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PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atmosphere and Temperature

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Atmosphere and Temperature Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Atmosphere and Temperature

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Atmosphere and Temperature Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in about 1-15 words.

Question 1.
What do you understand by the atmosphere?
Answer:
There is a big protective balloon around the earth with a radius of almost 1600 kins. But the breatheable air (99%) is in the radius of 32 kms only.

Question 2.
Why we study atmosphere in Geography?
Answer:
Because atmosphere is the factor which mostly affects the life on earth.

Question 3.
Which is called Tropopause limit?
Answer:
The upper limit of stratosphere is known as tropopause limit.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Exosphere?
Answer:
The outer layer of atmosphere is called Exosphere. We don’t know much about this layer. Only this much is known that this layer contains very light gases like Hydrogen and Helium.

Question 5.
What are the elements other than the gases present in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Water vapours and dust particles besides gases which are present in atmosphere.

Question 6.
What is air pollution?
Answer:
Every year, thousand tons of pollutants accumulate in atmosphere. These pollutants are not natural. This man-made activity is called air pollution. It is of two types—Solid and Gas.

Question 7.
What is temperature and what are the units of measuring the temperature?
Answer:
In the air, the current heat element is called its temperature. Like the air temperature, the element of current heat inside something or organism is also called temperature. The temperature remains fluctuating.

Units of measureing temperature are :

Celsius Scale
Fahrenheit Scale.

Question 8.
Why is temperature very high on the Equator?
Answer:
On the equator, the’ sun rays are very -straight, so the temperature is more.

II. Give answers to the following questions in about 50-60 words.

Question 1.
What are the main factors that cause air pollution?
Answer:
1. Solid factors:

Volcanoes pollute air through dust particles,
In cities, many solid particles are emitted into air by man-made activities.
After fuel combustion, the carbon particles accumulate in the air.
The factories emit dust pollutants which contains Asbestos—a dangerous source of pollution.

2. Gaseous factors:

The fumes emitted by motor vehicles is a dangerous source of air pollution.
There is an extremely poisonous gas called carbon monoxide in the atmosphere where there is a maximum of transportation vehicles.
Smog is another air pollutant that is a combination of smoke and fog.
Another main reason for air pollution is the less ozone in the air.

Question 2.
What we call the lower layer of the atmosphere?
Answer:
The lower layer is called troposphere. This is the most dense layer of the atmosphere. It is actually an oval-shaped construction around the earth. Its average height is 12 kms. On the equator, it is almost 16-18 kms in height while at the poles, it is almost 6-8 kms. This layer always remains disturbed because all the activities like rainfall, clouds, thunder storms, etc. take place in this layer only. Most of the water vapours are also found in troposphere. 75% of air is found in the troposphere. When we move up the troposphere, the temperature decreases and the rate of decrease is 6.5 Celsius per km.

Question 3.
Write the ratio of main gases in the air.
Answer:
Air is actually a mixture of gases. Main gases are Nitrogen and Oxygen. Other important gases are argon, Carbon dioxide and Hydrogen. Nitrogen is almost 78.03%, Oxygen is 20.99%, Argon is 0.94%, Carbon dioxide is 0.03% and Hydrogen is almost 0.01%. In the whole atmosphere, more or less the quantity of gases almost remains stable. But as the height increases, the percentage of these gases decreases.

Question 4.
In which layer of the atmosphere the ozone gas exists? Why is it so important?
Answer:
In the atmosphere, ozone gas is found in stratosphere.

Importance It is a very important gas because it protects the live-world from the dangerous ultraviolet rays of the sun. It absorbs the heat from sun and the heat remains in the stratosphere. The upper layer of stratosphere remains heated as a consequence.

III. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
As we go up to the hills, the temperature ___________
Answer:
decreases

Question 2.
The main sources of the temperature are ___________ and ___________
Answer:
sun, internal parts of earth

Question 3.
The ozone gas absorbs ___________ rays.
Answer:
ultraviolet

Question 4.
The electrically charged particles are found in ___________ layer.
Answer:
ionosphere

Question 5.
The wireless communication system works under ___________ waves.
Answer:
radio

Question 6.
___________ gas is found in maximum quantity in atmosphere.
Answer:
Nitrogen.

IV. Things to do:

Question 1.
What rules should be followed to avoid air pollution, prepare a chart and put it in your classroom.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Draw a diagram of atmosphere showing different layers.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Atmosphere and Temperature Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Trade winds are called :
(a) Seasonal winds
(b) Permanent Winds
(c) Local Winds
(d) Western Winds.
Answer:
(b) Permanent Winds.

Question 2.
The most important layer of the atmosphere is :
(a) Troposphere
(b) Tropospause
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Stratopause.
Answer:
(a) Troposphere.

Question 3.
How much percentage of atmosphere is made up of oxygen gas?
(a) 10.95%
(b) 20.95%
(c) 25.95%
(d) 30.55%.
Answer:
(6) 20.95%.

Question 4.
Which is the closest layer to the earth?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Excosphere.
Answer:
(b) Troposphere.

Question 5.
Which winds are seasonal winds?
(a) Trade
(b) Permanent
(c) Monsoons
(d) Westerlies.
Answer:
(c) Monsoons.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Atmosphere is a mixture of different ___________
Answer:
Gases

Question 2.
Nitrogen and ___________ are the two main gases of atmosphere.
Answer:
Oxygen

Question 3.
___________ layer is the closest to the earth.
Answer:
Troposphere

Question 4.
The uppermost layer of stratosphere is called ___________
Answer:
Tropopause

Question 5.
___________ is the unit of measuring the temperature.
Answer:
Farenheit Scale.

True / False :

Question 1.
The big protective layer surrounding the earth is called lithosphere.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
On the equator temperature is very high.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Troposphere is the upper most layer of the atmosphere.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Weather is the day to day phenomena.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
During day time earth’s surface attracts sun rays.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the elements of Atmosphere.
Answer:
Air, temperature, humidity, air pressure, etc.

Question 2.
What is temperature?
Answer:
In the air, the current heat element is called its temperature. Like the air temperature, the. element of current heat inside something or organism is also called temperature. The temperature remains fluctuating.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the following gases.
Answer:

Nitrogen: It is found in the lower layer of the atmosphere. This gas helps the flora from dying.
Oxygen: It protects the flora and fauna which cannot survive without oxygen.
Carbon dioxide: Carbon dioxide protects the flora. It makes a blanket around the earth and does not let the heat escape from the atmosphere.

Question 4.
What is the importance of water vapours?
Answer:
The water vapours play a great role in changing the temperature.

Question 5.
What is condensation?
Answer:
When the air heats up it expands and becomes lighter and goes up in the air. The heavy air comes down and takes the base of displaced air. This process goes on and takes the form of a cycle. This cycle is known as condensation process.

Question 6.
As we move up the mountains, the temperature decreases. Why?
Answer:
The reason for less temperature at high places is that rays from the sun first heat up the surface and then heat up the atmosphere. So, the atmosphere near the earth’s surface becomes hot quickly and the upper part becomes less hot. This is the reason when we go up the mountains the temperature decreases.

Question 7.
(a) Write a note on ozone layer of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Ozone layer: A thick layer of ozone gas exists in upper atmosphere. This layer is useful as it absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun.

(b) Why is it depleting? Where has been a hole in this layer found?
Answer:
ue to excessive use of chemicals and carbons (which react with ozone layer) the ozone layer is being depleted. This atoms explosions also deplete the ozone layer. In 1980, a hole in the ozone layer was noticed over Antarctica,

(c) What are its harmful effects?
Answer:
Through this hole, ultra-violet rays will reach the earth. These rays are harmful as these cause skin cancer. It may cause blindness.

Question 8.
“The atmosphere acts as a blanket or a glass-house.’ Discuss.
Answer:
Atmosphere acts like a blanket keeping the earth warm. It absorbs incoming solar radiation and does not allow radiation to escape. So equable temperatures are found.

Question 9.
Name the layers of atmosphere.
Answer:

Troposphere
Stratosphere
Mesosphere
Thermo-sphere.

Question 10.
Why there is difference in day time and night time temperature?
Answer:
During day time, earth’s surface attracts sun rays and at night, releases the heat absorbed. So at night, the temperature is low as compared to the day.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the Greenhouse effect of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The atmosphere is heated by the radiation from the earthy surface flow. This action is compared to that of a glass house on greenhouse in which vegetables and flowers are grown in polar areas. Glasshouse permits radiations to get in but does not allow radiation to escape out. Therefore glass house is warmer from inside than outside. The atmosphere also acts like a blanket keeping the earth warm. It is known as the greenhouse effect of atmosphere. This is due to presence of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide has the ability to absorb earth radiation. The carbon dioxide layer acts as a glass roof of the greenhouse. With the increase in carbon dioxide, the temperature of the earth is increasing. Due to this, the year 1955 was the hottest year in India during this century.

Question 2.
What is global warming? What are its causes? State its effects.
Answer:
Global warming. The burning of fossil fuels (coal, gas, petroleum), the cultivation of soil, large scale industrialisation, rapid means of transport and deforestation has caused an imbalance in the atmosphere. These activities are increasing the amount of carbon dioxide. Thus greenhouse effect has raised the average, the temperature of the earth by 0.5° C. By the year 2050, the earth’s average temperature will go up by 2°C. This is called global warming. Global warming is causing a rise in sea levels due to melting of glaciers. It is threatening to submerge many coastal areas.

Question 3.
Write a note on Environmental pollution.
Answer:
Environmental pollution has become a serious problem for mankind. It is threatening the existence of mankind. The composition of air is being altered by undesirable chemical, physical and biological elements. It is known as air-pollution.

Pollutants: The common pollutants found in air are as follows :

Deposited matter like soot, smoke, sand-dust.
Gases like sulphur, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide, Ammonia, Flourine, etc.
Chemical Compounds like arines, phosgenes, detergents.
Metals like lead, iron, zinc, mercury.
Sewage.
Radio-active substances.
Noise and heat.

A. Atmospheric Pollution: Atmosphere is of fundamental importance for our existence. Due to industrial revolution, the atmospheric pollution is increasing gradually. It has harmed the ultra-violet shielding ozone layer. The addition of heat-trapping greenhouse gases will cause a disaster.

The volcanic eruptions, forest fires, natural decay of organic and inorganic matter is causing visibility. Smoke is injurious to health. Acid rain has changed the composition of air and water.

Fossil Fules: The buring of fuels and chemicals is increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in atmosphere. It has increased by 25%. With the result, the average temperature of the earth is increasing. It has increased 0.3°C to 0.7°C during the last century. Deforestation has also led to increase in carbon-dioxide. The increasing use of fuels in vehicles has increased the amount of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and has created many respiratory diseases.

B. Water Pollution: Water is another indispensable source of our life. Pollution of water has caused far-reaching implications. It is a serious problem in metropolitans like Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai. It not only affects the water of rivers, tanks and lakes; but also ocean water.

The following factors affect water pollution

Domestic sewage .
Industrial wastes
Agricultural activities
Thermal pollution
Marine pollution.

C. Land Pollution: Land is one of the most important components of life support system. Land is degrading due to overuse from centuries depletion of land is caused by :

Soil erosion
Pollutant.

Question 4.
Explain in detail the layers of atmosphere.
Answer:
It is estimated that the atmosphere is spread up to a radius of 1600 kms. It can be divided into four main layers described as follows :
1. Troposphere: This is the lowermost layer of atmosphere and is closest to the earth. Its average height is 12 km. Most of the clouds, water vapours and dust particles are found in this layer. This is the weather-making layer and favours human life. The temperature decreases in this layer at the rate of 1°C for every 165 metres.

2. Stratosphere: This layer lies next to the troposphere. Its height ranges from 12 to 80 km. The temperatures are very low and fairly constant. It is free from clouds, dust particles and convection currents.

3. Ozonosphere: This is a zone of ozone gas. It absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun. It has high temperature. It is known as thermosphere also.

4. Ionosphere: This layer extends upto a height of 800 kms. Ozone gas, lone gas electrons and atoms are found in this layer. This layer absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun and reflects radio waves.

5. Exosphere: This is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere. Its upper height is unknown due to inaccessibility. It is a highly rarefied layer. It is known only to aerospace-ships.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the composition of atmosphere.
Answer:
Composition of the Atmosphere. The atmosphere mainly consists of a mixture of gases in a fairly constant composition.

The atmosphere is composed of the following three elements :
1. Gases: Nitrogen and Oxygen are the two major gases found in the atmosphere. In pure dry air, Nitrogen occupies 78% and Oxygen occupies 21% by volume. The remaining 1% is composed of a number of gases like Hydrogen, Argon, Ozone, Helium, Carbon dioxide. The proportions of the gases remain constant.

Active gases: Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Carbon dioxide, Ozone are active gases. Oxygen is the most vital gas for sustaining life. Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide are essential for plant life and help in the process of Photosynthesis.
Inert Gases: Argon, Neon, Helium, Krypton are inert gases which are not so effective.

Atmosphere: Composition

Gas	% of total Atmosphere	Height in km.
Nitrogen	78.03%	125
Oxygen	20.95%	95
Argon	0.93%	–
Carbon dioxide	0.03%	30
Hydrogen	0.01%	200
Other gases	0.05%	–
Total	100.00%	–

It shows that Nitrogen (N2) alone occupies about four-fifths of air by volume and oxygen (02) one-fifth. In addition to the above, other gases like Neon, Methane, Krypton and Radon are also present in the atmosphere. The atmoshpere is odourless, colourless and tasteless. It is mobile, elastic, both compressible and expandable. It is invisible but, it has weight and pressure.

2. Water Vapour: Water vapour represents 2% of the air by volume. It is mostly found in the lower layers of the troposphere. About half the water vapour in the air lies below an altitude of 2000 metres. It is of primary importance to man. It absorbs insolation. It is the source of all condensation and precipitation on the earth. Water vapour, an unstable element is obtained from oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.

3. Dust Particles: The atmosphere holds in suspension many dust particles whose sizes vary. The major source of dust particles are deserts, lake beds, beaches and dry river beds. These are found in the lower layer of the atmosphere. These affect sun rays by scattering and absorbing insolation. These are responsible for the formation of clouds, fog and smog. Solid particles like carbon, salt, pollen grains, etc. are also found in the lower layers of the atmosphere.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the factors affecting the temperature of a place.
Answer:
Temperature is never stable. It goes on changing with time and place. Many factors affect the temperature which are as follows :
1. Distance from the Equator: On the equator the sun rays are straight. So, the heat is more and as a result the temperature is more. As we move towards polar regions the sun rays become .slant and as a result these regions are cold and the temperature is very less.

2. Height from Sea Level: The place which is higher than the sea level has less temperature. The reason is that when we near the sea coast the air is dense but as we move up the air becomes thin. So, the high places have low temperature, e.g. Shimla is at a more height than Chandigarh. So, the temperature of Shimla is less than the temperature of Chandigarh.

3. Distance from Sea: In comparison to land, the water beats up early. So, the places which are near the sea the temperature is neither more nor less. But the places which are away from the sea, there the temperature is less in winter and more in summer, e.g. Mumbai has stable temperature because of its closeness to sea. Whereas, Amritsar is very far away from sea and as a result there is much difference in summer and winter temperature.

4. Sea Waves: The sea waves are of two types hot and cold. Where the hot waves flow the temperature there increases and where the cold waves flow the temperature there decreases.

5. Winds: The winds that come from sea are full of water vapours and produce rainfall. As a result the temperature becomes less. On the other hand the winds coming from dry areas increase the temperature of places which come in their contact.

6. Direction of Mountains: The mountains which are horizontal to the direction of winds they cannot stop the watery winds and as a result no rainfall happens there. But the areas with vertical mountains to the wind direction can stop the winds and cause rainfall.

7. Slope of Mountains: The mountain’s slope facing the sun had more temperature. While the other side of the mountains has no temperature.

8. Types of Soil: The sandy soil heats up quicker than the clay. So, in the arid areas the temperature in the daytime, is more. But in the nighttime, it is less.

9. Clouds and Rains: The places where there are more clouds and rains have less temperature because clouds stop the sunlight from reaching the earth directly. As a result, the temperature is less. Similarly, the rains also decrease the temperature.

Layers of Atmosphere

PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India: Physiographic Units

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 9th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India: Physiographic Units Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2a India: Physiographic Units

SST Guide for Class 9 PSEB India: Physiographic Units Textbook Questions and Answers

Map Work:

Show on the outline map of India :
(i) Karakoram, Pir Pajal, Shiwalik, Satpura, Patkai Bam, Khasi and Garo mountain Ranges.
(ii) The mountain Peaks of Kanchanjunga, Godwin-Austin, Dhaulagiri, Guru Shikhar and Anai Mudi.
(iii) Any five passes and three plateau regions.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of India Map.

Objective Type Questions:
Answer the following questions in a single word to one sentence length :

Question 1.
Name any two physiographic region of India.
Answer:
On the basis of physiography, India can be divided in five parts :

Himalaya Mountain,
Northern Plains,
Peninsular Plateau,
Coastal Plains,
Indian Islands.

Question 2.
If you visit Guru Shikhar, in which mountain range you shall be there?
Answer:
Mount Abu (Aravali Mountain).

Question 3.
What is the length and breadth of Northern Plains of India?
Answer:
The length of northern plains is 2400 km and breadth is 150-300 km.

Question 4.
In how many categories the India archlipelogos are divided in?
Answer:
Indian islands are mainly divided in two parts- Andaman-Nicobar islands and Lakshdweep islands.

Question 5.
Which of following is not a part of plains?
(i) Bhabar
(ii) Bhangar
(iii) Khayal
(iv) Kallar.
Answer:
(iii) Khayal.

Question 6.
Which among the following is not a lake?
(i) Saddle
(ii) Sambar
(iii) Chilka
(iv) Vembanand.
Answer:
(i) Saddle.

Question 7.
Which of the following is odd?
(i) Sharda
(ii) Kaveri
(iii) Gomati
(iv) Yamuna.
Answer:
(ii) Kaveri.

Question 8.
Which of the followinis not a range of Himalayas?
(i) Rakashposhi
(ii) Dafla
(iii) Zaskar
(iv) Nilgiri.
Answer:
(iv) Nilgiri.

Short Answer Questions :
Give short answers for the following Questions :

Question 1.
Write a note on the formation of a Himalaya.
Answer:
Millions of years ago, the Himalayas were occupied by a geosyncline known as Tethys. It was sandwiched between two long and large landmasses—Angara land on the north and Gondwana land on the south. The Tethys sea stretched over the Northern plains in east-west direction. For millions of years, sediments were deposited in Tethys sea. These sediments were folded to form the Himalayas. The landmasses of Angara land and Gondwana land drifted slowly towards each other. The horizontal forces worked from two opposite directions resulting in compression. It led to sinking of the ‘Tethys Sea”.

The Indian plate was driven northwards and pushed beneath the Eurasian plate. When the two plates came closer, the Tethys sea’s crust fractured. The sediments buckled and folded to form the mighty fold mountains of the Himalayas. It has been observed that the “Himalayas are still rising”.

Question 2.
Describe the Khadar plains. How are they different from the Bet areas?
Answer:
Khadar is a plain made up with new alluvial soil. This plain is made up of deposition of sediments of Himalayan rivers which spread over the region. This soil is quite fertile. Such plains with same soil are called Bet in Punjab. So, Bet is the local name of plains with Khadar soil.

Question 3.
Write a note on the Central Himalayas.
Answer:

Lesser Himalaya is also known as Himachal or Central Himalaya. Its average height is 3500′ metres to 5000 metres and breadth of the mountains of this range is 60-80 km.
Ranges. This part of Himalaya has many ranges such as Pir Panjal and Naga Tibha in J&K, Dhauladhar and Kumaon in Himachal, Mahabharat in Nepal, Kumaon and Mussoorie in Uttrakhand and Thimpu in Bhutan.
This region of Himalaya has many beautiful places where people come and enjoy for sometime such as Shimla, Srinagar, Mussoore, Nainital, Darjeeling etc.

Question 4.
What is the difference between Eastern and Western Ghats?
Answer:

Western Ghats	Eastern Ghats
1. The Western ghats form a continuous chain from Gulf of Cambay to Kanyakumari.	1. The Eastern ghats form a discontinuous chain of low hills from Orissa to Coromandel coast.
2. These consist of Sahyadri, Nilgiris, Annamalai and Cardamom hills.	2. The Eastern ghats are known by local names.
3. The main passes in Western ghats are: Thai ghat, Bhor ghat and Pal ghat.	3. There are wide gaps in Eastern ghats, through which rivers flow.
4. The average height of Western ghats is 1000 metres. The highest peak is Anaimudi (2965 metres) in Kerala.	4. The average height of Eastern ghats is 450 metres. These merge with western ghats in Nilgiris.

Question 5.
Describe the Indian Archipelagos and write the names of the Islands.
Answer:
There are 267 Indian islands and they can be divided in two parts :
1. Andaman & Nicobar islands. These islands form two major groups in Bay of Bengal. These are Andamans and Nicobar islands. These islands extend between 6° and 14° N latitudes for a distance of 600 kms. These islands are 214 in number. The Nicobar group consists of 15 islands extending between 6° N to 10° N latitudes. Ten-degree channel separates the Andaman group of islands from the Nicobar group. These islands form a union territory of India with Port Blair as its capital. Indira Point in the Nicobar islands is the southernmost point of the Indian Union. These islands form the summits of the submerged hills of the ocean floor.

2. Lakshadweep islands. These islands are situated in the Arabian Sea and lie 320 km off the coast of Kerala between 8° and 12° North latitudes. These are coral islands.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Bhabar and Terai.
Answer:

Terai	Bhabar
1. Terai is a broad long zone south of Bhabar plain.	1. Bhabar is a long, narrow plain along the foothills.
2. It is a marshy damp area covered with thick forests.	2. It is a pebble studded zone of porous beds.
3. It is 20-30 kms. wide.	3. It is 8-16 kms. wide.
4. Many streams re-emerge here from the Bhabar area.	4. Streams are lost in the region due to porous rocks.
5. It is suitable for agriculture.	5. It is unsuitable for agriculture.

Long Answer Questions:
Answer the following questions in detail :

Question 1.
Explain in detail mountain ranges of peninsular plateau.
Answer:
The Deccan Plateau is the oldest structure of India. It is the core of the geology of India. It is surrounded by oceans on three sides. Therefore it is often called Peninsular plateau. It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq. km. The average altitude of the’plateau varies from 600 to 900 metres. Its limits are formed by the Aravallis in the North, Rajmahal Hills and Shillong plateau in the East. The southernmost point is known as Kanyakumari. It is an ancient, stable, hard block formed by Igneous and Metamorphic rocks. It was a part of Gondwana land.

Division of Peninsular Plateau. A series of low hills, known as Satpura ranges between 21° N to 24° N latitudes divides the Peninsular plateau into two parts :
(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Deccan Plateau

(a) Malwa Plateau. The Malwa plateau covers a large part of central highlands. It extends from Aravallis in the West to Ganges valley in the North and East, and Vindhyas in the South. The Aravallis are residual mountains or Relict Mountains. Its highest peaks sire Mt. Abu (1158 metres) and Guru Shikhar (1722 metres). This plateau includes Bundelkhand, Baghelkhandand, Chambal valley. The Vindhyan plateau consists of long, narrow ridges made up of quartzite rocks. It extends upto Mahadeo Hills, Kaimur range, Maikal range, Rajmahal hills in the East. In the East lies Chotta Nagpur plateau drained by Damodar river. This plateau is the storehouse of minerals of India.

(b) Deccan Plateau. This plateau lies South of Narmada river. It is surrounded by mountain ranges on three sides-Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and Satpuras. Narmada and Tapti valleys are rift valleys between Satpuras and Vindhyas. Karnataka Plateau lies between Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Deccan plateau is a tilted plateau with a general eastward slope. It covers an area of about 70 lakh sq. km. Its average height varies between 500 metres to 1000 metres. The rivers have divided this plateau into many sub-divisions.

N. W. Deccan plateau is made up of lava and is known as Deccan trap.
1. Western Ghats. Western Ghats extend from Tapti valley up to Kanyakumari for about 1500 kms. It has three passes-Thal ghat, Bhor ghat and Pal ghat. These ranges rise abruptly from the coast. Short swift streams flow towards the west and do not form deltas. The average height is about 1200 metres. Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery rivers rise from Western ghats and flow towards East.

2. Eastern Ghats. Eastern Ghats extend for about 800 kms from Mahanadi valleys upto Nilgiris. These are not continuous ranges. Rivers form wide gaps. Javadi, Shevroy and Nallamalai hills are found in the Southern part.

3. Nilgiris. Western ghats and Eastern ghats join together to form a knot known as Nilgiris. Anai Mudi (2698 metres) is the highest peak. Anaimalai, Palni, and Cardamom Hills are found in the southern part.

Question 2.
Describe the formation of Ganga-Brahmputra plains and write their regional distribution.
Answer:
Northern Plain of India :
This great plain extends in between the Himalayas and the Peninsular plateau extending from Punjab Plains to Assam Valley. It is 2400 km. long and 240 to 320 km wide. Its average height is 150 metres. It covers an area of 7.5 lakh sq. km.

It is an alluvium filled trough. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought from the Himalayas by the Ganga, Sutlej and by the. rivers of the peninsular plateau. Therefore it is called an alluvial plain. It is a dead flat lowland. The maximum height is 283 metres near Ambala. It has fertile alluvial soils of Khadar and Bangar. It is agriculturally a very productive part of India.

