PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Book Solutions  Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Physical Education Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Physical Education Guide for Class 8 PSEB The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When was Abhinav Bindra born?
Answer:
Abhinav Bindra was born on 28th September 1982 to Dr. Upjeet Singh Bindra and Mrs. Babali Bindra. They were Sikhs and lived in S.A.S Nagar. Abhinav Bindra had an elder sister. Being a younger child his parents loved him very much. He studied at the Doon school for two years before moving to St. Stephen’s school Chandigarh. He holds a B.B.A degree from a foreign university.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Question 2.
When did Abhinav Bindra participate in Olympics for the first time?
Answer:
Abhinav Bindra’s hard work bore fruit, in 1988 he was selected for the commonwealth games at the age of 15 and he became the youngest Indian player. In Sydney, he participated in the 2000 Olympics at the age of 18. Though he did not get any position there but participating in Olympics at such a small age was itself an achievement. He participated in 2004 Athens Olympics despite of breaking the Olympics record, Bindra failed to win a medal.

Question 3.
When did Abhinav Bindra become world champion?
Answer:
In 2006, Bindra became the first Indian shooter to win the world championship gold in Zagreb. It strengthened him in Olympic games Beijing 2008. Abhinav Bindra won the gold and defeated the world level shooters. It was India’s first gold medal after 1980, after 26 years. He won many medals in international tournaments. He became the champion at Asian games, Grand-Prix and Common Wealth sports.

Question 4.
When did Abhinav Bindra win gold medal in the Olympics?
Answer:
In Olympic games in Beijing 2008, Abhinav Bindra won the gold and defeated the world-level shooters. It was India’s first gold medal after 1980, after 26 years. He won many medals in international tournaments. He became to champion at Asian games, Grand-Prix and Common Wealth sports.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Question 5.
Which awards are awarded to Abhinav Bindra by the Government of India?
Answer:
He has been honoured many times for his achievements. A foreign company, who makes guns, honoured him by gifting a gun made of gold. The Government of India had awarded him Arjuna Award, Rajeev Gandhi Khel Rattana Award and Padma Bhushan. He is’called the Golden Boy because of winning many gold medals at international level.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Guide The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Where Mr. Abhinav Bindra was bom?
(A) Jerakpur
(B) Bathinda
(C) Gurdaspur
(D) Chandigarh.
Answers:
(A) Jerakpur

Question 2.
When Abhinav Bindra was bom?
(A) 1982
(B) 1980
(C) 1989
(D) 1986.
Answers:
(A) 1982

Question 3.
When Abhinav Bindra participated in Olympic?
(A) 2000
(B) 1996
(C) 2004
(D) 2008.
Answers:
(A) 2000

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Question 4.
When Abhinav Bindra become world champion?
(A) 2004
(B) 2000
(C) 2006
(D) 2012.
Answers:
(D) 2012.

Question 5.
Mention the award which was given by Government.
(A) Arjuna Award
(B) Rajeev Gandhi Khel Rattana Award
(C) Padama Bhushan Award
(D) None of these.
Answers:
(A) Arjuna Award
(B) Rajeev Gandhi Khel Rattana Award
(C) Padama Bhushan Award

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When was Abhinav Bindra born?
Answer:
Abhinav Bindra was born on 28th September, 1982 to Dr. Upjeet Singh Bindra and Mrs. Babali Bindra.

Question 2.
Who was the first coach of Abhinav Bindra in shooting?
Answer:
Karnal Jagir Singh was first coach of Abhinav Bindra in shooting.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Question 3.
In which Olympic Abhinav Bindra won the gold medal in shooting?
Answer:
In Olympic game Beijing 2008, Abhinav Bindra won the gold medal.

Question 4.
Who insisted to Abhinav Bindra for shooting.
Answer:
Rana Gurmeet Singh Sodhi came to Abhinav Bindra’s farm house and insisted him for shooting.

Question 5.
Who did appreciate the talent of Abhinav Bindra fpr shooting?
Answer:
Rana Gurmeet Singh Sodhi appreciated Abhinav Bindra’s talent and suggested to Abhinav’s father to encourage him to be a shooter.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How Abhinav Bindra took interest in shooting?
Answer:
One day when his father was cleaning and oiling the guns he found a fault with a gun. So he went to Dehradun to get it repaired. Abhinav was also with him. The guns were set in a very decorative manner in the gun shop. Those guns tempted Abhinav and he fell in love with guns. He was hardly 10 years old when his father allowed him to shoot but only in his presence.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Question 2.
To whom did Abhinav Bindra wrote a letter for the training of shooting?
Answer:
Abhinav Bindra wrote a letter to the coach, Dhillon that he wished to get training from him and he also mentioned that one day he would be proud of having coached by him. The coach Dhillon was impressed seeing the dedication and determination of Abhinav at the age of 13.

Question 3.
In which international competition Abhinav Bindra could not get a medal?
Answer:
In 1998, he was selected for the Common Wealth games at the age of 15 and he became the youngest Indian player. In Sydney, he participated in the 2000 Olympics at the age of 18, though he did not get any position there but participating in Olympics at such a small age was itself an achievement. He participated in 2004 Athens Olympics despite of breaking the Olymplic record, Bindra failed to win a medal.

Question 4.
Write the incident of Olympic in which Abhinav Bindra won the gold medal?
Answer:
He kept on trying and at last he shot the best aim of his life but at that moment he was ignorant of the fact that he had become the first Indian who had won a gold medal in Olympics. When he looked into the eyes of his coach, Gabriele Buhimann (Switzerland), she told him by making the sign of vfctory that he had won the first position and marked a new record. In’this way, Abhinav Bindra’s name got written in golden words.. He had won in the 10 metre Air Riffle event.

PSEB 8th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 The Golden Boy-Abhinav Bindra

Question 5.
Who has honoured Abhinav Bindra for his outstanding achievement?
Answer:
A foreign company, which makes guns, honoured him by gifting a gun made of gold.

Question 6.
Write the various awards which were awarded to Abhinav Bindra by the Government of India?
Answer:

  • Aijuna Award
  • Rajeev Gandhi Khel Rattana Award
  • Padam Bhushan Award.

He is called the Golden Boy because of winning many gold medals at international level.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Marching Game Rules.

Marching Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
What is marching?
Answer:
Marching:
1. Attention:
It is very important position. The ankle of the feet should be in line, making the 30° angle should be straight along with body, chest should be normal. Both the arms are attached with side of the body and finger should be little close.

2. The neck should be straight by looking ahead the body. Weight should be on both feet and respiration should be normal.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Stand at Ease:
Stand at ease position move left foot toward, left side at the distance 12″. The weight of the body should be on both legs and drag both the hands behind. His body and right hand would be under the left hand. The thumb of right hand should be under left hand. At ease position, both the hand should be stretched keeping the finger stretched.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Right Dress:
On the command of right dress, all students move ahead with right foot and get the position at the distance of 15″, but a student standing at right will remain standing, student in a first row raise right hand, left shoulders and move towards left. The fingers load others, students would stand to his right hand and other would follow, they would keep at the distance of 30″.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 3
Left Dress: On getting command left dress, all movement will be followed by left hand.

Left Turn:
In this exercise, student will stand in attention position and counting two. On counting one, student will turn left side at the 90° and on left toe and right finger will raise upward after this exercise. On counting two, will raise a foot 6″ and meet with other foot.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 4
Right Turn:
This exercise is performed on counting two as it is done on left turn. In the same way right ankle or left foot is done.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 5
About Turn:
On command of about turn, student will turn back from the right side at the degree of 180°, while taking turn left, foot will be raise and turn on right foot. The body weight should be parallel on both feet on counting two, student will turn left foot and will remain in attention position.
Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 6
Quick March:
On command quick march, student will take left foot ahead. This foot will drag near the earth keeping knee straight, in this same way, right foot will be followed. The finger of hand will close, this exercise is performed after taking right foot ahead and repeat again and again. The hand position with be contrast to it. This exercise will be continue on counting one and two.

Marching Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Halt:
The command of halt is given, when right foot is the cross to the left foot. As command is given to students, as soon as will touch the left foot to the earth. Right leg will come to the parallel, and they will stand. Their both hands will be together and student will remain in attention position.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
How many species of rodents are there in Punjab?
Answer:
8 types.

Question 2.
In which area of Punjab Indian bush rat is found?
Answer:
Dry and sandy areas.

Question 3.
How much damage is caused to germinating winter maize by rodents?
Answer:
10.7%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
At how many locations poison bait should be placed in one acre?
Answer:
At 40 locations at the rate of 10 grams of bait at a point

Question 5.
Name the two reodent eating beneficial birds.
Answer:
Owl and eagle.

Question 6.
Name the bird causing maximum damage to crops. Or Which is the most harmful bird in agriculture?
Answer:
Parrot (Rose ringed parakeet)

Question 7.
How much should be the height of scare crow from the crop?
Answer:
One metre more than the height of crop.

Question 8.
Name any one chemical used for killing rodents.
Answer:
Zinc phosphide.

Question 9.
Where does lapwing make its nest?
Answer:
On the ground.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 10.
What does Hoopoe eat its diet?
Answer:
Insects.

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
Why we need to protect the agricultural products from harmful animals?
Answer:
Development in the agriculture field can be maintained if agriculture produce is stored properly and protected from harmful animals, birds etc. It is necessary to protect the produce from the pests.

Question 2.
Describe the method of pre-baiting for rodents.
Answer:
To trap more rodents it becomes necessary to prebait the rodents. For this purpose place bait in each cage consisting of 10 to 15 gram pearl millet, sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains two per cent of powdered sugar and two ppr cent of groundnut or sunflower oil, for 2-3 days.

Question 3.
How to reduce the ill effect of Bromadiolone in human being?
Answer:
Effect of bromadiolone can be reduced by using vitamin K as antidote. Use this vitamin under the supervision of ajdoctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
How the anti rat campaign can help in eradication of rats at village level? .
Answer:
It is of no use to eradicate rats in a smaller area. Because rats will come again from the neighbouring field or area. To get best results there should be rat killing campaign at village level. Under this campaign rodents are killed collectively in whole of the village at all the locations e.g. in orchards, in cultivated, uncultivated, forestry land etc.

Question 5.
What do you mean by scarecrow? What is its role in crop protection?
Answer:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

Question 6.
How the oil seed crop can be protected from parakeet damage?
Answer:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we can protect oilseed crops from parrots.

Question 7.
Why the crop should not be sown at the place having dense trees?
Answer:
Birds have their nests on the trees. If maize and sunflower crops are sown near such sites where birds come and go very easily and very frequently then birds can easily damage the crop. Therefore, crop should not be sown near the places having dense trees.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 8.
How the beneficial birds help farmers in protecting the crops?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, hawks, falcon, eagles etc. Birds like drongos, blue joy, cattle egret, lapwings etc. are insects eating birds. These eat many of the harmful insects from the fields.

Question 9.
How do you identify the Cattle Egret?
Answer:
It is a white coloured bird and its beak is yellow. This bird is seen preying on insects behind the tractor or oxen during ploughing.

Question 10.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during use of poisonous bait?
Answer:
Precautions while-using poisonous baits:

  • Use a stick or Khurpa for mixing the ingredients of bait while preparing. Otherwise use rubber gloves. Protect eyes, nose and mouth from the bait;
  • Keep rodenticides and poisonous bait away from the reach of children and domestic animals.
  • Never prepare baits in household utensils.
  • Use polythene bags for carrying baits and after use bury these bags under the earth.
  • Killed rats along with baits should be buried deep under the earth.
  • Zinc phosphide is very poisonous for humans. In case of accidental ingestion induce vomitting by inserting fingers in the mouth upto throat and rash to doctor.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
How many types of rodents are there in Punjab? Describe the rodent species found in various areas of Punjab.
Answer:
In Punjab there are 8 species of rats and mice. Indian gerbil, Indian bush rat, Indian mole rat, soft furred field rat, short tailed mole rat, house mouse, brown spiny mouse, field mouse. The Indian mole rat can damage sugarcane and rice-wheat at the time of germinating. Indian mole rat is found mostly in bet area whereas Indian gerbil and Indian bush rat are found in Kandi region (district Hoshiarpur)

Question 2.
Describe the two methods of preparation of poisonous bait.
Answer:
1. 2% zinc phosphide bait:
Take 1 kg of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat with 20 gram of vegetable oil (sunflower or groundnut oil), and 25 gram of zinc phosphide. Mix all these materials thoroughly. Always prepare fresh bait and never add water to this bait.

2. 0.005% Bromadiolone bait:
Take 20 gram of vegetable oil, (sunflower or groundnut oil), 20 gram powdered sugar and 20 gram bromadiolone powder and 1 kg of cracked wheat or any other cereal flour. Mix this material properly, bait is ready for use.

Question 3.
How to manage rodents by integrated management methods?
Answer:
Using only one method to control rats is not very effective. Rats multiply themselves quickly by giving birth to offsprings. Therefore, use more than one method to kill rats. Rats coming out from flooded burrows should be killed using sticks. After sowing of a crop use chemical methods to kill rats. After pre-baiting also put some gas tablets in the burrows. After zinc phosphide if needed use bromadiolone.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Describe the traditional methods used for protection of crops from birds.
Answer:

  • Sow Dhaincha and Bajra near the costly crops to save the crops from birds. Birds like to eat bajra and dhaincha. Birds prefer these crops as their feed and main crop is saved.
  • Do not sow crops like sunflower near the places where birds usually visit e.g. near the electricity wires and near the dense trees.
  • To save maize and sunflower from Parrots, sow these crops at least in two-three acres of area. Parrots do not go inside the crop and does not harm the crop to large extent.

Question 5.
Describe the mechanical method of protecting crop from birds.
Answer:
1. Making explosions: Make false gun shots at different time intervals to scare the birds.

2. Using scarecrow:
Take a small pitcher, draw human face on it using colour. This pitcher is made to hang on the sticks fixed vertically in the fields. Put on human clothes on this structure. This is known as scarecrow. Birds consider this structure as human being and do not come to the field.

3. Hanging dead crows:
Parrot has little communal association with crows. Therefore, to keep the parrots away from the fields, hang 1-2 dead crows/their dumies at sites of frequent bird damage. This way we protect oilseed crops from parrots.

