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PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

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Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Our Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Our Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in 1-15 words:

Question 1.
What do you understand by Agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture includes raising crops, cattle rearing, and other agricultural activities. It also includes dairy farming, poultry, bee-hiving, fishing, floriculture, gur production, flour mills, etc.

Question 2.
Which factors affect Agriculture?
Answer:
The following factors affect agriculture:

  1. Climate
  2. Relief
  3. Type of soil
  4. Irrigation
  5. Method of cultivation
  6. Marketing
  7. Means of transportation and
  8. Banking facilities.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on plantation farming.
Answer:
It includes the cultivation of single crop on large farms.

Question 4.
Write the names of cereal crops.
Answer:
Main cereal crops are Rice, Wheat, Maize, Jowar, Bajra, Pulses and Oilseeds.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 5.
What is puddling?
Answer:
For rice cultivation, seeds are planted in the fields. The field is levelled and filled with water. This is called puddling the field where rice plants are transplanted.

Question 6.
What products are prepared from Maize?
Answer:
Glucose, starch, alcohol and vegetable oil is prepared from Maize.

Question 7.
How many types of cotton are there on the basis of the length of staple?
Answer:

  1. Long staple cotton (Best Type)
  2. Medium staple cotton
  3. Short staple cotton.

Question 8.
Which are the things that can be made from jute?
Answer:
Bags, ropes, strings, etc. and shoes are prepared from jute.

Question 9.
How does the tea plant look like?
Answer:
Tea plant is a bush. Its leaves provide tea.

Question 10.
Write the names of three types of coffee.
Answer:

  1. Arabica
  2. Robusta
  3. Liberica.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 11.
What is the percentage of people engaged in agriculture in U.S.A. and Punjab?
Answer:

  • U.S.A.-More than 30% people
  • Punjab-58% people.

II. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
After writing the types of Agriculture differentiate between intensive and extensive agriculture.
Answer:
Types of Agriculture :

  1. Sedentary Agriculture
  2. Shifting Agriculture
  3. Dry Farming
  4. Wet Farming
  5. Intensive Farming
  6. Extensive Farming
  7. Mixed Farming
  8. Horticulture
  9. Individual Agriculture
  10. Co-operative Farming
  11. Collective Farming
  12. Plantation Agriculture
  13. Subsistence Agriculture
  14. Commercial Farming.

The distinction between Intensive and Extensive Farming :

  • Intensive farming is done on small farms while extensive farming is done on large farms.
  • Irrigation and fertilizers are used in intensive farming while machines are used in extensive farming.
  • Intensive farming is done in Punjab while extensive farming is done in U.S.A.

Question 2.
Differentiate between subsistence and commercial type of farming.
Answer:
1. Subsistence Farming: Majority of farmers in the country practise subsistence farming. It is characterised by small and scattered land-holdings and use of primitive tools. As the farmers are poor, they do not use fertilisers and high yielding variety of seeds in their fields to the extent they should do. These result into low productivity. Important cash crops like sugarcane, oilseeds, cotton and jute are grown. The subsistence agriculture has given way to commercial agriculture to some extent.

2. Extensive Farming: Extensive farming is bush or tree farming. It is a single crop farming of rubber, tea, coffee, cocoa, spices, coconut and fruit crops. It is capital-intensive and demands good managerial ability, technical know-how, sophisticated machinery, fertilisers, irrigation and transport facilities. Extensive farming is done in U.S.A. and Canada.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 3.
Which are main Rice producing areas?
Answer:
Cultivation of Rice. Rice is grown in deltas, flood-plains, coastal-plains and some terraced fields in the mountainous areas as well. It is one of the crops for which a lot of human labour is required. All operations including the preparation of seedling beds, ploughing, planting, weeding, harvesting and separation of grain are done by human labour.

Rice requires high temperature of over 20°C to germinate, bloom and mature. Rainfall of 100 cm to 150 cm is required. Paddy is cultivated mainly in India, China, Japan, Bangladesh, Indonesia, Thailand and Myanmar.

In India rice is cultivated most widely in Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh. Other producers are Assam, Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Punjab.

In Punjab, rice is grown in districts of Amritsar, Gurdaspur, Ferozepur, Jalandhar, Patiala and Ludhiana.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 1

Question 4.
Explain the conditions required for cultivation of cotton and jute.
Answer:
Cotton. Cotton requires cloud free sunny days and uniformly high temperature. It grows best in areas where the temperature is between 30°C to. 40°C. Cotton plants require rainfall of 60 to 100 cm. Alluvial and black soils are best suited for cotton plants.

Jute. Jute fibre is obtained from the bark of the jute plant stem.
The jute plant originated in the Indian subcontinent. It grows best in well drained sandy loam and requires warm and humid climate. Jute plant requires temperature of more than 25°C and rainfall of over 150 cm per year.

Question 5.
Write a note on cotton production in Punjab.
Answer:
Punjab and Haryana together produce 25% cotton of India. The major producers are Ferozepur and Sangrur districts. B.T. cotton has been successfully grown in Punjab. Malwa region is also called white gold.

Question 6.
Write about protection of tea and coffee plants.
Answer:
Tea. Tea plants are planted on cleared slope. So that on well drained slopes, water should not stand in the roots of plants. Fertilizers are used for growth of tea plants. Tea plant needs pruning for its proper growth.

Coffee. Coffee saplings are grown in Nursery and then transplanted in the fields. The plants require use of fertilizers, pruning, and irrigation. Sunny weather is required during growth. The tree is pruned to keep it upto a height of 8 feet.

Question 7.
Write a note on the uses of machines in agricultural operations in U.SA.
Answer:
Two types of farms are functioning in the United States viz.,

  1. specialized farms and
  2. mixed farms.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 2

A specialized farm concentrates on a particular type of crop or livestock, whereas a mixed farm raises a variety of crops. About 95 per cent of farms in the USA are specialized farms. Mostly cereal grains such as corn, wheat, sorghum, rice, barley, oats and rye are grown in specialized farms. However, specialized farms also produce crops such as cotton, groundnut, sugarcane, tobacco, vegetables and fruits. Nearly half the specialized farms in the USA are livestock farms. These livestock farms rear meat animals, raise milk cows, chickens and turkeys. In the mixed farms, farmers produce a variety of crops and rear livestock. The United States is the world’s leader in international agricultural goods market.

III. Answer the following questions in about 125-130 words :

Question 1.
After writing about conditions for the growth of wheat explain the areas of wheat production. (P.B. 2009)
Answer:
Geographical conditions of growth. Wheat needs a cool and wet climate during growing season and a warm dry climate during harvesting season. It requires a rainfall of 50 cm to 75 cm. It is a rabi crop. It grows best in winter due to winter rainfall and regular irrigation. It does not depend on destiny like rice crop. Wheat grows best on loamy soils. Mechanisation and use of chemical fertilizers give higher yields.

Production. Wheat is one of the oldest cereal crops cultivated in the world. Wheat is grown in temperate regions with rainfall ranging between 30 cm to 80 cm.

Three countries: the United States of America, Russia and China are the major producers of wheat. The world’s largest producer is China. Other leading producers are India, Ukraine, France, Canada, Pakistan and Argentina. Winter wheat and spring wheat belts of USA and Canada are quite famous.

Wheat cultivation is mainly carried on in fertile soils or loamy soils. Different climatic conditions and sowing seasons across the world have led to harvesting of wheat in every month of the year in one or the other part of the world. It is grown in Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Bihar. India is the second largest producer of wheat in the world. The production and yield in Punjab has increased due to Green Revolution, Better seeds, fertilizers and irrigation is used. ,

Question 2.
What are the conditions required for the growth of Tea and Coffee? Explain the main areas of tea and coffee production in India.
Answer:
Geographical Conditions of Growth of Tea. Tea is a plant of both tropical and temperate areas.

  1. Temperature. Tea requires uniformly high temperatures (20° – 30°C) throughout the year. Frost is harmful for tea leaves.
  2. Rainfall. An annual rainfall of 150 cm is essential for the growth of tea.
  3. Soil. Tea requires a deep acidic and fertile soil.
  4. Land. Tea is grown on gently sloping, well drained hill slopes and valley-sides.
  5. Labour. Tea is a labour intensive crop. It requires cheap, skilled labour for picking tea-leaves.

Conditions for Growth of Coffee. One-third of the world population drinks coffee, the second largest beverage after tea. There are two types of coffee plants. Coffee Arabica or Mocha and Coffee Robusta. Robusta is the main variety produced in the world.

The coffee plant requires warm climate and moderate rainfall. Both strong sunshine and snowfall are harmful to the plant. During its growth, coffee plant requires rainfall of 100 cm to 150 cm and temperatures between 15°C and 25°C. Irrigation is required where the annual rainfall is less than 100 cm.

Areas of Cultivation of Tea. More tea is produced in Northern India than Southern India. Tea is grown on an area of 4.21 lakh hectares.

The average yield is 1540 kg per hectare. Assam produces about 50% tea of India.
1. Assam. Assam is the largest producer of tea in India. Tea is grown on the valley sides of Brahmaputra and Duar region.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 3

2. West Bengal. Tea is grown in Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts in West Bengal. Darjeeling tea has a special flavour. This flavour is due to slow growth under high humidity and low temperature.

3. Southern India. Tea is grown on the slopes of Nilgiris, Cardamom and Anamalai hills, Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu), Malabar coast (Kerala), Coorg region (Karnataka) and Ratnagiri (Maharashtra) are important areas of tea production. Areas of Cultivation of Coffee.

Karnataka is the largest coffee producing state of India.
(а) Karnataka. Coffee is grown in the districts of Chikamanglur, Coorg, Hassan, Shimoga (Nilgiris) in Karnataka state. High rainfall, sunshine, protected slopes, well- drained soils favour the cultivation of coffee.
(b) Arcot, Tinevelley, Madurai, Coimbatore districts of Tamil Nadu grow coffee.
(c) In Kerala, Cardamom hills covering the districts of Palghat and Thiruvananthapuram.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 3.
Write down the process involved in Jute production. Write in detail the uses and distribution of Jute in the world.
Answer:
Jute: Jute is an industrial fibre. It is the cheapest fibre. It has commercial importance. It is also called ‘golden fibre’. It is used in the making of carpets, ropes, covers and linoleum. It is used for packing many agricultural commodities. Jute is called ‘Brown Paper of Whole-sale trade’. Jute fibre has softness, strength and length.

Conditions of Growth: Jute is a plant of hot-wet tropical areas.

  1. Temperature. It requires uniformly high temperature (27°C) throughout the year.
  2. Rainfall. Jute requires well distributed heavy rainfall (150 cm).
  3. Soil. It is grown on flood plains and deltas. Fertilizers are also used.
  4. Clean Water. Jute needs an ample supply of clean water for washing.

Area and Production: The jute is grown on an area of about 8 lakh hectares. The total production is about 93 lakh bales (each bale = 180 kg). The average yield is 2014 kg per hectare.

India is the largest producer of jute in the world. Due to partition of India 75% of jute producing areas remained in East Pakistan (now Bangladesh). There was shortage of raw jute for jute mills in India. Now India is self-sufficient in jute production. Coarse jute called Mesta is also grown.

Areas of Cultivation

  1. West Bengal. West Bengal is the largest producer of jute in India. Jute is grown in Ganges delta. Murshidabad, Burdwan, Nadiad, Hooghly are the main jute producing districts.
  2. Assam. Jute is grown in Goalpara, Kamrup and Tezpur districts in Brahmaputra valley.
  3. Bihar. Jute is grown in Terai districts of Purnea and Champaran. The major producers of Jute in the world are China, India, Bangladesh, Thailand and Brazil.

Question 4.
What are the similarities and variations in the agriculture of Punjab and the U.S.A.?
Answer:
(A) Agriculture in the U.S.A.-A Glance :

  • Agriculturally, the U.S.A. is a developed country. About 3% of the total population is engaged in agriculture,
  • The main reason behind this is that all the activities of agriculture are carried on by machines and. not by men.
  • Agricultural activities are carried on about 20% part of the land,
  • The main agricultural areas include North-West, North-East, interior plains and coastal plains of the country. Different types of crops are grown in different parts of the country,
  • The farmers of the U.S.A. have large landholdings as compared to that of India. The farm size is very big. The average farm size in U.S.A. is 700 acres. Due to the large size of the fields, extensive type of agriculture is practised.
  • Machines are used at a very large scale. It is almost impossible to work in farms without machines,
  • In a farm, only one type of crop is cultivated. From the sowing of crop to the taking of the crop to markets or stores, every work is done with the help of machines,
  • Insecticides and pesticides are properly utilized. The farmer of U.S.A. practice agriculture like a businessman and not like a mere farmer.

(B) Agriculture in Punjab (India)-A Glance :

  • Punjab in comparison to other states of India, is much advanced in agriculture. The agriculture sector contributes 35% to the total income of the country. About 58% population of the state is engaged in agriculture,
  • The soils here are fertile in nature. To maintain the fertility of the soils, the farmer also uses fertilisers,
  • The farmers of Punjab do not have too much of land. Landholding mostly range between 5 to 25 acres. Some farmers possess even less land. Six percent farmers of the state have more than 25 acres of land.
  • The farmer grows, different types of crops in his fields. The variations in crops mainly depend on climate, size of landholding, type of soil, irrigation facilities and requirements of the farmer.
  • According to the size of the land holding the farmer uses tractor or combine harvester,
  • Almost all the net sown area comes under irrigation. The farmer of Punjab also uses insecticides and pesticides at a large scale to get more production. Though the farmer of Punjab uses the machines, even then the contribution of labourers is too much. This we can estimate from the number of people working in the agricultural sector. In U.S.A. only 3% of population is engaged in agriculture whereas in Punjab 58% people are working in the agriculture sector,
  • The farmer of Punjab (except a few big farmers) does not practice agriculture like a businessmen. He sows a number of crops in his fields. Two-2 crops are taken at the same time,
  • The agriculture of Punjab is an intensive type of agriculture. Therefore, the yield per acre is more than that of the U.S.A.

IV. Map Skill

Question 1.
Show two place’s each of following crops on outline map of India. Tea, Wheat, Rice, Cotton, Jute.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 4

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

V. Activity

Question 1.
Name three each of Kharif and Rabi crops mentioning geographical conditions need for each.
Answer:

Crop Temp Rainfall Soils
1. Wheat 10°-20°C 50-100 cm Clay soil
2. Rice 20°-30°C 100-200 cm Alluvial soil
3. Maize 18°-27°C 50-100 cm Levelled plain
4. Cotton 20°-30° 50-100 cm Simple slope
5. Tea 20°-30°C 150-300 cm Sloping
6. Jute 29°-35°C 120-150 cm Alluvial soil

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Our Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Commercial rearing of silkworm is called
(a) Commercial farming
(b) Pisciculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Viticulture.
Answer:
(c) Sericulture.

Question 2.
Farming in which the produce is consumed by the farmer’s household is called :
(a) Subsistence
(b) Extensive
(c) Intensive
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Subsistence.

Question 3.
What does golden filament means?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Silk
(d) Wool.
Answer:
(b) Jute.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 4.
Which country is the largest producer of rice in the world?
(a) India
(b) Brazil
(c) China
(d) U.S.A.
Answer:
(c) China.

Question 5.
India is largest producer of _________
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton.
Answer:
(a) Tea.

Question 6.
For what purpose the following machine is used?
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 5
(а) For drilling
(b) For showing wheat / rice
(c) For harvesting
(d) For growing vegetables.
Answer:
(c) For harvesting.

Question 7.
In the following picture a plant is shown, name the areas in which plant is found.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 6
(а) Tropical
(b) Temperate
(c) Tropical & temperate
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Tropical & Temperate.

Question 8.
What is the name of farming of fruit shown in this picture?
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 7
(а) Horticulture
(b) Sericulture
(c) Pisciculture
(d) Viticulture.
Answer:
(d) Viticulture.

Question 9.
Which of the following crops does this picture resemble?
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture 8
(a) Paddy (Rice)
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Cotton.
Answer:
(a) Paddy (Rice).

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 10.
What type of crops can be grown on the part of land with plenty of black soil?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Wheat
(c) Cotton
(d) Jute.
Answer:
(c) Cotton.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
_________ agriculture is done with machines in sparsely populated areas.
Answer:
Extensive

Question 2.
_________ is called cultivation of grapes.
Answer:
Viticulture

Question 3.
Shifting cultivation is also called _________
Answer:
Slash and burn

Question 4.
Coarse grain are also called _________
Answer:
Millets

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 5.
Agricultural activity in India is a _________
Answer:
primary activity.

True/False :

Question 1.
Production of fruit and flower is called viticulture.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Punjab state is the largest producer of wheat.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Arabica is a variety of coffee.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Flax is a fibre crop.
Answer:
True

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 5.
Russia is a leading producer of coffee.
Answer:
False.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by agriculture?
Answer:
The word ‘agriculture’ is derived from the Latin words ‘ager’ or ‘agri’ and ’culture’. Ager means soil and culture means cultivation or tilling the soil. Agriculture, thus, means cultivation of soil. But in broader sense, agriculture is growing crops and rearing of livestock. Livestock include animals (cattle, sheep and goat) and birds that are reared for human use.

Question 2.
What are the different forms of the word ‘culture’?
Answer:
The word cuture has many variants like :

  1. Agriculture. Science and art of cultivation on soil, raising crops or livestock.
  2. Sericulture. Commercial rearing of silkworms.
  3. Pisciculture. Breeding of fish for commercial gains.
  4. Viticulture. Cultivation of grapes.
  5. Horticulture. Growing of vegetables, fruits or flowers for commercial use.

Question 3.
What is Sedentary Agriculture?
Answer:
When a farmer practises settled agriculture at a fixed place, it is called sedentary agriculture. Crops can be grown every year at the same field. Organic fertilizers and chemical fertilizers are used to increase the fertility of the soil.

Question 4.
What is mixed farming?
Answer:
In mixed farming, foodgrains, fruit, vegetables are grown along with cattle farming. Fisheries and. bee-hiving is also done. It increases the income of farmers.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 5.
What is the main characteristic of plantation farming?
Answer:
Crops are grown on large farms. Tea, coffee, rubber are plantation crops which give yield for many years.

Question 6.
Enlist the fibre crops and the beverage crops.
Answer:
Fibre Crops. Cotton, jute, flax.
Beverage Crops. Tea, coffee, cocoa.

Question 7.
Why the people of rich countries prefer wheat to rice?
Answer:
Wheat contains protein, carbohydrate and vitamins. Therefore, wheat is preferred to rice.

Question 8.
State the conditions of growth, temperature, rainfall and land required for maize.
Answer:

  • Temperature: 18°C – 27°C, Frost free season.
  • Rainfall: 50 cm to 100 cm.
  • Land: Level or rolling.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 9.
What are oilseeds? What is their importance?
Answer:
The seeds which provide oil are called oilseeds. These include til, sunflower, rapeseed, etc. These provide us food and meet our daily needs.

Question 10.
Which sources provide fibre? For which purpose fibre from sheep is used?
Answer:
Fiber is obtained from plants and animals. Wool from sheep is used for woollen clothes.

Question 11.
What is the use of cotton fibre?
Answer:
Cotton fibre is used as a raw material for textile industry. It makes fight and strong clothes.

Question 12.
Explain the term ‘farm system’.
Answer:
Agriculture or farming or cultivation is s system called farm system.

  • Inputs. Include seeds, fertilisers, water, machinery, and labour.
  • Operations. Ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding, and harvesting.
  • Outputs. Crops, wool, dairy, products, poultry, etc.

Question 13.
Name the main states producing cotton. Account for large production in these states.
Answer:
Maharashtra, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh produce more than 60% cotton of India. The large production is due to fertile black soils in these states.

Question 14.
Why is tea grown on hill slopes?
Answer:
Tea needs uniform supply of water throughout the year. Water should not stagnate in the roots of tea bush. Hill slopes are well-drained.

Question 15.
How is coffee powder prepared? Which element of it produces excitement in our bodies?
Answer:
Coffee seeds are dried, roasted and grinded to make powder. It contains Caffeine which produces excitement in our bodies.

Question 16.
How is coffee plant grown?
Answer:
Coffee plant is grown in nurseries. After six months, it is transplanted in fields. It starts giving fruit after 3-4 years.

Question 17.
Agricultural development is uneven in different parts. Give one example.
Answer:
Many parts of Africa are not agriculturally developed. But in U.S.A., agriculture is a commercial and profitable occupation.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 18.
What is Green Revolution?
Answer:
The increase in agricultural production by introducing scientific methods like; new varieties of seeds, use of fertilizers and good water supply is called green revolution. The increase was in the yields of certain crops like wheat and rice.

Question 19.
Which activities are included in Agriculture?
Answer:
Dairy farming, poultry, honey bee keeping, pisciculture, gur making, flour milks, floriculture all occupations are a part of agriculture.

Question 20.
State two characteristics of Extensive farming.
Answer:

  1. Size of farms is very large.
  2. Yield per acre is less and machines are used for agriculture.

Question 21.
What is the position of Punjab in production of rice?
Answer:
Per hectare yield of rice in Punjab is the highest in India. Punjab produces about 12.2 per cent of total rice of the country. Punjab ranks second in rice production.

Question 22.
If a person has cultivated crops like Tea, Coffee and Cocoa, then identify the types of these crops.
Answer:
Beverage crops.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the main characteristics of shifting cultivation.
Answer:
Shifting Agriculture. In this type of agriculture, first of all, a piece of forest land is cleared by felling trees and burning of trunks and branches. After the land is cleared, crops are grown for two to three years and then the land is abandoned as the fertility of the soil decreases. The farmers then move to new areas and the process is repeated. Dry paddy maize, millets and vegetables are the crops commonly grown in this type of farming. The per hectare yield is low.

Question 2.
Distinguish between dry land farming and wetland farming.
Answer:
Dry land farming. It is practised in areas where the rainfall is low and irrigation facilities are inadequate. Here, emphasis is laid on the conservation of moisture and on crops like jowar, bajra and pulses, which need less water. In dry farming, only one crop is grown in the kharif season.

Wet land farming. It is practised in the areas where rainfall is more than 200 cm per year. It is mostly practised in S.E. Asia. In India, it is practised in West Bengal, Orissa and coastal areas. The main crop is Rice, Sugarcane. Multiple Cropping is done in different seasons.

Question 3.
Distinguish between Individual and Cooperative farming.
Answer:
Individual farming. In this farming, the farmer is the owner of the land. The use of tools, fertilizers and management is in the hands of the farmer. The total income is the personal income of the farmer.

Co-operative farming. In this, the Govt, is the owner of the land. A part of the income goes to the government as tax. The rest of income is divided among the labourers and farmers. This type of agriculture was practised in U.S.S.R.

Question 4.
Write a note on Collective farming.
Answer:
In this type, the farmers join together to form a collective organisation. All the farmers cultivate their own land. The accounts of production is in the hands of the organisation. The decisions are taken for the benefit of farmers. All the profit is distributed among farmers in the ratio of their lands. In India, this type of farming is encouraged by the government.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 5.
Describe the favourable conditions for growth of Rice.
Answer:

  • Temperature: 20°C to 30°C.
  • Rainfall: 100-200 cm (Irrigation in dry areas)
  • Soils: Alluvial, clay, loamy and delta or black soils.
  • Land: Level land suitable for irrigation.
  • Labour: Cheap and skilled labour.

Question 6.
Describe the cultivation of maize in India and world.
Answer:
Maize: Maize is known as Makka in India, corn in the United States of America, India and Europe. It originated from the American continent. It was introduced in Europe by Columbus and other explorers. It was Native Americans who taught colonizers how to grow maize.

Maize is used as foodgrains and as fodder. It is grown mainly in Russia, Canada and parts of South America. The United States of America is the largest producer. China is the second-largest producer followed by Brazil, Mexico, Argentina and India.

India: Most of Maize is grown in Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Rajasthan. U.P, Himachal Pradesh, J & K, Maharashtra, Punjab and Gujarat are also the producers of Maize. In Punjab, Rupnagar, Amritsar, Hoshiarpur, Jalandhar produce maize.

Question 7.
Write a note on the agricultural development of Punjab.
Answer:
Punjab is one of the leading states of India in agriculture. This is due to :

  • 58% people are engaged in agriculture. 35% of income comes from agriculture.
  • Soils are fertile. Fertilizers are used.
  • Mulitple cropping is done. Better seeds are used. Tractors and Harvesters are used.
  • Irrigation is the basis of agriculture.
  • Pesticides are used to protect crops.
  • Machines are used on large farms.

Question 8.
Why agriculture is called the main stay of the Indian Economy?
Answer:
Indian’s main occupation is agriculture. Two-thirds of India’s population is engaged in agriculture. Agriculture is the main stay of the Indian Economy. Agriculture provides food to the teeming millions in India. It sustains 2/3 of our population. It provides raw material to agro-based industries. Agriculture along with forests and fisheries form 45% of our total national income. Our industrial structure is being built on the broad foundation of Indian agriculture. It is also a great earner of foreign exchange.

Question 9.
What are the main features of Agricultural development in India?
Answer:

  • India is a vast country. More than 70% of its population is dependent upon agriculture for livelihood.
  • The major foodgrains produced in India are rice and wheat.
  • Most of farms are not more than one hectare of land.
  • India is self-sufficient in the production of foodgrains .
  • In India, half of the total cultivable land is irrigated.

Question 10.
What has been the impact of mechanisation on agriculture?
Answer:
The earlier farmers used simple tools. Gradually on-driven ploughs were introduced. But, now in modern times the techniques have been changed. Now in developed countries all farm operations have been mechanised. It has reduced the number of people engaged in agricultural work. Many people can now work in industries and services.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 11.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
The word Agriculture is derived from two Latin words ‘agri’ and ‘culture’. ‘Agri’ means’soil and ‘culture’ means cultivation or tilling. Agriculture hence refers to the cultivation of soil for growing crops and rearing of livestocks.

Question 12.
Name the factors influencing agriculture.
Answer:
The factors which influence agriculture are :

  1. Relief
  2. Soil conditions
  3. Temperature
  4. Rainfall.

Question 13.
What is plantation agriculture?
Answer:
It is special type of commercial farming which requires large amount of labour, technical efficiency, very large estates and capital. In this type of agriculture a simple crop of tea, rubber, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, banana or cotton is grown. The produce may be processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories. A well developed transport . network is also required.

Tropical regions of the world are major plantation areas. Rubber in Malayasia, coffee in Brazil, tea in India and Sri Lanka are some examples.

Question 14.
Name the different varieties or crops in India.
Answer:

  1. Cereals
  2. pulses and oilseeds
  3. Fibre crops
  4. Beverage crops
  5. Cash crops

Question 15.
Discuss the different types of fibres.
Answer:
Vegetable fibers are obatained from seeds, barks, leaves and fruit cases.
Animals fibres are produced from insects; such as silkworm and animals such as camels, sheep, goats, yaks, Hamas, rabbits, guanacos, alpacas, vicunas and reindeers.

Mineral fibres such as glass is made from silica sand.
Synthetic fibres are derived from chemical treatment of natural cellulose, which is i made from wood pulp.

Question 16.
What do you know about commercial agriculture?
Answer:
In this type of agriculture the main aim is to produce the crop for sale in the market. It can be intensive or extensive agriculture. The farmers try to keep the cost of production low. The framework is done by machines. This type of agriculture is practised in the prairies of North America, Pampas of South America, Steppes of Russia, Western Europe and in some parts of India.

Question 17.
Write the features of Intensive Subsistence Agriculture.
Answer:
It is a type of subsistence agriculture and its features are :

  • Intensive subsistence agriculture is done on small plot with simple tools.
  • Done by farmer and his family as labour.
  • Produce is used mainly by farmer so food grains are grown.
  • Rice is the main crop. Other crops are wheat, maize, pulses etc are cultivated.
  • Done mainly in thickly populated areas of south, southeast and east Asia.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 18.
Describe the main characteristics of shifting agriculture.
Answer:

  • In shifting agriculture, a plot of land is cleared by felling trees and burning them.
  • The ashes are then mixed with soil which works as a fertilizer.
  • After the soil loses its fertility, the land is abandoned. Cultivators move to a new plot.
  • It is practised in areas of heavy rainfall and quick generation of vegetation.
  • It is mainly done in Amazon basin, Tropical Africa, Southeast Asia and northeast India.
  • Crops like maize, yam, potatoes, and cassava are grown. This is also known as the ‘slash and burn’ agriculture.

Question 19.
Distinguish between :
(i) Subsistence farming and Commercial farming
Answer:

Subsistence Farming Commercial Farming
1. The practice of farming in which the crops are grown for home consumption by the farmer. 1. The practice of farming in which crops are grown for sale in the market or trade.
2. It is practised on small farms with simple tools and old technology. 2. It is practised on large farms with modern technology.
3. For example The production of wheat in some parts of country. 3. For example The production of sugarcane in U.P.

(ii) Intensive farming and Extensive farming.
Answer:

Intensive Farming Extensive Farming
1. Production is increased by using higher inputs and better agricultural techniques. 1.            Production is increased by bringing more and more land under cultivation.
2. This is practised in areas which are thickly populated. 2. This is practised in areas which are thinly populated.
3. This is practised in areas where there is less land available. 3.            This is done in areas where abundant land is easily available.
4. Livestock farming is little developed due to poor pastures. 4.            Livestock farming Supplements agriculture due to availability of grasslands.
5. Farms are small in size. 5. Farms are very large in size.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Shifting agriculture is also known as _________
Answer:
Slash and burn

Question 2.
_________, soil and climate are vital factors for agricultural activities.
Answer:
Topography

Question 3.
Advertising is an example of _________ activities.
Answer:
Tertiary

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 4.
Jute is grown intensively in _________ and _________
Answer:
India, Bangladesh

Question 5.
Coarse grains are also called _________
Answer:
Millets.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of cotton? Explain the conditions of growth and areas of production of cotton and jute in India.
Answer:
Cotton. Cotton has been called ‘the universal fibre’. It is one of the most important fibres of all the fibres. It forms the basis of cotton textile industry. Cotton is the leading fibre crop of India. It is known from the writings of Herodotus that cotton has been in use in India since 3000 B.C.

