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Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Animal Kingdom Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the difficulties that you would face in classification of animals, if common fundamental features are not taken into account?
Answer:
The major difficulties in the classification of animals are on the following lines :

• Some show cellular level of organisation, some have tissue level and even some have organ system level of organisation.
• Regarding symmetry, some are radially symmetrical, while some have bilateral symmetry.
• Some have open circulatory system, while others have closed type.
• Regarding digestion, some animals have extracellular digestion, while others have intracellular digestion.
• In case of body cavity, some have true coelom while others are pseudocoelomates.
• Regarding reproduction, some have only asexual reproduction, while others reproduce both by sexual and asexual means.
  So, these are difficulties that zoologists face in the classification of animals.

Question 2.
If you are given a specimen, what are the steps that you would follow to classify it?
Answer:
If I am given an animal specimen, then I will classify it on the basis of fundamental features which are common to all animal types inspite of the presence of some major differences in the structure and form of animals. The features taken into consideration during classification of animal are as follows:

• The type of arrangement of cells.
• Body symmetry.
• Nature of coelom.
• Pattern of digestive system.
• Type of circulatory system.
• Type of methods of reproduction.

Question 3.
How useful is the study of the nature of body cavity and coelom in the classification of animals?
Answer:
Presence or absence of a cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is very important in classification. The body cavity which is lined by, mesoderm, is called coelom.

• Animals possessing coelom are called coelomates, e.g., annelids, molluscs, arthropods, echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.
• In some animals, the body cavity is not mesoderm, instead the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called pseudocoelom and the animals possessing them are called pseudocoelomates, e.g., Aschelminthes.
• The animals in which the body cavity is absent are known as acoelomates, e.g. , Platyhelminthes.

Question 4.
Distinguish between intracellular and extracellular digestion?
Answer:
Differences between intracellular and extracellular digestion are as follows:
(i) Intracellular Digestion: It occurs inside the living cells with the help of lysosomal enzymes. Food particle is taken in through endocytosis. It forms a phagosome which fuses with a lysosome. The digested material pass into the cytoplasm. The undigested matter is throw out by exocytosis. It occurs in Amoeba, Paramecium, etc.,

(ii) Extracellular Digestion: In case of coelentrates digestion occurs in gastrovascular cavity. This cavity has gland cells which secret digestive enzymes over the food. The partially digested fragmented food particles are ingested by nutritive cells. It occurs in Hydra, Aurelia, etc.

Question 5.
What is the difference between direct and indirect development?
Answer:
In direct development the embryo directly develops into an adult, while in indirect development there is an intermediate larval stage. Certain members of arthropods show larval stage of development.

Question 6.
What are the peculiar features that you find in parasitic platyhelminthes?
Answer:
Hooks and suckers are present in the parasitic forms. They are parasitic flatworms commonly called flukes. The body is unsegmented leaf like, which is covered by a thick living tegument. There is no epidermis. The mouth is anterior and is armed with suckers for attachment in the host. Life history includes larval stage and involves more than one hosts.
Examples : Fasciola (the liver fluke), Schistosoma (the blood fluke.)

Question 7.
What are the reasons that you can think of for the arthropods to constitute the largest group of the animal kingdom?
Answer:
Arthropods constitute the largest group of the animal kingdom. It is estimated that the Arthropoda population of the world is approximately a billion (10¹⁸) individuals, in terms of species diversity, number of individuals and geographical distribution. It is the most successful phylum on the Earth that have ever existed. Arthropods are equipped with jointed appendages, which are variously adapted for walking, swimming, feeding, sensory reception and defence. The appendages of abdomen are associated with locomotion, reproduction and in some cases with defence as well.

The appendages of head are related to defence, whereas those of thorax are mainly associated with locomotion. These features are responsible for its large diversity.

Question 8.
Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following?
(a) Porifera
(b) Ctenophora
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Chordata
Answer:
Echinodermata have the water vascular system.

Question 9.
‘All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates’.’Justify the statement.
Answer:
Notochord is a characteristic feature of all chordates. The members of sub-phylum – Vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic stage. But in adults the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column. Whereas in member of other Sub-phyla of Chordata the notochord remain as such. The urochordate and cephalochordates retain the notochord during their entire life cycle. Thus, the absence of notochord in adult vertebrates suggest that all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Question 10.
How important is the presence of air bladder in Pisces?
Answer:
In fishes, air bladder regulates buoyancy and helps in floating in water. If it is absent, animals need to swim constantly to avoid sinking.

