PSEB 11th Class Political Science Book Solutions Guide in Punjabi English Medium

Punjab State Board Syllabus PSEB 11th Class Political Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf in English Medium and Punjabi Medium are part of PSEB Solutions for Class 11.

PSEB 11th Class Political Science Guide | Political Science Guide for Class 11 PSEB

Political Science Guide for Class 11 PSEB | PSEB 11th Class Political Science Book Solutions

PSEB 11th Class Political Science Book Solutions in English Medium

Part A Foundations of Political Science

Part B Indian Constitution and Government

PSEB 11th Class Political Science Book Solutions in Hindi Medium

PSEB 11th Class Political Science Syllabus

Part – A Foundations of Political Science

Unit I: Meaning, Scope, and Significance of Political Science
(a) Meaning of Political Science.
(b) Scope and Significance of Political Science.
(c) Relationship of Political Science with History, Economics, Sociology.
(d) Citizen and his Rights and Duties.
(e) Citizen and Citizenship.

Unit II: (a) Meaning of Rights and Duties.
(b) Relation between Rights and Duties.
Basic Concepts
(a) Law – Meaning and its Kinds.
(b) Liberty – Meaning. Kinds and Safeguards.
(c) Equality – Meaning, Kinds, Liberty, and Equality.
(d) Justice.

Unit III: State, Forms of Governments
(a) State and its attributes.
(b) State and Government differences.
(c) Forms of Governments.
a. Democratic and Authoritarian (Dictatorial)
b. Parliamentary and Presidential.
c. Unitary and Federal.

Unit IV: Organs of Government
(a) Executive – Types of Executive, Functions.
(b) Legislature, Types of Legislature – Unicameral and Bicameral, Functions.
(c) Judiciary, Importance, and Functions, Independence of the Judiciary.

Part – B Indian Constitution and Government

Unit V: (a) Preamble
(b) Salient features of the Indian Constitution.
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
(a) Fundamental Rights: Nature and Kinds.
(b) Fundamental Duties.
(c) Directive Principles of the State Policy – Importance and Sanctions behind them.
(d) Distinction and relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

Unit VI: Indian Federal System
(a) Nature of Indian Federation.
(b) Union-State Relations: Legislative, Administrative, and Financial.
Union Government.
(c) The Union Executive – President, Prime Minister, and Council of Ministers.

Unit VII: The Union Legislature
(Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha)
Law Making procedure (ordinary bill and money bill)
The State Government.
(a) State Executive – Governor, Chief Minister, and Council of Ministers.
(b) State Legislature.

Unit VIII: District Administration.
Indian Judicial System.
(a) The Supreme Court.
(b) State High Court.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide Structure of Atom InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(i) Calculate the number of electrons which will together weigh one gram.
(ii) Calculate the mass and charge of one mole of electrons.
Answer:
(i) Mass of one electron = 9.1 × 10-31 g
Number of electrons in 1.0 g = \(\frac{1}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) = 1.098 x 1030 electrons

(ii) One mole of electron = 6.022 × 1023 electrons
Mass of 1 electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Mass of 6.022 × 1023 electrons – (9.1 x 10-31 kg) × (6.022 x 1023)
= 5.48 × 10-7 kg
Charge on one electron = 1.602 × 10-19 coulomb
Charge on one mole of electrons = 1.602 × 10-19 × 6.022 × 1023
= 9.65 × 104 coulomb.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 2.
(i) Calculate the total number of electrons present in one mole of methane.
(ii) Find (a) the total number and (b) the total mass of neutrons in 7 mg of 14C.
(Assume that mass of a neutron = 1.675 × 10-27 kg)
(iii) Find (a) the total number and (b) the total mass of protons in 34 mg of NH3 at STP.
Will the answer change if the temperature and pressure are changed?
Answer:
(i) Number of electrons present in 1 molecule of methane (CH4)
= {1(6) + 4(1)} = 10 electrons
Number of electrons present in 1 mole i.e., 6.022 × 1023 molecules of
methane = 6.022 × 1023 × 10 = 6.022 × 1024 electrons
(ii) (a) Mass of a neutron = 1.675 × 10-27 kg
14.0 g of 14C contains 1 mole of atoms of C-14
∴ 14.0 g of 14C contains 8 × 6.022 × 1023 neutrons
[∵ each atom of C-14 contains 8 neutrons]
7 mg (= 7 × 10-3 g) of 14C contains
= \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23} \times 8 \times 7 \times 10^{-3}}{14}\) = 2.4092 × 1021 neutrons

(b) Mass of one neutron = 1.675 × 1027 kg
Mass of 2.4092 × 1021 neutrons
= (2.4092 × 1021)(1.675 × 10-27 kg) = 4.035 × 10-6 kg

(iii) 1 mole of NH3 contains protons = 7 + 3 = 10 moles of protons
= 6.022 × 1023 × 10 protons = 6.022 × 1024 protons

(a) 17 gNH3 contains 6.022 × 1024 protons.
Number of protons in 34 mg NH3 will contain
= \(6.022 \times 10^{24} \times 34 \times 10^{-3}\) = 1.2046 x 1022 Protons

(b) Mass of one proton = 1.675 x 10-27 kg
Total mass of protons in 34 mg of NH3
– (1.675 × 10-27 kg) (1.2046 × 1022)
= 2.0177 × 10-5 kg
The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in an atom is independent of temperature and pressure conditions. Hence, the obtained values will remain unchanged if the temperature and pressure is changed.