Geographical Conditions of Growth

  • Temperature. Cotton needs uniformly high summer temperature between 22°C to 32°C. It requires a warm climate with bright sunshine. Frost is harmful to cotton plants.
  • Rainfall. Cotton needs light to moderate rainfall between 50 to 100 cm.
  • Irrigation. In arid treas, irrigation is used. It increases the yield per hectare as in Punjab.
  • Soils. Cotton grows best on rich, well-drained loamy soils or lava soils.

Types of Cotton:

  • The long-staple cotton. This cotton has a length of 25 mm and above.
  • The medium staple cotton. This cotton has a staple length between 18 mm to 25 mm.
  • The short-staple cotton. This cotton has a fibre length of less than 18 mm.

Area of Cultivation
Southern India produces more cotton than Northern India. Gujarat is the leading
producer of cotton in India with a production of 25% of the total production in the country.
1. Black cotton soil region. This is the chief cotton-growing area of India on the ‘lava soil’ of N.W. Deccan Plateau. Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh are the major cotton-producing states.

2. Red soil region. Medium staple cotton is grown in the red soil areas including the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. The yield is low.

3. Alluvial soil region. Long-staple cotton is grown on the alluvial soils of Northern Plains. The states of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan are the important producers. Punjab has the highest yield per hectare due to its warm climate, fertile soils, and facilities of irrigation.

World Production. The U.S.A. is the leading producer of cotton in the world. China ranks second. India ranks third. Other main producers are Russia, Mexico, Egypt, Sweden, and Pakistan. Egypt is known for long-staple cotton. In the U.S.A., cotton production is decreasing.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Our Agriculture

Question 2.
Describe the different types of Farming.
Answer:
1. Shifting Agriculture. This farming method is practised by primitive people living in dense forests. The land is prepared by felling trees and burning the trees. People move from one area to another when the soil loses its fertility.

2. Subsistence Farming. In this method, farmers use primitive tools to cultivate their lands. Farmers in these regions produce agricultural goods, which are just sufficient to satisfy their own needs.

3. Commercial Farming. When farmers use modern tools and equipment such as tractors, threshers, winnowers, etc., and produce crops mainly to sell them in the market, it is called commercial farming.

4. Extensive Farming. This method is practised in countries where the population is sparse and the availability of land is more. Farmers use machines to a great extent, as the size of land holdings is large.

5. Intensive Farming. In this method of farming, the same piece of land is used throughout the year continuously. The soil is also very fertile. Farmers use more labourers, seeds that can yield more, better manures, and ensure a regular water supply.

6. Irrigation Farming. It is the type of farming, which mainly depends on irrigation through canals, wells, and tanks. Farmers cultivate their lands throughout the year.

Some of the important river valleys of the world where this method is followed are, the Ganga valley and the Indus valley in India, the Nile valley in Egypt, the Xi Jiang valley in China, Missouri, and San Joaquin valley in the United States of America.

7. Rainfed Farming. In the regions where the rainfall is not only seasonal but also scanty, farmers use different measures to cultivate their lands and use the scarce amount of rainwater efficiently. This is known as rainfed farming.

8. Mono-crop Farming. When the farmers specialize in the production of a single crop or if the soil and other natural factors allow farmers to cultivate only one crop that farming is known as one-crop or mono-crop farming.

9. Double and Multi-crop Farming. When two or more crops are cultivated in a plot of land, it is known as double or multi-crop farming. In this method, farmers apply scientific methods—use seeds that can give high yield, and apply manures in an appropriate manner.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
(a) Define mixture. Give examples.
(b) What are the types of mixtures?
Answer:
(a) Mixture. It is a product obtained by mixing two or more substances (elements and / or compounds) in any proportion. For example,

  1. Air is a mixutre of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, water vapour etc.
  2. Smoke is a mixture of carbon particles and air.
  3. Gun Powder is a mixture of nitre, sulphur and charcoal.
  4. Brass is a mixture of copper and zinc.

(b) Types of mixtures. Mixtures are of two types:
1. Homogeneous mixtures and
2. Heterogeneous mixtures.
1. Homogeneous mixtures: A mixture in which the different constitutents are mixed uniformly and has the uniform composition throughout is called homogeneous mixture, e.g. Brass is a homogeneous mixture of copper and zinc, an aqueous solution of sodium chloride is a homogeneous mixture of sodium chloride and water.
2. Heterogeneous mixtures: A mixture in which the different constitutents are not mixed uniformly is called heterogeneous mixture, e.g. soil is a heterogeneous mixture, a mixture of common salt, sand and sulphur is a heterogeneous mixture.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 2.
Give important characteristics of a mixture.
Answer:
The important characteristics of a mixure are:

  1. In a mixture, the components, elements or compounds are present in no fixed ratio.
  2. A mixture is formed from its components as a result of physical change.
  3. The properties of a mixture lie between those of its constituents.
  4. A mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
  5. The constituents of a mixture can be separated by physical methods only.
  6. The formation of a mixture from its constituents does not involve any energy change.

Question 3.
What are the various types of binary solutions based upon the physical states
of solute and solvent?
Answer:
These are of nine types:

Solute Solvent Type of solution Example
1. Solid Solid Solution of solid in solid Brass
2. Solid Liquid Solution of solid in liquid Sugar in water
3. Solid Gas Solution of solid in gas Iodine in air
4. Liquid Solid Solution of liquid in solid CuS04. 5H20
5. Liquid Liquid Solution of liquid in liquid Ethyl alcohol in water
6. Liquid Gas Solution of liquid in gas Moisture in air
7. Gas Solid Solution of gas in solid Hydrogen in palladium
8. Gas Liquid Solution of gas in liquid Carbon dioxide dissolved in water
9. Gas Gas Solution of gas in gas Air

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 4.
State briefly how would you separate or name the process use to separate:

  1. Common salt from a solution of common salt and water.
  2. Alcohol from a mixture of alcohol and water.
  3. Sulphur from a mixture of carbon particles and powdered roll sulphur.
  4. The coloured dyes in black ink.

Answer:

  1. The solution containing common salt in water is concentrated and is then cooled. The crystals of common salt are formed which can be separated by filtration.
  2. Alcohol can be separated from water by fractional distillation as the two liquids differ much in their boiling points.
  3. The mixture is treated with carbon disulphide which dissolves powdered sulphur in it. It is filtered to separate carbon particles. The filtrate upon concentration and cooling gives crystals of sulphur which can be separated by the process of filtration.
  4. The coloured dyes in black ink can be separated by the process of paper chromatography.

Question 5.
Give important differences between a compound and a mixture.
Answer:

Compound Mixture
1. A compound is formed from its constituent elements as a result of chemical reaction.

2. A compound is always homoge­neous in nature.

3. In a compound the elements are present in a fixed ratio by weight.

4. The components of a compound can’t be separated by physical methods but can be separated by chemical methods only.

5. The properties of a compound are different from that of its elements.

6. The formation of a compound from its elements is accompanied by energy changes.

 1. A mixture is obtained from its (elements, compounds) components as a result of physical change.

2. The mixtures can be homogeneous or heterogeneous.

3. In a mixture the components can be present in any ratio.

4. The components of a mixture can be separated by physical methods only.

5. The properties of a mixture lie between those of its components.

6. The formation of a mixture from its constituents is not accompanied by energy changes.

Question 6.
How are mixtures classified on the basis of their physical states?
Answer:
On the basis of their physical states, the mixtures are of the following types

Constituents of mixture Nature of mixture Example
1. Solid-Solid mixture Homogeneous Brass
2. Solid-Solid mixture Heterogeneous Common salt and sand
3. Solid-Liquid mixture Homogeneous Sugar in water
4. Solid-Liquid mixture Heterogeneous Sulphur in water
5. Liquid-Liquid mixture Homogeneous Water and alcohol
6. Liquid mixture Heterogeneous Carbon tetrachloride and water
7. Liquid-gas mixture Homogeneous Carbon dioxide dissolved in water
8. Gas-Gas mixture Heterogeneous A mixture of Nitrogen and Oxygen

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 7.
Explain the following:
(a) Fractional crystallisation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Filtration
Answer:
(a) Fractional Crystallisation. The process of separation of components of a mixture having different solubilities in the same solvent is called fractional crystallisation. This method is used for the separation of components of a mixture which are soluble in the same solvent on heating but have different solubilities.
For example, a mixture of potassium nitrate and sodium chloride can be separated by this method.

This can be explained as follows:
The mixture is dissolved in water. The solid is concentrated to the crystallisation point. On cooling the crystals of less slouble component i.e., sodium chloride appear first. These are separated. On further cooling the crystals of more soluble component i.e., of potassium nitrate will appear. The pure crystals can be obtained by recrystallisation from the same solvent i.e, water.

(b) Sublimation: This method is used for the separation of the components of a mixture in which one component undergoes sublimation whereas other does not. For example, a mixture of ammonium chloride and common salt can be separated by this purpose take the mixture of ammonium chloride and common salt in a china dish. Cover it with an inverted funnel and its open end is to be closed with cotton wool. The walls of china dish are kept booled. On heating, ammonium chloride sublimes and condenses on the cooler parts whereas common salt is left behind. The fine powder of ammonium chloride deposited on the funnel is scrapped with the help of a knife.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 1
Similarly, the mixture of iodine and sand can be separated by this method in which iodine sublimes whereas sand does not.

(c) Filtration. In this method, the mixutre is dissolved in a suitable solvent in which one component dissolves whereas other does not.

For example, a mixture of charcoal and sulphur can be separated by this method. The mixture is treated with carbon disulphide which dissloves sulphur whereas charcoal is left behind. The insoluble charcoal is separated by filtration and is dried. From the filtrate, sulphur can be obtained by evaporating carbon disulphide.

Question 8.
Explain the process of:
1. Distillation
2. Evaporation
Answer:
1. Distillation: The process of converting a liquid into gaseous state by heating to boiling point and condensing the vapour to get the pure liquid is called distillation.
For example, salt can be separated from sea water by this method. For this purpose the apparatus is fitted as shown below:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 2
The mixture of solid and liquid is taken in a distillation flask. On heating vapour of liquid (water) are produced. These are condensed in water condenser and collected in a receiver. The non-volatile sodium chloride is left behind. Similar, a mixture of methyl alcohol and iodine i an be separated by this method.

2. Evaporation: Evaporation is a process of changing a liquid into its gaseous state by heating it at a temperature below its boiling point. For example, common salt can be obtained from a mixture of common salt and water by evaporation.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 3
The mixture is heated in a china dish using sand bath when water vaporises whereas common salt is left behind.

Question 9.
What is chromatography? Why is it regarded as superior method of purification?
Answer:

  • Chromatography. The process of separation of different components of a mixture by adsorbing them over a suitable material (called adsorbent) is called chromatography.
  • Originally, this technique was used to separate coloured mixtures but now-a-days this method can be used for colourless as well as coloured substances.

The main advantages of this technique are:

  1. It can be applied to separate the mixture even if very small amount of mixture of the substances is available.
  2. The components of a mixture don’t get wasted during separation.
  3. It also helps in estimating the constituents of a mixture apart from separation.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 10.
What is the principle of chromatographic separation? Name the different types of chromatography commonly used.
Answer:
Chromatography is based upon the distribution of the mixture of the components between the two phases i.e. a stationary phase and a moving phase. The moving phase consists of mixture of the substances to be separated. The moving phase is applied over a solid or liquid i.e., a stationary phase. The stationary phase separates the components of the mixture by the phenomenon of either partition, adsorption or ion exchange. The different chromatographic techniques are:
(a) Column chromatography
(b) Thin layer chromatography
(c) Ion exchange chromatography
(d) Paper chromatography.

Question 11.
How will you separate gas-gas mixtures?
Answer:
The gas-gas mixtures can be separated by the following method:
Fractional evaporation of mixture of liquefied gases. The mixture of two gases is liquefied by applying high pressure and then allowing it to expand. For example, when air is liquefied under high pressure and allowed to stand, both oxygen and nitrogen get liquefied.

The above liquid mixture is maintained at a temperature of -196°C (b.pt. of liquid N2), nitrogen boils off. For example, a mixture of carbon dioxide and hydrogen can be separated by passing through porous partitions as showm below.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 4
In this case, H2 being lighter diffuses at a faster rate as compared to CO2.

Question 12.
What are the various types of colloidal solutions based upon the physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion medium? Give one example in each case.
Answer:
These are of eight types:

Dispersed Phase Dispersion Medium Type or name of colloidal solution Examples
1. Solid Solid Solid sol Some coloured glasses
2. Liquid Solid Gel Cheese, butter
3. Gas Solid Solid foam Sponge, rubber foam
4. Solid Liquid Sol Mud, milk of magnesia
5. Liquid Liquid Emulsion Milk, hair cream
6. Gas Liquid Foam Froth, whipped cream
7. Solid Gas Solid aerosol Smoke
8. Liquid Gas Liquid aerosol Fog, mist

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 13.
Define concentration of a solution. How is concentration of a solution expressed?
Answer:
Concentration of a solution. It indicates the amount of solute dissolved per unit mass or volume of solvent or solution.
The concentration of a solution can be expressed as
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 6

Question 14.
Describe how you would separate the constituents of the following mixtures in a reasonably pure state:
(a) Sand and iodine
(b) Water and sugar
(c) Ingredients of gun powder
(d) Sulphur, sand and common salt
(e) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide.
Answer:
(a) Sand and iodine. The mixture can be separated by sublimation when iodine sublimes whereas sand is left behind.

(b) Water and sugar. Sugar and water can be separated by evaporation when water evaporates and sugar is left behind.

(c) Ingredients of gun powder. Gun powder is a mixture of sulphur, nitre and charcoal. Shake the mixture with water. Nitre passes into solution separated by filtration. Evaporate the filtrate. We get pure nitre.
Shake the residue obtained above with carbon disulphide when sulphur dissolves while charcoal is separated by filtration. From filtration sulphur is obtained by evaporating carbon disulphide.

(d) Sulphur, sand and common salt. Shake the mixture with water and filter. Common salt passes into solution. The filtrate is evaporated to get common salt.
Shake the residue obtained above with carbon disulphide and filter sulphur goes into the filtrate. Evaporate it when sulphur is left behind. Sand is left behind insoluble in carbon disulphide.

(e) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide. The mixture can be separated by diffusion through a porous pot when carbon monoxide differ faster than carbon dioxide and thus get separated.

Question 15.
What is paper chromatography? How will you separate the coloured constituents present in a mixture of ink and water?
Answer:
The process of separation of different dissolved components of a mixture by adsorbing them on a suitable material (called adsorbent) is called chromatography. The adsorbent can be solid or liquid. For example, alumina, magnesium oxide, special filter paper.
The components of a mixture are generally dissolved in a solvent like water, alcohol etc. If a filter paper is used as an adsorbent for the separation of components of a mixture, this technique is called paper chromatography.

The process of separation of coloured constituents present in a mixture of ink and water is described ahead:
1. Take a special filter paper about 25 cm long and 4 cm broad and stick it to a glass rod at its one end with the help of gum as shown below. Mark a line at a distance of 3 cm from the lower end with the help of pencil. Put a drop of ink at the centre of this line with the help of a fine capillary.
2. Dip this end in water taken in a beaker upto 2 cm.
3. Suspend this filter paper in a tall cylinder and allow it to stand undisturbed for one hour. The water rises up the filter paper and reaches the ink drop, dissolves its components and rise upwards along with water. The different components of ink are adsorbed upto different extents on the filter paper, therefore, they travel different distances on the filter paper.
4. After one hour, the filter paper is taken out and dried. Different of colours corresponding to the components of ink are produced on the filter paper. This filter paper is called chromatograph.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 7

Question 16.
Briefly describe simple methods of separating the following mixtures:
(a) Powdered chalk and sugar
(b) Nitre and common salt
(c) Iron and copper filings
(d) Ammonium chloride, sand and common salt
(e) Ammonia and hydrogen.
Answer:
(a) Powdered chalk and sugar can be separated by using water which dissolves sugar and chalk is insoluble. It is separated by filtration. From sugar solution, sugar is obtained by evaporating water.

(b) Nitre and common salt. The mixture can be separated by fractional crystallisation from the solutions in water because they have different solubilities in water.

(c) Iron and copper filings can be separated by using a magnet when iron filings cling to magnet whereas copper filings don’t.

(d) Ammonium chloride, sand and common salt. Ammonium chloride is separated by sublimation. Sand and common salt are separated by using water when sand remains insoluble and is separated by filtration, From aqueous solution, sodium chloride can be separated by evaporation.

(e) Ammonia and hydrogen can be separated by diffusion through porous pot. Ammonia and hydrogen have different rates of diffusion due to different densities.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 17.
How will you separate liquid-liquid mixture or immiscible liquids?
Answer:
The liquid-liquid mixtures can be separated by using :
1. Separating funnel.
2. Fractional distillation.
1. Separation of liquid-liquid mixture by using separating funnel. This method is used when the two liquids are immiscible. For example, a mixture of carbon disulphide and wrater can be separated by this method.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 8
The mixture is taken in a separating funnel. The funnel is allowed to stand for sometime. On standing, the liquid having higher density forms the lower layer whereas the liquid having lower density forms the upper layer. The two liquids are taken out from the separating funnel in separate conical flask.

2. Separation of liquid-liquid mixture using fractional distillation:

The process of separating the mixture of two immiscible liquids by using distillation carried out with the help of a long fractionating column is called fractional distillation.
For example, a mixture of ethyl alcohol and water can be separated by this method. The apparatus is fitted as shown below:
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 9
The mixture of ethyl alcohol anci water is heated in a distillation flask fitted with a fractionating column. On heating the vapour of liquid having lower boiling point are produced first and condensed in the water condenser and collected in a receiver. When the temperature of thermometer begins to rise, the vapour of other liquid are produced and these are condensed and collected in a separate receiver.

Question 18.
How will you separate the solid-liquid mixtures?
Answer:
The solid-liquid mixtures can be separated by the following methods:
1. By sedimentation and decantation. In this method, the mixture is allowed to stand when the solid particles settle down as sediment whereas clear liquid is left behind which is poured out carefully. This process is called decantation e.g. mixture of sand and water can be separated by this method. By this method, the complete separation is not possible.

2. By filtration. In this method, the mixture can be separated by using filter paper when the insoluble solid is left on the filter paper whereas the clear liquid passes out from the filter paper and is collected. For example, a mixture of chalk and water can be separated by this method.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 10

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Give three characteristics of a pure substance.
Answer:

  1. It is homogeneous.
  2. It has a definite set of properties.
  3. A pure substance cannot be separated into other kinds of matter by any known physical method.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 2.
Give three examples each of two classes of pure substances.
Answer:
Pure substances are of two types:
(a) Elements e.g. carbon, nitrogen, oxygen etc.
(b) Compounds e.g. ammonium, water, carbon dioxide etc.

Question 3.
Give three characteristics of a mixture.
Answer:
(a) The components of a mixture are present in any ratio.
(b) It can be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
(c) The mixture can be separated with its constituents by physical or mechanical methods only.

Question 4.
Name the methods commonly used for separation of components of a mixture.
Answer:
These are:

  1. Evaporation
  2. Crytallisation
  3. Centrifugation
  4. Using separating funnel
  5. Simple distillation
  6. Fractional distillation
  7. Chromatography
  8. Sublimation

Question 5.
Define colloidal solution.
Answer:
It is a heterogeneous mixture or solution in which the particles having size 1 to 100 11m are suspended in a suitable solvent or dispersion medium. For example, starch solution.

Question 6.
Define dispersed phase and dispersion medium.
Answer:

  • Dispersed phase: In the colloidal solution colloidal particles constitute dispersed phase.
  • Dispersion medium: In the colloidal solution the medium in which colloidal particles are dispersed in called dispersion medium.
  • e.g. in the colloidal solution of starch in water, starch particles constitutes dispersed phase and water constitutes dispersion medium.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 7.
From the methods (or techniques) of distillation, filtration, fractional distillation, chromatography, crystallisation, select and write down the technique you would use to separate:

  1. Constituents of colouring matter in ink.
  2. Hydrated copper (II) sulphate or blue vitriol from its aqueous solution.
  3. Nitrogen from liquid air.
  4. Unused zinc after the reaction of excess of zinc with dilute sulphuric acid.

Answer:

  1. Chromatography
  2. Crystallisation
  3. Fractional distillation
  4. Filtration.

Question 8.
Name the technique which could be used to separate:
1. Iodine crystals from sand
2. Petrol from crude oil.
Answer:
1. Iodine crystals can be separated from sand by sublimation.
2. Petrol can be separated from crude oil by fractional distillation.

Question 9.
How will you separate:
1. Pure water from sea water?
2. Kerosene oil from a mixture of kerosene oil and petrol?
Answer:
1. It can be obtained by the process of distillation. When sea water is distilled, water distils, and vapour are condensed in a receiver whereas common salt is left behind in the retort.
2. Kerosene oil can be separated from a mixture of kerosene oil and petrol by fractional distillation when petrol distils off first and then kerosene oil distils off. .

Question 10.

  1. Name the kind of change of state when naphthalene changes into gaseous state.
  2. Name one element which undergoes similar change as in (i).
  3. Name a common substance which exists in all the three states of matter.

Answer:

  1. Sublimation
  2. Ammonium chloride
  3. Water.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 11.
Define electrophoresis.
Answer:
Electrophoresis is the process of migration of colloidal particles towards oppositely charged electrode under the influence of an electric field is called electrophoresis. The electrophoresis is due to the charge present on the colloidal particles.

Question 12.
Explain Brownian movement.
Answer:
Brownian movement. When colloidal solutions are viewed with the help of ultra-microscope, it is observed that colloidal particles follow zig-zig path. This is called brownian movement. This effect is due to the unequal impacts of the particles of dispersion medium with colloidal particles.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 11

Question 13.
Explain Tyndall effect.
Answer:
Tyndall effect. If a bright, narrow and convergent beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution and is viewed at right angles with the help of a microscope, the path of light becomes visible and a bright cone of light called Tyndall cone is produced. This luminosity of path of a beam of light in a colloidal solution is called Tyndall effect.
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 12

Question 14.
Define physical change and chemical change.
Answer:

  • Physical Change. It is a temporary change in which only the physical properties of substances change and it can be easily reversed.
  • Examples: Glowing of an electric bulb, evaporation of water.
  • Chemical Change: It is a permanent change in which the chemical properties of substances change and there is a change in composition and cannot be reversed.
  • Examples: Baking of a cake, Drying of a paint etc.

Question 15.
Classify the following substances into elements, compounds and mixtures:

  1. Cane sugar
  2. Zinc
  3. Oxygen
  4. Marble
  5. Bronze
  6. Nitre
  7. Air
  8. Milk
  9. Iron
  10. Stainless steel

Answer:

  1. Cane sugar – Compound
  2. Zinc – Element
  3. Oxygen – Element
  4. Marble – Mixture
  5. Bronze – Mixture
  6. Nitre – Compound
  7. Air – Mixture
  8. Milk – Mixture
  9. Iron – Element
  10. Stainless steel – Mixture

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 16.
1. Name the process used to separate the constituents liquefied air.
2. State how will you remove carbon dioxide from a mixture of carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide.
Answer:
1. Fractional evaporation.
2. Pass the mixture through potassium hydroxide solution. Carbon dioxide is absorbed by KOH solution.
2KOH + C02 → K2C03 + H20
Carbon monoxide is left behind and is collected over water by downward displacement of water.

Question 17.
How would you separate:
(a) Benzene (b.pt. 80°C) from toluene, methylbenzene (b.pt. 111°C) with which it is miscible?
(b) Kerosene oil from a mixture of kerosene oil and petrol?
(c) Lead sulphate from a mixture of lead sulphate and lead chloride?
Answer:
(a) By using simple distillation when benzene distils off first and its vapours are condensed and collected in a receiver.

(b) Kerosene oil from a mixture of kerosene oil and petrol can be obtained by using separating funnel when kerosene oil forms upper layer.

(c) Lead sulphate from a mixture of lead sulphate and lead chloride can be obtained by boiling with water which dissolves lead chloride and insoluble lead sulphate is separated by filtration.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 18.
A molecule can be formed by an element as well as by a compound. Explain.
Answer:
A molecule is the smallest particle of a substance i.e. an element or a compound which can exist freely. It has all the properties of that substance, e.g. a molecule of hydrogen (H2), a molecule of methane (CH4).

Question 19.
Can a mixture of chloroform (b.pt. 61°C) and carbon tetrachloride (b.pt. 77°C) be satisfactorily separated by the process you use for separating the various fractions of petroleum?
Answer:
Yes, a mixture of chloroform and carbon tetrachloride can be separated by using fractional distillation as used for the separation of various fractions of petroleum. The heating should be carried out slowly on a sand bath and vapours are condensed in a Liebig condenser and collected in separate receivers.

Question 20.
Name a mixture used:

  1. by all living beings
  2. in the construction of buildings
  3. as a food

Answer:

  1. Air
  2. Cement
  3. Milk

Question 21.
Give two advantages of paper chromatography.
Answer:
1. It can be applied even to a very small amount of the mixture of the substances.
2. The components of a mixture don’t get wasted during separation.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 22.
How would you obtain a sample of sulphur from a mixture of sulphur and carbon?
Answer:
Shake the mixture of sulphur and carbon with carbon disulphide and filter. Sulphur will be present in the filtrate and the residue is carbon. The filtrate is evaporated when carbon disulphide vaporises while sulphur is left behind.

Question 23.
How would you obtain pure ammonium chloride when it contains potassium chloride as an impurity?
Answer:
The mixture is heated. Ammonium chloride sublimes and its vapour are condensed in an inverted funnel. Potassium chloride is left behind. From the funnel ammonium chloride is scrapped with a knife.

Question 24.
Name three metals which are liquids at room temperature.
Answer:
These are mercury, cesium and gallium.

Question 25.
Name the various noble gases.
Answer:
The various noble gases are: Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe) and Radon (Rn).

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 26.
Which of the following statements are correct and which are incorrect?

  1. Milk is a mixture.
  2. Smoke is a mixture of solids and gases.
  3. Ice cream is a mixture.
  4. Mercury is a solid
  5. Thums up is a homogeneous mixture.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True.

Question 27.
If you are given a mixture of hydrogen and carbon dioxide, how would you remove the carbon dioxide gas?
Answer:
The carbon dioxide gas can be removed by passing the gaseous mixture through potassium hydroxide solution which absorbs carbon dioxide and hydrogen gas is set free.

Question 28.
Give two pieces of evidence that sodium chloride is a compound.
Answer:
Sodium chloride is a compound because:
1. in sodium chloride, sodium and chlorine are combined chemically in a fixed ratio by mass.
2. the formation of sodium chloride from sodium and chlorine is accompanied by loss of energy.

Question 29.
Give reasons to show that ammonia is a compound.
Answer:

  1. The properties of ammonia are different from those of its components i.e. nitrogen and hydrogen.
  2. When ammonia is formed from nitrogen and hydrogen, energy is given out.
  3. In ammonia, N and H are present in fixed ratio of 14 : 3 by mass.

Question 30.
Give three reasons why air is considered a mixture and not a compound.
Answer:
In air:

  1. the components are not present in any fixed ratio.
  2. the properties of air are average of the properties of its components.
  3. the components can be separated by physical methods.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 31.
Define crystallisation. Give its importance.
Answer:
It is a process in which a pure solid in the form of crystals is separated by cooling its hot saturated solution in a suitable solvent.
Importance:
1. For the purification of salt obtained from sea water.
2. To get crystals of alum from impure samples.

Question 32.
1. Some reduced iron filings and powdered roll sulphur are well mixed and heated in a test tube. Describe all what you observe.
2. Name the grey mass which is formed in test tube at the end of reaction.
3. Would you call the above reaction: exothermic or endothermic?
Answer:
1. When iron filings and powdered roll sulphur are well mixed and heated in a test tube, iron (II) sulphide is produced
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 13
2. Grey mass of iron (II) sulphide is produced.
3. The above reaction is endothermic, because heat energy is absorbed.

Question 33.
What are exothermic and endothermic reactions?
Answer:
1. Exothermic reaction: It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is evolved. e.g. burning of candle.
2. Endothermic reaction: It is a chemical reaction in which heat energy is absorbed e.g. decomposition of calcium carbonate to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 34.
What is the importance of evaporation?
Answer:
It is used to separate the non-volatile component from volatile solvent component from a mixture e.g. dye can be obtained from blue-black ink.

Question 35.
What are the applications of centrifugation?
Answer:

  1. It is used in diagnostic laboratories to test blood and urine.
  2. It is used in diaries and homes to separate butter from cream.
  3. It is used in washing machines to squeeze out water from wet clothes.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 36.
How will you separate a mixture of:
(a) Iodine and sand?
(b) Ammonium chloride and common salt?
(c) Chloroform and water?
(d) Carbon disulphide and water?
Answer:
(a) By sublimation
(b) By sublimation
(c) By using a separating funnel
(d) By using a separating funnel.

Question 37.
A solution contains 40 g of NaCl in 320 g of water. Calculate its concentration in terms of mass percentage of solution.
Answer:

  • Mass of NaCl = 40g
  • Mass of water = 320g
  • Total Mass of solution = 40 + 320 = 360g
  • Mass percentage of solution = 40 / 360 × 100 = 100 / 9 = 11.1

Question 38.
What are the advantages of crystallisation over evaporation?
Answer:

  • Some solids decompose on heating to dryness.
  • Some solids like sugar may get charred on heating.
  • Some impurities may be present in the solution on dissolving the impure solid in a solvent.