Division of Northern Plain :

Bhabar and Terai. It is a long, narrow zone along the foothills. It is a pebble studded zone. Swampy areas occur in Terai.
Punjab Plain. This plain has a slope in the South-West direction. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments by Ravi, Beas and Sutlej rivers. Chos (Seasonal streams) cause soil erosion in the foothills of Shivalik.
Ganga Plain. This plain has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought by the Ganga and its tributaries. It can be divided into three regions :
(1) upper Ganga plain,
(2) middle Ganga plain and
(3) the lower Ganga plain. It occupies an area of about 3.5 lakh sq. km. Sunderban Delta is formed in the lower Ganga plain. This fertile delta is the largest delta of the world.
Brahmaputra Plain. This plain is situated in the eastern part and is often known as Assam valley. The Brahmaputra river forms a large delta in Bangladesh. The river forms a narrow, deep gorge called ‘Dihang gorge’ which is 12,000 metres deep.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Coastal plains are spread along with Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal. They can be divided in two parts-Western coastal plains and Eastern coastal plains.

Western Coastal Plain	Eastern Coastal Plain
1. West Coast is a narrow alluvial plain with a width of 50-80 kms. It is uneven and wet.	1. The Eastern Coast has a wide plain with well developed delta 80 to 120 km. wide. It is level and dry.
2. Beautiful lagoons are found on the Malabar Coast.	2. The Eastern Coast has only two or three lagoons.
3. The short swift rivers do not make any deltas on the Western Coast. The Tapti and Narmada make estuaries.	3. The large rivers make wide deltas on the Eastern Coast. Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery make well-developed deltas.
4. Kandla, Mumbai, Marmagao, Mangalore and Cochin are major ports on West’coast.	4. Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Paradeep and Kolkata are major ports on the East coast.
5. Western Coastal plains receive rainfall in summer season due to advancing monsoon winds.	5. Many of the Eastern coastal plain areas recieve winter rainfall due to retreating monsoon winds.

Question 4.
Differentiate between the advantages of Himalayan mountains and Peninsular plateau.
Answer:
Himalaya mountain and Deccan plateau are the twq important physiographic divisions of India. Both these make India prosperous in their own way. Their comparison of advantages is given below :

Advantages of Himalaya Mountain :

Rainfall: The monsoon winds coming from the Indian ocean get struck with Himalaya and give lot of rainfall to the region. They also give rainfall to the northern plains.
Many rivers: Almost all the rivers flowing in northern India originate in Himalaya mountain such as Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej, Brahmaputra. These are perennial rivers and the melting snow of Himalaya gives water to such rivers.
Fruit and Tea: The slopes of Himalaya are quite productive for producing tea and different types of fruit.
Useful Wood. Dense forests are there on Himalaya. These forests are our wealth. Wood obtained from these forests is quite useful for us and many industries are dependent upon them. This wood is also used for construction of houses as well.
Good grasslands: Many green grasslands are available on Himalayas. Many tribal communities rear animals on such grasslands.
Places of entertainment: There are many beautiful valleys in the Himalayan region. Kashmir valley is such beautiful valley which was known as heaven on earth. The valleys of Kullu and Kangra in Himachal Pradesh and Kumaon in Uttrakhand are other major valleys of this region. People often visit such places to relax.

Advantages of Deccan Plateau :

Deccan plateau is rich in mineral resources. 98% of the country’s mineral wealth is available in the region. Coal, iron, manganese etc. many minerals are available in this region.
Its soil is quite useful for the growth of cotton, tea, rubber, sugarcane, coffee, spices etc.
Its rivers form many waterfalls which are quite useful for the production of hydroelectricity.
This region is quite famous for the forests of saal, sagvan, chandan etc.

PSEB 9th Class Social Science Guide India: Physiographic Units Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
The height of Mount Everest is
(a) 9848 m.
(b) 7048 m.
(c) 8848 m.
(d) 6848 m.
Answer:
(c) 8848 m.

Question 2.
Jog waterfall is on:
(a) Ganga river
(b) Sharavathi river
(c) Yamuna river
(d) Chenab river.
Answer:
(b) Sharavathi river.

Question 3.
Most of the part of Himalaya is spread in:
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Tibet
(d) Bhutan.
Answer:
(c) Tibet.

Question 4.
Himalaya mountain originated from:
(a) Tethys sea
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
(a) Tethys sea.

Question 5.
The part between Ravi and Reas rivers is known as:
(a) Bist Doab
(b) Peninsular Plateau
(c) Chaj Doab
(d) Malabar Doab.
Answer:
(a) Bist Doab.

Question 6.
Konkan plain is spread
(a) From Daman to Goa
(b) From Mumbai to Goa
(c) From Daman to Bengaluru
(d) From Mumbai to Daman.
Answer:
(a) From Daman to Goa.

Question 7.
Major peak of Western Ghats is :
(a) Guru Shikhar
(b) Vabulamals
(c) Konkan Shikhar
(d) Mount Kg.
Answer:
(a) Guru Shikhar.

Question 8.
The plain made by Sutlej, Brahmaputra and Ganga river system is known as:
(a) Southern plain
(b) Eastern plain
(c) Northern plain
(d) Tibetan plain.
Answer:
(c) Northern plain.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The average height of Trans Himalaya is ________ metres.
Answer:
6000

Question 2.
________ is the highest peak of the world.
Answer:
Mount Everest

Question 3.
The end point of Indian peninsular plateau is ________
Answer:
Kanyakumari

Question 4.
Thai ghat, Bhor ghat and ________ are the passes of western ghats.
Answer:
Pal Ghat

Question 5.
Chilka lake is India’s largest ________ lake.
Answer:
saline

Question 6.
________ river becomes a boundary between two parts of a great plateau.
Answer:
Narmada

Question 7.
________ Himalaya is the longest and highest range of India.
Answer:
Great

Question 8.
Malabar coast is spread from Goa to ________
Answer:
Mangalore

Question 9.
The plain of Chhattisgarh is made by ________ river.
Answer:
Mahanadi.

True/False:

Question 1.
Trans Himalaya is also known as Tibetan Himalaya.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Most of the places of entertainment of Himalaya are situated in Great Himalaya.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Kaveri and Krishna played a very important role in the formation of northern plains.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
There are 3 passes in western ghats: Thai Ghat, Bhor Ghat and Pal Ghat.
Answer:
True.
Question 5.
Western Ghats are also knwon as Suhadris.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the size of the Himalayan Mountain range?
Answer:
Himalayas are a convex curve. Its central part is bent along Indo-Nepalese border and looks like a bow.

Question 2.
How did Himalayan mountain regions originate?
Answer:
Himalayas have arisen out of Tethys sea.

Question 3.
Name the major peaks of Trans Himalayas.
Answer:
The main peaks are Mount Kg, Godwin Austin, Hindon Peak, Broad Peak Geyserabam, Rakaposhi, Harmush.

Question 4.
Which mountain peaks are found at the height above 8000 metres in Greater Himalayas?
Answer:
Mount Everest (8848 metres),Kanchenjunga (8598 metres), Makalu (8481 metres), Dhaulagiri (8172 metres), Manalasu, Naga Parbat and Annapurna.

Question 5.
Name the young and old moutains of India.
Answer:
Himalayas are young mountains. Old mountains include Aravallis, Vindhyas, Satpuras.

Question 6.
Where are rift valleys located in India?
Answer:
Rift valleys are found over peninsular India like Narmada and Tapti valleys.

Question 7.
What is meant by delta?
Answer:
A triangular shaped land formed in the lower course of a river is called a delta.

Question 8.
Name some important deltaic regions of India.
Answer:
The main deltas are: Ganga Brahmaputra, Godawari Delta, Kaveri Delta, Krishna Delta and Mahandi Delta.

Question 9.
Which passes are found in the Himalayan Mountains?
Answer:
The main passes in Himalayas are Burzel, Zojila, Nanak La, Chang La, Khurnak La, Baralg., Shipki La, Nathula, Takla Kot.

Question 10.
Name the important mountain ranges of lesser Himalayas.
Answer:

Pir Panjal in Kashmir
Dhauladhar to Kumaon in H.P.
Mahabharat ranges in Nepal
Mussorie in U.P.
Thimpu in Bhutan.

Question 11.
Which hill stations and valleys are found in Lesser Himalayas?
Answer:
Shimla, Dun, Path Doon, Kothri Doon, Udhampur, Kotli.

Question 12.
Name the main Doon valleys of our country.
Answer:
Dehra Dun, Patli Doon, Kothri Doon, Udhampur, Kotli.

Question 13.
Name the major Eastern off-shoots of Himalayas.
Answer:
Patkoi Bum, Garo, Khasi, Jaintia, Tripura. .

Question 14.
Which landform features formed by rivers are found in the Great Northern plains?
Answer:
Alluvial cones, Fans, Meanders, River terraces, Natural leaves and Flood plains.

Question 15.
Which inter-fluves are formed in the North-Western Plains?
Answer:

Bari Doab (Majha),
Bist Doab (Doaba),
Malwa,
Haryana Plains.

Question 16.
What is the size of the Brahmaputra plain?
Answer:
Brahamputra plain is 640 km long and 90-100 km wide. This narrow plain slopes from N.East to West.

Question 17.
What is the extent of Aravalli mountain range? Give the name of its highest peak.
Answer:
Aravallis extend from Delhi to Gujarat. It is 725 km long. Guru Shikhar 1722 metres high is the highest peak.

Question 18.
Name the major peaks of western ghats.
Answer:

Vania Mala (2339 metres),
Kudremukh (1849 metres),
Pushpagiri (1714 metres),
Kalsubai (1646 metres).

Question 19.
Name the southern mountains of the Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Javadi, Gingee, Shevroy, Kalaimalais, Panchmalais, Godumalai are the hills of Eastern ghats.

Question 20.
Which hill stations are found in the Deccan plateau’s hilly region?
Answer:
Doda Beta, Ootacumand (Udagmandlam), Kodaikanal.

Question 21.
Name the Islands in the Arabian sea.
Answer:
This group of islands is called Lakshadweep. It includes Amini Divi, Central (Lacca deep), Minicoi in South.

Question 22.
Where is the Southern frontier point of India located?
Answer:
Indira Point (Near Great Nicobar).

Question 23.
Give any three uses of the coastal plains to the entire country.
Answer:

Natural Bays and Ports are found.
Many lagoons are found.
It is a rich fishing ground.

Question 24.
Which river becomes a boundary between two large Indian plateaus?
Answer:
Narmada River.

Question 25.
Which are the Island groups of India and where are they situated?
Answer:
Andaman Nicobar and Lakshdweep are two Island groups and they are situated in Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea respectively.

Question 26.
Which range of Himalaya is called Shiwalik?
Answer:
Outer Himalaya range.

Question 27.
Which rivers played an important role in the formation of Northern plains of India?
Answer:
Sutlej, Brahmaputra and Ganga river system.

Question 28.
What do you call the coastal region from Goa to Mangalore?
Answer:
Malabar Coast.

Question 29.
From where to where the Konkan coast is stretched?
Answer:
Konkan coast is stretched from Daman to Goa.

Question 30.
Which region of India is quite rich in mineral resources?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any two proofs of Himalayas’ successive upliftment.
Answer:
Himalayas were formed about 400 lakh years ago in the Tethys sea. Rivers continued depositing sediments in the Tethys sea between the Tibet and Indian Plateau. Both the plates—Eurasian and Indian—drifted towards each other. It resulted in folds in sediments and began to rise. The Himalayas are still rising. Thus the Himalayas were formed due to this uplift.

Question 2.
Do we find any similarities between Himalayan mountain and the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
The following similarities are found between the Himalayas and the Southern plateau.

The Himalayas came into existence due to presence of the Southern plateau.
The hills, faults and folds of the southern peninsula have been formed due to pressure from the Himalayas.
Many minerals are found in both areas.
Forests are found in both areas for use in the country.

Question 3.
Are the Himalayan mountains still in youth or young stage?
Answer:
There is no doubt about the fact that Himalayas are still young fold mountains. They have been folded out of sediments deposited by rivers. Folds were formed in sediments due to the drifting of two blocks on either side. It increased the height of Himalayas. Himalayas are still rising. These mountains were formed at a later stage as compared to other mountains. So these are called young mountains.

Question 4.
Which alluvial plains have been formed in the Great Himalayas?
Answer:
The following are the alluvial plains included in Northern great plain:

Khadar plains
Bangar plains
Bhabar plains
Terai plains
Barren plains.

Question 5.
Write a geographical note on the Thar Desert.
Answer:
Thar Desert extends from southern borders of Punjab and Haryana to Rann of Kutch (Gujarat). It is a plain and arid area. Aravallis form its eastern boundary. It has international boundary of Pakistan in the West. It is 640 km. long and 300 km. wide. In ancient period, this region was under sea. Proofs show that this desert was once a fertile area. But due to low rainfall and deforestation, it has been changed into areas of sand dunes.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India Physiographic Units 1

Question 6.
What could be the different divisions of Indian islands on the basis of location? Explain with examples and diagrams.
Answer:
On the basis of location, Indian islands can be divided into the following two groups:

Islands situated away from the coast. There are about 230 islands found in groups. Such Coral islands exist in Arabian Sea and are called Lakshdweep islands. Amandivi, Lakshadweep, Minicoy are other islands. Andaman-Nicobar islands, Norcadam, Barren islands are found in Bay of Bengal.
Islands situated near the coast. The new moor islands Sorat, Wheeler islands are found near Ganges delta. Other islands are Bhasara, Diu, Palmbam, Mandapam, Elephanta.

Question 7.
What is the contribution of coastal plains to entire country?
Answer:
(t) Coastal plains are known for rice, dates, coconuts, spices, ginger, cardamoms, etc.
(ii) It leads in the international trade.
(Hi) High grade fishes are caught in these coastal areas,
(iv) Beaches along Goa, Mumbai, Tamilnadu are a great attraction for the tourists,
(v) Salt is prepared on the marshy areas of west coast.

Question 8.
‘The western coastal plains of India are not only narrow, but are also without Deltaic deposit. Explain.
Answer:
The western coastal plain is narrow. It has no deposition of sediments.

There are not many rivers which fall into Arabian sea. The western ghats are not well dissected. Most of large rivers fall into Bay of Bengal and deposit sediments on plateau.
The rivers are swift and short. So the rivers (Narmada, Tapti) do not make any deltas ; but estuaries are formed.

Question 9.
What is the contribution of the Himalayan Region to the development of the country as a whole?
Answer:
The following are the advantages of the Himalayas to India:

Useful Rivers. All the important rivers such as the Ganga, the Yamuna, the Satluj, the Brahamputra etc. rise in the Himalayas.
Useful Wood. On account of heavy rainfall, dense forests are found in the Himalayas. Teak, deodar and pine are some of the trees, the wood of which is of great use.
Minerals. Many types of minerals are found in the Himalayas.
Fruits and Tea. The slopes of the Himalayas are very favourable for the growth of various fruits and tea. Assam is known for good quality of tea.
Fodder and Medicinal Herbs. Many varieties of medicinal herbs and grasses for fodder grow over most of the parts of Himalayas.

Question 10.
How does the peninsular plateau affect the other physical region of India?
Answer:

Peninsular India is a part of old Gondwana land. The rivers rising out of it helped in the formation of Himalayas. After that it helped in the formation of Northern plains.
On both sides of the plateau, there are many dams. These dams provide water for irrigation to the plains and power for industries.
The forests of this area meet the needs of the other parts of the country.

Question 11.
Differentiate between
(i) Terai and Bhabar
Answer:
Difference between Terai and Bhabar region :

Terai	Bhabar
1. Terai is a broad long zone south of Bhabar plain.	1. Bhabar is a long narrow plain along the foothills.
2. It is a marshy damp area covered with thick forests.	2. It is a pebble-studded zone of porous beds.
3. It is 20-30 kms wide.	3. It is 8-16 kms wide.
4. Many streams reemerge here from the Bhabar area.	4. Streams are lost in the region due to porous rocks.
5. It is suitable for Agriculture.	5. It is unsuitable for Agriculture.

(ii) Bangar and Khadar
Answer:
Difference between Bangar and Khadar :

Bangar	Khadar
1. The older alluvium of the high plain is called Bangar.	1. The younger alluvium of the flood plain is called Khadar.
2. This area stands above the level of the flood plain.	2. Flood water spreads a new layer over it every year.
3. It is composed of calcarous Kankars and clay. (Dahia)	3. It is composed of fertile alluvium. (Bet)

(iii) Chos and wasteland
Answer:
Difference between Chos and Wasteland :

Chos	wasteland
1. The seasonal streams flowing down the Shiwaliks are called Chos.	1. Wasteland include Ravines formed by chos.
2. These deposit sand and make the soil infertile.	2. These are not fit for agriculture.
3. These are active during rainy season along Shiwaliks.	3. These are also called Badland.

(iv) Estuarty and Delta.
Answer:
Difference between Estuary and Delta :

Estuary	Delta
1. An estuary is a funnel shaped channel at the mouth of a river.	1. A delta is a triangular shaped land formed at the mouth of a river.
2. An estuary is a long narrow channel.	2. A delta resembles the Greek letter delta (∆).
3. Narmada and Tapti rivers make estuaries on the West coast.	3. Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta is the biggest delta in the world.

Question 12.
Throw some light on the surface features of Great Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himalayas extend from Indus Valley to Dihang Gorge in the East. Its main characteristics are:

It is the longest and the highest mountain range of the country. It includes old rocks of granite, gneiss crystalline metamorphic rocks.
It has Mount Everest 8848 metres high, the highest peak of the world.
The peaks of the Himalayas are always snow-covered.
Many passes make routes across it.
It includes important valleys of Kathmandu and Kashmir.

Question 13.
Explain in brief about the Great plains in India.
Answer:
The great plains of India are also known as Satluj-Ganga plains. Alongwith Himalaya mountains, they are spread from west to east direction. They are spread from Rajasthan to Assam. Except few of its western desert region, whole of the northern plain is quite fertile. It is formed by the alluvium brought about by the perennial rivers. That is why, they are also called Alluvium plains.

It can be divided in four parts :

Punjab-Haryana plains
Thar desert plain
Ganga plain and
Brahmaputra plain. Northern plains are quite helpful in the progress of the country. Many crops are grown here which make India a self-sufficient country.

Question 14.
Compare Western and Eastern Coastal plains.
Answer:

Western Coastal Plain	Eastern Coastal Plain
1. West coast is a norrow alluvial plain with a width of 50-80 kms. It is uneven and wet.	1. The Eastern coast has a wide plain with well developed delta 80 to 120 km., wide. It is level and dry.
2. Beautiful lagoons are found on the Malabar coast.	2. The Eastern coast has only two or three lagoons.
3. The short swift rivers do not make any delta on the western coast. The Tapti and Narmada make estuaries.	3. The large rivers make wide (jeltas on the Eastern coast. Mahanada, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery make well develped deltas.

Question 15.
Compare Deccan Plateau with Indo-Gangetic Plains.
Answer:

Deccan Plateau	Indo-Gangetic Plains
1. Location. It is a triangular plateau bounded by Vindhyas, Western ghats and Eastern ghats.	1. It is an alluvial plain stretching from Punjab to Assam valley.
2. Relief. The relief of this plateau is uneven. Its average height above sea level is more than 600 metres.	2. This is a level plain about 200 metres high above sea level.
3. Climate. The climate here is hot and humid.	3. Here the summers are hot and winters are cold.
4. Crops. Jowar, Bajra, Spices and Groundnut are grown here.	4. Rice, Wheat, Cotton and Sugarcane are mostly grown here.
5. Rivers. Cauvery, Mahanadi, Godavari, Narmada and Tapti are main seasonal rivers here.	5. Ganga, Yamuna and Brahmaputra are the main perennial rivers.

Question 16.
What do you mean by Trans Himalayas?
Answer:
Trans Himalayas. These mountains lie beyond the great Himalayas. These include Karakoram, Ladakh, Kailash and Zanskar ranges, K₂ or Mt, Godwin Austin (8611 metres) i.e. Baltro Glacier (60 km.) and Siachen Glacier (72 km.) Most of its part is in Tibet. That’s why it is also known as Tibetan Himalaya. Its total length is 1000 km and breadth is 40 km. Its average height is 6000 metres. K₂ is the second highest peak of the world.
PSEB 9th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 2a India Physiographic Units 2

Question 17.
Write a note on Outer Himalayas.
Answer:
Shiwalik Ranges. The southernmost range of the Himalayas is known as the Shiwaliks or outer Himalayas. Its average height is less than 1000 metres. Although these extend from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh, yet these are not continuous ranges. These are made of loose, unconsolidated sediments broguht down by rivers. Soil erosion by chos is at its worst in this region. In between the Shiwaliks and the lesser Himalayas, longitudinal valleys called Duns are found such as Dehradun.

Question 18.
Which mountain ranges constitute the Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra marks the easternmost geographical limit of the Himalayas. The Himalayas, making a hairpin bend, extend southward. The mountains situated along the eastern boundary of India are called Purvanchal. These mountains are of medium height. These include Patkoi and Naga Hills in the north, Lushai hills in south, Mizo hills in Mizoram. These also include Garo, Khasi, Jaintia hills in Meghalya. These mountains are less spectacular than western mountains.

Question 19.
Divide Northern plain into four regions based on variations in relief.
Answer:
On the basis of relief, the Northern plain is divided into four sections :
Bhabar plain. It is located in the foothills of mountains. Rivers are lost in this section.
Terai plain. South of Bhabar, lies the Terai belt. The rivers reappear in this swampy and marshy region.
Bangar plain. The flood plain formed by old alluvium is called Bangar plain.
Khadar plain. The new young deposits of flood plain is called Khadar.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Divide the relief of India and explain in detail any one region.
Answer:
India is divided into following physiographic divisions :

Himalayan Ranges
Northern Great Plain
Peninsular India
Coastal Plains
Indian Islands.

Himalayan Ranges. The Himalayas are spread over the northern boundary of India like an arc, from west to east. The length of these mountains is about 2500 kilometres and breadth is between 250 to 400 kilometres. Mount Everest (8,848 metres) is the highest peak of the Himalayas.

The Himalayas can be divided into three parts :
1. Northern Kashmir Himalayas. The north-western part of the Himalayas is known as the Kashmir Himalayas. Karakoram, Laddakh, Zaskar and Kailash are the main ranges of the Kashmir Himalayas.

2. Main Himalayas. Main Himalayas consist of the following :

Greater Himalayas or Himadri. This range spreads from East to West. Mount Everest (8,488 metres), the highest peak of the world lies in the range. Jojila, Jailpa la and Lingshila are some of the important passes in this range.
The Himachal Range or Lesser Himalayas. The average height of this range is 3500 to 4500 metres and its breadth is 60 to 80 kilometres. Hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie and Nainital are situated on this range.
Shiwaliks or Outer Himalayas. The average height of these hills is 900 to 1200 metres and breadth is only 10 to 50 kilometres.

3. Off-shoots of the Himalayas. The Himalayas turn to the south on the eastern and western flanks. They are respectively known as the Eastern and the Western Himalayas in the east and the west.
(a) Eastern Himalayas. The Himalayas consist of the famous hills of Patkoi, Naga and Manipur. They are very low hills and are fully covered with forests.
(b) Western Himalayas. In the West, Suleman and Kirthar ranges are dominant. They have many important passes like Khyber, Tochi and Bolan.

Question 2.
Write a note on the origin and structure of the Himalayas. Are they still rising?
Answer:
Millions of years ago, the Himalayas were occupied by a geosyncline known as Tethys. It was sandwiched between two long landmasses: Angara land on the north and Gondwana land on the south. The Tethys sea stretched over the Northern plains in east-west direction. For millions of years, sediments were deposited in Tethys sea. These sediments were folded to form the Himalayas. The land masses of Angara land and Gondwana land drifted slowly towards each other. The horizontal forces worked from two opposite directions resulting in compression. It led to sinking of the Tethys sea.

Question 3.
Give a detailed description of the size, origin and regional division of India’s Northern plain.
Answer:
Extent. This great plain extends in between the Himalayas and the Peninsular plateau. It is 3200 km long and 150 to 300 km wide. Its average height is 150 metres. It covers an area of 7.5 lakh sq. km.

Formation. It is an alluvium filled trough. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought from the Himalayas by the Ganga, Satluj and other rivers.

Main Characteristics :

It is a dead flat lowland. Its maximum height above sea level is 263 metres.
It has a gentle gradient.
It has a huge depth of alluvium.
A large number of rivers flow in this plain dividing it into Doabs.
It has fertile alluvial soils namely Khadar and Bangar soils.

Division of Northern Plain :

Bhabar and Terai. It is a long, narrow zone along the foothills. It is a pebble-studded zone. Swampy areas occur in Terai.
Punjab Plain. This plain has a slope in the South-West direction. It has been formed by the deposition of sediments by Ravi, Beas and Sutlej rivers. Chos (seasonal streams) cause soil erosion in foothills of Shivaliks.
Ganga Plain. This plain has been formed by the deposition of sediments brought by the Ganga and its tributaries. It can be divided into three regions: upper Ganga plain, middle Ganga plain and the lower Ganga plain. It occupies an area of about 3.5 lakh sq. km. Sunder Ban Delta is formed in the lower Ganga plain.
Brahmaputra Plains. These plains are situated in the Eastern part and are often known as Assam valley. The Brahmaputra river forms a large delta in Bangladesh.

The Great Indian Desert plain of the west. This covers the western part of the Aravali mountains. This region has a sandy land, so it is also known as the Thar desert. This region gets very little rainfall, due to which the agriculture is not developed here. There are many saltwater lakes like the Sambhar, Didwana and Panchpadra, from which salt is extracted.

The formation of Northern Plain.
The northern plain lies in between the Himalayas and the peninsular India. It has been formed by the filling of the depression formed by Tethys sea. The Himalayan rivers after eroding the Himalayas deposited huge amount of silt and deposition in the ever shrinking Tethys sea. This depression has been filled gradually to form northern plain or the Indo-Gangetic plain. The Himalayan rivers have deposited silt to form Ganges delta in Bangladesh. Due to continuous deposition, the delta is still advancing towards sea.

