Prasanna – Page 147 – PSEB Solutions

Gattka Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Gattka Game Rules.

Gattka Game Rules – PSEB 10th Class Physical Education

Question 1.
Write down about the plateform, dress and duration of GATTKA.
Answer:

Plateform: Gattka ring is round in size of 7 1/2 m radius.
Dress: Competitors may wear Jercy or shirt but must have Patka on his head.
Size of Gattka: It is made of Baint, (some sort of Bamboo) and three feet in length from its handle.
Duration of Bout: One round of five minutes.

Question 2.
Discuss the Draw, Bye and Walkover in Gattka.
Answer:
Draw, Bye and Walkover:
1. A draw shall be made for all players after taking the name of the players A,B,C,D,E.

2. Player bearing A will,play against the name of A in a bout.

3. In those competitions in which there are more than four competitors a different number shall be drawn in the first series to reduce the number of competitors in the second series.

4. The player who gets a bye in the first series shall be the first to fight Bout in the second series. If there is an odd number of Byes, the player with the last bye shall compete in the second series against the winners of the first bout in the first series.

5. No player can receive a bye in the first series and a walkover in the second or two consecutive walk overs. In case such a position arises a fresh draw shall be made of the competitors still in the competition to provide opponents to those competitors who have already received bye walk over in the preceeding series.
Gattka Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 1

Question 3.
Draw the table of Drawing bout and Byes of Twenty Teams
Gattka Game Rules - PSEB 10th Class Physical Education 2
Answer:
TABLE: Drawing Bouts and Byes No of Entries Bouts Byes-

No of Enteries	Bouts	Byes
5	1	3
6	2	2
7	3	1
8	4	–
9	1	7
10	2	6
11	3	5
12	4	4
13	5	3
14	6	2
15	7	1
16	8	–
17	2	15
18	2	14
19	3	13
20	4	12

Question 4.
Write about the competition of Gattka.
Answer:
Competitions of Gattka-

1. Limitations of Competitors:
Only five competitors are allowed to participate in a competition

2. First Draw:
If two members of the same team are being drawn together in a series and if one of them wishes to withdraw in favour of the other, a fresh draw will be made

3. Withdrawal:
If a competitor wants to withdraw from the competition after the draw has been made the official-in-charge will report to the organiser.

4. Retirement:
If any competitor wants to retire from the competition due to any reason, he will have to-inform the official-in-charge.

5. Byes:
Byes that arrive after the first series shall be spared for specified time with an opponent approved by the official-in-charge.

Question 5.
Who control the bout of Gattka?
Answer:
Bout Control:

1. All competitions and contests shall be controlled by a referee, three Judges, a time keeper. The referee shall sit in the ring when the number of Judges is less than three. The referee shall complete the scoring paper. The exhibition bouts shall be controlled by referee.

2. The time keeper shall be seated on one side of the plateform while the Judges on the remaining three sides. The seats shall be replaced as to offer a satisfactory view of bouts.

Question 6.
How the points are awarded in Gattka?
Answer:
Awarding of Points:

In all competitions the Judges shall award points.
The points shall be recorded on the scoring paper at the end of each bout and totalled. Fractions cannot be taken into account.
Each Judge must declare a winner and sign his scoring paper as well as signed on all the scoring slips.

SCORING:
1. The competitor who strikes his opponent the greater number of touch with Gattka he will get the same number of points his touching on the head is awarded two points.

2. If the points to each competitors at the end of the bout is equal, the Judge will award the decision in favour of the competitor who has touched the opponent’s head more time of in the opinion of Judge both the competitors are equal in other aspects also, he will favour the competitor who has shown the better defence.

Stopping the bout:

When a referee is of the opinion that a competitor, due to some injury cannot continue the bout, he stops the bout in such cases, the rival player is declared the winner.
The referee has the right to stop the bout.
In all bouts, any competitor who fails to start the bout where there is time loss loses the bout.

Suspected foul: If the referee suspects that foul which he has not seen clearly soon he can consult the Judges and give the decision accordingly.

Question 7.
Write the fouls of Gattka.
Answer:
Fouls:

Hitting with elbow
Hitting deliberately on the back of the neck or head.
Striking a competitor when he is down.
Holding the competitors.
Lying on with head or body.
Roughing
Shouldering
Wrestling
Double blows to the ear
Intentionally falling down without any reason.

Important Information about the Gattka Game

Shape of Gattka platform = Round
Circumference of platform = 30”, 20 c.m.
Length of Gattka Stick = 3’.3”, 100 c.m.
Weight of Gattka Stick = 500
Gattka made of =Bant
Thickness of Gattka = 1/2 to 3/4, 2 c.m. to 3 c.m.
Duration of Bout = 3 minutes 1 1/2,1 1/2 min (two half)
Dress of players = Jersey or Shirt, Patka on head
Officials of bout = Referee Council & Two Technical Officials, One Judge, One Scorer,One Time Keeper.
There are seven players in Gattka team in which five participate and two are substitutes.
Gattka ring in round in size of 7 1/2 m of radius.
The length of the Gattka is three feet from and three meter its handle which is made of Baint
The duration of Gattka Bout is three minutes.
There are three Judges and one Referee to conduct the bout.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Water: A Precious Resource

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 16 Water: A Precious Resource Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 16 Water: A Precious Resource

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Water: A Precious Resource Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 202)

Question 1.
Name three activities by which water is being wasted?
Answer:
Three activities during which water is wasted:

Water pipe leakage.
Washing dishes with running water.
Use of laundry machine with fewer clothes.

Question 2.
Should we check the wastage of water and why?
Answer:
We must control water wastage. Reduce water wastage by purifying water and reusing it at homes, factories, farms and social organizations. Doing so reduces pollution and also saves water.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 203)

Question 1.
…………………. is the process by which water is converted from its liquid state to a gaseous state.
Answer:
Evaporation.

Question 2.
………………….. is the process by which water is converted from its gaseous state to a liquid state.
Answer:
Condensation.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Water: A Precious Resource Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The water we drink is in ……………………. state.
Answer:
liquid

(ii) The process of seeping of water into the soil is called …………………. .
Answer:
Infiltration

(iii) The upper level of groundwater is called ………………… .
Answer:
Unsaturated area

(iv) ………………. means dealing with water in the best possible ways.
Answer:
Water Management

(v) A farmer can use water economically in the field, by …………….. .
Answer:
Drip irrigation system

2. Write True or False:

(i) Water cycle helps in maintaining water on the earth.
Answer:
True

(ii) About 97% of total water present on the earth is freshwater.
Answer:
False

(iii) Repair leaking taps and pipes at the earliest.
Answer:
True

(iv) We are quickly moving towards global water crisis.
Answer:
True

(v) Turn on taps while brushing.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Ice	(a) Oceans and sea
2. Saline w-ater	(b) Rivers and ponds
3. Fresh water	(c) Gaseous state of water
4. Water vapour	(d) Purest form of water
5. Rain water	(e) Solid state of water

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Ice	(e) Solid state of water
2. Saline w-ater	(a) Oceans and sea
3. Fresh water	(b) Rivers and ponds
4. Water vapour	(c) Gaseous state of w-ater
5. Rain water	(d) Purest form of water

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which of the following is responsible for depletion of groundwater ?
(a) Increasing population
(b) Increasing industries
(b) Deforestation
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
The Punjab preservation of subsoil water act was passed in the year:
(a) 2009
(b) 2010
(c) 2008
(d) 2015.
Answer:
(a) 2009.

Question (iii)
The world water day is celebrated every year on:
(a) 22 April
(b) 24 March
(c) 22 March
(d) 22 May.
Answer:
(c) 22 March.

Question (iv)
Ocean and seas cover about ………………… of the earth surface.
(a) 75%
(b) 71%
(c) 81%
(d) 29%.
Answer:
(a) 75%.

Question (v)
We should not keep taps running while:
(a) Brushing
(b) Shaving
(c) Bathing
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What do you mean by groundwater ?
Answer:
This water is present on the upper layer of Earth in gaps between the soil particles, inside the broken rocks is accumulated. This water automatically rises to the surface in the form of a waterfalls. This water can be brought to the surface of the earth through tube wells.

Question (ii)
Why is sea and ocean water not fit for drinking ?
Answer:
The water of the Sea and oceans is not drinkable because of excess salt present in it. One litre of seawater contains 35 grams of salt. By drinking this water dehydration, kidney failure, fainting and even death can occur.

Question (iii)
Define aquifers.
Answer:
Wet Rock Layers. In many places there are layers of hard rock beneath the water table in which water get collected. These layers of rock are called wet rock layers.

Question (iv)
Name the three states of water.
Answer:
State of Water. The three states of water are:

Solid (in ice form),
liquid (plain water) and
Gas (vapours)

Question (v)
How is groundwater recharged ?
Answer:
Ways to recharge ground water:

Rainwater can be used to replenish groundwater.
Farmers in the field can save water through drip irrigation system By doing so water may be replenished.
Administration should manage water supply for houses and should keep a check on water leakage.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Enlist some activities by which water is being wasted by people.
Answer:
The following are some of the human activities that waste a lot of water:

Brushing and shaving with a running tap.
Watering the garden in the afternoon during the summer season. If we water plants between 5 and 7 in the morning then evaporation of water will be less.
Cleaning kitchen utensils under a running tap will require a lot of water.
Washing utensils in the dishwasher when the dishwasher is not full.
Washing clothes when the washing machine is not fully loaded with clothes.
Bathing under running taps or sitting under a shower for long a time.

Question (ii)
How will you minimize the use of water to maintain a garden ?
Answer:
We can reduce water consumption in the garden by :
1. Irrigating garden in the morning or in the evening and not in the afternoon during summer season will reduce water consumption as less water vapours will be formed at this time.

2. Irrigation of the garden should be done with drip irrigation system or sprinkler from which only that amount of water will be supplied as much is required i.e. water will not be wasted.

Question (iii)
How is water important to us ?
Answer:
Importance of Water.
Water is one of the most important resources on earth. All living things need water to survive. In addition to drinking, human beings need water for cooking, bathing, washing clothes, washing utensils, cleaning teeth, cleaning house. Water is also required to generate electricity, for agricultural purpose to manufacture and various utilities.

Question (iv)
How increase in human population is leading to depletion of water table ?
Answer:
Human Population Growth is Responsible for depletion of water table.
As human population is growing rapidly, so does the demand for water for its daily needs. Groundwater is often used for the construction of homes, shops, offices, roads, railways and many other purposes. Such construction also reduces the area under which rainwater seeps underground. In this way we are not only consuming groundwater but also reducing groundwater seepage.

As a result of this ground water level falls. To meet the needs of the growing population, more and more industries need to be set up which makes more use of ground water which causes the groundwater level to fall further. Trees are cut down to meet the needs of the growing population, which deteriorates the water cycle. This is the reason why there is depletion of water table percolating.

Question (v)
Why do plants wilt and finally dry up if they do not get water for some days ?
Answer:
If we don’t water plants it result in dehydration of leaf cells and stems, from which the as a result of which plant, wither without standing upright and die after some time.

7. Long Answer Type Question:

Question 1.
What steps will you take to save water ?
Answer:
Steps to save water. We can save water by taking the following steps:

By stopping water leakage from pipes and taps.
By keeping water taps closed while brushing and shaving.
Instead of washing the floor with fresh water, use mop and reuse laundry water in toilets.
Wash vegetables and fruits with water in a large vessel instead washing them of under a running tap, and finally pour this water into the plants.
Avoid of washing your vehicle (car or scooter) in running fresh water, wash it with a bucket full of water.
Collecting rainwater and using it for various purposes such like cleaning and gardening.
Planting new plants during the rainy season.
By making people aware about water conservation techniques.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Water: A Precious Resource Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) People obtain the ground water through ……………….. and ………………. .
Answer:
Tubewells and boring pipes

(ii) Three forms of water are …………….. ,………………. and ………………. .
Answer:
Solid, Liquid, Gas

(iii) The water bearing layer of the earth is ……………….. .
Answer:
Water table

(iv) The process of water seepage into the ground is called ……………….. .
Answer:
Infiltration

(v) …………………. of human body is made of water.
Answer:
70%

(vi) …………………. of sline water is available on surface of earth.
Answer:
97%

2. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Falling groundwater level	(a) Farmers can save water in the fields
(ii) Maintain the total amount of water on earth	(b) Wet rock layer
(iii) Drip Irrigation System	(c) The water cycle
(iv) Water between layers of rocks below the water table.	(d) Increasing population, increasing industry, deforestation

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Falling groundwater level	(d) Increasing population, increasing industry, deforestation
(ii) Maintain the total amount of water on earth	(c) The water cycle
(iii) Drip Irrigation System	(a) Farmers can save water in the fields
(iv) Water between layers of rocks below the water table.	(b) Wet rock layer.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The total water:
(a) in the lakes and rivers of the world remains constant.
(b) under the ground remains constant.
(c) in the seas and oceans of the world remains constant.
(d) of the w’orld remains constant.
Answer:
(d) of the world remains constant.

Question (ii)
Which one of the following is not responsible for water shortage ?
(a) Rapid growth of industries
(b) Increasing population
(c) Heavy rainfall
(d) Mismanagement of water resources.
Answer:
(c) Heavy rainfall

Question (iii)
The surface of earth is covered with water:
(a) 20%
(b) 29%
(c) 71%
(d) 30%.
Answer:
(c) 71%.

Question (iv)
How much fresh water is available on earth?
(a) 0.003%
(b) 1%
(c) 71%
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(b) 1%.

3. State True or False

(i) The fresh water stored in the ground is much more than that is present in the rivers and lakes in the world.
Answer:
True

(ii) Water shortage is a problem faced only by the people living in rural areas.
Answer:
False

(iii) Water from rivers is the only source for irrigation in the fields.
Answer:
False

(iv) Rain water is the ultimate source of water.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which structure, the vast quantity of water is available ?
Answer:
Seas or Oceans.

Question 2.
Name the various sources of water.
Answer:
Sources of Water. The various natural sources of water are:

Rain water
Well water
River water
Pond water
Lake water
Sea water
Spring water.

Question 3.
Which day is celebrated as world water day ?
Answer:
22nd March.

Question 4.
What is significance of ‘water day’ ?
Answer:
To cause awareness among the people about the importance of conserving water.