Question 39.
Name the separation technique to separate:

  1. Insoluble solid insolvent.
  2. Solution of solid in liquid.
  3. Miscible mixture of liquids.
  4. Immiscible mixture of liquids.
  5. Mixture of two solids, one of which sublimes

Answer:

  1. Filtration, centrifugation
  2. Evaporation, crystallisation, distillation
  3. Distillation, fractional distillation
  4. Separating funnel
  5. Sublimation

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 40.
What is fractional distillation? Give its importance.
Answer:
Fractional distillation. It is the process of separation of a mixture of two or more miscible liquids having very close boiling points (differing by less than 25°C). In this case, distillation is carried out using a fractionating column.
Importance:
1. This process is ised in the separation of petroleum products.
2. It is used to get component gases from air.

Question 41.
A solution of acetone in water contains 5 ml is 50 ml of its aqueous solution. Calculate the volume percentage of the solution.
Answer:

  1. Volume of solute = 8ml
  2. Volume of solution = 50ml
  3. Volume percentage of solution 5/50 × 100 = 10

Question 42.
Define distillation and give its importance.
Answer:
The conversion of a liquid into vapour and condensing the vapours back into liquid is known as distillation.
Importance:
1. To separate two miscible liquids which boil without decomposition and have sufficient differences in their boiling points (more than 30°C).
2. To separate a volatile component of a solution from a non-volatile component.

Question 43.
How are elements classified?
Answer:
The elements can be classified as:
(a) Metals e.g. Cu, Ag etc.
(b) Non-metals e.g. C, S etc.
(c) Metalloids e.g. As, Sb etc.
(d) Noble gases e.g. He, Ne etc.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 44.
Which of the following are pure substances and which are mixtures?

  1. Air
  2. Milk
  3. Graphite
  4. Gasoline
  5. Distilled water
  6. Ice
  7. Iodised table salt
  8. Diamond
  9. Oxygen
  10. One rupee coin
  11. 22 Carat gold
  12. 24 Carat gold
  13. Steel
  14. Iron
  15. Solid Iodine

Answer:

  1. Air – Mixture
  2. Milk – Mixture
  3. Graphite – Pure substance
  4. Gasoline – Mixture
  5. Distilled water – Pure substance
  6. Ice – Pure substance
  7. Iodised table salt – Mixture
  8. Diamond – Pure substance
  9. Oxygen – Pure substance
  10. One rupee coin – Mixture
  11. 22 carat gold – Mixture
  12. 24 carat gold – Pure substance
  13. Steel – Mixture
  14. Iron – Pure substance
  15. Solid Iodine – Pure substance

Question 45.
Which one of the substances given ahead is an element, a mixture or a chemical compound. Give one reason in each case:
(a) chlorine
(b) milk
(c) honey
(d) flowers of sulphur
(e) seawater
(f) gun powder
(g) brine
(h) sulphur
(i) apple juice
(j) carbon dioxide
(k) air
(Z) syrup.
Answer:
(a) Chlorine. It is an element made up of only one kind of atom.
(b Milk. It is a mixture of fat, water etc.
(c )Honey. It is a mixture of carbohydrates.
(d Flowers of sulphur. It is an element made up of only sulphur molecules (S8).
(e )Sea Water. It is a mixture of water and dissolved salts.
(f) Gun powder. It is a mixture of sulphur, nitre and charcoal.
(g) Brine. It is a mixture of water and sodium chloride.
(h) Sulphur. It is an element made up of sulphur molecules (S8).
(i) Apple juice. It is a mixture.
(j) Carbon dioxide. It is a compound of carbon and oxygen combined together in the fixed ratio 3 : 8 by mass.
(k) Air. It is a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases.
(Z) Syrup. It is a mixture.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 46.
(a) Name a chemical technique which could be used successfully to separate
1. Iodine crystals from sand.
2. Petrol from kerosene oil.
(b) A pupil decides to separate powdered calcium carbonate from powdered calcium chloride by shaking the mixture with water and filtering. Would this procedure succeed? Explain your answer.
(c) Mixtures are usually heterogeneous, but sometimes homogeneous also.
Give one example each of two different types of mixtures.
Answer:
(a) 1. Sublimation
2. Fractional distillation
(b) Yes, when a mixture of calcium carbonate and calcium chloride is treated with water, calcium chloride dissolves whereas calcium carbonate does not. It is separated by filtration.
(c) Homogeneous mixture, e.g. Brass is a homogeneous mixture of copper and zinc.
Heterogeneous mixture, e.g. common salt and sand.

Question 47.
From the following techniques:
Distillation, filtration, fractional distillation, chromatography, crystallisation, sublimation, evaporation, decantation, sedimentation. Select the method you will use to separate:
(a) the constituents of the colouring matter of ink.
(b) hydrated CuS04 from its aqueous solution.
(c) Grass stains.
(d) Common salt from sea-water.
(e) Petrol from crude oil.
Answer:
(a) Chromatography
(b) Crystallisation
(c) Chromatography
(d) Evaporation
(e) Fractional distillation.

Question 48.
How will you separate a mixtu funnel? Explain with an activity.
Answer:
Take a clean separating funnel and take a mixture of mustard oil and water in it. Allow it to stand for sometime. On standing, two separate layers appears. The lower layer is of water (heavier) and the upper layer is of mustard oil (lighter).
PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 14
Open the stop cock of the separating funnel and pour out the lower layer of water carefully. Close the stop cock when the water has been removed. Mustard oil is left in the separating funnel.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Define pure substance.
Answer:
It is a material containing particles of only one kind having a definite set of properties.

Question 2.
Define mixture.
Answer:
It is a material obtained by mixing two or more elements and or compounds in any ratio.

Question 3.
How will you separate the components of an aqueous solution of sodium chloride?
Answer:
By simple distillation.

Question 4.
Give two examples of homogeneous mixture.
Answer:
Sodium chloride dissolved in water, sugar dissolved in water.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 5.
Give two examples of homogeneous mixtures.
Answer:
Iron filings and common salt, common salt and sulphur.

Question 6.
Is the mixture of oil and water, homogeneous or heterogeneous?
Answer:
Heterogeneous.

Question 7.
What is solution?
Answer:
It is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances whose composition can be changed within certain fixed limits.

Question 8.
Give examples of solid solution.
Answer:
Brass, Bronze.

Question 9.
Give one example of gaseous solution.
Answer:
Air.

Question 10.
Name the components of Brass.
Answer:
Zinc and copper.

Question 11.
Define solute.
Answer:
It is the component of a solution which is present in small amount and which is dissolved in another component called solvent.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 12.
Define solvent.
Answer:
It is the component of solution which is present in large amount and in which solute is dissolved.

Question 13.
Name the solute and solvent in an aqueous solution of sugar.
Answer:
Water-Solvent, Sugar-Solute.

Question 14.
In tincture of Iodine, name solute and solvent.
Answer:
Solute-Iodine, Solvent-Alcohol.

Question 15.
In soda water, name solute and solvent.
Answer:
Solute-Carbon dioxide, Solvent-water.

Question 16.
What is the type of air mixture?
Answer:
Homogeneous.

Question 17.
In air name solute and solvent?
Answer:
Solvent-Nitrogen, Solute-Oxygen and other gases.

Question 18.
What is the size of particles of solutions?
Answer:
Less than lnm (10-9m).

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 19.
What is saturated solution?
Answer:
It is a solution in which no more of solute can be dissolved at the given temperature and pressure.

Question 20.
What is unsaturated solution?
Answer:
It is a solution in which more of solute can be dissolved at the given temperature and pressure.

Question 21.
What is the concentration of a solution?
Answer:
It gives us the exact amount of solute dissolved in an exact amount of solvent or solution.

Question 22.
What is a suspension?
Answer:
It is a heterogeneous mixture in which small particles of a solid don’t dissolve but remain suspended in the liquid (or gas).

Question 23.
Why is suspension temporary?
Answer:
This is because components of suspension can be saparated by filtration.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 24.
Suspended particles in a suspension can be seen with naked eye, why?
Answer:
This is because their sizes are more than 100 run.

Question 25.
What is Tyndall effect?
Answer:
It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles.

Question 26.
How will you prove that milk is a colloidal solution?
Answer:
It shows Tyndall effect.

Question 27.
What is the size of colloidal particles?
Answer:
1 to 100 nm.

Question 28.
How will you separate colloidal particles from solution?
Answer:
By ultra centrifugation.

Question 29.
When do we don’t use filtration?
Answer:
If the solid particles present in solution have very small sizes and can pass through pores of filter paper.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 30.
What is the principle of centrifugation of mixtures?
Answer:
Heavier particles settle down and lighter particles float over them.

Question 31.
Where do we use centrifugal machine?
Answer:
In diagnostic laboratory to study urine and blood, in dairies to separate butter and cream from milk, to squeeze water from clothes in washing machine.

Question 32.
On the basis of what principle, two immiscible liquids can be separated?
Answer:
Based upon density.

Question 33.
How can a mixture of sodium chloride and ammonium chloride separated?
Answer:
By sublimation.

Question 34.
Name four substances which undergo sublimations.
Answer:
Ammonium chloride, comphor, naphthalene, anthracene.

Question 35.
How many colours are mixed in a dye?
Answer:
Two or more colours.

Question 36.
Define chromatography.
Ans.wer:
It is the separation of coloured components of a mixture based upon adsorption.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 37.
What are the uses of chromatography?
Answer:
1. To separate components of a dye.
2. To separate colours from natural colours, to separate sugar from urine and to separate medicine from blood.

Question 38.
Which type of liquid mixture solutions can be separated by simple distillation?
Answer:
Liquids having large differences in their boiling points.

Question 39.
Which type of liquid mixture solutions are separated by fractional distillation?
Answer:
Liquids whose boiling points differ by less than 25 K.

Question 40.
Give two examples where fractional distillation is used to separate the components of a mixture.
Answer:
Air, petroleum.

Question 41.
What is the function of glass beads in fractionating column?
Answer:
These provide surface for cooling and condensing vapours.

Question 42.
Which type of mixture air is?
Answer:
It is a homogeneous mixture.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 43.
What is the boiling point of oxygen?
Answer:
183°C.

Question 44.
What is the boiling point of Argon.
Answer:
186°C.

Question 45.
What is the boiling point of nitrogen?
Answer:
196°C.

Question 46.
When do we use crystallisation for purification?
Answer:
To purify solids.

Question 47.
How will you get pure copper sulphate?
Answer:
By crystallisation.

Question 48.
Why is crystallisation better than simple distillation?
Answer:
In simple distillation, some substances decompose or are burnt and some impurities are left.

Question 49.
How will you get pure water from sea water?
Answer:
By evaporation and simple crystallisation.

Question 50.
How is alum purified?
Answer:
By crystallisation.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 51.
What are the changes during chemical change?
Answer:
Chemical decomposition and change of chemical properties.

Question 52.
Name the type of change of combustion?
Answer:
Chemical change.

Question 53.
How is matter classified on the basis of chemical decomposition?
Answer:
Elements and compounds.

Question 54.
Which French scientist proved that element is a fundamental or basic particle of matter?
Answer:
Antonie Lorentz Lavosier.

Question 55.
Which is the basic unit of matter?
Answer:
Element.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 56.
Define an element.
Answer:
It is the smallest particle of an element which can’t be decomposed into still smaller particles by chemical reaction.

Question 57.
How are elements classified?
Answer:
Metals, non-metals and metalloids.

Question 58.
Name the metal which is liquid at room temperature.
Answer:
Mercury.

Question 59.
What is metalloid?
Answer:
It shows the properties of both metals and non-metals.

Question 60.
Give two examples of metalloids.
Answer:
Arsenic, antimony.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 61.
Give examples of non-metals.
Answer:
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine, bromine etc.

Question 62.
Give examples for metals.
Answer:
Sodium, potassium, copper, iron, gold, silver etc.

Question 63.
How many elements are known till today?
Answer:
112.

Question 64.
How many elements occur in nature?
Answer:
There are 92 natural elements.

Question 65.
How many elements are gases at room temperature?
Answer:
11.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 66.
Name five methods to separate mixtures.
Answer:

  1. Filtration
  2. Crystallisation
  3. Sublimation
  4. Evaporation
  5. Distillation.

Question 67.
How are sugar crystals separated in a sugar factory?
Answer:
By centrifugation process.

Question 68.
The size of colloidal particals is in the range …………….. .
Answer:
1 to 100 run.

Question 69.
Tyndall effect is shown by ……………. .
Answer:
Colloidal particles.

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 70.
He and Ne are ……………….. gases.
Answer:
Noble.

Question 71.
FeS + H2S04 → …………..
Answer:
FeS + H2S04 → FeS04 + H2S

Question 72.
In a refinery, petrol is obtained from crude oil by the process of …………… .
Answer:
Fractional distillation

Question 73.
Grass stains are removed from the clothing by using ……………. as solvent.
Answer:
Methylated spirit

Question 74.
Common salt is obtained from sea water by the process of ……………. .
Answer:
Evaporation

PSEB 9th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 75.
When caustic soda solution is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate, a blue precipitate of copper hydroxide is obtained. The copper hydroxide can be separated from the mixture by the process of ……………….. .
Answer:
Filtration.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

PSEB 9th Class Science Guide Atoms and Molecules Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A 0.24 g sample of a compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition Of the compound by weight.
Answer:
Weight of compound = 0.24 g
Weight of Boron = 0.096 g
Weight of oxygen = 0.144 g
∴ % age of B = \(\frac{0.096}{0.24}\) × 100
= \(\frac{96}{240}\) × 100 = 40
% age of O = \(\frac{0.144}{0.240}\) × 100 = 60

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Question 2.
When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?
Answer:
3.00 g of carbon combines with 8.00 g of oxygen to produce 11.00 g of carbon dioxide
C + O2 → CO2
When 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. This is based upon the law of constant compositions.

Question 3.
What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.
Answer:
Polyatomic ions. A group of atoms carrying a charge (+ve or -ve) is called a polyatomic ion.
Examples: \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\), \(\mathrm{SO}_{3}^{2-}\), \(\mathrm{NH}_{4}^{+}\) etc.

Question 4.
Write the chemical formulae of the following :
(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 1

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Question 5.
Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds:
(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate
Answer:
(a) Quick lime (CaO). The elements present in it are calcium and oxygen.
(b) Hydrogen bromide (HBr). The elements present in it are hydrogen and bromine.
(c) Baking powder (NaHC03). The elements present in it are sodium, hydrogen, carbon and oxygen.
(d) Potassium sulphate (K2S04). The elements present in it are Potassium, Sulphur and Oxygen.

Question 6.
Calculate the molar mass of the following substances:
(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus is 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HNO3
Answer:
(a) Molar mass of ethyne, C2H2 = 2 × 12 + 2 × 1 = 24 + 2 = 26 g
(b) Molar mass of sulphur molecule, S8 = 8 × 32 = 256 g
(c) Molar mass of Phosphorus molecule, P4 = 4 × 31 = 124 g
(d) Molar mass of hydrochloric acid, HCl = 1 + 35.5 g = 36.5 g
(e) Molar mass of nitric acid, HNO3 = 1 + 14 + 3 × 16 = 1 + 14 + 48 = 63g

Question 7.
What is the mass of:
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2S03)?
Answer:
(a) Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atoms = 14 g
(b) Mass of 1 mole of A1 atoms = 27 g
Mass of 4 moles of A1 atoms = 4 × 27 = 108 g
(c) Mass of 1 mole of sodium sulphite, Na2SO3
= 2 × 23 + 32 + 3 × 16
= 46 + 32 + 48 = 126 g
∴ Mass of 10 moles of Na2SO3 = 10 × 126 = 1260 g

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Question 8.
Convert into moles:
(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 2

Question 9.
What is the mass of:
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?
Answer:
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms:
Mass of 1 mole of oxygen atoms = 16 g
Mass of 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms = 0.2 × 16 = 3.2 g
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules:
Mass of 1 mole of water molecule (H2O) = 18 g
∴ Mass of 0.5 mole of water molecules = 0.5 × 18 = 9 g

Question 10.
Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur(S8) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.
Answer:
Mass of solid sulphur (S8) = 16 g
Mass of 1 mole of sulphur (S8) = 8 × 32 = 256 g
No. of molecules in 16 g of solid sulphur = 16/256 × 6. 023 × 1023
= 3.76 × 1022 molecules

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Question 11.
Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide.
(Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element.
The atomic mass of Al = 27 u)
Answer:
Mass of 1 mole of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) = 2 × 27 + 3 × 16 = 54 + 48 = 102 g
1 mole of Al2O3 contains Al3+ ions = 2 × 27 = 54 g
or 102 g of Al2O3 contains Al3+ contains = 54 g
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 3

Science Guide for Class 9 PSEB Atoms and Molecules InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that these observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass.
Sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water.
Answer:
Sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water.

  • Mass of sodium carbonate = 5.3 g
  • Mass of ethanoic acid = 6.0 g
  • Total mass of the reactants = 5.3 + 6.0 = 11.3g
  • Mass of carbon dioxide = 2.2 g
  • Mass of water = 0.9 g
  • Mass of sodium ethanoate = 8.2 g
  • Total mass of the products = 2.2 + 0.9 + 8.2 = 11.3 g

Since total mass of the reactants = Total mass of the products
Hence, the Law of Conservation of Mass is true.

Question 2.
Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen?
Answer:
One g of hydrogen gas reacts with oxygen = 8 g
3 g of hydrogen gas will react with oxygen = 3 × 8 = 24 g

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Question 3.
Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of cosnervation of mass?
Answer:
Law of conservation of mass is based upon the postulate that atoms are indivisible particles and can neither be created nor destroyed during any chemical reaction.

Question 4.
Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?
Answer:
Atoms of various elements combine in simple whole-number but the fixed ratio to form compound atoms (molecules).

Question 5.
Define the atomic mass unit.
Answer:
One atomic mass unit is a mass unit and it is equal to 1/12th of the mass of an atom of carbon-12.
1 a.m.u. = 1.66 × 10-27 kg

Question 6.
Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?
Answer:
This is because atoms are very-very small. The radius of an atom is of the order of 10-10 m.

Question 7.
Write down the formulae of
1. Sodium oxide
2. Aluminium chloride
3. Sodium sulphide
4. Magnesium hydroxide.
Answer:
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 4

Question 8.
Write down the names of the compounds represented by the following formulae,

  1. Al2 (S04)3
  2. CaCl2
  3. K2S04
  4. KN03
  5. CaCO3

Answer:

  1. Aluminium sulphate
  2. Calcium chloride
  3. Potassium sulphate
  4. Potassium nitrate
  5. Calcium carbonate.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Question 9.
What is meant by the term chemical formula?
Answer:
Chemical formula. The chemical formula of a substance indicates its constituent elements and number of atoms of each combining element present in One molecule of it.

Question 10.
How many atoms are present in ;
1. H2S molecule
2. \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion
Answer:
1. An H2S molecule represents
(a) two atoms of hydrogen and
2. A \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion represents
(a) one atom of P
(b) three atoms of O.

Question 11.
Calculate the molecular masses of H2, O2, Cl2, CO2, CH4, C2H6, C2H4, NH3, CH3OH.
Answer:

  • Molecular mass of H2 = 2 × 1 = 2u
  • Molecular mass of 02 = 2 × 16 = 32 u
  • Molecular mass of Cl2 = 2 × 35.5 = 71.0 u
  • Molecular mass of C02 = 1 × 12 + 2 × 16 = 12 + 32 = 44 u
  • Molecular mass of CH4 = 12 + 4 × 1 = 12 + 4 = 16 u
  • Molecular mass of C2H6 = 2 × 12 + 6 × 1 = 24 + 6 = 30 u
  • Molecular mass of C2H4 = 2 × 12 + 4 × 1 = 24 + 4 = 28 u
  • Molecular mass of NH3 = 14 + 3 × 1 = 14 + 3 = 17 u
  • Molecular mass of CH3OH = 12 + 3 × 1 + 16 + 1 = 12 + 3 + 16 + 1 = 32 u

Question 12.
Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na2O, K2C03.
(Given atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, C = 12u and O = 16 u)
Answer:

  • Formula unit mass of ZnO = 65 + 16 = 81 u
  • Formula unit mass of Na2O = 2 × 23 + 16 = 46 + 16 = 62 u
  • Formula unit mass of K2C03 = 2 × 39 + 12 + 3 × 16 = 78 + 12 + 48 = 138 u

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Question 13.
If one mole of carbon atoms weigh 12 gram. What is the mass (in grams) of 1 atom of carbon?
Answer:
1 mole of carbon has mass = 12 g
Mass of 1 atom of carbon = \(\frac{12}{6.023 × 10}\)
= 1.99 × 10– 23g

Question 14.
Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or 100 grams of ion (given atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?
Answer:
Atomic mass of sodium = 23 u
1 mole of sodium has mass = 23 g
No. of moles of sodium in 100 g = \(\frac{100}{23}\)
∴ No. of atoms of sodium in 100 g
PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 5
∴ 100 g of sodium has more atoms.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe – The Model of the Earth

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Globe – The Model of the Earth Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Globe – The Model of the Earth

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB Globe – The Model of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why is Globe called a model of the Earth?
Answer:
Globe shows the earth in its true shape. The shapes and sizes of all the physical features of the earth such as continents and oceans, distances and directions, etc. are correctly represented on it. As such, it is a correct replica of the round shape of the earth. That is why Globe is called a model of the earth.
PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth 1
Globe

Question 2.
What is the name of the ending of screw of Globe?
Answer:
The upper screw of Globe is known as North Pole and lower one is called South Pole.

Question 3.
What is the name given to the semi-circles that connect both the poles?
Answer:
The semi-circles that connect both the poles are named as longitudes.

Question 4.
What is Hemisphere? Name the line that cuts the Globe or Earth into the Hemispheres.
Answer:
The half of a sphere is called hemisphere. The equator cuts the Globe or Earth into the hemispheres.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 5.
What is the Prime Meridian? From where it passes?
Answer:
0° longitude is called the Prime Meridian. It passes through Greenwich in England.

Question 6.
What is the difference between Longitudes and Latitudes?
Answer:
Longitudes are angular distances of a place from the Prime Meridian, whereas latitudes are angular distances of a place from the equator.

Question 7.
Why longitudes are called Meridians of Longitude? Into how many Meridians do we divide the Earth or Globe?
Answer:
Longitudes are called Meridians of Longitude because they are drawn through the Prime Meridian. We divide the Earth or Globe into 360° meridians.

Question 8.
Which is the largest circle of Globe? Name it.
Answer:
The circle of equator is the largest circle of Globe.

Question 9.
What is the difference between Parallels of Latitude and Meridians of Longitude?
Answer:

Parallels of Latitude Meridians of Longitude
1. Parallels of latitude are imaginary circles drawn parallel to the equator. 1. Meridians of longitude are imaginary lines running from North to South.
2. These are circles. 2. These are semi circles.
3. The distance between them is measured in degrees of latitude. 3. The distance between them is measured in degrees of longitude.
4. They are 180+1 in number. 4. They are 360 in number.

Question 10.
What is the importance of Longitudes?
Answer:
The importance of longitudes is as follow :

  1. Longitudes help us in knowing the east-west distance of a place.
  2. They help us in calculating the local time of a place.

Question 11.
Which lines help us to divide the Earth into Heat Zones? Give reasons why there are Heat Zones.
Answer:
Latitudes help us to divide the earth into Heat Zones. Heat Zones are there because of the following reasons :
1. The rays of the sun which are vertical, occupy less space but intensity of heating is very high and the rays of the sun which are slanting, occupy more space but intensity of heating is low.

2. The shape of the earth is spherical. The central, the bulging part of the earth receives maximum heat of the sun and as we go away from the central part towards the poles, the heat reduces.

Question 12.
What is the difference between Local Time and Indian Standard Time?
Answer:
1. Local Time. Local time is the time reckoned by the noon sun at a given place. At any place a watch can he adjusted to read 12 O’ clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky or when it is mid day. The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place. All the places, on a given meridian of longitude, have the same local time.

2. Indian Standard Time. In a particular country, local time of a particular or rather a central place is adopted as the uniform time for the whole country. It is called the standard time of that country or that area. In India, the local time of 8214 ° E Longitude is used as the standard time for the whole country. It is called the Indian Standard Time. 8214° E is thus the standard meridian of India.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Tropic of Cancer is depicted by ________ Parallel of Latitude.
Answer:
0 to 23 1/2° North

Question 2.
Tropic of Capricorn is depicted by ________ Parallel of Latitude.
Answer:
0 to 23 1/2° South

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 3.
Latitudes and Longitudes make a on a Globe.
Answer:
grid

Question 4.
The distance between any two parallels is always ________
Answer:
equal

Question 5.
The ________ is also known as Zero Meridian.
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 6.
In India, the Longitude of ________ is considered the Standard Meridian.
Answer:
82 1/2° East

Question 7.
The time difference between Greenwich Mean Time and Indian Standard Time is ________
Answer:
5 hours 30 minutes.

III. Say whether the following statements are True or False :

Question 1.
Each parallel of Latitude is a semi-circle.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Temperature increases as we go away from the equator.
Answer:
False

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 3.
The Torrid Zone lies between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The Earth rotates from the West to East direction.
Answer:
True.

IV. Things To Do (Activity):

Question 1.
Draw a diagram of the earth, liark the earth’s Axis, the Great Circle, Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn, Arctic Circle and Antarctic Circle on it.
Answer:

  • N.P. – S.P. = Axis
  • EQ = Great Circle
  • TC = Tropic of Cancer
  • T’C’ = Tropic of Capricorn
  • AR = Arctic Circle
  • A’N’ = Antarctic Circle.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth 2

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide Globe – The Model of the Earth Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
As earth is a globe, most accurate model of it is :
(A) Map on chart
(B) Globe
(C) Map on spherical fruit
(D) Map on a circular paper.
Answer:
(B) Globe.

Question 2.
A system of orbiting satellites that send radio signals to receivers on earth is a
(A) Navigator
(B) Radio
(C) Radar
(D) GPS.
Answer:
(D) GPS.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 3.
A great circle is a circle which passes through the centre of the earth and bisects it into two equal hemispheres is called :
(A) Arctic circle
(B) Antarctic circle
(C) Great circle
(D) Equator.
Answer:
(C) Great circle.

Question 4.
The ends of the axis are called :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Great Divide
(D) Great Circle.
Answer:
(B) Poles.

Question 5.
The zone with moderate temperatures is called :
(A) Temperate zone
(B) Tropical zone
(C) Equatorial zone
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(A) Temperate zone.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The tropic of capricorn is located at ________
Answer:
23% south of equator

Question 2.
The standard meridian of India is ________
Answer:
82’4° East,

Question 3.
The 0° meridian is also known as ________
Answer:
Prime meridian

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 4.
The distance between the longitudes decreases towards ________
Answer:
Poles

Question 5.
The arctic circle is located in the hemisphere.
Answer:
Northern.

True/False :

Question 1.
Frigid zone lies between the arctic circle and the north pole.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
With longitudes we can divide the earth into heat zones.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Local time is the time of a central meridian of an area.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Latitude is the angular distance of a place north to south of the equator.
Answer:
True

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 5.
I.S.T. is termed as Indian Standard Time.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two Hemispheres.
Answer:
The two Hemispheres are Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
What is Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The northern and upper part of Globe from equator is called Northern Hemisphere.

Question 3.
What is Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The southern and lower part of Globe from equator is known as Southern Hemisphere.

Question 4.
Explain Parallel Lines.
Answer:
Parallel lines’are those lines which run at equal distance and never meet with each other. They may be straight or circular.

Question 5.
What is Equatorial Line?
Answer:
The line drawn through the centre or 0° latitude is known as Equatorial Line.

Question 6.
How many Parallels of Latitude are there?
Answer:
There are 180+1 Parallels of Latitude.

Question 7.
What degree of angle does the equator represent?
Answer:
The equator represents 0° latitude.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 8.
What does 90° South Latitude indicate?
Answer:
90° South Latitude indicates South Pole.

Question 9.
Where does the Tropic of Cancer lie on Globe?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer lies in the Northern Hemisphere on Globe.

Question 10.
What is the angular distance of the Tropic of Cancer from the equator?
Answer:
The angular distance of the Tropic of Cancer from the equator is 231/4° North.

Question 11.
What is the angular distance of the Tropic of Capricorn from the equator?
Answer:
The angular distance of the Tropic of Capricorn from the equator is 2354° South.

Question 12.
What is the Indian Standard Time?
Answer:
The Indian Standard Time is taken in the longitude of 8214° E.

Question 13.
Which area on the earth receives the maximum heat?
Answer:
The area lying between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn receives the maximum heat.

Question 14.
Into how many Heat Zones has the earth been divided?
Answer:
The earth has been divided into three Heat Zones.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 15.
What is the basis of the division of Heat Zones?
Answer:
Temperature is the basis of the division of Heat Zones.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:

Northern Hemisphere Southern Hemisphere
1. The part of the earth which lies in the northern part of equator is called Northern Hemisphere. 1. The part of the earth which lies to the south of the equator is called Southern Hemisphere.
2. 0° to 90° North latitude mark Northern Hemisphere. 2. 0° to 90° South latitude mark Southern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Latitude and Longitude.
Answer:

Latitude Longitude
1. Latitude is the angular distance of a place North or South of the Equator. 1. Longitude is the angular distance of a place East or West of Prime Meridian.
2. The latitude value increases in North-South directions from the Equator. 2. The longitude value increases in East-West directions from meridian.
3. Its value ranges between 0° to 90° N, 0° to 90°S. 3. Its value ranges between 0° to 180°E, 00 to 180°W.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 3.
Distinguish between Local and Standard Time.
Answer:

Local Time Standard Time
1. Local time of a place is the time of its meridian. 1. Standard time is the time of a central meridian of an area.
2. Each place has its own local time. 2. All places have a uniform or same time.
3. When it is noon, the local time is 12 o’clock. 3. It has not any relation with noon or height. of the sun.
4. All places on the Meridian have same local time. 4. All places within a country have the same standard time.
5. The places in the East are ahead of west in time. For 10 longitude there is difference of 4 minutes of time. 5. There is no change in time. So it is known as standard time.