Question 3.
How many neutrons and protons are there in the following nuclei?
\({ }_{6}^{13} \mathrm{C},{ }_{8}^{16} \mathrm{O},{ }_{12}^{24} \mathrm{Mg},{ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe},{ }_{38}^{88} \mathrm{Sr}\)
Answer:
\({ }_{6}^{13} \mathrm{C}\)C : Atomic mass =13
Atomic number = Number of protons = 6
Number of neutrons = (Atomic mass) – (Atomic number)
= 13 – 6 = 7
\({ }_{8}^{16} \mathrm{O}\) :
Atomic mass =16
Atomic number = 8
Number of protons = 8
Number of neutrons = (Atomic mass) – (Atomic number)
= 16 – 8 = 8
\({ }_{12}^{24} \mathrm{Mg}\) : Atomic mass = 24
Atomic number = Number of protons = 12
Number of neutrons = (Atomic mass) – (Atomic number)
= 24-12 = 12
\({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe}\) : Atomic mass = 56
Atomic number = Number of protons = 26
Number of neutrons = (Atomic mass) – (Atomic number)
= 56 – 26 = 30
\({ }_{38}^{88} \mathrm{Sr}\) : Atomic mass = 88
Atomic number = Number of protons = 38
Number of neutrons = (Atomic mass) – (Atomic number)
= 88 – 38 = 50

Question 4.
Write the complete symbol for the atom with the given atomic number (Z) and atomic mass (A)
(i) Z = 17, A = 35
(ii) Z = 92, A = 233
(iii) Z = 4, A = 9
Answer:
(i) Z = 17, A = 35
Since the no. of protons = 17 – no. of electrons
∴ The atom is chlorine, Cl: \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\)

(ii) Z = 92, A = 233
No. of protons = 92
∴ The atom is uranium, U : \({ }_{92}^{233} U\)

(iii) Z = 4, A = 9
No. of protons = 4
∴ The atom is Beryllium, Be : \({ }_{4}^{9} \mathrm{Be}\)

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 5.
Yellow light emitted from a sodium lamp has a wavelength (A.) of 580 nm. Calculate the frequency (υ) and wave number (\(\overline{\mathbf{v}}\)) of the ‘ yellow light.
Answer:
We know that,
Frequency, v = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}\)
1 nm = 10-9 m
580 nm = 580 × 10-9 m = 580 x 10-7 cm
v = \(\) = 5.17 × 1014s-1
(velocity of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
Wave number, \(\bar{v}=\frac{1}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{1}{580 \times 10^{-7}}\) = 1.72 × 104 cm-1

Question 6.
Find energy of each of the photons which
(i) correspond to light of frequency 3 × 1015 Hz.
(ii) have wavelength of 0.50 Å
Answer:
(i) Energy E = hv
where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10-34 Js
and v = frequency of light = 3 × 1015 Hz
E= (6.626 × 10-34)(3 × 1015)
E = 1.988 × 10-18 J

(ii) Energy E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10-34 Js
c = velocity of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
= wavelength = 0.50Å = 0.50 × 10-10
E = \(\frac{\left(6.626 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8}\right)}{0.50 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 3.976 × 10-15 J

Question 7.
Calculate the wavelength, frequency and wave number of a light wave whose period is 2.0 × 10-10 s.
Answer:
Frequency of light (v) = \(\frac{1}{\text { Time period }}=\frac{1}{2.0 \times 10^{-10} \mathrm{~s}}\) = 5.0 × 109s-1
Wavelength of light (λ) = \(\frac{c}{v}\)
where, c = velocity of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
λ = \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{5.0 \times 10^{9}}\) = 6.0 × 10-2 m
Wave number(\(\bar{v}\)) of light
= \(\frac{1}{\lambda}=\frac{1}{6.0 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 1.66 × 101m-1 = 16.66m-1

Question 8.
What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000 pm that provide 1 J of energy?
Answer:
Energy (E) of a photon = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
where, = wavelength of light = 4000 pm = 4000 × 10-12 m
(∵ 1 pm = 10-12 m)
c = velocity of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10-34 Js
E = \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4000 \times 10^{-12}}\) = 4.9695 × 10-17J
Number of protons, N = \(\frac{1}{4.9695 \times 10^{-17}}\) = 2.0122 × 1016 protons.

Question 9.
A photon of wavelength 4 × 10-7 m strikes on metal surface, the work function of the metal being 2.13 eV. Calculate (i) the energy of the photon (eV), (ii) the kinetic energy of the emission, and (iii) the velocity of the photoelectron (1 eV = 1.6020 × 10-19 J).
Answer:
(i) Energy (E) of a photon = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
where,
h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10-34 Js
c = velocity of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
λ = wavelength of photon =4 × 10-7 m
E = \(\frac{\left(6.626 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8}\right)}{4 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 4.9695 × 10-19j = \(\frac{4.9695 \times 10^{-19}}{1.602 \times 10^{-19}}\) [∵ 1 eV = 1.602 x 10-19J]
= 3.10 eV
Hence, the energy of the photon is 3.10 eV.

(ii) The kinetic energy of emission Ek is given by
= hv – hv0 = (E – W) eV
= 3.10 – 2.13 eV = 0.97 eV
Hence, the kinetic energy of emission is 0.97 eV.