4. Using rope-crackers:
Tie fire crackers on a rope at 6-8 inch distance. Ignite the lower end of the rope. Explosions caused by fire crackers at different intervals scare the birds and the birds fly away. Fix the rope in the centre at the time of germination and at the boundaries of the field at the time of maturity.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Friendly birds are:
(a) Lapwing
(b) Blue Joy
(c) Drongo
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 2.
Rats eaten by an owl in a day.
(a) 4-5
(b) 8-10
(c) 1-2
(d) All.
Answers:
(a) 4-5

Question 3.
Where does red mattled lapwing (tatihri) make its nest?
(a) on ground
(b) on trees
(c) in water
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) on ground

Question 4.
Chemical used to kill rats is:
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Zinc phosphide
(d) All.
Answers:
(c) Zinc phosphide

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 5.
How many types of birds are found in Punjab?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 300
(d) 50.
Answers:
(c) 300

Question 6.
Which bird makes its nest in the cavities of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) House sparrow.
Answers:
(a) Hoopoe

Question 7.
Which bird makes its nest on ground?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-watded Lapwing
(c) Cattle Egret
(d) Blue Joy.
Answers:
(b) Red-watded Lapwing

Question 8.
Which bird makes its nest in groups on the top of the trees?
(a) Hoopoe
(b) Red-wattled lapwing
(c) Cattle egret
(d) Owl.
Answers:
(c) Cattle egret

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 9.
How much damage is caused to sprouting wheat by rodents?
(a) 2.9%
(b) 10.7%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 1.1%.
Answers:
(a) 2.9%

True False:

1. Blue Joy has insects as its main diet.
Answers:
True

2. Eight type of rodents and mice are found in the fields of Punjab.
Answers:
True

3. Rose-ringed parakeet is most harmful bird in the field of agriculture.
Answers:
True

4. Zinc Phoshide is used to kill cats.
Answers:
True

5. Owl, Falcon are friendly birds for a farmer.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Fill in the blanks:

1. Scare crow should be atleast ………………… higher than the crop.
Answers:
one metre

2. For trapping rodents place ………………….. traps per acre in the field.
Answers:
16

3. ………………………….. percent of total bird species in India are useful to agriculture.
Answers:
3. 98

4. ………………………. bird has a yellow beak.
Answers:
Cattle egret.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where does rats live?
Answer:
Rats live in Burrows.

Question 2.
Which species of rats are found in areas of sugarcane and wheat rice and bet areas?
Answer:
Indian mole rat.

Question 3.
Which rat is found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Gerbil rat.

Question 4.
Which rats are found in Kandi region?
Answer:
Indian Bush rats.

Question 5.
How much damage is done by rats at the time of sprouting and maturity?
Answer:
At the time of sprouting is 2.9%. At the time of maturity is 4.5%.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 6.
How much damage is done to peas by rats at the time of maturity?
Answer:
1.1%.

Question 7.
How much damage is done by rats in bet area at the time of maturity of wheat?
Answer:
25%.

Question 8.
How will you kill rats which are coming out of flooded burrows?
Answer:
Kill with sticks.

Question 9.
How many traps per acre should be placed for trapping rats?
Answer:
16 traps.

Question 10.
After how many days cages should be used again for trapping rats?
Answer:
After 30 days.

Question 11.
For how much area one kg of zinc phosphide bait be used?
Answer:
2.5 acre.

Question 12.
What is natural method to control rats?
Answer:
Rats are the prey for owls, kites, hawks, falcons, eagles, snakes, cats, mongooses, jackals, etc.

Question 13.
How many species of birds are found in Punjab?
Answer:
300 species.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 14.
What is the worth in Rs. of rice which are eaten by doves, Pigeons and weaving bird?
Answer:
Worth rupees 2 crore.

Question 15.
After how many days should the direction, clothes and location of the scarecrow be changed?
Answer:
After ten days.

Question 16.
How many rats are eaten by an owl?
Answer:
4-5 rats in a day.

Question 17.
For how many times a single pair of house sparrow feeds its chick?
Answer:
250 times.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What should we do to save birds around us?
Answer:

  • We should plant conventional trees like, Banyan, Peepal, Kikkar, Tahli, Toot etc. around our living area.
  • We should provide place for nests by placing wooden or earthen pots wherever possible.

Question 2.
Write about Neelkanth.
Answer:
It has pale blue abdomen and breast is rufous brown. It is of the size of blue rock pigeon. It feeds on insects. Its nest is in the cavities of the trees.

Question 3.
Write about Red-wattled Lapwing.
Answer:
Its head, bieast and neck are black in colour. It is bronze brown from above and white from below. It feeds on insects and snails. It makes its nest on ground.

Question 4.
How are the crops protected by using scarecrows (Darna)?
Answer:
See in above questions.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give chemical methods of killing rodents (rats).
Answer:
See above question.

Question 2.
Give mechanical methods to protect crops from rats.
Answer:
Following mechanical methods are used:

  • Killing rats-After harvesting, at the time of Rauni rats come out from the flooded burrows which are killed by sticks.
  • Using cage/traps-See above questions.
  • Using bait-See above questions.

Question 3.
How traps and cages can be used to protect crop from rodents?
Answer:
Kill the trapped rats by drowning in water and the interval between two trapping in the same location should not be less than 30 days. P.A.U. has developed double chambered multi-catch trap with tunnel type entrance. Many rats can be trapped at a time. Place 16 traps for an acre at runways and activity sites of rats in the fields, also place traps in homes, poultry farms, godowns, stores etc. Place one trap for 4 to 8 square metre along the walls, comers of rooms, grain storing places and behind the boxes.

In cold stores wrap the traps in newspapers before placing. For catching rats pre-baiting is done. For this purpose put in each cage/trap bait consisting of 10 to 15 grams of bajra or sorghum or cracked wheat, which contains 2% of powdered sugar and 2% of groundnut or sunflower oil. This should be done for 2-3 days. Thus by using traps crops can be saved from damage by rats.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Beneficial and Harmful Animals in Agriculture

Question 4.
Why we should not kill birds useful for crops?
Answer:
Useful birds include insectivorous and rodentivorous birds. They feed insects to their young ones. Predatory birds; like, owl, eagle, falcons etc. eat rats and mice. An owl can eat 4-5 rats a day. These birds help the farmers by killing insects and rodents. We should not kill such useful birds.

Question 5.
What do you know about the precautions to be taken during the uses of poison bait?
Answer:

  • Poison bait should be kept away from the reach of children, domestic animals, pets and birds.
  • Save the mouth, eyes and skin from the poison b&t.
  • Never use household utensils for the preparation of poison bait.
  • Use polythene bags for storage and carrying these poison baits. Bury them after use.
  • Collect and burry the left over poison bait and the dead rats aways from the field.

Question 6.
How will you identify the woodpecker?
Answer:
It has a long beak, which has a little bend. It has lines on its feathers, body and tail of white and black colour. It has cockscomb also.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Certified Seed Production Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Write names of two Mexican wheat varieties which were introduced in India in sixties.
Answer:
Lerma Roso, Sonora-64.

Question 2.
Write name of machine which is used for cleaning of seed.
Answer:
Seed grader.

Question 3.
Write name of two recently recommended varieties of wheat.
Answer:
W.H. 1105, PBW 621.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
How many tags are stitched on a bag of certified seed?
Answer:
Two – green and blue.

Question 5.
What is the colour of tag which is used to label foundation seed?
Answer:
White tag.

Question 6.
Write full form of T.L.
Answer:
Truthfully Labelled.

Question 7.
In which year seed act was passed?
Answer:
In the year 1966.

Question 8.
What is the minimum germination per cent of certified wheat seed?
Answer:
Not less than 85%.

Question 9.
Give minimum purity of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
98%.

Question 10.
Write one important yield contributary hereditary trait of cotton plant.
Answer:
Number of cotton bolls, average weight of cotton bolls.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What are the objectives of seed act? When was this regulated?
Answer:
The objective of seed act was to provide right pedigree seeds at lower cost to the farmers. This act was enacted in year 1966.

Question 2.
List two important hereditary and yield contributory traits of cotton plant.
Answer:
Heredity qualities of cotton crop are – number of cotton bolls, average weight Of cotton bolls, number of branches bearing fruit etc.

Question 3.
Define foundation seed.
Answer:
Certified seeds are produced from foundation seeds and foundation seeds shall be the progeny of breeder seeds.

Question 4.
Write full name of agency which certifies the quality of seed.
Answer:
Punjab State Seed Certification Authority has the authority to certify seeds.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List three important yield contributory traits of wheat plant.
Answer:
Some of the yield contributory traits of wheat plants are – number of branches per plant, number of grains per ear, weight of grains, length of ear etc.

Question 6.
Who produces breeder seed?
Answer:
The agency which has researched and discovered the variety, produces nuclear seeds and then produces breeder seed from nuclear seed.

Question 7.
List three parameters of physical quality of seeds. .
Answer:
Physical appearance qualities – colour of seed, shape, weight etc.

Question 8.
Define a certified seed.
Answer:
Those seeds which are produced according to the standards set by Punjab State Seed Certification Agency and also under their supervision are called certified seeds.

Question 9.
What is the importance of isolation distance in seed production?
Answer:
The crop which is used for seed production should be separated from the same crop species by some minimum distance. This way seed quality and standard can be maintained and affect of other crop can be avoided.

Question 10.
Why removal of off types from a seed crop is so important?
Answer:
The seed we get is of high quality and is free from mechanical mixing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Differentiate hereditary traits from phenotype or physical quality traits.
Answer:
Physical quality traits:
Colour of seed, shape, weight, free from breakage, free from garbage, free from weeds and free from other seeds etc. are some of qualities which a high quality seed should have.

Hereditary traits:
These are the qualities which cannot be seen externally. These are the hidden qualities, which are carried on from one crop to the other crop. These are called genetic traits. Different plants have different genetic qualities. The difference we see in different varieties of the same crop are due to genetic qualities.

Question 2.
List three important field standards in seed production.
Answer:

  • Isolation of seed.crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

Question 3.
Explain seed standards for a certified seed production.
Answer:
There are two types of standards which are to be followed to produce certified seeds:
(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field.
(2) Standards of the seed.

(1) Standards to be followed for the seed crop in the field:

  • Isolation of seed crop from other crops.
  • Number of off-plants in the seed crop.
  • Number of diseased plants in the seed crop.

(2) Standards of the seed:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture per cent in seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 4.
Explain procedure for certified seed production on commercial scale.
Answer:
1. One should get proper and full knowledge and information about seed production and Marketing (sound knowledge and required expertise). Such a training can be obtained from P.A.U. Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK), department of agriculture, Punjab State Seed Certification Authority, PUNSEED etc.

2. Choosing crop whose seed is to be produced, Make a proper plan for necessary infrastructure required for seed production and marketing etc.

3. To establish a firm and get seed licence from the department of agriculture.

4. Some of the basic requirements are seed grading machine for cleaning of seed threshing floor, store, bag closer machine, bags for packing seeds.

5. We can get foundation seed from director seeds, P.A.U. Ludhiana. Bill for seed should be in the name of firm or company and it is necessary.

6. Get the crop as recommended from the foundation seed and get registered the crop with department of Punjab State Seed Certification Authority.

7. Keep on removing by pulling out the plants which are off-type plants, diseased plants, weed plants. The above mentioned department supervise/observe the crop for two-three times.

8. Harvest the crop, clean it and pack it properly. Do all these activities under the supervision of PSSCA. Put on proper tags on the seed bags.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 5.
List important points for starting seed production enterprise.
Answer:
Following points should followed for starting seed production enterprise:

  • Choose a crop that will give good returns and is easy to produce the seeds of this crop or not.
  • Choose the crop suited to the area and which can be cultivated by you.
  • Choose the crop whose seed is consumed in large quantity, e.g. wheat.
  • Become registered farmer with PUNSEED.
  • Whichever seeds you want to produce, gain sound knowledge and expertise to produce such seeds.
  • One can earn good profit by producing hybrid seeds, but it needs hardwork, proper training and patience.
  • Basic infrastructure is required which is a costly affair. Basic infrastructure consists of store, threshing floor, seed grader and other machines.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Certified Seed Production Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Categories of seeds are:
(a) Primary
(b) Breeder
(c) Foundation and certified
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
Which colour tag is put on the foundation seed bag?
(a) White
(b) Blue
(c) Red
(d) Yellow.
Answers:
(a) White

Question 3.
Which colour tag is put on the bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(a) Golden

Question 4.
New varieties of wheats which are disease free:
(a) WH1105
(b) PBW621
(c) HD3086
(d) All.
Answers:
(d) All.

Question 5.
Which colour tag by Government is put on the certified seed bag?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) None.
Answers:
(a) Blue

Question 6.
Which colour tag is put on bag of breeder seeds?
(a) Golden
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue.
Answers:
(b) White

Question 7.
How many tags are put on the bag of certified seeds?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4.
Answers:
(a) 2

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 8.
What should be the minimum purity of certified seeds of paddy?
(a) 98%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 13%.
Answers:
(a) 98%

True False:

1. Hereditary traits are determined by genetic factors.
Answers:
True

2. PBW 621 is a variety of wheat.
Answers:
True

3. Bags with certified seeds bear two tags.
Answers:
True

4. Lerma Roso is a Mexican wheat variety.
Answers:
True

5. Certified seeds of rice must have minimum 98% purity.
Answers:
True

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Fill in the blanks:

1. Number of tillers per plant is a trait for wheat.
Answers:
hereditary

2. Certification tags shall be of colour for foundation seed.
Answers:
white

3. The credit of green revolution goes to wheat varieties.
Answers:
Mexican

4. Bag containing seed bears a golden tag.
Answers:
breeder.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When were the Mexican wheat verities cultivated for first time?
Answer:
In 1965-66. .

Question 2.
From where was green revolution started?
Answer:
From the cultivation of semi dwarf Mexican wheat varieties.

Question 3.
Write hereditary qualities of corn.
Answer:
Length and circumference of com cob, average number of grains in the com cob, average weight of 1000 grains, time for maturity etc.

Question 4.
Write about germination of certified seeds of rice.
Answer:
Germination should not be less than 80%.

Question 5.
Which tag is attached on bag of certified seed by government?
Answer:
Blue coloured tag.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When did the farmers experience good quality seeds?
Answer:
Nearly 50 years ago when they cultivated the Mexican Semidwarf varieties of wheat and the yield was double than the previous years.

Question 2.
What is seed?
Answer:
Some grains or some other vegetative parts of a plant e.g. roots, stem cuttings, bulbs, sukers etc. which can be used to grow new plants. These all are considered as seeds.

Question 3.
Give properties of certified seeds.
Answer:
Certified seeds have following qualities. These seeds should be of

  • definite purity
  • free from diseases and seeds of weeds
  • definite germination.

Question 4.
Write possible qualities of certified seeds of wheat.
Answer:

  • Germination – pot less than 85% .
  • Purity – not less than 98%
  • Moisture content – not more than 12%.