Question 11.
What are the modifications that are observed in birds that help them fly?
Answer:
Flight adaptations in birds are as follows :

• Boat-shaped body helps to propel through the air easily.
• Feathery covering of body to reduce the friction of air.
• Holding the twigs automatically by hindlimbs.
• Extremely powerful muscles that enables the wings to work during flight.
• Bones are light, hollow and provide more space for muscle attachment. Presence of pneumatic bones which reduce the weight of body and help in flight.
• The first four thoracic vertebrae are fused to form a furculum for walking of the wings.
• Lungs are solid and elastic and have associated air sacs.
• The power of accomodation of eyes is well developed due to the presence of comb-like structure pecten.
• A single left ovary and oviduct to reduce the body weight.

Question 12.
Could the number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous mother be equal? Why?
Answer:
The number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous or viviparous mother cannot be equal. An oviparous mother gives rise to more number of eggs as some of them die during hatching and as they have to pass through a large number of developmental stages before becoming an adult. On the other hand, a viviparous mother gives rise to fewer number of young ones because there are less chances of their death. Moreover, they did not have to pass through any larval stage.

Question 13.
Segmentation in the body is first observed in which of the following:
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Annelida
(c) Aschelminthes
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
Segmentation in the body is first observed in Annelida. This phenomenon is known as metamerism.

Question 14.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 15.
Prepare a list of some animals that are found parasitic on human heings.
Answer:
A list of parasitic animals on human beings:

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Plant Kingdom Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the basis of classification of algae?
Answer:
Basis of classification of algae are as follows:

• Kinds of pigments.
• Nature of reserve food.
• Kinds, number and points of insertion of flagella of motile cells.
• Presence or absence of organised nucleus in the cell.

Question 2.
When and where does reduction division take place in the life cycle of a liverwort, a moss, a fern, a gymnosperm and an angiosperm?
Answer:
Reduction division in the life cycle of a liverwort, a moss, a fern and a gymnosperm take place during the production of spores from spore mother cells. In case of an angiosperm, the reduction division occurs during pollen grain formation from anthers and during production of embryo sac from ovule.

Question 3.
Name three groups of plants that bear archegonia. Briefly describe the life cycle of any one of them.
Answer:
Three groups of plants that bear archegonia are bryophytes, pteridophytes and gymnosperms.
Life Cycle of a Pteridophyte: The life cycle of a pteridophyte consists of two morphologically distinct phases:
1. The gametophytic phase
2. The sporophytic phase.
These two phases come one after another in the life cycle of a pteridophyte. This phenomenon is called alternation of generation. The gametophyte is haploid with single set of chromosomes. It produces male sex organs antheridia and female sex organs archegonia.

• The antheridia may be embedded or projecting type. Each antheridium has single layered sterile jacket enclosing a mass of androcytes.
• The androcytes are flask-shaped, sessile or shortly stalked and differentiated into globular venter and tubular neck.
• The archegonium contains large egg, which is non-mo tile.
• The antherozoids after liberation from antheridium, reaches up to the archegonium fuses with the egg and forms a diploid structure known as zygotes.
• The diploid zygote is the first cell of sporophytic generation. It is retained inside the archegonium and forms the embryo.
• The embryo grows and develop to form sporophyte which is differentiated into roots, stem and leaves.
• At maturity the plant bears sporangia, which encloses spore mother cells.
• Each spore mother cell gives rise to four haploid spores which are usually arranged in tetrads.
• The sporophytic generation ends with the production of spores.
• Each spore is the first cell of gametophytic generation. It germinates to produce gametophyte and completes its life cycle.