Question 5.
Is water abundant every where ?
Answer:
No, the distribution of water all over the world is not even.

Question 6.
What are water vapours ?
Answer:
Water in gaseous form.

Question 7.
How is water supplied in cities ?
Answer:
By a network of pipes.

Question 8.
What is water table ?
Answer:
Water Table. The upper limit of layer of water filled in gaps and crevices of rocks is called water table.

Question 9.
How is deforestation responsible for depletion of water table ?
Answer:
By deforestation, the effective area for seepage of water decreases.

Question 10.
Which floor allows water to seep through it, Kaccha floor or Pucca floor ?
Answer:
Kacha floor.

Question 11.
What are deserts ?
Answer:
Deserts. Deserts are areas which get scanty rainfall.

Question 12.
What are the causes of floods ?
Answer:
Excessive rainfalls.

Question 13.
What happens when it doesn’t rain ?
Answer:
Drought occurs due to lack of rainfall.

Question 14.
Who is responsible for preventing loss of precious water in cities ?
Answer:
Sivil Authority.

Question 15.
What is full form of NGO ?
Answer:
NGO. Non Government Organization.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does water occur in nature ?
Answer:
Water is one of the most widely distributed and abundant substances occuring in nature. It occurs in nature as follows:

Water occurs in wells, oceans, lakes, rivers, springs, etc.
Water occurs as rain water and underground water.
Water occurs in the form of ice and snow in colder regions.
Water is present in the atmosphere in the form of water vapours.

Question 2.
What is rain water harvesting ? Why is it done ?
Answer:
Rain water harvesting. The collection of rain water in tanks etc. to use it in need is called rain water harvesting.
Need of rain water harvesting,

To increase the availability of water.
To store water for later use.

Question 3.
What are the causes of wastage of water ?
Answer:
Causes responsible for wastage of water:

Leaking of taps
supply of water through pipes.

Question 4.
What happens when plants are not watered for a few days ?
Answer:
Plants will dry up, if not watered for a few days.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the water cycle process with the help of diagram.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Water A Precious Resource 1
Water Cycle:
There is a constant supply of water on Earth through various natural methods. All these methods together form the water cycle. During the water cycle, water gets to the earth in one of its three forms:
(i) solid (ii) liquid and (iii) gas. Water from earth’s available groundwater sources – oceans, lakes, rivers, lakes, etc. – evaporates through the sun’s heat and remains in the atmosphere. These water vapours condense to form cloud water and fall on the earth in the form of rain. In the solid state, water is in the form of ice and snow on the poles of the earth and in the form of glaciers in the mountains. Together they form the entire water cycle.

Groundwater,
Evaporation,
Condensation,
Clouds,
Precipitation,
Rain.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for groundwater depletion.
Answer:
Factors responsible for the fall in water levels are:
(1) Population growth,
(2) Industrial and agricultural activities,
(3) Low rainfall,
(4) Deforestation,
(5) Decrease in the area for water absorption etc.
are some of the factors which are some of the factors for lowering the ground level.

1. Population growth.
As the population grows, the demand for construction of buildings, shops, offices, roads, and many other institutions increases. This leads to a reduction in open areas such as farmland and playgrounds. Due to this the rate of absorption of rainwater in the soil decreases. Due to this the groundwater level is constantly drying up.

2. Growing Industries.
Water is being used by all industries. Water is needed in the production of everything. Water used by most industries is extracted from the land.

3. Agriculture.
Many farmers depend on rainfall for the irrigation of crops. Irregular rainfall reduces the availability of water. Therefore farmers have to use groundwater for irrigation. Due to population growth, the use of groundwater for agriculture is increasing day by day. As a result, groundwater levels continue to fall.

4. Poor management of water.
When water is supplied through pipes, leakage occurs in the supply pipes which causes a lot of water loss and therefore causes groundwater levels to fall.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Value of sports

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 6 Value of sports Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 6 Value of sports

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Value of sports Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write down the names of 10 big & ten small games.
Answer:
Big Games: Footbal, Hockey, Cricket, Netball, Throw ball, Volleyball, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Wrestling, Boxing.
Small Games: Touch & go, Tag games Shadow games, hide & seek, Pick the handkerchief. Searching the leader Cat & Mouse, Peeling the skin, Masula-Ghori, Jang-Planga.

Question 2.
What are the fundamental skills of a man? How did the games of today originate from these fundamental skills?
Answer:
Walking Running, Jumping, Throwing all are fundamental skills. All these fundamental skills are improved along with other industries of civilization and we have convert this fundamental skills to this games which spread out in the whole world.

Question 3.
What are the uses of games for man?
Answer:

Development & growth of body
Proper use of Leisure time
Full control over Emotions
Obedience
Spirit of co-operation
Punctuality
Tolerance
Self-Confidence
Firm determination
Spirit of competition.

Question 4.
What Qualities does a man learn by participating in games?
Answer:

Good health
Conditioned body
Full control over emotions
Development of intelligence
Development of character
Development of will power
Spirit of brotherhood
Leadership
International Co-operation
Competitional Co-operation

Question 5.
How games are useful for a country?
Answer:

International Co-operation: Teams of one country go to another countries to play the game. This helps in creating a feeling of friendship between different countries.
Good Citizenship: The spirit of sportsmanship that a player is expected to have, helps him become a good citizen.
Prominent Leaders: A nation need good & experienced leaders in order to make progress. Games help produce good leaders.
Nation Integration: Keeing the nation as one integrated unit was one of the major issues after independence. Games played an important role in keeping the united nation.
Strong defence: A country needs strong, healthy & disciplined soldied to able to defend its borders.

Question 6.
What is the importance of games at the international level?
Answer:
Teams of one country go to other for play the games. This helps in creating a feeling of friendship between different countries.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Value of sports Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Name of big game.
(A) Football, Hockey, Cricket, Table Tennis
(B) Kho-Kho, Basketball
(C) Badminton, Wrestling and Kabaddi
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 2.
Name the small games.
(A) Touch and go, Tag games, shadow games
(B) Cat and mouse
(C) Raja Rani, Circle Kho-Kho
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Main skill of man.
(A) Walking
(B) Running
(C) Jumping and throwing
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
What are the uses of games for Man?
(A) Development of body and mind
(B) Proper use of leisure time
(C) Full control over emotion
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 5.
What qualities does a man born in sports?
(A) Health
(B) Conditioning Body
(C) Development of intelligence
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 6.
How games are useful for a country?
(A) Nation integration
(B) Strong defence
(C) Prominent leader
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In early time how a man can spend his life?
Answer:
Jungli.

Question 2.
In How many types of games are divided?
Answer:
Big & Small games.

Question 3.
What are Indian games?
Answer:
Wrestling, Kabaddi and Kho-Kho.

Question 4.
What are the natural and interested activities of Child?
Answer:
Games.

Question 5.
Endurance firm-decision, confidence, how these all responsibilities comes in our minds?
Answer:
By Games.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the international quality of game?
Answer:
When an particular game of a nation go to other country to play. Which develop the quality of friendship at international spirit with this love & affection all the enimity of the country disappears. and peace prevails among the countries. Sports play an important role in person to person & country to country for brotherhood & peace.

Question 2.
What are the importance of physical activity in human life?
Answer:
Very beginning of childhood when starts some type of activity it is inborn qualities as soon as he becomes elder the activity is increased according to age. These are divided into 2 parts.
1. Natural activities.
2. Traditional activities.
All the games come in traditional activities. Men become physically & mentally strong in sports.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 5 Yoga

January 24, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 5 Yoga Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Physical Education Chapter 5 Yoga

Physical Education Guide for Class 7 PSEB Yoga Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Yoga?
Answer:
The objective of Yoga is unity, union and love. In simple words we can say that yoga means the union of man and God. Science that unites man & God is called Science of Yoga.

Question 2.
What is Yoga according to Rishi Patanjali?
Answer:
To control the insticts of our mind’s called Yoga.

Question 3.
Write any one definition of Yoga.
Answer:
Yoga is that path which leads a human being from darkness to light.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the word Asanas?
Answer:
Asana is an old method of Yoga which makes the base of Pranayam, Dhyan & Smadhi. Asana word means art of sitting. According to scripture Yoga Sutra written by Patanjali Asana is that situation of a person in which he can sit maximum for time comfortably.

Question 5.
How many types are there of Asanas? Write in detail.
Answer:

Cultural Asana: Asana which performed to strengthen body are called cultural Asana.
Meditative Asana: These type of asana is used to the smadhi or meditation.
Relaxative Asana: These asanas are done in lying position. The objective of this asana is give relaxation to the body.

Question 6.
Yoga is only a method of treatment. Write your views regarding this statement.
Answer:
Many diseases are possible to treat with the help of Yoga. Some People assume that Yoga is a method of a treatment & meant for only these people who are suffering from any disease. Yoga can be done by any healthy person & he can save his body from any disease.

Question 7.
What is Objective of Yoga?
Answer:
Objective of Yoga is to unite love & affection with each other. With the help of Yoga we can control our mind.

PSEB 7th Class Physical Education Guide Yoga Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
How many types are there of Asanas?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) None.
Answer:
(A) Three

Question 2.
What do you mean by Yoga?
(A) Adding
(B) Union
(C) Union of Man with God
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 3.
Principle of Yoga.
(A) While doing Asana we should take care of sex and age
(B) Do not exert much force while doing Asanae
(C) Aaanas should be done empty stomach
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Question 4.
Misconceptions of Yoga
(A) Yoga is related to a particular sect
(B) The yoga is meant for men
(C) The Yoga is only for sick person
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about Yoga in detail.
Answer:
Yoga word derived from Sanskrit word Yoga which means unite the soul with God.

Question 2.
Write any definition of Yoga.
Answer:
Yoga is that path which leads a human from darkness of light

Question 3.
Write any one misconception of Yoga.
Answer:
It is related with particular religion.

Question 4.
What is asana?
Answer:
Asana La that situation of a person in which he can sit maximum for time comfortably.

Short Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write any three principles of Asana.
Answer:

Do not exert much force while doing Asana. Body should, be in static & comfortable position.
Asanas should be done empty stomach or four hours after taking meals.
Heart Patients & pregnant ladies do not do difficult asanas.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the misconceptions of Yoga?
Answer:
1. The Yoga is related to a particular Sect:
Yoga was started in India by hermits. Many people consider that Yoga is related to Hindu religion & they consider that Yoga is meant for Hindus Only.

2. That Yoga is meant for men:
Many people consider that people doing Yoga, have to follow strict rules. Hence, it can be done by men only. It is meant for women.

3. That Yoga is’only for sick person:
Many diseases are possible to treat with the help of Yoga. Some people assume that Yoga is a method of treatment & meant for only those people who are suffering from diseases.

Question 2.
Write principles of Asanas.
Answer:

Asana should be done empty stomach or four hours after meals.
Heart Patients & pregnant women should not do difficult Asanas.
Body should be bent slowly while doing asana. Do not give Jerks while doing asanas.
Do not exert much force while doing asanas.
The place for doing the practice of asanas should be clean & peaceful.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Chemical Effects of Electric Current Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of ……………….. , ………………. and ………………. .
(b) The passage of an electric current through a solution causes ……………….. effects.
(c) If you pass current through copper sulphate solution copper gets deposited on the plate connected to the ………………… terminal of the battery.
(d) The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material, by means of electricity is called ……………………… .
Answer:
(a) acid, bases, salts.
(b) chemical
(c) negative (- ve)
(d) electroplating.

Question 2.
When the free ends of a tester are dipped in a solution, the magnetic compass needle shows deflection. Can you explain the reason ?
Answer:
Deflection of compass needle is due to conduction of electricity through the solution because the solution is good conductor.

Question 3.
Name three liquids, which when tested in a manner shown in fig. may causes the magnetic needle to deflect.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 1
Answer:

Acid
Base
Acidulated water.

Question 4.
The bulb does not glow in the setup shown in fig. List the possible reasons. Explain you answer.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 2
Answer:
The set up shows no glowing of the bulb but it does not mean that liquid is not conducting electricity. Liquid may be so weak electrolyte that it can not make the bulb glow. So, to test it for surity, LED can be used, which glows for very minute currents.

Question 5.
A tester is used to check the conduction of electricity through two liquids labelled A and B. It is found that the bulb of the tester glows very brightly for liquid A while it glows dimly for liquid B. You would conclude that.
(i) liquid A is better conductor than liquid B.
(ii) liquid B is better conductor than liquid A.
(iii) both liquids are equally conducting.
(iv) conducting properties of liquids cannot be compared in this manner.
Answer:
(i) Liquid A is better conductor than liquid B.

Question 6.
Does pure water conduct electricity ? If not, what can we do to make it conducting ?
Answer:
Pure water does not conduct electricity but it can be made good conductor by adding few drops of dil. sulphuric acid. The water so obtained is called acidulated water.

Question 7.
In case of a fire, before the firemen use the water hoses, they shut off the main electrical supply for the area. Explain why they do this.
Answer:
Pure water is an insulator but tap water is a good conductor of electricity. To avoid electrocuting, firemen manually shut off the supply before using water hoses.

Question 8.
A child staying in the coastal regions tests the drinking water and also the sea water with his tester. He finds that the compass needle deflects more in case of sea water. Can you explain the reason ?
Answer:
Since sea water is rich in salt concentration. So, compass needle is more deflected in sea water as compared to the drinking water available in coastal areas.

Question 9.
Is it safe for electrician to carry out electrical repairs outdoor during heavy downpour ? Explain.
Answer:
No, it is not safe for a wireman to carry out electrical repairs during heavy down pour because water (Impure) is a conductor of electricity. So, wireman can get electric shock.

Question 10.
Paheli had heard that rain water is as good as distilled water. So she collected some rainwater in a clean glass tumbler and tested it using a tester. To her surprise she found that compass needle showed deflection. What could be the reasons ?
Answer:
No doubt, rain water is pure like distilled water. But then environment is contaminated with many impurities. These impurities get dissolved in rain water, making it a conductor of electric current.

Question 11.
Prepare a list of objects around you that are electroplated.
Answer:
Electroplated objects.

Handle bar of cycle.
Wheel rims.
Artificial ornaments.
Bath taps.
Kitchen gas burners.