Question 5.
What information we get from green tag fixed on bags of certified seeds?
Answer:
Green Tag has the following information about the seed germination, purity, diseases and other standards.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 6.
Where is the head office of Punjab State See Certification Agency and where is the zonal office?
Answer:
Head office is at SCO 837-838 Sec. 22 A, Chandigarh and regional offices at Ludhiana, Jalandhar, Kotkpura.

Question 7.
What is the process to reach the certified seed?
Answer:
We get breeder seed from the nuclear seed, foundation seed from breeder seed then certified seed from the foundation seed.

Question 8.
What are the various tags attached to different seed bags?
Answer:
Yellow tag on breeder seed, White tag on foundation seed, Blue tag on certified seed.

Question 9.
How many types of seeds are there according to Seed act?
Answer:
There are four types of seeds – Nuclear seeds, Breeder seeds, Foundation seeds, Certified seeds.

Question 10.
What do you know about T.L. seed?
Answer:
If seed is not certified but otherwise it conforms to all seed and field standards it is called T.L. (truthfully labelled) seed. Such seeds should have standards like – hereditary purity, germination, moisture content as per the standards etc.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about possibilities of profit and risk in the enterprise of seed production.
Answer:
The enterprise of certified seeds production is profitable. Such seeds have more selling price than the other seeds. But there is some initial cost involved e.g. cost of foundation seed, certification fees, cost to remove off-type plants, seed grading, packaging of seed, attaching tag, sealing and storing of seeds. During 2014-2015, minimum support price of one quintal of wheat was Rs. 1450. But certified seed of wheat was sold at a price of Rs. 2000-2500 per quintal. This way enterprise of seed production of certified and hybrid seed is very profitable.

There is also a fear of loss in this business also, as in other businesses. Some times the seed remains unsold and it can fail in laboratory test also. But the possibility of unsold seed is very less because already there is huge demand of seed in the market, which is not being fulfilled. So, this business is very profitable.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Certified Seed Production

Question 2.
What do you mean by certified seed? Write three features of certified seeds.
Answer:
See in the above questions.

Question 3.
Which four parameters are examined in the seed test laboratory while examining seeds?
Answer:
By testing the seed in the laboratory we can check the standards. These standards are like:

  • seed germination
  • physical purity of seed.
  • a number of diseased seeds
  • number of seeds of weeds in the seeds, seeds of other crops.
  • moisture percent in the seed.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Agriculture Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Agriculture Guide for Class 10 PSEB Agro Based Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in one-two words:

Question 1.
Which crops can be dried and powdered at domestic level?
Answer:
Turmeric, Chillies etc.

Question 2.
From where the training on agro based industries can be obtained?
Answer:
Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana, Krishi Vigyan Kendras.

Question 3.
Name any two machines installed in agro processing complex.
Answer:
Mini rice mill, small flour mill, grinder, oil expeller, cotton ginning machine.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 4.
List the items in which mentha oil is used. What are the uses of peppermint (Mentha) oil?
Answer:
Medicines, perfumes, cosmetics etc.

Question 5.
How much Jaggery can be made from one quintal of sugarcane?
Answer:
10-12 kg.

Question 6.
What is the percentage of post-harvest losses in grains?
Answer:
10%.

Question 7.
What is the pre requisite for starting any agro based industry?
Answer:
Basic training.

Question 8.
How much powder can be made from one quintal of raw turmeric? Or How much turmeric powder can be produced during processing from 100 kg raw turmeric?
Answer:
15-20 kg.

Question 9.
How water and oil are separated during mentha processing?
Answer:
With the help of separator.

Question 10.
Name any two rural agro-based industries.
Answer:
Turmeric processing plant, Mentha procesing unit, Juggery manufacturing.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

(B) Answer in one-two sentences:

Question 1.
What type of agro based industry can be set at cooperative level?
Answer:
A huge investment is (nearly 30 lakhs Rupees) is needed to set up dehydration and freezing plant for the processing of fruits and vegetables. Such units can be established at cooperative level and initial investment at individual level is reduced to large extent.

Question 2.
Why post harvest loss is taking place in our country?
Answer:
There is lack of sources for processing and storage, therefore post harvest losses are taking place.

Question 3.
What should be done to reduce the post harvest losses?
Answer:
We should process the agriculture produce to stop the damage of grains.

Question 4.
How agro based industries can be helpful in enhancing income of the fanners?
Answer:
Farmers can get more income by processing and selling of the agricultural produce at small scale. Farmer can also increase his income by adopting the occupations like – poultry farming, dairy farming etc.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
Discuss the method for processing mentha.
Answer:
For extracting oil from mentha, mentha processing plant is established. Mentha crop is dried in open sun to reduce the moisture content. It is taken in an,air tight tanks in which steam is passed at pressure. Oil gets heated up and gets mixed with steam. Oil and steam mixture is removed from the tank and is cooled down quickly and oil and water are collected in another tank. This tank is known as separator. Oil is lighter than water and floats on the surface of water. It is decantated and collecte in plastic containers which are then sealed.

Question 6.
Describe the machine developed by PAU, Ludhiana for processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Punjab Agricultural University has developed a machine which is used for washing and polishing of turmeric. This machine can wash 2.5 -3.0 quintal turmeric in an hour and then can polish it also.

Question 7.
What are the technical operations related with jaggery manufacturing?
Answer:
Sugarcane is crushed using cane crusher. Juice so obtained is heated and concentrated to get jaggery.

Question 8.
Discuss any three machines used in agro processing complexes.
Answer:
Agro processing complexes can have machines like minirice mill, oil expel’ler, cotton gining machine etc. which are used to process paddy, oil seeds, cotton etc.

Question 9.
Why can’t the freezing plants for fruits and vegetables be installed at farmers’ level?
Answer:
A huge investment nearly Rs. 30 lakh is required to set up this unit. Therefore, it cannot be established at farmer’s level.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which agricultural produces can be used at home after drying? Or Write the name of four agricultural products which are used dried at domestic travel.
Answer:
Fenugreek, corriander, mint, chillies etc. can be used at homes after drying.

(C) Answer in five-six sentences:

Question 1.
Discuss the advantages of setting up of agro processing complexes in Punjab.
Answer:
Generally, there is damage of 10% grains after harvesting and in case of fruits and vegetables this damage and loss is upto 30 – 40%. If processing units are established at village level then such losses can be minimized. Farmers can get more income. Unemployed youth can get work and we can get fresh and high quality eatables. Due to availability of employment and earning, the migration towards cities is also reduced.

Question 2.
What type of machinery can be installed in a small agro processing complex and which crops will be processed?
Answer:
A small agro processing complex can have following machines.

  • mini rice mill
  • oil expeller
  • small flour mill
  • grinder
  • pulse cleaner and grader
  • cotton ginning machine
  • small feed mill
  • mini dal mill

These machines are used for processing pulses, cereals, oil seeds, spices, paddy, cotton etc. .

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 3.
What should be done to stop the migration of people from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
People migrate towards cities due to non availability of employment and income per family is also not up to the mark instead it is very low. If more opportunities are made available and sources of income are also generated then this will help in stopping the migration towards the cities. Therefore encouragement should be given to agriculture based enterprises.

Youth in rural areas can set their own small processing units. Some other agriculture based enterprises like dairy farming, fish farming, poultry farming, mushroom cultivation, honey production, bee keeping etc. can be adopted. By self-marketing of the processed products, one can get more returns.

Question 4.
What should be the policy for capital intensive agro processing industry?
Answer:
There are some agro processing plants which have very high initial cost. For example, the cost to establish dehydration and freezing plant for fruits and vegetables is nearly Rs. 30 lakh. Such a plant cannot be set up. at an individual level. Such a unit should be established at cooperative level by group of farmers. This way one plant can be used by various farmers and they can process their produce and can market them.

Question 5.
Discuss the various operations involved in turmeric processing. Or How turmeric powder is prepared from raw tarmeric?
Answer:
For processing, all the turmeric, rhizomes are washed properly to remove soil sticking to it etc. For this purpose P.A.U. has developed a machine which can wash and polish turmeric. This machine can wash and polish simultaneously nearly 2.5 – 3.0 quintal turmeric per hour. After this step (i.e. washing etc.) turmeric is boiled so that fingers become soft and their colour becomes uniform.

If boiling is done in open container it takes an hour but if boiled in pressure cooker it takes 20 minutes. After boiling, turmeric fingers are dried in sun so that moisture content is less than 10%. It takes nearly 15 days if strong sunlight is available. Now top layer of turmeric is removed by polishing. Then it is grounded in the grinder (hammer mill). This way 100 kg fresh turmeric gives 15-20 kg. powdered turmeric.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Guide Agro Based Industries Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
……………… kg turmeric powder can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
(a) 25-30
(b) 15-20
(c) 5-10
(d) 45-50.
Answer:
(b) 15-20

Question 2.
……………..kg Gud can be prepared from one quintal sugarcane.
(a) 21-22
(b) 30-35
(c) 10-12
(d) 18-20.
Answer:
(c) 10-12

Question 3.
After harvesting, there is nearly …………. loss in Crops.
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 50%.
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 4.
Mentha oil is used in
(a) medicines
(b) perfumes
(c) cosmetics
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 5.
After harvesting loss in fruits and vegetables in:
(a) 15-20%
(b) 20-30%
(c) 30-40%
(d) 10-15%.
Answer:
(c) 30-40%

Question 6.
How much jaggery (Gud) can be prepared from 100 kg sugarcane?
(a) 10-12 kg
(b) 40-45 kg
(c) 60-70 kg
(d) 30-35 kg.
Answer:
(a) 10-12 kg

Question 7.
What name of Punjabi magazine published by Punjab Agricultural university every month?
(a) Changi kheti
(b) Modem kheti
(c) Kheti niya
(d) Krishi jagran.
Answer:
(a) Changi kheti

Question 8.
From which crop is raw material for textile industry obtained?
(a) wheat
(b) cotton
(c) sugarcane
(d) mustard.
Answer:
(b) cotton

Question 9.
Which machine is used for oil extraction from oil seeds?
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(a) Oil expeller

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 10.
Which machine is used for cleaning of seed
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Flour mill
(c) Seed grader
(d) Grinder.
Answer:
(c) Seed grader

True False:

1. Post harvest losses in grains are approximately 10%.
Answer:
True

2. Mentha is a weed.
Answer:
False

3. We can get 15-20 kg of turmeric powder from 100 kg of fresh turmeric.
Answer:
True

4. We can get 30-40 kg of Jaggery from one quintal sugarcane.
Answer:
False

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Fill in the blanks:

1. Post harvest losses in fruits and vegetables is …………….. .
Answer:
30-40 %

2. ……………. is used to dry vegetables.
Answer:
Solar dryer

3. During Mentha processing, oil and water are separated with the help of …………. .
Answer:
Separator

4. Mentha processing plant is used to extract oil from ……………. crop.
Answer:
Mentha.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give one reason of unemployment.
Answer:
Limited number of jobs.

Question 2.
How much damage/loss occur to the vegetables and fruits after harvesting?
Answer:
30 – 40%.

Question 3.
How much is the cost for setting up of agro-processing complexes?
Answer:
5 to 20 lakh Rupees.

Question 4.
How many days are required to dry turmeric fingers after boiling?
Answer:
In strong sunlight 15 days.

Question 5.
What is use of turmeric?
Answer:
Medicines, cosmetics and as dye in cotton clothes.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Question 6.
What is used for drying vegetables?
Answer:
Solar drier.

Question 7.
Name monthly magazine related to agriculture?
Answer:
‘Changi Kheti’.

Question 8.
How many Krishi Vigyan Kendras are under P.A.U.?
Answer:
17.

Question 9.
Write the name of four agricultural related co-occupations.
Answer:
Cattle rearing (Cows, goats, sheep etc), Poultry fanning, Honey bee rearing, fish rearing, Dairy farm, etc.

Question 10.
What is the use of flour mill (atta chakki)?
Answer:
Used to grind wheat, maize seeds to get flour.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is there any financial help available by government or other organisation for establishing agriculture based enterprises?
Answer:
Government as well as many other organisations provide financial help and training to establish agriculture based occupations.

Question 2.
What is the cost of establishment of agro-processing unit and how much is the income from this unit?
Answer:
Cost for setting up these machines is from Rs. 5 to 20 lakh and one can get an income of Rs. 10 thousand to 50 thousand per month.

Question 3.
Give uses of turmeric (in food).
Answer:
Turmeric is used to prepare various vegetables curries, to give taste, colour and flavour to the food items and it is also used for preparing food and chatnies at large scale.

Question 4.
Which things can be dried in solar drier?
Answer:
Fenugreek leaves, corriander, chilli, garlic etc. and some medicinal plants can be dried.

Question 5.
Write down the names of four agro based industries which can be started at the village level.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 10th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 8 Agro Based Industries

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about processing of turmeric.
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 2.
Write about processing of mentha?
Answer:
Answer yourself.

Question 3.
Write the name of any ten agriculture based enterprises.
Answer:

  • Poultry farming
  • Dairy farming
  • Honey production
  • Mushroom cultivation
  • Fish farming
  • Jaggery manufacturing
  • Drying of vegetables and their packaging
  • Agro-processing complex
  • Turmeric processing unit
  • Mentha processing plant.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which intoxicant is used to prepare both cigarettes and bidis?
Answer:
Cigarettes and Bidis are made with tobacco and paper whereas bidis are made with leaf of tree. There are several ways to consume tobacco such as smoking cigarettes, bidis, cigars, hubble- bubble, etc. Tobacco is also eaten in many forms such as eating “paan”, tobacco mixed with lime, “jarda”, etc. There is a dangerous toxic substance called Nicotine in tobacco. There are other toxins like ammonia, carbon dioxide, etc. Nicotine has its adverse effect on the head which begins to feel giddy, and then the heart is badly affected.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 2.
Which drug pan cause tongue and mouth Cancer?
Answer:
Tabacco intoxicant cause cancer of Tongue, Throat and Mouth. There is a dangerous toxic substance called Nicotine in tobacco. The possibility of catching cancer increases with the excessive use of tobacco, particularly the cancer of lungs and throat.
The harms of tobacco on health are as under:

  • Eating or taking tobacco weakens eyesight.
  • It increases heart beat. One catches heart diseases which often prove fatal.
  • Studies have revealed that tobacco consuming contracts blood vessels.
  • Tobacco benumbs the body tissues. One does not have good sleep and ultimately suffers from sleeplessness.
  • Stomach begins to remain upset with tobacco consumption.
  • Tobacco also causes cough, and the consumer of tobacco is prone to lung diseases like T.B.