Question 4.
In which hemisphere does the Tropic of Cancer lie?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer lies in the Northern Hemisphere. It is at an angular distance of 23’A° North from the equator. It runs in an east-west direction almost mid-way through our country.

Question 5.
What are Temperate Zones?
Answer:
The areas bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Hemisphere and the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere are called Temperate Zones.

Question 6.
What are Frigid Zones?
Answer:
The areas lying between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere are known as Frigid Zones.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 7.
Where is Greenwich? For what is it famous?
Answer:
Greenwich lies near London in England. It is the place where British Royal Observatory is located. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) has been fixed here.

Question 8.
Discuss the importance of Grid.
Answer:
The importance of Grid is as follows :
1. Grid helps us in making maps and atlases.
2. It helps us in reading maps.
3. It helps us in fixing the boundary between two countries.
PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth 3
Grid

Question 9.
What is the importance of Latitudes?
Answer:
The importance of latitudes can be discussed as under :
1. We can very easily form an idea of the temperature of a place.
2. We can divide the earth into Heat Zones.
3. We can find the exact location of a place.

Question 10.
Why do we use models to show earth?
Answer:
The earth is very large in size. We cannot’ see the whole of the earth in its actual size and shape in one go. So we use models, photographs, and maps to see the earth.

Question 11.
Why is the globe a correct replica of the earth?
Answer:
On the globe, shapes, sizes, distance and directions of continents and oceans are correctly represented.

Question 12.
How many parallels of latitude are there?
Answer:
There are 90 imaginary lines drawn to the north of equator and 90 imaginary lines drawn to the south of equator. It makes 181 parallels of latitude in all.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 13.
How to locate a place on it (The Earth/Globe)?
Answer:
If we want to locate a place on the globe we have to do the following exercise :

  • First we have to know the latitude and longitude of that place.
  • Now we draw the meridian and parallel of latitude of that place on the basis of its longitude and latitude.
  • The point where these meridian and parallel of latitude intersect themselves, will be the location of that place.

Question 14.
Do you know what is the time difference between India and England?
Answer:
The time difference between India and England is of 5.30 hours.
1. If it is noon in England, it is 5.30 p.m. in India because time is ahead in India than in England by 5.30 hours.

2. This can be calculated in the following manner :

  • Difference between 0° longitude and 82 1/4° E longitude = 82 1/4°
  • Time in the East is ahead by 4 minutes on passing every meridian
  • Hence time ahead 82 1/4° × 4 = 330 minutes or 5.30 hours.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In what way is a globe different from maps?
Answer:
Globe is a true jnodel of the earth while a map is a picture of the earth. A globe has three dimensions, while a map has two dimensions. Globe gives correct idea of shape of the earth, but a map gives details of an area. It is easy to carry maps, but globes are not portable. Globe is not*fixed. It can be rotated while map is fixed. A globe can be rotated as a top spin or a potter’s wheel. On the globe, countries, continents and oceans are shown in their correct size.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 2.
List the situation in which the globe is far more useful than maps.
Answer:

  • Earth is truly shown by a globe. It gives shapes and directions correctly.
  • It is a true model of our planet.
  • Lines of latitudes and longitudes are shown correctly on a globe.
  • NoW-a- days relief features can be shown on globe.
  • It can be rotated on its axis.
  • Globe is an important tool of Geography.
  • Globe can be rotated like a top spin or a potter’s wheel.

Question 3.
What are the shortcomings of a globe?
Answer:
A globe has some limitations :

  • It is not easy to carry globes.
  • It is not useful for studying an area of a country.
  • Only one hemisphere can be studied from a globe.
  • Distances cannot be measured on a spherical globe.
  • Globes do not show details.

Question 4.
Into how many Heat Zones can tile earth be divided? Explain each zone.
Answer:
The earth can be divided into three Heat Zones. They are Torrid Zone, Temperate Zone and Frigid Zone.
1. Torrid Zone: It lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. It is the hottest zone of the world. The noon sun shines vertically over this part of the earth.

2. Temperate Zone: It lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Fig. Heat Zones of Earth
Hemisphere and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere. The sun is never overhead in this zone. It is neither very hot in summer nor very cold in winter. It is, therefore, called the Temperate Zone.

3. Frigid Zone: It lies between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 5.
Describe the important Parallels of Latitude.
Answer:
The Equator, the Tropic of Cancer, the Tropic of Capricorn, the Arctic Circle, and the Antarctic Circle is the important Parallels of Latitude.

  1. The Equator: The equator is the most important parallel of latitude. It divides the earth into two equal parts. These parts are the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere. It is the largest possible circle that can be drawn around the earth.
  2. The Tropic of Cancer: It lies in the Northern Hemisphere at 23°30′ latitude. It is an angular distance of 2314° N from the equator.
  3. The Tropic of Capricorn: It is also an imaginary circle measuring the angular distance of 23/4° to the south from the central point of the equator.
  4. The Arctic Circle: It is the parallel of latitude that lies at a distance of 6614° North of the equator.
  5. The Antarctic Circle: It lies in the Southern Hemisphere and is at 66!4° South to the equator.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Globe - The Model of the Earth

Question 6.
How do longitudes help us in calculating time?
Answer:
Longitude and Time.

  • Longitudes help us to calculate time.
  • It takes 24 hours for the earth to complete one rotation.
  • This means in 24 hours the Earth completes 360°.
  • Hence, it takes about 4 minutes for crossing one degree of longitude.
  • This means each place has a different time of Sunrise and Sunset.
  • Places East of the Greenwich Meridian experience day or sunrise earlier than the places lying west of this Meridian.

In other words, time is ahead in the east than that in the west, at the rate of 4 minutes per degree of longitude.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Population

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Population Textbook Questions and Answers

Map Work :

Question 1.
Show in the outline map of India :
(i) State and Union territory with highest population.
(ii) State and Union territory with lowest population.
(iii) State and UTs with population density more than 1000 per square km.
(iv) State and UTs with population density less than 100 per square km.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of India Map.

Question 2.
(i) Prepare a chart of occupational structure of Punjab with the help of your teacher and put on the wall of your classroom.
Answer:Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.
(ii) Prepare a chart of sex ratio of Punjab (district wise) and discuss with your subject teacher.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Objective Type Questions :

Question 1.
Which state has highest population as per census 2011 among the followings :
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Bengal
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(6) Bihar.

Question 2.
Shifting the place of the residence is known as :
(a) Dwelling
(b) Independence
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Migration.
Answer:
(d) Migration.

Question 3.
What percentage of Population was agricultural workers in Punjab as per census 2011?
(a) 35.5
(b) 40.5
(c) 30.5
(d) 27.5
Answer:
(a) 35.5.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 4.
What is meant by female foeticide?
Answer:
Killing of female foetus in the womb of mother is called female foeticide. It reduces sex ratio in the country.

Question 5.
Which factors are necessary to find out the nations socio-economic development?
Answer:
Literally, health, income etc. are the necessary elements to know about the social and economic developoment of the country.

Question 6.
How percentage of increase in population is calculated?
Answer:
It can be calculated by a formula :
\(\frac{\text { No. of Literate persons }}{\text { Total population }}\) × 100

Question 7.
When do we celebrate the World Population Day?
Answer:
World Population Day is celebrated on 11 July.

Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
Write a note on the position of India in terms of population in the world?
Answer:
According to Census survey of 2011, India’s population was 1,21,05,69,5.73 means more than 121 crore. If we look at the expected data of 2016, it has reached upto 132 crores. Presently, the total population of the world is 742 crore. India’s geographical area is 32 Lakh 87 thousand sq. km. and India is at seventh place in the world. But India’s place is second from population’s aspect and around 17.2% people of the world live in India. It means every sixth person in the world is Indian.

Question 2.
The citizen of Punjab shall be on what rank, in terms of density of population, literacy rate and sex ratio.
Answer:

  1. Punjab is at 15th place from populations aspect and its population is 2,77,43,338.
  2. The Density of population in Punjab was 551 persons per sq. km. in 2011 which was 484 persons in 2001.
  3. Sex ratio in India was 1000 : 895 in 2011 which is actually quite less. Child sex ratio in Punjab was 1000 : 846 in 2011.
  4. Punjab’s literacy rate is 75.8% and it holds 15th place in India.

Question 3.
What are the main reasons of migration?
Answer:

  1. Migration in search of employment.
  2. Migration to find land for agriculture.
  3. Migration for religious freedom.
  4. Migration in the hope of more income.
  5. Migration due to some pressure or any other reason.
  6. People migrate for political freedom.
  7. Migration to do marriage.
  8. Rural people migrate to urban areas in search of better facilities.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 4.
How do we calculate literacy rate? How Punjab is behind many states in India in terms of literacy rate?
Answer:
According to Census of India, one who can* read and write in any Indian language is a literate person. In 1991, it was decided that children below the age of 7 years will be considered illiterate. This decision was followed even in 2Q01 and 2011 Census. There is a formula to know about literacy rate and this is :
Literacy Rate = \(\frac{\text { No. of Literate persons }}{\text { Total population }}\) × 100

If we look at Punjab’s position in terms of literacy rate then Punjab is at 14th place as its literacy rate is 75.8%. It is quite less in comparison to many other states such as Kerala (94%), Mizoram (91.3%), Goa (88.7%), Tripura (87.2%) etc.

Question 5.
Write a note on the distribution of rural-urban population in Punjab?
Answer:
Total population of Punjab is 2,77,43,338 out of which 1,03, 99,146 persons live in urban areas and 1,73,44,192 persons live in villages. In this way 37.5% people live in towns and 62.5% people live in villages. Urban population in 2001 was 33.9% which increased to 37.5% in 2011. Actually due to many factors, urban population is increasing such as more facilities, more opportunities of education and employment. During this period, there came great urbanisation in Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar district in which 54.8% people live in cities. In Taran Taran, only 12.7% live in urban areas and 87.3% people live in villages. So, we can say that gradually urban population is increasing.

Question 6.
Describe the National Population Policy 2000.
Answer:
While keeping in mind many objectives, Indian Government in 2000, made National Population Policy whose major aims are given below :

  • Compulsory and free education upto the age of 14 years.
  • To reduce the number of students who leave their education at primary and secondary level.
  • To reduce infant mortality rate upto 30 per 1000.
  • To reduce maternal mortality rate less than 100 per 1,00,000.
  • To give preference to small family.
  • To encourage girls to not to marry before the age of 18.
  • To give stress on delievering children from trained individuals.
  • To achieve the target of stable population till 2045.

Long Answer Questions :
Answer the following questions in detail :

Question 1.
What are the -specific problems adolescents may face?
Answer:
When a child crosses the age of 10 years, he enters the adolescent age. This age remains till 19 years. In this age, many physical and mental changes come in a child because of which he/she faces many problems which are given below :

  1. Child Marriage. This custom still prevails in many parts of the country and children with less than prescribed age group gets married. It reduces their physical and mental development. They are even unable to get proper education.
  2. Child Labour. A large portion of Indian population still lives below poverty line. That’s why children are forced to do any work to maintain their ‘house. They come under pressure in very early age to earn money when there is a time to take education.
  3. Drug Addiction. In this age, children very quickly adopt a wrong path and many children become drug addicts. Their future gets spoiled.
  4. Inadequate Diet. This is the age when children need good and healthy diet for proper physical and mental development. But due to poverty or any other reason, they are unable to get nutritious diet. It creates an obstacle in their allround development.
  5. Problem of Dropouts from Schools. This is the age when children take education and make their future. But it has been seen many parents withdraw their children from schools even before secondary level. They are forced to earn money which becomes a major problem for them.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 2.
Discuss situation of India and Punjab from migration point of view.
Answer:
Population of an area never remains the same. Birth rate and death rate plays an important role in increasing or decreasing population. But migration also plays an important role in this. But question arises that what is Migration? Actually the meaning of migration is when people leave one place to another place to live over there. This mobility or movement can be temporary as well as permanent
1. India’s Position. There is no denying the fact that many Indians migrate to foreign countries. North Indians prefer to migrate to the countries such as U.S.A., Canada, England, Australia, Germany etc. South Indians prefer to migrate to Gulf Countries. Actually everyone wants to earn more money and that’s why they migrate to western countries. The value of currency of western countries is much higher as compared to Indian currency. Consequently, Indians get attracted towards these countries. Doctors, Engineers, I.T. Professionals always try to migrate to earn more money. That’s why many Indians migrate each year to different countries.

2. Punjab’s Position. Like other Indians, Punjabi’s also prefer to mirgrate. A number of males of Jalandhar Doab region have already migrated to western countries and then they took their families with them. Their favourite destinations are Australia, U.S.A. Canada and England. They get attracted towards Dollars and leave no earth and stone to migrate from India.

If Punjabis are migrating to other countries then many people are also coming to Punjab. These are .those migrated labourers who come from the states like U.P. Bihar etc. to earn more money. They either work in industries or in agricultural fields. In 2011, around 21,30,262 people came to Punjab which become 8.7% of the total population of Punjab.

Question 3.
Describe the population density of India.
Answer:
The distribution of population in India is very unequal. According to 2011 census the total population of India is 121 crores and the density of population is 382 persons per sq. kilometre. The density of population varies according to relief, climate and the agricultural productivity of the land. The density of population depends on the amount of rainfall. The areas of sufficient rainfall can support a large number of people.

1. Densely populated areas. These areas have a density of more than 400 persons per sq. kilometre. The high density areas makes a girdle round the Deccan plateau. Right from Satluj-Beas plain to Brahmaputra valley, the density of population is very high.
(а) West Coastal Plain. Kerala has 860 persons per sq. kilometre density of population.
(b) The East Coastal Plain. Tamil Nadu has a density of 555 persons per. sq. kilometre.
(c) The Northern Plain. It includes West Bengal (1028), Bihar (1106) , Uttar Pradesh (829), Punjab (551).
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 1

Factors favouring high density.

  • Sufficient rainfall
  • Fertile river valleys and deltas
  • 2 to 3 crops of rice in a year
  • Healthy climate
  • Rich in minerals and power resources.

2. Moderately populated areas. These include the areas with a density between 200 to 400 persons per sq. kilometre. These areas are surrounded by Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Haryana (573) Maharashtra (365), Andhra Pradesh (308), Karnataka (349), Gujarat (308), Orissa (270), Goa (394), Assam (398) have a moderate density.

Factors for moderate density.

  • Agriculture is not developed due to thin and rocky soils.
  • Rainfall is uncertain
  • Means of transportation are not developed.
  • Some areas have high density of population due to irrigation, lava soils and mineral resources.

3. Sparsely Populated Areas. These areas have a density less than 200 persons per sq. kilometre.
(a) North-Eastern India. This region includes Meghalaya (132), Manipur (115), Nagaland (119), Sikkim (86) and Arunachal (17).
(b) Rajasthan Desert. Rajasthan has a density of 200 persons per sq. kilometre.
(c) Western Himalayas. It includes Jammu and Kashmir (124), Himachal Pradesh (123).

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 4.
Discuss Indian population from health and population fronts.
Answer:
1. Health. Health is considered as one of the important aspect of population structure which affects the development process of a country. Due to continuous government efforts, people’s health is continuely improving. In 1951, death rate was 25 per 1000 but in 201 h, it reduced to 7.9 per thousand. In the same way average age in 1951 was 36.7 years which also increased to 65.2 years in 2011.

This important change came due to many factors such as health of people, security from many diseases, using modern facilities etc. Government has opened up thousands of hospitals, dispensaries, health centres to provide better health services to the people. Even then health is a major cause of concern for us. Per capita calorie consumption is still quite less. A large portion of our population is still unable to get nutritious food. Clean drinking water and basic health facilities are still a distinct reality for large number of people. To remove such problems, a proper population policy is required.

2. Occupation. The percentage of working population in economy is an important indicator of development. Division of population on the basis of different occupations is called occupational structure. People are actually engaged in different occupations which are divided in three parts—primary, secondary and tertiary.
(а) Primary occupations. It includes agriculture, pastoralism, fishing, mining etc.
(b) Secondary occupations. It includes industries, construction etc.
(c) Tertiary occupations. It includes those people who give their services to the people such as administration, banking, insurance sectors etc.

The proportion of people engaged in different occupations is different in developed and developing countries. In developed countries, more people are engaged in secondary and tertiary sectors. But in developing countries, more people are engaged in primary sector. In India, 53% people are engaged in primary sector, 13% in secondary sector and 20% in tertiary sector. During recent times, this number has witnessed a continues change due to development of industrialization and urbanization.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Population Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
India stands at___________place in the world from population point of view.
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Ninth.
Answer:
(a) Second.

Question 2.
How much of India’s population lives in Punjab?
(a) 1.3%
(b) 2.3%
(c) 3.2%
(d) 1.2%.
Answer:
(b) 2.3%.

Question 3.
How much of India’s population lives in rural areas?
(a) 70%
(b) 75%
(c) 78%
(d) 68%.
Answer:
(d) 68%.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 4.
Punjab’s densities of population in 2011 was
(a) 888
(b) 944
(c) 551
(d) 933.
Answer:
(c) 551.

Question 5.
In 2011, how many females were there behind every 1000 males?
(a) 943
(b) 933
(c) 939
(d) 894.
Answer:
(a) 943.

Question 6.
Which Indian state has highest density of population?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(b) Bihar.

Question 7.
Which Indian state has least density of population?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Sikkim
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland.
Answer:
(c) Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
What was sex ratio of Punjab in 2011?
(a) 943
(b) 866
(c) 872
(d) 895.
Answer:
(d) 895.

Question 9.
Which Indian district has highest population?
(a) Thane
(b) Uttar Chaubis Pargana
(c) Dibang Ghati
(d) Anjah.
Answer:
(a) Thane.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 10.
Which of these is the reason of migration?
(a) Search of employment
(b) Religious Freedom
(c) Political Freedom
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
In 2011, India’s total urban population was ___________
Answer:
35 crore

Question 2.
In rural areas, the percentage of labourers is _________
Answer:
40%

Question 3.
In 2011, India’s density of population was _________ persons per sq.km.
Answer:
382

Question 4.
The percentage of labourers in India is _________
Answer:
37.50

Question 5.
_________ state has maximum percentage of labourers.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh

Question 6.
The population in the age group of 15-65 years is
Answer:
58.4.

True/False :

Question 1.
India holds first place in the world from population point of view.
Answer:
False

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 2.
Population in mountainous and desert regions is quite dense.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
In poor countries, more population comes in the age group of 10-14 years.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
India’s sex ratio is quite less.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Natural growth in population depends upon the difference in birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Density of Population?
Answer:
An average number of people living in square kilometres is known as density of population.

Question 2.
Which is the major factor affecting population distribution in India?
Answer:
Agricultural productivity.

Question 3.
Name any two parts of India with a dense populations.
Answer:
Upper Ganga Valley and Malabar region.

Question 4.
Which areas of India has less density of population?
Answer:
North-eastern states, western Rajasthan, few parts of Gujarat etc.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 5.
What are the adverse consequences of increasing population in urban areas?
Answer:
Pressure on available resources and public facilities.

Question 6.
What is meant by sex ratio?
Answer:
Number of females after every 1000 males in any area is called sex-ratio.

Question 7.
What is meant by working population?
Answer:
Working population is that population which is engaged in different occupation to earn money.

Question 8.
What is dependent population?
Answer:
All those children and old age persons come in dependent population who cannot earn and are dependent on working population.

Question 9.
Give reason of decreasing death rate.
Answer:
The spread of health services by the government.

Question 10.
Name the Indian state with least population.
Answer:
Sikkim.

Question 11.
What is the density of population in India?
Answer:
382 persons per sq.km.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 12.
What is the density of population in West Bengal?
Answer:
1028 persons per sq.km.

Question 13.
Which state has highest density of population?
Answer:
Bihar.

Question 14.
Which state has highest population in India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 15.
What is density of population in Delhi?
Answer:
11297 persons per sq.km.

Question 16.
What was sex ratio in India in 2011?
Answer:
943 persons after every 1000 males.

Question 17.
Which state in India has highest literacy rate?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 18.
Which state has lowest density of population?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 19.
What is the most important and valuable resource of a country?
Answer:
The people of the country healthy, mentally as well as physically is the biggest natural source of a country.

Question 20.
What were the causes of slow increase in population before independence?
Answer:
The causes of this normal growth are epidemics, wars and famines which increase death rate.

Question 21.
What was the population of India in the year 1901?
Answer:
The population of India was 23,83,96,327 (23.8 Crore) in the year 1901.

Question 22.
What is the population of India in the year 2011?
Answer:
The population of India was 121 crores in the year 2011.

Question 23.
What is rank of India in the world from the point of view of populations?
Answer:
India ranks second in world (after China) in the view of population.

Question 24.
Write the name of the states with highest and lowest population.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh has the highest population (19.9 crore) and Sikkim has the lowest population to (6 lakh) in India.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 25.
Name the states which have a population of more than 5 crores.
Answer:
There are 10 states of India in which population is more than 5 crores.

Question 26.
What was the population of Punjab in the year 2011 and what is the rank of Punjab from the population point of view?
Answer:
The population of Punjab was 2.77 crores in the year of 2011 and Punjab ranks 15th in the country in the view of population.

Question 27.
What percentage of population of India lives in Punjab?
Answer:
Almost 2.3 percent of total population of country live in Punjab.

Question 28.
How many cities are there in India with a population of more than one lakh?
Answer:
There are 302 cities in India with the population of more than one lakh.

Question 29.
How much per cent of population of our country live in plains?
Answer:
40% of population of the country lives on the plains.

Question 30.
How much percentage of population of the country lives in villages?
Answer:
More than 68% of population of the country lives in the villages.

Question 31.
What is the average density of population in our country?
Answer:
The average density of population in India is 382 persons per square kilometres.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 32.
Name the states having highest and lowest density of population.
Answer:
Bihar is the state with highest density of population (1102) and Arunachal Pradesh is the state with lowest density of population (17) in India.

Question 33.
What is the density of population in Punjab?
Answer:
The density of population is 551 persons per square kilometre in Punjab. Question 34. Which union territory has the highest.density of population? Answer:National Capital Area Delhi has the largest density of population (11297).

Question 35.
Name the elements that determine the age structure.
Answer:
The factors which determine the age structure are :

  • Fertility
  • Mortality
  • Migration.

Question 36.
What is percentage of population that fall in the 0-14 years age group in our country?
Answer:
37.2% of population is found in the country with the age of 0-14 years.

Question 37.
What percentage of population falls in the 15-64 years age group in our country?
Answer:
58.4% of population is found in the country with the age group of 15-65 years.

Question 38.
What do you understand by sex ratio?
Or
What is meant by sex ratio?
Answer:
The number of women per thousand men is sex ratio.

Question 39.
What is sex ratio of the population of the year 2011?
Answer:
The sex ratio is 943 females for 1000 males in India according to 2001 census.

Question 40.
What are the rural and urban sex ratio?
Answer:
The sex ratio is 939 in rural areas and is 894 per thousand men in urban areas in the year of 2011.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 41.
Give two reasons decreasing sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Female foeticide and lower status of females in India.

Question 42.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Number of births behind every 1000 persons in a particular area is called birth rate.

Question 43.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Number of deaths behind every 1000 persons in a particular area is called birth rate.

Question 44.
What is migration?
Answer:
When a person leaves his geographical area moves to other area to live is called migration.

Question 45.
What is adolescent age?
Answer:
Age between 10-19 years is called adolescent age.

Question 46.
Give one problem of adolescent age.
Answer:
Many physical changes come in this age and children feel quite awkward.

Question 47.
Why migrant labourers come to India?
Answer:
To earn money by working in industries and in agricultural fields.

Question 48.
From which states did migrant labourers come to Punjab?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal etc.

Question 49.
Which district of India have highest and lowest population?
Answer:
Highest Population: Thane (Maharashtra)- 1,10,60,148 persons.
Lowest Population: Dibang Ghati (Arunachal Pradesh)-8004 persons.

Question 50.
What is literacy rate in India?
Answer:
In 2011, literacy rate in India was 74.04%.

Question 51.
Which district of Punjab has highest sex ratio?
Answer:
Hoshiarpur-1000: 961.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 52.
Which district of Punjab has highest literacy rate?
Answer:
Hoshiarpur-84.16%.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Census Survey? Write a note on it.
Answer:
Indian government conducts counting of population after every ten years which is called census survey. In this, information is collected about the age, sex, house, literacy rate etc. First census in India was held in 1872 and after this, census is held in the first year of each decade. The census of 2011 was 15th census survey in which? 2200 crore were spent and 27 lakh officer conducted this survey.

Question 2.
What is the difference between Regional distribution of Population and density of population?
Answer:
Distribution of population refers to a place or area, but density of population refers to a ratio. Distribution reflects a pattern of population. It shows Whether population is scattered or concentrated at a place. But density of population shows size of population ratio between men and land.

Question 3.
What are the factors that affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
Population in India is not evenly distributed many factors are responsible for this.

  1. Fertility of the soil. The states in which there is a large fertile area the density of population is high. U.P. and Bihar are such states.
  2. Amount of rainfall. The density of population is higher in regions of abundant rain. In northern India the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from east to west. The density of population also goes on decreasing in the same direction.
  3. Climate. Wherever the climate is congenial the density of population will be high. In Assam even though there is abundant rainfall but the density of population is low because the climate is unhealthy. The malaria is always there is an epidemic form.
  4. Developed means of transportation. With the development of means of transportation the business makes rapid progress and the density of population increases. The reason for high density of population in U.P., Bihar and West Bengal is the development of means of transportation.

Question 4.
Why is India known as country of villages?
Answer:
There is no doubt that India is a country of-villages.

  • Most of people live in villages.
  • 3/4th of population lives in rural areas.
  • There are more than 5 lakh and 50 thousand rural settlements but 71% of urban population lives in 302 towns.
  • About 40.1% of labourers live in rural areas and 30.2% of labourers live in urban areas.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 5.
What are characterisitc features of regional distribution of population?
Answer:
Characteristics :
1. The distribution of population is uneven in India. There is dense population in river valleys and coastal plains. There is space population in hilly, deserts areas and drought affected areas, 16% of the area of the country, in the Northern plains only 3% people of India live. 94% of population lives on an area of 18% in plains. Only 2% population lives on an areas of 6% in Rajasthan.

2. Most of the people live in villages. Only 31% people live in urban areas.

3. A large part of minorities live in sensitive border area. Along the N.W. border of India. Sikhs in Punjab and Muslims in J & K. form a majority community. Along the borders of China and Burma, in the North East, mostly Christians are found. It has created many political economic and social problems.

4. On the one hand, there is concentration of population in river valleys and coastal areas but deserts, hilly areas are sparsely populated. It looks like a demographic divide.

Question 6.
What do you mean by density of population? Tell something about density of population in India.
Answer:
Persons living in a square kilometre is called density of population. How many persons live in a particular area, will be known only by looking at density of population. According to Census survey of 2011, population density in India was 382 persons per sq.km. There are many Indian states where density of population is quite high such as Bihar (1106), West Bengal (1028), Kerala (860), Uttar Pradesh (829), Punjab (551) etc. But there are few states in which there is quite less density of population such as Nagaland (119), Sikkim (86), Mizoram (52), Arunachal Pradesh (17) etc. Delhi’s density of population is 11297 which is highest among all the union Territories.

Question 7.
Write a note on population Growth.
Answer:
Population of a place or a country never remains the same but it changes from time to time. That’s why when positive changes come at a particular place on a particular time, it is called population growth. This population growth can be due to many reasons such as birth rate, death rate, migration of people etc. The population growth of India between 2001 to 2011 was 17.68% and that of Punjab was 13.9%. Population growth can be calculated with a formula :
Population Growth = \(\frac{\text { Pure growth in Ten Years }}{\text { Total population }}\) × 100

Question 8.
Name few factors responsible for population growth.
Answer:
Many factors are responsible for population growth such as:

  • If birth rate is more than death rate then population increases.
  • If girls get married at an early age then there is a possibility of population growth.
  • If climate is positive for life then also there will be an increase in population.
  • Universality of marriage is also responsible for population growth.

Question 9.
Write a note on Age composition.
Answer:
The process of dividing population of a place, state or country in different age groups is called age composition. Generally, whole of the population is divided in three groups. In first group, people with the age of 0-14 years are included. In the second group, people with the age of 15-84 years are included which is known as working class. Third group includes people with the age of 65 years or above which is known as dependent group. First and third group are dependent upon second group for their needs. Dependency ratio can be expresses with a formula :
Dependency Ratio = \(\frac{\text { No. of children }+\text { No. of old Age people }}{\text { No. of Adults }}\) × 100

Question 10.
What is sex-ratio? Explain sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Number of females behind 1000 males in a particular area is known as sex ratio. In 2011, sex ratio in India was 1000 : 943 means there were 943 females behind every 1000 males. Sex ratio in India was always low. Only Kerala (1084) and Puducherry (1037) has positive sex ratio but it is negative in other states. In Punjab (895) and Haryana (879), it was quite less. If we want to know about the status of women in any society, we must look in for sex ratio of that place. But during last few decades, it is continuely improving due to official efforts.

Question 11.
What are the causes of low sex Ratio in India?
Answer:
The sex ratio of India is 943 per thousand males. There is a general declining trend in sex ratio. The ratio in 1901 was 972. It was declined to 934 in 1981. This decline has been due to social evils in our society.

In our society, female child is neglected. Male population dominates in our society. There is high death rate among females. Death rate is particularly high among married women. Women labour migrates to some mining and industrial centres. It also results in declining sex ratio.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 12.
What is the Sex ratio of States of North India?
Answer:
There is an adverse sex ratio in Northern India. The number of females is less than that of males. It is clear from sex ratio in Bihar (916), Rajasthan (926), Punjab (895), U.P. (898), and Haryana (877). (The lowest Sex Ratio in India).

