multani language. It shows the village culture of his times.

4. Waris Shah (1707-1798): Waris Shah has a pride of place in Punjabi literature. He wrote Heer, which is a great contribution to Punjabi literature.

5. Shah Muhammad (1782-1863): He wrote Jang Nama. He has praised the period of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. This creation is an invaluable treasure of Punjabi literature.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

Question 5.
Describe the development in the field of painting in Punjab during Medieval period.
Answer:
Many pictures related to Guru Sahiban have been found to be painted in old scriptures, the walls of Gurdwaras and palaces. For e.g.-In Goindwal, we find the pictures of those 22 persons of Sri Guru Amar Das Ji who were appointed by him under “Manji pratha” to propagate the religion. These pictures throw light on the development of paintings of that time.

Question 6.
Throw light on the contribution of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji in the development of Punjabi language and literature.
Answer:
Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji was a great poet of Punjabi language. His creations like “Jap Sahib”, “Bachitar Natak”, “Zafar Nama”, “Chandi-Di-Var” and “Akal-ustat” are very important. All these creations are compiled in Dasham Granth. Chandi-Di-Var is considered an invaluable creation of Punjabi literature.

Question 7.
Describe the development in the field of painting during Mughal period.
Answer:
The Mughals were great patrons of the art of painting.
1. Babar and Humayun had this hobby. Babar got his autobiography illustrated with pictures. Humayun brought two famous painters Abdul Sayyed and Sayyed Ali from Iran to Delhi.

2. Akbar established a different department to develop the art of painting. This department illustrated books with pictures of Mughal rulers. Daswant and Basawan were two famous painters of Akbar’s court.

3. Jahangir was also a great painter. During his period, the art of miniature paintings developed. Ustad Mansur, Abdul Hassan, Faruqh Beg, Madav, etc. were famous painters of Jahangir’s court.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Development of Regional Cultures

Question 8.
Describe the development in the field of music during Mughal period.
Answer:
Except Aurangzeb all Mughal rulers were music lovers. So, this art developed during their administration period.

  1. Babar and Humayun were great lovers of music. Humayun would listen to music for two days in a week.
  2. Akbar had hobby in music. He himself was a singer. He had complete knowledge of “sur” and “taal” of music. In his court, there were high standard musicians like ‘Tansen”. Tansen created many ragas. Besides him, there were Ramdas and Baiju Bawra who were also high-standard singers.
  3. Jahangir and Shah Jahan were also music lovers. Jahangir himself was a great singer. He wrote many Hindi songs. Shah Jahan was fond of Dhrupad songs.
  4. During Mughal’period Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji compiled Sri Guru Granth Sahibji on the basis of classic ragas.

Question 9.
What were the achievements of Rajputs in the field of paintings?
Answer:
The painting was done on papers during Rajput period. The “Pal style” and “Apbrash style” were being used during this period. The pictures in Pal style are found in Buddhist scriptures. The colours used are white, black, red and blue. In Apbrash style the red and yellow colours are used more. Such pictures are found in Jain scriptures and mythological scriptures.

Question 10.
Throw some light on the literary achievements during the Mughals in India.
Answer:
1. The Mughal rulers were themselves great scholars, so; there was development of literature during this period. Babar wrote his autobiography “Babarnama” or “Tuzuk-i-Babari”. This book was written in Turkish language.

2. In the court of Akbar, there were great scholars like Sheikh Mubarak, Abul Fazl and Faizi. Abul Fazl wrote “Ain-i-Akbari” and “Akbarnama” Akbar got the translation done of Sanskrit scriptures like “Ramayana”, “Mahabharata”, “Raj Tarangini”, “Panchtantra”, etc. in the Persian language.

3. Jahangir also was a scholar of Turkish, Hindi, and Persian languages. He also gave patronage to scholars. Famous Hindi writers in his court were Rai Manohar Das, Bhisham Das, and Keshav Das.

4. Shah Jahan was also a literature lover emperor. In his period Abdul Hamid Lahori wrote “Badshahnama” and Muhammad Sadiq wrote “Shahjahanama”.

5. Aurangzeb got a book written named Fatwa-i-Alamgiri which was based on Islamic laws. Besides, during his period Khalif Khan wrote a famous book named “Muntkahab-ul-Lubab”.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 15 Religious Developments Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 15 Religious Developments

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Religious Developments Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which Mughal ruler founded the new sect Din-I-Illahi
Answer:
Mughal ruler Akbar founded Din-i-Illahi.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Advait?
Answer:
It means ‘God and Soul’ are one.

Question 3.
Name main sects of Islam.
Answer:
Two sects of Islam are :

  1. Ulemas
  2. Sufi.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 4.
Write the names of the founders of Chisti and Suhravandi sects.
Answer:
Founder of Chisti Sect-Khawja Muinuddin-Chisti.
Founder of Suhravardi Sect-Makhdoom Bahauddin Zukkariya.

Question 5.
What do you know about Ramanuja?
Answer:
Ramanuja was a Tamil Brahamana, who preached Vaishnavism in South India. He taught his followers to worship Vishnu. According to him one should worship God with love and devotion and not perform meaningless practices.

Question 6.
When and where did Ramanand was born?
Answer:
Ramananda was born at Paryag (Allahabad) in 14th century.

Question 7.
Who was Chitanya Mahaprabhu?
Answer:
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu. He was born in I486 in the Nadia village of Bengal. He started the system of Kirtan. Chaitanya was a famous religious teacher who became a devotee of Krishna and preached in Bengal during the period of the Sultanate.

Question 8.
When and where did Prophet Mohammad was born?
Answer:
Prophet Mohammad was born in 570 A.D. at Mecca.

Question 9.
When and where did Guru Nanak Dev ji was born?
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev ji was bom in Talwandi in 1469.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 10.
Where did Ravidas was born?
Answer:
Saint Ravidas was bom at Banaras.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The teachings of __________ are contained in the Adi Granth Sahib.
Answer:
Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji

Question 2.
__________ founded a new faith named Din-i-Ilahi.
Answer:
Akbar

Question 3.
Saint Kabir was disciple of __________
Answer:
Ramananda

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 4.
Bhakti Saints preached in the __________ of the people.
Answer:
language

Question 5.
Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji was the __________ of Sikhism.
Answer:
Founder

Question 6.
Hazrat Khawaja Muin-ud-din was bom in __________
Answer:
Central Asia

Question 7.
__________ founded Khalsa Panth in 1699 A.D.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji founded the Khalsa Panth.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The Chisti and Suhrawardi were not the popular Sufi Silsilahs.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The Dargah of Nizam-ud-din Auliya is at Ajmer.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu and Mira Bai popularized Ram Bhakti.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 5.
Alwars popularised devotional songs of Shaivism.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Sri Gum Nanak Dev Ji started the practice of Langar.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the columns :

Question 1.

Column A Column B
1. Sri Gum Nanak Dev Ji (a) A Tamil Brahman, bora on
2. Ravi Das Ji was bom at (b) Allahabad
3. Ramananda Ji was born at (c) Nadia in 1486 in Bengal
4. Ramanuja Ji was (d) Banaras
5. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Ji was bom in (e) 15 April, 1469 A.D. at Rai Bhoi Ki Talwandi. now called Nankana Sahib
6. Prophet Mohammad was born (f) in Mecca in 570 A.D.

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Sri Gum Nanak Dev Ji (e) 15 April, 1469 A.D. at Rai Bhoi Ki Talwandi. now called Nankana Sahib
2. Ravi Das Ji was born at (d) Banaras
3. Ramananda Ji was born at (b) Allahabad
4. Ramanuja Ji was (a) A Tamil Brahman, bora on
5. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Ji was bom in (c) Nadia in 1486 in Bengal
6. Prophet Mohammad was born (f) in Mecca in 570 A.D.

V. Activities :

Question 1.
Draw a picture of any four Bhakti and Sufi. Saints in your notebook. Write about their main teachings.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 2.
Visit a Gurdwara. Write what you saw there? How did you feel?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Religious Developments Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Shankara was born in in 8th century.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka.
Answer:
(b) Kerala.

Question 2.
Shankara advocated the philosophy of
(a) believe in different souls
(b) Advaita
(c) believe in one soul
(d) illusion of world.
Answer:
(b) Advaita.

Question 3.
Ramanuja was born in Tamil Nadu in century.
(a) 11th
(b) 8th
(c) 10th
(d) 9th.
Answer:
(a) 11th.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 4.
Virashaiva movement was initiated by
(a) Ramanuja
(b) Krishna
(c) Basavanna
(d) Shankra.
Answer:
(c) Basavanna.

Question 5.
Which of these was the Saint of Maharashtra?
(а) Janeshwar
(b) Eknath
(c) Namdev
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 6.
Humanist idea says that __________
(a) Treating all humans equally
(b) Sharing everyone’s pain
(c) Giving privilege to nobles
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Giving privilege to nobles.

Question 8.
Muslim scholars developed a holy law called ………………
(a) Penal law
(b) Shariat
(c) Civil law
(d) Public law.
Answer:
(b) Shariat.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 9.
The genealogy of Sufi teachers was known as
(a) Genealogical ancestors
(b) Ancestral post
(c) Silsilas
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Silsilas.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the main saints of the Bhakti movement.
Answer:
During the medieval period many saints were bom in different parts of India. They included Saint Ramanuj, Ramanandji, Saint Kabir, Saint Ravidas Ji, Sri Guru Nanak Devji and Chaitanya Mahaprabhuji.
1. Ramanuj Ji: The word ‘Bhakti’ means love or devotion of God. It stands for oneness of the devotee’s soul with the Supreme Soul or God. The doctrine of Bhakti was not a new movement. In the South, the early Tamil saints and Swami Ramanuja had preached Bhakti. In the north India the Bhakti movement started in 11th and 12th centuries.

His main teachings were as follows :

  • The relationship between God and the man is based on love.
  • One should worship God with love and devotion.
  • One should not perform meaningless practices, fasts and rituals.
  • Nobody is high or low in the eyes of God.
  • Caste distinctions are man-made as such they are meaningless.

2. Ramanandji: His birth place is Allahabad^JIe preached Rambhakti’ in 14th century. He was the follower of Swami Raghwananda. He preached the worship of ‘Ram-Sita’. He criticized blind faiths and meaningless practices. He was the first preacher who included women as his follower.

3. Saint Kabir. Saint Kabir belonged to Banaras. He had faith in the prayer of God. He was against untouchability. He tried his best’ to fill the gap between Hindus and Muslims:

Religious Doctrines:

  • He never believed in religious differences. He said, “God has many names and to fight on his names is foolishness.”
  • He stressed more on love for God.
  • He stressed more on purification of heart.
  • He condemned idol worship.

4. Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Guru Nanak Dev Ji founded Sikhism. Following were the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji :

  • All men are equal.
  • God is one: Only love and true devotion can take us close to him.
  • He protested against the caste differences and persuaded his followers to . come and eat in a common kitchen. People belonging to different castes took their meal in this common kitchen … (langar).
  • He had no faith in “Bairag on Sanyas”. He advocated the life of a householder.

5. Namdevji: Namdevji was the famous saint of Maharashtra. He preached that God was formless, omnipotent and omnipresent. He inspired people to lead a pure life. He was dead against caste system, pilgrimages, form worship, yajnas, sacrifice system and fasting. His holy poetry has been given a place in Sri Guru Granth Sahibji.

6. Guru Ravidasji: Guru Ravidas Ji was born in Banaras. He believed in the worship of one God. He was dead against caste system, pilgrimages and fasting. He believed in ‘Simran’ (to pray God) and to live a pure life. Many people became the followers of his great thinking.

7. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu: He was bom in 1486 in the Nadia village of Bengal. He started the system of Kirtan. Chaitanya was the famous religious teacher who became a devotee of Krishna and preached in Bengal during the period of the Sultanate.

8. Mirabai: Mirabai was a princess of Rajasthan. She gave up her life of luxury and became a devotee of Lord Krishna. She wrote holy songs in praise of Lord Krishna and propagated Krishna Bhakti.

Question 2.
Describe in detail about Sikhism.
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev Ji was the founder of Sikhism. The ten Gurus are Guru Nanak Dev Ji, Guru Angad Dev Ji, Guru Amar Das Ji, Guru Ram Das Ji, Guru Arjan Dev Ji, Guru Hargobind Ji, Guru Har Rnd Singh Ji. The Sikhs pray in Gurdwaras.

The five distinguished characteristics of the Sikhs.

  1. Kes (Hair)
  2. Kangha (Comb)
  3. Kara (Iron Bangle)
  4. Kirpan (Dagger)
  5. Kachhera (Underwear).

The religious book of the Sikhs.
Adi-Granth is the religious book of the Sikhs.
When Guru Gobind. Singh Ji left for his heavenly abode, he gave the message that the Sikhs should consider holy Guru Granth Sahibji as their Guru from now onwards.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 3.
Describe Sufi Movement and Sufi Saifits.
Answer:
Sufism was a reform movement within Islam which laid emphasis on toleration, free thought and liberal ideas.

Main teachings of Sufism:

  • The Sufis lay emphasis on the principle of ‘tauba’ (repentance) and ‘tawakku (trust in God).
  • Love and devotion are the means of coming nearer to God.
  • Prayers, fasts and rituals are useless.
  • There can be many paths to reach God.
  • They preached religious tolerance.
  • They emphasized respect for all human beings.
  • It is necessary to follow the teachings of a pir or Guru.
  • Devotional music is one way of coming close to God.

Sufi Saints: The most famous is Sheikh Muinuddin-Chishti of Ajmer. Other famous Sufi Saints are Sheikh Qutb-ud-din Bhakhtiar Kaki, Baba Farid, Hazrat Nizam-ud-din Auliya and his disciple Nasir-ud-din Chiragi.

Question 4.
Describe Hindu religion during Saltanate period.
Answer:

  1. Shaivism: During 9th century Sri Shankaracharya established Shaivism. His followers are known as Shaivs and they follow the prayers of Lord Shiva.
  2. Vaishnavism: The followers of Vaishnavism worshipped Sri Ram and Sri Krishna. Ramanandji preached ‘Ram Bhakti’ and Chaitanya preached Krishna Bhakti.

Question 5.
Who were Ulemas?
Answer:
Ulemas were the religious leaders of Muslims. They recited the ‘Quran’, ‘Hadis’ and other religious scriptures. They sermonized about leading a religious and pure life.

Question 6.
Write about the life, travels (Udasis) and teachings of Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji.
Answer:
Brief history of life. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s birthday is on 15 April, 1469 and birthplace is Talwandi. These days it is called Nankana Sahib. His father’s name was Mehta Kalu Ram Ji and mother’s name was Tripta Devi Ji. The name of his sister was Bibi Nanaki. Guruji was married to the daughter of Batala resident Sri Mulchand. Her name was Sulakhani Devi Ji. At that time his age was 14 years. Two sons were bom to him named Sri Chand and Lakhmi Das.

After marriage Guruji went to Sultanpur to his sister Bibi Nanaki. Here he got a job at Daulat Khan’s godown. Guruji went to Bein river to take a bath daily. Once he went to Bein river and did not come out for three days. The period gave him true enlightenment and Guru uttered these words-‘Na Ko Hindu Na Ko Muslman’.

Udasis:

  1. Sri Guru Nanak Devji started his Udasis after his enlightenment. He wanted to show the right path of living to the lost mankind. In his first Udasi he went to Sayyedpur, Talumba, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Haridwar, Banaras, Gaya, Kamrup, Decca and Jagannathpuri.
  2. In his second Udasi he went to South India and Sri Lanka.
  3. His third Udasi was upto Kailash Parbat, Ladakh, Hasan Abdal, etc.
  4. In his fourth Udasi, Guruji went to Mecca, Madina, Baghdad, etc.
  5. After this Guruji came to Kartarpur and continued to preach good conduct to people in Punjab. Some historians called it the fifth Udasi of Guruji.