Question 3.
How is alcohol harmful for health?
Answer:
Alcohol is a liquid intoxicant. It is legally binding to write on each bottle of alcohol-“Drinking is injurious to health.” Even then more and more people are becoming addict to alcohol, and seem to ignore the statutory warning totally. Thus, more and more such people are becoming prey to many diseases. Their lungs get defected. The liver is damaged. Age declines. Alcohol, in fact, adversely affects all parts of the body. At first man takes alcohol, then alcohol begins to take (consume) him. Alcohol has several bad effects, some of which are listed below:

  • Alcohol affects the brain first of all. Nervous system gets affected and the brain weakens. The thinking power or faculty declines.
  • The kidneys in the body weaken.
  • Alcohol becomes a hindrance in the production of digestive juices, as a result of which digestion worsens.
  • Respiration increases, and one catches diseases pertaining to respiratory system.
  • Blood vessels expand under the influence of regular drinking.Brain has to exert more, and one may suffer a heart attack any moment. .
  • Regular drinking decreases the work-capacity of muscles. The body gets weakened to face the attack of disease germs.
  • The studies have revealed that a drunkard works less than a normal person. A drunkard also catches various diseases sooner than a normal individual.
  • Drinking is a social evil as it ruins home, health and wealth.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 4.
How can students be saved from the menance of Drugs?
Answer:

1. We should introduce the students with all intoxicants substances. In this way they will be refrained from these substances.

2. What are the age of students, they should not attract the substances. They should keep themself away from these intoxicants.

3. Parents and Teachers should provide the litrature or books to the students to safe them not to indulge in these substances. They should provide enough time to take parts in games and recreation activities like Bhangra and Dance.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Name the Intoxicant.
(A) Wine
(B) Tobacco
(C) Bhang and Afeem
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 2.
Name any two system which are being effected by Intoxicant.
(A) Digestive System
(B) Circulatory System
(C) Mental System
(D) Bones System.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 3.
Write harm of sports person of intoxicants.
(A) Carelessness
(B) Irresponsibility
(C) End of Sportsmanship
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
How can student be saved from the menance of Drug?
(A) Motivation
(B) Conference
(C) Literature or books to safe them
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 5.
How is Alcohol harmful for health?
(A) Alcohol affected the brain
(B) Kidneys in the body weaken
(C) Weaken the digestive system
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 6.
Harm of Tobacco.
(A) Damage digestive system
(B) Affect the brain and kidneys weaken
(C) Circulatory system weaken
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the name of two intoxicants.
Answer:

  • Wine
  • Hashish.

Question 2.
Name any two systems which are being effected by intoxicants.
Answer:
On Digestive system and circulatory system.

Question 3.
Write any two harms of intoxicants.
Answer:

  • Face becomes pale.
  • Disturbance of Mantle concentration.

Question 4.
Write any two harm of sports person of intoxicants.
Answer:

  • Carelessness and irresponsibility.
  • End of Sportsmanship

Question 5.
Intoxicants causes depart in sport. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 6.
Alcohol effects on brain. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

Question 7.
Chewing Tobacco causes weak eyesight.(Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

Question 8.
Smoking causes cancer or not.
Answer:
Causes cancer.

Question 9.
Use of Tobacco does not causes cough and the consumption of tobacco is not prone to T.B. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 10.
Under the influence of intoxicants player become careless. (Right or wrong)
Answer:
Right.

Short Answer Type Questions

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 1.
Write the harms of intoxicants.
Answer:
Those players who use intoxicants develop the following defects:

  • The face turns pale.
  • One’s steps stagger.
  • The mental balance is lost.
  • The playfield turns into a battlefield.
  • Digestion gets defective.
  • Acidic elements decrease the efficiency of liver.
  • Many stomach ailments are caught.
  • The working capacity of muscles decreases.
  • The player fails to show good performance on the playfield.
  • One catches such dreadful diseases as cancer, asthma etc.
  • The memory of the player suffers.
  • Intoxicated players fail to assess the ever-changing conditions during the play, and become the cause of their team’s defeat in the end.
  • An intoxicated player becomes careless and irresponsible.
  • Body loses the needed co-ordination.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 8 The Fatal Effects of Drugs and their Safety Measures

Question 2.
Mention the adverse effects of intoxicants on the players and their games.
Answer:
The adverse effects of intoxicants on the players and their games are as under:
1. The Lack of Bodily co-ordination and Agility:
The player under the effect of an intoxicant loses his usual agility and physical co-ordination. These are essential qualities for a good game of hockey, football, etc.

2. The Lack of Mental balance and Concentration:
A slight mistake of a player may prove to be very harmful to the team. An intoxicated player cannot play with concentration. Therefore, he commits such mistakes as result in the team’s defeat.

3. Carelessness and Irresponsibility:
An intoxicated player is extremely careless and carefree. He fails to judge his own strength and efficiency. Sometimes such a player receives such an injury that he has to repent later throughout his life.

4. The Loss of the Spirit of Sportsmanship:
The intoxicated player loses his sense of sportsmanship. As he is in semi-conscious state, he has no self-control. He loses his balance of mind, becomes self-willed and plays as he wishes without paying any heed to what his team-mates say or desire.

5. The Lack of Tolerance:
An intoxicated player often expresses his unhappiness over the decisions of the umpire or referee. He has no control on his reasoning, so he behaves indecently.

6. Disobedience of Rules: Such a player often disobeys rules of the game.

7. Turning of Playground into a Battlefield: A player under the influence of intoxicant turns the playground into a battlefield.

International Olympic Committee has banned the use of intoxicants during games. If anybody is found having played under the influence of some intoxicants, his medal or reward is cancelled. Therefore, players should try to avoid all kinds of intoxicants, show their best performance and brings laurels to their country.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 10 Fishery

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Fishery Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1.
Name two exotic breeds of fish.
Answer:
Common carp, silver carp.

Question 2.
What should be the depth of the pond?
Answer:
It should be 6-7 feet.

Question 3.
What should be the pH of water for fish rearing?
Answer:
pH should be between 7-9.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery

Question 4.
Which fertilizer can be used in the new fish pond?
Answer:
Urea and single superphosphate.

Question 5.
How many fingerlings can be put in one acre?
Answer:
4000 fingerlings per acre.

Question 6.
What is the source of fish seed?
Answer:
College of fishery, GADVASU, Ludhiana or Government hatcheries.

Question 7.
Name two Indian breeds of fish.
Answer:
Katla, Rohu.

Question 8.
What type of soil is required for fish pond?
Answer:
Clayey soil.

Question 9.
What should be the size of commercial fish pond?
Answer:
1 to 5 acre and 6-7 feet deep.

Question 10.
Name one carnivorous fish.
Answer:
Malhi, Singhara.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Name Indian and Exotic breeds of fish.
Answer:
Indian breeds of fish are – Katla, Rohu, Mrigal. Exotic carps, Common carp, Silver carp, Grass carp.

Question 2.
What do you know about design of fish pond?
Answer:
For commercial fishery, pond should have an area of.l to 5 acre and it should be 6-7 feet deep. Base of the pond should be plain but sides should be sloppy. There should be proper arrangement of inflow and outflow of water. Put values on inlet and outlet pipes for this purpose. Make pond in February and put fish seed in it in March-April. There should be a one Kanal nursery pond also.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery

Question 3.
Explain about the quality of water used for fishery.
Answer:
Water used in the pond for fishery should have pH between 7-9. Oxygen dissolved in water and pH of water plays an important role in the survival and growth of fish. If pH of pond water is below 7 then add ground calcium carbonate (80-100 kg per acre) in the pond water. Dissolve this calcium carbonate in water outside the pond and when it is cool then add this in pond.

Question 4.
What should be the ratio of different fish breeds in a pond?
Answer:
Seed fish can be put in the following ratio :

  • Katla 20%, Common carp 20%, Mrigal 10%, Rohu 30%, Silver carp 10%, and Grass carp 10%.
  • Katla 25%, Mrigal 20%, Rohu 35% and Common carp 20%.

Question 5.
How weeds can be removed from fish pond?
Answer:
Water level should be kept upto 5-6 feet in old ponds to check the growth of weeds. Following methods can be used to control weeds :

  • Physical approach. Remove all the water from the pond and remove all the weeds using barbed wire.
  • Biological approach. Grass carp and silver carp can control many types of weeds.

Question 6.
Write precautions for using canal water in the pond.
Answer:
If the pond is to be filled with canal water then wire mesh should be put at the mouth of the inlet pipe. This prevents the entry of carnivorous fish in the fish pond.

Question 7.
Write about enemies of fish in pond.
Answer:

  • Carnivorous fish – Malhi, Singhara.
  • Weed fish – Shisha, Puthi Kanghi.
  • Frogs and Snakes.

Question 8.
How feeding is done in pond?
Answer:
There should be’25% protein in fish feed. Finely ground the feed and soak it in water for 3-4 hours. Make bolls of this feed. Put these in baskets, trays or plastic bags having holes. Keep these at 2-3 feet below the water level.

Question 9.
Write about health management of fish.
Answer:
Dip the fish seed (fingerlings) in solution of potassium permanganate (100 gram per litre) before putting them into the pond. This helps in preventing the diseases. Monitor the fish stock for health related problems at fortnight interval.

Question 10.
From where fishery training can be obtained?
Answer:
It can be obtained from District Fishery Officer, Deputy Director, GADVASU Ludhiana, Deputy Director, Krishi Vigyan Kendra.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
Write a note on selection of site, design and digging of fish pond.
Answer:
Selection of site for pond. Select a land which have clayey soil for making pond. Clayey soil prevents the seepage of water. Do puddling in light soil. Water source should be near the pond so that it can be filled easily. If canal water is to be used put wire mesh at the mouth of inlet pipe to prevent entry of carnivorous fish into the pond. Design and digging. For commercial fishery, pond should have an area of 1 to 5 acre and it should be 6-7 feet deep. Base of the pond should be plain but sides should be sloppy. There should be proper arrangement of inflow and outflow of water. Put valves on inlet and outlet pipes for this purpose. Make pond in February and put fish seed in it in March-April. There should be a one Kanal nursery pond also.

Question 2.
How old ponds can be used for fish rearing?
Answer:
Water level should be kept upto 5-6 feet in old ponds to check the growth of weeds. Following methods can be used to control weeds :
1. Physical approach. Remove all the water from the pond and remove all the weeds using barbed wire.
2. Biological approach. Grass carp and silver carp can control many types of weeds.
Control of enemies of fish. Old pond may contain following enemies of fish

  • Carnivorous fish – Malhi, Singhara.
  • Weed fish – Shisha, puthi Kanghi.
  • Frogs and Snakes.

Remove these by using the net and kill the snakes carefully.

Question 3.
How weeds can be removed from old ponds?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 4.
What type of manures and fertilizers are used in fish ponds?
Answer:
Plankton is natural food for fish. To maintain regular supply of plankton in the newly constructed pond. Put farmyard manure, biogas slurry, poultry manure, urea and single superphosphate. Always add fertilizers before 15 days of adding fish seed in the pond. Rate of adding fertilizer in the old pond depends upon the quality of water and production of plankton in it.

Question 5.
What is the role of Government Department of Fishery and Veterinary University in fishery development?
Answer:
Before starting the occupation of fishery get training from Fishery Department, Punjab. Department arranges five day training for this purpose. One can get training from District Fishery Officer, Deputy Director, GADVASU, Ludhiana or from Krishi Vigyan Kendra.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
When does a fish become marketable?
Answer:
When it becomes 500 gram.

Question 2.
Name a weed fish.
Answer:
Puthi Kanghi.

Question 3.
What is natural food for fish?
Answer:
Plankton.

Question 4.
What should be the depth of pond?
Answer:
6-7 feet.

Question 5.
What types of soil should be selected for making pond for fishery?
Answer:
Clayey soil.

Question 6.
Why do we select clayey soil for pond?
Answer:
Because this type of soil is suitable to hold water for a longer time and seepage is less in it.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery

Question 7.
In which month pond should be made?
Answer:
In the month of February.

Question 8.
What type of carps can eat weeds?
Answer:
Common carp, silver carp.

Question 9.
Name weed fish.
Answer:
Shisha, Puthi Kanghi.

Question 10.
Carnivorous fish are
Answer:
Singhara, Malta.

Question 11.
If pH of water is less than 7 what should we add?
Answer:
We should add ground calcium carbonate 80-100 kg per acre.

Short Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
Write about catching fish and putting fish seed.
Answer:
When fish attains a weight of 500 grams it becomes marketable. Remove such fish from the pond and put same number and breed of fingerlings in the pond by taking these fingerlings from the nursery.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Fishery Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. When is fish ready for marketing?
(a) 500 gram
(b) 50 gram
(c) 10 gram
(d) 20 gram
Answer:
(a) 500 gram

2. Weed fish is :
(a) Katla
(b) Mrigal
(c) Puthi Kangi
(d) Rohu
Answer:
(c) Puthi Kangi

3. Put seed fish at the rate of ……………. per acre.
(a) 4000
(b) 15000
(c) 1000
(d) 500
Answer:
(a) 4000

4. Carnivorus fish is :
(a) Singhara
(b) Malhi
(c) Dola
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 10 Fishery

5. pH of water for fish rearing :
(a) 7-9
(b) 2-3
(c) 13-14
(d) 11-12
Answer:
(a) 7-9

True/False:

1. Indian breeds of fish are-Catla, Rohu, Mrigal.
Answer:
True

2. Pond size should be 1-5 acre and it should be 6-7 feet deep.
Answer:
True

3. Keep water level in pond upto 2-3 feet.
Answer:
False

4. There should be 10% protein in fish feed.
Answer:
False

5. One should not get training before starting the occupation of the fishery.
Answer:
False

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Put seed fish of 1-2 inch size at the rate of …………… per acre.
Answer:
4000

2. …………… gram fish is ready for marketing.
Answer:
500

3. Fish farming or fishery is a subsidiary occupation and is more …………… than agriculture.
Answer:
profitable

4. Fish pond should be made in …………… land.
Answer:
clayey

5. pH of the water should be …………… If it is less than 7 use lime water.
Answer:
7-9

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Storage Devices Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Primary memory is also called ……………..
(a) Internal memory
(b) External memory
(c) Physical memory
(d) Auxiliary memory.
Answer:
(a) Internal memory

Question 2.
…………….memory is not a Read-Only Memory.
(a) ROM
(b) PROM
(c) EPROM
(d) RAM.
Answer:
(a) ROM

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 3.
…………….is not a portable storage device.
(a) External Hard Disk
(b) Pen Drive
(c) Hard Disk Drive
(d) Memory Card.
Answer:
(c) Hard Disk Drive

Question 4.
The memory is divided into number of small parts called ……………. .
(a) Cells
(b) Area
(c) Inter-section
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Cells

Question 5.
USB means ……………. .
(a) Uniform Service Book
(b) Universal Serial Bus
(c) Universal Straight Bus
(d) Uniform Serial Bus.
Answer:
(b) Universal Serial Bus

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the capacity of floppy disk?
Answer:
1.4 MB.