Question 4.
Compare and contrast the geomorphological features of the Himalayas with those of the Indian plateau.
Answer:

The Himalayas	Indian Plateau
1. The Himalayas are young new fold mountains.	1. The Indian plateau is an ancient crystalline tableland.
2. These mountains have been formed due to folding by different earth movements.	2. This plateau has been formed as a horse.
3. The relief features show young age of the Himalayas.	3. The plateau is old and well dissected.
4. Parallel mountain ranges are formed in the Himalayan region.	4. Rift valleys are formed due to faulting.
5. These mountains are the loftiest mountain system of the world with the highest mountain peak Mt. Everest 8848 mts. above sea level.	5. It is an old eroded crystal rock with the highest peak Anaimudi 2695 mts. above sea level.
6. These mountains extend in an arc.	6. This plateau is triangular in shape.
7. Deep gorges and U-shaped valleys are formed.	7. Narrow deep river valleys are formed on the plateau.
8. These have been formed out of Tethys sea in Mesozoic period. (276 million years ago.)	8. This plateau has been lifted out of the sea in the preCambrian period. (1600 million years ago.)
9. It is made up of sedimentary rocks.	9. It is made up of igneous rocks.

Question 5.
Write a note on the following :
(i) Vindhyachal
Answer:
Vindhyachal. This range extends from east to west in the north of river Narmada. It separates Northern India from Southern India. Its average height is 300 metres. It starts from Gujarat in the west and goes upto Bihar in the east passing through the Vindhya Pradesh.

(ii) Satpura
Answer:
Satpura. This mountain range spreads between the Narmada and the Tapti rivers. They extend from Gujarat in the west to Amarkantak in the east. Dhupgarh (1350 metres) is the highest point of these ranges.

(iii) Aravali Hills
Answer:
Aravali Hills. Aravali mountain range is extended from Delhi to Gujarat in 800 km. Their direction is southwest and now these are small residue parts of hills. Their highest peak is Mount Abu. (1722 m.)

(iv) Nilgiri Hills.
Answer:
Nilgiri Hills. The western and eastern ghats join each other in the south where they are known as the Nilgiris. Doda Betta (2637 metres) is the highest peak in the Nilgiri. They are also known as the Blue mountains.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources

January 20, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Minerals and Power Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions objectively:

Question 1.
Name the important minerals.
Answer:
Iron ore, manganese, coal, limestone, bauxite are the main minerals of India.

Question 2.
What are the uses of Manganese?
Answer:
Manganese is used in steel making and strengthening steel.

Question 3.
What is the position of India amongst the manganese ore producing countries of the world?
Answer:
India ranks fourth in the world after Brazil, South America and Russia.

Question 4.
Name the position of India amongst the mica producing countries in the world.
Answer:
First position.

Question 5.
Name the state that produces more than half of the total production of Mica.
Answer:
Bihar.

Question 6.
Name the industries in which Mica is used as a raw material.
Answer:
It is used in electrical goods industries.

Question 7.
Which mineral is obtained from Bauxite ore?
Answer:
Aluminium.

Question 8.
What are the uses of Copper?
Or
Cite any two uses of copper.
Answer:
Copper is used for making utensils. It is used in electric goods industries because it is a good conductor of heat.

Question 9.
Name the place and state where maximum gold is produced.
Answer:
Kolar (Karnataka).

Question 10.
In which industry is the limestone used to the maximum?
Answer:
In cement industry.

Question 11.
What is the place of India in coal production in the world?
Answer:
India ranks third after China and U.S.A.

Question 12.
What is the percentage of coal reserves found in Damodar Valley?
Answer:
About three fourth of the total reserves.

Question 13.
Which organisation controls the management of coal production?
Answer:
Coal India Limited (CIL).

Question 14.
Name the four major atomic energy-producing centres.
Answer:

Tarapur-Along the border of Maharashtra, Gujarat.
Rawat Bhata-Near Kota in Rajasthan.
Kalpakkam-Tamil Nadu.
Narora-Near Buland Shahar (U.P.)

Question 15.
What is Wind Energy?
Answer:
The energy produced by windmills and the power of the wind is called wind energy.

Question 16.
Which material is extracted from Bai^adila Mines?
Answer:
Iron ore.

Question 17.
Which mineral is extracted from Kolar Mines?
Answer:
Gold.

Question 18.
What is the other name given to Lignite?
Answer:
Brown coal.

Question 19.
For which work is the ship ‘Sagar Samrat’ used?
Answer:
Sagar Samrat is a mobile drilling platform bought from Japan. It is used for exploring oilfields in coastal areas like Bombay High.

Question 20.
Which energy is derived from Uranium?
Answer:
The atomic energy power source is obtained from Uranium.

II. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe the role of minerals in the National Economy.
Answer:
Minerals have an important part to play in the Indian Economy.

There are great possibilities of industrial development due to minerals. Coal and Iron with large reserves form the basis of the machine age.
Mining provides income to states.
Mining provides employment to millions.

Question 2.
Name the Manganese producing states of India.
Answer:
Orissa is the largest producer of Manganese in India. After Orissa, M.P., Maharashtra and Karnataka are the main producers. Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Goa and Bihar also produce Manganese. Orissa has the main mines at Keonjhar, Kalahandi and Mayur Bhanj. Madhya Pradesh has mines at Bala Ghat, Chindwara and Jabalpur.

Question 3.
Name the major Bauxite producing centres.
Answer:
Bauxite deposits are found in many areas of India. Jharkhand, Gujarat and Chhattisgarh are the main producers of Bauxite. Good quality Bauxite is mined in Kolhapur district (Maharashtra).

During the last few years, the Bauxite deposits of Orissa have been developed. The largest aluminium plant of Asia (with a capacity of 8 lakh tonnes alumina and 2.25 lakh tonnes aluminium) has been set up in this state.

Question 4.
Name the copper-producing centres in India
Answer:
Most of the copper of India is mined in Singhbhum (Jharkhand), Balaghat (M.P.), Alwar, Jhunjhnu (Rajasthan). Khaman in Andhra Pradesh, Chitrakoot and Hassan in Karnataka and Sikkim also produce some copper.

Question 5.
What are the causes of the non-availability of minerals in Punjab?
Answer:
Most of Punjab is made up of alluvial soils. It is a flat low land area suitable for agriculture. Minerals were formed in ancient periods in the areas of Igneous and Metamorphic Rocks. Therefore, minerals are not found in alluvial soils of Punjab.

Question 6.
Name the coal-producing centres in India.
Answer:
Three fourth of coal reserves are found in the Damodar Valley. Raniganj, Jharia, Gridihi, Bokaro arrd Karanpura are major coalfields in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Bihar states. Coal is also mined in Singarauli, Suhagpur and Raigarh in Chhattisgarh. Singareni (Andhra Pradesh), Talcher (Orissa) and Chouda (Maharashtra) are other coal fields.

Question 7.
Name the main coal-producing centres in Orissa.
Answer:
Three fourth of coal reserves are found in the Damodar Valley. Raniganj, Jharia, Gridihi, Bokare arrd Karanpura are major coal fields in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Bihar states. Coal is also mined in Singarauli, Suhagpur and Raigarh in Chhattisgarh. Singareni (Andhra Pradesh), Talcher (Orissa) and Chouda (Maharashtra) are other coal fields.

Question 8.
What were the causes of Nationalisation of coal production?
Answer:
The main aims of the Nationalisation of coal industry were’:

To protect labourers.
Planned mining.
To preserve the environment.

Question 9.
Name the non-conventional Sources of Energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources are:

Solar power
Wind power
Tidal power
Geothermal power
Trees
Urban Waste.
Power from organic material.

Question 10.
Describe the importance of wind energy in India.
Answer:
Wind power is an unlimited and less expensive source of power. New industries can be set up in isolated areas.

Uses:

Irrigation in rural areas.
Electricity is generated by windmills and is included in the grid system.

Question 11.
What is the role of Indian Government in mining industry?
Answer:
The government provides guidelines in mining. Laws are made according to Mineral Act 1957. The government provides “licences and contracts for mining. The government takes steps for development of mining and changes the rules regarding old contracts.

Question 12.
From which districts of Madhya Fradesh is iron ore extracted?
Answer:
Iron ore is mined in Jabalpur and Balaghat districts. Modern techniques are used in Bailadila Mines (Bastar). Iron ore is exported to Japan.

Question 13.
Name all the institutes associated with exploration, refinement and regional distribution of oil.
Answer:
The organisations are:

Oil and Natural Gas Commission (O.N.G.C.)
Oil India Limited (O.I.L.)
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation (H.P.C.)
Gas Authority of India Limited (G.A.I.L.).

Question 14.
Why is solar energy said to be a future energy reserve?
Answer:
Coal and oil are exhaustible sources of power. These will not last long. On the other hand solar power is an inexhaustible source of power.

It provides unlimited power, when oil and coal will be exhausted, solar power will be used.

Question 15.
What is the importance of natural gas in manure industry?
Answer:
Natural gas is a raw material for fertiliser industry. It helps to increase agriculture production. It is transported to factories through pipe-lines. 1730 K.M. long HBJ gas pipe-lines provide natural gas to 6 fertiliser factories.

Question 16.
What are the problems faced in the regional distribution of Hydroelectric energy in India?
Answer:
The main problems are:

The consumer centres are situated away from bower generating centres. It becomes expensive to layout grid system.
Some part of electricity is lost on the way.
Due to some fault in the grid system electricity supply is stopped.

Question 17.
Describe in brief the importance of mineral reserves in India.
Answer:
India is rich in mineral wealth.

India is especially rich in Iron ore. Iron and coal are the bases of the machine age. India had 1/4th reserves of Iron ore of the world. India has rich reserves as well as good quality iron ore.
India has rich reserves of Manganese which is useful for alloy steel.
India has huge reserves of coal. But coking coal reserves are low. Coal and Iron ore are found adjacent to each other which makes up the deficiency of coking coal.
Limestone is widely found in India.
India is rich in Bauxite (used for aluminium) and Mica (used for electrical goods).

Question 18.
Describe the main iron ore producing centres of India.
Answer:
India has huge iron ore reserves. It is of good quality, namely Haematite and Magnetite iron ore. This has 60 to 70% iron ore content. So it has a great demand in the international market.

Areas: Iron ore is found in many areas. India has, an iron ore reserve of 1757 crore tonnes. One-half of the reserves are found in Singhbhum (Jharkhand) and Keonjhar,

Bonai, Mayurbhanj (Orissa). This is the largest iron ore belt of the world. It is also found in Bihar, Chhattisgarh. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka states.

Question 19.
Describe efforts made in the field of exploration and refinement of oil in India after independence.
Answer:
Potential oil-bearing area extends over 10 lakh 700 km. in India ; (almost 1/3rd of area of the country). It includes the Ganges-Brahmputra plain, coastal belts, Gujarat plains, Thar Desert and Andaman Nicobar inlands.

Position at the time of Independence. At the time of independence, oil was found only in Assam. Oil refinery was set up at Digboi. It was a small oilfield. But it worked for about 100 years.

Oil-exploration after the independence. Oil exploration was started to meet the growing demand. Oil and natural gas was discovered in off-shore regions of Gujarat and Gulf of Cambay. Oil was found at Bombay (Mumbai) High at a distance of 115 kms from Mumbai coast. At present, it is the largest oilfield of India. A mobile drilling platform ‘Sagar Samrat’ from Japan was used to explore oil. India extended this oil region. New oilfields have been discovered in off-shore regions of deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery. New oil reserves have been found in Assam.

Question 20.
Describe the development in the electrification process in villages after independence.
Answer:
Special attention was paid to the rural electrification after independence. Schemes were launched jointly by States and Electricity Boards. More than 5 lakh villages were electrified till 2000. 98 lakh tube-wells were installed. About 84% of villages were electrified. In Punjab all the villages have been electrified. To supply electricity in areas of scheduled castes and tribes, priority is being given. It will provide a multipurpose development of the villages.

Question 21.
Write in detail about the ‘Power-village Scheme’.
Answer:

Power-village Scheme’ has been started by Govt, of India with the aim of providing power to inaccessible rural areas.
It includes the setting up of Gobar gas plants with the help of organic materials, Gobar, by-products of human waste.
It is being set up at individual, collective and village level.
Bio-gas plants in urban areas are run on the human waste.
In recent years Power-village scheme has been completed in 184 villages. Besides, 222 villages have this scheme at different stages.
A survey of Power in 1680 villages has been completed and a survey of 344 villages is being conducted.

Question 22.
Write about a programme of Smokeless stoves being planned at the national level (Pb. 2004, 10)
Answer:
A special programme of Smokeless Chullahas is being set up at national level. Its main aim is to save fuel and remove the problem of wood-collection by rural women.

Power is mostly used in kitchen. Cow dung and wood is used as fuel. The traditional chullahas consume more fuel and emit more smoke. So this scheme was started in ) December 1983. A smokeless chullah can save 700 kg fuel per year. It saves 20 to 35% fuel-wood. 2.85 crore Smokeless Chullahas had been set up till March 1998. These pollution free chullahas have a bright future.

Question 23.
Describe Solar energy as an inexhaustible source of energy. Which parts of the country can make maximum utilization of solar energy?
Answer:
Solar energy is an unlimited and inexhaustible source of power. It is widely used and has a bright future. Solar energy can be used at a low cost, for water heating, cooking, heating the rooms, making the water lighter and drying up of crops. An area of 2.80 lakh sq. km had been marked as a potential area for the use of Solar energy till March 1993. About 5 lakh Solar cookers had been sold till March 1998.

Potential Areas. The more potential area for the use of Solar energies is Rajasthan. This state gets Solar Heat throughout the year. This energy can be supplied to scattered villages without any problem. It is the source of power for the future.

Question 24.
Write a short note on the progress made in the generation of Hydro¬electricity.
Answer:
Hydel power is a major source of Power. In 1988-89, the total installed capacity of electric power was 4 crore kW in the country. It was twice the developed water power. In 1999-2000, the developed electric power was 97.8 thousand MW units. Besides this 23.8 thousand MW units of water power and 2.7 thousand MW units of atomic power were developed; showing an increase every year.

Electric power houses are widely scattered in the country. The developed power forms a grid. It saves the loss of power. A National Electric Grid is being formed. The power is developed from all the sources. Coal, Gas, oil, water and atomic power will be integrated into a grid.

Question 25.
Describe the peaceful utilisation of atomic energy in India. Also write about the related international pressures due to this.
Answer:
Atomic energy is destructive, but India is using it for peaceful purposes. Atomic energy stations can be set up in areas deficient of other sources, or where these sources cannot meet the demands. India is trying its use. in peaceful purposes like agriculture and medicines.

The rich countries do not want its successful working in developing countries like India. So these countries want an international contro^over its working. So these countries want India to sign an international treaty. India’s argument against it is that it is a discriminating treaty that obstructs the peaceful use of atomic energy in India. Pressure is being mounted on India. India has to face difficulties to get the instruments required for it. The scientists are trying to find substitutes. India achieved a major success when Nuclear Reactor at Rawa Bhata (Rajasthan) was repaired with indigenous techniques. It saves a lot of foreign exchange and Nuclear technology receives a great boost. It is a matter of pride for India.

III. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Describe in detail the main problems which are being faced with the increase in coal production.
Answer:
Coal is the major source of power for industries. It is important for iron and steel, and chemical Industries. India has huge reserves of coal. 3/4th of coal reserves are located in Damodar valley. Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra have also coal fields.

Nationalisation of coal fields. After independence, coal industry has been nationalised. Its main aim is to protect the coal labourers from injustice.

Importance of coal. Light brown coal is of great importance for India. It has been useful for producing electricity and gas. Oil can be obtained from it. Mini thermal plants have been set up near coal fields. The electricity produced thus is connected with national electric grid. It saves time and expenditure both.

Production. In 1951, coal production was 3.5 crore tonnes. Now it has increased to 333.58 million tonnes.

Problems:

There is shortage of high grade coal.
Fire accidents have taken the lives of several labourers.
Coal fields are found at great depth. Its mining is expensive.
The technical development of coal production is slow.

Question 2.
Describe about the progress made by India in development of atomic energy.
Answer:
Thermal power is produced with the use of coal, petroleum and natural gas. These sources are called fossil fuels. These cannot be re-used. Besides these, Atomic fuel and Heavy water is used to generate electricity. Thus, electricity is generated as Hydel power, Thermal power and atomic power. Electricity is used in Agriculture, Industries, transformation and domestic purposes. It is impossible to imagine life without electricity.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 1
In 1999-2000, the total production of electricity was 897.8 thousand MW. It included 74.9% as thermal power, 23.5% a Hydel power and 1.60% as atomic power. The share of thermal power has increased rapidly. The installed capacity was 81.8 thousand MW in 1994-95. During eighth five year plan (1992-97), the target was to increase it by 30,858 MW. But during the first four years only 14,799 MW Or 48% has been increased. Thus there is a great difference in potential and developed power in India.

Question 3.
Write about the importance and development of non conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy. Today non-conventional sources of energy include wind, tides, geothermal heat, biogas, farm and animal waste including human excreta. All these sources are renewable or inexhaustible. They are inexpensive in nature.

These sources include the following:
1. Wind energy. It can be used for pumping water. It is used in irrigating farms in the countryside. Also, it can be used for generating electricity. It is estimated that wdnd alone can provide 2000 MW of electricity. The states of Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Orissa are better placed in regard to this energy. Areas with constant and high speed winds are suitable for the purpose.

2. Tidal energy. This is another inexhaustible and inexpensive source of energy. The Gulfs of Kutch and Cambay are ideally suited to develop electricity from the energy produced by high tides entering into narrow creeks.

3. Geo-thermal energy. India is not rich in this source. However, efforts are being made to utilize natural energy of the hot springs at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh. Energy so produced can be used for running cold storage plants.

4. Energy from urban waste. A pilot plant for demonstration purposes had already been set up in Delhi to treat solid municipal waste for conversion into energy. It produces nearly 4 MW energy every jmar. Sewage in cities is used for generating gas and electricity.

5. Biogas based power plants. Biogas, farm wastes, rice husk are being used to produce electricity.

6. Farm animal and human wastes (Urja Gram). By using biogas, animal, poultry wastes and human excreta, gobar gas plants are being set up in villages. The power so produced is used for cooking, lighting homes and streets and meeting irrigation needs of the village. The plants are being set up both at individual and community or village levels. Nearly 3 million smokeless chullahas are in operation. This saves nearly 2 million tonnes of firewood.

7. Solar Energy. It is the most abundant, cheapest and inexhaustible source of energy produced from sunlight. Solar cookers are used in cooking food. Solar power is being used for cooking, water heating, water desalination, space heating, crop drying. Solar energy is going to be the energy of the future.

Question 4.
What is the importance of electricity in the industrialisation of country?
Or
Explain the role of energy in the industrialization of the country.
Answer:
Electricity is important for the development of industries in India.

Industries are run with the help of machines that use electricity.
Electricity is generated from coal, water and atomic energy.
Some power is obtained from non-conventional sources.
Coal is a raw material also which is used in Iron and Steel industry.
Coal and lignite provide more than 60 per cent of the needs of our country.
The exploitation of oil has increased in industries.
Natural gas is used in fertilizer industry.

IV. Show/Mark the following on the map of India:

Question 1.
(i) Iron-ore producing areas
(iii) Manganese producing areas
(iii) Coal producing areas
(iv) Centres of Atomic energy
(v) Iron producing areas of Damodar Valley
(vi) Four major reserves of Bauxite
(vii) Gold producing areas in Koiar
(viii) Lignite coal-producing areas
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 2

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Minerals and Power Resources Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line:

Question 1.
Which is the hardest mineral?
Answer:
Diamond.

Question 2.
Name one example of a ferrous mineral.
Answer:
Iron.

Question 3.
Name two Non-ferrous minerals.
Answer:
Bauxite, Copper.

Question 4.
Which is the best quality iron ore?
Answer:
Magnetite.

Question 5.
Name a mineral in which India is deficient.
Answer:
Copper.

Question 6.
Name the largest iron ore producing state.
Answer:
Jharkhand.

Question 7.
Name an industry in which limestone is used.
Answer:
Cement.

Question 8.
Name a conventional source of energy.
Answer:
Coal.

Question 9.
Name the best quality coal.
Answer:
Anthracite.

Question 10.
Where is lignite coal found?
Answer:
Neyvelli.

Question 11.
Name an offshore oilfield.
Answer:
Mumbai High.

Question 12.
Name a nuclear power station in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Kalpakkam.

Question 13.
Name a solar plant in India.
Answer:
Madhopur.

Question 14.
Why have the minerals become more important in Modern age?
Answer:
Due to scientific research and technological development.

Question 15.
How can you say that India is rich in basic minerals?
Answer:
India is rich in Manganese ore to make the best quality of steel. India is also rich in Bauxite and Mica.

Question 16.
How is the distribution of minerals unequal in India?
Answer:
North Eastern plateau of India is considered as one of the rich mineral areas of the world, others have no minerals.

Question 17.
Why is North Eastern plateau considered as a gift in the industrial development?
Answer:
Good quality of iron ore is found in North Eastern plateau.

Question 18.
In which two states of India iron ore is found? Name one mine of these two states.
Answer:
Iron ore is found in the states of Bihar and Orissa in India. Iron ore is mined at Singhbhum in Jharkhand and Keonjhar in Orissa.

Question 19.
Which four ports export Iron ore? Which country is the main importer of our iron ore?
Answer:
The four ports exporting iron ore are—Kolkata, Vishakhapatnam, Goa and Paradip.

Question 20.
Name any two districts of Jharkhand where iron ore is found.
Answer:
Iron ore is found in the districts of Raigarh and Bilaspur in Jharkhand.

Question 21.
Name four mines of Manganese ore in Orissa.
Answer:
The four mines of Manganese ore situated in Orissa are Keonjhar, Kalahandi, Mayurbhanj and Talchir.

Question 22.
In which state of India Mica is mostly found? Name two other mica producing states.
Answer:
Mica is mostly found in the state of Jharkhand in India. The other two mica producing states are Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Question 23.
Name two main Bauxite producing states.
Answer:
The two main bauxite producing states are Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.

Question 24.
In which state copper is mainly found? Name two mines situated there.
Answer:
Copper is mainly found in Jharkhand. Its two mines are situated at Singhbhum and Hazaribagh.

Question 25.
Name four main coal mines of India.
Answer:
The four main coal mines of India are Raniganj, Jharia, Giridih and Bokaro.

Question 26.
Which was main oil producing state in India before independence? In which other states oil is mined in modern times?
Answer:
Assam was the main oil producing state in India before independence. Gujarat and (Bombay High) Maharashtra are other states in which oil is mined.

Question 27.
Name the atomic minerals found in India. In which states are they found? ‘
Answer:
Uranium is found in Bihar. Beryllium is found in Rajasthan. There is a huge reserve of mineral (Thorium) sand along the coast of Kerala.

Question 28.
Which atomic centres are w orking today in India.? Which is the oldest one?
Answer:
Tarapur, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam and Kalpakkam.

Question 29.
How many atomic energy centres are there in India?
Answer:
As per 2016, India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation at seven cities.

Question 30.
Which is the oldest Atomic Power Centre in India?
Answer:
Tarapur Atomic PowTer Station. (T.A.P.S.)

Question 31.
For which two peaceful purposes is atomic energy used in India? For which purpose it may be used in the future?
Answer:
India is using atomic energy for making medicines and improving the quality of seeds. It may be used for making water reservoirs, changing the course of rivers and developing mineral wealth.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Khetri is famous for________
Answer:
cooper

Question 2.
Singhbhum is famous for__________
Answer:
iron ore

Question 3.
Oil is drilled at __________
Answer:
Digboi

Question 4.
Tamilnadu has ______________atomic plant.
Answer:
Kalpakkam

Question 5.
Iron is a __________ mineral.
Answer:
ferrous

Question 6.
Hirakud dam is___________metre long and__________metre high.
Answer:
48,00 metres, 61 metres

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which is the hardest mineral?
(a) Diamond
(b) Granite
(c) Basalt
(d) Galbro.
Answer:
(a) Diamond

Question 2.
Which is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Iron
(c) Mica
(d) Coal.
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 3.
Which mine is famous for copper?
(a) Bastar
(b) Khetri
(c) Nellore
(d) Jharia.
Answer:
(b) Khetri

Question 4.
Gold is mined at
(a) Shimoga
(b) Chittradrug
(c) Koiar
(d) Bellary.
Answer:
(c) Koiar

Question 5.
Jharia is famous for:
(a) Oil
(b) Coal
(c) Gas
(d) Atomic energy.
Answer:
(b) Coal

True /False:

Question 1.
T.A.P.S. was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Limestone is an example of metallic mineral.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Anthracite is the best quality coal.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Madhopur is atomic energy plant.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Kalapakkam is in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the production and distribution of iron ore.
Answer:
India has about 25% of the iron ore reserves in the world. According to one estimate, India has 2,100 crore tons of iron ore reserves.

Production. The output of iron ore in India has greatly increased during the past few years. In 1957 India produced only 40 lakh tonnes of iron ore but in 2011-12 the output touched 90 Million tonnes.

Distribution. The maximum quantity of iron ore (40%) in India is mined in Orissa. Jharkhand is the second-largest producer of iron ore. The other important iron ore producing areas are Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan.

Question 2.
Name the four important mineral regions of India and also give the names of important minerals found in each region.
Answer:
Four important mineral regions of India are given below:

Chhota Nagpur in Bihar and Northern Orissa. It is a very well developed mineral region. Iron and coal are found in this region.
There are vast reserves of minerals in central Rajasthan. This region is being developed. Copper, lead, zinc and mica are found in this region.
Southern India is very important for minerals. Goa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are included in this region. Iron ore and lignite are found in this region.
This region consists of southern Madhya Pradesh and eastern Maharashtra. Iron ore and manganese are found in this region.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of hydroelectricity over other sources of energy?
Answer:
There are four main sources of energy—coal, petroleum, hydroelectricity and atomic energy. Hydroelectricity has special importance as source of energy. It has the following advantages:

Coal and petroleum deposits will be exhausted sooner or later but the rivers will continue flowing for thousands of years and so long as the rivers flow there will be no dearth of hydroelectricity.
While producing hydroelectricity water is not lost. Hydroelectricity is produced by moving turbines with the help of fast-flowing water. The water is afterwards used for irrigation.
It is not easy to transport coal or petroleum from one place to another and it costs a lot but hydroelectricity can be taken hundreds of kilometres away by wires only.
Hydroelectricity is cheaper than coal or petroleum.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of iron in modern age? Give a detailed account of the production of iron ore in different parts of India. Also describe the total production and reserves of iron ore in our country.
Answer:
Iron has great importance in the modern age. It is the foundation stone of industry. There cannot be any economic progress in any country without iron. All the machinery used in the factories is made of iron. It is used for making railways, aeroplanes and ships. Iron has more strength as compared to other metals and it is also cheaper.