Question 4.
Mention the ploidy of the following:
Protonemal cell of a moss, primary endosperm nucleus in dicot, leaf cell of a moss, prothallus cell of a fern, gemma cell in Marchantia, meristem cell of monocot, ovum of a liverwort and zygote of a fern.
Answer:
Protonemal cell of a moss – haploid
Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot – triploid
Leaf cell of a moss – haploid
Prothallus cell of a fern – haploid
Gemma cell in Marchantia – haploid
Meristem cell of monocot – diploid
Ovum of a liverwort – haploid
Zygote of a fern – diploid

Question 5.
Write a note on economic importance of algae and gymnosperms.
Answer:
Economic Importance of Algae

• Red algae provides food, fodder and commercial products. Porphyra tenera is rich in protein, carbohydrates and vitamin-A, B, E and C.
• Corallina has vermifuge properties.
• Agar-agar a gelatin substance used as solidifying agent in culture media is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria algae. Funori is a glue used as adhesive and in sizing textiles, papers, etc. Chondrus is most widely used in sea weed in Europe.
• Mucilage extracted from Chondrus is used in sampoos, shoe polish and creams.
• Carrageenin is a sulphated polysaccharide obtained from cell wall of Chondrus crispus and Gigartina and is used in confectionary, bakery, jelly, creams, etc.

Economic Importance of Gymnosperms

• Gymnosperms hold soil particles and thus check soil erosion.
• Many gymnosperms are grown in gardens as ornamental plants, i.e., Cycas, Thiya, Araucaria, Taxus, Agathis, Maiden hair tree, etc.
• Sago is a kind of starch obtained from cortex and pith of stem and seeds of Cycas. Roasted seeds of Pinus geradiana (chilgoza) are used as dry fruit.
• Paper pulp is obtained from wood of Picea (spruce), Gnetum, Pinus (pine) and Larix (larck).
• The wood of Juniperus virginiana (red cedar) is used to make pencils, holders and cigar boxes. Wood of Taxus is heaviest amongst soft woods and is used for making bows for archery.
• Dry leaves of Cycas are used to make baskets and brooms. Needles of Pinus in making fibre board. Electric and telephone poles are made of stem of conifers.
• Essential oils are obtained from Juniperus, Tsugo, Picea, Abies, Cedrus, etc. Resins are obtained from many species of Pinus.

Question 6.
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer:
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, but they are yet classified separately. Because, in case of gymnosperms the seeds are naked, i.e., the seeds are not produced inside the fruit but in case of angiosperms the seeds are enclosed inside the fruit.

Question 7.
What is heterospory? Briefly comment on its significance. Give two examples.
Answer:
Heterospory is the phenomenon in which a plant produces two types of spores, namely microspores and megaspores.
Heterospory is significant in the following ways:

• Microspores give rise to male gametophyte and megaspores give rise to female gametophyte.
• Female gametophyte is retained on the parent plant. The development of zygote takes place within the female gametophyte.
• This leads to formation of seeds.
  Examples: All gymnosperms and all angiosperms, Pinus, Gnetum, neem, peepal, etc.

Question 8.
Explain briefly the following terms with suitable examples:
(i) Protonema
(ii) Antheridium
(iii) Archegonium
(iv) Diplontic
(v) Sporophyll
(vi) Isogamy.
Answer:
(i) Protonema: It is the juvenile stage of a moss. It results from the germinating meiospore. When fully grown, it consists of a slender green, branching system of filaments called the protonema.

(ii) Antheridium: The male sex organ of bryophyte and pteridophyte is known as antheridium. It has a single-layered sterile jacket enclosing in a large number of androcytes. The androcytes’ metamorphose into flagellated motile antherozoids.

(iii) Archegonium: The female sex organ of bryophytes, which is multicellular and differentiated into neck and venter. The neck consists of neck canal cells and venter contains the venter canal cells and egg.

(iv) Diplontic: A kind of life cycle in which the sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic, independent phase of the plant and alternate with haploid gametophytic phase is known as diplontic life cycle.

(v) Sporophyll: The sporangium bearing structure in case of Selaginella is known as sporophyll.

(vi) Isogamy: It is the process of fusion between two similar gametes, i.e., Chlamydomonas.