Teachings:

  • God is one.
  • God is creator of Universe.
  • All men are equal.
  • God is omnipotent and omnipresent.
  • Dispose your ‘Ego’ off.
  • Guru is great.
  • Always pray to God (Naam Simran).
  • Don’t believe in shallow and false customs and traditions.
  • Discrimination on the basis of caste is meaningless.
  • Man must lead a pure life.

Guru Nanak Devji in Kartarpur: Guruji spent the last 18 years of his life in Kartarpur. Before he left for his heavenly abode in 1539, he appointed Bhai Lahna as his successor.

Guruji’s Literature: Includes Japuji Sahib, Asa Di War, Var Majh, Var Malhar, Barah Maha.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 7.
Explain in brief the religious and communal development in south India during medieval period.
Answer:
Main Religions. During medieval period in south India most people followed Hinduism. They worshipped gods and goddesses. Many kings were also patrons of Buddhism and Jainism. During this time the Christianity and Islam etc. religions were also prevalent in India.

Religious Communities. Many religious movements were born during this period. There were ‘Alwar’ and ‘Nayanar’ saints. While Nayanars worshipped Lord Shiva, Alwars worshipped Lord Vishnu. The Lingayat community was very popular, The followers worshipped Shivling.

Great Saints. The great saints during this period gave the message of attaining knowledge. The famous saint Shankaracharya gave the massage of ‘Adwait Philosophy*, which means that God and his creation are one and the same. Saint Ramanuja was another saint of Bhakti movement. He was Tamil Brahmin. He gave the serman of adopting the path of worship. He said in very uncertain terms that to worship God, it is necessary to have love and faith in mind. Madhavji was the worshipper of Lord Krishna. He propagated Vaishnavism in 13th century. He believed that knowledge, action and worship are the three important means to attain salvation. He gave the sermon of leading a simple and pure life.

Question 8.
Write short notes on the followings :
1. Udasis of Guru Nanak Dev Ji
Answer:
Udasis or Travels of Sri Guru Nanak Devji :

  • Sri Guru Nanak Devji started his Udasis after his enlightenment. He wanted to show the right path of living to the lost mankind. In his first Udasi he went to Sayyedpur, Talumba, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Haridwar, Banaras, Gaya, Kamrup, Decca and Jagannathpuri.
  • In his second Udasi he went to South India and Sri Lanka.
  • His third Udasi was upto Kailash Parbat, Laddakh, Hasan Abdal, etc.
  • In his fourth Udasi, Guruji went to Mecca, Madina, Baghdad, etc.
  • After this Guruji came to Kartarpur and continued to preach good conduct to people in Punjab. Some historians called it the fifth Udasi of Guruji.

2. Basic Tenets of Islam
Answer:
Basic tenets of Islam :

  • There is no God except ‘Allah’ and Mohammad is his ‘Paigambar’.
  • Every Muslim should bow to ‘Allah’ (Namaz) five times daily.
  • Every Muslim should fast in the month* of ‘Ramzan’.
  • Every Muslim must make a pilgrimage to *Mecca’ once in his lifetime.
  • Every Muslim must give a donation (Zakat) out of his pure earnings.

3. Basic Tenets of Sikhism.
Answer:
Basic tenets of Sikhism:

  • God is one.
  • God is creator of Universe.
  • All men are equal.
  • God is omnipotent and omnipresent.
  • Dispose of your ‘Ego’.
  • Guru is great.
  • Always pray to God (Naam Simran).
  • Don’t believe in shallow and false customs and traditions.
  • Discrimination on the basis of caste is meaningless.
  • Man must lead a pure life.

Question 9.
What are the five sacred emblems of Sikhism?
Answer:
Kes, Kangha, Kara, Kachhera and Kirpan are five sacred emblems of Sikhism.

Question 10.
Mention the names of main Bhakti saints of India.
Answer:
Ramanuja, Ramananda, Saint Kabir, Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji, Namdeva Ji, Guru Ravi Das Ji, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Ji, Mirabai etc.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 11.
What do you know about Bhakti Movement? What were the basic principles?
Answer:
The word ‘Bhakti’ means love or devotion of God. It stands for oneness of the devotee’s soul with the Supreme Soul or God. The doctrine of Bhakti was not a new movement. In the South, the early Tamil Saints and Swami Ramanuja had preached Bhakti. In the north India the Bhakti movement started in 11th and 12th centuries.

Chief Features of the Bhakti Movement or Main Teachings of the Bhakti Reformers :
The Bhakti saints or reformers taught that :

  1. The relationship between God and the man is based on love.
  2. One should worship God with love and devotion.

Question 12.
What is the contribution of Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji to Bhakti Movement?
Answer:
Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji was a great saint of Bhakti Movement. He was born in Talwandi in 1469 A.D. These days this place is in Pakistan and is known by the name of ‘Nankana Sahib’.

Guru Nanak Dev Ji founded the Sikh religion. Following were the teachings of Guru Nanak Dev Ji and his contribution to Bhakti movement :

  1. All men are equal.
  2. The God is one. Only love and true devotion can take us close to him.
  3. He protested against the caste differences and persuaded his followers to come and eat in a common kitchen. People belonging to different castes took their meal in this common kitchen (langar).
  4. He had no faith in “Bairag or Sanyas”. He advocated the life of a householder.

Question 13.
Give an accojunt of religious system and cults during the Mughal period.
Answer:
The Muslims followed Islam and as the ruling class was Muslim, the administration was based on Muslim culture, but Akbar the great adopted the policy of religious tolerance. He was impressed by the liberal ideas of Sufi saints. It is said that Akbar even traveled to Amritsar. In 1575 A.D., he built an Ibadat Khana in Fatehpur SikrL He also started a new religion called Din-i-Ilahi. The Bhakti movement also changed the outlook of the people. After Akbar’s death, Jahangir and Shah Jahan adopted the same religious policy but Aurangzeb reversed this policy, which adversely affecfed the Mughal empire. But we can say that the Mughal period was a period of transformation on the religious side.

The ideas of Bhakti and Sufism spread throughout the length and breadth of India. It had a great effect on the country.

  • It created a spirit of love and affection among different sections of the Indian society.
  • It created a spirit of religious tolerance. Consequently,the Hindus and the Muslims came closer to one another.
  • Both the Sufis and Bhakti teachers taught in the common language of the people. As a result different regional languages developed during this period.
  • Some new religious sects like the Kabir Panth and Sikhism grew as a result of this movement.
  • The caste system became less rigid.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 15 Religious Developments

Question 14.
What do you know about the Sufi Movement? What were the basic principles of this movement?
Answer:
Sufism was a reform movement within Islam which laid emphasis on toleration, free thought and liberal ideas.
The founding of “Chishti Silsila”. In Ajmer Khwaza Muinuddin Chisti founded ‘Chishti Silsila’. Similarly in Multan Makhdoom Bahauddin Zukkariya foimded ‘Suhravardi Silsila’. Both these ‘silsilas’ had separate religious beliefs.
Main techings of Sufism

  1. The Sufis lay emphasis on the principle of Tauba (repentance) and ‘tawakkuT (trust in God).
  2. Love and devotion are the means of coming nearer to God.
  3. Prayers, fasts, and rituals are useless.
  4. There can be many paths to reach God.
  5. They preached religious tolerance.
  6. They emphasized respect for all human beings.
  7. It is necessary to follow the teachings of a pir or Guru.
  8. Devotional music is one way of coming close to God.

Question 15.
What do you know about the Hindu religion?
Answer:
During this period, the Hindu religion was the most followed religion. Many Gods and Goddesses were worshipped. During the Rajput period, this religion developed increasingly. Both Shaivism and Vaishnavism were popular in north India. The followers of Shaivism worshipped Lord ‘Shiva’ and ‘Maa Durga’. The followers of Vaishnavism worshipped Lord Vishnu’ and Maa Laxmi’. The followers of Shakti also worshipped many gods and goddesses. The important goddesses were Maa Parvati, Maa Durga, Maa Lakshmi, Maa Saraswati, Maa Chandika and Maa Ambika. During this period the influence of Buddhism and Jainism had declined.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Nutrition in Animals Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 12)

Question 1.
Name the solution secreted by the Salivary glands of mouth.
Answer:
The saliva Juice is released by the salivary glands in the mouth.

Question 2.
What changes are seen in starch on adding iodine solution ?
Answer:
Post-iodine solution added to starch iodine solution turns purple or blue.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Question 3.
In which form the starch is converted after digestion in mouth ?
Answer:
Saliva is released by the salivary glands in the mouth which contains an enzyme called amylase. This enzyme converts starch into sugar.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 13)

Question 1.
Give other name for cutting teeth.
Answer:
Incisors are also called sharp teeth.

Question 2.
Which age group has both premolars and molars ?
Answer:
Pre-molar and molar teeth begin to break at the age of 50 years and above.

Question 3.
What is the maximum number of teeth present in an adult ?
Answer:
Adults over the age of 30 have a total of 32 teeth of all types in their mouths.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 14)

Question 1.
At which region of the tongue sour taste is felt ?
Answer:
At around 3/4th part of the tongue from the starting i.e. a bit ahead of middle of the tongue the sour taste is experienced.

Question 2.
Why don’t we feel bitter taste at front part of the tongue ?
Answer:
The front part of tongue is free to move in all directions and this part only helps in chewing food and mixing saliva. The four glands on tongue are sweet, salty, sour and a little. Only sweet taste is experienced in the front part of the tongue whereas bitter taste is experienced in the last part of the tongue.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Nutrition in Animals Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The animals that eat both plants as well as animals are called ………………..
Answer:
omnivorous

(ii) ……………… of the food in human beings start in mouth and is completed in the ……………. .
Answer:
digestion, small intestine

(iii) ………………… is the largest gland in human beings.
Answer:
liver

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

(iv) The large intestine absorb excess ………………… and ……………… from undigested food
Answer:
excess water, salt

2. State True or False:

(i) The tongue helps in mixing of food with saliva.
Answer:
True

(ii) In a humans digestion is completed in the stomach.
Answer:
False

(iii) Cud chewing animals are called ruminants.
Answer:
True

(iv) Amoeba captures food particles with the help of pseudopodia.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Ruminant (a) Bile
2. Carbohydrates (b) Store undigested food
3. Gall bladder (c) Glucose
4. Small intestine (d) Cow
5. Rectum (e) Digestion is completed

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Ruminant (d) Cow
2. Carbohydrates (c) Glucose
3. Gall bladder (a) Bile
4. Small intestine (e) Digestion is completed
5. Rectum (b) Store undigested food

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Animals that eat only plants are called:
(a) Carnivores
(b) Herbivores
(c) Omnivores
(d) Saprophytes
Answer:
(b) Herbivorous.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Question (ii)
Extracellular digestion occurs in:
(a) Parasites
(b) Carnivores
(e) Saprophytes
(d) Herbivores
Answer:
(e) Saprophytes.

Question (iii)
The process of taking food into the body is called:
(a) Ingestion
(b) Digestion
(e) Absorption
(ri) Egestion
Answer:
(a) Ingestion.

Question (iv)
Secretion of Liser is:
(a) Proteins
(b) Bile
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Saliva
Answer:
(b) Bile.

Question (v)
Nutrition in Amoeba is:
(a) Parasitic
(b) Holozoic
(c) Saprophytic
(d) Assimilation
Answer:
(c) Saprophytic.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is holozoic nutrition ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 1
Holozoic nutrition. During this type of nutrition Complex food is taken into the body and then broken down into simple soluble compounds with the help of enzymes; which are absorbed by the body, e.g. Amoeba, human,etc.

Question (ii)
What do you mean by absorption ?
Answer:
Absorption.
During this process the digested food is absorbed through the walls of the small intestine. After this the digested food goes into the blood vessels. On the inner walls of the small intestine, there are a large number of eruptions, called Villi. These finger like projections increase the absorption area of intestine.

Question (iii)
Define assimilation.
Answer:
Automation. Food absorbed by intestine reaches different parts of the body through the blood. This is called Automation.

Question (iv)
Name the parts of alimentary canal.
Answer:
The different parts of the Digestive system are as follows:

  1. Oral cavity
  2. Food Pipe
  3. Stomach
  4. Small intestine
  5. Large intestine
  6. Rectum
  7. Anus.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you mean by milk teeth and permanent teeth ?
Answer:
(a) Milk teeth. Two sets of teeth develop during a person’s lifetime. The first set consists of 20 small teeth, also called milk teeth. They grow during infancy and break down at 6 and 8 years of age.

(b) Permanent Teeth. Between the ages of 6 to 8 years, permanent teeth (32) appear after the fall of the milk teeth. Permanent teeth begin to fall out between the ages of 50 and 60.

Question (ii)
Write four types of human teeth and their functions.
Answer:
The four types of teeth found in post-humans and the four types of teeth found in functional humans are given below:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 2

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain nutrition in Amoeba with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 3
Amoeba.
Amoeba is a microscopic single celled organism found in pond water. It has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubbles- like vacuoles. Amoeba constantly changes it’s shape and position. It moves with it’s virtual feet (called pseudopodia).These are finger like structures which help in movement. During food intake, the membrane between the two virtual legs melts around the food and the food particle get trapped into a vacuole and there is a leakage of enzymes inside it, which break it down in simpler substances from which nutrients are absorbed. Undigested food particles are abandoned by a similar process.

Question (ii)
label the following diagrams:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 4
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 5

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Nutrition in Animals Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The main steps of digestion in humans are ……………, ……………, ………….., ………… and ………… .
Answer:
ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilaton, egestion

(ii) The largest gland in human body is ………………
Answer:
liver

(iii) The stomach releases hydrochloric acid and ………………. juices which act on food.
Answer:
digestive

(iv) The inner wall of small intestine has many finger like outgrowths called ……………… .
Answer:
villi

(v) Amoeba digests its food in the …………… .
Answer:
food vacuole

2. State True or False:

(i) Digestion of starch starts in the stomach.
Answer:
False

(ii) The tongue helps in mixing food with saliva.
Answer:
True

(iii) The gall bladder temporarily stores bile.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

(iv) The ruminants bring back swallowed grass into their mouth and chew it for some time.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column I with Column II:

Column I (Food Components) Column II (Products of Digestion)
1. Carbohydrate (a) Fatty acids and glycerol
2. Proteins (b) Sugar
3. Fats (c) Amino acids.

Answer:

Column I (Food Components) Column II (Products of Digestion)
1. Carbohydrate (b) Sugar
2. Proteins (c) Amino acids
3. Fats (a) Fatty acids and glycerol.

4. Multiple Choice Questions:

Question (i)
Name the process of breaking down of complex substances of food into simpler forms.
(a) Assimilation
(b) Ingestion
(c) Digestion
(d) Egestion.
Answer:
(c) Digestion.

Question (ii)
Name the largest digestive gland of human beings ?
(a) Salivary
(b) Pancreas
(c) Liver
(d) Intestinal.
Answer:
(c) Liver.

Question (iii)
Which acid kills bacteria in stomach ?
(a) Sulphuric
(b) Nitric
(c) Hydrochloric
(d) Phosphoric.
Answer:
(c) Hydrochloric.

Question (iv)
Of the following, in which animal rumen is found?
(a) Cow
(b) Dog
(c) Lion
(cI) Cheetah.
Answer:
(a) Cow.

Question (v)
What is the length of small intestine?
(a) 10.5 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 7.5 m.
Answer:
(d) 7.5 m.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Question (vi)
Movement of food in alimentary canal is called:
(a) Locomotion
(b) Pumping
(c) Peristalsis
(d) Sliding.
Answer:
(c) Peristalsis.