Question 13.
What is the importance of Economic Structure of population?
Answer:
Importance

  1. We come to know the percentage of people engaged in productive \york.
  2. It shows the cultural composition of population which determines the stage of development of a country.
  3. It marks the backward areas of the country so that proper planning can be done.

Question 14.
Why is it necessary to study the structure of population?
Answer:
It is necessary to study the structure of the population of a country due to :
1. We need different components of population such as age structure, sex ratio, occupational structure for the economic and social planning of a country.

2. The different aspects of population have a close relationship with developoment on the one hand. These are affected by population and on the other hand these affect population and development. For example, if the percentage of children and old age people is high in age structure, a country has to spend more on education and health facilities. On the other hand, a high percentage of working age group encourages the economic development of a country.

Question 15.
What are the importance of study of age structure?
Answer:
These are the advantages of study of age structure of population :
1. By determining the 0-14 age group the govt, knows that there is need of expenditure on education, health and social services. So new schools, health centres and community centres are opened.

2. We know the number of eligible voters in the country which is vital for a democracy. There should be 58% voters per age group, but actually there are 60% of voters in the country.

Question 16.
Write about the needs of adolescents in adolescent age.
Answer:

  • Adolescents must get good and balanced diet.
  • They must be given proper environment and proper education.
  • They must be informed about physical changes.
  • Parents and society must talk with them with great love and affection.
  • Efforts must be made to save them from drug addiction.
  • They must be provided with proper guidance for a good future.

Question 17.
What is the role of society, teachers and parents in making future of adolescents?
Answer:

  • Parents can provide good education and environment to their children to give them a bright future.
  • Parents can show them the way to make their children better citizens, to remain away drugs etc.
  • Teachers can motivate their students to become good citizens by giving them proper education.
  • Social, Religious and Political leaders can motivate their students to move on a right path.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 18.
Write a note on gender based structure of Punjab.
Answer:
Punjab’s total population is 2,77,43,338 out of which 1,46,39,465 are males and 1,310,3873 are females. Their sex ratio is 1000 : 895. It means that after every 1000 males, there are 895 females which is quite less. This is 875 in cities and 907 in village which is little bit more in comparison to 2001. Sex ratio of Hoshiarpur district (961) is at the top and then it comes Shaheed Bhagat Singh Nagar (954)), Jalandhar (915) and Roop Nagar (915). Bathinda (868) has the lowest sex ratio. Then it comes the number of Fathegarh Sahib (871). During last decade, this sex ratio has increased due to strict official efforts.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 2

Question 19.
Throw a light on the occupational structure in Punjab.
Answer:
Agriculture is the major occupation of the people of Punjab and that’s why most of the population is engaged in agriculture or related acitvities. Out of total workers of Punjab, 35.5% are engaged in agriculture or related activities 3.9% people are engaged in household industries. Rest of the 60.5% people are engaged in other activities. In the districts of Sri Muktsar Sahib and Mansa, most of the workers are engaged in agriculture but in Ludhiana and Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar, very few people are engaged in agriculture but rest are busy in industrial and service sector. A number of Punjabi’s have migrated to other countries in search of employment.

Question 20.
Give cause of Declining Sex Ratio.
Answer:

  1. People want to have a boy child and they never hesitate to abort the female foetus. It leads to decline in sex ratio.
  2. Sex ratio declines with increase in female foeticide.
  3. Sex ratio declines with the custom of killing new born girls i.e. female infanticide.
  4. Emigration of males from one place to another also leads to decline in sex ratio.
  5. In traditional societies birth of girl is considered as a curse because of which boys are preferred over girls. It also leads to decline in sex ratio.

Question 21.
Give consequences of Declining Sex Ratio.
Answer:

  • Declining Sex ratio leads to increase in violence against women.
  • The custom of polyandry encouragement with declining sex ratio.
  • Declining sex ratio leads to lower social status of women.
  • Health of women deteriorates with it.
  • Trade of women also takes place with declining sex ratio.

Question 22.
Which are the states those have high density of population?
Answer:
There is dense population in Northern plains, western coastal plain, Eastern Coastal plain (Deltas). These area have fertile soils and facilities of irrigation. So the population is dense. As we go westward, the rainfall goes on decreasing and the density of population also decreases. That is why the density of population in West Bengal is greater than that in Haryana and Punjab. Kerala has also high density because two or three crops can be grown due to high rainfall.

Question 23.
What are the causes of high density of population in plains?
Answer:
The density of population is high in plains. This is due to :

  • The Northern plain is fertile.
  • It has high rainfall.
  • It has many big industrial centres.
  • The means of transport are developed.
  • Coastal plain has the facilities of fishing and foreign trade.

Question 24.
What are the areas of low density of population?
Answer:
Thar Desert, Eastern Himalayas and Chotta Nagpur plateau are sparsely populated areas.

  • The soils are infertile or sandy or stony.
  • The means of transport are not developed.
  • The climates is not healthy. It is either too hot or too cold. Himalayas get heavy rainfall.
  • Industries are not developed in these areas except Chotta Nagpur plateau.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the state wise structure of sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Sex ratio means the number of females per 1000 males. Now a days, women have equal rights with men. In developed countries, the number of women is equal to number of men. In some countries sex ratio is 1050. The average sex ratio in developing countries is 964. In India, in 2011, sex ratio was 940, and is one of the lowest in the world.

State-wise sex ratio. Sex ratio is not uniform in all states. Only one state, Kerala, has sex ratio of 1084 and Puducherry (1036) (Above the average). In other states, sex ratio is less than average.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 3
It is clear that Northern States have low sex ratio and it is a matter of concern.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 4

Question 2.
List factors influencing distribution of population.
Answer:
The following factors influence the distribution of population :
1. Fertility of the soil. The states in which there is a large fertile area, the density of population is high. U.P. and Bihar are such states.

2. Amount of rainfall. The density of population is higher in regions of abundant rain. In northern India, the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from east to west. The density of population also goes on decreasing in the same direction.

3. Climate. Wherever the climate is congenial, the density of population will be high, In Assam even though there is abundant rainfall but the density of population is low because the climate is unhealthy. The malaria is always in an epidemic form.

4. Developed means of transportation. With development of means of transportation the business makes rapid progress and the density of population increases. The reason for high density of population in U.P., Bihar and West Bengal is the development of means of transportation.

5. Industrial development. At places where the factories are located, the density of population also increases. The reason is that people like to live in those areas where industrial development takes place. They can carry on their business more easily in such areas, and they have better chances of earning more money. That is why the density of population is high in Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population

Question 3.
Write an essay on problem of population increase in India and also enlighten the solution to this problem.
Answer:
India’s population is growing rapidly, and creating some problems.
1. Low standard of living. Indian people have low standard of living as compared that of Europeans. About 48% people live below poverty line. They do not have full meals. It results in low production capacity.

2. Deforestation. The forests are cleared rocklessly to meet the growing needs. It has resulted in problems of soil erosion floods, pollution and loss of forest- wealth.

3. Lack of pastures. India has only 4% land under pastures. If this land is used for other purposes, it will result in shortage of fodder for cattles.

4. Pressure on population. Land is a limited source and cannot be increased. It is leading a pressure of population on land. It will decrease the productivity of the land.

5. Lack of minerals. Industries are developed to meet the growing needs of people. So more minerals are used. These reserves will exhaust soon.

6. Environment. Population growth has an adverse effect on environment. Clear water and air is a problem. Oxygen is also decreasing.

Solutions:

  • Family planning should be adopted,
  • People should be explained the significance of small families by films, songs, plays,
  • Illiteracy should be abolished so that people should understand harms of growing population.
  • Female education should be increased, marriageable age of girls be increased.

Question 4.
Write a note on population distribution in Punjab.
Answer:
Punjab’s total population is 2,77,43,338 and this population lives in 12,581 villages and 217 big small cities. Few areas of Punjab has more concentration of population and few areas have less concentration. Cities like Ludhiana and Amritsar have more population i.e. 16 Lakhs and 11 Lakhs respectively. But the population of few cities is in thousands. On the basis of population density Punjab can be divided in four parts and these are :
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Population 5
1. Areas with less density of population. In first category, those districts are included where population density is less than 400 persons per square kilometre. Sri Muktsar Sahib is included in this category whose population density is 348 which is quite less than other districts.

2. Moderate density of population. Those districts are included in this category which has a population density of 401-500 persons per sq. km. It includes many districts such as Taran Taran, Hoshiarpur, Faridkot, Shaheed Bhagat Singh Nagar, Moga, Faridkot, Barnala, Bathinda, Sangrur, etc.

3. More density of population. The third category includes the districts of Patiala, Fatehgarh Sahib, and Roop Nagar where the density of population is between 501-600 persons per sq. km.

4. Extreme Density of population. It includes such districts whose density of population is more than 600 persons per sq. km. The districts of Amritsar, Gurdaspur, Ludhiana, Jalandhar, Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar are included in this category. Ludhiana’s density of population is 978 which is the highest in Punjab. Then comes the number of Amritsar (928) Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar (909) and Jalandhar (836).

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

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Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer each of the following questions in brief:

(A) Natural Vegetation

Question 1.
What is meant by natural vegetation?
Answer:
Natural vegetation includes all the trees, thorny bushes, plants and grass.

Question 2.
Which vegetation type is known as ‘Terror of Bengal’?
Answer:
Water Hyacinth plant is called. Terror of Bengal.

Question 3.
In which places the local natural vegetation is found in India?
Answer:
In areas with less than 70 cm of rainfall the natural vegetation is found consisting of thorny bushes. This is found in the N-W part of India and semi-arid regions of Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, UP and Haryana and also found in the hills of Khasi and Jaintia.

Question 4.
What percentage of land in India is covered under forests as compared to the whole world?
Answer:
22.7% of land area is covered with forests in India.

Question 5.
In which State and Union Territories, the areas of maximum and minimum forest land fall?
Answer:
The smallest forest area is found in Delhi and the largest forest area is found in Madhya Pradesh in India.

Question 6.
Why do coniferous forests are found more than the broad forests in our country?
Answer:
Most of the part of our country have extreme climate with short summers and cold long lasting winters and these forests thrive where summers are short and cool and winters long and harsh,’ with heavy snowfall coniferous forests are needle shaped tree which remain evergreen. These forests with conical leaves are found in high mountains.

Question 7.
Which are State forests?
Answer:
State forests are those forests in which the sole right is of state govt.

Question 8.
What do you mean by reserved forests?
Answer:
Reserved forests are protected forests are terms denoting forests accorded a specific degree of protection. These are protected from any depletion.

Question 9.
Name some trees of Tropical Evergreen Vegetation. (Pb. 2008)
Answer:
The trees grown in tropical evergreen forests are Mahogony, Rubber, Coconut, Bamboo, Cane, Rosewood, Palm etc.

Question 10.
Which factors destroy the semiarid deciduous vegetation?
Answer:
The extensive agricultural area is the main reason of destroying semiarid deciduous vegetation.

Question 11.
Give the names of trees and area of arid vegetation.
Answer:
The trees found in semiarid are mainly Kikar, Cactus, Jand, Phulahi, Ber, Neem, etc.

Question 12.
What are the other names of tidal vegetation?
Answer:
The other names of tidal forests are Mangrove, Marshy, Sunder Ban.

Question 13.
Name the trees found at an elevation of about 2500 meters in Eastern Himalayas.
Answer:
Silver Fur, Pine, Spruce, Deodar, Blue Pine, etc.

Question 14.
In which areas the mountainous vegetation is grown in Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
Mountain vegetation in southern plateau is found in Bastar, Panchmari, Mahabaleshwar, Nilgiri, Palni, Shevroy and the mountain areas of Anamalai.

Question 15.
Which trees are used for making Health Medicines?
Answer:
The trees of Khar, Sincona Quinine, Sarpgandha, Oak, Awla are used for the preparation of medicines.

Question 16.
Which trees are used for Leather tanning?
Answer:
The trees of Mangrove, Kach, Gambear, Harr, Bahera, Amtand Kikar help in tanning material.

Question 17.
What is the chief objective of national forest policy?
Answer:
The maiji aim of national forest policy is to grow forests on 60% of hilly areas and 20% of plain areas.

(B) Animals

Question 1.
How many different types of animals could be there?
Answer:
There are 76 thousand species of animals in India.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 2.
What type of areas are liked by elephant to live in?
Answer:
The hot wet equatorial region and dense forests.

Question 3.
Which species of deer are found in India?
Answer:
The species of deer found in India are Black Deer, Chikara, Ordinary Deer and four horn deer are main species.

Question 4.
Where are lions found in India?
Answer:
The maiii natural living place of Sunder Ban in the Delta of Ganges.

Question 5.
Name the animals which are found in Himalayas.
Answer:
Wool Sheep, Goats, Cycan, Taper, Panda, Snow Leopard are found in Himalayas.

Question 6.
Name the Nation’al Animal and National Bird of India.
Answer:
Lion is our national animal and peacock is our national bird.

Question 7.
Which species of animals are (endangered?
Answer:
Wolf, lion, rhinoceros, golden sparrow are animals feared to extinct.

(C) Soils

Question 1.
Define soil.
Answer:
Soil is the mixture of soft, loose, unconsolidated rock material and bacteria is called soil.

Question 2.
How is Soil formed?
Answer:
The process of the formation of soil is due to disintegration of rocks.

Question 3.
Which are the basic elements of Soil?
Answer:
The parent materials for soil are:

  1. Primary Rocks
  2. Climate
  3. Slope of land
  4. Period of natural vegetation.

Question 4.
Which chemical elements are found in Black Soil?
Answer:
Iron, Potash, Aluminium, Limestone and Potassium.

Question 5.
Where is laterite soil found in India?
Answer:
Laterite soil is found in Vindhyanchal, Madhya Pradesh along with Satpura, Orissa, Basaltic mountain ranges.

Question 6.
Where is Bhur soil found?
Answer:
Bhur soil is found in border districts of Punjab and Haryana.

Question 7.
What are different names of Saline soils in different parts of the country?
Answer:
Thur, Reh, Kallar.

Question 8.
In which areas of India are the soils suitable for cultivation of Tea found?
Answer:
Assam, Himachal Pradesh (Lahul Spiti, Kinnaur), Western Bengal, Darjeeling, Uttar Pradesh and Nilgiris in South.

Question 9.
What is meant by soil erosion?
Answer:
To remove the thick layer (15 to 30 cm thick) found on surface by physical and non physical factors is called soil erosion.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 10.
What different measures are taken to check the forward extension of desert?
Answer:
The trees are grown to decrease the speed of winds in deserts. Along this, grass is grown on sand dunes.

II. Answer each of the following questions in short:

(A) Natural Vegetation

Question 1.
Why has foreign vegetation beconae a problem for us? Elaborate with examples.
Answer:
Nearly 40% of plant species found in India have come from outside and are called exotic plants. These plants have been brought from Sino; Tibetan, African and Indo- Malayasian areas. These plants were brought as decorative garden plants in India. These plants grow rapidly as weeds under hot-wet tropical conditions. These rapidly multiply so that it is difficult to eradicate these.

Lantana and water hyacinth are two such species. Water Hyacinth is known as “Terror of Bengal”. It has choked up all the watercourses like rivers, streams, tanks, canals, etc.

Question 2.
How can foreign plants be harmful for us?
Answer:
The exotic plants have following disadvantages:

  1. Our useful domestic vegetation can get destroyed.
  2. It requires lot of money to destroy these exotic plants.
  3. These spread diseases and are a hazard to public health.
  4. It can pollute our water resources.
  5. It can reduce our fertile land pastures and destroy the forest areas in the country.

Question 3.
What are the main reasons for our natural vegetation not remaining actually natural?
Answer:
Most of present vegetal cover in India is not really natural. A considerable part of the original cover has been destroyed or changed due to human settlement and use of the land. Much of vegetation is low in quality and content. The original natural vegetation survives only in inaccessible areas of the Himalayas and Thar Desert. In other parts of the country, the vegetation is not ‘natural’ in the real sense of the term.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 4.
Write a short note on Deciduous or Monsoonal Vegetation.
Answer:
The vegetation that sheds its leaves in order to have excessive evaporation, before the start of the hot season, is called Deciduous or Monsoon vegetation.

According to rainfall, the vegetation can be subdivided into two such types:
1. Moist Deciduous Forests. This type of vegetation is found where the annual rainfall is 100 to 200 cms. The vegetation is not much dense and the trees can achieve the height of 30 m. Teak, sandal are the main trees.

2. Dry Deciduous Forests. This type of vegetation is found in areas having rainfall between 50 to 100 cms. Its long belt starts from Punjab and goes up to Deccan plateau. Kikar, Jand are its main trees.

Question 5.
What type of vegetation is found in Eastern Himalayan region?
Answer:
In Eastern Himalaya, we find 4000 species of flowers and 250 species of ferns. Height, Temperature and Rainfall has great impact on the type of vegetation:

  1. Upto an altitude of 1200 metres, we can find deciduous vegetation and mixed forests.
  2. Upto the altitude from 1200 to 2000 metres we find desert evergreen forests. Sal and Magnolia are the main trees.
  3. Due to decrease in temperature at a height of 2000 to 2500 metres are found temperate type of vegetation. Oak, Chestnut, Laurel, Birch, Maple, Alder are the main trees.
    PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils 1
  4. At an altitude between 2500 to 3500 metres, we find coniferrous trees. It includes Silver Fir, Pine, Spruce, Deodar, Rendoderan, Blue pine as main trees.
    After some more height short natural grass (Alpine grass) and different types of flowers can be seen.

Question 6.
How does natural vegetation act as a boon for industries?
Answer:
Natural vegetation provides the basis for many industries. The main industries based on forests are like this.

  1. Match Industry. Soft wood is used to manufacture match boxes.
  2. Lac Industry. Insects provide lac on trees and is used for records, polish, electrical goods.
  3. Paper Industry. Bamboo, eucalyptus, and many types of grass are used in paper industry. Bamboo is found in Terai region.
  4. Warnish and paints. Warnish and paints are prepared from resin which comes from forests.
  5. Medicines. Many important medicines are made from forests, e.g. Quinine from cincona. Other Industries: Forests provide raw material for many industries like pencils, boxes, sandal oil, furniture and sports goods.

Question 7.
What have been the implications of indiscriminate cutting of forests in the country?
Answer:
Natural vegetation plays an important role in our life. There has been great deforestation during the last four years which can result in the following disadvantages:

  1. Deforestation has great impact on ecological balance.
  2. It can create problem of soil erosion due to floods on mountain slopes as well as on plains.
  3. The northern parts of Punjab are facing the problems of soil erosion.

(B) Animals

Question 1.
What steps are being taken for protection of animal life in India?
Answer:
Our rich wild life is rich heritage formed through centuries. It must be preserved. Many of the fauna are found only in India such as swamp deer, the one horned rhinoceros, the bison, Kashmiri stag, Nilgai, etc. These rare species are in danger of extinction. Wild life is a gift of nature and a thing of beauty. Wildlife Act provides for the protection and conservation of these species. For this zoos, national parks, bio-reserves, tiger reserves have been established in India.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils 2

  • Nilgiri Bio-reserve. This is the first reserve set up in the country in 1986.
  • Nanda-Devi Bio-reserve in Uttranchal Himalayas in (1988).
  • Nokrek in Meghalaya
  • Andaman-Nicobar Bio-reserve.
  • Valley of flowers in western Uttranchal
  • Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu
  • Thar desert in Rajasthan
  • Rann of Kutchh (Gujarat)
  • Kaziranga and Manas Park in Assam.

(C) Soils

Question 1.
What is the contribution of Primary Rocks in the formation of soils?
Answer:
Sedimentary rocks are found in Northern plains and igneous rocks are found in Indian plateau. Their composition is different and different types of soils are formed. The colour, texture and composition of soil depends upon the time factor the rocks have suffered a type of climate. In West Bengal, Bacteria help in the formation of soils. But in Rajasthan, the fertility of soil decreases due to absence of vegetation. In areas of heavy rainfall and strong winds, soil erosion is active. So the fertility decreases.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 2.
What should be done to increase the fertility of soils?
Answer:
The following methods should be used to improve the fertility of the soils:

  • Methods should be adopted to check soil erosion
  • Manures and chemical fertilizers should be used to maintain the fertility of soils.
  • Crop rotation should be practised.
  • Scientific methods of cultivation should be used.
  • Land should be kept fallow to retain its fertility.
  • Suitable combination of crops should be cultivated.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Peat or Marshy Soils.
Answer:
Peat soils cover an area of 1500 sq. km. It is found in Sundar Bans, the coastal area of Orissa, coastal areas of South Tamil Nadu, Central Bihar, Almora in Uttranchal. It is black and acidic. It is called Black soil in Kerala. Sometimes it takes the form of blue soils due to excess of bacteria.

Question 4.
What are the different types of Soil erosion?
Answer:
Soil Erosion. Soil erosion is of two types:

Types of Soil Erosion:

  1. Sheet Erosion. When the soil is washed away in thin layers by water or wind, it is called Sheet Erosion. Fine silt and clay is removed from the top soil.
  2. Gully Erosion: It is done by running water by cutting channel. Gullies and ravines are formed by rapid run off. Badland is formed over clay soils in Chambal Valley.

Question 5.
What are the causes of soil erosion?
Answer:
Causes of Soil Erosion:

  1. Steep slopes. Steep slopes affect the rapidity of running water. On steep slopes, intensity of soil erosion increases.
  2. Torrential rainfall. Heavy rainfall loosens the soil particles.
  3. Strong winds. Winds and dust storm blow away soil in dry areas. This process is known as deflation.
  4. Over-grazing. Due to over-grazing, the vegetation becomes too thin to protect the soil. Rain and wind can easily erode the loose soil.
  5. Over-cropping. Crop rotation maintains soil fertility. But over-cropping and shifting cultivation renders soil infertile.
  6. Deforestation. Deforestation means the removal of forest cover and it exposes the area to soil erosion. Reckless cutting of trees has resulted in soil erosion by Chos along the Siwalik hills. Human misuse of the land through wrong farming practices, deforestation, etc. leads to the removal of soil cover.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 6.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
Wind, water, glaciers are the agents of soil erosion.

III. Answer each of the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Explain the classification of natural vegetation of India on various bases.
Answer:
Natural vegetation of India can be divided into the following five parts on the basis of geographical factors:
1. Evergreen forests or tropical evergreen forests. Evergreen forests are found in those parts of India where the average annual rainfall is 200 cms or more. These forests are mostly found in the Tarai region of the Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman islands.

2. Deciduous forests or monsoon forests. These forests are found in those parts of India where the average annual rainfall is between 60 and 200 centimetres. These forests are mainly found on the lower slopes of the Himalayas, Chotanagpur, Gangetic Valley and the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.

3. Semi-desert forests. Such forests in India are found in Rajasthan, Western Haryana, Southwestern Punjab and Gujarat.

4. Desert or thorny forests. Thorny bushes are the typical vegetation of such forests. Such forests are found in parts of Rajasthan and Kutch.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils 3
5. Forests of Delta regions or Tidal forests. Such forests are found in the deltas of the rivers. Such forests in India are found in the deltas of Mahanadi, Godawari, Krishna, Cauvery, Ganga and Brahmputra rivers.

6. Mountain forests or the natural vegetation of the Himalayas. Forests of this type are found on the slopes of the mountains.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 2.
How is natural vegetation classified on the basis of Geographical elements in the country? (Pb. 2005, 06)
Answer:
There .are many variations of soil and climate in India. This has given rise to many types of forests. The forests in India can be divided into the following main types:
1. Evergreen forests or the tropical evergreen forests. Evergreen forests are found in those parts of India where the average annual rainfall is 200 cms or more. These forests are mostly found in the Terai region of the eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman islands. The chief trees of these forests include Mahogany, bamboos, cane, rubber and cinchona. The wood from these trees is used for making furniture, houses and boats.

2. Deciduous forests or monsoon forests. These forests are found in those parts in India where the average annual rainfall is between 60 and 200 centimeters. These forests are mainly found on the lower slopes of the Himalayas, Chhotanagpur, Gangetic valley and the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats. The chief trees found in these forests include teak, sal, sesoo, mango, sandal and cotton tree. These trees shed off their leaves in summer.

3. Semi-desert forests. This type of forests are found in those parts of India where the average annual rainfall is between 20 and 60 cms. Such forests in India are found in Rajasthan, Western Haryana, South Western Punjab and Gujarat. Acacia and date palm are the typical trees of these forests.

4. Deserts or thorny forests. Such vegetation or forests are found in those parts of India where the average annual rainfall is less than 20 cms. Thorny bushes are the typical vegetation of such forests. Such forests are found in parts of Rajasthan and Kutch.

5. Forests of Delta regions or Tidal forests. Such forests are found in the deltas of the rivers. There is ample water and the soil is also fertile. Such forests in India are found in the deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, Ganga and Brahmputra rivers. Such forests are found in the states of West Bengal, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

6. Mountain forests or the natural vegetation of the Himalayas. Forests of this type are found on the slopes of the mountains. The nature of forests changes with the height and the amount of rainfall.

Question 3.
Describe the benefits of natural vegetation to the country.
Answer:
Importance of Forests:
Forests are a valuable rersource; like a river system, it is a multiple resource. Forests provide mankind with a number of products. Forests have greatly influenced human activities. Modern civilisation depends more and more on forests.

Following are the direct and indirect advantages of forests:

  • Forests provide many things to meet our food requirements like wild fruits, nuts, berries, etc. Many tribes are dependent on gathering of these products in forests.
  • Forests are a source of timber for house building, furniture making, ship building, etc.
  • Forests supply about 40% of fuel of the world. Wood has been the major source of fuel in houses, smelting industries and running locomotives.
  • Softwoods supply raw materials for wood pulp, paper, rayon industries.
  • Many products like rubber, pitch, gum, tanning materials, cork, camphor, fir, herbs, etc. are gathered from forests.
  • Forests provide plywood and fibre wood for packing purposes.
  • Forests help in rainfall by capturing moisture in the air. These affect the climate of an area,
  • Forests prevent Soil erosion and floods.
  • Forests increase the fertility of soil, help agriculture and maintain ecological balance.
  • Forests provide shelter to wild animals and help recreation, wild life and hunting.
  • They check the advance of deserts.

Question 4.
Which elements determine the texture of soil?
Answer:
The formation of soils depends upon the following factors:

  1. Bed rocks. Sedimentary rocks are found in the Northern plain while igneous rocks are found in peninsular India. These rocks have a variety of minerals which add to their fertility.
  2. Climate. Colour, structure and composition of soils depend upon climate. West Bengal has fertile soils due to chemical processes. But Rajasthan has less fertile soils due to absence of vegetation. Areas with heavy rainfall and strong winds have soil erosion and the soils are less fertile.
  3. Slope. Slope also affects the development of soils. Land slide occurs in hilly areas due to fast running water and gravity. Therefore, slopes are not fertile, but the valleys of Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra are fertile.
  4. Natural vegetation. Vegetation provides Humus which makes the soils fertile. India has a large area under cultivation. Vegetation is.not adequate. Only 5% to 10% bacteria is available. So soils are not very fertile.
  5. Period. Time plays an important factor. Soils receive every year humus, sediments, bacteria, etc. Soil formation is a slow process which takes thousands of years.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 5.
Discuss the various types and characteristics of soils found in India.
Answer:
India is primarily an agricultural country. The soils of India are classified on the basis of bed rocks and climate conditions.
1. Black Soils: Black soils are mainly found over the Deccan Lava tract including Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh. These soils have been formed due to weathering of Lava rocks. These soils cover an area of about 5 lakh sq. km. These soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. These are also called ‘Regur Soils’. These soils are most suitable for cotton cultivation and are known as ‘Black Cotton Soils’.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils 4
2. Red Soils. These soils are found in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and areas on periphery of Deccan Plateau. These soils have been formed due to decomposition underlying igneous rocks.

3. Laterite Soils. Laterite soils are found on the highland areas of the plateau. These are found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and hilly regions of Assam, Rajmahal hills and Chottanagpur plateau. Due to monsoonal climate (wet and dry seasons alternatively occurring), there is the leaching of soils.

4. Alluvial Soils. These soils have been deposited by the rivers in river valleys of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and their deltas. These are deep and fertile soils. These are dark soils.

5. Desert Soils. These soils cover 2 lakh sq. km. from dry areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana. These sandy soils are suited to cultivation of jowar, bajra, cotton, wheat, etc.

Question 6.
What is Soil Erosion? Why is it caused? What is its regional distribution? How can it be checked? (Pb. 2008)
Answer:
Causes of Soil Erosion:

  1. Steep slopes. Steep slopes affect the rapidity of running water. On steep slopes, intensity of soil-erosion increases.
  2. Torrential rainfall. Heavy rainfall loosens the soil particles and scoopes out the soil forming gullies and ravines. This gives rise to a dissected surface called badland as in Chambal Valley of India.
  3. Strong winds. Winds and dust storms blow away soil in dry areas. This process is known as deflation.
  4. Over-grazing. Due to over-grazing, the vegetation becomes too thin to protect the soil. Rain and wind can easily erode the loose soil.
  5. Over-cropping. Crop rotation maintains soil fertility. But over-cropping and shifting cultivation renders soil infertile,
  6. Deforestation. Deforestation means the removal of forest cover and it exposes the area to soil-erosion. Reckless cutting of trees has resulted in soil erosion by chos along the Shiwalik hills. Human misuse of the land through wrong farming practices, deforestation, etc. leads to the removal of soil cover.

Soil conservation. Soil is a fundamental natural resource. Soil formation is a slow process, but it is easily lost by soil erosion. In fact, more soil is being lost each year than Nature makes. Soil erosion must be checked. Sound farming practices and measures be adopted to conserve, protect, renew and maintain soil fertility.

These methods constitute soil conservation.