Question 12.
The process that you saw in Activity 14.7 is used for purification of copper. A thin plate of pure copper and a thick rod of impure copper are used as electrodes. Copper from impure rod is sought to be transferred to the thin copper plate. Which electrode should be attached to positive terminal of the battery and why ?
Answer:
Thick rod of impure copper is to be attached to positive terminal of battery as pure copper moves to electrode connected to negative terminal of the battery.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chemical Effects of Electric Current Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In order to keep the flow of electricity continue in circuit, which of the following items should be used in place of iron nail in the given circuit.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 3
(a) Graphite
(b) Plastic
(c) Wood
(d) Rubber.
Answer:
(a) Graphite.

Question 2.
Pankaj knows that pure water is bad conductor of electricity. If you dissolve salt in water then what will happen ?
(а) Water will become good conductor of electricity.
(b) Water will remain bad conductor of electricity.
(c) Water will neither be a good conductor nor a bad conductor of electricity.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Water will become good conductor of electricity.

Question 3.
Which out of the following is insulator of electricity ?
(a) Acid
(b) Bases
(c) Pure water
(d) Solutions of salt
Answer:
(c) Pure water

Question 4.
Which out of the following is not an insulator ?
(a) Rubber
(b) Plastic
(c) Wood
(d) Copper
Answer:
(d) Copper

Question 5.
What is the effect of passing electric current through the solution of electrolytes ?
(a) Magnetic effect
(b) Heat effect
(c) Chemical effect
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Chemical effect.

Question 6.
Which effect of electric current is used in electroplating ?
(a) Magnetic effect
(b) Chemical effect
(c) Heat effect
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Chemical effect

Question 7.
The availability of some amount of impurities make water:
(a) conductor
(b) insulator
(c) pure
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) conductor.

Question 8.
A tester is used to check the conduction of electricity through two liquids labelled A and B. It is found that the bulb of the tester glows very brightly for liquid A while it glows dimly for liquid B, you would conclude that:
(а) Liquid A is better conductor than liquid B
(b) Liquid B is better conductor than liquid A
(c) Both liquids are equally conducting
(d) Conducting properties of liquids cannot be compared in this manner.
Answer:
(a) liquid A is better conductor-than liquid B.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is human body a conductor or an insulator ?
Answer:
Conductor.

Question 2.
What are conductors ?
Answer:
Conductors.
Materials like silver, copper, aluminium, iron and human body etc. which allow electric current to pass through them, are called conductors.

Question 3.
What are insulators ? Give two examples.
Answer:
Insulators.
Materials like wood, rubber, silk, plastic etc. which do not allow electric current to pass through them, are called insulators.

Question 4.
Do all liquids allow electric current to pass through them ?
Answer:
No.

Question 5.
What is LED ? ,
Answer:
LED-Light Emitting Diode.

Question 6.
Name the phenomenon of breaking up of a chemical compound under the action of electric current.
Answer:
Electrolysis.

Question 7.
What do we get on electrolysis of acidulated water ?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas and Oxygen gas.

Question 8.
Which effect of current is used in electroplating ?
Answer:
Chemical effect.

Question 9.
Which effect of current makes a bulb glow ?
Answer:
Heating effect.

Question 10.
How can small current be tested ?
Answer:
By using LEDs.

Question 11.
Name different effects of electric current.
Answer:

Heating effect,
lighting effect,
chemical effect and
magnetic effect.

Question 12.
Is air an insulator ?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 13.
Name few liquids which can conduct electricity.
Answer:
Lime water, lemon juice, vinegar, tap water.

Question 14.
Can conductors be classified as insulators or vice versa under special conditions ?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 15.
Which commonly used liquids can conduct electricity ?
Answer:
Solution of acids, bases and salts.

Question 16.
What are electrodes ?
Answer:
Electrodes.
Metallic rods or plates immersed in electrolytes to make contact with battery, are called electrodes.

Question 17.
By which phenomenon cheap articles are coated with gold or expensive metals ?
Answer:
Electroplating.

Question 18.
Is electroplating useful process ?
Answer:
Yes.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Air is a bad conductor of electricity. Show with an experiment.
Answer:
Air-a bad conductor of electricity.
Take a battery bulb and connect it to a cell and a switch. When the switch is fixed with a safety pin then the current flows and bulb glows, but when safety pin is removed then there is only air between the gap of switch and current does not flow. It shows that air is bad conductor of electricity.

Question 2.
What is electrolysis ?
Answer:
Electrolysis.
Breaking up of chemical compounds under the action of electric current, is called electrolysis. When we pass electric current through water (acidulated), it breaks up into its constituents : hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is liberated at the cathode whereas oxygen is liberated at the anode.

Question 3.
What is electroplating ?
Answer:
Electroplating.
Process of electrolysis is used to deposit thin layers of valuable metals (like zinc, silver or gold) on cheaper metals by the passage of electricity through electrolyte to save them from rusting whereas to give them a decorative look. This process is called electroplating.

Question 4.
Give a brief account of LED.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 4
LED.
It is light emitting diode. It glows even when the current is .very small. It consists a bulb with two legs called leads. One leg is longer and other leg is shorter.
Longer leg is attached to +ve terminal of battery and shorter leg is attached to -ve terminal.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is water a good conductor ? What happens when common salt is added to water ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 5
Pure or distilled water is an insulator.
Experiment.
Dip two carbon rods in distilled water and connect it to a bulb, 6 V battery and a key. The bulb will not light up showing that distilled water is a bad conductor of electricity.

Now replace distilled water by water mixed with common salt. The bulb will at once light up, when key is introduced. This shows that distilled water is perfectly insulator, impure water specially one containing common salt is highly conducting.

Question 2.
What is electroplating ? Give its uses.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 6
Electroplating.
It is the process by which a costlier metal is deposited on base or cheap metal by passing current through its salt solution. When an electric current is passed through an electrolyte (the compound) breaks up into its constituent ions.

Positive ions are attracted towards cathode (negative electrode) and negative ions are attracted towards anode (positive electrode). This process of electrolysis is used in plating materials with a thin coat of metals is called electroplating.

Uses of Electroplating:

Iron is electroplated with nickel or chromium to prevent it from rusting.
Artificial jewellery, made from cheap metals is electroplated with expensive metals like gold and silver to give it an attractive look.
Handle bars of cycle, wheel rims, car parts etc. are coated with chromium to give a shiny look.
Tin cans are made by electroplating a layer of tin on the iron.

Question 3.
How can a spoon be copper plated ?
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 7
Experiment.
Take a spoon that is to be electroplated with copper. Take a copper plate and make it anode by connecting it to the positive terminal of the battery. The spoon is connected to the negative terminal of the battery. A rheostat (Variable resistance); key and ammeter are also connected in series as shown. CuSO4 solution is put in a glass vessel. A rheostat is adjusted till a proper current flows through electrolyte [For best electroplating 1A of current should be passed for every 100 cm2 of the surface to be electroplated say if the area of a spoon on both sides is 60 cm2, a current of 0.6 A should be passed.] Pass the current for 5-10 minutes, till a layer of shinning copper is seen deposited on a spoon.

PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System

PSEB 8th Class Science Guide Stars and the Solar System Textbook Questions and Answers

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the solar system?
[a] An asteroid
[b] A satellite
[c] A constellation
[d] A comet
Answer:
[d] A comet.

Question 2.
Which of the following is NOT planet of the sun?
[а] Sirius
[b] Mercury
[c] Saturn
[d] Earth
Answer:
[a] Sirius.

Question 3.
Phases of the moon occur because
(a) we can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.
(b) our distance from the moon keeps changing.
(c) the shadow of the earth covers only a part of moon’s surface.
(d) the thickness of the moon’s atmosphere is not constant.
Answer:
(a) We can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks.
(а) The planet which is farthest from the sun is …………………….. .
(b) The planet which appears reddish in colour is …………………… .
(c) A group of stars that appear to form a pattern in the sky is known as a …………………….. .
(d) A celestial body that revolves around a planet is known as ………………………. .
(e) Shooting stars are actually not ………………………………….. .
(f) Asteroids are found between the orbits of ……………………. and …………………………… .
Answer:
(a) Neptune
(b) Mars
(c) Constellation
(d) Satellite
(e) Stars
(f) Mars, Jupiter.

Question 5.
Mark the following statements as true (T) or false (F) :
(a) Pole star is a member of our solar system. ()
(b) Mercury is the smallest planet of the solar system. ()
(c) Uranus is the farthest planet in the solar system. ()
(d) INSAT is an artificial satellite. ()
(e) There are nine planets in the solar system. ()
(f) Constellation Orion can be seen only with a telescope. ()
Answer:
(a) (T)
(b) (T)
(c) (F)
(d) (T)
(e) (F)
(f) (F).

Question 6.
Match items in column A with one or more items in column B
Answer:

Column A	Column B
(i) Inner planets	(a) Saturn
(ii) Outer planets	(b) Pole star
(iii) Constellation	(c) Great Bear
(iv) Satellite of the earth	(d) Moon
	(e) Earth
	(f) Orion
	(g) Mars

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(i) Inner planets	(e) Earth
	(g) Mars
(ii) Outer planets	(a) Saturn
(iii) Constellation	(c) Great Bear
	(f) Orion
(iv) Satellite of the Earth	(d) Moon

Question 7.
In which part of the sky can you find Venus if it is visible as an evening star?
Answer:
In west part of the sky.

Question 8.
Name the largest planet of the solar system.
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 9.
What is a constellation? Name any two constellations.
Answer:
Constellations are small groups of stars appearing in the space having specific common shapes. All the stars of a group always stay together and their positions are fixed relative to each other e.g. Ursa Major.

Question 10.
Draw sketches to show the relative positions of prominent stars in
(a) Ursa Major
(b) Orion.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 1

Question 11.
Name two objects other than planets which are members of the solar system.
Answer:
Asteroids, Meteors, Natural satellite.

Question 12.
Explain how you can locate the Pole Star with the help of Ursa Major.
Answer:
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 2
Ursa major changes its position in the sky after every three hours, it appears to revolve around fixed star. This fixed star is pole star.

Question 13.
Do all the stars in the sky move? Explain.
Answer:
All the stars except pole stars, appear to move in the sky from east to west as the earth rotates from west to east about its axis. Pole star is situated in the direction of axis of the earth, so it appears to be stationary.

Question 14.
Why is the distance between stars expressed in light years? What do you understand by the statement that a star is eight light-years away from the earth?
Answer:
Distance between the stars is very large. It is of the order of millions or billions kilometres. So, it is not convenient to express the distance in kilometres. So another larger unit called light-year is used to express distance between the stars. It can be defined as distance travelled by light in one year.

When a star is 8 light-years from the earth it means, light with speed of 3 × 10⁸ m/sec, takes 8 years to cover that distance from earth to that star.
Now 1 light year = 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m
.’. 8 light years = 8 × 9.45 × 10¹⁵ m
= 75.6 × 10¹⁵ m
So, earth is 7.56 x 1016 m away from the given star.

Question 15.
The radius of Jupiter is 11 times the radius of the Earth. Calculate the ratio of the volumes of Jupiter and the Earth. How many Earths can Jupiter accommodate?
Answer:
Let R be radius of the Earth.
then volume of the Earth = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^{3}\)
and volume of Jupiter = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^{\prime 3}\)
= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \pi(11 \mathrm{R})^{3}\) [as R’= 11R]
Now Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Volume of the Earth }}{\text { Volume of the Jupiter }}=\frac{\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^{3}}{\frac{4}{3} \pi(11 \mathrm{R})^{3}}=\frac{1}{1331}\)
or 1:1331

Question 16.
Bojo made the following sketch of the solar system. Is the sketch correct ?.’If not, correct it.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 3
Answer:

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Science Stars and the Solar System Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Parvinder saw a constellation in the sky in a clear dark night. Name this constellation.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 5
(a) Saptarishi
(b) Orion
(c) Cassiopia
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Sapatrishi.

Question 2.
The planet which is nearest to the sun?
(a) Earth
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Mercury.

Question 3.
Which planet is called red planet?
(a) Mars
(b) Mercury
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(a) Mars

Question 4.
Which is the brightest planet at night?
(a) Mercury
(b) Earth
(c) Venus
(d) Mars
Answer:
(c) Venus.

Question 5.
The planet which is farthest from the Sun is :
(a) Neptune
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mercury
(d) Earth
Answer:
(a) Neptune.

Question 6.
Name the first Indian Artificial satellite.
(a) INSAT
(b) IRS
(c) Arya Bhatta
(d) Kalpana-I
Answer:
(c) Arya Bhatta.

Question 7.
Name the planet of the solar system where life exists.
(a) Mercury
(b) Earth
(c) Mars
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(b) Earth.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not the member of solar system?
(a) An asteroid
(b) A satellite
(c) A constellation
(d) A comet
Answer:
(c) A constellation.

Question 9.
Which of the following is not planet of the solar system?
(a) Sirius
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Earth
Answer:
(a) Sirius.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the star closest to earth other than sun.
Answer:
Alpha century.

Question 2.
How much time does light take to reach us from Alpha century.
Answer:
4.3 years.

Question 3.
Which constellation looks like a big kite with a tail?
Answer:
Ursa-major constellation.

Question 4.
Name the constellation which looks like a cluster of twinkling gems in the night sky.
Answer:
Pleides constellation.

Question 5.
Define a light year.
Answer:
Light year. It is the distance travelled by light with a speed of 3,00,000 km/ hr in one year.
1 light year = 9.46 × 10¹² km.

Question 6.
How far is the sun from the earth?
Answer:
The sun is at a distance of 1.5 × 10⁸ km from the earth.

Question 7.
Which planet is known as the red planet?
Answer:
Mars.

Question 8.
Which planet rotates on its axis from East to West?
Answer:
Uranus.

Question 9.
Which force hold the planets in their orbits around the sun?
Answer:
Gravitational force of the sun holds the planets in their orbits around the sun.

Question 10.
What are Asteroids?
Answer:
Asteroids. The small solid objects made up of rocks and minerals, which move in the gap between the orbits of the Mars and Jupiter are called Asteroids.

Question 11.
What are meteorites?
Answer:
Meteorites are small chunks of rock or metal that are leftovers of broken comets. They are called meteors while falling through the atmosphere and appearing as streak of light. But those meteors that fall on the earth surface are called meteorites.