Question (vii)
Which is the simplest carbohydrate?
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Starch
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Glucose.

Question (viii)
Where is Saliva produced?
(a) Stomach
(b) Pancreas
(c) Salivary Glands
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Salivary Glands.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is food pipe ?
Answer:
Food pipe. It consists of orla cavity oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus etc.

Question 2.
Write the names of digestive glands.
Answer:

  1. Salivary glands
  2. Liver
  3. pancreas.

Question 3.
What are the different parts of the digestive system ?
Answer:
Digestive juices and food pipe.

Question 4.
When does temporary or milk teeth fall ?
Answer:
Upto the age of six or eight years.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Question 5.
What is length of small intestine ?
Answer:
7.5 metre (approx.)

Question 6.
What length of large intestine ?
Answer:
1.5 metre (approx.)

Question 7.
Name different types of teeth found in human body.
Answer:
Canines, Incisors, Molars, Premolars.

Question 8.
Which teeth are for cutting and bitting ?
Answer:
Incisors.

Question 9.
Which teeth help in tearing the flesh of prey in animals ?
Answer:
Canines.

Question 10.
What is function of molars and premolars ?
Answer:
Chewing and grinding.

Question 11.
What is tongue ?
Answer:
Tongue. Tongue is a fleshy part of body.

Question 12.
How does tongue taste ?
Answer:
With the help of taste buds.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Question 13.
What food items are responsible for tooth decay ?
Answer:
Chocolates, Cold drinks, Sweets etc.

Question 14.
Which acid present in stomach kills germs ?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid.

Question 15.
Which component of food is broken down by saliva in mouth ?
Answer:
Starch.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Villi ? Where are they present and what are their functions?
Answer:
Villi. Finger-like raised structures in the inner wall of the small intestine are called villi. These are found in the small intestine. Its main function is to absorb digested food.

Question 2.
Where is bile juice made ? Which food components are digested by it?
Answer:
Bile juice is made in the liver and accumulates temporarily in the gallbladder. Its main function is to digest fats.

Question 3.
Write the name of the carbohydrate which is digested by Ruminants but not by humans. Also give reason.
Answer:
Cellulose can be easily digested by Ruminant. A type of bacterium that helps in the digestion of cellulose is found in a sac between the small and large intestines in the rumen of ruminants only. This is the reason humans cannot digest cellulose.

Question 4.
What is the reason that we get energy from glucose immediately?
Answer:
Glucose is a simple form of carbohydrate that is easily absorbed by the body. It dissolves easily in the blood and gives energy immediately.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Question 5.
Which part of the digestive canal is involved in:
(i) Absorption of food …………. .
(ii) Chewing of food ………………. .
(iii) Killing of bacteria ……………. .
(iv) Complete digestion of food …………… .
(v) Formation of faeces ……………….. .
Answer:
(i) Small intestine
(ii) Buccal cavity
(iii) Stomach
(iv) Small intestine
(v) Large intestine.

Question 6.
Write one similarity and one difference between the nutrition in amoeba and human beings.
Answer:
Similarity in the nutrition in amoeba and human beings:
(a) Digestion of food
(b) Release of energy
Difference in nutrition in amoeba and human beings.
Human beings have a well developed digestive system while amoeba has only food vacuole for digestion.

Question 7.
Can we live only by eating vegetable/grass ? Discuss.
Answer:
Raw green vegetables are rich source of minerals, cellulose and vitamins etc. Apart from, this body needs carbohydrates, fats and proteins. So only vegetables can not provide all these for sustaining etc.

Question 8.
What is digestion and what are its main objectives?
Answer:
The breakdown or conversion of complex foods into simple foods is called digestion.
Purpose of Digestion.

  • Breaking of large particles into smaller particles so that they can pass through the
    membranes.
  • Conversion of insoluble substances into soluble substances so that the solution can reach all the places.
  • Complete conversion of complex foods into simple substances so that they can be absorbed by cells.

Question 9.
What is a tooth cavity and why does it occur ?
Answer:
Tooth cavity and toothache. By eating too much sweets and not keeping our teeth clean, we invite bacteria which causes damage to our teeth. If we do not keep our teeth clean, food particles get stuck in the teeth and by attacking them, the bacteria start decomposing the food particles which results in the formation of acid. This acid destroys tooth enamel and causes tooth decay. So we should always brush our teeth after eating food and sweets.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the digestive system of man.
Answer:
The digestive system of man includes the following organs :

  • Mouth. The mouth is first part of food pipe. It contains tongue, teeth and salivary glands. The tongue tastes the food. The salivary glands secrete saliva which lubricates the food. The teeth break the solid food into smaller fragments.
  • Oesophagus. It is a tubular structure from mouth to stomach. It takes the food from mouth to stomach.
  • Small intestine. It is a coiled tube and is the longest part of food pipe. The digestion of food is completed here with the help of enzymes present in the secretions of liver and pancreas.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 6

  • Large intestine. It absorbs water. The undigested food or faecal matter is stored temporarily and finally removed from the body through the anus.

Question 2.
What is the process of Rumination? How is digestion done in Ruminants? Explain.
Answer:
Rumination. Grass-eating animals chew the cud and are called Ruminants. Cows, buffaloes, camels, and deer are a few examples. Their stomach is made up of four cells. The first cell is the rumen, which is the largest part of the stomach. The animal first swallows the food and stores it in the rumen. This half-digested food is called cud. Later, the cud returns to the animal’s mouth in the form of small lumps and the animal continues to chew it slowly. This process is called rumination. Such animals are called ruminants.

During rumination, the cellulose in the food breaks down into simple compounds. It is then digested in liquid form in the other three cells. The esophagus of ruminant animals has a sac-like structure between the small intestine and the large intestine called the Caecum, where there are some bacteria that help digest grass straw.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals 7

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which was the main occupation of the tribal people?
Answer:
Agriculture was the main occupation of most of the tribes, but many of the tribes liked the occupation of hunting, gathering or animal husbandry.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the Nomad?
Answer:
Tribal people used to migrate from one place to another in search of food and other things to live. They were known as Nomads.

Question 3.
Where did the people of tribal society live?
Answer:
During the medieval period, tribal people lived in the all parts of the Indian subcontinent. For example, the tribes such as Gonds, Bhils, Kolis, Kui, Oraons and Kuki lived in Meghalaya, Ma nipur, Nagaland, Madhya Pradesh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli etc. Few tribes like Gakhar, Khokhar, Arghoon, Langah, Bloach etc. lived in the many parts of Punjab.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

Question 4.
Which tribes were lived in Punjab during the medieval period?
Answer:
Few tribes like Gakhar, Khokhar, Arghoon, Langah Bloach etc. lived in many parts of Punjab.

Question 5.
Who was Sufaka?
Answer:
He was the first ruler of Ahom.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Ahom tribe established kingdom in the territories of present _________
Answer:
Assam

Question 2.
_________ was a prosperous kingdom from 15th to 18th century.
Answer:
Gondwana

Question 3.
The people of Ahom tribe belonged to _________ class of China.
Answer:
Tai-Mongolo-id

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

Question 4.
Queen Durgawati was famous _________ ruler.
Answer:
Gond.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Societies which does not follow the rules given by brahmins and were not divided into many unequal classes were known as
(a) Urban society
(b) Rural society
(c) Tribal society
(d) Modem society.
Answer:
(c) Tribal society.

Question 2.
Which of these is the feature of tribal society?
(a) United by kinship bonds
(b) Obtained livelihood by agriculture
(c) Have their own different religion, culture and language
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Which tribe was influential in Punjab in 13thl and 14th centuries?
(a) Gokkhars
(b) Khokhar
(c) Gond
(d) Bhil.
Answer:
(b) Khokhar.

Question 4.
Which of these was the large and powerful tribe of north west?
(a) Balochi
(b) Gonds
(c) Gakkhar
(d) Bhils.
Answer:
(a) Balochi.

Question 5.
Which tribe was living in western Himalaya?
(a) Nagas
(b) Gaddis
(c) Ahoms
(d) Cheros.
Answer:
(b) Gaddis.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

Question 6.
Which tribe had their homes in Maharashtra highlands, Karnataka and Gujarat?
(a) Bhils
(b) Gonds
(c) Koragas
(d) Kolis.
Answer:
(d) Kolis.

Question 7.
Who moved over long distance with their animals?
(a) Rural nomadics
(b) Gaddi people
(c) Nomadic pastoralists
(d) Ahoms.
Answer:
(c) Nomadic pastoralists.

Question 8.
Nomadic pastoralists used to exchange their products of wool, ghee, with settled agriculturalists for
(a) Grain
(b) Utensils
(c) Cloth
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Tribal Society?
Answer:
Tribal society is a society which lives very much away from our civilisation i.e. in forests, valley’s and mountains. They have their own culture, language etc. and they never liked to be interfered by any one.

Question 2.
How did the historians write the history of tribal society?
Answer:
During the medieval period, the tribals never maintained any written records about them. They used to perform their social traditions and customs. These customs continued from one generation to another. These social traditions and customs helped the historians to write the history of tribal society.

Question 3.
Where did the Ahom and Naga tribes live?
Answer:
Ahom, Naga, and few other tribes lived in the north-eastern parts of the Indian subcontinent.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

Question 4.
Where did the Munda and Santhal tribes live?
Answer:
Munda and Santhal tribes lived in the territories of the present Bihar and Jharkhand.

Question 5.
Where did the Kuli, Brado tribes live?
Answer:
Kuli and Brado tribes lived in the hilly areas of Maharashtra and Karnataka. Kuli’s also lived in some parts of Gujarat.

Question 6.
What were the main professions of the tribal people?
Answer:
Main profession of the tribal people was agriculture. But many of them still lived in the ancient conditions and that is why they used to do hunting and food gathering. Many of the tribes also did pastoralism in which they used to rear animals for milk, meat and other purposes.

Question 7.
What type of life the nomadic people had during the medieval period?
Answer:
During the medieval period, occupation of the nomads was grazing the animals. Most of the times they moved far away for grazing the animals. They used to earn by animal breeding as well. They used to exchange butter made from milk of animals and wood with corn, clothes, utensils etc. with the farmers. They also moved from one place to another for selling their goods fry loading these goods on their animals.

Question 8.
Explain in brief about the Grocer dynasty.
Answer:
During the medieval period, members of Grocer dynasty were famous as the nomadic merchants among the many other dynasties of the nomadic people. For example, during the times of Ala-ud-din Khalji, the Grocers transported the corn by loading on the bulls to sell in the cities. They transported the eatables on the bulls for the Mughal army during the war time.

Question 9.
What facilities are provided to the tribal people of the Indian Government?
Answer:
Government, of India has provided a number of facilities to tribal people to uplift their social status. A number of vocational training institutions are opened up in the tribal areas. Tribal people are provided with bank loans so that they can improve their economic condition. They are also provided with 7.5% reservation in government jobs and educational institutions. Even many constituencies are reserved for them in Lok Sabha and many State Assemblies.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 Tribes, Nomad and Settled Societies

Question 10.
Give a brief introduction of the life of tribes living in jungles and nomadic tribes.
Answer:
The tribes mostly live in Manipur, Meghalya, Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland, Dadra and Nagar Haweli. These includes tribes like Bheels, Gonds, Ahoms, Kuis, Cohns, Kukis, etc. Generally they live in jungles. The govt, had made many efforts to improve their situation.

Question 11.
Give an account of the Ahoms and their state formation.
Answer:
The Ahom tribe ruled from 13th to 19th century on modern Assam. Their relation was with the Tai-Mongolo-id group of China. They came from China in 13th century. ‘Sufaka’ was the first Ahom ruler of Assam. He ruled from 1228 A.D. to 1268 A.D. The Ahoms defeated many local rulers, which included dynasties like Kachari, Moran and Nagaseta. Thus the Ahoms expanded their state to Brahamputra valley. Their, capital was Gorgoan.

The Ahoms even struggled with Mughals and Bengal states. The Mughals tried to control Assam but could not succeed. At last Aurangzeb captured Gorgoan, but could not keep it for a long time. In 1818 A.D. the people from Burma attacked Assam and the Ahom king ran away. In 1826 A.D. the English reached Assam. They defeated Burmese people and entered into a treaty of ‘Yandaboo’. Thus Assam came under the subordination of the English.

Question 12.
Throw some light on the history of Gonds.
Answer:
This tribe is related to central India. They live in Western Orissa, Eastern Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, etc. This area is known as Gondwana because a large number of Gonds live over here. From the 15th to 18th century, many states were established in Gondwana. Rani Durgawati was a famous Gond ruler. Her state was a free state with Jabalpur as the capital. Rani Durgawati died in battle with Akbar’s army as she refused to accept the subordination of Akbar. The Gond people have very few necessities of life. Their houses are also very simple. They are also illiterate people.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Towns, Traders and Craftsmen Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer these questions :

Question 1.
Name any four pilgrimage centres.
Answer:
Nankana Sahib, Amritsar, Kurukshetra, Haridwar, Badrinath, Mathura, Banaras, Jagannath Puri, Dwarka Puri etc. are few of the pilgrimage centres.

Question 2.
Which Guru laid the foundation of Amritsar gnd when?
Answer:
Amritsar is a famous religious place of the Sikhs. It was founded by 4th Guru Sri Guru Ramdas Ji in 1577 A.D. In the beginning, the name of Amritsar was Chak Guru Ramdas. During the time of Sri Guru Ram Das Ji, the work of digging was started on two ponds named Amritsar and Santokhsar, but after Guru Ramdas Ji, fifth Guru Arjan Dev Ji completed this work.

Importance: In 1604 A.D., the placement of Sri Guru Granth Sahibji was done in Sri Harmandar Sahib. In 1609 A.D., Sixth Guru Sri Guru Hargobindji built Shri Akal Takht Sahib in front of Sri Harmandar Sahib. Here, Guruji accepted the gifts of horses and weapons from Gursikhs. Here, discussions were also held on political affairs. Even today, the religious decisions of Sikhs are announced from here. In 1805 A.D., Maharaja Ranjit Singh gave golden covering on the domes of Sri Harmandir Sahib. Since then it has been called ‘The Golden Temple’.

Question 3.
Where the Surat is situated?
Answer:
Surat is a famous port and trading city. It io located in the state of Gujarat. It is a big industrial and trading city. Shivaji plundered it twice and got hold of big riches. During 12th century the Parsis occupied Surat. In 1512 A.D., the Portugese occupied it. In 1573 A.D., Surat came under the control of Akbar and became a major trading city.

In 1612 A.D., the English get many facilities from Emperor Jahangir for trading in Surat. The Portugese, the Dutch and the French also established their trading centres. In 1759 A.D., the English captured the Surat port but they could control it completely in 1842 A.D. The Khwaja-Sahib mosque and nine-Sayyed mosque located here are very famous. The Swami Narain temple and the old Jain temples located here are also very important.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Amritsar was founded by _________
Answer:
Sri Guru Ramdas Ji

Question 2.
Surat is a _________ city.
Answer:
famous port and trading

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

Question 3.
Nankana Sahib is situated in _________
Answer:
Pakistan

Question 4.
India had many port _________
Answer:
cities.