Regional distribution. Iron in India is found in the regions given below:

Orissa. The largest quantity of iron ore in India ns produced in Orissa. The chief
districts producing iron ore in this state are Mayurbhunj, Bonai, Sambalpur and Cuttack, Gurumathasani, Badampahar and Sulaipet are the chief iron ore mines in this state.
Jharkhand and Bihar. Jharkhand and Bihar are the second most important iron producers in India. The highest amount of iron ore is produced in Singhbhum, Hazaribagh and Shahabad districts.
Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. These two states have the third position as producer of iron ore. The ore is mainly produced in the districts of Jabalpur, Bilaspur, Raigarh, Durg and Balaghat.
Karnataka. Karnataka is the 4th important producer of iron ore in India. Cudoor
district is well-known for production of iron ore in this state. The iron ore is mined at Kamengudi in Baba Budhan hills. Iron is also mined in Sindur and Sheetal Durg districts.

Production. There has been a great increase in the production of iron ore during the last few years. In 1956, India produced only 40 lakh tonnes of iron ore but in 2011-12 India produced 900 lakh tonnes of iron ore. In terms of money, it will come to 95 crores of rupees.

Reserves. There are 2,100 crore tonnes of iron ore reserves in India. This is about 25% of the iron ore reserves in the world.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral wealth and power resources of India.
Or
Where are the following minerals found in India? What is their importance? — Coal, Iron, Manganese, Bauxite, Mineral oil, Copper and Mica.
Answer:
Mineral wealth has great importance for every country. No country can run its industry without mineral wealth. India is fairly rich in mineral wealth. The following minerals are the chief minerals found in India.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 6 Minerals and Power Resources 3
1. Coal. Coal is an important mineral. It is a big source of energy. Most of the coal in the country is used in Industry. Main coal mines are situated in Bihar. Besides, there are coal mines at Jharia and Raniganj. In 2010-11, India produced 333.58 million tonnes of coal. India exports a small quantity of coal.

2. Iron. Iron is considered as foundation of industrialisation. There are huge deposits of iron in India. The chief mines of iron ore are in Singhbhum (Bihar), Mayurbhunj, Keonjhar, Bonai (Orissa) and Salem (Tamil Nadu). Iron is also found in Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. India exports some of its iron ore to Japan. This iron ore deposits of India are estimated to be 78,000 lakh tonnes. India can depend on its iron ore deposits for a long time to come. In 2010-11 India produced 90 million tonnes of iron ore.

3. Manganese. India is the third largest producer of manganese in the world. India produces about 20% of the world production of manganese.Russia and Brazil lead the world in the production of manganese. In India the chief producers of manganese are Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Jharkhand and Bihar. Manganese is used for making steel from iron but this industry is not fully developed and India exports a large quantity of manganese. The manganese in India is of high quality. It is exported to U.S.A. and U.K.

4. Mica. Mica is a costly mineral. It is used in the manufacture of gases and electrical goods. India is the largest producer of mica in the world. It produces about 75% of the world output of mica. It is mainly produced in Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh. A small quantity of mica is also produced in Rajasthan. India exports mica to Britain, France, U.S.A., Japan, Italy, Canada-and Australia.

5. Bauxite. It is used for making aluminium. Aluminium is used for making railway coaches, buses, aeroplanes, electrical goods, utensils, paints etc. It is also used for refining petroleum, making cement and many other chemical products. India is self-sufficient in the productionof bauxite. Bauxite in India is produced in Bihar, Jharkhand, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Jammu and Kashmir states.

6. Mineral Oil. Mineral oil is very important in the modern age. It is not only a source of energy but also a raw material for many industrial products. Petroleum is used for running trains, buses, ships, aeroplanes etc. When mineral oil is refined it leaves behind many type of products like wax, mobil oil, grease, etc. Most of the mineral oil in India is produced in Assam. The chief centres of oil production in Assam are Makum, Digboi, Nihar Khatia and Badurpur. Oil is also produced near Ankleshwar in Gujarat and Bwibay High near Mumbai sea coast. The production of oil in India is much less than its requirements hence India has to import petroleum from other countries. India produces only 20% of her oil requirements.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 How Maps Help Us

January 20, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 4 How Maps Help Us Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 How Maps Help Us

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB How Maps Help Us Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What is a map?
Answer:
A map is the representation of the earth or a portion of the earth, drawn to a scale on a flat surface.

Question 2.
What is a Globe?
Answer:
A Globe is a true representation of the earth or a model of the earth.

Question 3.
Write the difference between a Map and a Globe.
Answer:

A Map	A Globe
1. A map is the representation of the earth’s surface or a part of it on a flat surface according to a scale.	1. A globe is the true model of the earth. It shows the earth in its true shape. It is a correct replica of the round shape of the earth.
2. A map is convenient to handle. It is very easy to carry a map from one place to the other.	2. A globe is not convenient to handle. We find it difficult to carry a Globe from one place to the other.
3. Every feature can be shown in detail in a map.	3. Every feature cannot be shown in detail on a globe.

Question 4.
Why were maps made? Give their importance.
Answer:
Undoubtedly, a Globe is a true model of the earth. But globes occupy a lot of space and they are difficult to be carried everywhere. A need was felt to carry something handy, something that can be carried in one’s pocket and also included in a book. So maps were made.

Importance of Maps:

Maps help us in learning the different aspects of Geography.
They show us the position of the places in relation to latitudes and longitudes that are drawn on the map.
They help us in locating the distance from one place to another, time and location.
They help us in locating the trade centres, routes, slope of the land, rivers, etc.
They are used by the government for administrative purposes.
They guide the travellers and also are useful for the army.

Question 5.
Enlist the different types of maps.
Answer:
The different types of maps are:

Physical maps,
Historical maps,
Distributional maps,
Topographical maps,
Atlas maps,
Wall maps.

Question 6.
What are the pillars of maps and why?
Answer:
Distance, direction and conventional signs are the pillars of maps. These are also known as the most essential components of maps. These are the pillars of maps because, without knowledge of them, we won’t be able to read the map correctly.

Question 7.
What do you understand by the conventional symbols?
Answer:
It is not possible to show on the map the actual shape of features such as a building, a well or a tree. So symbols are used to represent various features in maps. With their help, it is easier and quicker to read and understand the maps. They also make the map clearer and easier to be read. As there has been a common agreement all over the world regarding the use of these symbols, they are called conventional symbols.

Question 8.
Make a chart of the conventional symbols.
Answer:

Question 9.
In coloured maps, with which colour we show mountains, uplands, plains, rivers, forest and snow-covered hills.
Answer:

Physical Features	Colour
1. Mountains	Brown
2. Uplands	Yellow
3. Plains	Green
4. Rivers	Blue
5. Forest	Green
6. Snow covered Hills	White

Question 10.
What is the use of directions in the maps?
Answer:
In the upper right-hand margin of the maps we see an arrow. The tip of the arrow is marked with the letter ‘N’
It means that the arrow is pointing northwards. The arrow is, therefore, called the North Line.

Direction

Question 11.
How does scale of the map help us to study the maps?
Answer:
Scale of the map is a measuring line with the help of which correct distance between various points on a map can be measured. In a scale, there is always a proportion between the dimensions of the map and the actual areas they represent on the earth. It can be a millimetre, a centimetre or an inch to represent a kilometre, a hundred kilometre or even still larger distances.

Scale

Question 12.
What is the importance of the key in a map?
Answer:
The key in a map tells us what each symbol used in the map stands for. In other words, key explains symbols.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide How Maps Help Us Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Thick blue line on map is usually used to show :
(A) Electricity power station
(B) Stream
(C) River
(D) Dam.
Answer:
(C) River.

Question 2.
A large scale drawing showing greater details is called :
(A) Plan
(B) Sketch
(C) Map
(D) Compose.
Answer:
(A) Plan.

Question 3.
Element of map that shows relationship between actual distance and length on map is
(A) Grid line
(B) Key line
(C) Legend line
(D) Scale.
Answer:
(D) Scale.

Question 4.
Maps that represent a particular theme are called :
(A) Physical
(B) Thematic
(C) Historical
(D) Wall maps.
Answer:
(B) Thematic.

Question 5.
Survey maps are also called :
(A) Topographical maps
(B) Physical maps
(C) Thematic maps
(D) Historical maps.
Answer:
(A) Topographical maps.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
________ is an instrument used to find the directions.
Answer:
Compass

Question 2.
There are ________ cardinal directions.
Answer:
Four

Question 3.
Blue colour is used for showing ________
Answer:
Water bodies

Question 4.
________ is the true model of the earth.
Answer:
Globe

Question 5.
________ colour is used for showing mountain.
Answer:
Brown.

True/False :

Question 1.
Maps are tools of geography.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Every feature can be shown in detail on a globe.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The tip of the arrow is marked with the letter ‘N’
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Topographical maps are the only which show only physical features.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Colours are mostly used in maps.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Geography?
Answer:
Geography is that branch of science which deals with the earth, its surroundings and the people who live on it.

Question 2.
What is a physical map?
Answer:
A physical map is one which shows different features of land-forms.

Question 3.
For what are historical maps used?
Answer:
Historical maps are used to explain historical events.

Question 4.
What is a political map?
Answer:
A map showing different countries and states of the world with their boundaries is called a political map.

Question 5.
For what purpose are wall maps used?
Answer:
Wall maps are used for demonstration and lecture purpose.

Question 6.
What is a scale?
Answer:
The relation between the distance of two points in the map and the two corresponding points on the land is known as a scale.

Question 7.
What does the tip of arrow in the right hand margin of map show?
Answer:
The tip of arrow shows northwards.

Question 8.
What are the four cardinal points of a compass?
Answer:
The four cardinal points of a compass are North, South, East and West.

Question 9.
What does the term ‘one centimetre to one kilometre’ indicate in a map?
Answer:
It indicates that one centimetre on the map represents one kilometre on the ground.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why can’t maps be as accurate as globes?
Answer:
Maps can’t be as accurate as globes because the maps are drawn on flat surfaces. They show the earth’s surface or a part of it according to some scale. It is impossible to flatten a round shape completely. As a result, the northern and the southern parts of the earth are stretched out of proportion. But the globes are very accurate because the shapes and sizes of continents and oceans are shown accurately on them.

Question 2.
How are maps helpful in our daily life?
Answer:
Maps provide us great help in our daily life. They help us in locating places and reaching wherever we want. People travel all around the world with the help of maps.

Question 3.
What are Topographical Maps?
Answer:
Topographical maps are the ones which show natural features as well as man-made features like roads, railways, etc. They are prepared by the survey department of each country. They are helpful for town planning, for use by the army and for various study purposes.

Question 4.
Distinction between a map and a plan.
Answer:

Map	Plan
1. The map shows a large area on a sheet of paper such as world, continents, countries etc.	1. It shows a small area on a sheet of paper such as a room, a garden, school building etc.
2. The map is drawn on a small scale such as 1 centimetre = 1 kilometre etc.	2. The plan is drawn on a large scale such as 1 centimetre = 1 metre.
3. Colours are mostly used in maps.	3. The plans are mostly simple.
4. Only the important features can be shown in brief on a map.	4. Even details of small and unimportant areas can be shown on a plan.

Question 5.
What are the components of maps?
Answer:
(a) Distance
(b) Direction and
(c) Symbol.

Distance: Distance is measured with the help of a scale.

Direction:

Direction is known by the arrow marked with ‘N’ on the map.
It is also known as an instrument called a compass.

Symbol: Universally accepted marks or icons to depict information on the maps are known as symbols.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe the various types of maps.
Answer:
Maps are very useful in modern life. Therefore, various types of maps are drawn according to the purpose of the study. Some important types of them are given as under :

Physical Maps: Maps showing physical features of the earth such as landforms of different elevations, i.e. mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers, oceans, etc. are called physical maps.
Political Maps: Political maps are the maps that show different countries and states of the world with their boundaries.
Historical Maps: Historical maps show historical events such as war, the spread of civilization, an important voyage, etc.
Distributional Maps: Distributional maps are also called commodity maps. They are used to show the distribution of various commodities such as crops, population, minerals, etc.
Topographical Maps: Topographical maps are used to show natural as well as man-made features such as roads, railways, etc.
Atlas Maps: Atlas maps are in the form of a book. They are easy to carry and are useful for students. They are small-scale maps.
Wall Maps: Wall maps are used for the purpose of demonstration and lecture. These are bigger than atlas maps.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Internal and External Face of the Earth

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 2 The Internal and External Face of the Earth Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 The Internal and External Face of the Earth

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB The Internal and External Face of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Give answers to the following questions approximately in 1-15 words.

Question 1.
How many shells of the earth are there? Name them.
Answer:
Lithosphere, Mantle and Core. These are called Sial, Sima and Nife in that order.

Question 2.
How many types of Rocks are found on the earth?
Answer:
Igneous rocks, Sedimentary rocks, Metamorphic rocks.

Question 3.
Write down about the Mantle part of the Earth.
Answer:
Below the earth’s crust is Mantle. Its normal thickness is 2900 kms deep down to earth’s interior.

Question 4.
By which name the inner most part of the earth is called? What are the components of this part?
Answer:
The core of the earth is called ‘Nife’. It is made up of Nikel and Iron (Ferrous).

Question 5.
How can we avoid soil erosion?
Answer:

By planting more and more trees.
By adopting developed means of agriculture.
By decreasing the grazing area of cattle.

II. Give answers to the following questions approximately in 50-60 words.

Question 1.
What are igneous rocks? How many types are there of these rocks? Write about the Intrusive rocks.
Answer:
Igneous shell is the shell which is made up by cooling of Magma and Lava. These rocks are of two types: Intrusive/Extrusive.
Sometimes Magma get cold and slowly solidifies inside the earth’s surface, these are called Intrusive Igneous Rocks. While sometimes Magma gets cold and solidifies near the earth’s surface then these rocks are called Extrusive Igneous Rocks.

Question 2.
What are the sedimentary rocks? How many types are there of these rocks?
Answer:

They are called secondary rocks.
They form from deposits or sediments obtained from weathering and erosion of other rocks.
They contain fossils.
They are always layered.
Sandstone, shale, gravel and conglomerate are examples of these rocks.
On the basis of construction, layered rocks are of two types:
(i) Fossil layered rocks.
(ii) Non-fossil layered rocks.

Question 3.
Write about Metamorphic rocks, give specific example of these rocks.
Answer:
Metamorphic Rocks: These rocks are formed by ‘metamorphism’ or change of form of igneous and sedimentary rocks. The change takes place in hardness, colour, texture and composition of minerals in rocks deep inside the earth due to pressure and temperature. Thus original igneous rock like mica may be changed to schist, granite to gneiss and sedimentary rocks like limestone to marble, sandstone to quartzite and peat to coal.

Characteristics:

They are very hard.
They contain useful materials and minerals like building materials, marbles, gems, rubies and sapphires. Taj Mahal is made of white marble.

Question 4.
What kind of mineral is mica, for what purpose is it used?
Answer:
Mica is a non-metallie mineral: It has a great importance. This mineral is very useful in manufacturing eletromic goods. It is also used in making other things like lamps, chimneys, paints, radars, rubber, poper, transparent sheets and aeroplanes.

Question 5.
Which material is called as ‘Liquid Gold’? Give brief introduction.
Answer:
Mineral oil is known as Liquid Gold. This name has been given because of its increasing use and importance. It, is also called Petroleum or driving energy. It is also extracted from earth like other minerals. It is made up of two words- Petra and Oliuin. In Latin language Petra means rock and Olium means oil i.e. oil received from rocks. It is a fossil fuel which is made up of animals leftovers being pressed inside Sedimentary rocks.

Question 6.
Write down the importance of the soil on the earth.
Answer:
Soil is a valuable natural resource. Its importance is in its fertility. Many human and economic activities depend upon soil. Most of the civilizations have flourished near the fertile soil beds of Nile and Indus rivers, Tigris, Euphrates and Yangste valleys. Even today fertile valleys and rivers attract dense population. India has been able to produce foodgrains for its large population on the strength of its fertile soil.

III. Write the answers to the following questions approximately in 125-130 words.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the rocks available on the earth.
Answer:
On the basis of their formation rocks are of three chief types as shown in the diagram, namely— Igneous, Sedimentary and Metamorphic.

1. Igneous: These rocks are formed from cooling and solidification of molten material rising from interior of the earth called magma. When cooling and solidification happens just near the ground or above the ground they are called Extrusive Igneous Rocks. If cooling and solidification happens inside the earth, these rocks are called Instrusive Igneous Rocks. Basalt and Rhyolite are examples of extrusive igneous rocks and granite and gabro are examples of intrusive igneous rocks.

Igneous Rocks

Characteristics:

When igneous rocks are exposed on the surface of the earth they are weathered and provide materials for other types of rocks. As a result the igneous rocks are called Primary Rocks.
These rocks contain crystals whose size depends on rate of cooling.

2. Sedimentary Rocks: The material for sedimentary rocks may be derived from weathering and erosion of all types of rocks- igneous, metamorphic or old sedimentary rocks. They may contain fossils formed from remains of dead plants and animals.

There are two types of sedimentary rocks: inorganic and organic,
(a) Organic Sedimentary rocks are formed from organic matter derived from plant and animal remains, shell and skeletons of dead marine animals, decayed and decomposed plant and animal life as well as direct precipitation of minerals in solution of water.
(b) Inorganic Sedimentary rocks are formed due to weathering and erosion of all types of old rocks, clay, sand and mud deposited in oceans and lakes.

Characteristics:

They have a layering arrangement.
They may contain fossils.
They may have ripple marks left by water.
They are softer than any other rock.
They are pervious or water can easily enter.
There are no crystals in sedimentary rocks.
Secondary ores of bauxite, manganese and other minerals are found in secondary rocks. Only sedimentary rocks are sources of fossil fuels. They also provide rich soils and materials for building and construction industry.

3. Metamorphic Rocks: Igneous and sedimentary when subjected to pressure and heat form sedimentary rocks. Examples- sandstone, granite, gnesis. Metamorphic rocks are made up by two ways and are found deep inside the surface of the earth.

The two ways are:

Transformation by heat. It happens because of hot magma, which solidifies the rocks that comes into its contact.
Transformation by pressure. Sometimes the pressure of upper rocks transforms the structure of lower rocks.

Question 2.
What are minerals? Which minerals are available on the earth? Classify them and write about the metallic minerals.
Answer:
The substances that create rocks are known as minerals. These are extracted through mining. The classification is”as follows :

Metallic minerals: It contains the particles of metals. It includes iron, copper, tin, aluminium, gold, silver, etc.
Non-metallic minerals: These don’t contain the particles of metals. These are sulphur, gypsum, abhrak, phosphorus, potassium, etc.
Power minerals: These minerals give us energy, which helps us to run our factories and motor vehicles. Coal, petroleum, natural gas are main power minerals.

Metallic minerals :
1. Iron: The iron ore is used from a small nail to a very big ship. The whole industrial machinery, motor vehicles, rails, agriculture machinery all are based on iron ore. The iron and steel has brought revolution in the industrial sector. In India it is produced mainly in Orissa, Jharkhand, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Goa.

2. Copper: Copper is the earliest found metal in the human history. From the industrial point of view, after iron comes the place of copper. The metallic age started with the use of copper. Many utensils are made of copper. In today’s age its importance has increased. It is a good conductor of electricity so, it is used for making electric cables. Telephone cables, railway engines, aeroplane and watches, etc. contain the use of copper. Chile, in South America, is the biggest producer of copper in the world followed by USA. In African continent there are maximum stores of copper. India, Japan, Australia also produces copper. In India, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan are known for copper.

3. Bauxite: It is derived from aluminium. It is a light metal and is used in making aeroplanes. Moreover trains, motor vehicles, buses and electric cables also contain bauxite. The products made up of this metal do not get rusty. So, these products can be used for fairly long time.

Maximum bauxite is available in Australia. In India it is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand.

Question 3.
What are mineral fuels? Give details of any mineral fuel.
Answer:
These minerals give us energy and required ignition run factories and motor vehicles. Main power minerals are coal, mineral oil and natural gas.

Out of this coal and mineral oil have special importance the description is as follow :
1. Coal: Coal is the main power mineral. These days the use of coal has decreased. Now it is used in thermal plants for producing electricity. The coal used for this purpose is stone coal. This coal was made in the sedimentary rocks deep inside the earth. It took crores of years in this process. Most of the coal stock in the world is found in 35° to 65° latitude. 90% of world coal is found in China, USA, Russia and European countries. Besides there are large stocks of coal in South America, Africa, North America and Asian sub-continent. Japan and Thailand also have stock of coal.

India produces 5% of coal. Damodar Valley is the main coal-production belt. Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal are coal-rich states.

2. Mineral Oil: It is known as Liquid Gold. Its name has been given because of its use and importance. Its called petroleum or driving force. Because it is extracted from earth like other minerals so it is called mineral oil. It is given the name of petroleum because it is made up of two words— Petra+Olium. Petra stands for rocks and olium means oil. So the literal meaning of Petroleum is oil received from rocks. It is fossil fuel. Most of the Petroleum that we get from inside the earth is in raw form. After refinement of thfs unrefined raw form, we get many products like Petrol, diesel, kerosene oil, gas, grease, wax, etc.

Most of the oil stock in the world is in South-west Asia, which includes areas like Saudi Arab, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait and United Arab Emirates.

Question 4.
Write in detail about the soils available in India.
Answer:
Soil is an important resource that becomes the basis of agriculture and foodgrains production. In India, six types of soils are found of which the following four types are major :

Alluvial soil
Black soil
Red soil
Laterite soil.

1. Alluvial Soil: This soil is derived from sediments of rivers and is confined to river basins and coastal plains. Alluvium is very fertile because it is renewed every year during floods or deposition work of rivers. It contributes enormously to growth and development of agriculture in India. It is found in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Orissa, Bengal, Rajasthan and coastal areas of Brahmaputra valley and Peninsular India.

2. Black Soil: This lava soil is also known as Regur soil or Black Cotton soil. It is black because it is formed in its place of origin. It is found in parts of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, North Karnataka, Southern Tamil Nadu and parts of Madhya Pradesh.

3. Red Soil: The presence of iron oxide is responsible for reddish colour. When fertilisers are added these soil become very productive for growing crops like rice, millets, cotton and sugarcane. Red soils are found in Malwa region, Chhotanagpur plateau, parts of Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa.

4. Laterite Soils. These are not very fertile soils. They occur in high places of plateau region where rainfall leaches nutrients in the soil. Laterite rock is best suited for building purposes rather than for agriculture. These soils are found in parts of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh. Orissa, Bengal and Summits of Western and Eastern Ghats.

IV. Activities:

Question 1.
Make a model of the earth showing its layers.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Is soil erosion a serious problem? Discuss it in your class.
Answer:
Soil erosion is a global problem. Deforestauon, overgrazing bv animals are the main causes. The rate of soil erosion in India is the highest. It takes a long time to form fertile soils, but in a short time soil erosion removes the soil.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide The Internal and External Face of the Earth Important Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The rock which is made up of molten magma is :
(a) Igneous
(b) Sedimentary
(c) Metamorphic
(d) Sedentary.
Answer:
(a) Igneous.

Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of sedimentary rocks?
(a) Basalt
(b) Granite
(c) Gabro
(d) Sandstone.
Answer:
(d) Sandstone.

Question 3.
Deccan plateau is made up of :
(a) Basalt
(b) Gabro
(c) Slate
(d) Granite.
Answer:
(a) Basalt.

Question 4.
Where is the deepest mine found on earth?
(a) In South Africa
(b) In North Africa
(c) In South America
(d) In Australia.
Answer:
(a) In South Africa.

Question 5.
Laterite soils are found :
(a) Karnataka
(b) Punjab
(c) U.P.
(d) Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Karnataka.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
__________ is a dark substance formed in soils.
Answer:
Humus

Question 2.
__________ rocks have more sand.
Answer:
Porous

Question 3.
Limestone is changed into __________ under great heat and pressure of the above layers of the rocks.
Answer:
Marble

Question 4.
When magma reaches earth surface, it is called __________
Answer:
Lava

Question 5.
Sedimentary rocks are called __________ rocks .
Answer:
Secondary.

True / False :

Question 1.
The innermost layer of the earth is called core.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The combined form of natural minerals is called rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Sial made up of Silica and Alumina.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Sulphur, Gypsum are non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Coal, Petrol, Natural gas etc. are considered power resources.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is volcanic mountain formed? Give an example.
Answer:
In the lower layers of earth, there is so much heat which results in cuts on earth’s surface, and the hot substance from deep inside earth comes out in the form of . ‘Lava’. When after cooling and solidifying, this lava takes the shape of a mountain then it is called a volcanic mountain. The example is Fugeyama volcanic mountain of Japan.

Question 2.
What is the difference between Porous and Non-porous rocks?
Answer:
Porous rocks have more sand while Non-porous rocks have more of soil in these.

Question 3.
Classify rocks on the basis of absorption.
Answer:
Two types of Rocks: Absorbing and Non-absorbing. While Absorbing rocks easily soak water but non-absorbing rocks don’t easily absorb water.

Question 4.
Name two classifications of rocks on the basis of chemical structure.
Answer:

Acidic Rocks
Base Rocks.

Question 5.
What is difference between Lava and Magma?
Answer:
Inside the earth’s surface: Molten substance is called Magma. When it comes outside through pores/cutting in earth’s surface, it is called Lava.