Question 9.
Differentiate between the following:
(i) red algae and brown algae,
(ii) liverworts and moss,
(iii) homosporous and heterosporous pteridophytes.
(iv) syngamy and triple fusion.
Answer:
(i) Differences between Red Algae and Brown Algae

(ii) Differences between Liverworts and Moss

(iii) Differences between Homosporous and Heterosporous Pteridophytes

(iv) Differences between Syngamy and Triple Fusion

Question 10.
How would you distinguish monocots from dicots?
Answer:

Question 11.
Match the followings (column I with column II)

Answer:

Question 12.
Describe the important characteristics of gymnosperms.
Answer:
Characteristics of gymnosperms are as follows :

• Naked-seeded plants, i.e., their ovules are exposed and not enclosed in ovaries. Hence, the seeds are naked without fruits.
• Tap root system is present. They show symbiotic as speciation with fungi
  to form mycorrhizae or with N₂-fixing cyanobacteria to form colloidal roots as in Cycas.
• Leaves are large and needle-shaped.
• Vascular tissues are well developed.
• Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
• Pollination by wind and deposited in ovules.
• Fertilisation occurs in archegonia.
• Retention of female gametophyte inside the ovule and the ovules on the sporophytic plant for complete development is responsible for the development of seed habit.

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Locomotion and Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the diagram of a sarcomere of skeletal muscle showing different regions.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define sliding-filament theory of muscle contraction.
Answer:
The sliding-filament, theory states that the contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.

Question 3.
Describe the important steps in muscle contraction.
Answer:
Mechanism of Muscle Contraction:

• The mechanism of muscle contraction is explained by the sliding filament theory.
• This theory states that contraction of a muscle fibre is due to the sliding of the thin (actin) filaments over the thick (myosin) filaments.
• Muscle contraction is initiated by a neural signal from the central nervous system through a motor neuron.
• When the neural signal reaches the neuromuscular junction, it releases a neurotransmitter, i.e., acetylcholine, which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma.
• This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of Ca⁺⁺ ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm.
• The Ca⁺⁺ ions bind to the subunit of troponin and brings about conformational changes; this removes the masking of the active site for myosin.
• The myosin head binds to the active site on actin to form a cross-bridge; this utilises energy from the hydrolysis of ATP.
• This pulls the actin filaments towards the centre of A-band.
• As a result, the Z-lines limiting the sarcomere are pulled closer together, causing a shortening of the sarcomere or contraction of muscle.
• Thus, during muscle contraction, the length of A band remains unchanged, while that of I-band decreases.
• The myosin goes back to its relaxed state.
• A new ATP binds and the cross-bridge is broken and the actin filaments slide out of A-band.
• The cycle of cross bridge-formation and cross bridge breakage continues till the Ca⁺⁺ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum which leads to the masking of the active site on F-actin.

Question 4.
Write true or false. If false change the statement so that it is true.
(a) Actin is present in thin filament.
(b) H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments.
(c) Human skeleton has 206 bones.
(d) There are 11 pairs of ribs in man.
(e) Sternum is present on the ventral side of the body.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False, H-zone represents thick filaments
(c) True
(d) False, there are 12 pairs of ribs in man.
(e) True

Question 5.
Write the difference between:
(a) Actin and Myosin
(b) Red and White Muscles
(c) Pectoral and Pelvic Girdle
Answer:
(a) Differences between Actin and Myosin Filament

(b) Differences between Red and White Muscles

(c) Differences between Pectoral and Pelvic Girdle

Question 6.
Match Column-I with Column-II

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the different types of movements exhibited by the cells of human body?
Answer:
Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movements-amoeboid, ciliary and muscular.
(i) Amoeboid Movement: Some specialised cells in our body like macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid movement. It is effected by pseudopodia formed by the streaming of protoplasm (as in Amoeba). Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are also involved in amoeboid movement.

(ii) Ciliary Movement: Ciliary movement occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by ciliated epithelium. The coordinated movements of cilia in the trachea help us in removing dust particles and some of the foreign substances inhaled along with the atmospheric air. Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is also facilitated by the ciliary movement.

(iii) Muscular Movement: Movement of our limbs, jaws, tongue, etc., require muscular movement. Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular, skeletal and neural systems.