III. Write True or False against the each statement:

Question 1.
Mohenjodaro was the capital city of Indus valley people.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In 1629, Shah Jahan made a new capital in Delhi.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Surat was an important pilgrimage centre.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Fatehpur Sikri was the capital town of Mughals.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

Question 5.
Lahore was a commercial town in Medieval period.
Answer:
True

IV. Activity:

Question 1.
Make a list of the following (four each).
(a) Capital towns
(b) Port towns
(c) Commercial towns
(d) Pilgrimage centres
Answer:
(a) Capital towns: Ajmer, Kanauj, Delhi, Agra.
(b) Port towns: Goa, Cochin, Surat, Broach?
(c) Commercial towns: Lahore, Multan, Surat, Ahmedabad.
(d) Pilgrimage centres: Nankana Sahib, Amritsar, Kurukshetra, Haridwar.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Towns, Traders and Craftsmen Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of these is the type of town?
(a) Temple town
(b) Commercial town
(c) Administrative town
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
Which of these was the capital of Chola dynasty?
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Masulipathnam
(c) Surat
(d) Hampi.
Answer:
(a) Thanjavur.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

Question 3.
Kings used to hold courts at _________ to give orders to subordinates.
(a) Temples
(b) Royal courts
(c) Mandapas
(d) Fort.
Answer:
(c) Mandapas.

Question 4.
Who built Rajarajeshvara temple?
(a) Raj Raja IV
(b) Raj Raja I
(c) Sultan of Bijapur
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Raj Raja I.

Question 5.
The process by which cities develop is known as
(a) Civilization
(b) Urbanization
(c) Metropoltian
(d) Modernization.
Answer:
(b) Urbanization.

Question 6.
Pilgrimage centre which slowly developed into townships was
(a) Varindavan
(b) Ajmer
(c) Tiruvannamalai
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 7.
Who gave right to temples to collect taxes from traders?
(a) Kings
(b) Temple authority .
(c) Zamindars
(d) Both (a) or (c).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) or (c).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a list of the following during the medieval period.
Answer:

  1. Capital Cities: Lahore, Fatehpur Sikri, Delhi, Agra.
  2. Port Cities: Cochin, Surat, Bharoch, Sopara.
  3. Trading Cities: Delhi, Agra, Surat, Ahmednagar.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

Question 2.
Give two means which give us information about the Mughal administration.
Answer:

  1. The travellogue of Bernier.
  2. The maps prepared by William Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe.

Question 2 A.
Write names of any two capital towns of Mughal Empire.
Answer:
Two main capital cities of the Mughal Empire were Delhi and Agra.

Question 3.
How were cities developed?
Answer:
After the development of agriculture, men started living near farms. This gave birth to the concept of villages. When the number of people increased (population), some of these villages became cities. Some of these cities were developed because of the activities of religious personalities, traders, artisans or because of ruling class. These cities, came to be known as capital cities, religious cities, port cities and trading cities.

Question 4.
Give information about the capital cities during the ancient period and the Mughal period. .
Answer:
Ancient period:

  • Harappa and Mohenjodaro were the capital cities of Indus Valley Civilization.
  • During Vedic period, Ayodhya and Inderprasatha were the capital cities.
  • In 600 B.C., 16 states had their own capital cities. The main were Kausambi, Pataliputra and Vaishali.

Rajput Period:

  • Under Rajput rulers, Ajmer, Kanauj, Tripuri, Delhi, Agra, Fatehpur Sikri, etc. were developed as capital cities.
  • In South India, Kanchi, Badami, Kalyani, Vengi, Devagiri, Manyakhet, Tanjavur and Madurai, etc. were capital cities.

Sultanate and the Mughal periods:

  • During Sultanate period, Lahore and Delhi developed as capital cities.
  • During the dughal period Delhi, Agra, Fatehpur Sikri were the capital cities.

Question 5.
In India many port cities were developed. Why?
Answer:
India is sorrounded by the sea on three sides. So, in India many port cities were developed as trading centre.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Towns, Traders and Craftsmen

Question 6.
Name two important ports of eastern coast of India during Medieval period.
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam (Modem Andhra Pradesh) and Tamralipti.

Question 7.
Discuss the contribution of traders and artisans in the economic development of India.
Answer:
The Indian traders and artisans gave important contribution in the economic development of India. The Indian artisans were skilled in preparing best quality stock. They were very skilled in textile industry. The cloth prepared by them was world famous whether it was woolen, cotton, silky. The leather goods were also very popular.

In the medieval period, there was development of the art of making alloys. The blacksmiths and’ goldsmiths prepared best quality goods. The traders exported these goods to other countries. And thus, India was turned into a “Golden Sparrow”.

Question 8.
Write about the historical importance of Lahore City.
Answer:
Lahore is a famous city of Pakistan. During the medieval period, it was an important Indian city. During the times of Turk invasion, Lahore was the capital of Hindu ruling dynasty. After that, it remained the capital of Qutub-ud-din Aibak and Iltutmish. Iltutmish later on, made Delhi his capital.

During the times of invasion of Babar, Daulat Khan Lodhi was the Governor of Punjab. During the administration of Mughals, Lahore was«the capital of the state of Punjab. In 1761 A.D., Lahor-e was captured by the Sikhs. In 1799 A.D., Maharaja Ranjit Singh made Lahore his capital. In 1849 A.D. Lahore came under the control of the British. From 1849 to 1947 A.D. Lahore remained the capital of Punjab state. At the time of partition, Lahore! became a part of Pakistan.

Question 9.
Discuss the sources that tell us about towns in the Mughal period.
Answer:

  1. The travelogues of a Portuguese visitor named Duarte Barbosa and an English visitor named Ralph Fitch tell us about the cities of that period
  2. The map of the Mughal empire in 1629 A.D. shows places like Thatta, Lahore, Surat, and Multan. This map was prepared by Hondiu.
  3. The government documents related to the land revenue in the Mughal period give us information about old and new cities.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions History Chapter 12 The Creation of an Empire – The Mughal Empire Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science History Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Monumental Architecture Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which are the main temples of Northern India?
Answer:
During the period of 800-1200 A.D., a number of temples were built in North India. The Vishnu temple at Jagannath Puri, Lingaraj temple at Bhubaneswar, the Sun temple at Konark, the Mahadeva at Khajuraho in Bundelkhand, Tejpal temple at Mount Abu, are the important temples of North India.

Question 2.
Describe the main features of Indian-Muslim architecture?
Answer:
The main features are as follows :

  • This style was the remix of Turk, Afghan and Indian style.
  • Many mosques and tombs were built in this style. Pillars, minarets, and domes are the main features of this style.
  • On the walls of these buildings, writings have been done taken from the holy ‘Quran’.
  • On the ‘Allai Darwaza’ which was built in the period of Alauddin Khalji, red stone and white marble has been used.
  • In many buildings pillars have been used.

Question 3.
Which are the temples of the Southern India?
Answer:

  • Raj Rajeshwar Temple built by Chola King Rajraja.
  • Gangaikondcholpuram temple built by the Chola king Rajendra I.
  • The Kailash Temple in Ellora built by Rashtrakuta rulers.
  • Brihadeshwara Temple in Tanjavur.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 4.
Why Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan is calledi the ‘Prince of Builders’?
Answer:
Shah Jahan was very fond of building structures. All the buildings built by him have a special place from the viewpoint of art and beauty. In Agra he built Jahangir Mahal, Rani Jodhabai palace, Moti Masjid of Red Fort and Taj Mahal, etc. Taj Mahal is one of the most beautiful buildings of the world and is on the bank of river Yamuna. He built the Red Fort where he built many buildings like Diwan-i-Aam, Diwan-i-Khas, Moti Masjid, etc. Besides, he also built a throne for himself which was studded with diamonds and is known as Takht-e-Taus. Because of all these features, he is called the ‘Prince of Architecture’.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The Qutab Minar was completed by _________
Answer:
Qutab-ud-din Aibak/Iltutmish

Question 2.
_________ near Agra, was built by Akbar as his new capital.
Answer:
Fatehpur Sikri

Question 3.
The Buland Darwaja is situated in _________
Answer:
Fatehpur Sikri

Question 4.
Taj Mahal was built by in the memory of _________
Answer:
Shah Jahan/Mumtaz Mahal

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 5.
Jahangir built _________
Answer:
Akbar’s Tomb in Sikandra.

III. Write True or False for each statement:

Question 1.
Turks and Afghans introduced new styles and techniques of architecture in India.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The temples at Khajuraho were built by the rulers of the Chandella dynasty.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Ala-ud-din Khalji built a new capital at Siri.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 4.
Muhammad Tughlaq built Tughlaqabad.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The Dravidian style of architecture was used in the Chola temples.
Answer:
True

IV. Activities

Question 1.
Collect pictures of the monumental architecture of the Mughal period and paste them in your notebook.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Draw the Taj Mahal.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Monumental Architecture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A Style of architecture in which roofs, doors and windows made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns was known as
(a) Trabeate
(b) Superstructure
(c) Substructure
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Trabeate.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 2.
_________ were attached to the teinples, mosques, tombs and in buildings between 8th and 13th centuries.
(a) Substructures
(b) Baolis
(c) Gardens
(d) Chahar Bagh.
Answer:
(b) Baolis.

Question 3.
Who constructed Kandariya Mahadeva Temple?
(a) Rajarajadeva King
(b) King Srimara Shrivallabha
(c) King Dhangadeva
(d) King Sena-I.
Answer:
(c) King Dhangadeva.

Question 4.
Who destroyed the temple of Somnath?
(a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(c) Sena-I
(d) Sena-II.
Answer:
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi.

Question 5.
Which of these Mughal emperor was personally interested in art and architecture?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 6.
Who was a great lover of construction of buildings?
(a) Shahjahan
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(c) Babur
(d) Humayun.
Answer:
(a) Shahjahan.

Question 7.
Who built the Taj Mahal?
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Jahangir.
Answer:
(c) Shahjahan.

Question 8.
Who described his interest in planning and laying out formal gardens, placed within rectangular walled enclosures and divided into four quarters by artificial channels?
(a) Shahjahan
(b) Babur
(c) Akbar
(d) Humayun.
Answer:
(b) Babur.

Question 9.
Who constructed court in Red Fort which emphasised connection between royal justice and imperial court?
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Jahangir.
Answer:
(c) Shahjahan.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 10.
Who built the city of Fatehpur Sikri?
(a) Akbar
(b) Shahjahan
(c) Babur
(d) Jahangir
Answer:
(a) Akbar.

Match the following columns :

Question 1.

A B
1. Lingaraja Temple (i) Bhubneshwar
2. Birhadeshvara Temple (ii) Delhi
3. Adhai Din Ka Jhonpara (iii) Fatehpur Sikri
4. Adina Masjid (iv) Khajuraho
5. Humayun’s Tomb (v) Madurai
6. Moti Masjid (vi) Agra.
7. Red Fort (vii) Tanjavur
8. Taj Mahal (viii) Ajmer.

Answers :

A B
1. Lingaraja Temple (i) Bhubneshwar
2. Birhadeshvara Temple (vii) Tanjavur
3. Adhai Din Ka Jhonpara (viii) Ajmer.
4. Adina Mosque (ii) Delhi
5. Humayun’s Tomb (ii) Delhi
6. Moti Masjid (vi) Agra.
7. Red Fort (ii) Delhi
8. Taj Mahal (vi) Agra.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is the largest statue in the world?
Answer:
In Karnataka, a statue of Sharavanbelgola is located at Gomateshvara.

Question 2.
Give a list of temples of North India built from 806-1200 A.D.
Answer:

  1. Jagannath Puri Temple.
  2. Lingaraja Temple of Bhubneshwar.
  3. Sun temple at Konark.
  4. Tejpal Temple at Mount Abu.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 3.
Describe briefly the Birhadeshvara temple of Tanjavur.
Answer:
It is a magnificent example of temple construction in South India. This Lord Shiva temple was built by King Raj Raja I. The main door of this temple is known as ‘Gopuram’. Its height is almost 94 meters.

Question 4.
Describe briefly the Kailash temple at Ellora.
Answer:
This temple is a beautiful example of the building art of Rashtrakuta kings. It was built by Rashtrakuta King Krishna I. This temple has been cut out of rocks. This temple is considered one of the wonders of the world.

Question 5.
Name two buildings built by Mughal Emperor Jahangir.
Answer:
In Sikandara he built Akbar’s Tomb and in Agra, he built Itmad-ud-Daulah’s Tomb.

Question 6.
Shah Jahan built many other buildings besides Taj Mahal. Describe briefly.
Answer:
Shah Jahan built the following buildings besides Taj Mahal:
1. Red Fort: It was built by Shah Jahan in Delhi near the banks of Yamuna in 1639. It is made of red stone. In this castle, there are many beautiful buildings called ‘Rang Mahal’, ‘Diwan-i-Aam’, ‘Diwan-i-Khas’, ‘Shah Burj’ and ‘Khwab-Gah’. It has been decorated with valuable stones, diamonds, gold and silver.

2. Moti Masjid: Moti Masjid has been bruit by Shah Jahan in the Red Fort of Agra. It is made of marble and the expenditure was 3 lakh rupees.

3. Musamman Burj: It is also made of marble. It is very beautiful and looks clearly from Taj Mahal.

4. Shahjahanabad: In 1639 A.D., Shah Jahan founded Shahjahanabad. To make this city, skilled workers were brought from far and wide.

5. Jama Masjid: This is one of the biggest mosques of India. It took 10 years to build it.

6. Jahangir’s Tomb: This tomb was built in Shahdara (Pakistan). It was decorated with marble.

7. Peacock Crown Throne of Shah Jahan: It is placed in Diwan-i-Khas. It is known as Takhat-i-Taus. It is made up of marble. It took 7 years to build it and one crore was the expenditure. In 1739 A.D., Nadir Shah took it to Iran.
Besides the above, Delhi’s Shalimar Bagh and Kashmir’s Wazir Bagh are also very famous.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 12 Monumental Architecture

Question 7.
How did regional kingdoms contribute to architecture?
Answer:
In regional kings we can name the Bahmani kings and Vijaynagar kings :

  1. The Bahmani rulers built Jama Masjid, Char Minar, Madrasa of Mahmud Gawan. In Gulbarga, the tomb of Ferozshah is a beautiful example of building style.
  2. The kings from Vijaynagar made Hajara Rama and Vithal Swami Mandir.
  3. Besides Bahmani and Vijaynagar kings the Jaunpur ruler also built important monuments. The Atala mosque built by them is very famous.

Question 8.
Describe the main features of North India’s temples.
Answer:
From 800 to 1200 A.D., many temples were built in north India. The features are as under :

  • These temples were built in Nagar style. The Khajuraho Temple of Madhya Pradesh is a magnificent piece of Nagar art style.
  • The Tejpal Temple of Mount Abu in Rajashan and other temples have been built in white marble. These temples show the best artistic skill.
  • On the internal sidewalls of the temples beautiful statues have been carved. Whereas, outer side walls are plane.

Question 9.
Write short notes on the following :
1. Monuments constructed by Akbar.
Answer:
Monuments constructed by Akbar. Akbar was a lover of architecture. He built many forts and buildings where red stone was used. The buildings built by Akbar include Jama Masjid, Panch Mahal, Diwan-i-Khas and Diwan-i-Aam. After the victory of Gujarat, he built ‘Buland Darwaza’. His buildings are built on the style of Irani and Hindu building style.

2. Importance of temples in South India.
Answer:
Importance of temples in South India :

  • Raj Rajeshwar Temple built by Chola King Rajraja.
  • Gangaikondcholpuram temple built by the Chola king Rajendra I.
  • The Kailash Temple in Ellora built by Rashtrakuta rulers.
  • Brahdeshwar Temple in Tanjavur.

3. The Taj Mahal.
Answer:
The Taj Mahal. Taj Mahal is the most beautiful building built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. It is located on the banks of river Yamuna. It was built by Shah Jahan in the memory of his beloved wife Begum Mumtaz Mahal. To built the Taj Mahal almost 20,000 workers worked for twenty two years and almost 3 crores were spent as expenditure. Taj Mahal is a beautiful mixture of many building styles. It is made of white marble and decorated with almost 20 types of valuable stones brought from different countries. Because, of its beauty it is counted among the seven wonders of the world.