Question 2.
What is the capacity of Compact Disc (CD)?
Answer:
650-700 MB.

Question 3.
Which memory unit is usually used to measure the Storage capacity of a hard disks?
Answer:
1 GB Memory unit is used to measure the storage capacity of a hard disk.

Question 4.
Which is having greater storage capacity out of CD or DVD?
Answer:
DVD has higher storage capacity.

Question 5.
Which computer port is used to attach Pen Drive?
Answer:
USB Port.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is memory? Write down two main categories of memories.
Answer:
Computer memory is a physical device capable of storing data and information. It is a storage space where data and instructions are stored either for processing or for further uses. It can store data and instructions either temporarily (RAM) or permanently (ROM).
Memory can be of two types, Primary Memory and Secondary Memory.

Question 2.
Write the name of any four Secondary Memory devices.
Answer:
Hard Disk, Floppy Disk, Pen Drive and Memory Card.

Question 3.
What is Memory Card?
Answer:
A memory card is a flash memory. It is used in electronic devices such as digital cameras, mobile phones or video game consoles. The memory card can , store data, images, music, games or other computer files. Memory cards have no J moving parts so they are not easily damaged. They are more compact and portable than CDs or DVDs, and they can store more data than CDs. The data stored in the memory card can be read with the help of card reader.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 4.
Write a short note on Pen Drive.
Answer:
A pen drive is a portable Universal Serial Bus (USB) flash memory device. It is used to store and transfer audio, video and data files from a computer. The major advantage of USB pen drives over other portable storage devices such as floppy disks or DVDs / CDs is their compact shape and size; they work faster and can store more data.

Question 5.
Write about CD.
Answer:
A compact disc (CD) is a type of optical secondary storage media. It is circular in shape and small in size. A CD is a portable device that we use for ,, storing text, video, audio, graphics, images, or taking backup of data, programs and software. A CD can store around 700 MB data.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Primary Memory.
Answer:
The primary memory is also known as the main memory of a computer. It is in-built memory of a computer in which data and instructions are stored for processing. It is essential for the working of a computer.
There are two types of primary memory: RAM and ROM.

RAM:
RAM stands for Random Access Memory. This is a volatile memory. This means it stores data or instructions temporarily. It is located on the motherboard. When you start the computer, Data and instructions from the hard disk are stored in RAM.

RAM is further divided into two types:

  • SRAM (Static Random Access Memory): This stores a bit of data using the state of a six transistor memory cell.
  • DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory): This stores a bit data using a pair of transistor and. capacitor which constitute a DRAM memory cell.

ROM:
The term ROM stands for Read Only Memory. It is a non-volatile memory. As the name indicated, information can only be read from this type of – memory. It stores the data permanently.
Types of Read Only Memory (ROM):

  • PROM (Programmable Read Only Memory)
  • EPROM (Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory)
  • EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory).

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 2.
What is HDD? Explain.
Answer:
Hard disks are the secondary storage devices used to store data permanently. It is directly connected to the disk controller on the motherboard. Hard disks are flat, circular plates made of aluminum or glass and coated with a magnetic material. Hard disk platters typically spin very fast at 5400 to 7200 cycles/minute.
There are two types of Hard disks:

1. Internal Hard Disk:
Internal hard drives are located inside your computer. Most computers come with a single internal hard drive, which includes the operating system and pre-installed applications.

2. External Hard Drive:
An external hard drive, also called a portable hard drive. It is a device connected to the outside of a computer via a USB connection. It is often used to back up a computer or portable storage.

Question 3.
What is Secondary Memory? Explain any one secondary memory device.
Answer:
Secondary memory is permanent memory. It is not directly accessible by CPU. It communicates with the CPU through the main memory. Secondary memory stores data and holds it even when power is off. It is used to store large amount of data or programs. It is less expensive than the primary memory.

Pen Drive:
A pen drive is a portable universal serial bus (USB) flash memory device. It is used to store and transfer audio, video and data files from a computer. The major advantage of USB pen drives over other portable storage devices such as floppy disks or DVDs/CDs is their compact shape and size; they work faster and can store more data.

Question 4.
Write precautions that we must follow while using CD/DVD.
Answer:
While using CDs and DVDs, we should keep the following in mind :

  • CD / DVD should always be covered.
  • The back shiny part of the CD / DVD should not be touched.
  • Don’t write on the back of the CD / DVD.
  • CD / DVD should not be folded.
  • To clean CDs / DVDs, a soft cloth should be used. You can also use water to remove dust from it.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 5.
What is External Hard Disk drive? Write its advantages.
Answer:
External disk drive is a portable secondary memory. It has large storage capacity. It is a removable device. The external disk drive is connected to computer through USB port. These disks allow user to put sensitive, confidential or important information on them, then disconnect them and store them in secure locations.

Activity

Question 1.
Put the following Terms in respective Groups
1. RAM
2. CD
3. Hard Disk
4. ROM
5. EPROM
6. Memory Card
7. DVD
8. EEPROM
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices 1
Answer:

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Storage Devices Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The size of a commonly used floppy is ……………. inches.
(a) 2.5
(b) 3.5
(c) 4.5
(d) 5.25
Answer:
(b) 3.5

Question 2.
A CD can store ……………..MB data.
(a) 600
(b) 700
(c) 800
(d) 200.
Answer:
(b) 700

Question 3.
1 GB ……………. is equal to MB.
(a) 512
(b) 8
(c) 1024
(d) 256.
Answer:
(c) 1024

Question 4.
Primary memory is divided into ……………. parts.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five.
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 5.
Used to store a lot of multimedia information …………….  .
(a) CD
(b) DVD (Digital Versatile Disk)
(c) B.D.
(d) Floppy.
Answer:
(b) DVD (Digital Versatile Disk)

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 6.
1024 bytes = ……………. .
(a) 1 MB
(b) 1 GB
(c) 1 KB
(d) 10 MB.
Answer:
(c) 1 KB

Question 7.
Which of the following is an optical storage media?
(a) Hard disk
(b) CD
(c) RAM
(d) Floppy.
Answer:
(b) CD

Question 8.
Which of the following stores high definition videos?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) Blu-ray
(d) Floppy Disk.
Answer:
(c) Blu-ray

Question 9.
The CPU directly retrieves information or data from the …………….  .
(a) Hard disk
(b) CD
(c) RAM
(d) DVD.
Answer:
(c) RAM

Question 10.
Which of the following is a secondary storage device?
(a) ROM
(b) Cache
(c) Hard disk
(d) RAM.
Answer:
(c) Hard disk

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

2. True/False

1. The main memory is available in the form of an electronic chip.
Answer:
True

2. The floppy disk can store 700 MB of data.
Answer:
False.

3. A DVD can store 4.7 GB data.
Answer:
True

4. Always write with a sharpened pen on the back of the CD/DVD.
Answer:
False.

5. Do not keep the floppy in a dry, clean and cool place.
Answer:
False.

6. A hard disk can store 2 TB to 5 TB data.
Answer:
True

7. The primary memory comprises of RAM and ROM.
Answer:
True

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

8. The secondary memory is also known as main storage.
Answer:
False.

9. 1 GB is equal to 1024 MB.
Answer:
True

10. Individually, a binary number is known as bit.
Answer:
True

11. RAM is not faster than secondary storage devices.
Answer:
True

12. Bits and bytes are units of computer memory.
Answer:
True

13. A portable hard disk is generally used for taking back up.
Answer:
True

14. The instructions that are written onto ROM can be altered.
Answer:
False.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

3. write the Full Forms

Question 1.
1. KB.
2. MB,
3. GB,
4. TB,
5. ROM,
6. RAM,
7. CD,
8. DVD.

Answer:

1. KB: Kilobytes
2. MB: Megabytes
3. GB: Gigabytes
4. TB: Terabytes
5. ROM: Read Only Memory
6. RAM: Random Access Memory
7. CD: Compact Disc
8. DVD: Digital Versatile Disc.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

4. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two types of primary memory.
Answer:

  • RAM (Random Access Memory)
  • ROM (Read Only Memory).

Question 2.
Name four storage devices.
Answer:

  • CD (Compact Disc)
  • DVD (Digital Versatile Disk)
  • Floppy disk
  • Hard disk.

Question 3.
Explain the differences between RAM and ROM.
Answer:
Following are the important differences between RAM and ROM:

RAM ROM
1. RAM stands for Random Access Memory 1. ROM stands for Read Only Memory.
2. RAM data is volatile. Data is present till power supply is present. 2. ROM data is permanent. Data remains even after power supply is not present.
3. RAM data can be read, erased or modified. 3. ROM data is read only.
4. RAM is used to store data that CPU needs for current instruction processing. 4. ROM is used to store data that is needed to bootstrap the computer.
5. RAM speed is quite high. 5. ROM speed is slower than RAM.
6. CPU can access data stored on RAM. 6. Data to be copied from ROM to RAM so that CPU can access its data.
7. RAM memory is large and of high capacity. 7. ROM is generally small and of low capacity.
8. RAM is used as CPU Cache, Primary Memory. 8. ROM is used as firmware by micro controllers.
9. RAM is costly. 9. ROM is cheap.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 4.
What is a floppy disk?
Answer:
It is a secondary device in which data is stored. It is a circular plastic plate. It is 3.5 inches in size. The floppy disk can store 1.44 MB of data.

Question 5.
Provide information about CD ROM.
Answer:
The full name of CD ROM is Compact Disk Read Only Memory. It can store up to 700 MB of data. The information is written only once in Read Only CD. It cannot be changed after that.

Question 6.
Why we use DVD?
Answer:
The full name of DVD is Digital Versatile Disk. It can store a lot of data. DVD is a type of optical media used to store digital data. A DVD can store 2 TB to 5 TB data.

5. Long Answer Type Questions

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 1.
Describe the types of memory. Answer in detail.
Answer:
Types of Computer Memory –
There are many types of memory in a computer; the most basic is primary memory, also called system memory, and the secondary memory, commonly called storage. Details about these memories are given ahead:

Primary Memory:
Primary memory is the main memory of a computer system. It stores the data temporarily. It holds only those data on which computer is currently working. Primary memory is directly accessed by the CPU. It has limited storage capacity and data is lost when power is switched off. Primary memory is a semiconductor memory because it is manufactured using semiconductor devices. The capacity of primary memory is very limited and is always less than that of secondary memory. It is more expensive than secondary memory.

Characteristics of Main Memory:

  • These are semiconductor memories.
  • It is known as the main memory.
  • Usually volatile memory.
  • Data is lost in case power is switched off.
  • It is the working memory of the computer.
  • Faster than secondary memories.
  • A computer cannot run without the primary memory.

Types of Primary Memory:
There are two types of primary memory:
1. RAM (Random Access Memory)
2. ROM (Read Only Memory)

1. RAM:
RAM stands for Random Access Memory. This is a volatile memory. This means it stores data or instructions temporarily. It is located on the motherboard. When you start the computer, Data and instructions from the hard disk are stored in RAM. The CPU uses this data to perform the required functions. RAM loses all data as soon as you shut down the computer.

The most important thing to understand about RAM is that RAM memory is very fast, it is a read/write memory. It is much more expensive than secondary memory. Due to the high cost of RAM, most computer systems use both primary and secondary memory, RAM is further divided into two types :

(a) SRAM (Static Random Access Memory): This stores a bit of data using the state of a six transistor memory cell.
(b) DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory): This stores a bit data using a pair of transistor and capacitor which constitute a DRAM memory cell.

SRAM:

  • Transistors are used to store information in SRAM.
  • Capacitors are used to store data in DRAM.
  • SRAM is faster as compared to DRAM.
  • DRAM provides slow access speeds.
  • These are expensive.
  • These are cheaper.
  • SRAMs are low density devices.
  • DRAMs are high density devices.
  • These are used in cache memories.
  • These are used in main memories.

2. ROM:
This means read only memory. It is a non-volatile memory. It stores the data permanently. These are the IC (integrated circuits) inside the PC that makes up the ROM. ROM stores a startup program called ‘Bootstrap Loader’. When the computer’s power is turned on “Bootstrap Loader” checks and starts the device connected to the PC. ROM can only be read by CPU but cannot be changed.
Types of Read Only Memory (ROM) :

(a) PROM (Programmable Read Only Memory):
PROM is read¬only memory that can be modified only one time by a user.. Once programmed, the data and instructions contained in it cannot be changed.

(b) EPROM (Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory):
It can be reprogrammed. To delete data from it, place it in front of an ultra violet light. To re-program it, delete all previous data

(c) EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory):
Data stored in EEPROM can be deleted and modified as many times as user wants. Implementing electric field can erase data, no need for ultra-violet light. We can only delete parts of the chip.

Secondary Memory:
Secondary memory is permanent memory. It is not directly accessible by CPU. It communicates with the CPU through the main memory. Secondary memory stores data and holds it even when power is off. It is used to store large amount of data or programs. It is less expensive than the primary memory.

Secondary memory refers to the various storage media on which a computer can store data and programs. Floppy disks, Hard Disks, magnetic disks, magnetic tapes are the examples of secondary memory.
The Secondary storage media are of two types :

  • Fixed: Fixed Storage media is an internal storage medium like hard disk that is fixed inside the computer.
  • Removable: Storage medium that are portable and can be taken outside the computer are termed as removable storage media like CD, DVD, Pen drive etc.

Characteristics of Secondary Memory:

  • These are magnetic and optical memories.
  • It is known as the backup memory.
  • It is a non-volatile memory.
  • Data is permanently stored even if power is switched off.
  • It is used for storage of data in a computer.
  • Computer may run without the secondary memory.
  • Slower than primary memories.

(i) Magnetic Tapes:
Magnetic discs are made of hard metal or synthetic plastic material. Magnetic material is coated on both sides of the disc platter and both sides can be used for storage. The magnetic disk provides direct access to both small and large computer systems. Magnetic audio tapes are used to record sound and music. Magnetic video tapes are used to record analog voice and video signals. These are low cost tapes. Hard disks and floppy disks are examples of magnetic tapes.