(iii) The velocity of a photoelectron is given by
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 – hv – hv0 = 0.97 eV
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = 0.97 × 1.602 × 10-19 J
(∵ 1 eV = 1.602 x 10-19 J)
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.11 × 10-31 kg × v2 = 0.97 × 1.602 × 10-19 J
(∵ mass of electron = 9.11 × 10-31 kg)
v2 = \(\frac{0.97 \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19} \times 2}{9.11 \times 10^{-31}}\) = 0.341 × 1012
v = 0.584 × 106 = 5.84 × 105 m/s
Hence, the velocity of the photoelectron is 5.84 × 105 ms-1.

Question 10.
Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 run is just sufficient to ionise the sodium atom. Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium in kJ mol-1.
Answer:
Energy (E) = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{\left(6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}{242 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{~m}}\)
= 0.0821 × 10-17 J
This energy is sufficient for ionisation of one Na atom.
E = 6.02 × 1023 × 0.0821 × 10-17 J/mol
E = 4.945 × 105 J/mol = 4.945 × 102 kJ/mol

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 11.
A 25 watt bulb emits monochromatic yellow light of wavelength of 0.57 (am. Calculate the rate of emission of quanta per second.
Answer:
Power of bulb, P = 25 watt = 25 Js-1
Wavelength,
λ = 0.57 µm = 0.57×10-6 m
Energy of one photon,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 1

Question 12.
Electrons are emitted with zero velocity from a metal surface when it is exposed to radiation of wavelength 6800Å. Calculate threshold frequency (v0) and work function (W0) of the metal.
Answer:
Threshold wavelength of radiation
λ0 = 6800Å = 6800 × 10-10 m
Threshold frequency (v0) of the metal
= \(\frac{c}{\lambda_{0}}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}{6800 \times 10^{-10} \mathrm{~m}}\) = 4.41 × 1014s-1
Thus, the threshold frequency (v0) of the metal is 4.41 × 1014s-1.
Hence, work function (W0) of the metal = hv0
= (6.626 × 10-34Js)(4.41 × 1014s-1)= 2.922 × 10-19 J

Question 13.
What is the wavelength of light emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes transition from an energy level with n = 4 to an energy level with n = 2 ?
Answer:
The ni = 4 to nf= 2 transition will give rise to a spectral line of the
Balmer series. The energy involved in the transition is given by the relation,
E = 2.18 × 10-18 \(\left[\frac{1}{n_{i}^{2}}-\frac{1}{n_{f}^{2}}\right]\)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 2

Question 14.
How much energy is required to ionise a H atom if the electron occupies n = 5 orbit? Compare your answer with the ionization enthalpy of H atom (energy required to remove the electron from n – 1 orbit).
Answre:
Energy change, ΔE = Ef – Ei
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 3
Hence, far higher energy (25 times) is required to remove an electron from first orbit.

Question 15.
What is the maximum number of emission lines when the excited electron of a H atom in n = 6 drops to the ground state?
Answer:
The maximum number of emission lines
= \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}=\frac{6(6-1)}{2}\) = 3 × 5 = 15

Question 16.
(i) The energy associated with the first orbit in the hydrogen atom is -2.18 × 10-18 J atom-1. What is the energy associated with the fifth orbit?
(ii) Calculate the radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit for hydrogen atom.
Answer:
(i) Energy associated with the fifth orbit of hydrogen atom is calculated as :
E5 = \(\frac{-\left(2.18 \times 10^{-18}\right)}{(5)^{2}}=\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18}}{25}\)
E5 = -8.72 × 10-20 J
(ii) Radius of Bohr’s nth orbit for hydrogen atom is given by,
rn = (0.0529 nm) n2
For, n= 5
r5 = (0.0529 nm) (5)2
r5 = 1.3225 nm

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 17.
Calculate the wave number for the longest wavelength transition in the Balmer series of atomic hydrogen.
Answer:
For the Balmer series, a transition from n1= 2 to n2 = 3 is allowed.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 4

Question 18.
What is the energy in joules, required to shift the electron of the hydrogen atom from the first Bohr orbit to the fifth Bohr orbit and what is the wavelength of the light emitted when the electron returns to the ground state? The ground state electron energy is -2.18 × 10-11 ergs.
Answer:
ΔE = E5 – E1 = 2.18 × 10-11 (\(\left(\frac{1}{n_{i}^{2}}-\frac{1}{n_{f}^{2}}\right)\))erg
(ni = 1st orbit and nf = 5th orbit)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 5
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 6 - 2

Question 19.
The electron energy in hydrogen atom is given by En = (-218 × 10-18)/n2J. Calculate the energy required to remove an electron completely from n = 2 orbit. What is the longest wavelength of light in cm that can be used to cause this transition?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 6 - 3

Question 20.
Calculate the wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity of 2.05 × 107 ms-1.
Answer:
According to de Broglie’s equation,
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
where, λ = wavelength of moving electron
m = mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
h= Planck’s constant – 6.626 × 10-34 Js
v = velocity of electron = 2.05 × 107 ms-1
λ = \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}{\left(9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}\right)\left(2.05 \times 10^{7} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}\)
λ = 3.548 × 10-11 m
Hence, the wavelength of the electron moving with a velocity of
2.5× 107 ms-1 is 3.548 x 10-11m.