Question 10.
Make list of the monuments constructed during the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The description is as follows :
1. Monuments by the slave dynasty: Qutab-ud-din built a mosque named Quwat- ul-Islam in Delhi. It has writings from the Holy Quran. In Ajmer he built a mosque named Dhai-Din-Ka-Jhompra. He also started the construction of Qutab Minar near Mahroli in Delhi. But because of his death, the construction could not be completed. Afterwards, his successor Iltutmish completed it. The 70-metre high building has five storeys.

2. Monuments in the period of Ala-ud-din Khalji: The ‘Alai Darwaza’ is the most famous building built by Ala-ud-din Khalji. This door is made up of red stone and white marble. Ala-ud-din Khalji also built a palace with 1000 pillars, Hauz-i- Khas, and a mosque named Jamait Khana.

3. Monuments by Tughlaq rulers:

  • Giasuddin Tughlaq built a city called Tughlaqabad near Delhi.
  • Muhammed-bin-Tughlaq built a city named Jahanpanah.
  • The cities founded by Ferozshah Tughlaq include Firozabad, Firoza, Hisar, and Jaunpur. He built many mosques, schools, bridges, etc.

4. Buildings by Lodhis and Sayyid: These Sultans made tombs of Mubarak Shah and Muhammad Shah. The tomb of Sikandar Lodhi, Bara Gumbad, etc, was built during the Lodhi period.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Acids, Bases and Salts Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 54)

Question 1.
What will be the colour of basic solution after the addition of pehnolphthalein?
Answer:
Adding phenolphthalein to the alkaline solution turns its colour to pink.

Question 2.
Name the products of neutralisation.
Answer:
In the process of neutralisation salt and water are produced in the form of products.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) Acids are …………….. in taste.
Answer:
sour

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

(ii) Litmus and turmeric extract are …………….. indicators.
Answer:
natural

(iii) Phenolphthalein is ………………………… in acidic solution.
Answer:
pink

(iv) Reaction between an acid and a …………………… is called neutralisation reaction.
Answer:
alkali (Base)

(v) Ant’s sting has ………………….. acid.
Answer:
formic

(vi) Excess secretion of hydrochloric acid in stomach, is called ……………………….. .
Answer:
indigestion

(vii) Milk of magnesia is used in case of ……………………. .
Answer:
acidity

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Red litmus changes to blue in (a) Neutralisation
2. Blue litmus changes to red in (b) Zinc Carbonate
3. Reaction between acid and a base (c) Basic solution
4. Formic acid (d) Antbite
5. Calamine (e) Acidic Solution

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Red litmus changes to blue in (c) Basic solution
2. Blue litmus changes to red in (e) Acidic Solution
3. Reaction between acid and a base (a) Neutralisation
4. Formic acid (d) Antbite
5. Calamine (b) Zinc Carbonate

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Vinegar contains :
(a) acetic acid
(c) citric acid
Ans.
(a) acetic acid .

Question (ii)
Tamarind contains :
(a) acetic acid
(b) lactic acid
(c) citric acid
(d) tartaric acid
Answer:
(d) tartaric acid

Question (iii)
The example of natural indicator is
(a) Litmus
(b) Turmeric extract
(c) China rose petals
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question (iv)
The colour of blue litmus in acidic solution in :
(a) purple
(b) blue
(c) red
(d) pink
Answer:
(c) red

Question (v)
Amla contains :
(a) ascorbic acid
(b) quick lime
(c) calmine
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Ascorbic acid

4. Write True or False:

(i) Citric acid is found in tamarind.
Answer:
False

(ii) Ant’s sting has oxalic acid.
Answer:
False

(iii) Turmeric extract gives reddish brown colours in basic solution.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

(iv) Sodium hydroxide turns blue litmus red.
Answer:
False

(v) Organic matter is used to treat acidic soil.
Answer:
False

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Which acid is secreted in our stomach ?
Answer:
Gastric acid is excreted in our stomach.

Question (ii)
Name any two ant acids.
Answer:
Names of two antacids :

  1. Magnesium Hydroxide,
  2. Baking Soda.

Question (iii)
What type of substances are used as ant bites ?
Answer:
Solution of calamine or baking soda is used to treat ant-stings.

Question (iv)
Name any two citric fruits.
Answer:
Names of Citrus Fruits :

  1. Orange,
  2. Lemon,
  3. Grapes.

Question (v)
Why is it essential to treat acidic products ?
Answer:
Factory and industry residues are naturally acidic. If thrown away directly without treatment, it can harm aquatic life. To neutralize them, some base is added to such wastes.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Name the source from which litmus solution is obtained. What is the use of this solution ?
Answer:
The solution of litmus is obtained from a plant called lichens found in nature. A strip of paper dipped in a solution of litmus is called litmus paper and the solution is called litmus solution. It is available as red and blue litmus.
Blue litmus turns red when dissolved in acidic solution and red litmus turns blue when dissolved in alkaline solution.

Question (ii)
Is the distilled water acidic/basic/neutral ? How would you verify it ?
Answer:
Distilled water is neutral. This is confirmed by the addition of litmus with which it gives green colour. The colour of Red litmus and blue litmus remain unchanged when added to distilled water showing that it is neutral in character.

Question (iii)
Describe the process of neutralisation with the help of an example.
Answer:
Neutralisation. The chemical reaction between an acid and an alkali is called neutralisation. As energy is released, salt and water are formed as products.
Acid + Alkali → Salt + Water + Heat (Energy)
Example : Hydrochloric Acid + Sodium Hydroxide → Sodium chloride + Water + Energy

Experiment: Fill a quarter of a test tube with dilute hydrochloric acid. Now add 2-3 drops of phenolphthalein solution (indicator) and note the color of the test tube solution. Now with the help of a dropper add a few drops of sodium hydroxide (alkali) in the test tube and gently shake the test tube. To the solution while stirring constantly, add Sodium hydroxide (alkali) solution till it turns light pink.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
Now mix a drop of dilute Hydrochloric acid to it. You will notice that the color of the solution has disappeared (colourless) again. It is clear from this that phenolphthalein is pink in color as long as the solution is alkaline and the solution becomes colourless when the solution becomes acidic.

By mixing alkali solution with acid solution, they react with each other to neutralize the solution, i.e. the nature of acid and base gets cancelled out. This reaction is called Neutralisation.

Question (iv)
Name any two common acids and two common bases.
Answer:
Common acids. (1) Hydrochloric acid. (2) Sulphuric acid.
Common Bases. (1) Sodium hydroxide, (2) Calcium hydroxide

Question (v)
What are indicators ? Write their types and two examples of each.
Answer:
Indicators. Solution of substances that on reaction with acids, alkalis and neutral substances, give different colours, they are called indicators.
Types of indicators. There are two types of indicators:

  1. Natural indicators. These are indicators that are obtained from plants such as litmus, turmeric, China rose petals etc.
  2. Synthetic Indicators. These are indicators that are prepared in the laboratory, such as phenolphthalein and methyl orange etc.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
State differences between acids and bases.
Answer:
Differences between Acids and Bases :

Acids Bases
1. They are sour in taste.

2. They change the solution of blue litmus to red.

3. They don’t seem like soap when touched.

4. It doesn’t change colour of phenolphthalein solution.

5. They react with bases to produce salt, water and heat.

 1. They are bitter in taste.

2. They change solution of red litmus to blue color.

3. They appear like soap when touched.

4. They react with phenolphthalein solution to make it pink.

5. They react with acid to produce salt, water and heat.

Question (ii)
Name the acid present in : (1) Vinegar (2) tamarind (3) citrus fruits and (4) curd.
Answer:
Substance The name of the acid

1. Vinegar  1. Acetic acid
2. Tamarind  2. Tartaric acid
3. Citric fruit  3. Citric acid
4. Spinach  4. Oxalic acid
5. Yogurt  5. Lactic acid

Question (iii)
You are given hydrochloric acid solution, sodium hydroxide solution and water in three different bottles. How would you check which bottle has which compound ?
Answer:
1. Take three test tubes. Take a few drops of the solution from each bottle separately in these three test tubes. Now add three drops of phenolphthalein solution to each of these test tubes. The test tube in which pink colour is observed contains base (Sodium Hydroxide) while the colour will not change in the other two test tubes.

2. Wash the test tubes and again take 5-5 drops of each solution in three different test tubes as before. Now put two drops of blue litmus in these test tubes. The test tube in which the blue litmus turns red contains acid (Hydrochloric acid).

3. Now we know that the third test tube contains water in which red and blue litmus don’t show any change.
In this way, we can find out which solution is present in which bottle.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Acids, Bases and Salts Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(ii) is used to cure indigestion.
Answer:

(iii) Treatment of soil acidity is done by adding
Answer:
Lime

(iv) on reaction with a solution of phenolphthalein turn it pink.
Answer:
Alkali

(v) In the process of Neutralisation and are produced as a products.
Answer:
Salt, water

2. Match the Column A with Column B:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Gooseberries (a) Acetic acid
(ii) Indigestion (b) Quick lime
(iii) Vinegar (c) Milk of Magnesia
(iv) Treatment of acidic soil (d) Ascorbic acid

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(i) Gooseberries (d) Ascorbic acid
(ii) Indigestion (c) Milk of Magnesia
(iii) Vinegar (a) Acetic acid
(iv) Treatment of acidic soil (b) Quick lime

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Curd tastes sour so it is :
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) salt
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) acidic.

Question (ii)
Bases are :
(a) sour
(b) saltish
(c) bitter
(d) Neither sour nor sweet.
Ans.
(c) bitter.

Question (iii)
The acid present in vinegar is :
(a) Formic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Lactic acid.
Answer:
(c) Acetic acid.

Question (iv)
The acid present in curd is :
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Formic acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) Lactic acid.
Answer:
(d) Lactic acid.

(a) Calcium hydroxide
(b) turns blue litmus paper to red.
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(a) Calcium hydroxide.

Acidic solution:
(a) turns red litmus paper to blue
(b) turns blue litmus paper to red
(c) neither turns blue litmus paper to red nor red litmus to blue
(d) None of these.

4. State True or False:

(i) Nitric acid turns red litmus blue.
Answer:
False

(ii) Sodium hydroxide turns blue litmus red.
Answer:
False

(iii) Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid neutralize each other and form salt and water.
Answer:
True

(iv) Indicator is a substance which shows different colours in acidic and basic solution.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

(v) Tooth decay is caused by the presence of a base.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name different types of substances based on their chemical nature.
Answer:

  1. Acidic
  2. Basic
  3. Neutral.

Question 2.
Name few substances that contain natural acids.
Answer:
Curd, lemon juice, orange juice, vinegar.

Question 3.
Name few substances which are basic in nature.
Answer:
Washing soda, baking soda.

Question 4.
Name the substance which is used to test the nature of chemical compounds.
Answer:
Indicator.

Question 5.
Name few natural indicators.
Answer:
Turmeric, litmus, China rose petals.

Question 6.
Which acid is present in curd ?
Answer:
Lactic acid.

Question 7.
What is household name of Acetic acid ?
Answer:
Vinegar.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 8.
Amla is rich in which acid ?
Answer:
Ascorbic acid.

Question 9.
What is lime water ?
Answer:
It is calcium hydroxide, a base.

Question 10.
Name a base found in soaps.
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide.

Question 11.
What is use of Ammonium hydroxide ?
Answer:
For cleaning window glass panes.

Question 12.
What is source of litmus ?
Answer:
Lichens.

Question 13.
What are neutral substances ?
Answer:
Neutral Substances. The substances which do not change the colour of either blue or red litmus, are neutral substances.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the properties of bases.
Answer:
Properties of Bases,

  1. Bases are bitter to taste.
  2. All alkalies have a slippery touch much like that of soap.
  3. Bases turn red litmus paper blue.
  4. Bases turn phenolphthalein solution from colourless to pink.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.
Write the properties of acids.
Answer:
Properties of Acids.

  1. Acids turn blue litmus red.
  2. Acids contain hydrogen atom.
  3. Acids are sour in taste.
  4. Acids react with bases to form salt and water.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 3.
What is an indicator ? Name an indicator.
Answer:
Indicator. The chemicals or substances which give different colours with acids and bases, are known as acid-base indicators or simply indicators.
Phenolphthalein is another indicator which gives pink colour in alkaline solution and is colourless in acidic solution.

Question 4.
What is neutralization reaction ?
Answer:
Neutralization reaction. The process of treating an acid with an alkali/base to form a salt and water, is called neutralization reaction.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

Question 5.
How the salts are formed?
Answer:
Salts. Salts are formed when an acid reacts with a base or salt is a compound which is formed by combination of acid with base.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

Question 6.
Three liquids are given to you. One is hydrochloric acid, another is sodium hydroxide and third is a sugar solution. How will you identify them ? You have only turmeric powder.
Answer:
Turmeric powder is a natural indicator. With turmeric powder, turmeric strips are prepared which give different colour in three given liquids.

Question 7.
Blue litmus paper when dipped in a solution remains blue. What is the nature of the solution ? Explain.
Answer:
Acids turn blue litmus red while bases do not change the colour of blue litmus. Therefore, the given solution is base as it has not changed the colour of blue litmus paper.

Question 8.
Explain why :
(i) An antacid tablet is taken when you suffer from acidity.
(ii) Calamine solution is applied on skin when an ant bites.
(ii) Factory waste is neutralized before disposing it into the water bodies.
Answer:
(i) An antacid tablet is taken when you suffer from acidity. To neutralize acidity, antacid tablet such as milk of magnesia is taken because it contains Magnesium hydroxide (base) which neutralizes the effect of acids.

(ii) Calamine solution is applied on skin when an ant bites. Ant bite contains formic acid which gets neutralized by calamine solution (zinc carbonate).

(iii) Factory waste is neutralized before disposing it into the water bodies. Factory waste usually contains acids, so they have to be neutralized as they can kill aquatic animals and plants. Some basic substances are used to neutralize such wastes.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 9.
What are the uses of neutralization in our daily life? Explain in detail.
Answer:
Uses of Neutralisation in daily life:
(i) As Antacids.
We know that in human stomach acid is produced called as stomach acids which contain hydrochloric acid which helps in digestion of food. But too much of it can cause indigestion, abdominal pain, and heartburn, which is called acidity. To neutralize this excess acid, some mild alkali is used to relieve the pain. Such substances are called antacids, such as milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide), baking soda, etc.

(ii) As a treatment for insect stings.
Different species of insects such as; bees, wasps, spiders, and ants, etc. release formic acid in the body when they sting our body. The effect of formic acid can be reduced by neutralizing it with some mild alkali, such as baking soda or calamine solution.

(iii) As a treatment for soil acidity and alkalinity.
The presence of certain substances makes the soil more acidic or more alkaline. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers makes the soil acidic. Soil should be neutral for the proper growth and development of plants. Soils are tested and if it is acidic, it is treated with lime (calcium oxide), Quick lime (Calcium hydroxide), etc. But if the soil is alkaline, it is mixed with organic matter which releases acid and neutralizes the alkali present in the soil.

(iv) As a treatment for factory wastes.
Industry and factory wastes are naturally acidic. If it is thrown away directly, it can affect and harm aquatic life. Therefore, it is important to neutralize the acid present in that waste. So some alkali is added to treat it.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 9 Soil Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Soil

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Soil Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 103)

Question 1.
What is the chemical nature of the soil having pH is 3 ?
Answer:
The chemical nature of soil with pH value is acidic.