(ii) Floppy Disk:
Also known as floppy diskette, it is a removable, portable secondary storage device. This was created in 1964 by IBM. It is a small plastic disc about 3.5 inches in size. These disks have very low storage capacity and can store approximately 1.4 MB of data. It can be read or written by a floppy disk drive.

(iii) Hard Disk:
Hard disks are the secondary storage devices used to store data permanently. It is directly connected to the disk controller on the motherboard. Hard disks are flat, circular plates made of aluminum or glass and coated with a magnetic material. Hard disk platters
typically spin very fast at 5400 to 7200 cycles/minute.

It has unlimited storage space and its storage capacity ranges from 20 GB to 500 GB. It used to install a new program or application on the device. Software programs, images, videos, etc. all can be saved to the hard drive. There are two types of hard disks.
1. Internal Hard Disk: Internal hard drives are located inside your computer. Most computers come with a single internal hard drive, which includes the operating system and pre-installed applications.

2. External Hard Drive:
An external hard drive, also called a portable hard drive. It is a device connected to the outside of a computer via a USB connection. It is often used to back up a computer or portable storage.

(iv) Optical Drives:
Optical drives are a storage medium from which data is read and written by a laser. Optical disks can store up to 6GB of data. Optical storage devices are the most widely used and reliable storage devices. The most commonly used types of optical storage devices are:

    1. CD-ROM
    2. DVD-ROM
    3. CD-RECORDABLE
    4. CD-REWRITABLE
    5. PHOTO-CD

CD:
A compact disc is a flat, round, optical storage medium invented by James Russell. It is a portable storage medium that was used to digitally store and play the audio, video and other data. Compact discs have greater storage capacity than floppy disks. These disks can store 650-700 MB of data. This is a very reliable storage media. There are two types of CDs :

(а) CD-R:
CD-R stands for Compact Disc-Recordabie, also known as ROM is a digital optical disk storage format. A CD-R disc is a compact disc that can be written once and arbitrarily read multiple times.

(b) CD-RW:
CD-RW (compact disc-rewritable) is a digital optical disk storage format introduced in 1997. A CD-RW compact disc (CD-RW) can be read, written, erased, and rewritten.

2.DVD:
Stands for Digital Video Disc or Digital Versatile Disc. It is a digital optical disc data storage format that was invented and developed in 1995 and released in late 1996. DVD is a type of optical media used to store digital data. It is the same size of a CD, but it has a large storage capacity. Some DVDs are specifically formatted for video playback, while others contain different types of data, such as software programs and computer files.

While using CDs and DVDs, we should keep the following in mind:

  • CD / DVD should always be covered.
  • The back shiny part of the CD / DVD should not be touched.
  • Don’t write on the back of the CD / DVD.
  • CD / DVD should not be folded.
  • To clean CDs / DVDs, a soft cloth should be used. You can also use water to remove dust from it.

Pen Drive:
A pen drive is a portable universal serial bus (USB) flash memory device. It is used to store and transfer audio, video and data files from a computer. The major advantage of USB pen drives over other portable storage devices such as floppy disks or DVDs / CDs is their compact shape and size; they work faster and can store more data. Memory Card: A memory card is a flash memory. It is used in electronic devices such as digital cameras, Mobile phones or video game consoles. The memory card can stores data, images, music, games or other computer files. Memory cards have no moving parts so they are not easily damaged. They are more compact and portable than CDs or DVDs, and they can store more data than CDs. The data stored in the memory card can be read with the help of card reader.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 2.
What is secondary memory? Explain its types in detail.
Answer:
Secondary Memory:
Secondary memory is permanent memory. It is not directly accessible by CPU. It communicates with the CPU through the main memory. Secondary memory stores data and holds it even when power is off. It is used to store large amount of data or programs. It is less expensive than the primary memory.

Secondary memory refers to the various storage media on which a computer can store data and programs. Floppy disks, Hard Disks, magnetic disks, magnetic tapes are the examples of secondary memory.
The Secondary storage media are of two types:

  • Fixed: Fixed Storage media is an internal storage medium like hard disk that is fixed inside the computer.
  • Removable: Storage medium that are portable and can be taken outside the computer are termed as removable storage media like CD, DVD, Pen drive etc.

Characteristics of Secondary Memory:

  • These are magnetic and optical memories.
  • It is known as the backup memory.
  • It is a non-volatile memory.
  • Data is permanently stored even if power is switched off.
  • It is used for storage of data in a computer.
  • Computer may run without the secondary memory.
  • Slower than primary memories.

(i) Magnetic Tapes:
Magnetic discs are made of hard metal or synthetic plastic material. Magnetic material is coated on both sides of the disc platter and both sides can be used for storage. The magnetic disk provides direct access to both small and large computer systems. Magnetic audio tapes are used to record sound and music. Magnetic video tapes are used to record analog voice and video signals. These are low cost tapes. Hard disks and floppy disks are examples of magnetic tapes.

(ii) Floppy Disk:
Also known as floppy diskette, it is a removable, portable secondary storage device. This was created in 1964 by IBM. It is a small plastic disc about 3.5 inches in size. These disks have very low storage capacity and can store approximately 1.4 MB of data. It can be read or written by a floppy disk drive.

(iii) Hard Disk:
Hard disks are the secondary storage devices used to store data permanently. It is directly connected to the disk controller on the motherboard. Hard disks are flat, circular plates made of aluminum or glass and coated with a magnetic material. Hard disk platters typically spin very fast at 5400 to 7200 cycles/minute.

It has unlimited storage space and its storage capacity ranges from 20 GB to 500 GB. It used to install a new program or application on the device. Software programs, images, videos, etc. all can be saved to the hard drive. There are two types of hard disks.
1. Internal Hard Disk: Internal hard drives are located inside your computer. Most computers come with a single internal hard drive, which includes the operating system and pre-installed applications.

2. External Hard Drive:
An external hard drive, also called a portable hard drive. It is a device connected to the outside of a computer via a USB connection. It is often used to back up a computer or portable storage.

(iv) Optical Drives:
Optical drives are a storage medium from which data is read and written by a laser. Optical disks can store up to 6 GB of data. Optical storage devices are the most widely used and reliable storage devices. The most commonly used types of optical storage devices are:

    1. CD-ROM
    2. DVD-ROM
    3. CD-RECORDABLE
    4. CD-REWRITABLE
    5. PHOTO-CD

1. CD:
A compact disc is a flat, round, optical storage medium invented by James Russell. It is a portable storage medium that was used to digitally store and play the audio, video and other data. Compact discs have greater storage capacity than floppy disks. These disks can store 650-700 MB of data. This is a very reliable storage media. There are two types of CDs :

(а) CD-R:
CD-R stands for Compact Disc-Recordabie, also known as ROM is a digital optical disk storage format. A CD-R disc is a compact disc that can be written once and arbitrarily read multiple times.

(b) CD-RW:
CD-RW (compact disc-rewritable) is a digital optical disk storage format introduced in 1997. A CD-RW compact disc (CD-RW) can be read, written, erased, and rewritten.

2. DVD:
Stands for Digital Video Disc or Digital Versatile Disc. It is a digital optical disc data storage format that was invented and developed in 1995 and released in late 1996. DVD is a type of optical media used to store digital data. It is the same size of a CD, but it has a large storage capacity. Some DVDs are specifically formatted for video playback, while others contain different types of data, such as software programs and computer files.

While using CDs and DVDs, we should keep the following in mind:

  • CD / DVD should always be covered.
  • The back shiny part of the CD / DVD should not be touched.
  • Don’t write on the back of the CD / DVD.
  • CD / DVD should not be folded.
  • To clean CDs / DVDs / DVDs, a soft cloth should be used. You can also use water to remove dust from it.

3. Pen Drive:
A pen drive is a portable universal serial bus (USB) flash memory device. It is used to store and transfer audio, video and data files from a computer. The major advantage of USB pen drives over other portable storage devices such as floppy disks or DVDs / CDs is their compact shape and size; they work faster and can store more data.

4. Memory Card:
A memory card is a flash memory. It is used in electronic devices such as digital cameras, Mobile phones or video game consoles. The memory card can stores data, images, music, games or other computer files. Memory cards have no moving parts so they are not easily damaged. They are more compact and portable than CDs or DVDs, and they can store more data than CDs. The data stored in the memory card can be read with the help of card reader.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 3.
Explain the difference between primary and secondary memory.
Answer:
Differences between Primary Memory and Secondary Memory:
In this lesson, we have talked about both primary and secondary memory. Both are quite useful in their own way, now we will look at the difference between the both.

  1. Primary memory is also called internal memory. Secondary memory is also called backup memory or auxiliary memory.
  2. Primary memory can be accessed by data bus while secondary memory is accessed through I/O channels.
  3. Primary memory data is accessed directly by the processing unit. Secondary memory data cannot be accessed directly by the processor.
  4. Primary memory is more expensive than secondary memory. Secondary memory is cheaper than primary memory.
  5. Primary memory is both unstable and static. Secondary memory is always unchanging memory.

Question 4.
What is DVD? Explain in detail.
Answer:
DVD:
Stands for Digital Video Disc or Digital Versatile Disc. It is a digital optical disc data storage format that was invented and developed in 1995 and released in late 1996. DVD is a type of optical media used to store digital data. It is the same size of a CD, but it has a large storage capacity. Some DVDs are specifically formatted for video playback, while others contain different types of data, such as software programs and computer files.

While using CDs and DVDs, we should keep the following in mind :

  • CD / DVD should always be covered.
  • The back shiny part of the CD / DVD should not be touched.
  • Don’t write on the back of the CD / DVD.
  • CD / DVD should not be folded.
  • To clean CDs / DVDs / DVDs, a soft cloth should be used. You can also use water to remove dust from it.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 5.
What is a magnetic tape? Explain in detail.
Answer:
Magnetic Tapes:
Magnetic discs are made of hard metal or synthetic plastic material. Magnetic material is coated on both sides of the disc platter and both sides can be used for storage. The magnetic disk provides direct access to both small and large computer systems. Magnetic audio tapes are used to record sound and music. Magnetic video tapes are used to record analog voice and video signals. These are low cost tapes. Hard disks and floppy disks are examples of magnetic tapes.

Question 6.
What is a hard disk and how many types are there?
Answer:
Hard Disk:
Hard disks are the secondary storage devices used to store data permanently. It is directly connected to the disk controller on the motherboard. Hard disks are flat, circular plates made of aluminum or glass and coated with a magnetic material. Hard disk platters typically spin very fast at 5400 to 7200 cycles/minute.

It has unlimited storage space and its storage capacity ranges from 20 GB to 500 GB. It used to install a new program or application on the device. Software programs, images, videos, etc. all can be saved to the hard drive. There are two types of hard disks.

1. Internal Hard Disk:
Internal hard drives are located inside your computer. Most computers come with a single internal hard drive, which includes the operating system and pre-installed applications.

2. External Hard Drive:
An external hard drive, also called a portable hard drive. It is a device connected to the outside of a computer via a USB connection. It is often used to back up a computer or portable storage.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 8 Storage Devices

Question 7.
What do you mean by Optical drive?
Answer:
Optical Drives:
Optical drives are a storage medium from which data is read and written by a laser. Optical disks can store up to 6 GB of data. Optical storage devices are the most widely used and reliable storage devices. The most commonly used types of optical storage devices are:

    1. CD-ROM
    2. DVD-ROM
    3. CD-RECORDABLE
    4. CD-REWRITABLE
    5. PHOTO-CD

1. CD:
A compact disc is a flat, round, optical storage medium invented by James Russell. It is a portable storage medium that was used to digitally store and play the audio, video and other data. Compact discs have greater storage capacity than floppy disks. These disks can store 650-700 MB of data. This is a very reliable storage media. There are two types of CDs :

(а) CD-R:
CD-R stands for Compact Disc-Recordabie, also known as ROM is a digital optical disk storage format. A CD-R disc is a compact disc that can be written once and arbitrarily read multiple times.

(b) CD-RW:
CD-RW (compact disc-rewritable) is a digital optical disk storage format introduced in 1997. A CD-RW compact disc (CD-RW) can be read, written, erased, and rewritten.

2. DVD:
Stands for Digital Video Disc or Digital Versatile Disc. It is a digital optical disc data storage format that was invented and developed in 1995 and released in late 1996. DVD is a type of optical media used to store digital data. It is the same size of a CD, but it has a large storage capacity. Some DVDs are specifically formatted for video playback, while others contain different types of data, such as software programs and computer files.

While using CDs and DVDs, we should keep the following in mind:

  • CD / DVD should always be covered.
  • The back shiny part of the CD / DVD should not be touched.
  • Don’t write on the back of the CD / DVD.
  • CD / DVD should not be folded.
  • To clean CDs / DVDs / DVDs, a soft cloth should be used. You can also use water to remove dust from it.

3. Pen Drive:
A pen drive is a portable universal serial bus (USB) flash memory device. It is used to store and transfer audio, video and data files from a computer. The major advantage of USB pen drives over other portable storage devices such as floppy disks or DVDs / CDs is their compact shape and size; they work faster and can store more data.

4. Memory Card:
A memory card is a flash memory. It is used in electronic devices such as digital cameras, Mobile phones or video game consoles. The memory card can stores data, images, music, games or other computer files. Memory cards have no moving parts so they are not easily damaged. They are more compact and portable than CDs or DVDs, and they can store more data than CDs. The data stored in the memory card can be read with the help of card reader.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Book Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Agriculture Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Agriculture Guide for Class 9 PSEB Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Textbook Questions and Answers

(A) Answer in 1-2 words:

Question 1. Name two breeds of pig.
Answer:
White Yorkshire, Landrace.

Question 2.
How many piglets can be produced by a female pig in a year?
Answer:
20-24 in a year.

Question 3.
How many times does a female pig produce piglets?
Answer:
Twice a year.

Question 4.
How much protein should be in the feed of a dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15%.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 5.
What is the weight of rabbits at age of 12 weeks?
Answer:
1 to 1.5 kg in 3 months (12 weeks).

Question 6.
Name the breeds of goat.
Answer:

  • Indigenous – Beetal, Jamnapari.
  • Exotic – Saanen, Alpine, Boer.

Question 7.
Name the breeds of sheep.
Answer:
erino, Corridale.

Question 8.
Name the native place of Beetal goat.
Answer:
Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarn taran, and Ferozepur.

Question 9.
Name the native place of Jamnapari breed.
Answer:
Western Uttar Pardesh.

Question 10.
Name the age of castration of male pigglets.
Answer:
At the age of 3-4 weeks.