Question 21.
The mass of an electron is 9.1 x 10-31 kg. If its K.E. is 3.0 x 10-25 J, calculate its wavelength.
Answer:
Kinetic energy, K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
∴ Velocity(v) = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{KE}}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\left(3.0 \times 10^{-25}\right)}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}}}=\sqrt{0.6593 \times 10^{6}}\)
_ 6.626 x 10~34 Js
~ (9.1 x 10-31 kg)(811.579 ms-1)
λ = 8.968 x 10-7 m
Hence, the wavelength of the eliectron is 8.968 x 10-7 m or 8968 Å.

Question 22.
Which of the following are isoelectronic species i.e., those having the same number of electrons?
Na+, K+, Mg2+, Ca2+, S2-, Ar
Ans. No. of electrons in Na+ = 10 [11-1]
No. of electrons in K+ = 18 [19-1]
No. of electrons in Mg2+ = 10 [12-2]
No. of electrons in Ca2+ =18 [20 – 2]
No. of electrons in S2- = 18 [16 + 2]
No. of electrons in Ar = 18
∴ Na+ , Mg2+ are isoelectronic (10 e each)
∴ Ca2+, K+, S2-, Ar are isoelectronic (18 e each).

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 23.
(i) Write the electronic configurations of the following ions:
(a) H (b) Na+ (c)02- (d)F
(ii) What are the atomic numbers of elements whose outermost electrons are represented by
(a) 3s1 (b) 2p3 (c) 3p5?
(iii) Which atoms are indicated by the following configurations?
(a) [He] 2s1 (b) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (c) [Ar] 4s23d1.
Answer:
(i) (a) H ion
The electronic configuration of H atom is 1s1.
A negative charge on the species indicates the gain of an electron by it.
∴ Electronic configuration of H = 1s2

(b) Na+ ion
The electronic configuration of Na atom is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1.
A positive charge on the species indicates the loss of an electron by it.
∴ Electronic configuration of Na+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s° or 1s2 2s2 2p6

(c) O2- ion
The electronic configuration of O atom is 1s22s2 2p4
A dinegative charge on the species indicates that two electrons are gained by it.
∴ Electronic configuration of 02- ion is 1s2 2s2 2p6

(d) F ion
The electronic configuration of F atom is 1s22s22p5.
A negative charge on the species indicates the gain of an electron by it.
∴ Electronic configuration of F“ ion is 1s2 2s2 2p6.

(ii) (a) 3s1
Completing the electronic configuration of the element as 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1. .-. Number of electrons present in the atom of the element = 2 +2 + 6 +1=11
∴ Atomic number of the element = 11

(b) 2p3
Completing the electronic configuration of the element as 1s2 2s2 2p3
∴ Number of electrons present in the atom of the element = 2+ 2+ 3 = 7
∴ Atomic number of the element = 7

(c) 3p5
Completing the electronic configuration of the element as 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3 P5
∴ Number of electrons present in the atom of the element
2 + 2 + 6 + 2 + 5 = 17
∴ Atomic number of the element = 17

(iii) (a) [He] 2s1
The electronic configuration of the element is [He]2s1 = 1s22s1.
∴ Atomic number of the element = 3
Hence, the element with the electronic configuration [He] 2s1 is lithium (Li).

(b) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
The electronic configuration of the element is
[Ne] 3s2 3p3 = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
∴ Atomic number of the element = 15
Hence, the element with the electronic configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p3 is phosphorus (P).

(c) [Ar] 4s2 3d1
The electronic configuration of the element is [Ar] 4s2 3d1 = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1.
∴ Atomic number of the element = 21
Hence, the element with the electronic configuration [Ar] 4s2 3d2 is scandium (Sc).

Question 24.
What is the lowest value of n that allows g orbitals to exist?
Answer:
For g-orbitals, l = 4.
As for any value ‘n’ of principal quantum number, the Azimuthal quantum number (l) can have a value from zero to (n —1).
∴ For l = 4, minimum value of n = 5

Question 25.
An electron is in one of the 3d orbitais. Give the possible values of n, l and ml for this electron.
Answer:
For the 3d orbital:
Principal quantum number (n) = 3
Azimuthal quantum number (L) = 2
Magnetic quantum number (ml) = – l to + l including 0 = -2 -1, 0, 1, 2

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 26.
An atom of an element contains 29 electrons and 35 neutrons. Deduce (i) the number of protons and (ii) the electronic configuration of the element.
Answer:
No. of protons in a neutral atom = No. of electrons = 29
Electronic configuration = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1.

Question 27.
Give the number of electrons in the species : H2+, H2 and 02+.
Answer:
H2+ = one ; H2 = two ; 02+ = 15

Question 28.
(i) An atomic orbital has n = 3. What are the possible values of l and ml ?
(ii) List the quantum numbers ml and l of electron in 3rd orbital.
(iii) Which of the following orbitals are possible ?
1p, 2s, 2p and 3f.
Answer:
(i) For n = 3; l = 0, 1 and 2.
For l = 0 ; ml = 0
For l = 1; ml = +1, 0, -1
For l = 2 ; ml = +2, +1,0, +1, + 2
(ii) For an electron in 3rd orbital ; n = 3; l = 2 ; ml can have any of the values -2, -1, 0,
+ 1, +2.
(iii) 1p and 3f orbitals are not possible.