Question 2.
What is the chemical nature of soil having pH 10 ?
Answer:
Soil with pH value of 10 is alkaline.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

Question 3.
Write down the pH of neutral soil.
Answer:
Neutral soils have pH of 7.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 104)

Question 1.
In which type of soil rate of percolation is highest ?
Answer:
Sandy soils have the highest water leaching (leakage) rate.

Question 2.
Which soil has maximum water retention capacity ?
Answer:
Clay by soil has the highest water retention capacity.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 106)

Question 1.
Why is soil tilled or ploughed ?
Answer:
Soil is ploughed to make the soil loose and porous.

Question 2.
What is the use of air present in soil ?
Answer:
The roots of the plants use the air present in the soil.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Soil Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The top layer of earth upto a depth of 30-40 cm where crops can grow is called ………………..
Answer:
Soil

(ii) A section of earth shows …………………. of soil.
Answer:
Layers

(iii) Acidic nature or alkaline nature of soil can be tested by using a …………………. .
Answer:
pH paper

(iv) ………………… has the finest particles which can even pass through muslin cloth.
Answer:
Clayey soil

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

(v) ………………. soil has least water retention capacity.
Answer:
sand

(vi) ……………….. soil is best for growing crops.
Answer:
Loamy and clayey

(vii) In western states of India like Gujarat and Maharashtra, the soil is of ………………… colour.
Answer:
Black

(viii) ………………… is used by potters for making earthen pots.
Answer:
Clay

(ix) The soil which is used for making cement is ………………….. .
Answer:
Clayey soil

(x) Bricks are made from ………………….. .
Answer:
sandy soil

2. State True or False:

(i) pH paper is used to test the acidic or alkaline nature of soil.
Answer:
True

(ii) Below a depth of 100 cm, the layer of earth is called soil.
Answer:
False

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

(iii) All crops grow better in sandy soil.
Answer:
False

(iv) Overgrazing of pasture lands is also responsible for soil erosion.
Answer:
True

(v) Mining can check soil erosion.
Answer:
False

(vi) Water can easily percolate through clayey soils.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Water can easily percolate through (a) Pollution of soil
2. This soil is best for growing cotton. (b) Soil erosion
3. Polythene, plastic and use of insecticides cause (c) Clay
4. Mining, overgrazing and deforestation cause (d) Black Soil
5. This soil is used in the manufacture of cement (e) Sandy Soil

Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1. Water can easily percolate through (e) Sandy Soil
2. This soil is best for growing cotton. (d) Black Soil
3. Polythene, plastic and use of insecticides cause (a) Pollution of soil
4. Mining, overgrazing and deforestation cause (b) Soil erosion
5. This soil is used in the manufacture of cement (c) Clay

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of these does not cause soil erosion ?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Building of check dams
(c) Grazing cattle
(d) Mining.
Answer:
(b) Building of check dams.

Question(ii)
Soil is polluted by:
(a) Rotation of crops
(b) Use of manure
(c) Use of insecticides and chemical fertilizers
(d) Using green manure.
Answer:
(b) Use of manure.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

Question (iii)
Soil is not used for:
(a) Making insecticides
(b) Making check dams
(c) Making cement
(d) Making earthen pots
Answer:
(c) Making cement.

Question (iv)
Which of the following can check soil erosion ?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Grazing of cattle
d) Mining.
Answer:
(c) Grazing of cattle.

Question (v)
Soil is used for.
(a) Making cement
(b) Growing crops
(c) Making Dams
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Making Dams.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is humus ?
Answer:
Humus. The dead and rotten leaves of plants or plants, insects or dead animals buried in the soil, animal dung, etc. combine to form organic matter of the soil called Humus.

Question (ii)
Name the organic constituents of soil.
Answer
Organic constituents of soil.

  1. Dead and decaying leaves of plants
  2. Bodies of dead animals
  3. Animal dung etc.

Question (iii)
Name the inorganic constituents of soil.
Answer
Inorganic components of Soil.

  1. sand,
  2. gravel,
  3. clay and
  4. mineral.

Question (iv)
What do you mean by loamy soil ?
Answer
Loamy soils. Soil whose particle size is between the size of sandy soil and clayey soil. This soil is best for crops.

Question (v)
Define soil erosion.
Answer:
Soil Erosion. Loss of topsoil due to strong winds, heavy rains, floods or other factors is called Soil erosion.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is Soil Profile ?
Answer:
Soil Profile. A horizontal (or flat) Section passing through different layers of soil is called cut soil profile. The soil layout layers are as follows :

  1. organic layer,
  2. top soil,
  3. bottom soil. Soil,
  4. rock fragments,
  5. rocky solid floor.

Question (ii)
Draw a labelled diagram of a Soil Profile.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil 1
Layers of Soil Profile:

  1. Mulch (organic layer)
  2. Top soil
  3. Sub soil
  4. Rock Fragments
  5. Bed rock

Question (iii)
How does sod get polluted ?
Answer:
Soil Pollution.
Soil pollution occurs due to the presence of unwanted and harmful substances in the soil. The soil is polluted by the following human activities:

1. Increased use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers. We use more pesticides and chemical fertilizers for higher crop yields. All these pesticides and chemical fertilizers remain in the soil due to their non-biodegradable nature which leads to soil contamination.

2. Waste of Industry. Many factories dumps their factory toxic waste in the surrounding areas, which results in soil pollution.

3. Polythene and plastic waste. Many chemicals are used in the manufacture of plastics and polythene. All plastics and polythene are non-biodegradable. When we throw plastic or polythene waste here and there then they remain lying in the soil due to which the soil becomes polluted.

Question (iv)
Why should we plant more bamboo plants ?
Answer:
Cattles need to be grazed in north-hilly and semi-mountainous areas. Grass is repeatedly eaten by cattle as a result of which the top layer of soil becomes bare and loose. As a result, the soil erodes quickly. Bamboo plants are very helpful in controlling soil erosion. So to prevent soil erosion plant as many plants as possible.

Question (v)
List the differences between clayey soil and sandy soil.
Answer:
Differences between clayey soil and sandy soil :

Clayey Soil Sandy Soil
(1) Particles of clayey soil are less than 0.005 mm in size. (1) Sand particles size vary from 0.05mm to 2mm.
(2) It contains humus. (2) It doesn’t contain humus.
(3) There is no empty space in its particles. (3) It has space in between its particles
(4) Doesn’t allow water to percolate. (4) It allows water to percolate through.
(5) It is used to make toys, utensils and sculptures (5) It is not used to make toys and utensils.
(6) It is sticky. (6) It is not sticky.

Question (vi)
What is a Check Dam ? Why is it built ?
Answer:
Check Dam.
Temporary or small dams are built on drains and canals in mountainous areas so that high speed water can be slowed down and used for irrigation. Doing so can help prevent soil erosion and maintain the fertility of the land. Apart from this, water is collected for irrigation for non-rainy days by stopping water during monsoon.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain how is soil formed ?
Answer:
Formation of Soil.
Many years ago the earth was hard and rocky. With the passage of time, the rocks were broken into small particles by earthquakes. Rain and river water turned these small particles into more fine particles and carried them away with them. This is how soil was formed.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

Question (ii)
Explain the various factors responsible for soil erosion.
Answer:
Factors responsible for soil erosion:

  • Floods. Floods wash away the fertile topsoil. Sometimes the crops are washed away with flood water.
  • Wind and Storms. Very strong winds and storms blow away the topsoil and cause soil erosion.
  • Deforestation. When wild trees are failed down or the trees are uprooted, the soil becomes soft and loose and is easily washed away.
  • Over grazing. When animals repeatedly graze a grass field, the top layer of soil becomes bare and loose and is easily eroded.
  • Mining. Mining sand, gravel, or minerals become major fector for soil erosion.

Question (iii)
How is soil erosion checked ? Explain.
Answer:
The following steps are taken to check soil erosion:
(i) Planting of trees. Maximum number of local trees should be planted on barren hills and on flat lands grass should be grown. Bamboo plants are very, helpful in preventing erosion of the soil. Therefore, bamboo trees should be planted in hilly and semi-hilly areas.

(ii) Controlling the excavation of mines. Mining should be controlled. The digging should be done in such a way that the mining areas do not become pfond to landslides and soil erosion.

(iii) Grazing alternately. Animals should not be grazed continuously in the same area. After a while, the grazed place should be left empty and undisturbed and the animals should be grazed elsewhere.

(iv) Constructing check dams. Check dams should be constructed on small streams and drains in hilly areas. This will help to reduce soil erosion.

Question (iv)
Classify the soil on the basis of size of particles.
Answer:
Soil classification. Depending on the size of the particles, soil classified as sandy, rocky or loamy.

  • Clay. It is a soil whose particles are very fine, like dust and can also pass through muslin cloth. When water is added, it turns into mud and hardens on drying. Such clay is used to make pottery and utensils.
  • Sandy Soil. It’s particles are larger than clay particles. These particles cannot pass through the muslin cloth. Desert soils are usually sandy. Water is not retained in this type of soil.
  • Rocky Soils. Such soil particles are very large and can be picked by hand. Such particles cannot even pass through a filter.
  • Loamy Soil. The size of loamy soil particles is between the size of sand and clay particles. This type of soil is best for crops.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Soil Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The …………………. layer of earth in which crops can be grown is called soil.
Answer:
upper most

(ii) Particle size of ………………. soil lie between particle size of sand and clay.
Answer:
loam

(iii) The pH of ………………. soil lie between 8 to 14.
Answer:
Alkaline

(iv) Loss of top layer of soil is called ………………..
Answer:
soil erosion

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

(v) Inclusion of unwanted and harmful substances in the soil is called …………………
Answer:
soil pollution

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) A home for living organisms (a) Large particles
(ii) Upper layer of soil (b) All kinds of soil
(iii) Sandy soil (c) Dark in colour
(iv) Middle layer of the soil (d) Small particles and packed closely.
(v) Clayey soil (e) Lesser amount of humus

Answer:

Column ‘I’ Column ‘II’
(i) A home for living organisms (b) All kinds of soil.
(ii) Upper layer of soil (c) Dark in colour.
(iii) Sandy soil (a) Large particles.
(iv) Middle layer of the soil (e) lesser amount of humus
(v) Clayey soil (d) Small particles and packed closely.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The removal of top layer of soil by water and wind is called ……………………. .
(a) Soil pollution
(b) Soil erosion
(c) Soil profile
(d) Weathering.
Answer:
(b) Soil erosion.

Question (ii)
Which soil is the best for agriculture ?
(a) Loamy
(b) Sandy
(c) Clayey
(d) Sandy & Loamy.
Answer:
(a) Loamy.

Question (iii)
Which soil is better for pulse s ?
(a) Clayey
(b) Sandy
(c) Sandy and Loamy
(d) Loamy.
Answer:
(d) Loamy.

Question (iv)
Which layer of the soil is rich in minerals ?
(a) A-Horizon
(b) B-Horizon
(c) C-Horizon
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) B-Horizon.

Question (v)
Which soil is well aerated ?
(a) Clayey
(b) Loamy
(c) Sandy and Loamy
(d) Sandy.
Answer:
(d) Sandy.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

Question (vi)
The uppermost laver of earth’s crust is called
(a) Soil
(b) Wind
(c) Water
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Soil.

State True or False:

(i) Chemical fertilizers pollute the soil.
Answer:
True

(ii) From surface 30-40 cm deep layer of Earth in which plants can grow is called soil.
Answer:
True

(iii) The soil which contains iron salts is good for growing cotton.
Answer:
True

(iv) It only takes a few months for the top layer of soil to form.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is soil ?
Answer:
Soil. The uppermost layer of earth’s crust is soil.

Question 2.
Are all the particles of soil of same size ?
Answer:
No, all the particles of soil are not of same size even the shape and colour of different soils is different.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

Question 3.
On which factors, soil layers can be differentiated ?
Answer:
Soil colour, texture, depth and chemical composition.

Question 4.
Name the organisms found is soil.
Answer:
Worms, rodents, moles, beetles.

Question 5.
What is nature of bed rock ?
Answer:
Bed rock is hard in nature.

Question 6.
Which soil is well aerated ?
Answer:
Sandy soil.

Question 7.
Which soil is good for rice ?
Answer:
Clayey soil.

Question 8.
Which soil can retain more water ?
Answer:
Top soil.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is good for pulses ?
Answer:
Loamy soil.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

Short Answer Type Qucstions

Question 1.
Explain the soil as a medium for growth of plants.
Answer:
Plants need soil to grow in as roots of plant take water and minerals from the soil. Soil also holds firmly the roots of plants, thus giving them support.

Question 2.
How can you call soil as a natural resource ?
Answer:
Soil as a natural resource. Soil is one of the most important natural land resource. Greenary on earth is possible only due to soil. Plants need soil to grow, for support and for nutrients.

Soil is main vital support to the living world. It provides the basic building material for shelter, bricks and mortar. Soil is also source of many elements such as aluminium, potassium etc. It also acts as good habitat for many organisms.

Question 3.
How is clayey soil useful for crops?
Answer:
Clayey soil has more power of retaining water. Clayey soil is rich in humus and is, therefore, very fertile. So it is good for crops.

Question 4.
Explain how soil pollution and soil erosion could be prevented.
Answer:
Prevention of Soil pollution:

  1. Ban on plastic and polythene bags.
  2. Treatment of waste before dumping it in the soil.

Prevention of soil erosion:

  1. Growing trees (cultivation)
  2. Crop rotation.
  3. Embankment of rivers.
  4. Afforestation.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write uses of soil.
Answer:
Soil is the topmost layer of the earth’s crust. It is formed due to the breaking down of rocks by the action of heat from the sun, wind, and water.
Different uses of soil are:

  • Soil is one of the most important natural resources.
  • Soil supports the growth of plants by holding the roots firmly and supplying water and nutrients.
  • Soil is the home of many organisms.
  • Soil is essential for agriculture. Agriculture provides food, clothing, and shelter for all.
  • Soil is thus an inseparable part of our life.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment – Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Human Environment – Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Human Environment – Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Human Environment – Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Write down the answers to the following questions in approximately 1-15 words.

Question 1.
How does agriculture affect human settlement?
Answer:
Man was a nomad in the beginning. He used to look for his food in jungles. But when agriculture developed, he stayed at one place and thus settlements developed.

Question 2.
Where did people live, first of all?
Answer:
In the earlier times man would stay at the places, where water was easily available. Water fulfils many domestic and agricultural needs. So the early civilization developed near river valleys.

Question 3.
How does a topography of a place affect the development of human settlement of a place?
Answer:
It is easy to develop settlement on level surfaces. Here there are facilities of agriculture, means of transportation and communication. That is why most of the cities are in the northern plains of India. But on the uneven surfaces of the mountains there are limitations of rail, road transport, agriculture and as a result business is at a low level.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 4.
How are roadways important?
Answer:
Road transport is the earliest mode of transport. It gives us door-to-door service. Roads can also be constructed in mountainous regions. Construction of roads is also cheaper than building of railway tracks.

II. Write down the answers to the following questions in approximately 50-60 words.

Question 1.
Write down the importance of railways while explaining them.
Answer:
Railways are an important means of transportation. The travellers can travel in great numbers over long distances in a comfortable way with the help of railways. The materials can also be transported easily. Initially the rail engines were coal-driven, but now diesel engines and electric engines have come into existence.

Metro Railways: It is the underground railway network. Because of increasing population the road transportation becomes jam-packed. So underground railway network solves this problem. In Delhi Metro railway has become very important.

Main Railways of the World: In Europe and North America there is a great railway network. Now alongside the coastal areas of all continents, railways has been built. The railways of Russia (C.J.S.) joins St. Petersberg with Valadivastak. This railway line is known as Trans-Siberian Railway. It is the longest railway in the world. Similarly in Japan mainly the travellers travel by railways. Japan and France have almost the fastest running rails in the world. The bullet train of Japan runs with a speed of 500 km. per hr.