(B) Answer in 1-2 sentences:

Question 1.
Explain the difference between indigenous and exotic breeds of pig.
Answer:
Local indigenous breeds of pigs have a poor growth rate and piglets produced are also less in number.
Exotic breeds grow rapidly and also produce more piglets per year.

Question 2. Explain about economic feeding of pigs.
Answer:
Leftover vegetables in the market, hotel, hostel, etc.; restaurant waste, sugarcane, press mud, buttermilk (Lassi), etc. can be given to pigs as feed.

Question 3.
What is the composition of feed of pigs?
Answer:
Piglets should be given 20-22% protein, and roughage should not be more than 5%. Growing pigs should be given 16-18% protein and adults should also be given 2-3 kg green fodder.

Question 4.
Write the qualities of a good goat.
Answer:
Good quality goat is selected on the basis of its lactation milk for 120 days. It should be able to produce first kidding up to the age of 2 years. It should be high yielding and its body should belong. The udder should be large and teats medium-sized pointing forward. It should have soft shiny hair.

Question 5.
Name the wool and meat-type breeds of rabbits.
Answer:

  • Breeds of rabbit for wool – German Angora, British Angora, Russian Angora.
  • Breeds of rabbit for meat – Grey Giant, Soviet Chinchilla, White Giant, Newzealand white.

Question 6.
Which type of feed is liked by rabbits?
Answer:
Rabbit is a vegetarian animal. It likes to eat Napier bajra, bajra, cowpea, guinea grass, berseem, green leaves and vegetables etc.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 7.
Give a description of nest or box used for rabbit.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animal can be kept in a cage of size 2x2x1 feet.

Question 8.
How many times rabbit produces kitten annually and what is the total number of kittens produced?
Answer:
Rabbit can give birth to 5-7 young ones at one time and can give birth 6-7 times in a year. Thus giving birth to 30-50 young . ones in a year.

Question 9.
What is the wool yield of various breeds of rabbits?
Answer:

Breed of Rabbit Wool
Russian angora 215 gram
British angora 230 gram
German angora 530 gram

Question 10.
What is the protein content in rabbit feed?
Answer:
Protein should be 12-15% in the feed of a dry female and for a milking female protein should be 16-20% in the feed.

(C) Answer in 5-6 sentences:

Question 1.
What are the basic points for profitable piggery?
Answer:

  1. Selection of breed.
  2. Select healthy male and female animals.
  3. Providing balanced feed.
  4. Optimum management e.g. for shed, health management against diseases.
  5. A healthy sow should have tight skin, soft hair, bright eyes, strong legs, and 12 teats.
  6. Mating should be done at the age of 8-9 months and when the weight of the sow is about 90 kg.
  7. Get the piglets castrated at the age of 3-4 weeks if they are meant for meat (pork).

Question 2.
Give details of shed for pigs.
Answer:
Shed should be at higher elevation than the ground level. It should not be costly, but it should be comfortable. For a growing pig 8 square feet, for a dry, female 10-12 square feet space is enough. 20 young animals can be reared in 160 square feet space. Ten sows (females pigs) can be kept in one room. There should be guard railing in the room of sows to prevent crushing of newborn piglet under the mother pig. Railing should be 10-12 inch high and should be away from the wall by 10-12 inches.

Question 3.
Write a note on sheep and goat shed.
Answer:
Sheds should be open and airy. The flooring should be damp proof. Length of shed should be in East-West’direction. A goat or sheep needs only 10 square feet of space. Lamb requires 4 square feet space. There should be wall 5-6 feet high all around the shed or barbed wire to prevent stray animals entering into the shed. Plant deciduous shady trees like mulberry, poplar, dharek etc. around the shed.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 4.
Give composition of rabbit feed.
Answer:
Feed of Rabbit includes cereals, pulses, green and dry fodder, carrots, cabbage, legumes and kitchen waste. Feed is given in pellet form to reduce respiratory problems and wastage of feed. Dry female should be given 12-15% protein in its feed whereas milking female should be given 16-20% protein in its feed. Rabbit can be given a concentrate which is mixture of wheat, maize, bajra, meat meal, rice polish, ground nut cakes, minerals mixture and common salt etc. Rabbits like to take cowpea, Guinea grass, spinach, green leaves and vegetables, napier bajra, berseem etc. Rabbits consume water also which is 10% of its body weight. Therefore there should be proper arrangement of drinking water.

Question 5.
Give details of cages used for rabbits.
Answer:
Wooden boxes can be made of different sizes but there should be proper arrangement for light and drainage of urine. Adult animals can be kept in 2x2x1 feet cages. Weaned kitten are also kept in cages. One cage can be used to keep 20 young animals. Males and females should be kept separately.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about size and colour of White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
Size, medium, colour, white.

Question 2.
Which breed of pig is popular in north India?
Answer:
White Yorkshire.

Question 3.
Landrace breed of pig is Native of which country?
Answer:
Denmark.

Question 4.
When does a healthy female pig come in heat for the first time?
Answer:
At the age of 5-6 months.

Question 5.
How much protein should be present in the feed of growing pigs?
Answer:
16-18%.

Question 6.
How much space is required by a growing pigs?
Answer:
8 square feet.

Question 7.
How much space is required by a non-milking female pig?
Answer:
10-12 sQuestion feet.

Question 8.
What should be the height of railing of the room of female pig?
Answer:
10-12 inch.

Question 9.
Which animal is called poor man’s cow?
Answer:
Goat.

Question 10.
Name Indigenous breeds of goat.
Answer:
Beetal, Jamnapari.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Question 11.
How many days of milk is the basis of selection of a goat?
Answer:
120 days.

Question 12.
What is gestation period for goat/sheep?
Answer:
145-157 days.

Question 13.
What should be the direction of shed?
Answer:
East-West.

Question 14.
How much space is required by sheep or goat?
Answer:
10 square feet.

Question 15.
How much space is required by youngone of sheep or goat (i.e. lamb)?
Answer:
4 square feet.

Question 16.
How many times youngones are produced by goat/ sheep in a year?
Answer:
Three times.

Question 17.
How many times a female rabbit gives birth in a year?
Answer:
6-7 times.

Question 18.
How much is the average age of rabbit?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 19.
Name wool types of Rabbit.
Answer:
Russian Angora, German Angora.

Question 20.
Name meat types of rabbit?
Answer:
Soviet chinchilla, grey giant.

Question 21.
How much protein should be present in feed of dry female rabbit?
Answer:
12-15 %.

Question 22.
How much protein should be present in feed of milking female rabbit?
Answer:
16-20%.

Question 23.
How much green fodder and feed is eaten by a 6 week old rabbit?
Answer:
100 gram green fodder and 50 gram feed.

Question 24.
At what age wool can be taken for the first time from a rabbit?
Answer:
At the age of 4 months.

Question 25.
How much wool do we get from a rabbit in a year?
Answer:
500-700 gram.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write about White Yorkshire breed of pig.
Answer:
It is white colored medium-sized breed of pig. It has long body and erected ear.

Question 2.
Write about Landrace breed of pig.
Answer:
It is an exotic breed. Its colour is white, body is long and has drooping ears. It originally belongs to Denmark. Its meat has less fat.

Question 3.
Write about female pig when it comes to heat.
Answer:
Female pig comes in heat at the age of 5-6 months for the first time. But mating should be done when female attains a weight of 90 kg and is of 8-9 months old.

Question 4.
Write about health of female pig (sow).
Answer:
It should be healthy with soft and tight skin. It should have soft hair. Its eyes should be bright. It should have strong legs and 12 teats.

Question 5.
How much space is required by pigs?
Answer:
Growing pigs need 8 square feet space whereas dry female needs 10-12 feet space.

Question 6.
Why is guard railing fixed in the room of sow?
Answer:
This is put to prevent the crushing of the newborn piglets under their mother.

Question 7.
Write about the beetle breed of goat.
Answer:
It is black brownish with white spots on it. its ears are long, drooping and twisted. Its forehead is convex. It has large udder. First kidding occurs at an age of 18 months. It is found in Gurdaspur, Amritsar, Tarantarn, and Ferozepur.

Question 8.
Write about Jamnapari breed of goat.
Answer:
It is white in color and sometimes light brown. It has a long body and legs are also long. It has brown spots on the head and face. Its ears are long flat and drooping. The nose is convex. It gives a beautiful look and is found in Western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 9.
Write about shearing of wool in the case of rabbits.
Answer:
First-time wool cutting can be done at the age of 4 months. Wool should be at least 2 inches long. At the age of one year, maximum wool yield can be obtained. Annual production from one animal is 500-700 gm of wool.

Question 10.
Write about getting training about the rearing of sheep/goats, rabbits, etc.
Answer:
One can get training from the Deputy Director (Animal husbandry) of the concerned district, Rishi Vigyan Kendra, GADVASU Ludhiana.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Write details about breeds of goat.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Write details about the breeds of pigs.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Guide Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. White Yorkshire is breed of :
(a) Hen
(b) Pig
(c) Cow
(d) Sheep
Answer:
(b) Pig

2. Breed of goat is :
(a) Saanen
(b) Boer
(c) Beetal
(d) Marino
Answer:
(d) Marino

3. Males which are for mutton purpose should be castrated at the age of:
(a) 2 month
(b) 10 month
(c) 15 month
(d) 20 month
Answer:
(a) 2 month

4. Female pig can give birth to piglets per farrowing :
(a 25-30
(b) 10-12
(c) 20-25
(d) 30-40
Answer:
(b) 10-12

5. Female rabit can become pregnant at the age of ……………….. for the first time :
(a) 3-4 month
(b) 6-9 month
(c) 15-20 month
(d) 12-13 month
Answer:
(b) 6-9 month

True/False:

1. Reproduction in pigs is very rapid and they also eat less.
Answer:
True

2. Healthy female pig comes in beat at the age of 3-4 months for the first time.
Answer:
False

3. In a shed of 160 square feet, 10 young pigs can be reared.
Answer:
False

4. Indigenous breeds of goat are-Beetal, Jamnapari.
Answer:
True

5. Breeds of sheep are-Marino, Corridale.
Answer:
True

PSEB 9th Class Agriculture Solutions Chapter 9 Pig, Sheep, Goat and Rabbit Rearing

Fill in the Blanks:

1. Female pig can give birth twice in a year and can produce ……………… piglets per farrowing.
Answer:
10-12

2. Gestation period of sheep and goat is same and is ……………. days.
Answer:
145-157

3. Female rabbit can become pregnant at the age of …………………… months for the first time.
Answer:
6-9

4. Annual wool yield from Russian, British and German Angora is respectively 215, 230, …………… grams.
Answer:
530

5. Average age of rabbit is ………………….. years.
Answer:
5

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Physical Education Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why Olympic Games are called Olympic?
Answer:
Olympic games were started in village Olympia. That is why it is known as Olympic.

Question 2.
When Ancient Olympics started?
Answer:
It was started in 776 in Greece.

Question 3.
What prizes were given to the winner of the Ancient Olympics?
Answer:
The roots of tree from the Goddess of Jess Temple were given.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
Write any two rules of Ancient Olympic.
Answer:

  • Participants must be citizens of Greece.
  • Professional players cannot take part in Ancient Olympic.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic games?
Answer:
Baron De Coubertin.

Question 6.
When and where modern Olympic games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1896 in Athens.

Question 7.
Write any two rules of Modern Olympic games.
Answer:

  • There is no bar to participate in Olympic of caste and creed.
  • Professional players cannot take part in Olympic.

Question 8.
Who has originated Asian Game?
Answer:
It was started with the effort of Maharaja Yadvinder Singh of Patiala and Mr. G.D. Sondhi.

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started?
Answer:
It was started in 1951 at New Delhi.

Question 10.
After how many years Olympic games were held?
Answer:
After every four years.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 11.
Where were the fifth Asian games held?
Answer:
It was held in 1966 in Jakarta (Indonesia).

Question 12.
In which Olympic Mr. Milkha Singh got 4th position in 400 metres race?
Answer:
1960 (Rome Olympic) Mr. Milkha Singh got fourth position in 400 meters race.

Question 13.
In which year India participated in Olympic First Time?
Answer:
In 1920 Olympic Games.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 14.
Which Indian player won gold medal in 2008 Beijing Olympic Games?
Answer:
Mr. Abhinav Bindrg, won the gold medal in the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.

Question 15.
When and where did the Indian Hockey team won Gold Medal for the first time?
Answer:
In 1928 India Hockey team won Gold Medals at Amsterdam.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the founder of Modern Olympic Games? What do you know about him?
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games:
In 1859, the Olympic games were brought to life with the efforts of James. Only the Greeks could take part in these games. These games were held four times, but could not get much success. But the attention of the whole world was drawn towards these games, and the efforts began to make the games successful.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 1
In 1893, a conference of all nations was convened with the sole aim of reviving the Olympic games. In June, 6, 1894, another conference was convened in Paris. It was unanimously resolved that these games would be conducted every four year in some country of the world. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olympic games. With his efforts the Olympic games were a new in the Greek city of Athens in 1896.

Question 2.
Discuss the rules for the competition of Modern Olympics.
Answer:
Entries and Rules For Olympic Games. In order to participate in the Olympic games, a player, whether man or woman, of age-group must be Amateur. All entries in the games are routed through National Olympic Committee. National Sports Committees select players to represent their respective countries, and send their names to the International Olympic Committee.

International Olympic Committee:
In order to organize Olympic games a committee was named International Olympic Committee was formed. It had one representative of each country in the world. Its head office is located in Compague Mon Zeps Lausanne (Switzerland). For this committee, one President, two Vice Presidents and members of the Executive are elected. This committee decides the time and venue of the Olympic games to be held every four years.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 3.
Discuss the various events which have been included in Modern Olympic games. Discuss the opening and closing ceremonies of Olympic games.Answer:
Olympic Programme:
Whichever event is to be included in the Olympic games is recognized first by the International Olympic Committee two years before the start of the games.This event must be played by at least 25 countries. With the inclusion of more games, new programmes and events came into being. The following events have been included in the Modern Olympic games :

  • Athletics
  • Football
  • Basketball
  • Hockey
  • Boxing
  • Volleyball
  • Weight-lifting
  • Cycling
  • Gymnastics
  • Handball
  • Swimming and Diving
  • Roving
  • Canoeing
  • Fencing.
  • Judo
  • Wrestling
  • Equestrain
  • Water polo
  • Shooting
  • Archery
  • Yachting
  • Pentathlon.