Question 12.
What are phases of moon?
Answer:
The shape of the bright part of the moon changes slightly every day. These are called phases of moon.

Question 13.
What is an artificial satellite?
Answer:
Artificial Satellite. It is an object which is made to revolve around the earth or any object.

Question 14.
Write two uses of artificial satellites.
Answer:
Uses of Artificial Satellites. Artificial satellites are used for long-distance communication, research, remote sensing and defence.

Question 15.
Which planet has maximum of satellites?
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 16.
Why is Pole star stationary?
Answer:
It is because pole star is situated on the axis of the earth.

Question 17.
Which is natural satellite of the earth?
Answer:
Moon.

Question 18.
Why can’t Moon surface be used for communication?
Answer:
It is because moon has no atmosphere.

Question 19.
Which is the biggest planet of the solar system?
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 20.
Which is the nearest planet of the earth?
Answer:
Mars.

Question 21.
In which part of the sky and at what time of the year are the following constellations seen? Scorpio, Great Bear, Pole Star and the Orion.
Answer:
1. Scorpio is visible in summer.
2. Great bear (Saptarishi) is visible in autumn.

Pole star is visible in north throughout the year.
Orion (Vyadha) is visible in winter in southern sky only.

Question 22.
When was Halley’s comet last seen?
Answer:
In 1986.

Question 23.
Name the nearest and the farthest planet from the sun.
Answer:
The nearest planet from the sun is Mercury and the farthest planet is Neptune.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How can you identify Ursa Major?
Answer:
Identification of Ursa Major. It is a group of seven bright stars. It appears like a large ladle or a question mark. The two stars marked 1 and 2 at the top of the ladle are called Pointers, as the line joining them points towards the polar star.

Question 2.
What are planets? How many planets are there in the solar system? Name them.
Answer:
Planets. The bright objects in the night sky which don’t twinkle like the stars and appear to change their positions with respect to the stars are called planets. In the solar system, there are nine planets. These are: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Pluto and Neptune.

Question 3.
Give three points of difference between a star and planet.
Answer:
Differences between star and planet.

Star	Planet
1. They are very hot.	1. They are not very hot.
2. They emit their own heat and light.	2. They reflect the sun’s energy falling over them.
3. They twinkle.	3. They don’t twinkle.
4. They are dot-shaped.	4. They are disc-shaped.
5. They travel in the sky from East to West.	5. They travel in sky around the sun from West to East.

Question 4.
Why is life possible of the earth?
Answer:
The earth has sufficient oxygen and water necessary for life. The temperature on earth is suitable for the existence of life. Also there is an ozone layer around earth which prevents the habitants from the harmful solar radiations. Therefore, all the conditions for the evolution of life are fulfilled on the earth.

Question 5.
Do all the stars of a constellation lie really close together?
Answer:
The various stars forming a constellation are rarely close to each other in space. The stars are in the same direction but at quite different distances from us. They appear to our eye was close together, although they are not really so.

Question 6.
Name the planets which can be identified with naked eye.
Answer:
Besides our own earth, we can identify only five other planets with naked eye. These planets are Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter and Saturn.

Question 7.
What is the solar system? Name the planets situated between the sun and the earth.
Answer:
Solar System. The sun and its family i.e. planets, satellites, asteroids, comets, etc. is called as solar system. The sun is at the centre of the solar system and all members of the solar system are revolving around the sun in elliptical paths, called orbits. The planets situated between the sun and the earth are Mercury and Venus.

Question 8.
What is pole star and why is it important?
Answer:
Pole Star. All the stars except one, appear to be shifting their positions in the sky. There is only one star called pole star, which does not shift its position. It is lying in North above the north pole on the axis of rotation of the earth. It is used as a direction finder by sailors and those working in, offshore drilling operations.

Question 9.
Differentiate between a star and a shooting star.
Answer:
Differences between a star and a shooting star :

Star	Shooting Star
1. A star is made up of hot gases such as hydrogen and helium.	1. A shooting star is made up of rock and metal particles.
2. A star emits light due to the nuclear reaction taking place in it.	2. A shooting star emits light due to the heat produced by friction on entering the atmosphere.
3. The size of a star is very big.	3. The size of a shooting star is very small. It may be as small as a dust particle.

Question 10.
What are meteors or the shooting stars?
Answer:
Meteors or the Shooting Stars. You must have seen certain objects which appear to fall from the sky leaving a streak of light. They are also called shooting stars. Word ‘STAR’ is in fact misleading since they are neither themselves stars nor in any way connected with stars. These are pieces of rock floating in space.

When these floating rocks enter the earth’s atmosphere, they experience a lot of friction of air and get burnt. They appear as a ball of fire falling towards earth emitting intense light. Most of these burn up in atmosphere. When a meteor is very large, it does not burn up completely and reaches the earth. This piece reaching the earth and sea is called Meteorite.

Question 11.
Represent Solar system in a tabular form.
Answer:
Solar system can be represented as
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 6

Question 12.
What is light year? How is it expressed in meters.
Answer:
Light year. We know that light travels nearly a distance of 3 × 10⁸ m in one second or 3,00,000 km in one second. Light year is the distance travelled by light in
1 year or in 365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days.
∴1 light year = 365 \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 24 × 60 × 60 × 3 × 10⁸ m/s
or 1 Light year = 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m

Question 13.
Why do the heavenly bodies seem to move from east to west?
Answer:
The heavenly bodies seem to be moving from east to west because earth rotates on its imaginary axis from west to east whereas it appears to us that earth is stationary. That is why various heavenly bodies appear to us moving from east to west. Earth completes one round on its axis in 24 hours.

Question 14.
Define the following terms :
1. Planet
2. Satellite
3. Period of rotation.
Answer:
1. Planet. The celestial bodies which revolve around the sun are called planets, e.g., Mercury, Earth and Venus.

2. Satellite. The celestial bodies which revolve around the planets are called satellites. Moon is a satellite of earth. Some other bodies also have satellites.

3. Period of rotation. The time taken by a planet to complete one rotation on its axis is called period of rotation.

Question 15.
Which is the brightest among all the planets and why?
Answer:
Venus is the brightest planet among all the planets. The bright appearance of Venus is due to its cloudy atmosphere, which reflects almost three-fourth of the sunlight that falls on it.

Question 16.
There is very much difference between the temperatures of Mercury and Venus planets, while there is not so on the earth and the Mars planets. Why?
Answer:
Mercury and Venus are the nearest neighbours of the sun. There is no thick atmospheric cover around them that can work like a heat cover. But these planets are so nearest to the sun that they cannot save themselves from the sunlight and are heated very much. They become most coolest after the sunset.

Only the Earth and Mars are such planets where there is a balance between the atmospheric cover and their distance from the sun. Therefore, there is not much difference in the day and night temperatures of both the planets due to this balance.

Question 17.
Why are the Mercury and the Venus known as morning or evening stars?
Answer:
The Mercury and the Venus are known as morning or evening stars because both can be seen near the horizon immediately before the sunrise and after the sunset. At this time, these appear like the brightest star.

Question 18.
What are the conditions favouring life to flourish on earth?
Answer:
Following are the conditions that favour life to flourish on earth :

Oxygen is present in the atmosphere of the earth which is necessary for respiration for all the organisms.
Presence of water for the biological process on the earth.
Due to proper distance of the earth from the sun, there is proper temperature on the earth.
Presence of protective ozone layer around the earth which protects us from the ultraviolet radiations of the Sun.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a solar system?
Answer:
Solar System: Solar system consists of the Sun, a large number of asteroids between Mars and Jupiter. There are large number of comets or shooting stars which move in highly elliptical paths. The planet nearest to the sun is Mercury followed by Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. Whereas mercury is the smallest planet, Jupiter is the largest one.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 7
The planets rotate about the sun in elliptical path as well as spin about their own axis [Fig. (6)]. The nearest star to our solar system is Alpha Centauri and is about 4.3 light-years away from us. Brightest star Sirius is about 8.7 light-year from us.

Fig. (a) shows the motion of different planets around the sun (not to the scale). Shape of solar system resembles an inverted saucer with all planets. Sun dominates the solar system and accounts for 99.9% of total matter of the whole system. The sun is the source of all the energy in solar system. Earth receives almost all the energy from the sun.

Question 2.
What is meant by Uttrayan and Dakshinayan?
Answer:
Uttrayan and Dakshinayan. We generally say that the Sun rises in the east and sets in the west. This is only partially correct because the position of rising sun changes every day. Let us perform a time-consuming experiment to stress our point. Note down the direction of rising sun on the sky.

Repeat the observation every week. A continuous change will be observed. From summer solstice (around June 21), the point of the sun shifts towards south. The sun is said to be in dakshinayan (moving south). This continues till winter (around December 22). After this sunrise changes its direction and stars move towards north. Now it is said to be in Uttaryan (moving north). Only on March 21 and September 23, the sunrise in the east and sets in the west.

Question 3.
What are terrestrial and Jovian Planets?
Answer:
Terrestrial planets. Four planets near to the Sun i.e. mercury, venus, earth and mars are called terrestrial planets. Their structure is similar to that of the earth. These are small planets and have a thin atmosphere on them.
Jovian planets are larger in size than terrestrial planets.

These planets are made of mainly hydrogen and helium. These planets, namely Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune are so-called because their structure is similar to Jupiter. They have a number of moons around them and some have rings around them. Their temperature, gravity etc. are such that life can never be possible on them.

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Comets’.
Answer:
Comets: Comets are heavenly bodies which revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical path. Comets appear in the sky as a ball of fire with a tail. Tail always points away from the sun. Lesser the distance it has from the sun, longer is the tail. Comets are composed of rock-like material surrounded by large masses of easily vaporised substances like water, ammonia, methane etc. When comets approach the sun, some of its material is vaporised due to heat of the sun. Light of the sun exerts pressure on these vapours and force them away Tail is longest and from the comet in the form of a tail.
PSEB 8th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System 8

Question 5.
Write various uses of artificial satellites.
Answer:
Uses of Artificial Satellites. Various uses of artificial satellites are as follows :

They can be used to forecast weather.
They facilitate radio and television programme transmission.
Artificial satellites enable long-distance telephone communication.
They help to locate mineral and metal deposits.
Artificial satellites fitted with telescopes and software programmes gather and process data on space phenomena, thus enhancing our knowledge and understanding of the universe.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Transportation in Animals and Plants Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 131)

Question 1.
What is pulse rate ?
Answer:
Pulse rate. The number of times a person’s heart beats per minute, called pulse rate.

Question 2.
Where can we feel the pulse ?
Answer:
We can feel the pulse on the neck, behind the knee and near the ankle and wrist joints.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 134)

Question 1.
What is a stethoscope ?
Answer:
Stethoscope. Doctors use a stethoscope to hear the sounds of the heart and lungs inside the patient’s body while examining his condition. The stethoscope has a chest piece at one end and an ear piece at the other end. The two pieces are connected by a rubber tube.

Question 2.
Is there any relationship between heart beat and pulse rate ?
Answer:
Both the pulse rate and the heart rate are the same because the contraction of the heart increases the blood pressure in the arteries which is detected by the pulse rate. Therefore, a pulse test is a direct measure of the heart rate.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 137)

Question 1.
Define osmosis.
Answer:
Osmosis. This is the process by which a solvent passes through a semi-permeable membrane from a low-concentration solution to a solution of high concentration so that the concentration of solutions on both sides of the membrane become equal.

Question 2.
Define semi-permeable membrane.
Answer:
Semi-permeable membrane. It is a type of organic or organic polymer membrane through which some molecules or ions (charged particles) can pass through diffusion.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Transportation in Animals and Plants Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) In plants, water and minerals are transported by ………………. .
Answer:
Roots

(ii) Doctors use …………………. to listen the internal sounds of the body.
Answer:
stethoscope

(iii) Sweat contains water and …………………
Answer:
salts

(iv) The blood vessels having thick elastic walls are called ………………….
Answer:
artery

(v) The rhythmic contraction and expansion of heart is called …………………..
Answer:
heartbeat

2. State True or False:

(i) Phloem vessels transport food materials in plants.
Answer:
False

(ii) Deoxygenated blood is carried back to heart by veins.
Answer:
True

(iii) The veins have thick walls.
Answer:
True

(iv) Blood plasma is the solid component of blood.
Answer:
False

(v) The red colour of blood is due to the presence of plasma.
Answer:
False

3. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Transport of water	(a) Stomata
(ii) Red in colour	(b) Xylem
(iii) Exchange of gases	(c) Haemoglobin
(iv) Blood clotting	(d) Phloem
(v) Transport of food	(e) Platelets

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Transport of water	(b) Xylem
(ii) Red in colour	(c) Haemoglobin
(iii) Exchange of gases	(a) Stomata
(iv) Blood clotting	(e) Platelets
(v) Transport of food	(d) Phloem

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Blood cells responsible for clotting are:
(a) Plasma
(b) WBC’s
(c) RBC’s
(d) Platelets
Answer:
(d) Platelets.

Question (ii)
The lower chambers of heart are called:
(a) Atria
(b) Valves
(c) Veins
(d) Ventricles
Answer:
(b) Valves.

Question (iii)
The excretory system consists of:
(a) Kidney
(b) Bladder
(c) Urethra
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (iv)
The muscular organ which beats continuously to act as a pump
(a) Auricles
(b) Kidney
(c) Heart
(d) Veins.
Answer:
(c) Heart.

Question (v)
Blood contains:
(a) Plasma
(b) WBC’s
(c) RBC’s
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Why is blood red in colour ?
Answer:
Red colour of blood is due to a pigment called haemoglobin which is a protein. It combines with iron molecules to form a complex compound and carries oxygen to different parts of the body. Due to the high amount of iron in it, it reflects the red color, which makes the colour of blood red.

Question (ii)
Define translocation.
Answer:
Translocation. The process of transmitting food materials from the leaves to other parts of the plant is called translocation.

Question (iii)
What is dialysis ?
Answer:
Dialysis. If a person’s both kidneys are damaged, the blood does not get filtered properly, causing harmful solids and fluid to pile up in the body. Such person cannot live long unless his blood is filtered regularly through an artificial kidney. The process of removing toxins from the blood with the help of a machine (artificial kidney), is called dialysis.