Question 8.
How do you distinguish between a skeletal muscle and a cardiac muscle?
Answer:

Question 9.
Name the type of joint between the following:
(i) Atlas/Axis
(ii) Carpal/Metacarpal of thumb
(iii) Between phalanges
(iv) Femur/Acetabulum
(v) Between cranial bones
(vi) Between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle.
Answer:
(i) Pivot joint
(ii) Saddle joint
(iii) Hinge joint
(iv) Ball and socket joint
(v) Fibrous joint
(vi) Cartilagenous joint

Question 10.
Fill in the blank spaces.
(a) All mammals (except a few) have ………………………………. cervical vertebra.
(b) The number of phalanges in each limb of human is ……………………………………
(c) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins namely ………………………. and ………………..
(d) In a muscle fibre Ca²⁺ is stored in ………………………..
(e) ………………….. and ……………………………….. pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
(f) The human cranium is made of …………………………. bones.
Answer:
(a) seven
(b) fourteen.
(c) troponin and tropomyosin
(d) sarcoplasm
(e) 11 th; 12th
(f) eight

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Physics Book Solutions Chapter 12 Thermodynamics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics

PSEB 11th Class Physics Guide Thermodynamics Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 3.0 liters per minute from 27°C to 77°C. If the geyser operates on a gas burner, what is the rate of consumption of the fuel if its heat of combustion is 4.0 x 10⁴ J/g?
Solution:
Water is flowing at a rate of 3.0 liter/min.
The geyser heats the water, raising the temperature from 27°C to 77°C.
Initial temperature, T₁ = 27°C
Final temperature, T₂ = 77°C
Rise in temperature, ΔT = T₂ -T₁
= 77-27 = 50°C

Heat of combustion = 4 x 10⁴ J/g
Specific heat of water, C = 4.2 J g^-1 °C^-1
Mass of flowing water, m = 3.0 litre/min = 3000 g/min
Total heat used, ΔQ = mC ΔT
= 3000 x 4.2 x 50
= 6.3 x 10⁵ J/min
∴ Rate of consumption = \(\frac{6.3 \times 10^{5}}{4 \times 10^{4}}\) = 15.75 g/min

Question 2.
What amount of heat must be supplied to 2.0 x 10^-2 kg of nitrogen (at room temperature) to raise its temperature by 45°C at constant pressure? (Molecular mass of N2 = 28; R = 8.3 J mol^-1K^-1).
Solution:
Mass of nitrogen, m = 2.0 x 10^-2 kg = 20g
Rise in temperature, ΔT = 45°C
Molecular mass of N₂,M =28
Universal gas constant, R = 8.3 J mol^-1K^-1
Number of moles, n = \(\frac{m}{M}\)
= \(\frac{2.0 \times 10^{-2} \times 10^{3}}{28}\) = 0.714
Molar specific heat at constant pressure for nitrogen,
C_p = \(\frac{7}{2}\) R = \(\frac{7}{2}\) x 8.3
= 29.05J mol^-1 K^-1

The total amount of heat to be supplied is given by the relation
ΔQ = nC_pΔT
= 0.714 x 29.05 x 45 = 933.38 J
Therefore, the amount of heat to be supplied is 933.38 J

Question 3.
Explain why
(a) Two bodies at different temperatures T₁ and T₂ if brought in thermal contact do not necessarily settle to the mean temperature (T₁ + T₂) / 2.
(b) The coolant in a chemical or a nuclear plant (i.e., the liquid used to prevent the different parts of a plant from getting too hot) should have high specific heat.
(c) Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving.
(d) The climate of a harbour town is more temperate than that of a town in a desert at the same latitude.
Answer:
(a) When two bodies at different temperatures T₁ and T₂ are brought in thermal contact, heat flows from the body at the higher temperature to the body at the lower temperature till equilibrium is achieved, i.e., the temperatures of both the bodies become equal. The equilibrium temperature is equal to the mean temperature (T₁ + T₂) / 2 only when the thermal capacities of both the bodies are equal.

(b) The coolant in a chemical or nuclear plant should have a high specific heat. This is because higher the specific heat of the coolant, higher is its heat-absorbing capacity and vice versa. Hence, a liquid having a high specific heat is the best coolant to be used in a nuclear or chemical plant. This would prevent different parts of the plant from getting too hot.

(c) When a car is in motion, the air temperature inside the car increases because of the motion of the air molecules. According to Charles’ law, temperature is directly proportional to pressure. Hence, if the temperature inside a tyre increases, then the air pressure in it will also increase.