  1. Afforestation. In some areas, the original vegetation cover has been removed.
    It has resulted in soil erosion as along Shiwalik Hills. In such areas, trees should be planted (reforestation) to hold the soil. Afforestation is needed in new areas to check the surface run off. Advance of deserts can be checked by planting trees along the margins of deserts.
  2. Controlled grazing. The number of animals to be grazed on slopes should be
    according to the carrying capacity of the pastures. It gives time for the grass to grow again.
  3. Terraced Agriculture. Slopes must be cut into a senes of terraces (fields) for cultivation. Outer walls at edges are made to slow down the flow of rainwater.
  4. River Dams. River Dams are built in the upper course of rivers to control floods and check soil erosion.
  5. Contour ploughing. Contour ploughing, terracing and bunding is done to check soil wash on slopes. Ploughing is done at right angles to the hill slopes.
  6. Crop rotation. Crop rotation system be applied and the land should be left fallow for some time. Soil fertility can be maintained in this way.
  7. Other methods. In areas of heavy rain, basin type of cultivation is adopted.

IV. Show the following on the map of India:

Question 1.
(i) Areas of arid vegetation,
(ii) Mangrove vegetation area.
(iii) Areas of black soil and alluvial soils
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils 5

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions each in one line or one word:

Question 1.
How much part of India is under forests?
Answer:
22 percent.

Question 2.
Name an industrial use of Timber.
Answer:
Fuel.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 3.
How much rainfall is required for the growth of tropical evergreen forests?
Answer:
200 cm.

Question 4.
Name the forests which shed their leaves in the summer season.
Answer:
Deciduous forests.

Question 5.
Which state has the largest area under forests?
Answer:
Madhya Pardesh.

Question 6.
Name a tree found in Tidal forests.
Answer:
Sundari.

Question 7.
Which forests are found in Nilgiris?
Answer:
Sholas.

Question 8.
Name a Biosphere recognised by UNESCO.
Answer:
Sunder Bans.

Question 9.
Name a Bird sanctuary.
Answer:
Bharatpur.

Question 10.
Where are Rpyal Bengal Tigers found?
Answer:
In Sunderbans.

Question 11.
What name is given to a Horizon of soil?
Answer:
Top Soil.

Question 12.
Which is the mostly found soil in India?
Answer:
Alluvial.

Question 13.
Which soil is most indispensable on Deccan plateau?
Answer:
Red soil.

Question 14.
What name is given to Black soil?
Answer:
Regur soil.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 15.
Name the crop for which black soil is used.
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 16.
Name an area of soils.
Answer:
Thar.

Question 17.
In which area Ravines are found?
Answer:
Chambal Valley.

Question 18.
Why is diversity of vegetation found in India?
Answer:
Because there is a great diversity in relief, climate vegetation in India.

Question 19.
Where are tropical evergreen forests found in India?
Answer:
Tropical evergreen forests are found on west coast, western ghats, Assam, Nagaland, Tripura and West Bengal.

Question 20.
Where are Monsoons forests found in India?
Answer:
Monsoon forests are found in Maharashtra, Tamilnadu, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, U.P., Uttranchal and Punjab.

Question 21.
Name the four main trees found in Monsoon forests.
Answer:
Sal, Teak, Sheesham and Ebony.

Question 22.
Where are Delta forests found? Name one important tree.
Answer:
Delta forests are found in coastal areas where Deltas are formed. Sundri is an important tree.

Question 23.
Which wood is the best for making furniture, ships and rail coaches?
Answer:
Teak wood is the best.

Question 24.
Where are mangrove forests found?
Answer:
These forests are found in Deltas and coastal areas. These can be grown in salt areas as well as in fresh water areas.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 25.
Why is Ganga, Brahmputra Delta known as Sunder Ban?
Answer:
Sundri is the most important tree in this Delta. Therefore it is called Sunder Ban.

Question 26.
Why do the trees in deserts have long roots?
Answer:
There is absence of water in deserts. Nature has provided trees with long roots to get water from depth.

Question 27.
How do forests increase the fertility of soil?
Answer:
Dead leaves of trees mix with soil and become humus. It increases fertility.

Question 28.
Why do the forests control floods?
Answer:
Flood water seeps into the ground and decreases the flow of floods and control floods.

Question 29.
What do you mean by alluvial soils?
Answer:
The soils formed by rivers are called alluvial soils.

Question 30.
Name three types of alluvial soil.
Answer:
Khadar soil, Bhangar soil and Delta soil are types of alluvial soil.

Question 31.
Name one merit of Black soil.
Answer:
It can hold moisture and is best suited for cotton crop.

Question 32.
Which elements are found in large quantity in laterite soils?
Answer:
Iron and aluminium elements are found in large quantity in laterite soils.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 33.
Name any two milch animals.
Answer:
Cow, Buffalo etc.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Trees and plants make_______
Answer:
Natural vegetation

Question 2.
_________ plant is called Terror of Bengal.
Answer:
Hyacinth

Question 3.
Coniferous cover _______ % forests.
Answer:
5

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 4.
_________ % of land should be under forests.
Answer:
33

Question 5.
________ has the largest forest area.
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Describe forest cover in India is:
(a) 9.48%
(b) 10.48%
(c) 11.48%
(d) 12.48%.
Answer:
(c) 11.48%

Question 2.
Teak wood is found in forests:
(a) Evergreen
(b) Tidal
(c) Mountain
(d) Deciduous.
Answer:
(a) Evergreen

Question 3.
Which is a bird sanctuary?
(a) Bharatpur
(b) Dacligarm
(c) Gir
(d) Nilgiris.
Answer:
(a) Bharatpur

Question 4.
Sunderbans is the habitat of:
(a) Tiger
(b) Lions
(c) Elephants
(d) Camels.
Answer:
(a) Tiger

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 5.
Kaziranga is a national park in:
(a) Bihar
(b) U.P.
(c) Assam
(d) Tripura.
Answer:
(c) Assam

True / False:

Question 1.
Teak wood is best for making ships.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Black soils are mainly found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Flora is related with plant kingdom.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
There are 80,000 species of plants in the world.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
There are 75,000 species of animals in India.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Soil? How is it formed?
Answer:
The loose and unconsolidated material which forms the upper layer of the crust is called soil. It is found in layers or horizons. Its thickness varies from some cms to meters. It consists of many mineral and organic particles, humus, bacteria, etc. Soil formation is a slow process. Soil is formed through the chemical and mehanical weathering of rock cover. Parent materials derived from rock cover and humus together lead to soil formation. Soil is the end product of the physical, chemical, biological and cultural factors which act and react together.

Question 2.
What are the major factors in the formation of Soil?
Answer:
The formation of soil depends upon many factors. The major factors are:

  1. Parent Material
  2. Climate
  3. Surface features of relief
  4. Slope of the land
  5. Natural vegetation.

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of Alluvial Soils?
Answer:

  1. Alluvial soils are deposited by rivers.
  2. These soils are limited to river basins and plains.
  3. These are very fertile soils.
  4. These consist of fine grained clay and sand.
  5. These soils are rich in potash, but poor in phosphorus.
  6. These are generally deep soils.

Question 4.
Which type of soils are formed as a result of wide diffusion of iron in the rocks? Explain two important characteristics of these soils of India.
Answer:
Red soils are formed as a result of wide diffusion of iron in the rocks.

Characteristics of Red Soils. These soils are found in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and areas on periphery of Deccan Plateau. These soils have been formed due to the decomposition of underlying igneous rocks. The red colour of these soils is due to oxidation and diffusion of iron in hard crystalline rocks. These are given to the cultivation of millets, pulses, linseed, tobacco etc. These soils cover the largest area in Peninsular India. These soils are poor in lime, nitrogen and humus. Fertilizers are added to make these soils fertile.

Question 5.
Which exotic species is known as ‘Terror of Bengal5? Why is it called so?
Or
Why does exotic flora become a problem for us? Name two such species.
Answer:
Nearly 40% of plant species found in India have come from outside and are called exotic plants. These plants have been brought from Sino-Tibetan, African and Indo – Malayasian areas. These plants were brought as decorative garden plants in India. These plants rapidly multiply so that it is difficult to eradicate these. These reduce the useful land cover. These prevent the growth of economic plants. These spread diseases and are a hazard to public health. Lantana and water hyacinth are two such species. Water hyacinth is known as “Terror of Bengal”. It has choked up all the water courses like rivers, streams, tanks, canals, etc.

Question 6.
What is the need for conservation of forests?
Answer:
Increasing human and animal population has adverse impact on natural vegetation. Areas which were once covered with forests, have now become semi-desert. Even Rajasthan has forests. Forests are essential for ecological balance which in turn is essential for human survival and development. For balanced ecology and healthy environment, at least one third of the land of India must be kept under forest. Unfortunately we do not have even one fourth of the total area under forest. The need for a policy for conservation and mangement of forest resources, therefore, demands no emphasis.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 7.
What are the aims of National Forest Policy?
Answer:
A new National Forest Policy was adopted in 1988 to stop the further decrease in the forest cover.

  1. The policy aimed at bringing 33 percent of India’s landmass under forest cover. The world coverage was 27 percent, and India’s own coverage at that time was only 19 percent.
  2. The policy further stated that efforts would be made to maintain environmental stability and to restore forests where ecological balance was disturbed.
  3. The other objective was to conserve the natural heritage of the country, its biological diversity and genetic pool.
  4. The policy further aimed to check soil erosion, an extension of the desert lands and reduction of floods and droughts.
  5. Other objectives of the policy were to increase the forest cover through social forestry and afforestation denuded and unproductive land, increase in productivity of forests to make timber, fuel, fodder and food available to rural and tribal populations dependent on forests and encourage the substitution of wood.
  6. Lastly it emphasized the creation of a massive people movement involving women to encourage planting of trees and stop felling of trees.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Soil Erosion? In which different ways does it occur?
Answer:
Soil Erosion. It is the destruction and removal of top soil by running water, wind, etc. Soil erosion has become a serious problem in many areas. Soil formation is a slow process and takes thousands of years to develop soil, but it may be removed in a matter of a few years. Soil erosion results from the following causes ;

Causes of Soil Erosion:

  1. Steep Slopes. Steep slopes affect the rapidity of running water on steep slopes, and the intensity of soil erosion increases.
  2. Torrential Rainfall. Heavy rainfall lessens the soil particles and scoops out the soil-forming gullies and ravines. This gives rise to a dissected surface called badland as in the Chambal valley of India.
  3. Strong Winds. Winds and dust storms blow away soil in dry areas. This process
    is known as deflation.
  4. Over-grazing. Due to over-grazing, the vegetation becomes too thin to protect the soil. Rain and wind can easily erode the loose soil.
  5. Over-cropping. Crop rotation maintains soil fertility. But over-cropping and shifting cultivation render soil infertile.
  6. Deforestation. Deforestation means the removal of forest cover and it exposes the area of soil erosion. Reckless cutting of trees has resulted in soil erosion by chos along the Shiwalik hills. Human misuse of the land through wrong farming practices, deforestation etc. leads to the removal of soil cover.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Soils

Question 2.
What factors control the diversity and growth of fauna and flora?
Answer:
The growth, types, and diversity in flora and fauna kingdom is due to the following factors:

  1. Temperature
  2. Sunlight
  3. Precipitation
  4. Soil
  5. Relief

1. Temperature. The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by temperature along with humidity in the air, precipitation and soil. On the slopes of the Himalayas and the hills of the peninsula above the height of 915 metere, the fall in the temperature affects the types of vegetation and its growth, and changes it from tropical to subtropical temperature and alpine.

2. Sunlight. The variation in sun’s radiant energy at different places is due to the difference in latitude, season and duration of the day. Due to long duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in summer.

3. Precipitation. Almost the entire rainfall occurs by the advancing south-west monsoon (June to Sept.) and retreating north-east monsoons. Areas of heavy rainfall have more dense vegetation as compared to other areas.

4. Soil. Changes in soil conditions have given rise to peculiar types of vegetation in many areas such as mangrove forests swamps and sandy coastal forests.

5. Relief. It is another important factor affecting vegetation. Plains, plateaus and mountains have different types of vegetation.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

by

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Minerals and Energy Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in 1-15 words :

Question 1.
Write the definition of mineral resources.
Answer:
Minerals are natural substances that are made up of one or more elements. These are found in the interior of the earth. These have a definite chemical composition. These are identified by their physical and chemical qualities.

Question 2.
Where do iron-ore is found in India?
Answer:

  1. Bihar: Singhbhum.
  2. Orissa: Mayurbhanjh.
  3. Chhattisgarh: Durg and Bastar.
  4. Karnataka: Bellary, Dharwar, Kudremukh.

Question 3.
What are the uses of copper?
Answer:
Copper is used for making utensils, coins, electrical wires and electronics. Their sheets are also made.

Question 4.
Name the famous gold mines in India.
Answer:
In Karnataka, Kolar and Hutti.
In Andhra Pradesh: Ramgiri.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 5.
How should we use atomic minerals?
Answer:
Atomic minerals should be used carefully. These should be used for the development of the country and not for destruction and pollution.

Question 6.
What are the non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Water power, solar energy, wind power, geothermal energy and tidal energy.

Question 7.
Name the four types of coal.
Answer:

  1. Anthracite
  2. Bituminous
  3. Lignite
  4. Peat.

Question 8.
What are multipurpose projects?
Answer:
The dams built mainly for power generation are called multi- purpose projects as these provide many benefits at the same time.

II. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
Which are the countries from where iron ore is mainly found? Write down the different types of iron ore :
Answer:
Countries: Russia and its neighbouring countries, Australia, Brazil, U.S.A. produce large quantities of iron ore. India produces 5% iron ore in the world.

Types of Iron ore :

  1. Magnetite
  2. Haematite
  3. Limonite
  4. Siderite.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 2.
Write down a note on the importance of Bauxite.
Answer:
Aluminium is extracted from Bauxite. It makes up about 8 per cent of the earth’s crust. It is light, strong and a very good conductor of electricity. It is largely used in various industries like transportation (aircraft, ship building, automobiles), chemical industries, electrical goods, machines, etc. It is used in making utensils, coins, furniture, sheets, packing material, photo-frames, pipes, etc. It is the basis of our telecommunication systems as it is used in radios, telegraphs, televisions and electrical wires. Due to its wide uses, it has been described as the ‘champion of metals’ or ‘the metal of the twentieth century’.

Question 3.
What is the importance of natural gas in our life and name the major areas in our country where it is found?
Answer:
Natural gas is produced in areas producing petroleum. When an oil well is dug, Natural gas is found in upper layers.

Use: It is used in homes for cooking, in vehicles and in industry.

Production: All the petroleum-producing countries produce Natural gas. The U.S.A. is the leading producer in the world. Russia, Middle East, Canada, Uzbekistan are other producers. Natural gas is produced in some parts of India. These include the Krishna-Godavari basin, Bay of Bengal-Orissa region and Barmer region of Rajasthan. Gulf of Cambay and Kutch region in Gujarat is a potential area. About 75% of the production of India comes from Bombay High.

Question 4.
Name the important factors which are favourable for the generation of Hydroelectricity?
Answer:
The development of water power (Hydro-electric power) depends upon the following factors:

  1. Uneven relief. Mountainous areas provide quite good sites for the development of water power. Such areas provide rapids or falls.
  2. Abundant rainfall. Fairly = heavy rainfall uniformly distributed throughout the year is necessary for water power development.
  3. Presence of huge rivers and waterfalls. There should be some large rivers like Indus or Nile to provide large and regular supply of water.
  4. Presence of lakes. The presence of lakes along the course of a river helps to regulate water flow naturally.
  5. Nearness to market. The consuming areas should be near the power stations to avoid the loss during transmission.

III. Answer the following questions in about 125-130 words :

Question 1.
What are energy resources? What is their contribution towards the development of the country? Write in detail about any two energy resources.
Answer:
Coal: Coal is the prime source of energy. It is often called the ‘Mother of Industries’. It has been the basis of industrial revolution. Coal is used as a raw material in iron and steel, chemical industries. India ranks seventh in the world as regards coal reserves. The total proven coal reserves are nearly 214,000 million tonnes. These reserves will not last long. The major states known for coal reserves are Jharkhand, Bihar, Orissa, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, M.P., Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. Coal production is 330 million tonnes (4% of world).

Distribution: India has two types of coalfields :
(a) Gondwana coalfields (98%)
(b) Tertiary coalfields (2%).

(a) Gondwana coalfields: These belong to the period of Gondwana age. Nearly 3/ 4th of coal deposits are found in Damodar valley (Damuda series). Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valley have also coal deposits.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources 1

  1. W. Bengal. West Bengal has the oldest coalfield of India at Raniganj. It covers an area of 1267 sq. km.
  2. Jharkhand and Bihar. These two states produce 50% coal of India. The major coalfields of Jharia, Bokaro, Karanpura, Daltonganj are found in Damodar valley. Coking coal from this coalfield is supplied to steel centres of Jamshedpur, Asansol, Durgapur and Bokaro.
  3. Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh have Son valley coalfields of Suhagpur, Korba, Rampur, Tatapani, Singrauli.
  4. Petroleum: In about 10 lakh sq. km oil-bearing rocks are found in India. The oil reserves in India are estimated to be about 4000 million tonnes.

The first oilfield in India was discovered in 1867 at Makum in Assam. At present the production is as below (334 lakh tonnes) :

  1. Assam: In Assam oil is produced in Digboi, Moran, Naharkatiya and Sibsagar regions.
  2. Gujarat: In Gujarat oil is produced in the Gulf of Cambay region at Kalol, Ankleshwar, Lunej, etc.
  3. Maharashtra: Oil has struck in the off-shore region at Bombay High along the coast of Mumbai. It is the leading producer of crude oil in India. North Basin and South basin are the important oilfields.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources 2
The production of oil in India is increasing everywhere under the organization of Oil and Natural Gas Commission.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

IV. Map Skill

Question 1.
Show one important area of minerals and energy resources on map of India
1. Iron ore
2. Manganese
3. Gold
4. Mica
5. Coal
6. Petroleum.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources 3

V. Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a list of atleast ten minerals.
Answer:

S.No. Name of the minerals Name of state of India in which mineral is found Use of the mineral
1. Iron ore Jharkhand Iron steel industries
2. Manganese Madhya Pradesh Steelmaking
3. Gold Karnataka Jewellery
4. Copper Jharkhand Electrical industries
5. Mica Bihar Chemical Industries
6. Uranium Jharkhand Utensils
7. Bauxite Andhra Pradesh Chemical
8. Coal Jharkhand Power
9. Petroleum Assam Power
10. Hydroelectricity Maharashtra Power

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Minerals and Energy Resources Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a type of mining?
(a) Open cast
(b) Shaft
(c) Drilling
(d) Shaft.
Answer:
(d) Shaft.

Question 2.
Which is the hardest mineral?
(a) Diamond
(b) Granite
(c) Basalt
(d) Gatbro.
Answer:
(a) Diamond.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 3.
Which is the first metal discovered by man?
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Gold
(d) Iron.
Answer:
(a) Copper.

Question 4.
Name the diamond which is rarest diamond.
(a) Green diamond
(b) White diamond
(c) Pink diamond
(d) Brown diamond.
Answer:
(a) Green diamond.

Question 5.
Which is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Iron
(c) Mica
(d) Coal.
Answer:
(b) Iron.

Question 6.
What is the name of mining shown in the picture?
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources 4
(a) Open Cast
(b) Shaft
(c) Drilling
(d) Shaft mining.
Answer:
(d) Shaft mining.

Question 7.
Which source of energy is the activity in the picture associated with?
Or
Seeing the picture tell the source to which it belongs.
PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources 5
(а) Hydroelectricity
(b) Solar energy
(c) Wind energy
(d) Nuclear (Atomic) energy.
Answer:
(a) Hydroelectricity.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
The __________ metals do not contain metals.
Answer:
Non-Metallic

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 2.
Gondwana coalfields belong to the period of __________ age.
Answer:
Gondwana

Question 3.
Biogas is produced in __________ areas.
Answer:
Rural

Question 4.
Khetri is famous for __________
Answer:
Copper

Question 5.
In Gujarat oil is produced in the __________ region.
Answer:
Gulf of camboy.

True/False :

Question 1.
Energy generated by Tides is called Tidal energy.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
West Bengal has the oldest coalfield of India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Iron is a non-ferrous mineral.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Jharia is famous for Atomic energy.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Gold metal is used for decoration.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Into how many categories can minerals be classified? Give two examples of each.
Answer:
Minerals are grouped into three categories :

  1. Metallic Minerals. Iron ore, tin.
  2. Non-metallic Minerals. Diamond, Gypsum.
  3. Atomic Minerals. Uranium, Thorium.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 2.
Distinguish between Ferrous and Non-ferrous minerals.
Answer:

Ferrous minerals Non-ferrous minerals
1. The metallic minerals which contain iron content are called ferrous minerals (Fe). 1. The minerals which do not contain iron (ferrous) content are called non-ferrous minerals (Nfe).
2. Iron, Manganese, Chromite, Cobalt, etc. are ferrous minerals. 2. Copper, Lead, Zinc, Aluminium are non-ferrous minerals.

Question 3.

What are the uses of Manganese?
Answer:

  1. It is used for manufacturing bleaching powder.
  2. It is used in insecticides.
  3. It is used for making paints and batteries.

Question 4.
Where does India rank in the production of manganese in the world? Where is it found in India?
Answer:
India ranks second in world production of Manganese. In India the main producing areas are Karnataka, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Goa.

Question 5.
What is Bronze? What is its use?
Answer:
It is a hard and strong product. Tin and copper are mixed to make it. It is used in making tools and weapons.

Question 6.
Where is copper found in the world ? Name the copper producing areas in India.
Answer:
USA, Russia, Chile, Zambia, Canada and Zaire are the main producers of copper. In India copper is found in Singhbhum (Jharkhand), Balaghat (Madhya Pradesh) and Jhunjhunu, Alwar (Rajasthan).

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 7.
Which two states of India are large producer of Bauxite? Name two copper producing areas of these states.
Answer:
Jharkhand and Rajasthan are Bauxite producing states of India. Copper is mined at Singhbhum and Khetri.

Question 8.
What are the uses of Gold?
Answer:
Gold is a valuable metal :

  1. It is used for making ornaments and articles for decoration.
  2. It is used for gold plating, teeth covers and medicines.

Question 9.
What are the uses of copper?
Answer:
Copper is a soft and brown-coloured metal. It has been used by man for a very long time. It is mixed up with tin to be known as Bronze. It is used in the production of utensils, coins, electric wires.

Question 10.
Which minerals are used to produce atomic energy?
Answer:
Uranium, Thorium, Lithium and Zircon are used to produce atomic energy.

Question 11.
Why is petroleum called Rock oil?
Answer:
Petroleum or ‘mineral oil is called rock oil because it is formed in sedimentary rocks. It is called crude oil.

Question 12.
Which country is the largest producer of Gold in the world? And how much?
Answer:
South Africa is the largest producer of gold in the world. It produces about 70% gold of the world.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 13.
What is Mica? Why is it used in electrical goods industry?
Answer:
Mica is black or brown or white transparent material. It is a non-metallic .mineral. It is non-conductor of electricity. So it is used in electrical goods industry.

Question 14.
Describe the different methods of extracting minerals.
Answer:
Taking out minerals from rocks is called mining :

  • Open cast mining: Minerals at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer.
  • Shaft Mining: Minerals at depth are taken out by making deep bores.
  • Drilling: Deep wells are bored to take out petroleum.
  • Quarrying: Minerals at surface are dug out.

Question 15.
Most industries are concentrated around coal mines.
Answer:
Most industries are concentrated around coal mines because coal is an important source of energy. It is key mineral and fuel for the industries. It is used as a power resource in many industries. Many industries use it as a raw material. So most industries are concentrated around coal mines.

Question 16.
Petroleum is referred to as “black gold”. Why?
Answer:
Nowadays petroleum is a major source of energy in the world. Many byproducts such as kerosene, fuel, lubricating oils etc. are obtained from it. Petrochemical products have become very useful. Petroleum is used in agro-industry, paints, perfumes, transport, etc. So it is rightly called the “black gold”.

Question 17.
Distinguish between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

Conventional Sources Non-conventional Sources
1. The sources of energy which have been used since a long time are called the conventional sources of energy. . 1. The sources of energy which have not been commonly used are called non conventional sources of energy
2. Wood, fuel, coal, petroleum gas and water power are conventional sources of energy. 2. Wind, tidal power, Geothermal energy, bio gas, solar energy are non conventional sources of energy.

Question 18.
Distinguish between
(i) Thermal power and Hydel power.
Answer:
Thermal Power and Hydel Power

Thermal Power Hydel Power
1. It is expensive. 1. It is comparatively cheaper.
2. It is a limited resource. 2. It is an unlimited resource.
3. It creates problems of atmospheric pollution. 3. It is non polluted.
4. The electricity generated by coal or petroleum is called thermal power. 4. The electricity generated by running water is called hydel power.

(ii) Anthracite coal and Bituminous coal.
Answer:
Anthracite coal and Bituminous coal

Anthracite coal Bituminous coal
1. It is the best quality of coal. 1. It is the low quality of coal.
2. It causes very less pollution. 2. It causes more pollution.
3. It gives more energy. 3. It gives less energy.
4. It is found only in J & K. 4. It is found in West Bengal, Orissa, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 19.
How should the natural resources be conserved?
Answer:
The natural resources should be used carefully in a planned manner. No resource should be wasted. These should be used so that the future generations can also use these.

Question 20.
Distinguish between Metallic and Non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

Metallic Minerals Non-Metallic Minerals
1. Metals are malleable i.e., they can be beaten into sheets. 1. They are brittle in nature and cannot be beaten into sheets.
2. They are good conductors of heat and electricity. 2. They are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
3. All metals are solids. 3. They may be solids, liquids and gases.
4. For Example iron, copper. 4. For Example sand, diamonds.

Question 21.
‘Human civilisations are associated with discovery of minerals.’ Give example.
Answer:
Mining is an age-old activity. The use of minerals is marked with different stages of human civilisation. During 5000 B.C., copper age existed. During 3000 B.C., Bronze age and during 1400 B.C., iron age were developed.

Question 22.
What are the alternative sources of energy?
Answer:
There are other sources of energy as well. They include hydropower, geothermal, nuclear, solar and wind. These are also referred to as the alternative energy sources.

Question 23.
Many African countries have large potential of water resources but they have not used it to generate hydro-electricity.
Answer:
Large amount of capital is required for making dams on rivers, fixing machines and turbines and buying of transmission lines. So in spite of the water resources they are not used to generate hydro-electricity.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 24.
Name four main belts where iron ore is found.
Answer:
The four main iron ore belts are :

  1. Orissa – Jharkhand belt
  2. Durg – Bastar Chandarpur belt
  3. Bellary – Chick Manglur belt
  4. Maharashtra – Goa belt.

Question 25.
‘Mineral conservation can delay a crisis.’ Explain.
Answer:
Due to growing population, the use of minerals is increasing at an alarming rate. Minerals will not last long. We need to find substitutes, reduce consumption, recycle mineral resources. It can delay a mineral crisis.

Question 26.
Classify the following metals :
(i) Ferrous
Answer:
Ferrous: Iron and Manganese

(ii) Non-ferrous
Answer:
Non-ferrous: Copper and Lead

(iii) Light metal
Answer:
Light metal: Aluminium

(iv) Rare metals.
Answer:
Rare metals: Zirconium.

Question 27.
List three basic ways through which energy is-obtained.
Answer:
Energy is the capacity to do work. It can be obtained by :

  • Direct heating like fire, sun, etc.
  • Electricity
  • Stored energy in the form of a battery.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 28.
Describe the different types of coal.
Answer:

  1. Peat: Peat is the first stage of coal development. It is dark brown in colour. It has about 35 per cent carbon content.
  2. Lignite: Lignite is the next stage of coal formation, which has almost 50 per cent carbon.
  3. Anthracite: Lignite becomes sub-bituminous, bituminous and eventually anthracite coal. Anthracite has more than 85 per cent carbon. It is the best quality of coal. It is very hard, compact, black in colour. It ignites slowly and bums with short blue flame.

Question 29.
Describe the formation of coal.
Answer:
Coal is a black or brown rock consisting mainly of carbon. Coal is formed by the decomposition of vegetation of last ages. Most of coal deposits were formed in carboniferous age about 300 million years ago.

Question 30.
Describe natural gas as a source of conventional energy.
Answer:

  1. Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits.
  2. It is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
  3. It is used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
  4. Russia, Norway, UK and the Netherlands are the major producers of natural gas in the world.
  5. Jaisalmer, Krishna-Godavari delta. Tripura and some areas off shore in Mumbai have natural gas resources in India.
  6. Very few countries in the world have sufficient natural gas reserves of their own.

Question 31.
Describe solar energy.
Answer:
Solar Energy:

  1. Sun provides heat and light energy every day.
  2. Solar energy trapped from the sun is used in solar cells to produce electricity.
  3. These cells are joined into solar pan&b to generate power for heating and lighting purpose.
  4. The technology of utilising solar energy benefits tropical countries with abundant sunshine.
  5. Solar energy is also used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers along with community lighting and traffic signals.

Question 32.
Explain wind energy.
Answer:

  1. Wind is an inexhaustible source of energy.
  2. Windmills have been used for grinding grain and lifting water since times immemorial.
  3. At present high speed wind rotate the windmill which is connected to a generator to produce electricity.
  4. Wind farms are clusters of wind mill. They are located in coastal regins and in mountains passes where strong and steady win blows.
  5. Wind farms are found in Netherland, Germany, Denmark, UK, USA and Spain, ‘ They are known for wind energy production.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 33.
Give an account of nuclear power.
Answer:
Nuclear power:

  1. Nuclear power is obtained frm energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive fuels like uranium and thorium.
  2. These fuels undergo nuclear fission in nuclear reactors and emit power.
  3. USA and Europe are the greatest producers of nuclear power.
  4. In India: Rajasthan and Jharkhand have large deposits of uranium.
  5. Thorium is found in large quantities in the monozite sands of Kerala.
  6. Nuclear power stations in India are located in Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Tarapur (Maharashtra), Ranapratap Sagar near Kota (Rajasthan), Narora (Uttar Pradesh) and Kaiga (Karnataka).