Importance of Railways: Railway is a major medium of land transport in modern times. Railways are important from economic, social and political point of view.

  • These help in the development of minerals of an area.
  • Railways carry raw materials to industrial areas and distribute manufactured goods to the market.
  • Railways promote trade.
  • It is convenient for long distances.

Question 2.
Write about the important waterways/ocean routes of the world.
Answer:
The waterways are the cheapest source of transportation.

The main waterways are as follows :

  1. North Atlantic Ocean ways
  2. Pacific Ocean ways
  3. Cape ways
  4. Sueze Canal ways
  5. Panama Canal ways.

Question 3.
Write about the internal waterways?
Answer:
The rivers and lakes are the internal waterways of the world.

Their names are as follows :

  1. In India the Ganges way, the Brahmaputra way and lakes located in Kerala.
  2. The Denub river of Europe joins middle and south Europe with Black sea.
  3. In China Yangste Kiang river.
  4. Amazon river in South America.
  5. There are five lakes in North America which join Canada and U.S.A.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 4.
World has become a Global Village with the development of Airways, illustrate the fact with example.
Answer:
Air transport. Since ancient times, men have wanted to fly. The first successful flight by aeroplane was made by the American Wright Brothers in 1903. Many developments during the 20th century have revolutionized air transport.

Air transport is the quickest means of transport. It needs no expenditure on the construction of air routes. It can cross physical barriers like mountains, oceans and deserts. But it is a costly means of transport. It is useful for transporting passengers, mails, food supplies and commodities of high value.

Factors affecting air transport :

  • Air routes generally follow great circles to fly over the shortest distance.
  • Air transport needs clear weather. Low clouds, fog, dust storms and snow are big handicaps.
  • The construction of aerodromes need level land.
  • Air transport requires huge capital.
  • The air transport needs adequate equipment and machinery.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication 1

In many countries of the world like London, Paris, Moscow, Tokyo, Saudi Arab and Dubai, very big airports have been established.

Question 5.
Which are the means of communication, what is the advantage of their development?
Answer:
The means of communication increase mutual coordination of human race. The voice of one person can be sent to another person or many persons very easily in any part of the worlds e.g with internet we can join our heads with the whole world. These days it is the cheapest source of interacting with others. With the help of Internet we can get information from any part of the world and about anything in the world. Moreover, postal services, telegram, telephones, cellphones radio, magazines and newspapers are the chief means of communication.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 6.
Write in detail about Suez Canal.
Answer:
Suez canal water way joins the European countries with South Asian Countries as well as African and Australian Continents. This canal also joins Equatorial sea with Red sea.

III. Activities:
With the help of Atlas and your teacher.

Question 1.
Show the Suez Canal and Panama canal on the world map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Show important airways on the world map.
Answer:
Do it with the help of your teacher.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Human Environment – Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which is not a means of communication?
(a) Telephone
(b) Books
(c) Newspaper
(d) Table.
Answer:
(d) Table.

Question 2.
Which mode of transport is most suitable to reach an island?
(a) Ship
(b) Train
(c) Car
(d) Aeroplane.
Answer:
(a) Ship.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 3.
Which type of road is constructed under the ground?
(a) Flyover
(b) Expressways
(c) Subways
(d) Roads.
Answer:
(c) Subways.

Question 4.
India ranks in development of railways in Asia :
(b) Second
(d) Fourth.
Answer:
(a) First.

Question 5.
Which is the fast means of communication?
(a) Telephone
(b) Telegraph
(c) Newspaper
(d) E-mail.
Answer:
(d) E-mail.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
________ sea and sea are the two seas joined by Suez canal.
Answer:
Red, Equatorial

Question 2.
Kolkata and Chennai are two ports on ________ coast of India.
Answer:
Eastern

Question 3.
Ganga is an ________waterway of India.
Answer:
Internal

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 4.
Subways is a type of ________ constructed under the ground.
Answer:
Road

Question 5.
________ transport is the main means of international trade.
Answer:
Water.

True/False :

Question 1.
The surroundings of human race are called the environment.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Delhi is a city where there is Metro railways.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Denube river is interval waterways of Russia.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Closely built area of houses are called compact settlements.
Answer:
True.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 5.
Internet is a means of communication.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by environment?
Answer:
The surroundings of human race are called environment.

Question 2.
Describe the revolutions in the life of early man.
Answer:
Fire, clothing and settlements were the great revolutions in the life of early man.

Question 3.
Why did agriculture develop in River valleys?
Answer:
Because of fertile soil.

Question 4.
What do you mean by skyscrapers?
Answer:
The sky-touching multi-storey buildings.

Question 5.
What is the meaning of ‘Global Village’?
Answer:
Because of the fast means of transportation and communication, tne big world has become a small place and is called ‘Global Village’ these days.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 6.
Give the name of a city where there is Metro railways.
Answer:
Delhi.

Question 7.
Give the name of one Inter-continental Railways of Russia.
Answer:
The Trans-Siberian Railways.

Question 8.
Which are the cities combined by Trans-Siberian Railways?
Answer:
Saint Petersberg in the West with Vladivostok in the East.

Question 9.
Tell the name and speed of the fast moving train of Japan.
Answer:
Bullet train with a speed of 500 km per hour.

Question 10.
Where do we get waterways?
Answer:
In oceans, seas, rivers, canals, lakes, etc.

Question 11.
Name the biggest Railway in the world.
Answer:
Trans-Siberian Railway.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 12.
Name one internal waterways of Europe.
Answer:
Denube River.

Question 13.
Name one internal waterways of North America.
Answer:
Five Great Lakes.

Question 14.
Name two internal waterways of India.
Answer:
The Ganges and the Brahmaputra.

Question 15.
Which are the products sent through pipelines?
Answer:
Oil and gas.

Question 16.
How is electricity sent at different places?
Answer:
Through electric grid.

Question 17.
Who discovered aeroplane?
Answer:
Wright Brothers of America.

Question 18.
Write the names of two ports on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Kolkata and Chennai.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 19.
Name two brand new means of communication.
Answer:
Internet and mobile phones.

Question 20.
Which are the two seas joined by Suez Canal?
Answer:
Red sea and equatorial sea.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why did the old civilizations develop in River Valleys?
Answer:
There was easy availability of water. The soil was fertile, development of agriculture was possible. Residential settlements were easy to be built on even surfaces. That is why thOe best examples come from Indus Valley (India) and Nile river valley civilization (Egypt).

Question 2.
What type of changes have taken place in human settlements?
Answer:
The group of houses is called human settlements. Before that it was nomadic life for the man. Then the huts and houses were built. After that skyscrapers and multi-storey flats and buildings came into existence.

Question 3.
Why did the man settle? Give four reasons.
Answer:

  1. Increase in population.
  2. Development in industries.
  3. Development in agriculture.
  4. Industrial development.

Question 4.
The cities with the means of transportation become important commercial centres. Why?
Answer:

  • Easy availbility of products.
  • Increase in commercial profitability.
  • Existence of cultural and trading institutions.
  • Development of rails, roads and ports.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 5.
Why do we need metro railways?
Answer:

  • There is lack of land for railway lines so underground is the best possible way.
  • Increase in population leads to increase in the number of travellers.
  • To save the cities from traffic congestion.

Question 6.
What is the importance of Trans-Siberian Railways?
Answer:
It is the longest railways of the world. It opens inter-continental route, it joins St. Petersberg and Vladivostok cities. On this long railway the transportation of coal, iron, wood and grains takes place.

Question 7.
Explain the advantages of the waterways. Why it is the cheapest means of transportation?
Answer:

  • It is good means for sea voyages.
  • Main means of international trades.
  • Cheapest means of transport, because fuel consumption is less and carrying capacity is more.
  • No expenditure on making waterways.
  • The cargo can be sent on large scale at less cost.

Question 8.
Describe the air services in India.
Answer:
In India the air services have an important role to play. Because of Indian Airline and other private domestic Airlines have joined all the important cities in India. The international flights of Air India and Indian Airlines transport Indian travellers to different parts of the world. The main air-ports are in the cities of Amritsar, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 9.
Name the different types of means of transport.
Answer:
There are three main types of transport.

  1. Land transport includes roads, railways
  2. Ocean transport includes inland waterways and ocean routes
  3. Air transport includes airways.

Question 10.
Why is the road transport easier?
Answer:
Road is a major medium of land transport. It is the cheapest and the quikest means of transport for shorter distances. The roads link the fields and farms to factories, and the goods can be delivered right to the doorsteps of the consumers. Roads can be constructed in rough and undulating terrain. Dense network of roads has been the basis of development in European countries.

Question 11.
Describe the importance of Railways.
Answer:
Railway is a major medium of land transport in modern times. Railways are important from economic, social and political point of view.

  1. These help in the development of minerals of an area.
  2. Railways carry raw materials to industrial areas and distribute manufactured goods to the market.
  3. Railways promote trade.
  4. It is convenient for long distances.

Question 12.
Give an account of man’s progress to the stage of permanent settlements.
Answer:
Man has an extraordinary ability to survive even in difficult environment. First he used to do hunting and food gathering. He moved from place to place and led a nomadic life. Invention of farming as well as tools helped him to devise methods to grow food at one place. Agriculture needed constant attention from growing to harvesting stage. Gradually the concept of permanent settlements took shape.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 13.
Give information about waterways of the world: Also give the names of the main ports of India.
Answer:
Main waterways of the world
The waterways are the cheapest source of transportation. The main waterways areas ahead :

  1. North Atlantic Ocean ways
  2. Pacific Ocean ways
  3. Cape ways
  4. Suez Canal ways
  5. Panama Canal ways.

Main ports of India. Kolkata, Chennai, Cochin, Goa, Kandala and Vishakhapatnam are the main ports of India.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the importance of Highways.
Answer:
Land transport includes paths, unmetalled and metalled roads and highways. Roads have been used by man since the earliest times. Land transport develops according to nature of the land. In modem times the use of cemented roads and automobiles has increased the importance of roads. Roads are tiie basis of civilization. Roads link the fields and farms to the factories, factories to markets, and the goods can be delivered right at the door steps of the consumer. Roads can be constructed in inaccessible areas where railways and waterways are not easy to construct.

Question 2.
“Transport and communications are necessary infrastructures for the economic advancement of a country.’ Explain.
Answer:
Transport and communications constitute the infrastructure for the growth and development of agriculture, industry and trade of a country.

  1. The production and exchange of agricultural products depend on means of transportation.
  2. Developed means of transport are essential for assembling raw material for different industries. The manufactured goods are sent to markets at a low cost of transportation.
  3. An efficient system of transport is essential for the growth of trade of country.

As a matter of fact, the developed means of transport are an index of a country’s
economic development. Transport and communications serve as ‘life lines’ of a country’s development. These can be compared to arteries and veins of a nation.

Question 3.
The expansion of the means of transport and communications is shrinking the world. Discuss.
Answer:
With the modern developments in transportation and communications, man has controlled time and distance. During the past 50 years, the world’s means of transport and communication have been revolutionised. These changes have been marked with more rapid movement from place to place.

The ocean transport has served as a global, unbroken link between distant lands. The development of air transport has reduced the element of time. The major countries of the world are connected by air routes. Air transport has conquered physical barriers. The inter-continental air routes over the oceans have linked different continents. These fast means of transport have brought different areas closer to each other. It appears as if the world is shrinking day by day and we are living in a’smaller world.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 4.
Describe the development of Air Transport.
Answer:
Air transport. Since ancient times, men have wanted to fly. The first successful flight by aeroplane was made by the American Wright Brothers in 1903.-Many developments during the 20th century have revolutionized air transport.

Air transport is the quickest means of transport. It needs- no expenditure on the construction of air routes. It can cross physical barriers like mountains, oceans and deserts. But it is a costly means of transport. It is useful for transporting passengers, mails, food supplies and commodities of high value.

Factors affecting air transport :

  • Air routes generally follow great circles to fly over the shortest distance.
  • Air transport needs clear wheater. Low clouds, fog, dust storm and snow are big handicaps.
  • The construction of aerodromes need level land.
  • Air transport requires huge capital.
  • The air transport needs adequate equipment and machinery.

Question 5.
What are the factors which affect the development of human settlement?
Answer:
A group of houses is called settlement. Men started moving from villages to cities. There are certain reasons like increase in population, development of business. Agriculture in river valley and industrial development are the main reasons responsible for development of human settlements.

The Main Factors:
1. Availability of water. People mostly love to live at those places where water is easily available. That is why river valleys became birth places of many civilizations
in the world, eg. Indus Valley Civilization. It developed in the valley of Indus river. Here we have got proofs of Kaccha/Pucca houses.

2. Even surfaces. The uneven surfaces do not attract human settlement because :
(a) Transportation is difficult.
(b) Agriculture is difficult.
(c) House construction is difficult.

But even surfaces have many facilities :
(a) It is easy to make roadways and railways.
(b) Agriculture is easy.
(c) The agriculture produced can be easily transported to other places.
(d) Many big cities and metros have developed in plains with even surfaces.

3. Natural beauty. Many cities have developed because of natural beauty. Here tourism is well developed. It is a source of employment for many people. The examples are Kashmir, Goa, Bangalore, etc.

4. Means of transport and communication. The improved means of transportation and communication help in the development of human settlement. It becomes easy to move people and products from one place to another. With communication we can sent messages to any part of the world. Thus, those places develop economically as well as socially.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication

Question 6.
Explain in detail about the waterways.
Answer:
1. North Atlantic waterway: It is the maximum used waterway. It combines western Europe, U.S.A. and Canada. The maximum trade in the world takes place through this way.
PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Human Environment - Settlements, Means of Transport and Communication 2
Suez Waterway

2. Pacific Ocean waterway: It combines North and South America with Asia and Australia.

3. Cape way: It was discovered by Vasco-De-Gama in 1498. This way joins western European countries and America with South Asia, Australia, and New Zealand. The importance of Cape way has decreased because of the construction of Suez Canal waterway.

4. Suez Canal waterway: This canal joins the equatorial sea with the Red sea. It joins the European countries with South Asian countries as well as African and Australian continents.

5. Panama Canal way: This canal comes out of Panama Republic. It combines the Atlantic ocean with the Pacific ocean. This lake also results in the coming together of western Europe and eastern U.S.A. with Western U.S.A. and western Asia.

Question 7.
What contribution have the means of transportation towards the development of human settlement?
Answer:
Different means of transport have helped in the evolution of settlements in ahead ways:

  1. Two neighbouring settlements or even those found far away from each other became attracted to each other.
  2. Trade led to the growth of commercial activities and culture.
  3. It led to faster development of transport and communication from the stage of domestication of animals and the invention of the wheel.
  4. Roadways provided door-to-door service, railways helped to move a large number of people and goods in bulk. Waterways provided the cheapest means of transport. Air transport is fast though costly also developed side by side.
  5. Apart from transport media and other communication networks became crucial links for exchanging knowledge and ideas.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

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Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Give answers to these questions in approximately 1-15 words.

Question 1.
What do you understand by natural vegetation?
Answer:
It means those herbs, trees and plants which grow on their own. Man has no contribution in it. The natural vegetation of some place depends upon the surface, types of soil, climate, etc.

Question 2.
In how many types natural vegetation can be divided?
Answer:

  1. Forest,
  2. Grasslands, and
  3. Thorny bushes.

Question 3.
Which are the goods we get from the forests?
Answer:
Many types of wood, cane, grass for making paper, gum, biroza, turpentine, the skin for dying leather, medical herbs, etc are received from forests.