(d) A harbour town has a more temperate climate (i.e., without the extremes of heat or cold) than a town located in a desert at the same latitude. This is because the relative humidity in a harbour town is more than it is in a desert town.

Question 4.
A cylinder with a movable piston contains 3 moles of hydrogen at standard temperature and pressure. The walls of the cylinder are made of a heat insulator, and the piston is insulated by having a pile of sand on it. By what factor does the pressure of the gas increase if the gas is compressed to half its original volume?
Solution:
The cylinder is completely insulated from its surroundings. As a result, no heat is exchanged between the system (cylinder) and its surroundings. Thus, the process is adiabatic.
Initial pressure inside the cylinder = P₁
Final pressure inside the cylinder = P₂
Initial volume inside the cylinder = V₁
Final volume inside the cylinder = V₂
Ratio of specific heats, γ = 1.4 For an adiabatic process,
we have
P₁V₁^γ = P₂V₂^γ
The final volume is compressed to half of its initial volume.

Hence, the pressure increases by a factor of 2.639.

Question 5.
In changing the state of a gas adiabatically from an equilibrium state A to another equilibrium state B, an amount of work equal to 22.3 J is done on the system. If the gas is taken from state A to B via a process in which the net heat absorbed by the system is 9.35 cal, how much is the net work done by the system in the latter case? (Take 1 cal = 4.19 J)
Solution:
The work done (W) on the system while the gas changes from state A to state Bis 22.3 J.
This is an adiabatic process. Hence, change in heat is zero.
ΔQ = 0
ΔW = -22.3 J (since the work is done on the system)
From the first law of thermodynamics, we have:
ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW

where, ΔU = Change in the internal energy of the gas .
ΔU = ΔQ – ΔW = -(-22.3 J)
ΔU = +22.3 J
When the gas goes from state A to state B via a process, the net heat absorbed by the system is
ΔQ =9.35cal = 9.35 x 4.19 = 39.1765J
Heat absorbed, ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
ΔW = ΔQ – ΔU = 39.1765 – 22.3 – = 16.8765J
Therefore, 16.88 J of work is done by the system.

Question 6.
Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stopcock.
A contains a gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated.
The stopcock is suddenly opened. Answer the following:
(a) What is the final pressure of the gas in A and B?
(b) What is the change in internal energy of the gas?
(c) What is the change in the temperature of the gas?
(d) Do the intermediate states of the system (before settling to the final equilibrium state) lie on its P -V – T surface?
Solution:
(a) 0.5 atm
The volume available to the gas is doused as soon as the stopcock between cylinders A and B is opened? Since volume is inversely proportional to pressure, the pressure will decrease to one-half of the original value. Since the initial pressure of the gas is 1 atm, the pressure in each cylinder will be 0.5atm.

(b) Zero
The internal energy of the gas can change only when work is done by or on the gas. Since in this case no work is done by or on the gas, the internal energy of the gas will not change.

(c) Zero
Since no work is being done by the gas during the expansion of the gas, the temperature of the gas will not change at all.

(d) No
The given process is a case of free expansion. It is rapid and cannot be controlled. The intermediate states do not satisfy the gas equation and since they are in non-equilibrium states, they do not lie on the P-V-T surface of the system.

Question 7.
A steam engine delivers 5.4 x 10⁸ J of work per minute and services 3.6 x 10⁹ J of heat per minute from its boiler. What is the efficiency of the engine? How much heat is wasted per minute?
Solution:
Work done by the steam engine per minute, W = 5.4 x 10⁸ J
Heat supplied from the boiler, H = 3.6 x 10⁹ J
Efficiency of the engine = \(\frac{\text { Output energy }}{\text { Input energy }}\)
∴ η = \(\frac{W}{H}=\frac{5.4 \times 10^{8}}{3.6 \times 10^{9}}\) = 0.15
Hence, the percentage efficiency of the engine is 15%.
Amount of heat wasted= 3.6 x 10⁹ – 5.4 x 10⁸
= 30.6 x 10⁸ = 3.06 x 10⁹ J
Therefore, the amount of heat wasted per minute is 3.06 x 10⁹J.