Question 6.
What do you mean by primary rocks? Write their features.
Answer:
Igneous rocks are formed by the solidification of lava. Lava cools rapidly and solidifies on the surface of earth. Crystals are formed due to the cooling of lava. These rocks are intrusive as well as extrusive. It is believed that the earth was in a molten state in the beginning. Igneous rocks were the first rocks to be formed due to cooling and solidification of molten matter. Hence, these are called Primary rocks.

The importance of Igneous rocks
Igneous rocks supply different types of minerals. Granite is used for house-building and idol-making. Basalt is used for road-making. Monuments are made from these hard rocks.

Question 7.
What are the factors on which the qualities of metamorphatic rocks depend?
Answer:
The quality depends on the base rocks i.e. if the metamorphatic rocks are made up of igneous rocks then their qualities are like igneous rocks, and if these are made up of sedimentary rocks then these are like sedimentary rocks.

Question 8.
What is soil?
Answer:
The uppermost layer of the earth’s crust is called soil. It consists of a thin layer of loose material of rock waste. The soil consists of mineral particles, organic matter (humus), water, air and living organisms (bacteria).

Question 9.
What are the two elements in soil?
Answer:
The soil has two elements minerals and excreta. The soil contains minerals in good quality and these are derived from basic rocks. The excreta comes from the dead animals. It increase the fertility of soil.

Question 10.
Which soil is known as cotton soil?
Answer:
Black soil is known as cotton soil. It is ideal for cotton agriculture.

Question 11.
Name the types of soils found in India.
Answer:
Alluvial soil, black soil, red soil, laterite soil, dry soil, mountain soil.

Question 12.
Write two features of Alluvial soil.
Answer:

This soil contains potassium, phosphoric acid and lime.
It contains less of nitrogen and bio substance.

Question 13.
Write two features of black soil.
Answer:

It is made up of the flow of lava.
It is useful for cotton agriculture.

Question 14.
Write the names of places in India where black soil is found.
Answer:
It is found in the deccan pleateu as well as Maharashtra, Sourastra, Malwa and Southern Madhya Pradesh Plateau.

Question 15.
Write two features of Laterite soil.
Answer:

Laterite soil is less fertile.
It is only useful for grass and bushes.

Question 16.
How can the acid soil be made useful for agriculture?
Answer:
By putting together the irrigation facilities.

Question 17.
What is meant by tectonic plate movements?
Answer:
The earth’s interior is very dynamic. The lithosphere is broken into seven very large and several small plates. This deformation in the earth’s crust and structures produced by this deformation are called tectonics. This model or theory that explains this distribution, evolution and causes of earth’s crustal features is known as the theory of plate tectonics.

Question 18.
What are kqown as rocks? Name the rock-forming materials.
Answer:
Bocks are the chief materials of earth’s crust. Rock-forming materials are known as minerals.

Question 19.
How can we identify mineral which form the rocks?
Answer:
We can identify minerals in rocks by their colour, texture, lustre and hardness. Some minerals like salt can also be identified by tasting but it is not a good method. It can endanger human life.

Question 20.
Name the three groups of rocks on the basis of their formation.
Answer:
The three groups of rocks on the basis’ of their formation are igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic.

Question 21.
Why are the Igneous rocks called Primary Rocks?
Answer:
It is believed that the earth was in a molten state in the beginning.’Igneous rocks were the first rocks to be formed due to cooling and solidification of molten matter. Hence, these are called Primary rocks.

Question 22.
Why are fossils preserved in Sedimentary and not in Igneous, rocks?
Answer:
Fossils are remains of vegetation and animals buried under the sediments. The sedimentary rocks are stratified rocks and are found in layers. These fossils are preserved in between these layers. But in Igneous rocks, the fossils are destroyed due to high temperature of lava.

Question 23.
What part do rocks play in Geography?
Answer:
Rocks influence different types of landforms. Different types of minerals are found in rocks. Rocks are used for building purposes. Rocks are the basis of soil formation.

Question 24
How are Igneous rocks formed?
Answer:
Igneous rocks are formed by the solidification of lava. Lava cools rapidly and solidifies on the surface of earth. Crystals are formed due to the cooling of lava. These rocks are intrusive as well as extrusive.

Question 25.
What is the importance of Igneous rocks?
Answer:
Igneous rocks supply different types of minerals. Granite is used for house-building and idol-making. Basalt is used for road-making. Monuments are made from these hard rocks.

Question 26.
What do you mean by ‘Deccan trap’?
Answer:
Deccan trap is an extensive area in the N.W. part of India covering about 5 lakh sq. km. It has been formed by lava flows. Lava has solidified to form Basalt. It is useful for cotton cultivation.

Question 27.
Why are sedimentary rocks classfied as belonging to secondary group? How are these rocks formed?
Answer:
The secondary rocks are those which are derived from other rocks. The sedimentary rocks are formed from weathering and erosion of igneous, metamorphic and even other sedimentary rocks.

Question 28.
What are known as fossils? In which types of rocks can fossils be found?
Answer:
Fossils are the remains of dead plants and animals trapped in rocks. They are found in sedimentary type of rocks.

Question 29.
Why the ‘Sial’ layer is known by this name?
Answer:
Sial has more of Silicon and Aluminium, That is why it is called Sial (Si+Al).

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is humus? How is it formed? What is its significance in soil formation?
Answer:
Humus. Humus is a dark substance formed in soils. It is a dead organic matter formed by decay of animals and plants. Trees, shrubs, grass and bacteria help in the formation of humus. In warmer climates, humus is destroyed by countless bacteria. In colder areas soils are rich in humus and it is collected in the soil. Tropical humid soils are poor in humus because it is consumed by bacteria.

Humus is vital to the fertility of soils. It provides nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium to the soils. It sustains other forms of life. It helps the weathering of minerals to add to fertility of soils. It increases water holding capacity of soils.

Question 2.
What is a bad land topography?
Answer:
A highly dissected land surface is known as bad larid. In sloping areas, gully erosion results in soil erosion. These gullies develop a ravine land a bad land topography. This topography consists of ridges, earth pillars, ravines, escarpments, etc. This topography is found in Chambal Valley of Madhya Pradesh in India.

Question 3.
What is soil-erosion?
Answer:
Soil-erosion. It is the destruction and removal of top soil by running water, wind, etc. So erosion has become a serious problem in many areas Soil formation is a slow process and takes thousands of years to develop, but it may be removed in the matter of a few years.

Question 4.
What is soil erosion? Name its types.
Answer:
Soil erosion. Soil erosion is the destruction and removal of top soil by running water, wind, etc. Soil formation is a slow process and takes thousands of years to develop soil; but it may be removed in a matter of few years.

Types of Soil Erosion :
Soil erosion is of three types :

Sheet erosion: When the surface soil is washed away by rain or blown away by the wind.
Gully erosion: When torrential rain forms deep gullies on sloping land.
Wind erosion: When strong winds blow away fine soil in arid areas.

Question 5.
What are the causes of soil erosion?
Answer:
Causes of Soil Erosion :

Steep slopes: Steep slopes increase the rapidity and intensity of soil erosion.
Torrential rainfall: Heavy rainfall forms gullies and ravines leading to a bad land topography.
Strong winds: Winds, through the process of deflation, blow away layers of fine soil.
Overgrazing: Overcropping and shifting cultivation renders the soil infertile.
Deforestation: Deforestation exposes the area to soil erosion. Reckless cutting of trees has resulted in soil erosion by chos of the Shiwaliks.

Question 6.
State the method of soil management.
Answer:
Various methods are being practised for soil management :

Afforestation” Reforestation in old areas and afforestation in new areas are required to hold the soil. Surface run-off can be checked. Advance of deserts can be checked by planting trees along the margins of deserts.
Controlled grazing” This number of animals to be grazed on slopes should be according to the carrying capacity of the pastures. It gives time for the grass to grow again.
Terraced agriculture” Terraced cultivation on slopes should be practised to check the flow oT rain water.
Contour ploughing” Contour ploughing, terracing and bunding is done to check soil erosion on slopes. Ploughing is done at right angles to the slopes.

Question 7.
Distinguish between Sial and Sima.
Answer:
The distinction between Sial and Sima :

Sial	Sima
1. Sial is the uppermost layer on the Earth.	1. Sima is the layer found below sial.
2. It consists of silica and aluminium.	2. It consists of silica and magnesium.
3. It is a lighter layer with a density of 2.75.	3. It is a havier layer with a density of 5.
4. Continents are made of sial.	4. Ocean floors are made of sima.

Question 8.
How are rocks useful to man?
Answer:

Building materials: Rocks like granite, sandstone, slate and limestone are used in building roads and houses. Marble is used in more expensive building decoration.
Fossils: Fossils are found in sedimentary rocks. They are very useful to us because they tell us about the past environment, about animals and plants that are no longer found on earth.
Tools and implements: Since early civilization, rocks and stone have been used to make tools and implements. Clay bricks have been used for house construction and stones for the construction of pyramids, temples and buildings.
Fertilizers: Potash, nitrates and phosphates found in sedimentary rocks are used in the manufacturing of fertilizers.

Question 9.
Classify the minerals available in the earth’s crust.
Answer:
Three classifications are there:

Metallic Minerals: These have particles of metals like iron, copper, aluminium, gold, silver, etc.
Non-Metallic Minerals: These don’t contain particles of metal like Sulphur, Abhrak, Gypsum, Potassium, etc.
Power Minerals: We get power and energy from such minerals which drive vehicles and run factories for us. Coal, Petrol, Natural gas, etc. are considered power minerals.

Question 10.
In which category Mica is classified, for what purpose is it used?
Answer:
It is a non-metallic mineral. It has many uses:

Used in electric goods making industry.
Used mostly in lamp chimneys, colours, rubber, paper, medicines, vehcies and transparent sheet industry, etc.
Slim sheets of this mineral are put in electric motors as insulator.

Comparison Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Rocks and Minerals.
Answer:
The distinction between rocks and minerals :

Rock	Minerals
1. They are solid materials that make up earth’s crust.	1. They are solid and crystalline materials that for m the rocks.
2. Rocks have physical properties but do not have any definite chemical make-up.	2. They have physical properties and chemical make-up.
3. Rocks differ from each other on the basis of mineral content arid mode of formation.	3. Minerals differ from each other on the basis of elements or compounds of which they are constituted.
4. Based on formation, rocks can be divided into 3 main groups: igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic.	4. Based on formation there are above 2000 minerals that combine in different ways .to form rocks.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Igneous and Sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
The distinction between Igneous and Sedimentary rocks :

Igneous Rocks	Sedimentary Rocks
1. They are called primary rocks.	1. They are called secondary rocks.
2. They are formed from the cooling and solidification of lava.	2. They form from deposits or sediments obtained from weathering and erosion of other rocks.
3. They do not contain any fossils.	3. They contain fossils.
4. They are rarely layered.	4. They are always layered.
5. Basalt, rhyolite, granite and gabbro are examples of these rocks.	5. Sandstone, shale, gravel and conglomerate are examples of these rocks.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the process of soil formation and the factors influencing it.
Answer:
The physical, chemical and organic changes that take place in the exposed rock over a long period of time lead to formation of soils.

Following factors influence this process of soil formation :

Climate: Weathering depends on and is influenced by climate. It is the climate that causes disintegration of rock on account of differences in temperature and moisture.
Rock Types: Parent rock and its type determines the rate of weathering and erosion. For example, sedimentary rock may be disintegrated quickly as well as cause form ation of soil and be a source of humus content in soil,
Vegetation: Roots of plants help in weathering. The vegetation also provide materials for decomposition and formation of soils.
Slope of land: Slope of land and general topography affect deposition and erosion of materials oi weathering. They may also form transported and residual soils.
Time: The changes that lead to formation of soil are spread over thousands to millions of years. -The soils also undergo drastic changes with the passage of time.

Question 2.
With the help of a diagram, describe the interior of the earth.
Answer:
A diagram showing the interior of the earth is given ahead :

From the diagram it will be noticed that density goes on increasing towards the interior of the earth. Three main divisions of the interior of the earth are crust, mantle and core. Each of these three divisions has upper and lower part. Like density, temperature and pressure increase with the increase in depth inside the earth.

Crust: The thickness of the crust is 4-7 km below the seafloor and about 35 km below the continents. Beneath the mountain, the crust is 70 km thick. Continents are however made of a lighter material and rise above the oceanic crust.
Mantle: It extends upto 2900 km. The upper part is only about 100 km thick forming part of the lithosphere. The lower Mental is in a semi-plastic state.
Core: It has a radius of 3470 km and its upper part is in a liquid state and the lower part has enormous heat and is highly compressed, therefore at a solid rate. Iron and nickel are said to be the constituents of the Inner Core.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 8th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 8 Disaster Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 8 Disaster Management

SST Guide for Class 8 PSEB Disaster Management Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in 1-15 words:

Question 1.
What is meant by the disasters?
Answer:
Any natural or man-made happening that causes loss of life and property in a region is called a disaster.

Question 2.
What are the main natural disasters?
Answer:
Earthquakes, volcanoes, tsunamis, floods, drought, cyclones, landslides, and icebergs slide.

Question 3.
What is included in the subject of Disaster Management?
Answer:
Disaster Management includes steps to reduce the damage from disasters. It includes :

Preparedness before disaster
Protection at the time of disaster
To maintain the social life after disaster.

Question 4.
What is an earthquake? How is it measured?
Answer:
The sudden shaking of part of the earth is called an earthquake. Its intensity is measured on Richter Scale. This instrument is called Seismograph.

Question 5.
What is a volcano? Write its types.
Answer:
The interior of earth consists of hot magma. It comes out of the earth through openings. It is called a volcano. It has three types:

Active
Dormant
Extinct volcanoes.

Question 6.
How does the Tsunamis originate?
Answer:
Tsunamis are high tidal waves. These are caused due to sub-marine earthquakes. These are very destructive.

Question 7.
What are the main causes of floods?
Answer:

Heavy rainfall
Cyclones
Cloud burst
Absence of proper drainage
Dam burst
Deposition on river beds,
Settlements in the river course.

Question 8.
What is a cyclone? By what other names is it called?
Answer:
Cyclones are violent wind system with a wind velocity of more than 63 km per hour. These are called hurricanes in North America, Typhoons in S.E. Asia and Depressions in India.

Question 9.
What can be the cause of Landslides?
Answer:
Landslides are caused due to :

Internal forces of earth
Heavy rainfall
Volcanic activity
Mining.

Question 10.
What do you mean by human disasters?
Answer:
Human disasters are related with human activities. Bomb-blasts and Terrorism are its examples.

Question 11.
What do you understand from the term ‘epidemic’?
Answer:
When a disease breaks out on a large scale and attacks people, it is called an epidemic. Dysentery, Dengu, Yellow fever, Cholera are called epidemics.

II. Answer the following questions in 50-60 words :

Question 1.
How do the disasters affect man?
Answer:
Disasters affect man in the following ways :

There is a loss of life and property.
The civic facilities are disrupted and disturbed.
People get separated from their families.
Crops and cattle are swept away.
Epidemics break out due to decayed corpses.
Progress made in years is destroyed in minutes.

Question 2.
Mention causes of earthquakes and the major earthquake regions of the world.
Answer:
Earthquakes are caused due to internal movements. Tectonic plates drift and earthquake waves are caused. The earth shakes and an earthquake occurs.

Zones :

About 2/3 of earthquakes occurs in Ring of Fire along Pacific coast.
Earthquakes occur in Himalayas and Alps.
In India, Jammu & Kashmir, Western Himalayas, Central Himachal, N.E. India, Ganga- Sutlej plain, Rajasthan, Gujarat and group of islands are earthquake zones.

Question 3.
Which precautions should be taken into consideration at the time of the earthquake?
Answer:
The suitable measures to be taken to protect oneself from the damage caused by earthquakes are :

Earthquake-resistant buildings need to be constructed in both the highest and high-risk zone areas.
The buildings should be flexible and strong.
The building plan should have the building codes which have been prescribed.
Existing buildings which are not earthquake resistant must be strengthened structurally.
Even individuals should be taught how to protect themselves during an earthquake in schools and colleges by giving them daily drills about it.
There should be no confusion and fear.
People should nor rush out.
People should help the victims.

Question 4.
What protective measures should be taken to save ourselves from Volcanoes and Tsunamis?
Answer:
Safety from Volcanoes:

There should be no building near volcanq.es.
Move away from a volcanic area. Use fast means of transport.
Govt, should be prepared for every help.

Safety from Tsunami:

Do not go towards sea when you come to know about Tsunami.
The boats and ships should return to coast.
Fishermen should go into the ocean only when waves are subdued.
If the Tsunami waves travel with a high velocity, people should leave the coastal area.
All should help the victims.
Govt should make prepared to meet any emergency.

Question 5.
Which (steps) should be taken for protection from droughts?
Answer:

Water resources should be properly used.
Harvesting of rainwater must be popularised among the people.
Small dams for collecting water should be built.
Trees should be grown.
Farmers should be encouraged to join crops and insurance schemes.
Such crops should be grown which need small amount of water.
Water from other areas be supplied.
Water should be collected in tanks.

Question 6.
Which measures can save us from disasters like epidemics?
Answer:

The best way to save one self from epidemics is to save oneself from disasters; pure water and clear environment helps one in it.
Proper medical help be provided. There should be treatment facilities in Hospitals.
Slums should not develop near towns.
Regular medical check up be done in schools, villages and towns.

III. Answer the following questions in about 125-130 words :

Question 1.
Which protective measures should we adopt to save ourselves from disasters like floods and cyclones? Write in detail.
Answer:
Floods:

To avoid residing on river banks and slopes on riversides and the sides of gorges.
To build at least 250 meters away from the sea coast/river banks.
To provide a proper, drainage system in all flood prone areas, so that the water can be drained off quickly to prevent accumulation.
To construct the building with a plinth level higher than the known high flood level.
To construct the whole village or settlement on a raised platform higher than the high flood level.
To construct buildings on stilts or columns with wall-free space at ground level.
People should get weather forecasting from the meteorological deptt. from time to time.

Cyclones:

Huts and houses should not be built near coastal areas.
People should be shifted to schools, buildings
Fishermen, sailors, ships should not go into oceans.
Strong wind-resistant houses be built.
Flood control measures be taken.
Trees should be planted to check winds.
Govt, should provide information about the coming of cyclones.

Question 2.
What are human disasters? Explain the disaster management of any two human disasters in detail.
Answer:
Human disasters are related to human activities and industries—man causes these unintentionally. Bomb explosion, terrorist attacks and dam burst are examples.
1. Bomb explosion and Terrorist attack. Bombs are made to be used during war. But some people cause confusion and fear among people by bomb explosion. Many innocent people die and mostly hurt. These hinder the development of a country. On 11 September, 2001 Bomb attacks were made in New York on World Trade Tower buildings.

Precautions during a Bomb Scare

Do not touch any doubtful packet.
Beware of the objects that are left on their own in public areas: suitcases, boxes, packages, etc.
Do not approach the objects yourself.
Do not allow people to touch doubtful articles.
Inform the police and after their arrival leave the area.
Avoid panic.

2. Dam Burst: Dams are used to store water. When a dam bursts, serious damage is done. In case of a big dam, it becomes a disaster. Life is disrupted. Cattle and crops are swept away. Flood control measures be used. Special precautions be used to save life and property.

IV. Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a report of 3-4 pages on natural disaster faced by India in Uttarakhand in June 2013.
Answer:
The recent flash floods in Uttarakhand have caused huge damages.

Torrential Rainfall. The torrential rainfall in the Uttarakhand Himalayas of June, 2013 resulted into huge death and destruction. It left hundreds dead; thousand marooned and washed away scores of villages, inundated the eight century Kedarnath temple. The famous Manikarinika tfemple on the banks of Bhagirathi was swept away by swirling waters of the river. Houses and small apartment blocks on the banks of Bhagirathi, Alaknanda and Mandakini have been toppled into the rushing, swollen waters and been swept away along with cars and trucks.

The extent of damage due to flash floods in many parts of the seven districts of Uttarakhand is mind-numbing. Single-story houses simply disappeared, many double-storey houses crumbled due to the weakening of its foundation. The disaster stuck when the Chardham Yatra was going on with congregation of around 75,000 pilgrims from all over the country. The Central Government, along with Indian Army, Indian Air Force (IAF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Border Road Organisation (BRO) rescued around 33,000 stranded pilgrims, The flooding was so fierce and disastrous that people named it Himalayan Tsunami.

A Man-Made Disaster. Many environmentalists termed this event as a man-made disaster. According to them human action leading to environmental altercations aggravated the problem and reduced the natural defense system. In the last three decades the region has witnessed demographic changes, deforestation, rapid urbanisation and expansion of roads. The environmentalists emphasised that mountains have a certain carrying capacity that should never be exceeded at any cost. Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh are the two Himalayan states that were worst hit by monsoonal flash floods in June 2013. Man-made factors compounded the scale of the disaster.

Unabated expansion of hydroelectricity power projects and construction of roads to accommodate ever increasing tourism, specially religious tourism, are the main reasons of unprecedented devastation. Mindless illegal construction of resorts, guest house, roads has taken place in this ecoSgically fragile region to accommodate tourists. Buildings have been constructed over flood ways, old drains and streams blocking the natural pathway of the water. On June 15-16, 2013, the Alaknanda River and its tributary Mandakini occupied their flood ways and started flowing along the old courses where human habitation has come up with the passage of time.

The Mandakini changed its course to the west. The sediment-loaded river washed away shops, guest houses/lodges etc., killing people who were present at the time.

Kedarnath Dham, a place of serenity and devotion, which was dotted by only few huts in 1882 was mushroomed by haphazard illegal constructions of buildings, shops, hotels/ lodges etc,, blocking the natural flow of the Alaknanda river.

Ganga and its tributaries like Alaknanda, Mandakini, Bhagirathi, Kali Ganga, Gauri Ganga, were swept away or excessively damaged due to flash floods.

Due to increased anthropogenic activities and terrain instability, Uttarakhand had always remained prone to landslides. Even during August and September 2010, Uttarakhand. Himalayas witnessed large scale slope destabilisation.

The June, 2013 Uttarakhand disaster, also known as Himalayan Tsunami was actually triggered by very heavy rainfall during June 16-18 and unusual behaviour of monsoon this year in India.

Rainfall measurement for June 16 and 17, 2013, at the Dehradun station was 220 millimeters and 370 millimeters respectively. It Indicates the severity of the rainfall. Haridwar received 107 mm and 218 mm of rainfall in two days. Uttarkashi received 122 mm and 207 mm. While Mukteshwar (at the altitude of 2000 m) received 237 mm and 183 mm respectively on June 17 and 18, Nainital, on the very same day, received 170 mm rainfall.

Rescue Work:
It was the army personnel who worked tirelessly and put their lives in danger to help and rescue stranded lbcals and pilgrims affected by flash floods. They provided people essential materials such as food, blankets and medicines. The Indian Air Force (IAF) put to use some of the best military skills to help people in flood ravaged zones of Uttarakhand and rescued hundreds of fatigued and exhausted, stranded pilgrims and locals. Operation ‘Rahat’ was the biggest ever helicopter based rescue operation in history. 45 choppers made sorties day in and day out despite bad weather and hazardous conditions. It mobilized the resources, evacuated people to relief and base camps and carried out extensive search and rescue operations creating a world record. The unusual advance of summer monsoon, combined with cloudbursts (still not confirmed) and geophysical dynamics (loose soil, landslides and lake bursts) had channeled huge devastation through massive flash flooding in Uttarakhand, which turned into a major disaster due to the combined impact of anthropogenic activities and breaching of the carrying capacity due to irresponsible tourism.

PSEB 8th Class Social Science Guide Disaster Management Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a zone of high earthquake intensity?
(a) N.E. India
(b) Gujarat
(c) the Himalayas
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(d) Haryana.

Question 2.
Which temple was affected by the Uttarakhand disaster?
(a) Kedarnath temple
(b) Sun temple
(c) Mandakani temple
(d) Vaishno Devi temple.
Answer:
(a) Kedarnath temple.

Question 3.
On which scale shows damage done by earthquake?
(a) Richter scale
(b) Marcoli scale
(c) Ritcher scale
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Marcoli scale.

Question 4.
When was World Trade Centre attacked?
(a) 12 ,Sept. 2011
(b) 11, Sept. 2001
(c) 12, Sept. 2001
(d) 13, Sept. 2001.
Answer:
(b) 11, Sept. 2001.

Question 5.
Which one of the following Disaster Management Institute not in Delhi?
(a) Indira Gandhi Open University
(b) Central Board of Secondary Education
(c) Disaster Management National Centre
(d) Disaster Management Institute.
Answer:
(d) Disaster Management Institute.

Question 6.
Look at the following picture and write the name of the disaster shown in the picture.

(a) Earthquake
(b) Floods
(c) Cyclones
(d) Accident.
Answer:
(b) Floods.

Question 6.
On 26th December, 2004 Maninder went to the seashore with his parents to enjoy. Suddenly high waves started appearing in the sea. What should they do in this situation?
(a) They shout loudly.
(b) They need to stand under a tree.
(c) Stay at the same place.
(d) Move away from the sea to a secure place.
Answer:
(d) Move away from the sea to a secure place.

Question 7.
You are having a class test. Suddenly the fans and the doors of the room start shaking. Tell What type of natural disaster is it?
(a) Droughts
(b) Earthquake
(c) Floods
(d) None of these
Answer:

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
_________ hazard does not occur frequently.
Answer:
Natural

Question 2.
Earthquake information centre, I.I.T. is in _________
Answer:
Kanpur

Question 3.
_________ is the cause of road accidents.
Answer:
Drunk driving

Question 4.
Volcano is a _________ in the earth’s crust through which molten rocks out to the surface of the earth.
Answer:
vent

Question 5.
_________ are sliding mass of rocks down the slope.
Answer:
Landslides.