Question 29.
Using s, p and d notations, describe the orbitals with follow ing quantum numbers :
(a) n = 1, l = 0
(b) n = 4, l = 3
(c) n = 3, l = 1
(d) n = 4, l = 2
Answer:
(a) 1s orbital
(b) 4f orbital
(c) 3p orbital
(d) 4d orbital

Question 30.
From the following sets of quantum numbers, state which are possible. Explain why the others are not possible.
(i) n = 0, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
(ii) n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms – – 1/2
(iii) n = 1, l = 1, ml = 0, ms= +1/2
(iv) n = 1, l = 0, ml = +1, ms= +1/2
(v) n = 3, l = 3, ml = -3, ms = +1/2
(vi) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms= +1/2
Answer:
(i) The set of quantum numbers is not possible because the minimum value of n can be 1 and not zero.
(ii) The set of quantum numbers is possible.
(iii) The set of quantum numbers is not possible because, for n = 1, l can not be equal to 1. It can have 0 value.
(iv) The set of quantum numbers is not possible because for l = 0. mt cannot be + 1. It must be zero.
(v) The set of quantum numbers is not possible because, for n = 3, l ≠ 3.
(vi) The set of quantum numbers is possible.

Question 31.
How many electrons in an atom may have the following quantum numbers ?
(a) n = 4 ; ms = -1/2
(b) n = 3, l = 0.
Answer:
(a) For n = 4
Total number of electrons = 2n2 = 2 × 16 = 32
Half out of these will have ms = —1/2
∴ Total electrons with ms (-1/2) = 16
(b) For n = 3
l= 0 ; ml = 0, ms +1/2, -1/2 (two e)

Question 32.
Show that the circumference of the Bohr orbit for the hydrogen atom is an integral multiple of the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron revolving around the orbit.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 20
Thus, the circumference (2πr) of the Bohr orbit for hydrogen atom is an integral multiple of the de Broglie wavelength.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 33.
Calculate the number of atoms present in :
(i) 52 moles of He
(ii) 52 u of He
(iii) 52 g of He.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 21

Question 34.
Calculate the energy required for the process :
He+fe) → He2+(g) + e
The ionisation energy’ for the H atom in the ground state is 2.18 × 10-18  J atom-1
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 22

For H atom (Z = 1), En =2.18 × 10-18 × (l)2 J atom-1 (given)
For He+ ion (Z = 2), En =2.18 × 10-18 × (2)2 = 8.72 × 10-18 J atom-1 (one electron species)

Question .35.
If the diameter of carbon atom is 0.15 nm, calculate the number of carbon atoms which can be placed side by side in a straight line across a length of a scale of length 20 cm long.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 23

Question 36.
2 × 108 atoms of carbon are arranged side by side. Calculate the radius of carbon atom if the length of this arrangement is 2.4 cm.
Answer:
The length of the arrangement = 2.4 cm
Total number of carbon atoms present = 2 ×108
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 24
Radius of each carbon atom = 12(1.2 × 10-8) = 6.0 × 10-9cm = 0.06 nm

Question 37.
The diameter of zinc atom is 2.6 Å. Calculate :
(a) the radius of zinc atom in pm
(b) number of atoms present in a length of 1.6 cm if the zinc atoms are arranged side by side length wise.
Answer:
(a) Radius of zinc atom =Undefined control sequence = 1.3 Å = 1.3 × 10-10m = 130 × 10-12m = 130 pm
(b) Length of the scale = 1.6 cm = 1.6 × 1010 pm
Diameter of zinc atom = 260 pm
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 25

Question 38.
A certain particle carries 2.5 x 10-16 C of static electric charge. Calculate the number of electrons present in it.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 26

Question 39.
In Millikan’s experiment, the charge on the oil droplets was found to be – 1.282 x 10-18C. Calculate the number of electrons present in it.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 27

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 40.
In Rutherford experiment, generally the thin foil of heavy atoms like gold, platinum etc. have been used to be bombarded by the a-particles. If a thin foil of light atoms like aluminium etc. is used, what difference would be observed from the above results ?
Answer:
We have studied that in the Rutherford’s experiment by using heavy metals like gold and platinum, a large number of a-particles sufferred deflection while a very few had to retrace their path.

If a thin foil of lighter atoms like aluminium etc. be used in the Rutherford experiment, this means that the obstruction offered to the path of the fast moving a-particles will be comparatively quite less.

As a result, the number of a-particles deflected will be quite less and the particles which are deflected back will be negligible.

Question 41.
Symbols \(_{ 35 }^{ 79 }{ Br }\) and 79Br can be written whereas symbols \(_{ 79 }^{ 35 }{ Br }\) and 35Br are not accepted. Answer in brief.
Answer:
In the symbol \(_{ A }^{ B }{ X }\) of an element :
A denotes the atomic number of the element
B denotes the mass number of the element.
The atomic number of the element can be identified from its symbol because no two elements can have the atomic number. However, the mass numbers have to be mentioned in order to identify the elements. Thus,
Symbols \(_{ 35 }^{ 79 }{ Br }\) and 79Br are accepted because atomic number of Br will remain 35 even if not mentioned. Symbol \(_{ 79 }^{ 35 }{ Br }\) is not accepted because atomic number of Br cannot be 79 (more than the mass number = 35). Similarly, symbol 35Br cannot be accepted because mass number has to be mentioned. This is needed to differentiate the isotopes of an element.