Opening and Closing Ceremonies of Olympic Games:
The opening ceremony of the Olympic games is very impressive. The torch which is kept burning with sunrays in Olympia is brought to that city where the Olympic games are to be held. The King, President or Prime Minister of that place announces the opening of the games . It is followed by the March Past by the athletes and oath-taking ceremony. The Olympic flag unfurled and pigeons and balloons are released.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
When and where the Modern Olympic were held?
Answer:
List of Olympic Games held so far:

Second 1954 Manila Phillipines
Third 1958 Tokyo Japan
Fourth 1962 Bangkok Thailand
Fifth 1966 Jakarta Indonesia
Sixth 1970 Bangkok Thailand
Seventh 1974 Tehran Iran
Eighth 1978 Bangkok Thailand
Ninth 1982 New Delhi India
Tenth 1986 Seoul South Korea
Eleventh 1990 Beijing China
Twelfth 1994 Hiroshima Japan
Thirteenth 1998 Bangkok Thailand
Fourteenth 2002 Passan S.Korea
Fifteenth 2006 Doha Quatar
Sixteenth 2010 Goingz China
Seventeenth 2014 To be held S. Korea

The 1906 Olympic games were organised to mark the 10th anniversary of the Games. These were not held after a period of 4 years as usual:
At the time of holding ancient Olympic Games battle between the countries used to be stopped. But it is a matter of pity and shame that the Olympic Games stated for 1910 and then for 1914 were stopped because of the First World War and then the Second World War, and lovers of games could not participate in these games.

Moreover, in 1980 many countries did not participate in Olympic Games held in Moscow (U.S.S.R.) on political considerations. A large number of players who had put in their best efforts in their preparation had to face disappointment when their countries boycotted these games held in Moscow.

The world remained in tension as to what might happen in the Games which were held in Barcelona in 1992. In the Olympic Games of 1972 held in Munich, some players were attacked on narrow consideration of colour forgetting the true spirit of the Olympics. Many players were killed, and the whole world was plunged in sorrow and shame.

The founder of the modern Olympic games Baron de Coubertin might not have even imagined of this tragic fate which the Games met. It would be indeed fortunate if we could continue the Olympic Games in the spirit with which they were revived. History changes, and new incidents happened giving new turns to history. One is afraid if such tragic incidents would bring the Olympic Games to the same point when another Baron de Coubertin had to make efforts to revive them.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 5.
What do you know about Olympic Oath?
Answer:
Olympic Oath:
Olympic oath taking ceremony was started in 1920 in Antwerp. In the Charter of Olympic Games 63 it has been mentioned that an outstanding sportsperson of the host country would take oath by holding comer of the flag by one hand, and raising other hand upward swear as :
“We swear that we will take part in the Olympic Games in loyal competition respecting the regulations which govern them and with the desire to participate in the true spirit of sportsmanship for the honour of our country and glory of sports.”

Question 6.
What is the importance of Olympic Flag and Olympic Motto? What type of prizes are awarded to the winners of Modern Olympics?
Answer:
Olympic Flag:
Olympic flag was first hoisted in the city of Antwerp of Belgium in Olympic games. It was of white colour. It contains five connected circles of different colours (Red, Green, Yellow, Blue and Black). These are like the English alphabet W. It represents five continents i.e. Europe, America, Asia, Africa and Australia. The motto of Olympic games was shown by three words Citius, Altius and Fortius.
PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games 2

Olympic Awards – Certificates are awarded to persons who are placed in first three positions:

  • First Position – Gold Medal
  • Second Position – Silver Medal
  • Third Position – Bronze Medal

In addition to this a medal was awarded to an employee who helps in organising Olympic games.

Olympic Motto:
The Olympic Motto consists of three Latin words Citius, Altius and Fortius. The modern interpretation of this motto is Faster, Higher, Stronger. This represents the athletic games of running faster, jumping higher and throwing more strongly.

Question 7.
Which prizes were won by the Indian players in the 2008 Olympic games? Write the name of players and their games.
Answer:
The 2008 Beijng Olympic Indian won these medals:

Name Medal Sports
Abhinav Bindra Gold Shooting
Sushil Kumar Bronze Wrestling
Vijander Kumar Bronze Boxing

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 8.
Write the contribution of Indian in 2012 Olympic.
Answer:
2012 Olympic games were held, at London. In this games Indian performed very well and won six medals as under :

Medal Name Sports
Silver Sushil Kumar Wrestling
Silver Vijay Kumar Shooting
Bronze Mary Kom Boxing
Bronze Gagan Narang Shooting
Bronze Yogeshwar Dutt Wrestling
Bronze Saina Nehwal Badminton

2016 Olympic games were held of Rio (Brazil) in this game India won two medal as under:

Medal Name Sports
Silver P.V.Sindhu Badminton
Bronze Shakshi Malik Wrestling

Question 9.
When and where Asian Games were started? What is the contribution of India in organizing the Asian Games?
Answer:
Asian Games:
Brief History. The Asian Games were born on Feburary 13, 1949 when representatives of Afghanistan, Burma, India, Pakistan and Phillipines signed the Constitution at Patiala house, New Delhi and thus became the founder-members of Asian Games Federation. The representatives adopted “Ever Ownard as the motto of the games.” However behind that date lies a long period of gestation on the part of the member countries plus the efforts of late Sh. G.D. Sondhi, a former member of International Olympic Committee, President of Amateur Athletics Federation of India and the prime mover behind the founding of the western Asiatic Games.

The inspiration for the Asian Games can be traced back to these fore manners. The Far Eastern Games were held periodically between Japan-China and Phillipines in the first three decades of the century. The Olympic games in which the Asian countries were taking increasing interest, and Western Asiatic Games (for countries east of Suez and west of Singapore), which were held in 1934, but were discontinued with the start of World War II, gave rise to Asian Games.

These two types of sports festival had the idea of bringing together the youth of Asia on the field of sports. This idea was dormant until March, 1947, when the Asian Relation Conference called by Pt. Nehru in New Delhi, presented an opportunity to bring to the notice of the countries attending that conference, the proposal for Asian Games.

Mr. Sondhi raised the question of the Asian Games project with some assembled representatives attending the Asia Relation Conference and also approached Mr. Nehru who readily offered his support for the idea. During the London Olympics in 1948 the plan way again put before a gathering of Asian representatives and the First Asian Games were initially set to take place in 1950. After several postponements, the first Games were finally held in New Delhi March 1951. Since then Asian games have been held regularly four years interval.

The cavelcade of Asian Games went forward as follows :

Second 1954 Manila Phillipines
Third 1958 Tokyo Japan
Fourth 1962 Bangkok Thailand
Fifth 1966 Jakarta Indonesia
Sixth 1970 Bangkok Thailand
Seventh 1974 Tehran Iran
Eighth 1978 Bangkok Thailand
Ninth 1982 New Delhi India
Tenth 1986 Seoul South Korea
Eleventh 1990 Beijing China
Twelfth 1994 Hiroshima Japan
Thirteenth 1998 Bangkok Thailand
Fourteenth 2002 Passan S.Korea
Fifteenth 2006 Doha Quatar
Sixteenth 2010 Goingz China
Seventeenth 2014 To be held S. Korea

Member Contries:

  • Afghanistan
  • Behrain
  • Burma
  • China
  • Hongkong
  • India
  • Indonesia
  • Iran
  • Iraq
  • Israel
  • Japan
  • Republic of Khemer
  • Democratic Republic of Korea
  • Republic of a Korea
  • Kuwait
  • Laos
  • Malaysia
  • Republic of Mangolia
  • Nepal
  • Pakistan
  • Phillipines
  • Saudi Arabia
  • Singapore
  • Sri Lanka
  • Thailand
  • Republic of Vietnam

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the History of Ancient Olympics. (OR) When and where the Ancient Olympic Games started ? Why are these known as Olympic Games ?
Answer:
History:
The Ancient Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Olympia in 776 A.D. The credit for starting these games is given to Ifitus and Claustheius. The games began on full moon night in the months of August and September. The first winner of the Olympic games was Corbus. These games were organised after a year. They got banned in 394 A.D. on the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius. The Olympic city was situated on the bank of Elfis river. It was the sacred city of Elis state. These games acquired special status in 1100 A.D., and began to be taken care of like a temple. With the beginning of the Olympic games, all battles in Greece used to be stopped. Nobody with weapons could enter Olympia. These games are related to Greek God Zeus.

Sports :
The Ancient Olympic games used to begin with race. It used to be 100 yards. In 724 A.D. the distance of the race was increased to 400 yards. In the 15th Olympic games the distance of the race was increased to 3 miles. In the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It included five games-long jump, 200-yard race, javelin throw and wrestling. In 25th Olympic games, chariot race was introduced, and in 30th Olympics, boxing, water- sports, wrestling pekprium and some other games were introduced. At first women were not allowed to participate in games, but then they were allowed to do so.

Rewards :
The winners of the games were amply rewarded. They were taken to the temple of Zeus and were presented the leaves and branches of olive tree. People would sing in their praises. The games were named after these winners. The companions of these winners would bring them home in the accompaniment of instrumental music. The country would take pride in her winners, and all Greeks would pray for good luck to all participants of these games.

End :
With the passage of time these games became more and more popular, and other countries also began to take part in these games. After the victory of Greece by Romans, these games had a severe setback. Some professionals began to take part in these games, thus giving rise to many evils in the games. On the orders of Roman Emperor Theodosius in 394 A.D., these games came to an end. In 395 A.D., the statue of the Greek god Zeus was also broken. The Olympic city got deserted. Roman Emperor Theodosius also destroyed stadiums. For some time even the relics of Olympic games and Olympic city disappeared.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 2.
What were the rules for competition in Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Rules of Ancient Olympics. It was extremely essential to follow the following rules to take part in Olympic games :

  • All players participating in the games ought to be Greeks.
  • It was essential for a player to take up training for 10 months under the care of somebody before taking part in these games.
  • No professional could participate in the games.
  • In the initial stage, women were neither allowed to witness, nor participate in these games.
  • The players had to take oath to participate in the games properly.
  • The players should not have any criminal charge.
  • The first and last days of games were fixed for religious ceremonies and sacrifices.

Sports:
In the beginning, only one game was included in the Olympics, but more games were slowly introduced. First of all the race used to be of 100 yards. In 724 A.D. at the 14th Olympic games 400 yards race was introduced. At the 18th Olympic games Pentathlon was started. It include long jump, Javelin throw, 200 yards race, discus throw and wrestling. In 23rd and 25th Olympics, 3 miles race was introduced. In 28th Olympics, chariot race, and in 30th Olympics, water sports were included. These games used to last for there to five days. At first women were not allowed to take part in games, but they were allowed to do so later on.

Question 3.
What do you know about the opening ceremony of Ancient Olympics ?
Answer:
Opening ceremony and conduct of Games:
Before the start of the games, all the players, their father’s and brothers and the coaches used to assemble in a hall. The Chief Judge would utter some words to them, and they used to take the oath that they would not resort to only illegal ways and means in the games, and that they had a training of 10 months prior to the games. Thereafter, the player and some other people would take part in the March Past. When a player came out in sight, his name, his father’s name, and the name of his state were announced so that the spectators would become familiar with him fully. If a spectator had some objection to his participation, he would make it known.

If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation, he would make it known. If no objection was raised, it was presumed that nobody had any objection to his participation. Thereafter-, the opening of the games was announced. Some distinguished person or the chief judge would address the players, and the games would start immediately thereafter.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 4.
What do you know about the awards of the Ancient Olympic Games ?
Answer:
Awards. Till the 6th Olympic games the winners were given cattle and corn in the form of awards, but this practice came to an end. Then the winners used to be honoured with garlands or crown made of the leaves and branches of olive tree. The players were highly honoured and rewarded, and they used to enjoy high status in society. The award distribution ceremony used to be very impressive. The names of the winners were noted down in the calender, and poems in their praises were composed. The sculptors would make their statues. Gates were erected to honour the winners. Friends used to give them gifts. The Greeks used to honour them in all ways, and look upon these games as a matter of pride and glory.

We can realize the importance of these games from one incident. Once a player, who has earlier won some game, came alongwith his two sons to see them honoured for having won two races in a single day. When the awards were being given, people were so happy and excited that they said that the father had got so much happiness in his life because of his sons that he could not expect more happiness in life, and, it would be better if he simply ceased to be. This incident reveals the people’s extreme love for Olympic games, and their importance in one’s life. During those days people did not participate in these games in expectation of any material or economic reward. They participated in these games for the love of games. They had no temptation.

Question 5.
Write a note on the decline of the Ancient Olympic Games.
Answer:
Decline for the Ancient Olympic Games:

The Olympic games continued for many years with much enthusiasm and zeal, and people in large number used to participate in them. But when people from outside Greece began to take part, the people forgot the spirit of the amateur and turned professionals. These people then made the victory in the games their sole motive.One of the reasons of the decline of these games was the Roman victory over Greece. The decline started because the Romans were not very enthusiastic about these games.

Many evils cropped, up in the games. People began to bribe the judges in order to win. Then some such events came to be included in the Olympics as caused the death of one or the other player everyday. In game like boxing players began to hold iron pieces in their hands which would prove very injurious or fatal, thereby discouraging the honest people from taking part in such games.

In 394 A.D. these games were banned on the orders of the Roman Emperor Theodosius. The contribution of the Greeks in the sprots field was, thus, put to an end. The stadiums and temple where life buzzed with activity turned into ruins, and revealed the decline of the Olympic games. No doubt, everything that takes birth in the world ceases to exist one day as per the law of nature. In accordance with this law, the zeal of the Olympic games got buried under the debris of time, but people continued to have sweet memories of the old days. They continued to talk about these games.

Question 6.
In which country were the 1982 Asian Games were held?
Answer:
In India.

PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 4 Asian and Olympic Games

Question 7.
What place has the Indian player achieved in 2012 Olympic Games?
Answer:
56th.

Question 8.
Which prizes were won by the Indian in the eleventh Asian games?
Answer:
Medals of Indian players in Asian Games Beijing (China), 1990.

Game Gold Silver Bronze Total
Athletics 4 2 6
Boxing 1 1
Hockey 1 1
Kabaddi 1 1
Rowing 4 4
Shooting 1 1
Tennis 1 1
Weight Lifting 2 2 4
Wrestling 1 1 2
Yachting 2 2
Total 1 8 14 23
  • 12th Asian game India won 4 Gold and silver and 15 bronze Medals.
  • Thirteenth Asian games in 1998 and India won 7 Gold, 11 Silver and 17 Bronze Medals.
  • Fourteenth Asian games India get 14 Gold 17^Silver and 33 Bronze Medals. „
  • Seventeenth Asian games were held in incheon South Koren in 2014 in these games won 57 Medals (11 Gold, 10 Silver, 36 Bronze).