True/False :

Question 1.
Bomb explosions are natural resources.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Dams are used to store water.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Hits and houses should not be built near coastal areas.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
On intensity Richter scale-7 earthquakes are considered dangerous.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Alaknanda and Mandakani are two river which are overflowed.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the ill-effects of a disaster?
Answer:
Loss of life, property and cause damage to a large number of people.

Question 2.
Which intensity, earthquakes are considered dangerous?
Answer:
On Richter Scale-8.

Question 3.
On which two buildings was a major Terrorist attack made in U.SA?
Answer:
On 11 Sept., 2001 in New York-Tower buildings and Pentagon.

Question 4.
Define Focus and Epicentre.
Answer:
Focus is the origin of Earthquake waves, Epicentre is the place on the surface of the earth directly above focus.

Question 5.
What damage is done due to earthquake?
Answer:

Cracks appear in buildings. Houses, roads, bridges, railways are disrupted. People die.
Water, gas, electricity supply is closed.

Question 6.
On 26th December, 2004. How many countries were affected by Tsunamis? How many people were killed?
Answer:
11 countries of Asia and Africa were affected by Tsunami. About 10 lakh people were killed

Question 7.
What is a flood?
Answer:
When the river water spreads beyond its bank it is called a flood.

Question 8.
What are cyclones and tropical cyclones? How are these caused?
Answer:
Cyclones are whirlwind of high speed winds. Their velocity is more than 63 km per hour. These are caused due to pressure. These mostly occur between 5°-206 latitudes

Question 9.
What is a drought?
Answer:

It is prolonged period of dry weather in a region, where some rain might be expected.
Droughts last for years.
They are caused because of changes in climate and human activities.
It leads to acute shortage of water, food and fodder.

Question 10.
Which temple was affected by the Uttarakhand disaster?
Answer:
Kedamath temple.

Question 11.
Name the two rivers which overflowed.
Answer:
Alaknanda and Mandakani.

Question 12.
Name a major chemical disaster which occurred in India.
Answer:
Bhopal Gas tragedy.

Question 13.
According to the device that measures the intensity of earthquake, 12 means complete destruction. What is this device called?
Answer:
Richter Scale.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Richter scale and Marcoli scale.
Answer:
Richter Scale. It is a scale used to measure intensity of earthquakes. It shows intensity of tremors on Richter scale, an earthquake with intensity of 8 is considered dangerous.
Marcoli scale shows damage done by earthquakes. It shows 0 to 12 as the damage increases.

Question 2.
Name the different type of volcanoes.
Answer:
Types of volcanoes
1. Active volcanoes. The volcanoes that erupt frequently and are always emitting lava are called active volcanoes. Mauna Loa in Hawaii is islands the largest active volcano in the world. There are about 150 active volcanoes in the world.

2. Dormant volcanoes. Dormant volcanoes are also called sleeping volcanoes. These volcanoes have been active in the past; stopped ejecting lava now, but can erupt any time. The Vesuvius of Italy is such a dormant volcano.

3. Extinct volcanoes. The volcanoes which have never erupted in human history are called extinct or dead volcanoes, such as Kilimanjaro in Africa.

Question 3.
How do cyclones become a disaster? Describe the damage done by these.
Answer:
In a cyclone, when winds move with a velocity of 100 kms per hour it becomes a disaster. These damage the adjoining areas.

Damages:

They are intense storms that develop over warm and tropical oceans between 5° and 20° North and South of Equator.
The velocity of winds exceeds 10 km per hour which cause large-scale destruction in its path.
The crops are damaged, trees are uprooted.
They destroy telephone and electricity lines.
They blow away weak structures like; roofs, etc.
It also destroys houses and other settlements which effects human lives

Question 4.
Describe the disaster and precautions for Dam Burst.
Answer:
Dams are used for reservoirs to store more water. Dam burst causes floods. When there is a big dam, it is a disaster. Whole life is disrupted. Govt, should take measures to save life and property.

Question 5.
What do you know about disaster caused by Industrial accidents?
Answer:
Industries have big machines and plants. Many gases are used in these. Sometimes accidents occur due to leakage of gases like Bhopal Gas Tragedy. There ill-effects are :

The fire causes huge loss of life and property
Temperature increases
Poisonous gases kill people
Various respiratory diseases spread
People become unemployed
Environment is degraded.

Question 6.
What measures are taken for safety during industrial accidents?
Answer:
The following precautions should be taken against fire:

Do not keep flammable liquids in the house.
In case of fire, the evacuation route should be used.
Install a fire extinguisher on a wall in your house.
All electrical and gas appliances should be shut when you are going out of the house.
Do not create a panic.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe the disasters caused due to landslides and avalanches. Suggest measures to reduce the risk.
Answer:
Landslides. Groundwater increases the weight of the rock or the soil which contains it. Sometimes a mass of earth saturated with water slides down a hill slope causing landslides.

Causes: One or more causes such as lubrication by rains or melting snow, steep slopes and unusual structures, earthquakes, removal of support, or gravity may produce landslides. Lubrication of rocks takes place by means of rains or melting snows as in many parts of the Himalayas. Rocks become slippery and slide down. Steep slopes may be caused by the sliding of rocks straight through faulting or by quarries made by man. The sides of these may collapse on accounts of other factors.

Effects of landslides. Landslides and rock slides are of frequent occurrence in many mountains. National highways are closed. Cattle and vehicles suffer a lot.

Measures to reduce the risk during the landslides :

Cutting down of trees must be stopped on mountain slopes.
Avoiding construction of buildings on steep slopes.
Building codes have to be followed strictly.
Drainage should be proper.
Afforestation on slopes is done.
Retaining walls along roads are built.

Avalanches: The. sliding of ice along the slope leads to avalanches downwards. These cause a lot of damage to roads, cattle, human beings, buildings, etc. When the pressure of ice increases, it slides down the slopes.

Measures:

Knowledge of avalanches is provided to people.
Afforestation can check it.
Barriers should be built to check the movement of avalanches.
Ice-breaking machines are used to clear ice on roads.
Relief is given to victims.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 Motions of the Earth

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 6th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Motions of the Earth Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Motions of the Earth

SST Guide for Class 6 PSEB Motions of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions in brief :

Question 1.
What is rotation of Earth?
Answer:
The earth rotates on its axis. It completes its round along its axis in twenty-four hours, from west to east. This is called Rotation of the Earth.

Question 2.
What is meant by “Inclination of the Earth’s axis”?
Answer:
The tilting of the Earth’s axis at an angle of 23%° from a perpendicular to the orbital plane is called “Inclination of the Earth’s axis”.

The Inclination of the Earth’s Axis

Question 3.
What causes the cycle of seasons?
Answer:
The cycle of seasons is caused mainly by the revolution of the earth around the sun and the inclination of the earth’s axis at an angle of 66 1/2° to the plane of its orbit which constantly points to the same direction.

Question 4.
Where do the vertical rays of the sun fall on June 21?
Answer:
The vertical rays of the sun fall on the Tropic of Cancer on June 21.

Question 5.
On September 23, which season is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
On September 23, autumn season is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 6.
When is winter solastice?
Answer:
In Southern Hemisphere in summer season when the sun shines vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn, it is winter solstice.

Question 7.
On September 23, which season is experienced in the Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
On September 23, spring season is experienced in the Southern Hemisphere.

II. Distinguish between the following :

Question 1.
Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice.
Answer:
On 21st June, when the sun shines vertically on the Tropic of Cancer, it is called Summer Solstice. On the other hand, on 22nd December, when the sun shines vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn, it is known as Winter Solstice.

Question 2.
Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox.
Answer:
On March 21 and September 23, days and nights are equal throughout the world. On March 21, spring season starts in the Northern Hemisphere. So this day is known as Spring Equinox.’On the other hand, on September 23, autumn season begins in the Northern Hemisphere. So this day is called Autumn Equinox.

Question 3.
Rotation and Revolution.
Answer:
The continuous spinning of the earth on its axis is called rotation. The earth takes twenty-four hours to complete one rotation on its axis. Days and nights are caused by the rotation of the earth.

Revolution, on the other hand, is the movement of the earth around the sun. The earth takes 36544 days to make a complete round of the sun, while rotating along its axis. Cycle of seasons is caused by the revolution of the earth.

III. Give reasons :

Question 1.
The sun rises in the east and sets in the west.
Answer:
The sun is stationary and the earth moves from west to east. Due to this movement of the earth, the sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west.

Question 2.
Days and nights are not always equal.
Answer:
On the equator, the rays of the sun fall vertically. So days and nights are equal there. But as we move away from the equator towards north or south, the rays of the sun fall slantingly. As a result, the length of days and nights increases or decreases. That is why days and nights are not equal.

Question 3.
On June 21, the South Pole is in continuous darkness.
Answer:
On June 21, the sun is away from the South Pole. So on this day, the South Pole is in continuous darkness.

Question 4.
Why do the sun, the moon and the stars appear moving round the earth, from east to west?
Answer:
The earth moves from west to east. It is because of this movement of the earth that the sun, the moon and the stars appear moving round the earth, from east to west.

IV. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The earth rotates from __________ to __________
Answer:
west, east

Question 2.
The __________ is the line around which the earth turns.
Answer:
axis

Question 3.
The path along which earth travels around the sun is called the __________
Answer:
planetary path, (orbit)

Question 4.
The __________ areas experience six months long day and six months long night.
Answer:
polar.

PSEB 6th Class Social Science Guide Motions of the Earth Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Movement of the earth on its axis is called :
(A) Revolution
(B) Rotation
(C) Resolution
(D) Cycle.
Answer:
(B) Rotation.

Question 2.
The axis of the earth which is an imaginary line makes an angle of with its orbital plane.
(A) 90°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) 66°
Answer:
(D) 66°.

Question 3.
The plane formed by the axis of earth and orbit is called __________
(A) Spherical plane
(B) Orbital plane
(C) Symmetric plane
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(B) Orbital plane.

Question 4.
Earth has __________ types of motions.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5.
Answer:
(A) 2.

Question 5.
When the earth is farthest from the sun, it is called :
(A) Aphelion
(B) Perihelion
(C) Solistices
(D) Equinoxes.
Answer:
(A) Aphelion.

Fill in the Blanks:

Question 1.
The earth mainly receives light from __________
Answer:
The sun

Question 2.
Period of rotation is called the __________
Answer:
Earthday

Question 3.
Australia lies in _____________ Hemisphere.
Answer:
Southern

Question 4.
Revolution of the earth causes change in_______________
Answer:
Seasons

Question 5.
Earth is in shape.
Answer:
Spherical.

True/False :

Question 1.
Earth takes 24 hrs to complete one rotation around its axis.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
On 23rd March rays of the sun fall on the equator.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Seasons change due to the change in the position of the sun around the earth.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Day and night on the earth occurs due to rotation of the earth.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Every fourth year, month February is of 29 days.
Answer:
True

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
Answer:
The earth takes twenty-four hours to complete one rotation.

Question 2.
On what days do we have equal days and nights all over the world?
Answer:
We have equal days and nights all over the world on 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 3.
In which season is Christmas celebrated in Australia?
Answer:
Christmas in Australia is celebrated in summer season.

Question 4.
How much time does the earth take to complete one revolution?
Answer:
The earth takes 365 days and 6 hours to complete one revolution.

Question 5.
What causes days and nights?
Answer:
Rotation of the earth causes days and nights.

Question 6.
How much is the earth’s axis tilted from a perpendicular to the orbital plane?
Answer:
The earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of 23Vi° from a perpendicular to the orbital plane.

Question 7.
When the Northern Hemisphere is inclined towards the sun, which hemisphere will have the longer days and shorter nights?
Answer:
The Northern Hemisphere will have the longer days and shorter nights.

Question 8.
Which place on the earth has. days and nights of equal length throughout the year?
Answer:
The equator has days and nights of equal length throughout the year.

Question 9.
What is the position of the earth on 21st June?
Answer:
The North Pole remains inclined towards the sun, while the South Pole is away from it.

Question 10.
When is the autumn season in the Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The autumn season in the Southern Hemisphere is on 21st March.

Question 11.
On what days do we have days and nights equal in the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer:
On 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 12.
Why does the sun at noon give more heat?
Answer:
The sun at noon gives more heat because its rays on the earth’s surface are vertical.

Question 13.
“The earth is not a perfect sphere.” Explain.
Answer:
The earth is a spheroid. It is flattened at the Poles. It has a bulge in the middle. Its shape is that of a Geoid. It is due to the centrifugal force acting on earth.

Question 14.
‘The real earth has no needle.’ Explain.
Answer:
If a needle is fixed through the globe in a tilted manner, it is called axis. The points of the needle on the globe are north pole and south pole. The globe can be moved around the needle. But the real earth has no such needle because the axis is an imaginary line.

Question 15.
The sun never sets or rises. Discuss.
Answer:
The sun seems to be rising or setting due to Rotation. Actually it is the earth that movps. The sun is stationary. It does not set or rise.

Question 16.
What is a planetary path?
Answer:
All the planets move along an elliptical path called orbit. It is also called planetary path.

Question 17.
What is Ferral’s law?
Answer:
All the winds and ocean currents move towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards left in the southern hemisphere. It is called Ferral’s law.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Morning and Evening.
Answer:

Morning	Evening
1. It is the time of sunrise.	1. It is the time of sunset.
2. The rays of the sun appear on the horizon in the east.	2. The rays of the sun appear to be descending to the horizon in the west.
3. It is the time between the day break and noon.	3. It is the time between the noon and sunset.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Rotation and Revolution.
Answer:
The distinction between rotation and revolution is as under :

Rotation	Revolution
1. The spinning of the Earth on its axis is called rotation.	1. Annual motion of the Earth round the Sun is called revolution.
2. The time of rotation is about 24 hours.	2. The time of revolution is 365 days 6 hours.
3. Days and nights follow each other in regular succession in all parts of the Earth due to rotation.	3. The change of season takes place because of the revolution of the Earth.

Question 3.
Why do people experience more heat during noon than in the morning or evening?
Answer:
The rays of the sun are vertical at noon and slanting in the morning and evening. The great amount of heat is received by the earth when the sun’s rays fall vertical over it. Hence, people experience more heat during noon. Since the sun’s rays fall slanting in the morning and evening, they scatter over the greater area and hence they are comparatively cool.

Question 4.
Why do we have longer days and shorter nights in the Northern Hemisphere during summers?
Answer:
The earth’s axis is inclined by 23 1/2° to one side. Due to .this inclination, the Northern Hemisphere remains inclined towards the sun during one half of the year. Hence, the days are fonger and nights are shorter. In contrast, the Southern Hemisphere is always away from the sun during this half of the year.

Question 5.
What is a leap year? Why does a leap year have an extra day than an ordinary year?
Answer:
A leap year is one which has 366 days. It comes after a cycle of four years.

The earth moves around the sun and takes 365 days and 6 hours to make a complete round of it. We take 365 days in a year and ignore six hours. But these six hours make a day in four years. Hence, one day is added to every fourth year. Thus, every fourth year is called a leap year because it has 366 days. The extra day is added to the month of February. In an ordinary year, February has 28 days while in a leap year, it has 29 days.

Question 6.
How are days and nights caused?
Answer:
Days and nights are caused due to rotation. The earth rotates on its axis from West to East. When it rotates, one half of the earth turns towards light and has therefore day. The other half turns away

Day and Night

from the sun and remains in darkness and has night. During 24 hours, every part of the earth comes in turn before the sun and then goes into darkness. Therefore, the position of day and night keeps on changing. When it is day in one hemisphere, it is night in the other. The circle that divides the day from night on the globe is called circle of illumination (circle of light). This circle does not coincide with the inclined axis of the earth.

Question 7.
Make Difference between Summer and Winter Solstice.
Answer:

Summer Solstice	Winter Solstice
1. Summer solstice occurs on 22nd June in Northern hemisphere.	1. Winter solstice occurs on 22nd December in the Northern hemisphere.
2. The whole Northern hemisphere experiences more heat and light.	2. Northern hemisphere exper¬iences less heat and light.
3. It is summer in the Northern hemisphere.	3. It is winter in the Northern hemisphere.
4. Days are longer, nights are shorter.	4. Days are shorter, nights are longer.
5. Reverse conditions prevail in the Southern hemisphere.	5. Reverse conditions prevail in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 8.
What would happen if the Earth did not rotate?
Answer:
If the earth did not rotate :

The portion before the sun would have remained the same and continued to experience day regularly.
On the other hand the portion of the Earth away from the sun would have experienced night continuously.
Life would have not been possible on the Earth in such a situation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(a) Define Rotation.
Answer:
Rotation: The spinning of the earth on its axis from West to East is called rotation.

(b) What is the period of rotation?
Answer:
The earth takes about 24 hours (23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds) to complete one rotation. It is also known as daily motion of the earth.

Rotation causes days and nights.
All bodies like sun, moon, planets appear to move from East to West.
Tides occur regularly twice a day.
Winds and ocean currents change their directions.
The four main directions (North, South, East, West) can.be determined with the help of rotation.
We get a measure of time. A day consists of 24 hours-one complete rotation.
The different times of a day like sunrise, noon, sunset, midnight can be determined due to rotation.

Question 2.
(a) What is a revolution?
Answer:
Revolution: The spinning of the earth around the sun, along an elliptical orbit from West to East is known as revolution.

(b) What is period of revolution?
Answer:
It takes a year or 36514 days to complete one revolution. Hence it is also known as annual motion of the earth. The earth’s axis is always inclined at a fixed angle of 66/4° to the plane of the ecliptic,

(c) What are aphelion and perihelion?
Answer:
When the earth is farthest from the sun (152 million kms) it is aphelion. When the earth is nearest the sun (147 million km) it is perihelion,

(d) What are its effects?
Answer:
Effects:

Due to revolution, the lengths of days and nights vary at a place at different times of the year.
Revolution causes a change of seasons.
It helps in the location of Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn due to the fact that the sun’s rays fall vertical here.
Altitude of the mid-day sun changes.
It gives us a measure of time for one year.
Poles have days and nights of 6 months duration.
It determines the distribution of solar energy on the earth.

Rotation and Revolution

Question 3.
(a) How many seasons are there in a year?
Answer:
Normally, four seasons are experienced during a year- spring, summer, autumn, and winter.

(b) What are the causes of seasons?
Answer:
The change of seasons is due to the following reasons :

Rotations of the earth.
The inclination of the earth’s axis at 66 1/2° to the plane of the orbit.
The axis remains always in the same direction.
Revolution of the earth.

(c) Describe the conditions in each position.
Answer:
Due to the four seasons, the earth keeps on changing its position at different times of the year or during one revolution. These are seasonal positions. Each position of the earth with relation to the sun changes and explains different seasons.

Seasonal Positions :
1. Position on 21 June:

North pole is inclined towards the sun and the South pole is tilted away from the sun.
The larger part of the northern hemisphere is in daylight, while the larger part of the southern hemisphere is in darkness.
Days are longer than nights in northern hemisphere while nights are longer in the southern hemisphere.
The Sun shines vertical on the Tropic of Cancer (2314°N), but the southern hemisphere has slanting rays.
Hence the Northern hemisphere, with vertical rays and longer days has summer season. The southern hemisphere with slanting rays and shorter days has winter season. This position is also called the Summer Solstice. 21st June is the longest day and the shortest night in the northern hemisphere.

2. Position on 22 December: This position of the earth comes six months after the first position.

The South pole is inclined towards the sun and the north pole turns away from the soil.
The major part of the southern hemisphere is in light, while the major part of the northern hemisphere is in darkness.
Days are shorter than nights in the northern hemisphere while days are longer in the southern hemisphere.
The sun shines vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn (2314 °S) and the northern hemisphere gets slanting rays.
Hence the southern hemisphere with perpendicular rays and longer days has the summer season. This is the season of the southern summer and of the northern winter. It is also called the Winter Solstice. December 22 is the longest day and shortest night in the southern hemisphere.

3. Positions of 21st March, 23rd September:

In these positions, the sun shines vertically on the equator.
The circle of light passage through the poles dividing the globe into equal parts.
Neither of the poles is inclined towards the sun.
Every parallel has one half in darkness and the other half in light, with the result, the days and nights are equal all over the world.
Both the hemispheres have similar seasons. It is autumn on 23rd September in the northern hemisphere and spring in the southern hemisphere.
It is spring on 21st March in the northern hemisphere and autumn in the southern hemisphere. These positions are called Equinoxes (meaning equal nights).

PSEB 10th Class Computer Notes Chapter 3 HTML II

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

This PSEB 10th Class Computer Notes Chapter 3 HTML II will help you in revision during exams.

PSEB 10th Class Computer Notes Chapter 3 HTML II

A hyperlink is a reference to Webpage that the reader can directly follow either by clicking, tapping or hovering. A hyperlink points to a whole document or to a specific element within a document. The text that is linked is called anchor text. A software system that is used for viewing and creating hypertext is a hypertext system, and to create a hyperlink is to hyperlink. A user following hyperlinks is said to navigate or browse the hypertext.

A webpage can contain various links that take you directly to other pages and even specific parts of a-given page. These links are known as hyperlinks. Hyperlinks allow visitors to navigate between Web sites by clicking on words, phrases, and images. Thus you can create hyperlinks using text or images available on a webpage.

Linking Documents (Anchor Tag)

A link is specified using HTML tag <a>. This tag is called anchor tag and anything between the opening <a> tag and the closing </a> tag becomes part of the link and a user can click that part to reach to the lirfked document. Following is the simple syntax to use <a> tag:
<a href = “Document URL” … attributes-list>Link Text</a>

Form:

Apart from common attributes, following is a list of the most frequently used form attributes:

Attribute	Description
1. action	Backend script ready to process your passed data
2. method	Method to be used to upload data. The most frequently used are GET and POST methods.
3. target	Specify the target window or frame where the result of the script will be displayed. It takes values like Jblank, _self, _parent etc.
4. enctype	The method attribute of the form element tells the web browser how to send form data to a server. Specifying a value of GET means the browser will add the form contents to the end of the URL. This offers a number of advantages for simple forms. It allows the browser to cache the results of the form submission, and it also allows the user to bookmark the page once the form has been submitted. As such, GET is generally used for simple forms where security is not a concern.

GET Method:

GET results in the entire contents of the submission being visible in the URL. If your form contains sensitive data, you should specify a value of POST for the method attribute. Since GET appends the form data to the current URL, it can only be used where the contents of the submission (including the complete URL) will result in a string that is 2048 characters long, or less. This is the maximum length of a URL. GET can only be used to send ASCII data.
<form method=”POST”>

The method attribute of the form element tells the web browser how to send form data to a server. Specifying a value of POST means the browser will send the data to the web server to be processed. This is necessary when adding data to a database, or when submitting sensitive information, such,as passwords.

POST Method:

When data is sent using POST, submitting the form twice will result in a duplicated entry. This can be a problem if the form is linked to a membership, purchase, or other one-time action. This is why users cannot bookmark the results of a form submission if the method is POST.

Preparing a Form

Every form starts with <form> tag. It can be placed anywhere in html document. It ends with </form> tag.

Text Input

This control is used for items that require only one line of user input, such as search boxes or names. They are created using HTML <input> tag.

Example
Here is a basic example of a single-line text input used to take first name and last name –
PSEB 10th Class Computer Notes Chapter 3 HTML II Notes 1

Attributes:

Following is the list of attributes for <input> tag for creating text field:

Attribute	Description
1. type	Indicates the type of input control and for text input control it will be set to text.
2. name	Used to give a name to the control which is sent to the server to be recognized and get the value.
3. value	This can be used to provide an initial value inside the control.
4. size	Allows to specify the width of the text-input control in terms of characters.
5. maxlength	Allows to specify the maximum number of characters a user can enter into the text box

Text Area:

This is used when the user is required to give details that may be longer than a single sentence. Multi-line input controls are created using HTML <textarea> tag.

Example
Here is a basic example of a multi-line text input used to take item description:
PSEB 10th Class Computer Notes Chapter 3 HTML II Notes 2

Attributes:

Following is the list of attributes for <textarea> tag:

Attribute	Description
1. name	Used to give a name to the control which is sent to the server to be recognized and get the value.
2. rows	Indicates the number of rows of text area box.
3. cols	Indicates the number of columns of text area box

Checkbox Control:

Checkboxes are used when more than one option is required to be selected. They are also created using HTML <input> tag but type attribute is set to checkbox.

Example
Here is an example HTML code for a

Attributes:

Following is the list of attributes for <checkbox> tag:

Attribute	Description
type	Indicates the type of input control and for checkbox input control it will be set to checkbox.
name	Used to give a name to the control which is sent to the server to be recognized and get the value.
value	The value that will be used if the checkbox is selected.
checked	Set to checked if you want to select it by default.

Radio Button

Radio buttons are used when out of many options, just one option is required to be selected. They are also created using HTML <input> tag but type attribute is set to radio.
Example
Here is example HTML code for a form with two radio buttons:
PSEB 10th Class Computer Notes Chapter 3 HTML II Notes 3

Attributes:

Following is the list of attributes for radio button:

Attribute	Description ‘
1. type	Indicates the fype of input control and for checkbox input control it will be set to radio.
2. name	Used to give a name to the control which,is sent to the server to be recognized and get the value.
3. value	The value that will be used if the radio box is selected.
4. checked	Set to checked if you want to select it by default.

Select Box Control:

A select box, also called drop down box which provides option to list dovm various options looin the form of drop down list, from where a user can select one or more options.
Example
Here is example HTML code for a form with one drop down box
PSEB 10th Class Computer Notes Chapter 3 HTML II Notes 4

Attributes:

Following is the list of important attributes of <select> tag:

Attribute	Description
1. name	Used to give a name to the control which is sent to the server to be recognized and get the value.
2. size	This can be used to present a scrolling list box.
3. multiple	If set to “multiple” then allows a user to select multiple items from the menu.