Question 42.
An element with mass number 81 contains 31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons. Assign the symbol to the element.
Answer:
An element can be identified by its atomic number only. Let us find the atomic number.
Let the number of protons = x
Number of neutrons = x + [\(\frac { x\times 31.7 }{ 100 } \) = (x × 0.317x)
Now, Mass no. of element = no. of protons =no. neutrons
81 = x + x + 0-317 x = 2.317 x or x = \(\frac { 81 }{ 2.317 } \) = 35
∴ No. of protons = 35, No. of neutrons = 81 – 35 =46
Atomic number of element (Z) = No. of protons = 35
The element with atomic number (Z) 35 is bromine \(_{ 35 }^{ 81 }{ Br }\).

Question 43.
An ion with mass number 37 possesses one unit of negative charge. If the ion contains 11 -1% more neutrons than the electrons, find the symbol of the ion.
Answer:
Let the no. of electron in the ion = x
∴ the no. of protons = x – 1 (as the ion has one unit negative charge)
and the no. of neutrons = x + \(\frac { x\times 11.1 }{ 100 } \) = 1.111 x
Mass no. or mass of the ion = No. of protons + No. of neutrons
(x – 1 + 1.111 x)
Given mass of the ion = 37
∴ x- 1 + 1.111 x = 37 or 2.111 x = 37 + 1 = 38
x = \(\frac { 38 }{ 2.111 } \) = 18
No. of electrons = 18 ; No. of protons = 18 – 1 = 17
Atomic no. of the ion = 17 ; Atom corresponding to ion = Cl
Symbol of the ion = \(_{ 17 }^{ 37 }{ Cl }\)

Question 44.
An ion with mass number 56 contains 3 units of positive charge and 30.4% more neutrons than electrons. Assign symbol to the ion.
Answer:
Let the no. of electrons in the ion = x
∴ the no. of the protons = x + 3 (as the ion has three units positive charge)
and the no. of neutrons = x + \(\frac { x\times 31.7 }{ 100 } \) = xc + 0.304 x
Now, mass no. of ion = No. of protons + No. of neutrons
= (x + 3) + (x + 0.304x)
∴ 56 = (x + 3) + (x + 0.304x) or 2.304x = 56 – 3 = 53
x = \(\frac { 53 }{ 2.304 } \) = 23
Atomic no. of the ion (or element) = 23 + 3 = 26
The element with atomic number 26 is iron (Fe) and the corresponding ion is Fe3+.

Question 45.
Arrange the following type of radiations in increasing order of frequency:
(a) radiation from microwave oven (b) amber light from traffic signal (c) radiation from FM radio (d) cosmic rays from outer space and (e) X-rays.
Answer:
The increasing order of frequency is as follows :
Radiation from FM radio < Radiation from microwave oven < Amber light from traffic signal < X-rays < Cosmic rays from outer space.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 46.
Nitrogen laser produces a radiation at a wavelength of 337.1 nm. If the number of photons emitted is 5.6 x 1024 , calculate the power of this laser.
Answer:
Power of laser (E) = \(\frac{n h c}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{\left(5.6 \times 10^{24}\right)\left(6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}{\left(337.1 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{~m}\right)}\)
= 0.3302 x 107 J = 3.33 x 106 J
Hence, the power of the laser is 3.33 x 106 J.

Question 47.
Neon gas is generally used in the sign boards. If it emits strongly at 616 nm, calculate (a) the frequency of emission, (b) distance travelled by this radiation in 30 s (c) energy of quantum and (d) number of quanta present if it produces 2 J of energy.
Answer:
(a) Frequency (v) of emission can be calculated as: c = v x λ
where, λ – wavelength = 616 nm = 616 x 10-9 ms-1
c = velocity of light = 3.0 x 108 ms-1
v = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}=\frac{3.0 \times 10^{8}}{616 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 4.87 x 1014s-1

(b) Distance travelled in 1 second = 3.0 x 108 m
Distance travelled in 30 seconds = 30 x 3.0 x 108 m = 9 x 109 m
(c) Energy of the photon (quantum)
E= hv = 6.626 x 10-34 x 4.87 x 1014J
= 32.26 x 10-20 J

(d) Number of quanta = \(\frac{Total energy produced}
{Energy of one quantum}\)
= \(\frac{2}{32.26 \times 10^{-20}}\) = 6.2 x 1018

Question 48.
In astronomical observations, signals observed from the distant stars are generally weak. If the photon detector receives a total of 3.15 x 10-18 J from the radiations of 600 rnn, calculate the number of photons received by the detector.
Answer:
Energy of one photon, E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{\left(6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}{\left(600 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{~m}\right)}\) = 3.313 x 10<sup>-19</sup> J
Number of photons = \(\frac{Total energy received}{Energy of one photon}\)
= \(\frac{3.15 \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{~J}}{3.313 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{~J}}\)

Question 49.
Lifetimes of the molecules in the excited states are often measured by using pulsed radiation source of duration nearly in the nano second range. If the radiation source has the duration of 2 ns and the number of photons emitted during the pulse source is 2.5 x 1015, calculate the energy of the source.
Answer:
Duration of radiation source = 2 ns = 2 x 10-9 s
No. of photons (n) = 2.5 x 1015
Frequency of radiation
v = \(\frac{1}{2.0 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{~s}}\) = 5.0 x 108s-1
Energy (E) of source = n x hv
E= (2.5 x 1015)(6.626 x 10-34Js) (5.0 x 108)
E = 8.282 x 10-10J
Hence, the energy of the source (E) is 8.282 x 10-10 J.