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
State three functions of blood.
Answer:
Functions of blood:

Oxygenated blood transfers nutrients to the lungs and tissues.
The blood carries the waste products to the kidneys.
The blood carries antibodies to fight infection.
Blood controls body temperature.

Question (ii)
Name the parts of excretory system in humans.
Answer:
Parts of Excretory System in humans. The following are the main components of the humipi excretion system :

Kidneys
Ureters
Urinary bladder
Urethra.

Question (iii)
Why do veins have valves ?
Answer:
The main function of the valves in the veins is to stop the blood from coming back because they have low blood pressure. That is, it is ensured that the blood is flowing in one direction. The valves in the veins help the blood to flow to the heart in the opposite direction of gravity.

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Write and explain the components of blood.
Answer:
Components of Blood. Blood is a fluid connective tissue, made up of four main components :
(1) Red blood cells,
(2) White blood cells,
(3) Platelets and
(4) Plasma.

(1) Red blood cells (R.B.C.). These contain proteins called haemoglobin which carry oxygen and carbon dioxide in the respiration process.

(2) White Blood Cells (W.B.C.). They destroy harmful bacteria and dead cells from the body and protects from infection.

(3) Platelets. They help build blood clotting. Thus stop the loss of precious blood.

(4) Plasma. It is also part of the blood, which contains proteins, hormones, glucose, fatty acids, amino acids, mineral salts, digestible and excretory substances. It is a major component of blood.

Question (ii)
Describe the function of Heart.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants 1
Function of the Heart. The heart is an organ which beats continuously to act as a pump for the transportation of blood. The arteries receive oxygenated blood from the heart and supply it throughout the body. Whereas, the veins carry the deoxygenated blood from the body parts to the heart for oxygenation.

The right atrium receives blood from veins and pumps it to the right ventricle.
The right ventricle pumps the blood received from the right atrium to the lungs.
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle. The left ventricle pumps the oxygenated blood throughout the body.
The valves in the heart allow blood to flow in only one direction and prevent the blood from flowing backwards.

Question (iii)
Draw a labelled diagram of excretory system.
Answer:
Diagram of Human Excretary System.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants 2

Question (iv)
Differentiate between Arteries and Veins.
Answer:
Differences between the Arteries and Veins:

Arteries	Veins
(1) The arteries carry blood from the heart to different parts of the body.	(1) Veins collect blood from different parts of the body and carry it to the heart.
(2) They do not have valves.	(2) They have valves.
(3) Their walls are thick.	(3) Their walls are thin.
(4) All the arteries except the pulmonary artery carry pure blood.	(4) Veins other than lung veins carry impure blood containing Carbon dioxide.
(5) These are present deep under the skin.	(5) These are present at shallow depths under the skin
(6) Blood flow is fast and jerky.	(6) Blood flow is slow.

Question (v)
Explain the transportation of substances in plants.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants 3
Transport of substances in plants. Plants take water and carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere to prepare their food with the help of chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight. Water and mineral salts are absorbed by the roots and transported to the leaves where photosynthesis takes place.

Transport of water and minerals in plants. Plants get water and minerals from the soil. This is usually done by the roots. The roots have root hairs which increase the surface area of the roots which helps the roots to absorb water and the minerals dissolved in it. The emission of water in the leaves creates a force of attraction which helps water and nutrients to reach the top of plant. Plants have pipe-like vessels to transport water and nutrients from the soil. Veins are made up of a special type of dead cell called a Xylem.

Transportation of Food. Food produced by photosynthesis in plant leaves needs to be transported to every part of the plant. The tissue responsible for transporting food to plants is called the Phloem. The phloem carries the glucose produced in the leaves to all parts of the plant. The process of transfer of food prepared in the leaves to other parts of the plant is called transport.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Transportation in Animals and Plants Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) The blood from heart is transported to all parts of the body by …………….. .
Answer:
Arteries

(ii) Haemoglobin is present in ………………. cells.
Answer:
Red blood

(iii) Arteries and veins are joined by a network of ……………………….
Answer:
Capillaries

(iv) The rhythmic expansion and contraction of heart is called ………………….
Answer:
Heart beat

(v) The main excretory product in human beings is ……………….. .
Answer:
Urine

(vi) Sweat contains water and ………………….
Answer:
Salts

(vii) Kidneys eliminate the waste materials in the liquid form called ………………. .
Answer:
Urine

(viii) Water reaches great height in the trees because of sunction pull caused by …………………….. .
Answer:
transpiration

2. Match the Column T with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Stomata	(a) Absorption of water
(ii) Xylem	(b) Transpiration
(iii) Root hairs	(c) Transport of food
(iv) Phloem	(d) Transport of water

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Stomata	(b) Transpiration
(ii) Xylem	(d) Transport of water
(iii) Root hairs	(a) Absorption of water
(iv) Phloem	(c) Transport of food.

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
How many chambers are there in human heart ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four.
Answer:
(d) Four.

Question (ii)
Name the instrument used to measure heart beat.
(a) Stethoscope
(b) Horoscope
(c) Microscope
(d) Telescope.
Answer:
(a) Stethoscope.

Question (iii)
Which is excretory organ of man ?
(a) Lung
(b) Kidney
(c) Stomach
(d) Heart.
Answer:
(b) Kidney.

Question (iv)
What are the components of blood ?
(a) R.B.C.
(b) W.B.C.
(c) Blood platelets
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (v)
What is heart beat rate per minute of a healthy human being ?
(a) 72-80
(b) 52-60
(c) 92-100
(d) 62-70.
Answer:
(a) 72-80.

Question (vi)
Which of the following is not a part of excretory system ?
(a) Kidney
(b) Lungs
(c) Urinary bladder
(d) Urethra.
Answer:
(b) Lungs.

4. State True or False:

(i) The transport of substances in Spirogyra occurs by diffusion method.
Answer:
True

(ii) Platelets are not required for blood clotting.
Answer:
False

(iii) Emissions in Hydra are not by diffusion method.
Answer:
False

(iv) Xylem and phloem are vascular tissues.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the main conducting tissues in plants ?
Answer:
Xylem and phloem are the main conducting tissues of plants.

Question 2.
What is the function of valves in heart ?
Answer:
Valves present in heart allow one way flow of blood.

Question 3.
Name the procedure used in the working of an artificial kidney.
Answer:
Haemodialysis.

Question 4.
To which part of body is urine carried through ureter ?
Answer:
Urinary bladder.

Question 5.
What is Urethra ?
Answer:
Urethra. It is a muscular tube which carries urine from urinary bladder to outside through the opening at its end.

Question 6.
Name the substance which is excreted by lungs.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 7.
What is dialysis ?
Answer:
Dialysis. The process of removing waste products form blood using artificial kidney in place of natural kidney, is called dialysis.

Question 8.
What is transpiration ?
Answer:
Transpiration. The loss of water in the form of water vapours from the surface of leaves is called transpiration.

Question 9.
What red pigment is present in red blood cells ?
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are capillaries ? Give their functions.
Answer:
Capillaries. They are blood vessels present in the terminals of artery and vein. They are thin walled and extremely narrow tubes. Exchange of food materials, gases, w ater, hormones etc. take place across the thin walls of capillaries.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the human circulatory system.
Answer:
The circulatory system of the human body consists of:

Heart, centrally located pump.
Blood, liquid tissue.
Arteries. Blood carrying tubes from the heart to different body parts.
Veins. Blood bringing tubes from different body parts to the heart.
Capillaries. Union of arteries and veins.

Question 3.
What are heart beat and pulse rate ?
Answer:
Heart beat. A heart beat consists of one auricular systole, one ventricular systole and then a short pause. At rest, human heart beats 72 times per minute. It can be listened with the help of stethoscope.

Pulse rate. When the ventricles contract, the blood is forced into the aorta and exerts the pressure on the wall of the aorta. The pressure difference between systole (about 120 mm Hg) and diastole (about 80 mm Hg) is known as pulse pressure (about 40 mm Hg). This blood pressure is expressed as 120/ 80. The heart beats 72 times per minute is referred to as the pulse rate.

Question 4.
Give reasons:
(i) Veins have valves at intervals in their inner lining whereas the arteries do not have valves.
(ii) The wall of the ventricles is thicker than that of the auricles.
(iii) The blood from the right ventricle enters the pulmonary artery, but cannot go back from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.
(iv) The left auricle contains oxygenated blood.
(v) The red blood corpuscles cannot divide.
(vi) Pulmonary artery contains deoxygenated blood.
(vii) Auricles are thin walled chambers.
(viii) Left ventricle is much thicker and muscular than the right ventricle of the heart.
Answer:
(i) Veins are thin walled and collapsible. Their lumen is comparatively wide. They take deoxygenated blood from various parts of the body back to heart. To prevent the backflow of blood, valves are present at intervals.

Arteries are thick walled and non-collapsible. Their lumen is narrow. As the blood in arteries flows with jerks the latter do not have valves.

(ii) Since blood is supplied to different organs of the body by ventricles, their wall is thicker than those of auricles because a thick wall exerts more pressure on the blood.

(iii) The opening of right ventricle into the pulmonary artery is guarded by semilunar valves which allow the flow of blood from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery, but not in the reverse direction. Hence blood from the right ventricle enters the pulmonary artery, but cannot go back from pulmonary artery to right ventricle.

(iv) The left auricle contains oxygenated blood, because it receives blood from the lungs where blood is oxygenated.

(v) The red blood corpuscles cannot divide because they lack nuclei.

(vi) Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation.

(vii) Auricles are collecting chambers for the blood, so they are thin walled to accommodate large volume of blood.

(viii) Left ventricle has to pump blood all over the body, under pressure, through the dorsal aorta. Hence, more muscular.

Question 5.
Name the different organs of excretory system.
Answer:
Different organs of excretory system:

Kidney
Ureter
Urinary bladder
Urethra
Urinary opening.

Question 6.
Why is transportation of food materials necessary in plants ?
Answer:
Necessity of transportation of food materials. Each and every part of plant needs food for obtaining energy, growth and maintaining body. As the food is prepared in the leaves and water is absorbed by roots from the soil, so, it is necessary to transport the food materials in plants.

Question 7.
Why is transport of materials necessary in plant or an animal ? Explain.
Answer:
Transportation of materials in plants and animals is necessary as each and every part of organism need food for obtaining energy and building and maintaining body. As the food is prepared in leaves and water is absorbed by roots in plants and absorbed by digestive system in living organisms. So it is necessary to transport the materials in the plants and animals.

Question 8.
What will happen if there are no platelets in the blood ?
Answer:
Platelets help in clotting of blood. So, in absence of platelets, blood will not clot. So, if a person gets injured once, the whole blood will flow out and hence a person may die.

Question 9.
What are components of blood ?
Answer:
Components of blood are:

Fluid matrix called plasma.
Red blood corpuscles (RBC)
White blood corpuscles (WBC)
Blood Platelets.

Question 10.
Why is blood needed by all parts of a body ?
Answer:
Need of blood:

It transports oxygen and carbon dioxide.
It helps in clotting.
It carries nutritive and waste materials, enzymes and hormones etc.
It helps in excretion of wastes.

Question 11.
What makes the blood look red ?
Answer:
Blood is red in colour due to presence of a pigment, haemoglobin in red blood corpuscles.

Question 12.
Describe the function of the heart.
Answer:
Functions of the heart :
The main function of heart is to pump blood to various parts of the body through blood
vessels.

The heart receives blood from the veins and pumps it to arteries. During relaxation both the atria get filled with blood. The left atrium is filled with oxygenated blood and right atrium gets filled with deoxygenated blood collected from different parts of the body.

When atria contracts, the valves open. As a result of this the oxygenated blood enters from the left atrium into the left ventricle while deoxygenated blood from right atrium enters into right ventricle.

When the ventricles contract, the valves get closed. Owing to it, the oxygenated blood is supplied to different parts of the body and deoxygenated blood is carried to lungs for purification.

Question 13.
Why is it necessary to excrete waste products ?
Answer:
Necessity to excrete waste products. As a result of various functions of cells, number of waste materials are formed in the body. Accumulation of these waste products may become toxic. So, these must be removed from the body as soon as these are formed.

Question 14.
Differentiate between Heart beat and Pulse rate.
Answer:
Differences between Heart beat and Pulse rate

Heart beat	Pulse Rate
(i) It is the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart.	(i) It is the rhythmic contraction and relaxation in aorta and its main arteries.
(ii) One complete heart beat consists of one systole and one diastole and lasts for about 0.8 second.	(ii) Pulse is a regular jerk of an artery. It depends on the rate of heart beat.

Question 15.
Differentiate between Transpiration and Respiration.
Answer:
Difference between Transpiration and Respiration

Transpiration	Respiration
(i) It takes place in plants.	(i) It takes place in animals.
(ii) Only water vapour is removed.	(ii) Sweat containing urea, uric acid and salts are removed.
(iii) It takes place through the leaves and stem and through the stomata and lenticles.	(iii) It takes place through the skin. It takes place through the sweat pores of the sweat glands.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the human excretory (urinary) system.
Answer:
The human excretory (urinary) system consists of the following organs:

Kidneys
Ureters
Urinary bladder
Urethra.

(i) Kidneys. The kidneys are a pair of bean-shaped delicate organs. They are situated one on each side of the mid-dorsal line of the abdominal cavity, just below the level of the stomach.

(ii) Ureters. They are two tubes about 30 cm long, emerging from each kidney with the pelvis of which they are continuous. The ureters run downwards and inwards and open into the urinary bladder.

(iii) Urinary bladder. It serves as a reservoir for the urine. It is a hollow muscular organ lined with stratified epithelium. Its average capacity for storage of urine is about 500 ml.