Following is the list of important attributes of <option> tag:

Attribute	Description
1. value	The value that will be used if an option in the select box box is selected.
2. selected	Specifies that this option should be the initially selected value when the page loads.
3. label	An alternative way of labeling options

Button:

There are various ways in HTML to create clickable buttons. You can also create a clickable button using <input>tag by setting its type attribute to button. The type attribute can take the following values:

Type	Description
1. submit	This creates a button that automatically submits a form.
2. reset	This creates a button that automatically resets form controls to their initial values.

Multimedia in Html:

Multimedia can be added using HTML in many ways :

An HTML marquee is a scrolling piece of text displayed either horizontally across or vertically*down your webpage depending on the settings. This is created by using HTML <marquees> tag.
Note – The <marquee> tag deprecated in HTML5. Do not use this element, instead you can use JavaScript and CSS to create such effects.

Syntax:
A simple syntax to use HTML <marquee> tag is as follows:
<marquee attribute_name = “attribute_value”….more attributes> ‘
One or more lines or text message or image </marquee>

The <marquee> Tag Attributes

Following is the list of important attributes which can be used with <marquee> tag:

Width:

This specifies the width of the marquee. This can be a value like 10 or 20% etc. height. This specifies the height of the marquee. This can be a value like 10 or 20% etc. direction. This specifies the direction in which marquee should scroll. This can be a value like up, down, left or right, behavior. This specifies the type of scrolling of the marquee. This can have a value like scroll, slide and alternate, scrolldelay. This specifies how long to delay between each jump.

This will have a value like 10 etc. scrollamount. This specifies the speed of marquee text. This can have a value like 10 etc, loop. This specifies how many times to loop. The default value is INFINITE, which means that the marquee loops endlessly, bgcolor. This specifies background color in terms of color name or color hex value, shspace. This specifies horizontal space around the marquee. This can be a value like 10 or 20% etc. vspace. This specifies vertical space around the marquee. This can be a value like 10 or 20% etc.

Adding Audio/Video files in HTML:

User can link audio/video files in HTML document using anchor (<a>) tag. User has to give the path of audio/video file in href attribute of anchor tag. Whenever the user clicks on the link, the files will automatically gets downloaded and is played in the associated software.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 10th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture

SST Guide for Class 10 PSEB Land Utilization and Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions objectively:

Question 1.
Name the crops which are sown in the Kharif season.
Answer:
The crops sown in the Kharif season are-Rice, Jowar, Bajra, Maize, Groundnut, Jute and Cotton.

Question 2.
which are the crops sown in Rabi season?
Answer:
Wheat, barley, grams, mustard and rapeseed etc, are grown in Rabi season.

Question 3.
What is difference between Green Manure and Fertilizer?
Answer:
Fertilizers and Manures. Fertilizers are chemically prepared but manures include gobar and green plants.

Question 4.
What are Milch Cattle?
Answer:
The cattle which provide milk are called Milch cattle. Cows and buffaloes are milch cattle.

Question 5.
What is Fallow Land?
Answer:
Fallow Land is a piece of land in which only one crop is grown during a period of two or three years.

Question 6.
What is the percentage area of our country under forests?
Answer:
23.3% area of country is under the forests.

Question 7.
How much area should be under the forests from the scientific point of view?
Answer:
According to scientific point of view, 33% of land of a country should be under forests.

Question 8.
How much percentage area in Punjab is under forest?
Answer:
5.7% area is under forest in Punjab.

Question 9.
How much percentage of land is under agriculture in India?
Answer:
50% of land of India is arable.

Question 10.
Whch is the largest wheat producing state of our country?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh is the largest wheat producing state of India.

Question 11.
Which state of our country contributes largest amount of wheat to the central pool?
Answer:
Punjab has the largest contribution of wheat to the public distribution system in India.

Question 12.
What are the causes of decreasing pasture lands?
Answer:
The area under pastures is brought under cultivation to meet the needs of growing population of the country.

Question 13.
In the year 2001 how much food was available per person per year in India?
Answer:
458 grams was available per person per year in India in 2001.

Question 14.
Name the state that produces largest amount of Rice.
Answer:
West Bengal is the largest rice producing state in India.

Question 15.
What is the rank of Punjab in terms of per hectare production of wheat?
Answer:
Punjab ranks first in India as regards yield per hectare of wheat.

Question 16.
What is the rank of India in terms of producing pulses in world?
Answer:
India gets first position in the world in the production of pulses.

Question 17.
After the green revolution, what type of change occurred in production?
Answer:
Pulses were sown in 9.3 lakh hectare land in Punjab before green revolution. After green revolution this area has reduced and left 95 thousand hectares.

Question 18.
At the end of 21st century how much foodgrains would be required for the Indian population?
Answer:
40 crore tonnes of foodgrains would be required for the population of India at the end of 21st century (Almost 160 to 170 crores of population).

Question 19.
Write down any three problems of the present Indian agriculture.
Answer:

Huge pressure of population on land.
Unequal distribution of cultivated land.
Uneducated farmers.

Question 20.
What is the rank of India in the world in the production of sugarcane?
Answer:
India has the fifth position in the world in the production of sugarcane.

Question 21.
Name the crops of oil seeds.
Answer:
Oil seeds are – Groundnut, Mustard and Rape Seed,-Sunflower, Cotton seeds, Coconut etc. We get oil from these.

Question 22.
Name any two states which produce maximum amount of groundnuts.
Answer:
Gujarat and Maharashtra are two largest groundnut producing states.

Question 23.
In which decade the area under oil seeds production had increased the most?
Answer:
In the decade of 1980 to 1990, India obtained the maximum increase in the production of oil seeds.

Question 24.
Which are the main cotton producing states of our country?
Answer:
The main cotton producing states of India are:
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan. Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
What is the per hectare production of cotton in our country?
Answer:
249 kilograms per hectare is the average yield of cotton.

Question 26.
Which are the main potato producing states of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar and Punjab are the main potato producing states.

Question 27.
Name the main potato producing districts of Punjab.
Answer:
Jalandhar, Hoshiarpur, Patiala and Ludhiana are the main potato producing districts of Punjab.

Question 28.
What is the rank of Punjab in our country in respect of cattle wealth?
Answer:
Punjab gets 13th position in India as regards to cattle wealth.

Question 29.
Which part of the country amounts the highest cattle wealth?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh has the largest cattle resources in India.

Question 30.
What is the rank of India in the world in respect of fruit and vegetables?
Answer:
India gets second position in world in the production of fruit and vegetables.

Question 31.
Where does India rank in the world in production of cashewnuts?
Answer:
India gets first position in the world in the production of cashewnuts.

Question 32.
Name the apple producing states.
Answer:
Jammu-Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh are the main apple producing states.

II. Answer the following Questions in short:

Question 1.
Why is the agriculture called the basic mainstay of Economic system?
Answer:
Agriculture is the basis of Indian Economy. Agriculture contributes only 33.7% of National Production, still it is important.

Two-thirds of our population gets livelihood from agriculture.
Agriculture sector provides employment to two-third labourers of the country.
Most of the industries get raw material from agriculture.
The fact is that the industrial structure has been built on the foundations of Agriculture.

Question 2.
What are the main features of Green Revolution?
Answer:
Green revolution encourages mechanised agriculture and it increases the total production. Ploughing, planting the seeds and harvesting is done by machines. Fertilizers and better seeds are used.

Question 3.
Which items are included in agriculture side?
Answer:
Agriculture includes livestock farming, fisheries, forestry, sericulture, bee hiving, poultry farming etc.

Question 4.
What is the difference between milch cattle and working load animals?
Answer:
Dairy cattle and draught cattle Cows and buffaloes are dairy cattle. These provide milk to us. Bullocks and oxen are draught cattle. These help in ploughing, sowing, harvesting and transportation of agricultural products.

Question 5.
What is the difference between current fallow land and old fallow land?
Answer:
Current Fallow Land and Old Fallow Land
Fallow lands are marginal lands which are left free for only one year. Crops are not grown. After one year, these lands are again cultivated. It is called current fallow land. The remaining fallow land is called old fallow land which is never cultivated.

Question 6.
What climatic conditions are required for the wheat cultivation?
Answer:
Wheat is an important foodgrain.
Geographical conditions. The following geographical conditions are suitable for wheat cultivation:

Wheat requires lower temperature during the growing period and high temperature at the harvesting period. At the sowing time temperature should be about 15°C to 20°C and at the time of ripening the temperature should be between 20°C and 25°C.
Wheat can be grown in areas of moderate rainfall. 50 to 75 centimeters rainfall is quite suitable for its cultivation. The rain should be well distributed
The soil should be fertile. Loamy soil is very suitable for wheat cultivation.
The land should be even for the convenience of irrigation.

Production. India occupies fourth position as a producer of wheat in the world.
Green revolution has brought many changes. In 1960-61 wheat production was 1.6 crore tonnes. In 2011-12 it increased to 8.5 crore tonnes.

Wheat Producing States. Although wheat is cultivated in almost every part of the country except the southern part of the Indian peninsula, it is essentially a crop of North India. Uttar Pradesh produces highest quantity of wheat in India. Punjab occupies the second position as a producer of wheat in India. Haryana is also an important producer of wheat.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 2
The states of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Maharashtra also grow some wheat.

Question 7.
Name the main paddy growing areas of our country.
Answer:
The following are the main rice producing areas of India:
Areas of Heavy Rainfall: Delta regions of East and West coastal plain. The plains and lower hills of N.E. India, lower slopes of the Himalayas; West Bengal, Bihar, Eastern U.P., Chhattisgarh; Northern Andhra Pradesh. Areas of Low Rainfall: Western U.P., Haryana, Punjab, and adjoining districts of Rajasthan.

Question 8.
Discuss the required condition for the production of Sugar Cane.
Answer:
Required condition for the production of Sugar Cane:
(а) Sugarcane requires well-drained fertile soil.
(b) It also needs large amount of chemical fertilizers and organic manure.
(c) Hot and humid climate is favourable for its higher yields.
(d) It grows well in areas with about 100 cm of rainfall.

Question 9.
What are the main uses of forests?
Answer:
Forests are a valuable resource. Following are the advantages of forests:
(a) Forests are helpful in maintaining ecological balance and natural Eco-system.
(b) Forests supply timber and fuel. It is used for making furniture, packing boxes, boats etc. and is used for buildings.
(c) Soft wood is used for preparing wood-pulp which has a large demand for paper
industry.
(d) We obtain lac, cane, gum, medicinal herbs from forests.
(e) We get fodder for cattle from forests.

Question 10.
Why is Indian agriculture known as ‘Subsistence Agriculture’?
Answer:
Most of land holdings in India are of small size. Large amount of capital and labour is applied on small farms, but economic benefit is small. Small farmers have to hire agricultural implements and tubewell water for irrigation. They have to purchase costly fertilizers from the market. It results in a small net savings. Therefore Indian agriculture is called Subsistence Agriculture.

Question 11.
Why some people call green revolution as ‘wheat revolution’?
Or
May green revolution be termed as wheat revolution only. How?
Answer:
Total production of wheat in 1960-61 was 1 crore 10 lakh tonnes. But due to green revolution it increased five times in 1993-94. Due to the enormous increase in wheat production, sometimes it is called wheat revolution,

Question 12.
Explain the efforts made for the development of animal wealth.
Answer:
Many attempts have been made by Central govt, and state govts, for the development of livestock farming in India.

Special attempts have been made to improve their breed, to protect them from different diseases, to control their diseases; and provide market facilities. At least one veterinary hospital has been started in each block. At village level, the health centres for livestock have been opened. In 1992-93, such health centres were more than 22,000. Besides this, 26 cattle injection centres in public and private sectors had been opened.

Question 13.
What are the reasons that are responsible for the increase in land use under non-agricultural purposes?
Answer:
There are two reasons for the increasing use of land for non-agricultural purposes growing population and economic development. The urban and rural areas are increasing in size due to growing population. Due to increase in economic development large area is being used for canals, roads, industries and irrigation projects.

Question 14.
Write in brief about the importance of forests.
Answer:
Forests are important in our daily life in the following ways:

These maintain ecological balance.
Trees absorb carbon dioxide and control the increase in temperature.
Forests are the home of wild animals. These protect them.
Forests increase the rainfall and droughts do not occur,
Forests preserve water resources and control floods in rivers.

Question 15.
What effect incurred after independence on the requirement of foodgrains per head?
Answer:
After independence, many steps have been taken to develop agriculture. As a result, the production of foodgrains has increased. From 1950-51 to 1994-95, production of rice has increased four times and production of wheat has increased ten times. It has affected food for persons. In 1950 the availability of foodgrains was 395 grams per person per day. In 2000 it had increased to 458 grams per person per day.

Question 18.
What are the reasons of small land holdings in India? How these effect Indian agriculture?
Answer:
50% land holdings are less than one hectare in size. The main reason for it is law of inheritance. After the death of the father, the land is equally divided among the sons. Therefore size of the land holding is small due to increasing pressure of population on land. Due to small holdings the farmer cannot use machinery and the advanced methods of irrigation. As a result, he has to hire water and machinery. Therefore, net saving is less and the farmer is becoming poorer day by day.

Question 17.
Name the main paddy producing states.
Answer:
West Bengal was the largest rice producing state of India with a production of 1.39 crore tonnes in 2000-01. Other main producers are U.P., Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, Bihar. Punjab and Orissa. Each state produces more than 60 lakhs tonnes of rice. Besides this, M.P., Assam, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Haryana are other large producers of rice.

Question 18.
What are the causes for high per hectare yield of wheat in Punjab?
Answer:
Punjab is the second largest producer of wheat in India. Punjab ranks first in yield per hectare and its contribution towards national store of wheat is due to

Wheat is cultivated on a large scale in Punjab because it is a commercial crop in Punjab.
Better irrigation facilities are available.
The yield per hectare is high.
The yield per hectare has increased due to mechanised agriculture.

Question 19.
What are the causes of decrease in area under pulses cultivation?
Answer:
The production of pulses and oil seeds are still low due to the following reasons:

The areas under cultivation of pulses and oil seeds is small. Pulses are grown on an area of 2.3 crore hectares.
There is absence of irrigation.
The yield per hectare is low. The green revolution has not affected it,
The rate of growth of population is more than the rate of production of these crops.

Question 20.
Write down the benefits of Dairy Industry.
Answer:
Dairy farming includes rearing of cattle to get milk and milk products. It is a part of agriculture. It has the following advantages:

It provides employment in drought areas.
It provides additional income to farmer.
It provides nutrients in diet by increasing the production of milk.

Question 21.
Why production of pulses and oil-seeds is still low?
Answer:
The production of pulses and oil seeds is lower and does not meet our needs. This is due to:

Low production of Pulses. The production of pulses was 1.3 crore tonnes in 1960-61. It was 1.4 crore tonnes in 1993-94. Unfortunately, the yield of pulses per person has reduced to one half. This is due to the decrease in area under pulses. Much area has been brought under cultivation of rice and wheat. There has been decreasing of 34 lakh hectares under pulses during the last thirty years.
Low production of Oil-seeds. The position of oil-seeds is opposite to-that of pulses. There has been increase in area under oilseeds as well as production of oilseeds. In 1960-61 area under oilseeds was 1.4 crore hectares. It increased to 2.23 crore hectares in 2000-01. The production increased two fold but still there is shortage of oilseeds. The demand is increasing by 5% annually and 2% growth of population is making the problem more severe.

Question 22.
What are the main problems of Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The following are the agricultural problems of India:

There is a great soil erosion because the area under forests and pastures is small.
Most of the soils are saline. More than one lakh hectares is affected by this in Ferozepur district.
Most of the farmers are illiterate and are unable to practise crop rotation.
Cultivated land is decreasing due to the increasing use of land for non-agriculturai purposes.
The size of the land holding is small, uneconomic and there is small net saving. Because the farmers have to hire the costly machinery and costly fertilizer
Fall in ground water and loss of fertility are other problems.

Question 23.
Explain the changes that have occurred rapidly in the diversification of crop rotation after Green Revolution.
Answer:
Rapid changes have taken in crop-rotation after Green Revolution. This is due to the increase in productivity in areas affected by Green Revolution (Punjab, Haryana and H.P.). Agricultural productivity has decreased in the traditional rice producing areas of the East. Besides this, the agricultural development, in Green revolution affected areas, has become stagnant. To meet these problems, the farmers have adopted new systems of crop rotation in different areas. For example, Punjab has adopted a Wheat-Rice rotation system, and U.P. has taken to Wheat-Sugarcane crop-rotation system.

Question 24.
What are the indications that depict that Indian agriculture is advancing towards commercial agriculture leaving behind the subsistence type of agriculture?
Answer:
Subsistence farming means the raising of crops for the local consumption according to needs of the farmer and his family. In commercial farming the surplus is sold in the market. The following factors have been responsible for transforming Indian agriculture from subsistence to commercial farming:

The Govt, has passed legislative measures to abolish the Zamindari system.
Chakbandi has consolidated scattered land holdings of the farmers to make it of economic size.
Cooperative movement has helped the farmers to collectively tackle their problems of credit and marketing.
National banks provide loans to farmers on relatively easy terms.
The Agricultural Price Commission fixes the minimum support prices for various crops. The farmers are not compelled to sell their products at low prices,

Question 25.
What efforts have been made by Government of India for the development of Agriculture?
Answer:
The Central and State governments have taken the following five important steps for the progress of agriculture in India:

Consolidation. The government under the five year plans have consolidated the small holdings into big blocks in order to mechanize the agriculture.
Supply of quality seeds. The government has undertaken to supply seeds of good quality to the farmer so that agricultural output is increased.
Supply of fertilizers. The government, therefore, has started supplying chemical fertilizers to the farmers. Many factories have been set up to meet the demand of chemical fertilizers.
Modern means of agriculture. In order to increase the agricultural output new machines are being used for agriculture.
Means of irrigation. Many multipurpose projects have been completed. Dams have been built across the rivers and the water thus stored is used for irrigation. Bhakra-Nangal project and Damodar Valley Corporation are examples of this type of projects.

III. Answer the following questions subjectively:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the problems being faced by the Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
The main problems of Indian Agriculture are as under:

The most important problem of Indian Agriculture is the pressure of population on land. About 65% workers depend upon agriculture for their livelihood; but earn only 29% of the National income.
Most of the land holdings are small and unequally distributed. These are uneconomic.
The area under forests and pastures is low. Therefore soil erosion has an adverse effect on soil fertility.
Most of the farmers are illiterate. They cannot practise crop-rotation. So the natural fertility of the soil decreases. So intensive agriculture affects the fertility of the soil.
Irrigation has become a problem in India. There is necessity of extending irrigation facilities in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, M.P., Karnataka, etc.; but due to over-irrigation in Punjab the problems of water logging and saline soils have been created.
The capital investment in Agriculture is decreasing. In 1980-81, the capital investment was Rs. 1769 crores, but in 1990-91 it decreased to Rs. 100 crores. After that this capital investment is on increase.
Marginal development has taken place in development of better seeds.
Diversification of crops and slow growth is also a problem.
The fact is that Govt, has a strict control on agriculture and prices. Farmers cannot be provided adequate facilities like industries.

Question 2.
Write an explanatory essay on the Green Revolution of India.
Answer:
Green Revolution is a new strategy used to increase the production of foodgrains in the country. A revolution has taken place in the agricultural methods and technology. This revolution is known as Green Revolution. It includes the use of better quality seeds, high yielding varieties, chemical fertilizers, agricultural machinery and to provide irrigation facilities. It has led to a complete modernisation of Indian Agriculture.

This strategy was introduced to do away with food shortage and import of foodgrains. In 1961 seven districts were selected for this programme. In Punjab, Ludhiana was one of these districts. Green Revolution affected the whole of Punjab. Punjab became the bread basket of India. Yield per hectare of wheat rose to 3531 kg. in 1985-86. But in India it was 2132 kg. In fact, Green Revolution helped to increase production on less land.

Question 3.
Explain in detail about the cultivation of Paddy in India.
Answer:
Rice. Rice is the leading agricultural crop of India. It is the staple food of 2/3rd of her population. Suitable geographical environment for its cultivation, its production and trade are described ahead:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 1
Geographical conditions. The geographical conditions suitable for rice cultivation are the following:

Rice is the product of moist tropical region. It requires high temperature. The temperature should not be more than 25°C. At the harvest times especially, the temperature should be high.
Rice requires great amount of water. A rainfall between 130 and 200 cms is suitable for it. A good crop of rice mainly depends on the Monsoon. Deficiency in rainfall can be made up by irrigation.
Very fertile soil is needed for rice cultivation. Clay and delta soils are most suitable for it.
Rice requires a lot of manual labour. Therefore, cheap labour should be available for its cultivation. Therefore rice is grown in densely populated areas.

Rice Producing Areas. India stands next only to China in the production of rice. In India, West Bengal produces largest quantity of rice. Tamil Nadu and Jharkhand are second and third producers of rice respectively. Rice is also grown in Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Assam, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana. In 2011-12 rice was grown in 4.3 crore hectares of land in India and the total output of rice was 9.5 crore tonnes.

Question 4.
Explain in detail about the cultivation of wheat in India.
Answer:
Wheat is an important foodgrain.
Geographical conditions. The following geographical conditions are suitable for wheat cultivation:

Wheat requires lowr temperature during the growing period and high temperature at the harvesting period. At the sowing time temperature should be about 15°C to 20°C and at the time of ripening the temperature should be between 20°C and 25°C.
Wheat can be grown in areas of moderate rainfall. 50 to 75 centimetres rainfall is quite suitable for its cultivation. The rain should be well distributed
The soil should be fertile. Loamy soil is very suitable for wheat cultivation.
The land should be even for the convenience of irrigation.

Wheat Producing States. Although wheat is cultivated in almost every part of the country except the southern part of the Indian peninsula, it is essentially a crop of North India. Uttar Pradesh produces highest quantity of wheat in India. Punjab occupies second position as a producer of wheat in India. Haryana is also an important producer of wheat.
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 2
The states of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Maharashtra also grow some wheat.

Question 5.
Write about the cultivation of pulses in India.
Answer:
The production of pulses has not shown any marked increase in India. India is still the largest producer of the pulses. Main pulses include Grams, Arhar, Masur, Mung and Peas. It is grown in dry areas all over the country in both the Kharif and Rabi season.

The area under pulses has not increased because a large area was cultivated for wheat and rice after green revolution. In 1960-61 pulses were cultivated in an area of 2.6 crore hectares. But in 2000-01 it reduced to 2.23 crore hectares showing a decrease of 30 lakh hectares during the last 34 years.

The production of pulses was 1.3 crore tonnes in 1960-61 and increased to 2.5 crore tonnes in 2010-11. With better seeds, the production of pulses can be increased.

Question 6.
Highlight the causes that led to decrease in area under oilseeds after Green Revolution. What steps have been taken by the government to increase the cultivation of oilseeds?
Answer:
Oilseeds are grown in combination with other crops to increase the soil fertility. It acts as pivot in crop rotation. After green revolution the area under oilseeds had decreased. In 1975-76 the area under oilseeds was 3.2 lakh hectares. In 1991 it decreased to 1.0 lakh hectares.
Steps taken. The Government is providing better seeds to increase oilseeds production. Good prices have been offered for oilseeds so that farmers should take interest in its cultivation.

Question 7.
Write a comprehensive essay on the cotton production in our country.
Answer:
Cotton is an important fibre crop. The cotton yarn is used for manufacturing cloth. Cotton plantation in India has been done since ancient times (during Indus civilisation). The Babylonians called it ‘Sandhu’ and Greeks called it ‘Sindo’.

Geographical conditions. Given below are the physical requirements of cotton cultivation:

High temperature is needed for cultivation of cotton crop. Average temperature should be between 30°C and 35°C.
A moderate amount of rainfall is required for cultivation of cotton. Cotton can be easily grown in area with 50 to 100 cms of rainfall. Irrigation is used in dry areas.
During the growing period of the cotton plants the relative humidity should be high. At the time of picking the weather should be dry.
Cotton can be grown in many types of soils but loamy soil is ideal for its growth. In India it is mostly grown in the black cotton soil region of Gujarat and Maharashtra. A special feature of black soil is that it can retain moisture for a long period and the need for irrigation is minimised. In Punjab and Haryana cotton is grown in alluvial soil.
Most of the activities connected with cotton cultivation require manual labour. Therefore large amount of cheap labour is essential.

Sowing and harvesting periods. In most parts of India cotton is a summer crop. It is sown from April to June and harvested in the months of September and October. In Gujarat it is sown in the month of June and harvested in October. In Tamil Nadu cotton is sown in September and harvested in the month of March.

Production. India is the fourth biggest producer of cotton in the world. India produces about 700 lakh bales of cotton, each bale weighing 170 kilograms. In 2011-12 the area under cotton cultivation was 86 lakh hectares.

State-wise distribution. Maharashtra state is the biggest producer of cotton in India and produces about 26.3 lakh bales of cotton. The other important cotton producing states of India are Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka. Punjab, Gujarat (second largest producer), Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Most of the cotton grown in India is of short staple type but the cultivation of long staple American and Egyptian cotton is on the increase.

Question 8.
Explain the main features of Horticulture in India.
Answer:
Horticulture means cultivation of vegetables, flowers and fruit. Its main characteristics are:

India ranks second in the world in the production of fruit and vegetables. The production of fruit was 3.9 crore tonnes and the production of vegetables was 6.5 crore tonnes.
Different types of fruit, vegetables and flowers are grown due to diverse climatic conditions. Tea and coffee on hill slopes and coconut in coastal areas are grown.
India ranks first in the world in the production of bananas, mangoes, coconuts and cashewnuts. India is a large producer of oranges, apples, potatoes, tomatoes, onions and peanuts.
The exports of these products is 25% of the total exports of India.
Floriculture has increased due to demand in foreign countries. 200 units have been selected to export flowers.
Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh states lead in the production of apples, Maharashtra in the production of oranges and bananas, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in the production of mangoes and Kerala in the production of cashewnuts.

The production of fruits and vegetables has rapidly increased in Punjab. In 2000-01, the production was 8 lakh tonnes. Hoshiarpur, Ferozpur, Amritsar and Faridkot are the leading districts. 26.6 thousand hectares of land is under kinoo gardens and orange plantation.