Question 8.
An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If system performs work at a rate of 75 joules per second. At what rate is the internal energy increasing?
Solution:
Heat is supplied to the system at a rate of 100 W.
∴ Heat supplied, ΔQ = 100 J/s
The system performs at a rate of 75 J/s.
∴ Work done, ΔW = 75 J/s

From the first law of thermodynamics, we have
ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
where ΔU = Rate of change in internal energy
ΔU = ΔQ – ΔW = 100 – 75 = 25 J/s = 25W
Therefore, the internal energy of the given electric heater increases at a rate of 25 W.

Question 9.
A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state to an intermediate state by the linear process shown in figure given below.

Its volume is then reduced to the original value from E to F by an isobaric process. Calculate the total work done by the gas from D to E to F.
Solution:
Total work done by the gas from D to E to F = Area of ΔDEF
Area of ΔDEF = \(\frac{1}{2}\) DF x EF
where, DF = Change in pressure
=600 N/m²
= 300N/m² = 300N/m²
FE = Change in volume
5.0 m³ – 2.0 m³ = 3.0m³
Area of ADEF = \(\frac{1}{2} \) x 300 x 3 = 450 J
Therefore, the total work done by the gas from D to E to F is 450 J.

Question 10.
A refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept inside at 9°C. If the room temperature is 36°C, Calculate the coefficient of performance.
Solution:
Temperature inside the refrigerator, T₁ = 9°C = 273 + 9 = 282 K
Room temperature, T₂ = 36°C = 273+36
Coefficient of performance = \(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}-T_{1}}\)
= \(\frac{282}{309-282}=\frac{282}{27}\)
309-282 = 10.44
Therefore, the coefficient of performance of the given refrigerator is 10.44.

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Biology Book Solutions Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

PSEB 11th Class Biology Guide Plant Growth and Development Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define growth, differentiation, development, dedifferentiation, redifferentiation, determinate growth, meristem and growth rate.
Answer:
Growth: It is an irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ or its parts or even of an individual cell.
Determinate Growth: Although growth in most of the plant parts is unlimited, certain parts grow up to a certain level and then stop growing. This kind of growth is known as determinate growth.

Development: It is the process of whole series of changes which an organism goes through during its life cycle.
Meristem: The cells of which the capacity to divide and self-perpetuate.

Growth Rate: The increased growth per unit time is termed as growth rate. Thus, rate of growth can be expressed mathematically. An organism or a part of the organism can produce more cells in a variety of ways. The growth rate shows an increase that may be arithmetic or geometrical.

Differentiation: The cells derived from root apical and shoot-apical meristems and cambium differentiate and mature to perform specific functions. This act leading to maturation is termed as differentiation.

Dedifferentiation: The living differentiated cells, that by now have lost the capacity to divide can regain the capacity of division under certain conditions. This phenomenon is termed as dedifferentiation. For example, formation of meristems; interfascicular cambium, and cork cambium from fully differentiated parenchyma cells. Redifferentiation: While undergoing dedifferentiation plant cells once again lose their capacity to divide and become mature. This process is called redifferentiation.

Question 2.
Why is not anyone parameter good enough to demonstrate growth throughout the life of a flowering plant?
Answer:
Anyone parameter is not good enough to demonstrate growth throughout the life of a flowering plant because the plants exhibit different types of growth during different stages of their life cycle. In the seedling stage, they are in state of active cell division (i.e., mitotic divisions), then they undergo active cell enlargement stage during growing stage. In the reproductive or flowering stage of their life cycle, they exhibit reductional divisions. Finally, after the formation of various organs, they undergo cell differentiation or get matured.

Question 3.
Describe briefly:
(a) Arithmetic growth
(b) Geometric growth
(c) Sigmoid growth curve
(d) Absolute and relative growth rates
Answer:
(a) Arithmetic Growth: In arithmetic growth, following mitotic cell division only One daughter cell continues to divide while the other differentiates and matures. Example is a root elongating at a constant rate.

(b) Geometric Growth: In geometrical growth, in most systems, the initial growth is Size of slow (lag phase), and it organ increases rapidly thereafter at an exponential rate (log or exponential phase). Here, both the progeny cells following mitotic cell division retain the ability to divide and continue to do so.

(c) Sigmoid Growth Curve: If we plot the parameter of growth against time, we get a typical sigmoid or S-curve. A sigmoid curve is a characteristic of living organism growing in a natural environment. It is typical for all cells, tissues and organs of a plant.