(iv) Urethra. The urethra in the two sexes differs. The male urethra is about 20 cm in length. While that of females is only 1.5 cm in length.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants 4

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV)

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Computer Science Book Solutions Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Computer Science Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV)

Computer Guide for Class 7 PSEB Microsoft Word (Part-IV) Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………….. key is used to move the cursor in the next adjoining cell of a table.
(a) Ctrl
(b) Shift
(c) Tab
(d) Home.
Answer
(c) Tab

Question 2.
The table button is present on the …………. tab.
(a) Home
(b) Layout
(c) Insert
(d) View.
Answer
(c) Insert

Question 3.
We can change the width of the column by selecting the ………….. button in the Table Group.
(a) Select
(b) View Grid lines
(c) Properties
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Properties

Question 4.
A ………………. consists of a number of columns and rows.
(a) Document
(b) Table
(c) View
(d) Data.
Answer:
(b) Table

Question 5.
A ………….. is an intersection of columns and rows.
(a) Cell
(b) Table
(c) View
(d) Data.
Answer:
(a) Cell

2. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which key is used to move the cursor to the next cell in a table?
Answer:
Pressing the Tab key or right arrow keys moves the cursor to the next cell.

Question 2.
Intersection of a column and row is called?
Answer:
The intersection area of the row and column is called the cell.

Question 3.
Which group of Layout tab contains the split cells option?
Answer:
The split cell option is in the Merge group of the Layout tab.

Question 4.
Which option can be used to join two or more cells?
Answer:
Two or more cells can be merged using the Merge option.

3. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Table.
Answer:
A table is a collection of rows and columns where data is grouped together. Rows are placed horizontally and columns are placed vertically in the table and the intersection of a row and column is known as Cell. Cells are small boxes in the worksheet where we enter data.

Question 2.
Write the name of options for inserting a table in Word document?
Answer:
In MS Word, we can create tables in three ways:

With the help of Table Buttons.
With the help of Insert Table option.
With the help of Draw Table option.

Question 3.
What is the use of Split Cells option?
Answer:
Microsoft Word allows cells to be divided into multiple cells. Steps to divide a cell into several smaller sub-cells are as follows:

Place mouse pointer inside the cell that you want to split into several cells.
Now click on the “Layout” tab and then click on the “Split cells” button from the “Merge” group.
A “Split Cells” dialog box will open and ask about the Number of columns/ Number of Rows.
Select the required number of rows and columns.
Click the OK button.

Question 4.
What is the use of Merged Cells option?
Answer:
Microsoft Word allows two or more cells to merge to form one large cell. You will often need to combine the columns in the top row to create a table title. You can combine cells row-by-column or column-by-column, you can’t mix cells diagonally.
The steps for merging cells are as follows:

Select the cells we want to merge.
Click the Merge Cells button from the Merge group on the Layout tab.
When clicked, this option will convert all selected cells into one cell.

Question 5.
How will you enter data in Table Cells?
Answer:
The steps for inserting text into a table are given below:
1. Click on the cell in which you want to insert the text.
2. Now type.
Or
You can also add text using copy paste.

4. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do you insert a table in your document? Explain any method briefly.
Answer:
In MS Word, we can create tables in three ways:
1. With the help of Table Buttons.
2. With the help of Insert Table option.
3. With the help of Draw Table option.

1. Creating a table using the Table Button
The following are the steps to create a table with the help of table button:

Place your cursor where you want to create the table.
In the Insert tab, click on the “Table” command from the Table group.
Now a grid will open.
From this grid, select the rows and columns according to your need.
The table you selected will now appear on the screen.

2. Creating a table using the Insert Table option
Below are the steps to create a table using the Insert Table option:

In the Insert tab, click on the “Table” command from the Table group.
A drop-down menu will open. Click on the “Insert Table” option from this menu.
The Insert Table dialog box will appear.
In this box, specify the number of rows and columns and click on the ok button.

3. Creating a table with the help-of a Draw table option
The steps to create a table with the help of a draw table option are as follows:

In the Insert tab, click on the Table command from the Table group.
A drop-down menu will open, click on the Draw Table option from this menu.
The mouse pointer will turn into a pencil.
Draw a rectangle on the page with the help of a pencil.
Draw vertical and horizontal lines to form columns and rows as needed.

Question 2.
Explain Properties button of Layout Tab.
Answer:
With the Table Properties dialog box we can adjust the alignment of the table and the size of the row, column or cell.
PSEB 7th ClPSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV) 1.1ass Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV) 1
In MS Word we can also split or merged the Cells into a table.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Guide Microsoft Word (Part-IV) Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Tables can be drawn in Word using the…………….and ……………. buttons.
(a) Home, Insert, Design table
(b) Table, Insert, Draw table
(c) Both Options are Correct
(d) Both Options are Incorrect.
Answer:
(b) Table, Insert, Draw table

Question 2.
……………. is called a set of rows and columns.
(a) Cell
(b) Table
(c) Documents
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Table

Question 3.
The table command is available on the……………. tab.
(a) Home
(b) Design
(c) Review
(d) Insert.
Answer:
(d) Insert.

Question 4.
With the…………….option we can draw tables as we wish.
(a) Insert Table
(b) Add Table
(c) Draw Table
(d) Quick Table.
Answer:
(c) Draw Table

Question 5.
Clicking the ……………. arrow button moves the cursor to the next cell.
(a) Left arrow
(b) Right arrow
(c) Down arrow
(d) Up arrow.
Answer:
(b) Right arrow

Question 6.
The ……………. option is used to convert text to a table.
(a) Insert Table
(b) Convert Table to Text
(c) Draw Table
(d)Convert Text to Table.
Answer:
(b) Convert Table to Text

Question 7.
Split table is present in ……………. group of Layout tab.
(a) Merge
(b) Clipboard
(c) Style
(d) Design.
Answer:
(a) Merge

Question 8.
The ……………. option adds a new cell to the right of the existing cell.
(a) Auto fill
(b) Insert right
(c) Insert left
(d) Merge cell.
Answer:
(b) Insert right

Question 9.
……………. option is used to delete the table.
(a) Merge Table
(b) Split Table
(c) Remove
(d) Delete Table.
Answer:
(d) Delete Table.

Question 10.
The ……………. option is used to add a new row at the above of insertion point.
(a) Insert Row
(b) Insert Below
(c) Insert Above
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Insert Above

2. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the steps to covert text into table.
Answer:
Steps to convert text into table are as follows:

Select the text which you want to convert into table.
Click on the “Table” command in the ‘Table” group of the Insert tab.
Select the command “Convert Text To Table”.
The “Convert Text to Table” dialog box opens.
Select the desired option in the Separate text at section.
Click OK button.

Question 2.
With which tabs we can modify the table?
Answer:
Design and layout tabs are used to modify the tables.

Question 3.
Write the steps to add a row into the table.
Answer:
In MS Word we have 2 ways to add row into the table. Which are as follows:
Method 1.
Below are the steps to add rows to the table:

Place the cursor in the table where you want to add the new row.
Now right click on the mouse, a drop-down menu will appear on the screen.
Click on the Insert option from this menu.
If you want to add a new row above the insertion point, click on the “Insert Row Above” option.
If you want to add a new row below the insertion point, click on the “Insert Row Below” option.
A new row will appear above the insertion point.

Method 2.
The step of adding rows to the table is given below:

Place the cursor in the table where you want to add the new row.
From the “Rows & Columns” group of the “Layout tab”, click on the “Insert Above/Insert Below” option.
A new row will appear below/above the insertion point

Question 4.
Write the steps to add columns from right click.
Answer:

Place the insertion point where you want to add new column.
Right-click on the mouse. A menu will appear.
Click on the Insert option from this menu.
If you want to add a new column to the left of the insertion point, click on the “Insert Column to the left” option.
If you want to add a new column to the right of the insertion point, click on the “Insert Column to the right” option.
A new column will now appear to the right or left of the cursor.

Question 5.
Write the steps to remove a column.
Answer:
Here are the steps to delete a row or column from the table:

Select a row or column.
Right click your mouse. A menu will appear.
Click on the Delete Cells option.
A Delete Cell dialog box will now open.
Click “Delete entire column” option to delete the column.
The appropriate column will be deleted.

Delete columns using the Layout tab

Select the row or column you want to delete.
Click the “Delete” button from the Rows & Columns group of the Layout tab.
A drop-down menu will open.
From this menu, click the “Delete Column” option to delete the column.

3. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How can a table be converted into text and text into a table?
Answer:
Below are the steps for inserting text into a table:
1. Click on the cell in which you want to insert the text.
2. Now type
Or
You can also add text using copy paste

To Convert Text to a Table
Steps to convert text into table are as follows:

Select the text which you want to convert into table.
Click on the “Table” command in the “Table” group of the insert tab.
Select the command “Convert Murine of rows: Text To Table”.
The “Convert Text to Table” dialog box opens.
Select the desired option in the Separate text at section.
Click OK button.

Convert Table into Text:
Steps to convert table into text are as follows:

Select the rows of tables you want to convert to text.
On the Layout tab, in the Data section, click “Convert To Text”.
In the Convert Table box, under Separate Text With, click on the different character you want to use instead of the column boundaries. Rows will be separated by paragraph symbols.

Question 2.
Write about the inclusion of a cell in a table.
Answer:
Adding Cells to Tables:
In MS Word, you can add a new cell around the selected cell, such as right, left, up or down. The steps to add a new cell are as follows:

Click in the cell.
Press the right mouse button inside the cell.
From this menu click “Insert” and then click “insert cell” option.
Choose which side of the selected cell you want new cell.

Question 3.
What are table properties and how they can be used?
Answer:
Properties of Tables
With the Table Properties dialog box we can adjust the alignment of the table and the size of the row, column or cell.
In MS Word we can also split or merged the Cells into a table.

PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV) 4

Question 4.
What is ‘Splitting’ and how to split a table, a cell?
Answer:
Splitting the Cell:
Microsoft Word allows cells to be divided into multiple cells. Steps to divide a cell into several smaller sub-cells are as follows:
1. Place mouse pointer inside the cell that you want to split into several cells.
2. Now click on the “Layout” tab and then click on the “Split cells” button from the “Merge” group.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV) 7
3. A “Split Cells” dialog box will open and ask about the Number of columns/ Number of Rows.

4. Select the required number of rows and columns
5. Click the OK button.

Splitting the Table:
Microsoft Word allows a table to be split into multiple tables but a single operation always splits the table into two tables.
The following are simple steps to split a table into two tables in a World Document.
1. Place the cursor in the row that you want to be the first row of the second table.
2. Click the Split Table button ‘ from the Merge group on the Layout tab.
PSEB 7th Class Computer Solutions Chapter 6 Microsoft Word (Part-IV) 9

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Physical Education Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When Indian Olympic Association came into existence?
Answer:
In 1927.

Question 2.
Who was the first president of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. Dorab Ji Jotsi.

Question 3.
Who was the first Assistant Secretory of Indian Olympic Association?
Answer:
Sh. J.D. Sondhi.

Question 4.
The Office Bearers of Indian Olympic Association are elected after five years. (Right or Wrong.)
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
Write any more work of I.O.A.
Answer:
To organise competition of different games and provide the information to International Olympic Committe.

Question 6.
What do you mean I.O.A.
Answer:
International Olympic Association.

PSEB 9th Class Physical Education Book Chapter 6 Indian Olympic Association

Question 7.
What stands for I.O.C?
Answer:
International Olympic Committee.

Question 8.
Write the name of one Sports Federations of your choice.
Answer:
Basket Ball Federation of India.

Question 9.
Name any two Indian Sport Federations which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:

Indian Hockey Federation.
All India Football Association.

Question 10.
Write any one objective of Indian Olympic Committee.
Answer:
To promote Olympic Movement and patronise Amateur sport.

Question 11.
Where were the first modern Olympic games held?
Answer:
They were held in Athens, Greece in 1981.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about C.K. Naidu Trophy.
Answer:
C.K. Naidu Trophy:
This tournament is organised by the Schools Games Federation of India every year. The trophy is named after a very outstanding and famous cricket player C.K. Naidu. This competition is for school boys and is conducted on knock-out basis. The losing team goes out of the tournament.

Question 2.
What do you know about Ranji Trophy?
Answer:
Ranji Trophy:
A meeting of sports lovers was held at Shimla in 1934 under the presidentship of Sir Sikandar Hyat. A proposal to conduct National Level Cricket Competition was discussed in this meeting. Maharaja Sir Bhupinder Singh of Patiala decided to donate a trophy in the name of Mr. Ranjit Singh, who was very outstanding cricketer, for the national level cricket tournament.

This competition is organised every year by the Cricket Control Board. It is organised on inter-state level on league basis. The winner teams of the states from their zone again play on knock out basis. The state of Maharashtra (Bombay) have won this trophy more than fifteen times. The Railways Sports Board also participate in the tournament.

Question 3.
Write few lines regarding Santosh Trophy.
Answer:
Santosh Trophy:
The king of Kooch Bihar Maharaja Santosh donated a trophy for National Football Competition which became very famous as Santosh Trophy. This tournament is organised by one of the members of Indian Football Association every year. All the different. states of India, Railways and Senior teams participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Bengal has won this trophy many times and Punjab won this championship in 1970 at Jalandhar.

Question 4.
What do you know about Rovers Cup?
Answer:
Rovers Cup:
This Football tournament is organised every year by Rovers Cup Tournament Committee. All good teams from different parts of the country participate in this competition which is organised as knock out cum league basis.

Question 5.
Write regarding Subroto Mukerjee Cup.
Answer:
Subroto Mukerjee Cup:
It is also known as Junior Durand Competition. This tournament is organised to commend the sweet memory of Air Marshall Subroto Mukerjee. This tournament is organised every year in Delhi by Durand Committee. In this tournament upto Sixteen year old players can take part. The very outstanding players of this tournament awarded scholarships by the Govt, of India.

Question 6.
Write a note on Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship)
Answer:
Ranga Swami Cup (National Hockey Championship):
Indian Hockey Association organised first National Hockey Championship in 1927. This competition is famous as National Hockey Competition. A citizen of Newzealand named Mooris presented a shield for the winners of National Competition in 1935. This competition was organised after every two years from 1928-1944.

In 1946 the Punjab state won this championship and the shield of this competition was lying with the then secretary of Mr. Bakshish Ali Sheikh. After the partition of India in 1947 this shield remained in Pakistan. After the partition the owners of “The Sports and Pastime” and “The Hindu” and Chennai (Madras) donated a new cup for this competition in the honour of Chief Editor Late Sh. Ranga Swami.

For this reason National Hockey Championship is known as Ranga Swami Cup Tournament. Since 1947, National Hockey Championship has been organised every year. Uttar Pradesh won this championship for first time and Punjab had an honour to win this championship in 1949. This competition was earlier organised on knock out basis but these days it is organised on League cum Knock out basis.