Question 34.
How is geothermal energy used?
Answer:
Geothermal Energy

  • Heat energy obtained from the earth is known as geothermal energy.
  • The temperature in the interior of the earth increases with increase in depth.
  • This heat energy comes on the surface in the form of hot springs. This heat energy is used to generate power.

Question 35.
Rajan lives in West Bengal. Which cereal crop should he sow in his field to maximise his profit?
Answer:
Rice.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the production of mica in world and in India.
Answer:
U.S.A., Russia, India, France, Argentina and South Korea are the main producers of Mica. India is the leading producer of mica in the world. But the production of mica is decreasing in India.

It is due to two factors :

  1. The demand for mica is decreasing in the world.
  2. The use of substitutes is increasing.

90% of the production of Mica in India comes from three states of Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan and Jharkhand. Other producers are Bihar, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh. The main districts are Nellore, Vishakhapatnam, Krishna (Andhra Pradesh), Jaipur, Udaipur, Bhilwara (Rajasthan), Gaya (Bihar), Hazaribagh (Jharkhand).

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 2.
What is Nuclear Energy? Name the areas in India producing nuclear minerals.
Answer:
The energy generated by nuclear minerals is called nuclear energy. Uranium, Thorium, Lithium are nuclear minerals.

Areas of Production :

  • Uranium. Singhbhum, Hazaribagh (Jharkhand), Gaya (Bihar) Saharanpur (U.P.) and Udaipur (Rajasthan).
  • Thorium. Kerala, Jharkhand, Bihar, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.
  • Lithium. Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Kerala.

Question 3.
Describe the importance of Natural Resources in our day to day life. Name the main areas of Natural Resources.
Answer:
Natural resources are free gifts of nature. These are very important for our lives. These are the index of a country’s progress and strength. These are called ‘the backbone of a country.

Areas of Natural Resources:

  • India’s 30% of the total area is covered with mountains. These have huge water and forest resources.
  • About 27% of the total area is covered with plateaus. These are storehouses of minerals.
  • About 43% of the total area is covered with plains. These have fertile soils and agriculture is well developed. These are ‘granaries’ of India.

Question 4.
Describe the Non-conventional sources of energy produced in India.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy. Today non-conventional sources of energy include wind, tides, geothermal heat, biogas, farm and animal waste including human excreta.

All these sources are renewable or inexhaustible.
1. Wind energy: It can be used for generating electricity. It is estimated that wind alone can provide 2000 MW of electricity. The states of Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Orissa are better placed in regard to this energy. Areas with constant and high speed winds are suitable for the purpose.

2. Tidal energy: The Gulfs of Kutch and Cambay are ideally suited to develop electricity from the energy produced by high tides entering to narrow creeks.

3. Geo-thermal energy: India is not rich in this source. However, efforts are on to utilize natural energy of the hot springs at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.

4. Energy from urban waste: A pilot for demonstration purposes had already been set up in Delhi to treat solid municipal waste for conversion into energy. It produces nearly 4 MW energy every year. Sewage in cities is used for generating gas and electricity.

5. Biogas based power plants: Bagasse, farm wastes, rice husk are being used to produce electricity.

6. Farm animal and human wastes (Urja Gram): By using biomass, animal poultry waste and human excreta, gobar gas plants are being set up in villages.

7. Solar energy: Solar voltaic cells are used to generate solar energy.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 5.
Environmental aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams.
Answer:

  • Dams create an imbalance in the earth’s equilibrium.
  • Deforestation leads to environmental pollution.
  • People are displaced.
  • Cities/villages/towns are shifted causing untold hardships to people.
  • Silting of lakes a problem.

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Russia is rich in __________ resource.
Answer:
Natural gas

Question 2.
Processing of digging out of minerals is known as __________
Answer:
quarrying

Question 3.
Biogas is produced in __________ areas.
Answer:
rural

Question 4.
India __________ in ferrous minerals.
Answer:
is rich

Question 5.
Australia is the largest producer of __________ in the world.
Answer:
bauxite

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 6.
China and India have large __________ are deposits.
Answer:
iron.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Hydel power? How is it generated? Describe its production in India and world.
Answer:
Hydel power is generated through falling water. Dams are built on rivers, the water is dropped from a height to rotate turbines. Due to friction, turbines generate electricity.

Production: Many countries have sufficient water resources. These countries produce large quantities of Hydel power. U.S.A., Russia, Japan, Germany, Canada, England, France, Italy, Poland, Brazil and India are the main producers. U.S.A. produces 31% water power of the world.

Hydel power in India. India produces sufficient Hydel power. But India’s share is only 1% in world production. Rivers and canals are the main sources.

  1. Himalayan rivers
  2. Peninsular rivers.

Ganga, Brahmaputra and tributaries are snow fed and perennial rivers. So these have large capacity to generate water power with 18% of total potential of India. But peninsular rivers are seasonal and depend upon rainfall. So their capacity is low.

Distribution: All the states, except, Goa produce Hydel power. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Orissa, Kerala states have large capacity. Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh are rich in Hydel power resources. We have to develop these resources.

Important: Projects,

  • Nagarjun Sagar Dam-Karnataka.
  • Ganga Hydro-electric system-U.P.
  • Tata Hydro-electric Grid-Maharashtra.
  • Hirakud Dam-Orissa.
  • Pandoh Project-Himachal Pradesh.
  • Bhakra-Nangal Project-Punjab.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Minerals and Energy Resources

Question 2.
Describe the economic importance of minerals. Explain the main types of minerals.
Answer:
Minerals. Mineral resources are of great use to man. Minerals have been called ‘The Gifts of Nature’. Mineral resources have been used since pre-historic times. Human civilisation has seen many ages like the stone age, copper age and iron age. Modern industrial and economic development depends upon the production and utilization of minerals.

Types of Minerals: There are 70 to 80 minerals found on the surface of the earth. These can be divided into three types :

  1. Non-Metallic Minerals. These include salt, mica, limestone, graphite, potash, gypsum.
  2. Metallic Minerals. These include iron, copper, aluminium, gold, silver. These can be melted into useful metals.
  3. Fuel Minerals. These include coal, oil and natural gas. These are called sources of power.

Importance of Minerals :

  • Industries. Minerals form the basis of heavy industries like iron and steel. Minerals are called ‘vitamins’ of industry.
  • Machinery. Minerals provide machinery for modern manufacturing.
  • Transport. Minerals are used in the making of different means of transportation.
  • Sources of Energy. Minerals provide energy to modern industries.

Question 3.
Describe the production of Petroleum in India.
Answer:
Production. In about 10 lakh sq. km. oil-bearing rocks are found in India. The oil reserves in India are estimated to be 50 crore metric tons.
The first oilfield in India was discovered in 1867 at Makum in Assam. At present the production is as under:

  1. Assam: In Assam, oil is produced in Digboi, Moran, Naharkatiya, and Sibsagar regions.
  2. Gujarat: In Gujarat, oil is produced in the Gulf of Cambay region at Kalol, Ankleshwar, Lunej, etc.
  3. Maharashtra: Oil has struck in the offshore region at Mumbai High along the coast of Mumbai. It is the leading producer of crude oil in India. North Basin and South Basin and Albet islands are the important oil fields.
  4. The production of oil in India is increasing everywhere under the organization of the Oil and Natural Gas Commission. The production of oil in India was estimated to be about 210 lakh tonnes in 2001.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

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Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following quotes carefully and answer the given questions : The Indian Republic is a large country with a large geographical spread. India is a distinct geographical unit, in which a distinct culture has developed. It is the seventh largest country in the world. Where as in terms of population, it ranks second in the world after China. It is clear from this that 17.5% (2011 data) population is on 2.4% of the total geographical area of the world. On the northern border of China, there are mountain ranges of the Great Himalayas which extend parallel to each other. She makes India a separate territory from Asia. The vast fertile plains of the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers provide food security to our country. The peninsular plateau is a storehouse of natural minerals. Surrounded by many major rivers, lakes and vast oceans on all three sides of the world, India holds the status of an independent landform or subcontinent.
(A) What is the place in the world in terms of area and population of India?
Answer:
India ranks seventh in the world in terms of area. In terms of population, India is second.

(B) Why is India called the sub-continent?
Answer:
India is located to the South of the continent of Asia. Part of Asia is a distinct geographical entity. It is separated from the rest of Asia by the Himalayan mountains. India has been given the status of a sub-continent due to its’ features. The Indian sub-continent consists of countries other than India including Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives etc.

Question 2.
Plains of Punjab-Haryana-These plains are spread over an area of about 640 Kilometres from northwest to south-east. Their average width is up to 300 km. The total area of this ground is up to 1.75 lakh km. This plain is made up of alluvial deposits of Indus and its tributaries: Sutlej, Beas and Ravi. There are five Doabs of this ground, including Bist Doab (Beas and Sutlej), Bari Doab (Beas and Ravi), Rachna Doab (Ravi and Chenab), Chaj Doaba (Chenab and Jehlum) and Sindh-Sagar Doab (Jehlum, Chenab and Sindhu (middle) area of the river).
(A) Write about the extension of the plain of Punjab-Haryana?
Answer:
The plain of Punjab-Haryana has spread about 640 km from North-West to South-East. Its average width is 300 km. Its total area is 1.75 lakh square kilometres.

(B) How did these plains become? Write the names of its doabs.
Answer:
This plain is formed by the accumulation of alluvium of Indus and its tributaries; Sutlej, Beas and Ravi. There are five Doabs of this plain, Bist Doab (Beas and Sutlej), Bari Doab (Beas and Ravi), Rachna Doab (Ravi and Chenab), Chaj Doab (Chenab and Jehlum) and Sindh-Sagar Doab (Jehlum, Chenab and Indus River of middle area.)

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 3.
The plains of the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers are one of the largest plains in the world. These plains are about 2,400 km long and 150 to 130 km wide. These plains are made of alluvial soil. In millions of years, this fertile plain has been created due to the deposition of alluvium in a very large basin situated in Giripad, Himachal. Many plains are also built-in these plains such as Alluvial fans, alluvial cone, crooked or meandering rivers, natural leaves, flood plains etc. Most of the Terai Region of Punjab, Uttarakhand has been cut into forests and made into arable land.
(A) How was India’s vast northern plains formed?
Answer:
The vast plains of India have been formed by the deposition of alluvial soil brought by the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. These deposits occurred in a huge basin in Girpad in the Himalayas.

(B) Name the main landforms of these plains.
Answer:
Many landscapes are found in these plains, like alluvial fans, alluvial cone, meanders, crooked or erosive flow, rivers, natural leaves, flood plains etc. Most of the Terai Region of Punjab, Uttarakhand has been cut into forests and made into arable land.

Question 4.
A network of rivers and canals flowing in an area is called water flow. Nature has given India hundreds of big and small rivers. It is very important for students to understand some facts related to water flow, such as Doab, water separator and drainage pattern etc. The area between the two rivers is called Doab. Any elevated area, such as a mountain or high land that divides two water streams, is called a water divide. The water flowing over any part of the earth creates many different forms which are called drainage forms.
(A) What is the meaning of water flow?
Answer:
The network of rivers and canals flowing in an area is called water flow. This means that the network of all the rivers or canals flowing in a particular area is called water flow.

(B) Who is called Doab?
Answer:
The area between two rivers is called Doab. This means that the area or plain between two rivers is called Doab.

(C) Explain the meaning of water divide.
Answer:
The elevated area, such as a mountain or a high land that divides two water streams is called a water divide.

Question 5.
Rivers have been of great importance throughout human history. The Indus Valley civilization is an example of this. Water has attracted humans since ancient times. Our life depends on water only. The survival or absence of population is dependent on water. Folk songs, stories, folk-dances, agriculture are all dependent on water. Water is the most important natural resource. For livelihood, water is very important everywhere in agriculture, irrigation, hydroelectric construction, industiral area, construction and homes. Internal water ways are possible only due to rivers.
(A) What is the importance of rivers in our life?
Answer:

  • Rivers give us drinking water. This water is purified to make it potable.
  • Many multipurpose projects are put on these rivers which not only provide electricity but also provide water for irrigation.
  • Many civilizations flourish on the banks of these rivers. Indus valley civilization is an example of this.
  • Rivers bring alluvial soil from the mountains in which our plains become fertile.

(B) What is an internal waterway?
Answer:
Many rivers flow in India and many of these rivers go and merge in some sea. But there are some rivers that cannot reach the sea and dissolve on the way. All these are called internal waterways.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 6.
Human life is greatly influenced by climate. Man is completely subject to climate at every stage of life, including food, clothes, design of homes, health work, employment etc. In cold climate regions, hot things are used in food such as tea, coffee and hot food. Colder substances like lassi, ice, sorket etc. are used more, in countries with hot climate. Warm clothes such as coats, sweaters (Woollen garments), jackets, blankets etc. are used in cold countries. Homes are open and ventilated in areas with hot climates. The roofs of houses in hilly areas are sloping. Fruits like apples, almonds, cherries in cold winter. Climate and crops of sugarcane, cotton, rice, jute etc. are grown in hot climatic regions.
(A) How is human life affected by climate?
Answer:
Human life is greatly influenced by climate such as:

  • Our food habits are affected by climate such as hot things are eaten in cold areas,
  • Our clothes are also affected by climate such as wearing warm clothes in cold areas,
  • The structure and size of our houses are also affected by climate such that houses in hot areas are open and ventilated,
  • People living in cold and mountainous areas are physically stronger.

(B) Which crops grow in cold and hot climate areas?
Answer:

  • Fruits like apple, almond, cherry are grown in cold climate areas.
  • Crops like cotton, sugarcane, rice, wheat, jute etc. are grown in areas with hot climate.

Question 7.
Natural vegetation is a boon for humans or for the provincial economy. There is an acute need for its protection and development. We are aware that the situation of Punjab in this region is not favourable as only 6.07 percent of the forests are found here. The other part of the ground is being used’for the development of agriculture, industry, roads and railways, villages and cities. In terms of population, the area of Punjab is much less than the average of the country. The state’s population and pollution rate are constantly increasing. Therefore, there is a great need to increase the area under vegetation. To accomplish this goal, more and more trees should not be planted in the arable land.
(A) What is the benefit of natural vegetation to us?
Answer:

  • We get oxygen from natural vegetation which gives us clean air.
  • We get many types of wood from natural vegetation which makes our furniture.
  • Many types of herbs are found from natural vegetation which are used in making many types of medicines.
  • There is no land degradation due to natural vegetation.

(B) Why should we increase the area of natural vegetation?
Answer:

  • We should increase natural vegetation to increase fresh air.
  • It is necessary to increase the forests to meet its wood requirements.
  • It is necessary to increase the area of natural vegetation to save land degradation.
  • To give good life to the coming generations, natural vegetation needs to be more and more.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Source Based Questions and Answers

Question 8.
If we want to live our life comfortably and think the same for future generations then we should protect our forests properly. Planting of plants is called afforestation. We can plant saplings or barren land or non-agricultural land without converting them into forests. You can improve the deteriorating state of forests by planting 311 social forests, agricultural forests, commercial forests. The government should make every effort to awaken the people regarding the importance of forests and cooperation for their protection. Laws should be strictly enforced by the Forest Department and punish the culprits for cutting down trees, either illegally or without adopting the right method.
(A) What are the benefits of forests?
Answer:

  • Forests control the climate compact, forests prevent temperature rise in summer and increase the temperature in winter.
  • The roots of dense forests help in reducing the speed of flowing water, thus reducing the speed of flowing water, thus reducing the outbreak of floods.
  • The roots of trees strengthen the soil tightness and prevent soil erosion.
  • The soil gets green manure in the form of bacteria due to dry leaves falling.

(B) How can we save the dwindling forests?
Answer:

  • We can imporove the deteriorating state of forests continuously by dividing forests into different parts.
  • People should be awakened from time to time for the benefits and care of the forests.
  • Cutting of forests should be declared as a legal offence and strict punishment should be given to those who cut down trees without proper law.
  • People should be constantly encouraged to plant new trees.

Question 9.
In our country, the girl is worshipped on one side and on the other side, she tries to take away her right to live. But now the time has come when we have to get rid of the priority of men and children have to understand the gift of nature without any gender discrimination. In future, we can not imagine a society without women. Misconceptions about women need to be changed. By punishing the guilty, the law has to be strictly enforced. We must end shameful and illegal acts such as female feticide and forced abortions.
(A) What is the meaning of female feticide?
Answer:
When it is found out about a pregnant woman that she is having a daughter in her womb, she is killed in the womb or the woman is miscarried. This process is called female feticide.

(B) Why female feticide is done?
Answer:

  • Dowry has to be given at the time of marriage of the girl. That’s why people don’t want girls. So they commit female feticide.
  • It is written in religious texts that to attain liberation one must have a boy. So they kill the female fetus.
  • Use of modern techniques has promoted female feticide.
  • People also commit female feticide in order to gain respect in society.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

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Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB Climate Textbook Questions and Answers

Map Work :

Question 1.
Show on the outline map of India :
(i) Direction of Summer Monsoons.
(ii) Direction of Winter Monsoons.
(iii) Two regions receiving more than 200 cm. rainfall.
(iv) Two regions receiving rainfall between 100-200 cm.
(v) Two regions receiving rainfall between 50-100 cm.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of India Map.

Question 2.
Class Activity :
(i) Check in the newspapers of March, which regions of Punjab got more than average rainfall. Discuss in your class, the effect of rainfall over underground water, with help of your teacher.
(ii) Note the timings of sunrise and sunset with the help of newspapers in the month of August and discuss ‘Position of Sun and Earth’ with the help of your teacher.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of your teacher.

Objective Type Questions :
Answer the following questions in a single word to one sentence length :

Question 1.
What is the reason of winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu?
(a) South-West Monsoon
(b) North-East Monsoon
(c) Local reasons
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) North-East Monsoon.

Question 2.
Which city among the following gets maximum average rainfall?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Dharamshala
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Kolkata.
Answer:
(c) Mawsynram.

Question 3.
Which among the following is reason for winter rainfall in Punjab?
(a) Trade winds
(b) Western cyclone
(c) Polar winds.
(d) Mountains
Answer:
(b) Western Cyclone

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 4.
‘Tsunami’ is a word from which language?
(a) French
(b) Japanese
(c) Punjabi
(d) English.
Answer:
(b) Japanese.

Question 5.
Lines joining places with equal rainfall in a map are known as?
(a) Isotherms
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isobars
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Isohyets.

Question 6.
What is Loo?
Answer:
Loo is a local wind. It is very hot and dry wind which blows during the day time in Northern India.

Question 7.
What is climatology called in Punjabi?
Answer:
Mausam Vighaan.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘Monsoon’?
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ is said to be derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ meaning season. Monsoon winds are those seasonal or periodic winds which change their direction with the season.

Question 9.
What is the relationship of temperature and pressure?
Answer:
They have quite deep relation with each other. Increase in temperature leads to low air pressure and decrease in temperature leads to high air pressure.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 10.
Name the places with minimum and maximum rainfall in India.
Answer:
Places with highest rainfallMawsynram, Cherrapunji.
Places with lowest rainfall – Western Rajasthan, Kutch region of Gujarat, Ladakh region in Jammu and Kashmir.

Short Answer Questions :
Give short answer for the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain difference between weather and climate.
Answer:

Weather

Climate
1. Weather stands for actual atmospheric conditions for a short period (a day or a week). 1. Climate is the aggregate of atmospheric conditions for a longer period (say 30-50 years).
2. The weather changes from daytoday thus, cannot be generalised. 2. The climate is everlasting and static. It does not change so frequently.
3. Weather depends upon the dominant element at a particular time say Rainfall, temperature etc. 3. Climate is the composite picture of all the elements spread over a longer period.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Ferrel’s law?
Answer:
Coriolis force is an artifact of the earth’s rotation. Once air has been set in motion by the pressure gradient force, it undergoes an apparent deflection from its path, as seen by an observer on the earth. This apparent deflection is called the coriolis force and is a result of the earth’s rotation. As air moves from high to low pressure in the northern hemisphere, it is deflected to the right by the coriolis force. In the southern hemisphere, air moving from high to low pressure is deflected to the left by the coriolis force.

Question 3.
Indian rainfall is neither systemic nor specific. Explain.
Answer:
Indian rainfall is irregular and uncertain. It will be clear by the given ahead points :
1. Summer monsoon is the rain-bringer in India. The weather in S.W. monsoons is highly variable. It does not rain continuously throughout the period of summer monsoons. There are frequent ‘breaks’ or spells of dry weather, some of them lasting several days. This breaks the continuity of rain by S.W. monsoons.

2. The summer monsoons do not have great amount of moisture to give heavy rainfall. The amount of rainfall is increased by tropical depressions, convectional system, and jet stream. These cyclones are irregular and have a fluctuating pattern. The frequency of these cyclones determines the height of rainy season. The absence of these leads to a dry spell.

3. The number of rainy days sometimes increase and sometimes decrease. Some years, it is heavy rainfall, but some years get light rainfall. The start and end of monsoons is early or late. Some areas get high rainfall some areas remain dry.

Question 4.
What is the difference between wind vane and Anemometer?
Answer:
1. Wind Vane. A wind vane is an instrument for showing the direction of the wind. A typical wind vane has a pointer in front and fins in back. When the wind is blowing, the wind vane points into the wind. Reading the wind vane is easy. Whichever direction the fin is pointing will indicate where the wind is coming from.

2. Anemometer. An anemometer is a device used for measuring the speed of wind; and is also a common weather station instrument. It consists of four hemispherical cups mounted on horizontal arms, which are mounted on a vertical shaft. The air flow’past the cups in any horizontal direction turns the shaft at a rate that is roughly proportional to the wind speed. So, counting the turns of the shaft over a set time period produced a value proportional to the average wind spreed for a wide range of speeds.

Question 5.
Write a note on winter rainfall in India.
Answer:
The north plains of India receive winter rainfall ranging between 20 and 50 mm. This rainfall is caused due to the invasion of westerm disturbances (Cyclones). These cyclones originate in West Asia and the Mediterranean Sea. The westerly jet streams steers these cyclones into India during winter. The north west plains get rainfall and the hilly areas get snowfall. In the sameway Tamil Nadu also gets winter rainfall due to retreating monsoon and by the North East monsoon during the winter.

Question 6.
Orographic rainfall is a typically mountainous phenomenon. Explain.
Answer:
Orographic rainfall is produced when moist air is lifted as it moves over a mountain range. As the air rises and cools, orographic clouds form and serve as the source of the precipitation, most of which falls upwind of the mountain ridge. Some also falls a short distance downwind of the ridge and is sometimes called spillover. Because this type of rainfall comes due to mountains, that’s why it comes only in the mountainous region.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 7.
Write a note on :
(i) Jet stream,
Answer:
Jet stream. A jet stream is a fast flowing wind blowing in narrow zone in the upper atmosphere. The Himalayas divide the jet stream into two parts. A westerly jet stream is placed south of the Himalayas in the winter season. An easterly jet stream is developed at about 25°N in summer. It is believed to be responsible for the sudden outbreak of Monsoons in the Northern India. This is responsible for widespread storms, thunders and rainfall over India in just 8 to 10 days.

(ii) Isotherms,
Answer:
Isotherm. Isotherm are the line drawn on a map or chart joining points with the same temperature. Isotherms are commonly used in meteorology to show the distribution of temperature at the earth’s surface or on a chart indicating constant level or constant pressure.

(iii) Dry and wet bulb thermometer.
Answer:
Dry and wet bulb thermometer. It is an instrument used to measure the relative humidity of the atmosphere. It consists of a thermometer with a bulb that is wet or moist and one that is kept dry. The relative humidity is calculated from the difference in readings of the thermometers when water evaporated from the wet bulb, decreasing its temperature. Humidity in the air is always given in percentage.

Question 8.
Natural calamities cause loss of‘life and property’. In this statement what do you mean by ‘life and property’?
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that whenever any natural disaster occurs, it often leads to the loss of life and property. Here the meaning of life is many people die with the disaster. The meaning of property is many cattle and birds die along with loss of lots of money.

Long Answer Questions :
Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
On what factors does climate of a place depend?
Answer:
The climate of India is mainly based on the following, facts:
1. Latitude. The places which are situated near the equator have high temperature whereas the places away from the equator do not have high temperature.

2. Altitude. The higher you go, the cooler it is. That is why the mountainous regions are cooler than plains.

3. Distance from the sea. The places near the sea have equable climate. Neither the summers are very hot nor the winters are cold, whereas in the parts away from the sea, the summers are hot and winters are cold.

4. Winds. The winds have a great affect on the climate of India. The winds coming from the sea are full of moisture and they cause heavy rain. On the other hand, the winds that come from the land are dry winds and cause no rain.

5. Direction of the mountains. Wherever the mountains are located in the way of the winds, the winds are forced to rise against the mountains and cause rainfall. For example, when the moisture laden monsoon winds strike against Himalayas they cause heavy rain in West Bengal and Assam. On the other hand, the Aravah mountains run parallel to the direction of the monsoon that blow from the Arabian Sea and there is no rain in Rajasthan.

6. Nature of the soil. Sand gets heated and cooled quickly. The land is sandy in Rajasthan. That is why, the temperature is of extreme type there.

7. Slope of the land. If the land slopes towards the sun the rays of the sun will fall vertically and the temperature will be high. On the contrary if the land slopes away from the sun the rays of the sun will be slanting and the temperature will be low.

8. Forests. The regions with dense forests receive heavy rain, because the winds blowing over these forests gain moisture from the leaves of the trees, lose temperature and cause rain.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 2.
Explain the types of rainfall in detail.
Answer:
There are mainly three types of rainfall and these are :

  1. Convectional Rainfall
  2. Orographic Rainfall
  3. Cyclonic Rainfall.

1. Convectional Rainfall. On equator, sunrays fall directly throughout the year and that’s why this area remains hot throughout the time.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 1
Due to lot of heat, air pressure reduces to a great extent. When the land warms up, it heats the air above it.
This causes the air to expand and rise. As the air rises, it cools and condenses. If this process continues then rain falls. This type of rainfall is very common in tropical areas. Such rainfall does not last for a very long time because due to less air pressure, rising air is unable to take much of the moisture with it.

2. Orographic Rainfall.
Such rainfall is produced when moist air is lifted as it moves over a mountain range. As the air rises and cools, orographic clouds form and serve as the source of precipitation, most of which falls up wind of the mountain ridge.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 2
Some also falls a short distance downwind of the ridge and is sometimes called spillover. Such rainfall occurs only in mountains.

3. Cyclonic Rainfall.
Cyclonic or Frontal rain occurs when two air masses meet and form a ‘front’. The warmer, moisture-laden air rises over the colder air as a ‘warm front’. As the air rises it cools, and its relative humidity increases, clouds form as water vapour condenses, and then there is fall of rain. During winters, north and north-west India receives rainfall because cyclones occur in the Mediterranean sea and comes toward India such rainfall is quite useful for the crops of Punjab.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 3

Question 3.
Name the instruments used for collecting information about various aspects of climate, write in short about all of them?
Answer:
Many instruments are used for collecting information about various aspects of climate and these are given below :
1. Maximum and minimum thermometer. Such a thermometer is used to know about the temperature of a place. If we want to know about the climate of a place, we must know about its temperature. It consists of a U-shaped glass tube with two separate temperature scales set along each arm of the U. One of these is for recording the maximum temperature encountered and the other for the minimum temperature. The arms of the U-shaped tube terminate in sealed glass bulbs. Temperature is measured in centimetre grade or degrees of Fahrenheit.

2. Aniriod Barometer. Aniriod Barometer is a scientific instrument used in meteorology to measure atmospheric pressure. Instead of having a pool of mercury that the atmosphere pushes down or, they have a sealed, air-tight metal box inside. As the air pressure rises or falls, the box either squashes inward a tiny bit or flaxes outward. A spring is cunningly attached to the box and as the box moves in and out in response to the changes in air pressure, the spring expands or contracts and moves the pointer on the dial. The dial is marked with numbers, so you can read the air pressure instantly.

3. Dry and wet bulb thermometer. It is an instrument used to measure the relative humidity of the atmosphere. It consists of a thermometer with a bulb that is wet or moist and one that is kept dry. The relative humidity is calculated from the difference in readings of the thermometers when water evaporated from the wet bulb decreasing its temperature. Humidity in the air is always given in percentage.

4. Rain Gauge. Rain Gauge is used to measure rainfall and the amount of liquid precipitation over a set period of time. Basically it looks like a transparent cylinder with markings. You can read the amount of rainfall in inches or millimetres. It consists of a collector funnel and mechanism to recieve and measure the collected water.

5. Anemometer. An anemometer is a device used for measuring the speed of wind and is also a common weather station instrument. It consists of four hemispherical cups mounted on horizontal arms, which are mounted on a vertical shift. The air flow pass the cups in any horizontal direction turns the shaft at a rate that is roughly proportional to the wind speed. So, counting the turns of the shaft over a set time peirod produces a value proportional to the average wind speed for a wide range of speeds.

6. Wind Wane. A wind wane is an instrument for showing the direction of the wind. A typical wind wane has a pointer in front and fins in back. When the wind is blowing, the wind wane points into the wind. Reading the wind wane is easy. Whichever direction the fin is pointing will indicate where the wind is coming from.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 4.
What bad effects do natural disasters bring to human lives? Explain.
Answer:
The bad effects of natural calamities is given below :

  • Physical Loss. Natural calamity such as an earthquake can destroy buildings service sector. It can lead to breaking of dams which can further led to more destruction.
  • Death. Earthquake, Tsunami etc. can lead to the death of thousands of people specially people living near the epicentre. Deaths occur more at the places where there is more density of population.
  • Public Health. Thousands of people can be wounded along with broken bones and even the spread of epidemics.
  • Problem in Water Supply. Breaking down of dams and even water supply system can lead to obstacles in water supply.
  • Electricity and Communication. All the communication systems and electric system can get destroyed which can lead to the stand still of the national economy.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide Climate Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of these seasons do not occur in south India.
(a) Summer
(b) Rainy
(c) Winter
(d) Autumn.
Answer:
(c) Winter.