Question 4.
How do the forests help us indirectly?
Answer:

  • These take carbon dioxide from atmosphere and release oxygen.
  • These are helpful in bringing rainfall and controlling the temperature.
  • They stop floods and soil erosion.
  • They help in the absorbtion of water by the earth.
  • The forests stop the expansion of deserts and provide natural habitat to wildlife.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 5.
What will be the effect of the development of forests?
Answer:
There will be no wood and the world will become a big desert.

Question 6.
How man is disturbing the ecological balance?
Answer:
In order to make residential colonies and for obtaining agricultural land, man is deforesting, which is contributing towards damaging the ecological balance.

II. Answer the following questions in about 50-60 words.

Question 1.
Which are the forests that are economically useful? Explain.
Answer:
The most important and commercially valuable forests are coniferous forests. These forests are known as severgreen forests. In Eurasia these are known as Taiga forests. The trees found here are Cheerh, Fur, Spruce. We can get soft wood from these trees, which is used for making pulp and paper.

Question 2.
Why are the monsoon forests called deciduous forests?
Answer:
These forests are found on less heated latitudes. The areas which has more rainfall in any climate, there these trees have broad leaves. Such type of forests are more in those areas where there is more rainfall, because of monsoon winds. The season where there is no rainfall these trees shed their leaves. These forests are important from commercial point of view. Because these are less dense and within human reach. We get building wood and fuel wood from these forests, but most monsoon forests have been cut to give way for residential colonies and agriculture.

Question 3.
Write about the temperate grasslands.
Answer:
The hot and cold grasslands are found in hot and cold areas where the grass does not grow enough but it is soft and dense, so it is very useful for cattle grazing. In Eurasia these grasslands are called stepese, in North America these are called prairies, in South America-Pampas, in South Africa weld and in Australia these are known as Downs.

Question 4.
Write about the hot desert vegetation.
Answer:
Hot desert vegetation is found mainly in African Sahara and Kalahari, the deserts of Arab and Iran, the Thar desert of India-Pakistan. In South America Autocama, and in North America there is California desert and North Mexico desert and in Australia there is western Australian desert. Because of excess heat and very low rainfall there is very less vegetation. Here only thorny bushes, small herbs and grasses are born. The vegetation has been so made naturally that which can tolerate excess heat and dryness. The roots are long and thick. So that the plants can get moisture from the depth of earth. The bark of the plants is thick, the leaves are also thick and silky so that water is not wasted through vaporization.

Question 5.
Why is it necessary to conserve forests?
Answer:
The forests have a great role to play in our life, these fulfil our many needs. The wood from forests is used as fuel, building, paper making, railway sleepers as well as for cloth making. The forests-help to bring rainfall, control floods and soil erosion. But because of the increase in population the consumption of forests is increasing, so the area under forests is also decreasing. We must take care about planting more and more trees.

III. Things to do :

Question 1.
Prepare a list of various types of trees grown in your school compound. Plant a few sapplings also, with the help of your teacher.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which is an example of biosphere reserve of India?
(a) Corbett Park
(b) Kawal
(c) Pochmari
(d) Guindy.
Answer:
(c) Pochmari.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 2.
Which type of forest does sundari tree?
(a) Tropical evergreen
(b) Tropical thorn & scrubs
(c) Tropical deciduous
(d) Mangrove.
Answer:
(d) Mangrove.

Question 3.
What thing restricts the forests of tropical evergreen?
(a) Temperature
(b) Rainfall
(c) Air pressure
(d) Air current.
Answer:
(b) Rainfall.

Question 4.
A change in height also changes the :
(a) Climate
(b) Natural vegetation
(c) Weather
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 5.
Which of the following type of forests called Taiga?
(a) Coniferous
(b) Tropical
(c) Temperate
(d) Deciduous.
Answer:
(d) Deciduous.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
There is variation in ______ from one area to another due to temperature and moisture variations.
Answer:
Vegetation

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 2.
In the ______ forests monkey and langoor are found.
Answer:
Tropical, Deciduous

Question 3.
The ______ forests are found between 10°N to 10°S Latitudes.
Answer:
Equatorial

Question 4.
National park covers a ______ area.
Answer:
Large

Question 5.
______ and continents in a combined form are called Eurasia.
Answer:
Europe, Asia.

True / False :

Question 1.
Coniferous forests are dominated by softwood trees.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Temperate grasslands are level and plains.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Taiga forests are conical in shape.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Praries is in South Africa.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Some plants have very long roots to reach the underground water.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which are the industries dependent upon the forest wood?
Answer:
Many industries are dependent upon forest wood. These include furniture, sports goods, ships, railway bogeys, paper, plywood, packing boxes, etc.

Question 2.
What are the three factors which affect the varieties of forests?
Answer:

  1. Rainfall,
  2. Climatic conditions,
  3. Temperature.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 3.
What is Eurasia?
Answer:
European and Asian continents in a combined form are called Eurasia.

Question 4.
Where is forest wood used mainly?
Answer:
Mainly it is used as fuel i.e. 50%, 33% is used in building, construction and the balance is in other works.

Question 5.
Write some steps for the protection and care of forests.
Answer:

  1. Care should be taken that the forest should not catch fire.
  2. Deforestation should be followed in a limited manner. Along side there should be afforestation also.
  3. The various types of pests and diseases should be removed so as not to destroy the forests.
  4. More and more trees should be planted around canals, ponds, rivers, roads and railway lines.
  5. There should be less use of wood for fuel purpose. Instead we should use sun energy and cow dung gas.
  6. Even in building, instead of wood there should be the use of some alternative material.

Question 6.
Mention the uses of coniferous forests.
Answer:
Coniferous forests are dominated by softwood trees. These woods are very useful for making pulp, which is used in the making of paper and newsprint. Match boxes and packing boxes are also made from softwood.
PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 1

Question 7.
Why the tropical evergreen forests in Brazil are called lungs of the earth?
Answer:
The tropical evergreen forests in Brazil are so extensive that they produce enough oxygen which can be used by the living beings.

Question 8.
List some typical animals lives in the Tropical rain forest.
Answer:
Anaconda, monkey, lemurs, apes, lizards and some kind of frogs are typical to tropical rain forest.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 9.
Name the local names of Tropical Grasslands.
Answer:
In Africa these are known as parkland, in Venezuela these are known as Laoess and in Brazil these are known as Pampas.

Question 10.
Write about the vegetation of Cold desert.
Answer:
In cold deserts when the snow melts for a short time some small flowery plants take root. In the northern parts grass like moss and Lichen grow.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why the equatorial forests are considered a skyscraper?
Answer:
Skyscraper means a very high rising multi-storey building. The equatorial forests also represent such a kind of scheme that is why equatorial forest are called skyscrapers :

  1. The uppermost storey is made up of 70m. high trees. Here sun and air both are available. We get both fruit and flower here.
  2. The storey under this is umbrella-shape. The branches of the trees get entangled and take the form of umbrella type roof. Here the sunlight is less.
  3. The lower most storey has branches which rise on the trees and get entangled with each other. The branches which cannot live without sunlight move upwards to get sunlight.
  4. At the lowest level, there is extreme darkness, there is no sunlight. The leaves are damaged and smelly the area is full of insects and pests.

Question 2.
What is known as food-chain? State the status of humans in this food-chain.
Answer:
The feeding relationship between various organisms in an ecosystem is known as food-chain. Green plants use sun’s energy to produce their food. The plant food is eaten by animals. As a result transfer of sun’s energy also takes place. Some animals also eat plant eating animals. Thus energy is transferred to second trophic level. Humans are placed at the top in this food-chain. They eat both plant as well as plant eating animals.
PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 2
Food Pyramid

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 3.
Give a brief account of Equatorial Forests.
Answer:
These forests are found in those areas which receive over 200 cm of rainfall.
These are also known as tropical rain forests.

Location: These forests are found in the Amazon basin of South America, Zaire basin of Africa, South East Asian countries such as Malaysia, Indonesia, Myanmar, Thailand, New Guinea and Western ghats.

Main features:

  • These trees have broad leaves and their wood is hard.
  • The trees do not shed their leaves at any particular time of the year.
  • The forest is thick and luxuriant with plenty of trees.
  • Trees of same species are scattered in distribution.

Animal Life: Large animals like elephants and rhinoceros are found only in relatively less dense parts of these forests. On the other hand, the animals that can live on trees or in “the water bodies are more numerous. Jaguar, puma, monkey, squirrels and insects are common.

Question 4.
Explain the typical features of Thorny vegetation.
Answer:
Lack of water, dry winds and high temperature make conditions difficult for plants. However, plants do grow in the deserts and are admirably adapted to the environment.

Main features:

  • The roots of some plants spread far and wide but just below the surface of the ground. They absorb the rain water before it soaks away underground. The roots also absorb the dew which forms on the ground at night.
  • Some plants have very long roots to reach the underground water. The roots of the acacia may go down 30 m or more in search of water.
  • The leaves are often shed or reduced and the plant becomes dormant and stops growing during the driest periods in order to survive.
  • The leaves of many plants are tiny, waxy, leathery or varnished to minimize loss of water.

Wildlife: Animals survive the drought and heat at the desert’through adaptation. The typical animals are lizard, snake, camel, etc.

Question 5.
Give a brief description of Temperate Grasslands.
Answer:
Temperate grasslands are level, treeless plains. They lie far away from the influence of the sea. Temperate Grassland are known by different names in different continents.

  • Pampas-Argentina
  • Prairie-North America.
  • Veld-South Africa
  • Steppe-Central Asia
  • Downs-Australia.

Main features :

  • The rainfall is not sufficient for trees to grow. Some trees are found on hill sides with more rainfall, or along rivers. Willows and polar are the common trees.
  • Short grass grows everywhere. Areas, where the rainfall is more than 50 cm, have a rich carpet of grass suitable for cattle rearing.
  • Areas that receive less than 50 cm of rainfall have coarse grass which is suitable for grazing only sheep and goats.
  • The appearance of the grassland varies with the season.

Wildlife: Rodents, such as the prairie dog of America the gerbil of Africa, the hamster of Eurasia and the widespread mole, retreat underground escape from predators and the summer heat.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 6.
Describe the main features of Taiga forests.
Answer:

  • These forests are found in higher latitudes. (50°-70° N)
  • These are coniferous forests.
  • These are conical in shape.
  • These are tall softwood evergreen trees.
  • These trees are useful for making pulp for newsprint and paper.
  • Matchbox and packing boxes are made from these.
  • Chir, pine, cedar, are important trees.
  • Silver fox, mink, polar bear are common animals.

Question 7.
Write about the equatorial type of forest.
Answer:
The equatorial forests are found between 10° north and 10° south latitude. These forests are known as evergreen dense forests. On the equator there is high temperature the whole year and there, is more rainfall also. That is why dense forests are found here. The upper branches of these trees are combined in such a manner that these look like an umbrella. Even the sunlight cannot reach earth. There are many types of trees in these forests. Still these trees are not commercially profitable. The reason is that these forests are so dense that it is not possible to cut these off. South America, middle of Africa, south-east Asia and Medagaskar have big areas under these kinds of forests. In Australia and middle America these forests have covered smaller area. In South America-Brazil such forests are known as Selwas in Amazon Basin.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in detail about the natural vegetation. :
Answer:
Natural Vegetation. It means those herbs, trees and plants which grow on their own. Man has no contribution on it. The natural vegetation of some place depends upon the surface, types of soil, climate, etc.

Parts of Natural Vegetation.

  1. Forest
  2. Grasslands, and
  3. Thorny bushes.

Detailed Description:
1. Forests: Forests are affected by quantity of rainfall, climatic distribution, temperature, etc. This type of vegetation is of three types:
1. Equatorial Forests: The equatorial forests are found between 10° north and 100 south latitude. These forests are known as evergreen dense forests.

On the equator there is high temperature the whole year and there is more rainfall also. That is why dense forests are found here. The upper branches of these trees are combined in such a manner that these look like an umbrella.
Even the sunlight cannot reach earth. There are many types of trees in these forests. Still these trees are not commercially profitable. The reason is that these forests are so dense that it is not possible to cut these off. South America middle of Africa, south-east Asia and Medagaskar have big areas under these kind of forests. In Australia and middle America these forests have covered smaller area. In South America-Brazil such forests are known as Selwas in Amazon Basin.

2. Monsoon Forests. These forests are found on less heated latitudes. The areas which has more rainfall in any climate, there these trees have broad leaves. Such type of forests are more in those areas where there is more rainfall, because of monsoon winds. The season where there is no rainfall these trees shed their leaves. These forests are important from commercial point of view. Because these are less dense and within human reach. We get building wood and fuel wood from these forests, but most monsoon forests have been cut to give way for residential colonies and agriculture.

3. Coniferous Forests. The most important and commercially valuable forests are coniferous forests. These forests are known as evergreen forests. In Eurasia these are known as Taiga forests. The trees found here are Cheerh, Fur, Spruce. We can get soft wood from these trees, which is used for making pulp and paper.

2. Grasslands. The hot and cold grasslands are found in hot and cold areas where the grass does not grow enough but it is soft and dense, so it is very useful for cattle grazing. In Eurasia these grasslands are called stepese, in North America these are called prairies, in South America—Pampas, in South Africa weld and in Australia these are known as Downs.

3. Thorny Bushes. Hot desert vegetation is found mainly in African Sahara and Kalahari, the deserts of Arab and Iran, the Thar desert of India-Pakistan. In South America Atacama, and in North America there is California desert and North Mexico desert and in Australia there is western Australian desert. Because of excess heat and very low rainfall there is very less vegetation. Here only thorny bushes, small herbs and grasses are born. The vegetation has been so made naturally that which can tolerate excess heat and dryness. The roots are long and thick. So that the plants can get moisture from the depth of earth. The bark of the plants is thick, the leaves are also thick and silky so that water is not wasted through vaporization.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 2.
Write about the care and protection of wild animals. Describe the role of wild animals in ecological balance.
Or
What is the role of wildlife in maintaining ecological balance?
Answer:
Conservation of Wildlife. India is rich in wildlife. There are about 81,000 known species of animals. She has 2500 species of fish and 1200 species of birds. But many of these species have been destroyed by man. Many rare species have become extinct in India. Our rich wildlife is a rich heritage formed through centuries. It must be preserved. Many of the species are found only in India such as swamp deer, the one- homed rhinoceros, Kashmir stag, Nilgai, etc. These rare species are in danger of extinction. Wildlife Act provides for the protection and conservation of these species. For this, zoos, national parks, bio-reserves and tiger reserves have been established in India.

The wildlife week is celebrated in the first week of October.
Difference between National Park and Sanctuaries

National Park Govt. Sanctuaries
1. A national park is a reserved area meant for preserving natural vegetation, wildlife and natural beauty. 1. A Govt, sanctuary is a reserved area meant for the preservation and development of endangered species.
2. It covers a large area. 2. It covers a small area.
3. Corbett National Park is an example. 3. Kaziranga Sanctuary is an example.

Extinction of certain species of animals and birds: Various kinds of animals and birds are found in the Indian forests. Important among them are the elephants, tigers, leopards, lions, rhinoceros, deer, etc. Several species of animals have become extinct in our country due to their reckless hunting and clearing of forests. As a result, rhinoceros, leopards, lions must deer and the Great Indian Bustard are found only in a small number. We should preserve these precious assets of our country.

Protection of Wildlife: The ways to preserve wildlife are as follows :

  • We should not fall trees thoughtlessly so that the wildlife population may get shelter and increase in the forests.
  • We should not hunt animals and birds in the mating season.
  • There should be a total ban on the hunting of rare species of wild animals so that they may not get extinct.
  • We should co-operate with the government in its efforts to preserve wildlife.