(d) Absolute and Relative Growth Rates: The measurement and the comparison of total growth per unit time is called the absolute growth rate. And the growth of the given system per unit time expressed on a common basis, e. g., per unit initial parameter is called the relative growth rate.

Question 4.
List five main groups of natural plant growth regulators. Write a note on discovery, physiological functions, and agricultural/ horticultural applications of any one of them.
Answer:
Five main groups of natural plant growth regulators are auxins, gibberellins, ethylene, cytokinins and abscisic acid.
Auxins
(i) Discovery: Auxins was first isolated from human urine. They are generally produced by the growing apices of the stems and roots. Auxins like IAA (indole acetic acid) and indole butyric acid (IBA) have been isolated from plants. NAA (naphthalene acetic acid) and 2, 4-D (2, 4-dichloro phenoxy acetic) are synthetic auxins.

(ii) Physiological Function: They help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings, an application widely used for plant propagation. Auxins promote flowering, i. e., in pineapples. They help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages but promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits.

(iii) Agricultural/Horticultural Applications: Auxins also induce parthenocarpy, e. g., in tomatoes. They are widely used as herbicides 2, 4-D, widely used to kill dicotyledonous seeds, does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants. It is used to prepare seed-free lawns by gardeners. Auxin also controls xylem differentiation and helps in cell division.

Question 5.
What do you understand by photoperiodism and vernalization? Describe their significance.
Answer:
1. Photoperiodism: The response of plants to periods of day/night is termed as photoperiodism. The site of perception of light/dark duration are the leaves.

Significance: The significance of photoperiodism is in regulating flowering in plants. Flowering is an important step towards seed formation and seeds are responsible for continuing the generation of a plant.

2. Vernalisation: There are plants in which flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on exposure to low temperatures. This phenomenon is termed as vernalization. Vernalisation refers especially to the promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature.

Significance: Vernalisation prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing season. This enables the plant to have sufficient time to reach maturity.

Question 6.
Why is abscisic acid also known as stress hormone?
Answer:
Abscisic acid acts as a general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor of plant metabolism. ABA inhibits seed germination. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses. Therefore, it is also called the stress hormone.

Question 7.
‘Both growth and differentiation in higher plants are open Comments.
Answer:
Plant growth is unique because plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life. This ability of the plants is due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body. The cells of such meristems have the capacity to divide and self-perpetuate. The product, however, soon loses the capacity to divide and such cells make up the plant body. This form of growth wherein new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of the meristem is called the open form of growth.

Question 8.
‘Both a short day plant and a long day plant can produce flower simultaneously in a given place’. Explain.
Answer:
Petkus winter rye (Secale cereal) gives responses of low temperature at very young seedlings or even at seed stage. If winter rye is shown in the spring, the seeds germinate and produce vegetative plants in the following summer. In this case, the period of vegetative growth is extended and flowering occurs only in the next summer when the cold requirements is fulfilled during winters. The same variety, if grown in early autumn produces flowers in the following summer.

Question 9.
Which one of the plant growth regulators would you use if you are asked to:
(a) induce rooting in a twig
(b) quickly ripen a fruit.
(c) delay leaf senescence
(d) induce growth in axillary buds
(e) ‘bolt’ a rosette plant
(f) induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves.
Answer:
(a) Cytokinins
(b) Ethylene
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Auxin
(e) Gibberellins
(f) Abscisic acid.

Question 10.
Would a defoliated plant respond to the photoperiodic cycle? Why?
Answer:
No, a defoliated plant do not respond to the photoperiodic cycle. Because leaves of a plant are the sites of light perception for the induction of flowering.

Question 11.
What would be expected to happen if:
(a) GA₃ is applied to rice seedlings.
(b) dividing cells stop differentiating.
(c) a rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits.
(d) you forget to add cytokinin to the culture medium.
Answer:
(a) The rice seedlings show extraordinary elongation of stem and leaf sheaths.
(b) Tissue and organ differentiation will not take place.
(c) Unripe fruits will also get rotten due to the ethylene hormone secreted by rotten fruit.
(d) No root and shoot formation will take place.