Question 2.
Cyclonic Rainfall in West Bengal is known as
(a) Kal Baisakhi
(b) Monsoon
(c) Loo
(d) Tsunami.
Answer:
(a) Kal Baisakhi.

Question 3.
Hot and dry wind blowing in north India during summer is known as
(a) Tsunami
(b) Monsoon
(c) Kal Baisakhi
(d) Loo.
Answer:
(d) Loo.

Question 4.
____________ is the most affected area by the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoon.
(a) Chennai
(b) Amritsar
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Shimla.
Answer:
(c) Mawsynram.

Question 5.
____________is majorly affected by the retreating monsoon.
(a) Chennai
(b) Shimla
(c) Delhi
(d) Amritsar.
Answer:
(a) Chennai.

Question 6.
____________ and are two months mostly affected by rain in the whole India.
(a) June, July
(b) July, August
(c) August, September
(d) June, August.
Answer:
(b) July, August.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 7.
When did Tsunami come?
(a) 26 Dec. 2004
(b) 26 Dec. 2006
(c) 25 Nov. 2003
(d) 25 Nov. 2002.
Answer:
(a) 26 Dec. 2004.

Question 8.
____________ is used to know about the air pressure.
(a) Rain Gauge
(b) Aniriod Barometer
(c) Wind wane
(d) Anemometer.
Answer:
(b) Aniriod Barometer

Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Most of the rainfall (75-90%) in India occur during the months from June to
Answer:
September

Question 2.
Rainfall coming with western disturbances is useful for crops.
Answer:
Rabi

Question 3.
Mango shower is useful for the crop of
Answer:
Flowers

Question 4.
____________ coast gets winter rainfall in India.
Answer:
Coromandal

Question 5.
____________ climate is there in the coastal regions of India.
Answer:
Moist

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 6.
____________ is used to measure moisure moisture in air.
Answer:
Dry and wet bulb thermometer

Question 7.
Around people died in many Indian state due to Tsunami.
Answer:
10,500.

True/False :

Question 1.
India has hot climate.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Indian climate is very much influenced by monsoon winds.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The distribution of rainfall is same in all the parts of India.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
There is a feature of Monsoon type of rainfall that there is no dry spell in it.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Summer season in India is the lengthiest in all the seasons.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Temperature is measured with Aniroid Barometer.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Wind speed is measured with Anemometer.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which land form of India acts as a powerful climatic divide?
Answer:
Himalaya mountain acts as a powerful climatic divide.

Question 2.
Which part of India gets rainfall due to western disturbances and for which crop is it useful?
Answer:
North India gets rainfall due to western disturbances and it is useful for rabi crop.

Question 3.
When India gets maximum rainfall?
Answer:
India gets maximum rainfall (75-90%) during the months from June to September.

Question 4.
Give one feature of retreating monsoon.
Answer:
At this time, low pressure area of monsoon becomes weak and it is replaced by high pressure area.

Question 5.
Name two branches of South-West monsoon in India.
Answer:
Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 6.
Which part of India has maximum temperature in the beginning of summer season (March)?
Answer:
In the beginning of summer season, southern plateau has maximum temperature.

Question 7.
Which place gets maximum rainfall in the world?
Answer:
Mawsynram gets maximum rainfall in the world.

Question 8.
Which coast of India gets rainfall during winters?
Answer:
Coromandal Coast.

Question 9.
What type of climate does Indian coastal regions have?
Answer:
Equitable climate.

Question 10.
From which word, the word Monsoon originated?
Answer:
The word monsoon originated from the Arabian word Mausim.

Question 11.
What is the average rainfall in India?
Answer:
118 cm of rainfall.

Question 12.
In which part of India, temperature remains high throughout the year?
Answer:
Southern part of India.

Question 13.
What do we call to cyclonic rainfall in West Bengal?
Answer:
Kal Baisakhi.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 14.
What do we call to the local hot wind blowing in north India during summer season?
Answer:
It is called Loo.

Question 15.
Which hills get maximum rainfall in India?
Answer:
The Hills of Meghalaya.

Question 16.
What is the annual rainfall Mawsynram gets?
Answer:
1141 cm.

Question 17.
Name any two factors affecting climate of India?
Answer:

  1. Distance from equator
  2. Nearness to Indian ocean
  3. Air pressure system
  4. Land form.

Question 18.
Name two places each with minimum and maximum temperature during winter season.
Answer:

  • Minimum Temperature-Amritsar and Leh
  • Maximum Temperature-Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 19.
Name the coldest and hottest places in India during the summer season.
Answer:

  • Coldest place-Leh, Shillong
  • Hottest place-North-West plains of India.

Question 20.
What are Kal Baisakhi?
Answer:
The destructive cyclones are called Kal Baisakhi in West Bengal.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 21.
What is meant by Mango Shower?
Answer:
North-East Monsoon gives rain in coastal areas of Kerala and Karnataka at the end of summer season. It is called Mango Shower.

Question 22.
At which places do the Monsoon winds coming from Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal meet?
Answer:
The Monsoon winds from Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal meet in Punjab and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 23.
Name the types of rainfall.
Answer:
Three types – Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfal and Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 24.
Why do Orographic rainfall fall continuously and for a long time?
Answer:
Monsoon winds continuously move from sea to land because of which orographic rainfall fall continuously and for a long time.

Question 25.
Which rainfall is good for the crops of Punjab?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall of winters is good for the crops of Punjab.

Question 26.
What is monsoon burst?
Answer:
When monsoon, all of a sudden, gives rainfall, it is called monsoon burst.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Loo?
Answer:
Loos are hot dusty winds caused by low pressure in hot season. These are very hot and are called Loo in local language.

Question 28.
Which instruments are used to check climate or weather?
Answer:
Maximum and minimum thermometer, Aniriod Barometer, Dry and wet bulb thermometer, Rain Gauge, Anemometer, Wind Wane etc.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 29.
Give major types of natural calamity.
Answer:
Natural calamity comes in different forms such as earthquake, tsunami, cyclone, flood, drought, volcanic eruption etc.

Question 30.
When and in which year did Tsunami come in Indian states?
Answer:
Tsunami came in December, 2004 in Andeman Nicobar, Coast of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala etc.

Question 31.
What type of destruction was caused by Tsunami?
Answer:
It caused death of thousands of persons and damage of property as well.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the traditional names according to Indian system of Seasons.
Answer:

S.No. Season

Indian Traditional Names
1. Winter Season Mixture of Basant and winter
2. Summer Season Hot Season
3. Rainy Seaspn Rainy Season
4. Season of retreating monsoons Sharad Season

Question 2.
Mumbai is colder than Nagpur. Why?
Answer:
Nagpur is situated away from sea. Whereas Mumbai is situated on the sea shore. There is equable type of climate in Mumbai due to effect of sea. Therefore there is less cold.

In the opposite of it, Nagpur is situated far away from sea and free from sea effect. Therefore, extreme type of climate is found here.

Therefore, Nagpur is colder than Mumbai in winter.

Question 3.
Most of the average Annual rainfall in India comes in just four months of the year.
Answer:
In India, rainfalls mostly from mid-June to mid-September. The Monsoon winds coming from sea blow over India in these four months. There vapour laden winds give heavy rainfall in India.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 4.
Mawsynram receives maximum rainfall in the world.
Answer:
Mawsynram is situated on southern part with of Garo and Khasi hills. It is situated at the head of a Funnel shaped hill. One branch of Monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal give rainfall here. Due to the strange position of these waves Mawsynram had become the place in world with highest rainfall.

Question 5.
Kolkata receives 145 cm of rainfall where as Jaisalmer receives only 12 cm of rainfall by the South West monsoon.
Answer:
The S. W. Monsoons, from Bay of Bengal, first of all strike in Kolkata in West Bengal. These moisture laden winds give a heavy rainfall of 145 cms here.

Jaisalmer lies to the west of Aravallis in Rajasthan. Aravallis lie parallel to S.W. Monsoons of Arabian sea. So these mountains fail to check S. W. monsoons. These winds move northward giving only 12 cms of rainfall.

Question 6.
Chennai receives most rainfall during winter season.
Answer:
Chennai is situated on Eastern coastal plain of India. It comes under the effect of North-East Monsoon winds. These winds move from land to sea. But while crossing the Bay of Bengal, these pick up moisture. After striking Eastern ghats, these give heavy rainfall in winter. In summer, it gets less rain as it is a rain shadow area.

Question 7.
What is the contribution of western Jet stream in bringing cyclonic rainfall?
Answer:
The west and central Asia remain under the influence of westerlies. A current of westerlies, known as jet stream blows north of the Himalayas, while its southern branch flows south of the Himalayas along 25° N latitude. This branch of jet stream helps in bringing the western disturbances to the Indian sub-continent during winter. These western disturbances originate in west Asia and near the Mediterranean Sea. The westerly jet travels eastwards and steers at least four or five such depressions in India during winter. These cause the needed rainfall on plains and snowfalls on Himalayas.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 8.
In spite of being close to the Arabian Sea, why does Rajasthan remain dry?
Answer:
The western part of Rajasthan is desert. It gets an annual rainfall less than 20 cms. This is due to the following reasons :

  • Rajasthan is under the influence of S.W. Summer monsoons. The Aravallis system lies parallel to the direction of S.W. monsoons coming from Arabian Sea. So this mountain system is unable to check these winds. So western Rajasthan is practically dry. The southern part get some rainfall.
  • This area lies at a great distance from the Bay of Bengal. The Bay of Bengal monsoons become dry and lose their moisture when they reach Rajasthan.
  • This area is away from the Himalayan region. So it does not come under the influence of monsoons giving rain in Sub-Himalayan region.

Question 9.
How does Himalayas act as a ‘climatic divide’ for India?
Answer:
The Himalayas act as a mountain wall to protect the sub-continent from the northern winds. These cold chilly polar winds cannot enter India, as these cannot cross the lofty Himalayas. So these mountains enable Northern India to have a tropical climate. Thus the Himalayas act as an effective climatic divide.

Question 10.
Distinguish between Mango showers and Kal Baisakhi.
Answer:
Mango Showers. Local rainfall in coastal areas of Kerala and Karnataka at the close of summer premonsoons is called Mango showers. It helps in early ripening of mangoes.

Kal Baisakhi. In summer, West Bengal and Assam get sharp showers by evening thunder-storms. These are called Kal Baisakhi. It means calamity of the month of Baisakh.

Question 11.
Name three characteristics of retreating monsoons.
Answer:
The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons,

  • The monsoon low pressure trough becomes weaker and is replaced by high pressure.
  • The effect of monsoons over Indian landmass begins to shrink.
  • The direction of surface winds starts reversing.

Question 12.
Why does the Pre-Monsoonal rainfall occur?
Answer:
In summer, equatorial low pressure shifts towards Tropic of Cancer. To fill this space, the S.E. trades cross the Equator and get a direction of S.W. winds due to rotation of the earth. On 1st June, when these winds reach west coast, moderate rainfall occurs on windward slope of west ghats. This is called pre-monsoonal rainfall.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 13.
Which elements affect the climate of India?
Answer:
The climate of India is mainly based on the following facts :

  1. Distance from the equator. The places which are situated near the equator have high temperature whereas the places away from the equator do not have high temperature.
  2. Height above sea level. The higher you go, the cooler it is. That is why the mountainous regions are cooler than plains.
  3. Distance from the sea. The places near the sea have an equable climate. Neither the summers are very hot nor the winters are cold, whereas in the parts away from the sea the summers are hot and winters are cold.
  4. Winds. The winds have a great affect on the climate of India. The winds coming from the sea are full of moisture and they cause heavy rain. On the other hand, the winds that come from the land are dry winds and cause no rain.

Question 14.
Give main features of Monsoon rainfall.
Answer:

  1. Uncertain rainfall. Summer rainfall is quite uncertain. Sometimes monsoons start early resulting in floods. Often the onset of monsoons is delayed resulting in drought. The early or late retreat of monsoons also results in serious droughts.
  2. Unequal distribution. The rainfall is unevenly distributed over the country. About 10% of the country gets more than 200 cms of rain while 25% of the country gets less than 75 cms of rain.
  3. Heavy rainfall. Indian rainfall is heavy and downpouring type. It is often said, “It pours, it never rains in India”.
  4. Relief rainfall. The amount of rainfall is determined by the presence of mountains. High mountains force monsoons to rise and or rain.

Question 15.
Write a note on winter season.
Answer:
The cold season lasts from December to February. The sun is over head at Tropic of Capricorn. The Indian sub-continent has winter season. January is the coldest month. The southern parts have warm conditions. (20°C) while low temperatures (10°C) are found in N.W. India.

High pressure is developed over N.W. part while a low pressure exists over Indian Ocean with the result winds blow from land to sea. The out-blowing winds are Westerly in Northern plain and North Easterly over the rest of the country.

The N.E. Monsoons are off-shore winds and are dry. But these winds pick up some moisture crossing Bay of Bengal and give rain to S.E. coast of India. Some cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea also bring a small amount of rain (10 to 20 cms.) to Northern plains. Night Frost is common in the N.W. parts.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 16.
Write a note on the Summer Season.
Answer:
The hot season lasts from March to May. As the sun’s rays fall vertical over ‘Tropic of Cancer, the temperature begins to rise’. The average temperature is above 30°C; the maximum temperature rises to 50°C in Barmer (Rajasthan). The daily range of temperature rises in inland areas. Intense heat results in the development of low pressure over N.W. India and Pakistan. A high pressure exists over Indian Ocean. S.W. Monsoons “begin to blow from sea to land. ‘Norwesters’ and ‘Loo’ blow over Northern plains. Some areas receive convectional rainfall. The west coast also starts receiving rainfall. Most of the country is dry in the pre-Monsoon period.

Question 17.
Why and how is Maximum and Minimum Thermometer used?
Answer:
Such a thermometer is used to know about the temperature of a place. If we want to know about the climate of a place, we must know about its temperature. It consists of a U shaped glass tube with two separate temperature scales set along each arm of U. One of these is for recording the maximum temperature encountered and the other join the maximum temperature. The arms of the U-shaped tube terminate in sealed glass bulb. Temperature is measured in centimetre grade or degrees of Fahrenheit.

Question 18.
Write a note on Aniriod Barometer.
Answer:
Aniriod Barometer is a scientific instrument used in meteorology to measure atmospheric pressure. Instead of having a pool of mercury that the atmosphere is down on, they have a sealed, air-tight metal box inside the air pressure rises or falls, the box either squashes inward a tiny bit or flexes outward. A spring is cunningly attached to the box and as the box moves in and out it response to the changes in air pressure, the spring expands or contracts and moves the pointer on the dial. The dial is marked with numbers so you can read the air pressure instantly.

Question 19.
Write a note on Rain Gauge.
Answer:
Rain Gauge is used to meausre rainfall and the amount of liquid precipitation over a set period time. Basically, it looks like a transparent cylinder with markings. You can read the amount of rainfall in inches or millimetres. It consists of a collector funnel and mechanism to recive and measure the collected water.

Question 20.
Give a brief description of Tsunami.
Answer:
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means a high sea wave. If Tsunami comes at a place, very high sea waves occur at that place. Their height goes upto 10 metre to 50 metre at sea shore. Their speed is quite high. In an open sea, they move at the speed of 400 km-1000 km per hour. Actually if earthquake comes under sea bed, it causes Tsunami. On 26 December, 2004, Tsunami came in South-East Asia which caused a great destruction. Around 10,500 people died in India and it caused a lost of? 10,000 crore to many Indian states.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the regional variations in the climate of India?
Answer:
1. Range of Temperature. There is a great variation in range of temperatures in different parts of India. Kerala and Andaman-Nicobar islands have a daily range of temperature i. e. 8° C. On the other hand in Thar Desert, if the day temperature is around 50° C, at night it may drop down very close to freezing point (0°C). The daily range of temperature is 50°C.

2. Direction of Rain Bearing Winds. Most of India gets rain in summer from S. W. Monsoons but, in winter Tamilnadu gets rain from N. E. Monsoons.

3. Form of Precipitation. Most of the country gets rain showers, while snowfall occurs in the Himalayas.

4. Amount of Rainfall. The annual rainfall is less than 10 cms in N. W. Himalayas and the Thar Desert, it exceeds 400 cms. in Meghalaya. Mawsynram gets 1,141 cms Rainfall.

5. Rainfall Regime i.e. Seasonal Distribution of Rainfall. There is a great variation in rainfall regimes in the country. Most of the country gets rain from advancing monsoons in summer. Tamilnadu gets rainfall in winter from N.E. monsoons. Some parts receive rainfall from retreating monsoons.

Question 2.
Give an account of the main reasons for the climatic variations in the country.
Answer:
There are great variations in the climate of India. It is not the same throughout the year due to:

  • Northern hilly region remains cold due to high altitude. Coastal areas have an equable climates. Interior areas have high temperatures.
  • Windward slopes get high rainfall but rain shadow areas are dry.
  • In summer, wind blow from sea to land. These moist winds give heavy rainfall. But as these move ahead, the rainfall goes on decreasing.
  • In winter the winds blow from land to sea. These winds are dry. Only S.E. coast of India gets rainfall. Other parts remain dry.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate 4
Monsoons Advancing Season

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 3.
Describe India’s rainy season in India.
Answer:
Rainy season is also called the South West Monsoon season. Its time period is from the June to mid September. The main characteristics of this season are :

  1. A low pressure trough is developed in north-west India.
  2. Winds enter into the country from sea and give heavy rainfall.
  3. The winds filled with humidity move at the rate of 30 km per hour and spread into whole country within one month.
  4. Indian peninsula divides Monsoon into two parts—Monsoon winds of Arabian Sea and Monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal.
  5. Most of rainfall in Western ghat and North East area of India is done by monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal. There is more than 250 cm of rainfall on the winward slopes of western ghats. On the opposite, there is more than 50 cm of rainfall on leeward slopes. Therefore, due to the reason most of rainfall in Northeast states of India is highest and longer on hills of Eastern Himalayas. On the opposite the amount of rainfall goes on decreasing from going East to West.

Question 4.
Give the main characteristics and effects of monsoon rainfall in India.
Answer:
Characteristics of rainfall in India : The average annual rainfall in India is about 110 cms. It is estimated that more than 85% of this rainfall is received in summer. The main characteristics of summer rainfall are as follows :

  1. Monsoonal rainfall. Most of the rain is received from S.W. summer monsoons during the period mid-June to mid-September. It is seasonal rainfall.
  2. Uncertain rainfall. Summer rainfall is quite uncertain. Some times monsoons start early resulting in floods. Often the on set of monsoons is delayed resulting in drought. The early or late retreat of monsoons also results in serious droughts.
  3. Unequal distribution. The rainfall is unevenly distributed over the country. About 10% of the country gets more than 200 cms of rain while 25% of the country gets less than 75 cms of rain.
  4. Heavy rainfall. Indian rainfall is heavy and downpouring type. It is often said, “It pours, it never rains in India”.
  5. Relief rainfall. The amount of rainfall is determined by the presence of mountains. High mountains force monsoons to rise and or give rain.
  6. No continuity of rainfall. Summer rain is characterised by breaks or dry spells.
  7. Variable rainfall. Most of the areas have variable rainfall, as much as 30 cms. plus or minus. Due to variability in areas of low rain, famines result.

Question 5.
Tnspite of great monsoon unity in India, there exist many regional variations.’ Explain the statement.
Answer:
There is a monsoonal unity in India but the rainfall is not uniform in India. Some areas get very high rainfall while others get low; rainfall due to different reasons.

  1. Location. Wind ward slopes get high rainfall. But leeward slopes are in rain shadow and are dry. N.E. plains, Himachal Pradesh and coastal region gets heavy rainfall. But most of Peninsular India gets low rainfall.
  2. Direction of mountains. When the mountains face the on shore winds, they provide heavy rainfall. But when mountains lie parallel to direction of monsoons, these fail to check winds and do not give rainfall. Rajasthan is a desert due to this reason.
  3. Direction of winds. Places where monsoons strike first, get heavy rainfall like Kolkata. But other places like Varanasi get low rainfall.
  4. Distance from the sea. Places near the sea get heavy rainfall. But inland areas remain dry.

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Question 6.
Describe the distribution of rainfal in India.
Answer:
Distribution of rainfall: The average annual rainfall of India is 115 cms. Regional variations in the distribution are found due to differences in the relief of the country. Rainfall is unevenly distributed throughout the country.

India can be divided into the following rainfall regions :

  1. Areas of Heavy Rainfall. These areas get more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall. These include the Western Coast and the Western Ghats, Sub-Himalayas, and the N.E. parts of India.
  2. Areas of Moderate Rainfall. These areas get annual rainfall of 100-200 cms. These include West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Eastern parts of U.P. and Madhya Pradesh and coastal plains of Tamilnadu.
  3. Areas of Low Rainfall. These areas experience an annual rainfall of 50-100 cms. These include the western past of U.P., Haryana, Punjab, Gujarat, Peninsular plateau and Eastern Rajasthan.
  4. Areas of Scanty Rainfall. These areas get less than 50 cms. of annual rainfall. These include Ladakh, S.W. Punjab, Southern Haryana, Western Rajasthan, Kutch and Thar Desert.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

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Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

PSEB 9th Class Science Guide Is Matter Around Us Pure Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?
(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd
(f) Oil from water
(g) Tea leaves from tea
(h) Iron pins from sand
(i) Wheat grains from husk
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.
Answer:
(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Filtration
(d) Chromatography
(e) Centrifugation
(f) Separating funnel
(g) Filtration
(h) Magnetic separation
(i) Gravity separation
(j) Centrifugation

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 2.
Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words0solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.
Answer:
Step 1: Boil some solvent (water ) in a pan.
Step 2: Put some solute (tea leaves) in a tea pot.
Step 3: Pour the boiling water into the tea pot and let it soak for a few minutes to form a solution.
Step 4: Stir the solution in the tea pot.
Step 5: Take some solute (sugar) into a cup.
Step 6: Filter the above solution obtained in step 4 using strainer and take this solution (filtrate) in the cup. Pour two tea-spoons of milk into the cup and stir it with a spoon. This gives us tea which is ready for drinking. The residue is left on the strainer because these are insoluble whereas sugar and milk are soluble solutes.

Question 3.
Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution).

Substances Dissolved Temperature in K
283 293 313 333 353
Potassium nitrate 21 32 62 106 167
Sodium chloride 36 36 36 37 37
Potassium chloride 35 35 40 46 54
Ammonium chloride 2.4 37 41 55 66

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?
Answer:
(a) Solubility of KN03 in water at 313 K = 62 g / 100 g of water
100 g of water contains KN03 at 313 K = 62 g
∴ 50 g of water will contains KN03 at 313 K = \(\frac{62}{100}\) × \(\frac{50}{1}\) = 31 g
∴ Amount of potassium nitrate needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 g of water at 313 K = 31 g

(b) On cooling the saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K to room temperature, the solution will become supersaturated at room temperature and some potassium chloride will settle down.

(c) Solubility of potassium nitrate at 293 K = 32g/100g of water
Solubility of sodium chloride at 293 K = 36g/100g of water
Solubility of potassium chloride at 293 K = 35g/100g of water
Solubility of ammonium chloride at 293 K = 37g/100g of water
Ammonium chloride has highest solubility at 293 K.

(d) (1) If the process of dissolution of salt in water is exothermic, its solubility decreases with the increase in temperature.
(2) If the process of dissolution of salt in water is endothermic, its solubility increases with the increase in temperature.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 4.
Explain the following giving examples:
(a) saturated solution
(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension.
Answer:
(a) Saturated Solution: A solution in which no more of the solute can be dissolved at the given temperature is said to be saturated at that temperature. For example 50 g of NaCl added to 100 ml of water.

(b) Pure substance: A pure substance is made of only one type of atoms or molecules. Pure substances have the same colour, taste, texture at the given temperature and presure. Pure substance has a fixed melting or boiling point at the constant pressure. Pure substance includes elements and compounds. For example, hydrogen gas, sodium chloride, water etc.

(c) Colloid: A substance is said to be in the colloidal state if its particle size lies between 1 to 100 nm. The colloidal solution is heterogeneous and consist of two phases i.e. dispersed phase or colloidal particles and dispersion medium in which colloidal particles are suspended e.g. colloidal solution of starch in water.

(d) Suspension: It is a heterogeneous mixture in which the particles of the solute don’t dissolve but remain suspended throughout the bulk of the material and the size of particles is more than 10-7 m. The particles can be seen with naked eye.

Question 5.
Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture: soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.
Answer:

  1. Soda Water – Homogeneous mixture
  2. Wood – Heterogeneous mixture
  3. Air – Homogeneous mixture
  4. Soil – Heterogeneous mixture
  5. Vineger – Homogeneous mixture
  6. Filtered tea – Homogeneous mixture.

Question 6.
How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?
Answer:
Determine the boiling point of the given liquid. If its boiling point is 100°C at 1 atmosphere pressure it is pure water and if boiling point is above 100°C, it is impure water.

Question 7.
Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air
Answer:
(a) Ice
(b) Iron
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 8.
Identify the solutions among the following mixtures:
(a) soil
(b) sea water
(c) air
(d) coal
(e) soda water
Answer:
(b) sea water
(c) air and
(e) soda water

Question 9.
Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?
(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution.
Answer:
(b) Milk and (d) Starch solution because these are colloidal solutions.

Question 10.
Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures:
(a) sodium
(b) soil
(c) sugar solution
(d) silver
(e) calcium carbonate
(f) tin
(g) silicon
(h) coal
(i) air
(j) soap
(k) methane
(l) carbon dioxide
(m) blood
Answer:
(a) Sodium – Element
(b) Soil – Mixture
(c) Sugar solution – Mixture
(d) Silver – Elemei
(e) Calcium carbonate – Compound
(f) Tin – Element
(g) Silicon – Element
(h) Coal – Mixture
(i) Air – Mixture
(j) Soap – Mixture
(k) Methane – Compound
(l) Carbon dioxide – Compound
(m) Blood – Mixture

Question 11.
Which of the following are chemical changes?
(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle.
Answer:
(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Burning of a candle.

Science Guide for Class 9 PSEB Is Matter Around Us Pure InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by a pure substance?
Answer:
It is a material containing particles of only one kind having a definite set of properties. Pure substances include elements and compounds.

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 2.
List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.
Answer:

Homogeneous mixture Heterogeneous mixture
1. It consists a single phase.

2. It has a uniform composition throughout.

3. It has the same properties throughout the bulk.

4. There are no visible boundaries between its components.

5. Examples:
Sodium chloride dissolved in water, ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.

 1. It consists two or more phases.

2. It does not have a uniform composition thoughout.

3. It does not have same properties throughout the bulk.

4. There are visible boundaries of separation between its components.

5. Examples:
Air, gun powder, iron filings, sand and sulphur.

Question 3.
Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.
Answer:
Same as given above.

Question 4.
How are true solution, colloidal solution and suspension different from each other?
Answer:

Property True Solution Colloidal solution Suspension
1. Nature Homogeneous Heterogeneous Heterogeneous
2. Particle size Less than 1 am 1 to 100 nm More than 100 nm
3. Diffusion Diffuse rapidly Diffuse slowly Don’t diffuse
4. Filtrability Paritcles can pass through ordinary filter paper as well as semipermeable membrane Particles can pass through ordinary filter paper but not through semi-per­meable membrane Particles can’t pass through filter paper as well as semi­permeable mem­brane
5. Appearance Clear and transparent Generally clear and transparent Opaque
6. Tyndall effect Don’t show Show May or may not show
7. Visibility Particles are not visible Particles can be seen only with ultrami­croscope Particles can be seen with naked eye or microscope.

Question 5.
To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.
Answer:
Mass of sodium chloride (solution) = 36g
Mass of water (solvent) = 100g
Total mass of solution = 100 + 36 = 136g
Mass percentage of solution = Mass of solute / Mass of solution × 100
= 36 / 136 × 100
= 26.47

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 6.
How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25°C), which are miscible with each other?
Answer:
By distillation.

Question 7.
Name the technique to separate:

  1. Butter from curd
  2. Salt from seawater
  3. Comphor from salt.

Answer:

  1. By centrifugation.
  2. By evaporation.
  3. By sublimation.

Question 8.
What types of mixture are separated by the technique of crystallisation?
Answer:
The mixtures in which the substance is soluble in a suitable hot solvent whereas the impurities are insoluble.

Question 9.
Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:
(a) cutting of trees.
(b) melting of butter in a pan.
(c) rusting of almirah.
(d) boiling of water to form steam.
(e) passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases.
(f) dissolving common salt in water.
(g) making a fruit salad with raw fruits.
(h) burning of paper and wood.
Answer:
(a) Cutting of trees-Chemical change
(b) Melting of butter in a pan-Physical change
(c) Rusting of almirah-Chemical change
(d) Boiling of water to form steam-Physical change
(e) Passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases-Chemical change
(f) Dissolving common salt in water-Physical change
(g) Making a fruit salad with raw fruits-Chemical change
(h) Burning of paper and wTood- Chemical change

PSEB 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 10.
Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures.
Answer:
Some examples are:

  1. Water – Pure substance
  2. Milk – Mixture
  3. LPG – Mixture
  4. Bread – Mixture
  5. Kerosene oil – Mixture
  6. Air – Mixture
  7. Paper – Mixture
  8. Ink – Mixture
  9. Curd – Mixture
  10. Wood – Mixture
  11. Ice – Pure substance
  12. Soda Water – Mixture
  13. Ice cream – Mixture
  14. Butter – Mixture
  15. Vanaspati ghee – Mixture
  16. Lemon juice – Mixture