Question 50.
The longest wavelength doublet absorption transition is observed at 589 and 589.6 nm. Calculate the frequency of each transition and energy difference between two excited states.
Answer:
For λ1 = 589 nm = 589 x 10-9
Frequency of transition (v1) = \(\) = 5.093 x 1014s-1
Similarly, for λ2 = 589.6 nm = 589.6 x 10-9m
Frequency of transition (v2) = \(\frac{c}{\lambda_{2}}=\frac{3.0 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}{589.6 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{~m}}\) = 5.088 x 1014s-1
Energy difference (ΔE) between excited states = E1 – E2
ΔE = h(v1 – v2)
= (6.626 × 10-34Js) (5.093 × 1014 – 5.088 × 1014)s-1
= (6.626 × 10-34Js) (0.005 × 10-14) s-1
ΔE = 3.31 × 10-22

Question 51.
The work function for caesium atom is 1.9 eV. Calculate (a) the threshold wavelength and (b) the threshold frequency of the radiation. If the caesium element is irradiated with a wavelength 500 nm, calculate the kinetic energy and the velocity of the ejected photoelectron.
Answer:
It is given that the work function (W0) for caesium atom is 1.9 eV.
(a) Work function,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 6 1
λ0 = 6.53 × 10-7 m
= 653 × 10-9m = 653nm.
Hence the threshold wave length is 653nm

(b) threshold frequency
v0 = \(\frac{W_{0}}{h}\)
v0 = \(\frac{1.9 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{~J}}{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}\) = 4.59 x 1014s-1
Hence the threshold frequency of radiation is 4.59 x 1014s-1
According to the question :
wavelength used in irradiation = 500nm
Kinetic Energy = h(v – v0)
= hc( \(\frac{1}{\lambda}-\frac{1}{\lambda_{0}}\) )

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 52.
Following results are observed when sodium metal is irradiated with different wavelengths. Calculate (a) threshold wavelength and, (b) Planck’s constant.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 8
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 8
Mass of electron, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Here, λ = 500 × 10-9 m
vmax = 2.55 ×105ms-1
λ0 = ?
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 9
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 10

Question 53.
The ejection of the photoelectron from the silver metal in the photoelectric effect experiment can be stopped by applying the voltage of 0.35 V when the radiation 256.7 nm is used. Calculate the work function for silver metal.
Answer:
h = 6.626 × 10-34 Js
V0 = 0.35 volt
e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
λ = 256.7 nm = 256.7 × 10-9 m
W0 = ? (eV)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 11

Question 54.
If the photon of the wavelength 150 pm strikes an atom and one of its inner bound electrons is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 x 107ms-1, calculate the energy with which it is bound to the nucleus.
Answer:
λ = wavelength = 150 pm = 150 × 10-12 m
v = velocity = 1.5 × 107 ms-1
Kinetic energy of the ejected electron
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv7 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 9.1 x 10-31 x (1.5 x 107 )2 J = 0.102 x 10-15 J
Energy of the incident radiation
hv= hv0 +\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2
E = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}=\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \times 3.0 \times 10^{8}}{150 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 1.325 × 10-15 J
Minimum energy required to eject the electron
E0 = E – K.E.
= (1.325 × 10-15 – 0.102 × -15 ) J
= 1.223 × 10-15J
= \(\frac{1.223 \times 10^{-15}}{1.602 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\)
[ 1J = 1.602 × 10-19 eV]
= 7.6 × 103 eV

Question 55.
Emission transitions in the Paschen series end at orbit n = 3 and start from orbit n and can be represented as v = 3.29 x 1015 (Hz) \(\left[\frac{1}{3^{2}}-\frac{1}{n^{2}}\right]\)
Calculate the value of n if the transition is observed at 1285 nm. Find the region of the spectrum.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 12

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 56.
Calculate the wavelength for the emis8ion transition if it starts from the orbit having radius 1.3225 mn and ends at 211.6 pm. Name the series to which this transition belongs and the region of the spectrum.
Answer:
The radius of the nth orbit of hydrogen like particles is given by
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 13
Thus, the transition ocurs from the 5th orbit to the 2nd orbit. It belongs to the Balmer series.
Wave number ( \(\bar{V}\) ) for the transition is given by,
\(\bar{v}=\frac{1}{\lambda}=1.097 \times 10^{7}\left(\frac{1}{2^{2}}-\frac{1}{5^{2}}\right)=1.097 \times 10^{7}\left(\frac{21}{100}\right)\)
= 2.303 × 106 m-1
∴ Wavelength ) associated with the emission transition is given by,
λ = \(\frac{1}{\bar{v}}=\frac{1}{2.303 \times 10^{6} \mathrm{~m}^{-1}}\)
= 0.434 × 10-6 = 434 nm
∴ This transition belongs to Balmer series and comes in the visible region of the spectrum.