Question 7.
What do you know about Agha Khan Cup?
Answer:
Agha Khan Cup:
Maharaja Agha Khan had donated a cup in 1860 for the first time for the competition. This tournament became famous as Agha Khan Cup after his name. The Charlier Regiment won this cup permanently in 1912. Maharaj Agha Khan donated another cup for the competition. The winning team of this championship is awarded the same cup these days. The Bombay Gymkhana had an honour to win this cup for the first time. The Punjab Police won this Agha Khan cup in 1948. This tournament is organised by the Agha Khan tournament Committee. The most outstanding teams of India participate in this tournament. This tournament is organised as knock out basis.

Question 8.
Write about Bombay Gold Cup or All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition.
Answer:
Bombay Gold Cup:
Bombay state got prepared a Gold Cup worth 10,000/- from its provincial funds and donated it for the competition which became famous as Bombay Gold Cup Tournament. This competition is organised by the Bombay (Now Maharashtra) Hockey Association every year. Lousit Anion Club Bombay won this prestigious cup the first time. Punjab Hawks had an honour to win this cup in 1928. This competition is organised on knock cum league basis.

All India Nehru Senior Hockey Competition:
This tournament originated in 1964 in the sacred memory of Late Prime Minister Sh. Jawahar Lal Nehru. In the sacred memory of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru this tournament was named Nehru Hockey Competition. This competition is organised on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams participate in this tournament. Uttar Pradesh had the honour to win the inaugural championship. The prize distribution is performed by the President of India every year in this competition.

Question 9.
Write a note on the following:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition
2. Beigton Cup.
Answer:
1. All India Nehru Junior Hockey Competition:
Nehru Hockey Tournament Committee organises this Junior Hockey Competition every year in Delhi. In this competition only 14-16 year old players can take part. The outstanding teams of different states participate in this tournament. The Education Dept, of Govt, of India gives scholarship to all outstanding sports persons. The final match of this tournament is played on 14th November on the birthday of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

2. Beigton Cup:
This is the oldest competition of our country which was organised for the first time in 1895. This cup was donated by Legal Advisor Sh. T.D. Beigton of Bengal. For this reason this tournament is known as Beigton Cup Tournament. Naval V.A.C. won this cup on the first occasion, Unfortunately this original cup was stolen from Railway Institute Asansole but Railway Institute has donated another same type of cup for the competition which is awarded to the winners of this tournament even today. This competition is organised every year by the West Bengal Hockey Association on knock out basis. Very outstanding teams take part in this competition. Punjab Police got an opportunity to win this cup in 1966.

Question 10.
What do you know about Durand Cup Competition?
Answer:
Durand Cup:
This cup was donated by the Foreign Secretary of British India Mr. Mortimor Durand in 1895 for the competition of British soldiers. Firstly this competition was played at Shimla. The name of this tournament was Shimla Tournament. This competiton was organised in Delhi after 1950. The Regiment of Black Begh won this cup permanently in 1899.

Afterwards Mr. Mortimor donated another cup for this competition. In this tournament after 1931, civilians teams also started taking part along with military teams. Patiala Tigers got opportunity to participate in this tournament as civilian team. This tournament is organised every year on knock-out cum league basis. Very outstanding teams of the country and abroad participate in this tournament.

Question 11.
Write a note on sports competitions in India.
Answer:
Everybody possesses a spirit of competition. This spirit inspires him to take steps forward for his progress in his life. This spirit also helps him to get honours in his life. The competitions were held in Ancient India, some of which were in very bad taste. In combat a player used to kill his opponent. But with the passage of time the spirit of brotherhood emerged in sports competitions. The competition satisfied the emotions of person these days. In these competitions he can get skill and become experts.

He become successful in his best performance in the field of sports. These competitions not only provide recreation but also make him healthy. In Ancient times. Horse Riding, Archery, Javelin throwing and wrestling were most popular activities. The competition of these events were organised. With the passage of time and due to the Britishers contact with Indians the game of Hockey, Foot Ball and Cricket became popular and national level competition of these games are organised these days.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write in detail about Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Modern Olympic Games came into existence in the Greek city of Athens in 1896. Mr. Baron de Coubertin made a great contribution in the revival of Olymplic games. India took part in Olympic in 1900. The Indian Olympic Association. The Indian Olympic Association was founded in 1927. It came into existence with the efforts of Sh. A.G. Neohren and Mr. H.C. Buck. Its first President was Mr. Dorabji Tata. Mr. G.D. Sondhi was its Assistant Secretary. This Association has been working since 1927, and is affiliated to International Olympic Association.

Selection of Office Bearers:
The office bearers of this Association are selected for four years.,Nobody can hold a post for more than eight years. In other words, nobody can participate in the election for more than two terms. National Sports Federations and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective International Sports Federations. The National Federations have state-level bodies in their respective games such as State Olympic Association, etc. They control the organization of tournaments in states.

Working:
Its office bearers are elected every fourth year.
The following are the members of its Executive Council:

President
Seven Vice-Presidents
One General Secretary
Two Assistant Secretaries
One Honorary Treasurer
Five members are elected from among the representatives of State Olympic Associations.
Nine members are elected from among the representatives of National Federation/Associations and Service Sports Control Board.

The members of this association are elected for four years. No office bearer can hold his post for more than two consecutive terms or eight years.

Functions of Indian Olympic Association:

To organise Amateur Sport competition in India and conform them to the international Olympic Committee.
To make plans. To make short term and long term plans with the help and co-operation of State Olympic Association for non professional players.
To use Olympic Flag and the motto on behalf of India and settle all issues regarding dispute of any state Olympic Association and follow the Olympic chart.
To establish different state Olympic Associations in all states and supervise their expenditure.
To allow All Associations of different games to participate in international competitions and give financial assistance for these competitions.
This committee insists that every year Olympic week must be celebrated in the month of August. The Olympic movement and its Philosophy must be popularised among Indians.

Question 2.
Describe the main Objectives of Indian Olympic Association.
Answer:
Objectives:
This Association has been constituted with the following objectives in view:
1. For the progress of the Olympic Movement and development of Amateur Games.

2. For the encouragement and promotion of physical, moral and cultural education of the youth in order to make them good and healthy citizens of high character.

3. For enforcing all rules formulated by International Olympic Association.

4. To protect and enforce the right of the use of Olympic flag and insignia only by the association. To ensure that both remain confined to Olympic games.

5. To function fully like a government organization, and take hold of all the matters pertaining to the Olympic games in the country.

6. To apprise the countrymen with the value and importance of Amateur games.

7. To control all Indian sports teams and their organization with the co-operation of Indian Sports Federations and Associations the teams which fall under International Olympic Committee and which participate in Olympic games and such other games.

8. To enforce rules with the co-operation of national sports federations, and associations.

9. To maintain the high ideals of sports and promote the interest of the people in Olympic games and those games which are under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

10.To control all matters relating to India’s Participation in the Olympic games and those games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

11.To arrange with the co-operation of national sports federations and associations economic assistance, transportation, care and welfare of those Indian teams which take part in the Olympic games and other games falling under the patronage of International Olympic Committee.

12. It certifies Indian players participating in international competitions as regards to their amateur level.

13. It promotes the people’s interest in Olympic games, and towards this objective it forms Olympic Association in each state and a National Amateur Sports Federation.

14. It acts as a mediator between National Sports Federation and Indian Govt, for financial assistance.

15. It affiliates the state-level Olympic Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation. The state level Olympic

16. Associations and National Amateur Sports Federation send their annual reports to the International Olympic Association.

17. It initiates disciplinary action against that Federation that brings dishonour through some improper deed.

18. It will do anything to promote Amateur Sports and games.

Question 3.
What do you know about Olympic Chart?
Answer:
Olympic Chart:
All sports competitions at the national and international levels are organized under the supervision of National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association. There is no discrimination of caste, colour, and creed, etc. in it. But the Olympic Chart is silent over the question of governmental intervention in case National Sports Federation and Indian Olympic Association function in a way as to hurt the interests of sports in the country.

But the members of the International Olympic Committee have time and again said that the government which provides funds to various sports organization should remain vigilant as to how these funds are being utilized. The government can supervise the functioning of all sports bodies. The International Federation seeks the views of the government when National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to perform their duties, or when opposite Federations come into being.

The government of the country in which international games such as Asian Games are being held holds such responsibility. The government should provide adequate financial help to federations so that sports and games may be developed in the country. It should not remain a silent spectator if National Sports Federation (N.S.F.) and Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) fail to discharge their duties properly, such as in the fair selection of teams and their training. Keeping in view these points, the government has framed certain guidelines for these sports bodies, but it is pity that many a time these guidelines are totally ignored.

Question 4.
Describe the functions of All Indian Sports Federations or State Sports Associations.
Answer:
All Indian Sports Federation and State Sports Associations are affiliated to their respective international sports Federation. All sports Federations have established their State Associations in all states of India just like state Olympic Association.

Functions:
1. To Conduct Competitions: To conduct senior and juniors sports competitions every year at district, state and national levels.

2. Planning: To frame a One-year and Four-year plans to prepare a national team.

3. To arrange equipment:
To arrange equipment and other essential items to raise the standard of games. If some items are to be imported from abroad, these are to be got through Indian Olympic Association or Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala with the help of Union Education Ministry.

4. Attendance of Selectors: It ensures the attendance of its selectors at the Senior or Junior level competitions at the state or national level.

5. Prepare and Publish List of Probabilities: To prepare and publish national and international probabilities.

6. To appoint National Coach: Each National Federation/ Association will appoint a National Coach.

7. Help in Selection of National Teams:
It will help Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.) to select national teams for international competitions.

8. To Frame Rules of Games: In co-operation with Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala, it frames rules of games.

9. Training of Umpires and Coaches:
It helps Neta Ji Subash National Institute of Sports, Patiala and Indian Olympic Association in the training of umpires and coaches.

10. To Prepare a Panel of Selectors: It prepares a panel of selectors purely on merit basis.

11. Selection of Office Bearers:
The selection of its office bearers should be done according to the constitution of the Federation. At the time of selection it should invite one observer each from Indian Olympic Association (I.O.A.) and All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.)

12. Settling Disputes:
If there is some dispute in some Sports Federation, it is referred to I.O.A. or I.I.C.S. Its decision has to be obeyed. If there is some dispute between Indian Olympic Association and National Sports Federation, it is referred to and decided by All India Council of Sports (A.I.C.S.).

13. Audit of Accounts: It is the responsibility of the Federation to present the audited report of its accounts in time.

Question 5.
Write the names of different Associations of India which are affiliated with Indian Olympic Associations.
Answer:
Federations or Associations Regarding Different Games or Sports. The various Federations or Associations of different games or sports are as follow:

The Indian Hockey Federation, 1925
The All India Football Federation, 1937
The Swimming Federation of India, 1940
The Amateur Athletic Federation of India, 1544
The Wrestling Federation of India, 1948
The Volleyball Federation of India, 1951
The Basketball Federation of India, 1950
The National Rifle Association of India, 1953
The Gymnastic Federation of India, 1951
The Indian Amateur Boxing Federation, 1958
The National Cycle Federation, 1938
The Board of Control for Cricket in India, 1926
The All India Tennis Association, 1920
The Table Tennis Federation of India, 1938
The All India Badminton Association, 1934
The Indian Hand Ball Association, 1969-70
The Archery Association, 1968
The Kabaddi Federation of India, 1951-52
The Indian Polo Association, 1892
The Indian Weight Lifting Federation, 1935
The Indian Billiards Association, 1940
The Indian Squash Racket Association, 1953

In addition to the above Federations and Associations, there are some national level sports bodies which have their own identity-

The Service Sports Control Boards, 1919 (restructured in 1945)
School Games Federation of India, 1954
Inter Varsity Sports Control Board.
The Railway Sports Control Board.
All India Police Sports Council Board.

Similarly, there are associations of different games in different states. They are affiliated to National Sports Federation/Association. Their chief functions are to organise Inter-District sports competitions in their respective states, organize coaching camps, and ensure the participation of state teams in national level competitions.

PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects

January 23, 2024January 23, 2024 by Prasanna

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Science Book Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects

Science Guide for Class 7 PSEB Electric Current and Its Effects Intext Questions and Answers

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 175)

Question 1.
How many terminals are there in an electric cell? Name them.
Answer:
There are two terminals in an electric cell : (1) Positive and (2) Negative terminal.

Question 2.
What is the role of the switch in the electrical circuit?
Answer:
In electrical circuit the switch completes and breaks the circuit i.e. the switch is there to make the current flow in the complete electrical circuit and to stop the flow of current by breaking the circuit when required.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
When switch is in ‘ON’ position then bulb …………………. and feels ……………… .
Answer:
Glows, hot.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
When switch is OFF the wire feels hot. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
When switch is ON the wire feels cold. (True/False)
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
If you take any other wire, will you feel the same effect.
Answer:
Because the current heats up the wire because of thermal effect of electricity. It will feel the same when you take any other wire.

Think and Answer (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
Why a magnetic needle point in NS direction when there is no magnetic substance near it ?
Answer:
A magnetic needle is a unique magnet with one end as the North Pole and the other as the South Pole. Our earth behaves like a giant magnet with its magnetic north pole coinciding with its geographical south direction and its magnetic south pole coinciding with geographical north direction. The North Pole of a magnetic needle that is a magnet is free to rotate horizontally on its axis is attracted towards the earth’s magnetic South Pole and the south pole of the magnetic needle towards the earth’s magnetic north pole. So even though no magnetic substance nearby, the magnetic needle still points north-south direction.

Question 2.
Why magnetic needle gets deflected when a bar magnet is brought near it ?
Answer:
Similar poles of magnets repel each other and opposite poles attract each other. So when the rod magnet is brought close to the magnetic needle (which is a tight magnet), the magnetic needle, which is free to rotate, disintegrates.

Question 3.
Why a magnetic needle gets deflected when current is switched on ?
Answer:
When the electric current is turned on, the magnetic field indicates that a magnet is located near it as current carrying wire behaves like a magnet.