IV. Show the following on the map of India:

Question 1.
(i) Main Wheat producing areas
(ii) Main Jowar-Bajra producing areas
(iii) Main Cotton producing areas
(iv) Main Rice (paddy) producing areas
(v) Main Oilseeds producing areas
(vi) Sugarcane producing areas
(vii) Main Pulses producing areas
(viii) Maize producing areas
Answer:
PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 3

PSEB 10th Class Social Science Guide Land Utilization and Agriculture Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions in one word or one line:

Question 1.
How much percentage of population of India depends upon agriculture?
Answer:
70 percent,

Question 2.
Name an activity which besides cultivation is included in agriculture.
Answer:
Animal husbandry.

Question 3.
How much area is net sown area in India?
Answer:
143 million Hectare.

Question 4.
What is the percentage of fallow land?
Answer:
5%.

Question 5.
In which state is Jhumming practised?
Answer:
Meghalaya.

Question 6.
Name an important Rabi crop.
Answer:
Wheat.

Question 7.
Name an important Kharif crop.
Answer:
Paddy.

Question 8.
Name a plantation crop of India.
Answer:
Tea.

Question 9.
Where does India rank in world production of tea?
Answer:
First.

Question 10.
Name a fibre crop.
Answer:
Cotton.

Question 11.
From which liquid is rubber produced?
Answer:
Latex.

Question 12.
How much per cent area of India is under cultivation? Where does India rank in the world?
Answer:
About 51 per pent land of India is under cultivation. From this point of view, India ranks first in the world.

Question 13.
What do you mean by fallow land?
Answer:
Fallow land is that land which is used for one crop after 2 or 3 years. It is again left vacant so that its fertility can be restored.

Question 14.
The percentage of fallow land is decreasing in India. What does it suggest? Explain two points.
Answer:

More manures and fertilizers are being used in fallow land.
Scientific methods are being used to retain moisture in land.

Question 15.
Despite less area under pastures in India, India has the largest number of cattle in the world. How is it?
Answer:
Livestock are reared on fodder crops and grass.

Question 16.
How do forests check floods?
Answer:
Forests allow the seepage of rain water into land. So these help to retain water and control the destructive floods of rivers.

Question 17.
How can afforestation control droughts?
Answer:
Forests help in rainfall. Therefore droughts do not occur frequently.

Question 18.
What do you mean by wasteland?
Answer:
Wasteland is that land which is not used at present. It includes arid, rocky areas and sandy deserts. High rugged mountains and bad lands are included in it.

Question 19.
In which two ways wastelands are increased by man?
Answer:

By overgrazing
By deforestation.

Question 20.
Explain three methods of forests conservation.
Answer:

Deforestation should be stopped.
Forests should be declared reserved areas.
More trees should be planted than cut during a year.

Question 21.
Why is the demand for land increasing in India? Give two examples.
Answer:

More land is required for human settlements due to growing population.
People want to live in open, spacious houses due to high standard of living.

Question 22.
Why is it necessary to plan the proper use of the land available?
Answer:
Land is a limited resource. It can neither be increased nor decreased. But pressure on land is increasing constantly. So it is necessary to plan the proper use of land.

Question 23.
State three steps which should be taken for the proper land-use.
Answer:

Soil erosion should be checked.
To check the advance of deserts.
Steps be taken to use the wasteland.

Question 24.
The natural fertility of soils in India is decreasing. State two reasons for it.
Answer:
The following are the two main reasons for decreasing soil fertility in India:

The absence of forests and pastures is affecting the natural fertility of soils.
The poverty of farmers and their ignorance of scientific techniques are also responsible for the decrease in natural fertility of soils.

Question 25.
Explain the importance of bunding and contour ploughing in dry farming.
Answer:
Bunding and contour ploughing are useful in dry farming. It retains the moisture in soil. It also checks soil erosion.

Question 26.
What steps should be taken to maintain soil fertility in India?
Answer:
Green manures and Gobar manures should be used to maintain soil fertility. But a suitable amount of fertilizers should also be used at the same unit.

Question 27.
What is the function and importance of National Price Commission?
Answer:
National Price Commission fixes the standard rate of crops, useful for farmers.

Question 28.
Name the two agricultural seasons oflndia.
Answer:
In India, there are two main agricultural seasons, Kharif and Rabi. Rice is the main crop of Kharif season while wheat is the main foodgrain of Rabi season.

Question 29.
Where is most of wheat produced in India? Why?
Answer:
Wheat is mostly produced in northern plains. Punjab, Haryana and U.P. are the leading producers of wheat.

Question 30.
Explain the importance of cultivation of pulses in India.
Answer:
(i) Pulses are the major sources of protein for poor people in India.
(ii) Pulses fix nitrogen in the soil to restore its fertility.

Question 31.
What are oilseeds? Name some important oilseeds.
Answer:
Groundnut, Sesaum, Linseed, Sunflower, Castor seed, Rape seed, Mustard, etc. are important oilseeds.

Question 32.
Name four main fibres of India. How are these obtained?
Answer:
The four main fibres in India are:

Cotton
Jute
Wool
Silk.

Question 33.
What is the importance of forestry?
Answer:

Forests maintain ecological balance and ecosystem.
Forests provide timber, lac, gum, cane, fuel, medicines, etc.

Question 34.
Why is India considered a fortunate country as regards land available for cultivation?
Answer:
More than one half of total land is available for agriculture in India. No other country is so fortunate in this regard.

Question 35.
Why is it necessary to increase the area under forests for economic development?
Answer:
Many industries are based on forests. These increase the employment sources. Moreover, these check soil erosion and control floods. So the area under forests is to be increased.

Question 36.
State a problem related to Ecosystem of Punjab.
Answer:
Forests cover an area of 5.7 per cent in Punjab. This area is very low as regards scientific norm. The low forested area has an adverse effect on Ecosystem of Punjab.

Question 37.
How can you say that Punjab is an agricultural state?
Answer:
Most of the land of Punjab is being used for agricultural purpose. Waste land covers very small area as compared to the whole country. So we can say that Punjab is an agricultural state.

Question 38.
What do you know about social forestry? State its main aim.
Answer:
Social forestry includes a programme under which common wasteland in rural area is used for planting trees. Its aims is to make wasteland a green belt, provide employment in rural areas, and to solve fuel problem in villages.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Net sown area in India is___________%.
Answer:
47

Question 2.
India has ____________ % area under forests.
Answer:
22.6

Question 3.
In Punjab _________% area is under forests.
Answer:
5.7

Question 4.
India is the largest exporter of ___________
Answer:
Tea

Question 5.
India is second largest producer of _________
Answer:
Rice.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
India is the largest producer of
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton.
Answer:
(a) Tea

Question 2.
Which state is the largest producer of wheat?
(a) Punjab
(b) U.P.
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(b) U.P.

Question 3.
Which is known as golden fibre?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Jute
(d) Wool.
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 4.
Crops grown in _______season are called Kharif crops.
(a) Spring
(b) Summer
(c) Winter
(d) Rainy.
Answer:
(d) Rainy.

Question 5.
Black soils are ideal for cultivation of:
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Cotton
(d) Maize.
Answer:
(c) Cotton

True / False:

Question 1.
Rice is a product of moist tropical region.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Less fertile soil is needed for rice cultivation.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Jharkhand produces largest quantity of rice.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Wheat can be grown in areas of moderate rainfall.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Cotton is an important fibre crop.
Answer:
True.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is the most satisfying feature of land use pattern in India? What are its main features?
Answer:
The most satisfying feature of land use in India is that net sown area is increasing. During last 3 decades 2.2 crore hectares has been added to it. Today net sown area is 16.2 crore hectares and it is about 47.7% of total area.

Main Features:

The area under forests is low. It is only 22.7% of total area. But for a self-reliant economy and proper ecological balance, one third of the land should be under forests.
The area under pastures is low.

Question 2.
Distinguish between fallow land and wasteland. What are two advantages of fallow land to farmers?
Answer:
Fallow lands are lands which are not cultivated annually for crops. Only one crop is grown on these-lands during two or three years. After getting one crop, it is left vacant to maintain its fertility. Its use depends on timely monsoonal rain. Wasteland is a land which is not used for cultivation. It includes arid, rocky and sandy land.

Advantages of Fallow Land:

Fallow lands regain their lost fertility.
Agricultural production is increased due to increase in productivity of land.

Question 3.
Distinguish between subsistence farming and commercial farming giving one example from each.
Answer:
Subsistence farming is the type of agriculture in which crops are grown for local consumption to meet the needs of the family. On the opposite, commercial farming meets the demand of market. In commercial farming, one crop is grown and cultivation is done on large farms using scientific techniques. Subsistence farming includes wheat farming while tea plantations are a type of commercial farming.

Question 4.
Name two agricultural seasons. Why is wheat mostly grown in Punjab? Give two reasons.
Answer:
The two agricultural seasons are:

Kharif
Rabi.

Wheat is mostly grown in Punjab due to these reasons:

Punjab has fertile land deposited by alluvial soils. These loamy soils are best suited for wheat.
Cyclonic rainfall, which occurs over a long period, is well suited for wheat.

Question 5.
Why is the rice cultivation increasing in Punjab? Give four reasons.
Answer:
Increase in rice cultivation is due to these reasons:

Intensive farming is practised in Punjab with the use of better seeds and fertilizers.
Irrigation methods are highly developed. In some districts, water logging has increased rice production.
Land is fertile and farmers are hard working.
Punjab Agriculture University has introduced new varieties of rice.

PSEB 10th Class SST Solutions Geography Chapter 5 Land Utilization and Agriculture 5

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major characteristics of land use pattern in India?
Answer:
Land use pattern. Land is a limited resource. Attempts are made to make the maximum use of land. India has total geographical area of 32.8 crore hectares. Out of it 92.2% area is used.

Main characteristics of land use are as under:
(а) Net sown area. About 51% of total land (16.3 crore hectares) is net sown area. This vast area shows the importance of agriculture in India. It includes 1.3% land under fruits and 5% under fallow land.

(b) Fallow land. About 5% land (2.2 crore hectares) is left as fallow land and is cultivated after two or three years. Fallow land has decreased due to use of fertilizers and manures.

(c) Forests. About 22.7% of land (6.7 crore hectares) is under forests. The actual area under forests is 4.6 crore hectares. According to scientific norms, l/3rd of area should be under forests.

(d) Pastures. About 4% land is under pastures. Still India has the largest number of cattle in the world. Cattle are reared on fodder crops.

(e) Other uses. Land under permanent grassland, cultivable waste, and not available for cultivation amounts to about 22% of total land. It includes wasteland also.
Moreover the demand for human settlements is increasing due to growing population.

Question 2.
Describe the geographical conditions of growth, areas and production of tea in India. Also, discuss its International Trade.
Answer:
India is the leading producer of tea in the world. Tea plantations were started by the British for their own benefit. Now Indians are the owners of these plantations. About 10 lakh persons are engaged in Tea farming directly and same number of persons get employment indirectly. It is labour-intensive industry.
(а) Geographical conditions. The following geographical, conditions are suitable for cultivation of tea:

Abundant rainfall (150 cms) is necessary for the growth of tea plants.
Tea requires high temperature. An average temperature of 20°C to 30°C is suitable for its proper growth.
The relative humidity should be high.
The water should not stagnate in the roots of the plant.-Therefore tea is mostly grown on the hilly slopes.
Tea requires fertile soil.
Cheap labour is very essential for tea plantation as the picking of leaves requires human labour.

(b) Tea producing states. Assam is the biggest producer of tea in India. West Bengal is the second largest producer of tea in India. Tea is grown in Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri, Nilgiri hills. Tea is also grown in Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, U.P., Himachal Pradesh, Kerala and Karnataka.

(c) Production. In 1950-51, tea estates covered an area of 3,14,000 hectares. In 2000-01 the area under tea estates raised to 4,00,000 hectares. In 1950-51 total production of tea was .2,75,000 tonnes. In 2011-12, it rose to 8,00,000 tonnes. It amounts to one half of the world production.

(d) Trade. In 2010-11, India exported 2.03 lakh tonnes of tea valued at Rs. 1976 crores. Sri Lanka is a competitor of India as regards exports of tea. Kenya is a new tea-exporter. Tea consumption is increasing in India. So tea export is decreasing.

Question 3.
What are the main causes of backwardness of the Indian agriculture? Suggest remedies for its improvement.
Answer:
Causes of backwardness. The causes of backwardness of the Indian agriculture are as under:

Dependence on rain. The Indian farmer depends on rain for irrigation. Only 23% of the cultivated land has irrigation facilities.
Dearth of Nitrogen in the soil. Indian soil is poor in nitrogen. The land has been cultivated for thousands of years continuously and has, thus, affected the fertility of the soil.
Poor labour. The Indian farmers are weak in health and they cannot provide the required amount of labor for agriculture.
Subdivision of holdings. In India the land is equally distributed amongst all the sons after the death of the father. As a result the size of fields goes on decreasing and this affects the production.
Primitive methods of agriculture. The Indian farmer is still following the
primitive methods of agriculture. Hence agriculture in India has suffered a setback.
Non-utilization of good seeds. Indian farmers are poor and do not use seeds of good quality. This lowers production.
Poverty. Money is needed for agriculture but the farmers are poor.
Weak cattle. Indian farmer cultivates his land with the help of bullocks but most of the bullocks in India are not of good breed. They are very weak and are thus unable to undertake agricultural activities properly.
Illiteracy. The Indian farmer is illiterate. He finds it difficult to adopt new methods of agriculture.

Suggestions for improvement of agriculture:

Co-operative farming. Co-operative farming should be introduced. This will increase the size of the fields and modem methods of agriculture would easily be adopted.
Improvement in irrigation. In order to bring improvement in agriculture, the irrigation facilities should also be improved.
Intensive farming. The farmers should adopt intensive farming. This brings more return from a smaller area.
Good seeds and fertilizers. The government should arrange to supply quality seeds and fertilizers to the farmers at reasonable rates.
Use of new agricultural implements. There can be a lot of improvement in agriculture if modern agricultural implements are used by the farmers. The government should give financial aid to farmers for the purchase of such implements.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Solutions Chapter 1 Environment

January 9, 2024January 8, 2024 by Bhagya

Punjab State Board PSEB 7th Class Social Science Book Solutions Geography Chapter 1 Environment Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 7 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Environment

SST Guide for Class 7 PSEB Environment Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Give answers to the following questions approximately in 1-15 words.

Question 1.
What do you understand by environment?
Answer:
The environment is the surroundings of an organism. It is not the same everywhere. It changes according to the physical factors of some area, i.e. temperature and rainfall which are not the same everywhere.

Question 2.
Which are the main spheres of the environment?
Answer:

Atmosphere,
Lithosphere,
Hydrosphere,
Biosphere.

Question 3.
How man affects the environment?
Answer:
Man affects the environment in the following ways :

Deforestation’for procuring agricultural land.
Making dams on rivers and changing the direction of- water towards deserts.
Mining to get minerals from the earth.

Question 4.
Write down the names of layers of the earth.
Answer:
The earth has three crusts

Sial
Mantel (Sima)
Nife.

II. Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Environment has been divided in __________ spheres.
Answer:
Four

Question 2.
The SIAL layer of the earth is made up of the material which is rich in and __________
Answer:
Silicon and Aluminium

Question 3.
NiFe is made up of the material which is rich in __________ and __________ elements.
Answer:
Nickel and Ferrous

Question 4.
The different types of species of animals is known as __________
Answer:
Biodiversity

Question 5.
__________ portion of earth has been covered by hydrosphere.
Answer:
Three fourth.

III. Activity:

Question 1.
Make a list of factors which has effect over the environment.
Answer:

Relief
Temperature
Rainfall
Degradation Processes
Human factors.

PSEB 7th Class Social Science Guide Environment Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which is not a natural ecosystem?
(a) Desert
(b) Forest
(c) Aquarium
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Aquarium.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer out of the three alternatives given :
(a) Hydrosphere
(b) Biosphere
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Atmosphere.
Answer:
(b) Biosphere.

Question 3.
Hard top layer of the earth is called :
(a) Core
(b) Mantle
(c) Crust
(d) Earth.
Answer:
(c) Crust.

Question 4.
Which is a large ecosystem?
(a) Desert
(b) Buildings
(c) Roads
(d) Railways.
Answer:
(a) Desert.

Question 5.
Which is a human made environment?
(a) Mountain
(b) Sea
(c) River
(d) Road.
Answer:
(d) Road.

Fill in the Blanks :

Question 1.
Environment has been divided in __________ sphere.
Answer:
Four

Question 2.
__________ portion of earth has been covered by hydrosphere.
Answer:
Three fourth

Question 3.
__________ is a human made environment,
Answer:
Road

Question 4.
On __________ june every year world environment day is celebrated.
Answer:
5

Question 5.
__________ environment is the world of nonliving things.
Answer:
Biotic.

True / False :

Question 1.
The combination of Biosphere and physical environment is called ecology.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The different types of species of animals is known as Biodiversity.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Domain of water is called Biosphere.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The world of living things are called biotic environment.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Physical environment includes non-living elements.
Answer:
True.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the three realms of the earth.
Answer:
The environment on the earth consists of three major elements-land, water and air. All these elements are very important and lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere are three realms of the earth.

Question 2.
When is the world environment day celebrated?
Answer:
On 5 June.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Habitat?
Answer:
On the basis, of lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere, a different type of biosphere is created for flora and fauna. Like humans, these also depend upon their environment which is called Habitat.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Ecology?
Answer:
The combination of Bio-sphere and physical environment is called Ecology.

Question 5.
How did the different spheres of the earth come into existence?
Answer:
The earth was a gaseous formation. The gases melt, become cold and solidified. The gaseous elements became atmosphere, watery elements became hydrosphere and solid particles became lithosphere.

Question 6.
What is atmosphere?
Answer:
Around the earth, there is a roundabout of earth which is several hundred kms wide. This is called Atmesphere. This roundabout is about 1600 km in radius but 99% of inhalable air (oxygen) is in the 32 km radius only.

Question 7.
What are the main elements of atmosphere?
Answer:
Temperature, humidity, air pressure, etc.

Question 8.
Describe the distribution of land and wq£er on earth.
Answer:

Land-29%,
Water-71%.

Question 9.
What is lithosphere? Write two features.
Answer:
The outer solid part of earth’s surface is called lithosphere.

Features:

Its thickness is 80-100 km.
Its thickness is more on land and less in water.

Question 10.
What is the utility of lithosphere?
Answer:

It provides us forests.
It provides grasslands for grazing.
It provides land for Agriculture.
It provides land for settlement.
It is a source of mineral wealth.

Question 11.
Name four types of water bodies included in Hydrosphere.
Answer:
Rivers, lakes, seas, oceans.

Question 12.
State two functions of Atmosphere.
Answer:

It provides life-support gases.
It keeps the earth’s temperature moderate.
It protects us from hot-ultraviolet rays of the sun.

Question 13.
Give four examples of ecosystems.
Answer:

A large rain forest
A grassland
A desert
A mountain.

Question 14.
Differentiate between Natural and Human Environment.
Answer:

Natural environment	Human environment
1. Land, water, air, plants and animals comprise the natural environment.	1. Individual, family, community, education religion,comprise the human environment.
2. It is essential for the existence of plant and human life.	2. It provides knowledge and technology to utilise the natural environment.

Question 15.
Distinguish between Physical and Biological environment.
Answer:

Physical Environment	Biological Environment
1. Land, water, air and inorganic elements form the physical environment.	1. Plants, animals (including man) and organisms form biological environments.
2. It is essential for the existence of plants and human life.	2. It provides food and other materials for human beings.
3. It includes non-living elements.	3. It includes all living elements.
4. The physical environment influences human activities.	4. The physical and human environment interact with each other.

Question 16.
What is Biosphere? Write its two components.
Answer:
Plants and animals together form biospljere or the living world. It is narrow zone on the earth where land, water and air comes in contact with each other to support life.

Question 17.
By which name we call the sphere, that is product of interaction of three spheres? Write in brief. ‘ ‘
Answer:
The sphere made up by the combination of three spheres is called biosphere. It is made up of atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere. Biosphere is the most important sphere on the earth because here the effect of natural factors is quite visible.

Question 18.
What do you mean by changing environment?
Answer:
On the surface, environment is ever changing because all its elements undergo a change. These elements are interdependent. The changes in natural environment brings about changes in Biological environment.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the uses of Environment.
Answer:

It provides the air we breath.
It provides water and drink.
It provides food we eat.
It provides land where we live.

Question 2.
From the earth’s surface till the deep inside, in how many parts has the earth been divided? Write each in brief.
Answer:

Earth’s surface: It is the upper most part of earth. It is called Sial. It has mainly Silicon (Si) and Aluminium (Al).
Mantle: It is the middle part of earth called Sima. Its main components are Silicon (Si) and Magnesium (Mg).
Central part/Core: It is the deep inside of earth called Nife. It has more of Nickle (Ni) and Iron (Ferrous Fe).

Question 3.
What is the importance of oceans?
Answer:
The hydrosphere is the part of the earth’s surface, covered by water. Rivers, lakes, seas and oceans form this sphere. More than 70 per cent of the earth’s surface is covered with water. Continents are like vast islands floating in the oceans. On the other hand, oceans are the major links between landmasses. Water supports all forms of life on the earth and is very crucial for our survival.

Question 4.
‘Man modifies his environments’. Discuss.
Answer:
Human life is closely related to the environment, Man modifies environment according to his needs. He learnt to cultivate crops, domesticate animals and lead a settled life. He used raw materials to make finished goods.

Question 5.
Why is it necessary to study natural environment?
Answer:
The study of natural environment is necessary because it, provides us conditions for living like land, air, water and food. It affects our economic activities and basic needs of food, shelter and clothing. It is the basic life supporting system on the earth.

Question 6.
‘Most of the environmental problems are man-made.’ Explain.
Answer:
Man is using water, land, soil and other resources at such an alarming rate that there will be serious shortage of these resources in the near future. Careless use may destroy them to such an extent that they may not be available to mankind. Man will have to live in harmony with the environment so that ecological balance is not disturbed.

Question 7.
‘Man has disturbed the environment.’ Discuss.
Answer:
Man has tried to exploit the resources of Biosphere. But he has disturbed the eco-system in this attempt. Human interference with the natural environment has modified or altered the ecosystem in many areas.

Deforestation for cultivation has changed the habitat of the organisms living in the forests.
It has resulted in soil erosion.
Excessive cultivation, over-grazing, and shifting agriculture have increased the rate of soil erosion.
Irrigation projects in dry areas have resulted into salinization of soil and spread of water borne diseases.
Land, air and water have got polluted and have become unsuitable for human consumption.
In recent years, environmental pollution and presence of chemicals in air, water and food has damaged human health.

Question 8.
‘The earth is a unique planet.’ Give reasons.
Answer:
The earth is a unique planet of the Solar System because its environment favours the evolution and survival of life to make it a life bearing layer or biosphere.

It is the only planet supporting plant and human life.
On the earth moderate temperatures (Mean temp. 15°C) are found. It is neither too hot like Mercury, nor too cold like Jupiter due to optimum distance of the earth from the sun.
The presence of oxygen nad nitrogen in the atmosphere around the earth favours the existence of life on the Earth. The atmosphere protects the earth from high temperatures.
The earth is a ‘watery planet’. Water cycle on the earth provides water for growth of all living beings. The earth is the home of man.

Question 9.
Why should we protect our environment?
Answer:

Environment is our basic life support system. It provides the air we breathe, the water we drink, the food we eat and the land where we live.
It provides us natural resources such as wood, fuel, energy and minerals.
Most of the human activities affect the environment in one way or the other.
Many parts of the environment have already been badly damaged by over use or irrational use of resources like forest, pastures and farms.
If we continue to do so, the damage will be irreparable and the consequences will be very serious.

Question 10.
What are the biotic and abiotic components of the natural environment?
Answer:

Biotic component is the world of living organisms for example – plants and animals.
Abiotic components are non-living elements for example land and minerals etc.

Question 11.
How many types of environment are there? Give brief account.
Answer:
The environment is of three types-Physical, Cultural and Biological.

The physical environment is the prevailing natural conditions comprising the land, water and air.
The environment of lifeforms plants, animals including humans and other organisms is called biological environment.
Cultural environment includes man-made features like settlements, roads, industries etc.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe the four spheres of environment.
Answer:
Broadly we can divide the environment into four spheres atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere.
1. Atmosphere: The atmosphere is the thin layer of air that envelops our earth. It is very dynamic in nature, changes can take place every hour. These changes in the atmosphere produce weather and climate. The atmosphere is not uniform all through its width. There are several layers of the atmosphere. The atmosphere provides a setting in which all forms of life are created and sustained. The force of gravity exerted by the earth holds the atmosphere around it. The atmosphere protects us from scorching heat and harmful ultraviolet radiation.

2. Lithosphere: The lithosphere is the layer of the earth consisting of rock materials, extending both over the continents and ocean basins. The overage thickness of the lithosphere is about 100 km.

The lithosphere is composed of oceans and continents. It has two parts—Sial and Sima.
The lithosphere is the sphere which provides us land to settle, soils for plants and is a source of mineral wealth.

Four Spheres of The Earth

3. Hydrosphere: The hydrosphere is the part of the earth’s surface, covered by water. Rivers, lakes, seas, and oceans form this sphere. More than 70 percent of the earth’s surface is covered with water. Continents are like vast islands floating in the oceans. On the other hand, oceans are the major link between landmasses. Water supports all forms of life on the earth and is very crucial for our survival. Oceans provide us with food and minerals. Even in the sea-bed, deposits of minerals, oil, and gas are found.

4. Biosphere: The biosphere is a very narrow sphere of the earth that contains life. This sphere includes parts of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Most of the living organisms are it plants or animals on the earth are found on or near the surface of land or water surrounded by air. Thus the biosphere is a very narrow zone where life on this planet exists.