PSEB 7th Class Science Guide Electric Current and Its Effects Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) Shorter line in the symbol for cell represents …………………. .
Answer:
Negative terminal

(ii) Combination of two or more cells is called …………………. .
Answer:
Battery

(iii) When key is in ………………….. position current flows through the circuit.
Answer:
On

(iv) In a battery positive terminal of one cell is connected to ………………….. terminal of next cell.
Answer:
Positive

(v) Electric heater works on the ………………… effect of current.
Answer:
Heating

2. State True or False:

(i) To make a battery of two cells, positive terminal of one cell is connected to negative terminal of another.
Answer:
True

(ii) Electric iron works on the basis of heating effect of current.
Answer:
True

(iii) Magnetic crane is based on magnetic effect of current.
Answer:
True

(iv) When current flows in the circuit then circuit is called open circuit.
Answer:
False

(v) An electric bell works on the principle of electromagnet.
Answer:
True

3. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Electrical cell	(a) Electric component
(ii) Electrical heater	(b) Heating effect of current
(iii) Electric fuse	(c) Electromagnet
(iv) Magnetic crane	(d) Safety device

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Electrical cell	(d) Safety device
(ii) Electrical heater	(b) Heating effect of current
(iii) Electric fuse	(a) Electric component
(iv) Magnetic crane	(c) Electromagnet

4. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
Which appliance is not based on heating effect of current?
(a) Electric toaster
(b) Loudspeaker
(c) Heater
(d) Electric iron.
Answer:
(b) Loudspeaker.

Question (ii)
Which of these devices are not based on magnetic effect of current ?
(a) Room heater
(b) Magnetic crane
(c) Electric bell
(d) Loudspeaker.
Answer:
(a) Room heater

Question (iii)
The amount of heat produced in wire depends on:
(a) Nature of material
(b) Length
(c) Thickness
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (iv)
The wire used in the bulb is called:
(a) Element
(b) Spring
(c) Filament
(d) Component.
Answer:
(c) Filament.

Question (v)
An electric bell consists of:
(a) Gong
(b) Hammer
(c) Electromagnet
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

5. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
What is an electromagnet ? How does it work ?
Answer:
Electromagnet. A piece of iron temporarily becomes a magnet when placed inside a current carrying coil of enamel-coated copper wire.
While when the electric current is switched off. it behaves like iron again i.e. it loses its magnetic properties.

Question (ii)
What is a magnetic crane ? How does it work ?
Answer:
Magnetic Crane. It is a normal crane with a powerful electromagnet attached to one end. When a current is passed, it becomes a powerful magnet which attracts and separates the iron from the garbage and when the electric current is switched off, it loses its magnetic properties.

Question (iii)
Draw an electric circuit with one battery, one bulb and one switch in open position.
Answer:
Diagram of an electrical circuit with a battery, a bulb, and an open switch.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 1

6. Short Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Define the following:
(1) An Electric cell,
(2) A Battery,
(3) Electric circuit,
(4) Open circuit,
(5) Closed circuit.
Answer:
(1) An Electric Cell. It is a source of energy that converts chemical energy stored in it
into electrical energy. It has two electrodes – (1) positive electrode and (2) negative electrode.

(2) A Battery. This is a combination of two or more cells that are combined in a series order to get current. It is used in flashlights, toys and cars etc. where more current is required.

(3) Electric Circuit. The path that starts from one terminal of the cell through the bulb, reaches the other terminal and in which electric current can flow.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 2
(4) Open Circuit. If there is no current flowing through the electrical circuit, then such a circuit is called open circuit.

5. Closed Circuit. An electrical circuit through which an electric current flows is called a closed circuit.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 4

7. Long Answer Type Questions:

Question (i)
Explain the principle, construction and working of an electric bell using suitable diagram.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 5
Electric bell. It is a mechanical device that works on the principle of an electro magnet. This produces sound on repeated passing of electric current

Principle. A soft iron piece placed inside a copper coil carrying current behaves like a magnet.
Construction. It consists of the following main components:
1. Electromagnet. It consists of a laminated metal wire which is wrapped around an iron bar. This bar becomes an electriomagnet when an electric current passes through wire.
2. Hammer. It is an iron blade/ leaf with a small metal ball at one end called a hammer. It is placed near the electromagnet. There is a contact screw near the iron leaf.
3. Gong. It is made of a cup shaped metal. When the hammer is attracted it hits the bell and a sound is heard.

Working.
When we turn on the switch, Battery the contact screw comes in contact with the iron leaf due to which an electric current flows in the electric coil and it becomes an electromagnet. This electromagnet attracts the iron leaf, causing the hammer to strike the bell and make a sound but during this operation the contact of the hammer is broken by the screw which breaks the electrical circuit. Due to this the coil now has the same properties as an electromagnet and cannot attract an iron leaf. Now the iron leaf returns to its original position and touches the contact screw again. It again generates an electromagnet and the hammer strikes the bell again. This action is repeated quickly and the bell rings again and again.

Question (ii)
What is an electric fuse ? How does it work ? Why is it an essential component in an electric supply ?
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 6

Electric Fuse.
It is a safety device which prevents damages to electric circuits and prevents electric fires. Sometimes, the two wires of electricity at home and factories come in contact with each other and cause short circuit then the amount of electric current of circuit increases as a result of decrease in resistance and the electric appliances. The circuit catch fire due to production of heat. To Prevent this type of danger, fuse wires are connected to circuit wires.

Working.
In general, the fuse wire is a thin, small wire which is an alloy of copper, tin and lead. It has a very low melting point as compared to copper. This wire is connected between the two terminals of a Porcelain holder. For the circuit which is to keep safe, the two joining wires are connected in series.

The fuse wire has a fixed capacity according to its thickness. The fuse wire, when more current passes through it, melts after getting heated. The circuit breaks with the melting of the wire and the flow of electric current is obstructed. As a result the fault in any instrument or circuit is found out immediately. After removing that fault, a new fuse wire is put in fuse holder and the flow of electric current is started again.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Science Electric Current and Its Effects Important Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the Blanks:

(i) An electrical circuit with standard symbols is called ………………….. .
Answer:
Circuit diagram

(ii) When we bring the switch to ‘ON’ position, the hot plate, electric toaster, and electric press get heated up due to ……………….. _ of electricity.
Answer:
Heating effect

(iii) Fuse is a ………………. device.
Answer:
Safety

(iv) Laminated copper wire wound around a wooden cylinder is called ………………. .
Answer:
Coil

(v) Magnet has two poles, one is ……………… pole and other is ……………… pole.
Answer:
North, South

(vi) Long line in the symbol of electric cell represents ……………… terminal.
Answer:
Positive

2. Match the Column ‘I’ with Column ‘II’:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Circuit diagram	(a) Making an electromagnet due to current
(ii) Electric bell	(b) Electric fuse
(iii) Safety technique	(c) Fuse wire
(iv) Melts quickly.	(d) An electrical circuit with standard symbols

Answer:

Column ‘I’	Column ‘II’
(i) Circuit diagram	(d) An electrical circuit with standard symbols
(ii) Electric bell	(a) Making an electromagnet due to current
(iii) Safety technique	(b) Electric fuse
(iv) Melts quickly.	(c) Fuse wire

3. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question (i)
The device that breaks the electrical circuit:
(a) Electric Cell
(b) Electric Bulb
(c) Switch
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Switch.

Question (ii)
There are ……………… terminals of electric bulbs:
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) One
Answer:
(a) Two.

Question (iii)
Used to make connecting wires:
(a) Rubber
(c) Plastic
(b) Aluminium
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Aluminium.

Question (iv)
An electric current passed through an electric bulb but the bulb did not light up because:
(a) The filament is broken
(b) The filament is resistant to electricity
(c) The filament is the conductor of electricity
(d) None of these.
Answer:
The filament is broken.

Question (v)
The direction of electric current flowing from the cell in the electrical circuit is:
(a) From the positive terminal to the negative terminal
(b) From the negative terminal to the negative terminal
(c) Negative to positive terminal for the first half and positive to negative terminal for the next half.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) From the positive terminal to negative terminal.

Question (vi)
Melting point of fuse wire should be:
(a) low
(b) high
(c) neither high nor low
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) low.

Question (vii)
The filament of the bulb is made of:
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Tungsten
(d) Tin.
Answer:
(c) Tungsten.

Question (viii)
Fuse wire is made of:
(a) Tin
(b) Aluminium
(c) Lead
(d) Copper.
Answer:
(a) Tin.

Question (ix)
What is the reason for deflection of compass when the switch in ‘ON’ position ?
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 7
(a) Due to heat
(b) Formation of Magnetic Field
(c) Due to Chemical Reaction
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Formation of Magnetic Field.

4. State True or False:

(i) The electromagnet attracts the safety pin when the flow of electric current is stopped.
Answer:
False

(ii) The strength of electromagnet doesn’t depend up on the number of turns of the coil wrapped around it.
Answer:
False

(iii) The direction of flow of electric current in an electrical circuit is from positive terminal to negative terminal.
Answer:
True

(iv) To make a battery, two or more cells have to be joined in series by connecting the negative terminal of the first cell to the positive terminal of the second cell and the negative terminal of the second cell to the positive of third cell.
Answer:
True

(v) The same poles of a magnet attract and opposite poles repel each other.
Answer:
False

(vi) To make battery of two cells the negative terminal to one cell is connected to negative terminal of another cell.
Answer:
False

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From where does the torch get electricity ?
Answer:
Electric cell.

Question 2.
How many terminals an electric cell has ?
Answer:
Two terminals, one + ve and other – ve.

Question 3.
What is the function of an electric switch ?
Answer:
To make or break the electric circuit.

Question 4.
Which bulb does not glow even if it is connected to the cell ?
Answer:
Fused bulb.

Question 5.
What is the main reason of fused bulb ?
Answer:
A broken filament.

Question 6.
What is an electromagnet ?
Answer:
Electromagnet. A piece of soft iron which acquires magnetic properties on passing electric current, through a solenoid wound around iron piece, is called electromagnet.

Question 7.
On which factor does magnetism produced depends ?
Answer:
The magnetism produced depends on:

Amount of current flowing through the coil.
Number of turns wound on the soft iron piece.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Show how will you connect a bulb and a torch cell to make it glow ?
Answer:
Diagram showing connection of a bulb and torch cell.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 8

Question 2.
How can you test the conductivity of a given material ?
Answer:
To test conductivity of a given material, we connect the two ends of that material to positive (+) and negative (-) terminal of a cell through a bulb. If after connecting the material the bulb lights up, the material is a conductor and if bulb does not light up, the material is an insulator.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 9

Question 3.
Draw in your note book the symbols to represent the following components of an electrical circuit, connecting wires, switch in the ‘OFF’ position, Bulb, Cell, Switch in the ‘ON’ position and Battery.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 10

Question 4.
Name any two effects of electric current.
Answer:
Effects of electric current:

Heating effect
Magnetic effect.

Question 5.
When the current is switched on through a wire, a compass needle kept nearby gets deflected from its north-south position. Explain.
Answer:
On passing current, the wire behaves like a bar magnet and affects the compass needle kept nearby so that it gets deflected from its N – S position.

Question 6.
An electrician is carrying out some repairs in your house. He wants to replace a fuse by a piece of wire. Would you agree ? Give reasons for your suggestion.
Answer:
Fuse wire cannot be replaced by any wire because fuse wire must have low melting point. If any other ordinary wire is used then it may result in fire and destroy other electrical appliances.

Question 7.
What are the basic requirements for an electric circuit.
Answer:
The basic requirements of an electric circuit are:

Source of current (cell, battery etc.).
Electric device for supplying electric current.
Connectivity wires (for providing a path to the flow of current).
Switch (for making and breaking the circuit).

Question 8.
Do you think an electromagnet can be used for separating plastic bags from a garbage heap ? Explain.
Answer:
No, plastic bags cannot be separated from garbage heap using an electromagnet because electromagnet can attract only magnetic materials towards it. If these plastic bags have metal / iron handles, only then they can be lifted by using an electromagnet.

Question 9.
Will the compass needle show deflection, when the switch in circuit shown in fig. given below is closed ?
Answer:
The compass needle will show deflection because circuit is complete. It is because when switch is closed, passage of current will produce a magnetic field around the in which causes deflection of compass needle.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 11

Question 10.
Zubeda made an electric circuit using a cell holder shown in fig. a switch and a bulb. When she put the switch in the ‘ON’ position the bulb did not glow. Help Zubeda in identifying the possible defect in the circuit.
Answer:
She may have connected -ve terminal to -ve terminal or positive terminal to the positive terminal in a cell holder.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 12

Question 11.
Fig. given below shows four cells fixed on a board. Draw lines to indicate how will you connect their terminals with wires to make a battery of four cells.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 13
Answer:

Question 12.
The bulb in the circuit shown in fig. given below does not glow. Can you identify the problem ? Make necessary changes in the circuit to make the bulb glow.
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 15
Answer:

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
What is an electromagnet ? How can it be prepared ? What are the factors that affect its power ? Also write down the uses of electromagnets.
Answer:
PSEB 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects 17
Electromagnet.
A piece of iron wrapped by enamel-coated copper wire forming a coil. This piece of iron temporarily becomes a magnet when an electric current passes through coil. Such a magnet is called Electromagnet.

Making an electromagnet.
Take approximately 6-10 cm long iron nail and a 50 cm plastic coated wire. Wrap the wire around the iron nail in the form of a coil. Connect the independent ends of the wire to the terminals of the power cell through the switch as shown in the figure.

Turn the switch on and now bring some pins closer to the end of the nail. You will notice that the pins are pulled towards the nail, because the coil behaves like a magnet when an electric current passes through it. An iron nail lies in this magnetic field also becomes a magnet. When the flow of electric current ceases the magnetic effect of the coil and then of the nail disappears. This coil-nail setup becomes an electromagnet.

Factors Affecting the Power of Electromagnetism:

Strength of electric current.
The number of turns of wire wrapped around the iron nail.

Uses of electromagnets:

To lift heavy iron objects and to separate the magnetic material from the heap of scrap: a strong electromagnet is placed at one end of the crane.
Electromagnets are also used in many toys.
Doctors use an electromagnet to remove a small piece of magnetic material that may have entered the eye of a worker accidentally.
It is also used in many devices: such as an electric bells, telegraphs, telephones, speakers, etc.