Question 57.
Dual behaviour of matter proposed by de Broglie led to the discovery of electron microscope often used for the highly magnified images of biological molecules and other type of material. If the velocity of the electron in this microscope is 1.6 x 106 ms-1, calculate de Broglie wavelength associated with this electron.
Answer:
From Broglie’s equation,
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
λ = \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}{\left(9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}\right)\left(1.6 \times 10^{6} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}\) (1J = 1 kgm2s-2)
= 4.55 × 10-10 m = 455 pm
∴ de Broglie’s wavelength associated with the electron is 455 pm.

Question 58.
Similar to electron diffraction, neutron diffraction microscope is also used for the determination of the structure of molecules. If the wavelength used here is 800 pm, calculate the characteristic velocity associated with the neutron.
Answer:
From de Broglie’s equation,
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
v = \(\frac{h}{m \lambda}\)
mass of neutron, m = 1.675 × 10-27 kg
λ = 800pm = 800 × 10-12 m
v = \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}{\left(1.675 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}\right)\left(800 \times 10^{-12} \mathrm{~m}\right)}\) = 4.94 × 102ms-1
= 494 ms-1
∴ Velocity associated with the neutron is 494 ms-1.

Question 59.
If the velocity of the electron in Bohr’s first orbit is 2.19 × 106ms-1, calculate the de Broglie wavelength associated with it.
Answer:
According to de Broglie’s equation,
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, h = 6.626 × 10-34 Js,
velocity = 2.19 × 106 ms-1
= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}{\left(9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}\right)\left(2.19 \times 10^{6} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}\) = 3.32 × 10-10m
= 3.32 × 10-10m × \(\frac{100}{100}\) = 332 × 10-12 m
λ = 332pm
∴ Wavelength associated with the electron is 332 pm.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 60.
The velocity associated with a proton moving in a potential difference of 1000 V is 437 × 105 ms-1. If the hockey ball of mass 0.1 kg is moving with this velocity, calculate the wavelength associated with this velocity.
Answer:
Wavelength associated with the velocity of hockey ball,
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
λ = \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}{(0.1 \mathrm{~kg})\left(4.37 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)}\)
λ = 1.516 × 10-38 m

Question 61.
If the position of the electron is measured within an accuracy of ± 0.002 nm, calculate the uncertainty in the momentum of the electron. Suppose the momentum of the electron is \(\frac{h}{4 \pi_{m}}\) × 0.05 nm, is there any problem in defining this value.
Answer:
From Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 14
Since the magnitude of the actual momentum is smaller than the uncertainty, the value cannot be defined.

Question 62.
The quantum numbers of six electrons are given below. Arrange them in order of increasing energies. If any of these comhination(s) has/have the same energy lists.
1. n = 4, l = 2, ml = -2, ms = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)
2. n = 3, l = 2, ml= 1, ms = + \(\frac{1}{2}\)
3. n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = +\(\frac{1}{2}\)
4. n = 3, l – 2, ml = -2, ms = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
5. n = 3, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = + \(\frac{1}{2}\)
6. n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = + \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
For n = 4 and l = 2, the orbital occupied is 4d.
For n = 3 and l = 2, the orbital occupied is 3d.
For n = 4 and l = 1, the orbital occupied is 4p.
Hence, the six electrons i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are present in the 4d, 3d, 4p, 3d, 3p and 4p orbitals respectively.
Therefore, the increasing order of energies are
5(3p) < 2(3d) = 4(3d) < 6(4p) = 3(4p) < 1(4d).

Question 63.
The bromine atom possesses 35 electrons. It contains 6 electrons in 2p orbital,6 electrons in 3p orbital and 5 electrons in 4p orbital. Which of these electron experiences the lowest effective nuclear charge.
Answer:
Effective nuclear charge decreases as the distance of the orbitals increases from the nucleus. Hence, 4p electrons experience the lowest effective nuclear charge.

Question 64.
Among the following pairs of orbitals which orbital will experience the larger effective nuclear charge? (i) 2s and 3s, (ii) 4d and 4f, (iii) 3d and 3p.
Answer:
Nuclear charge is defined as the net positive charge experienced by an electron in the orbital of a multi-electron atom. The closer the orbital, the greater is the nuclear charge experienced by the electron (s) in it.
(i) The electron(s) present in the 2s orbital will experience greater nuclear charge (being closer to the nucleus) than the electron(s) in the 3s orbital.
(ii) 4d will experience greater nuclear charge than 4/ since 4d is closer to the nucleus.
(iii) 3p will experience greater nuclear charge since it is closer to the nucleus than 3/.

Question 65.
The unpaired electrons in A1 and Si are present in 3p orbital. Which electrons will experience more effective nuclear charge from the nucleus?
Answer:
13Al = 1s22s22p63s23p1
14Si = 1s22s22p63s23p2
Si (+4) has greater nuclear charge than aluminium (+3). Hence, 3p unpaired electrons of Si experience greater effective nuclear charge than Al.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Question 66.
Indicate the number of unpaired electrons in
(a) P, (b) Si, (c) Cr, (d) Fe and (e) Kr.
Answer:
(a) Phosphorus (P) : Atomic number = 15
The electronic configuration of P is : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

The orbital picture of P can be represented as :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 15
From the orbital picture, phosphorus has three unpaired electrons
(b) Silicon (Si) : Atomic number = 14
The electronic configuration of Si is : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
The orbitai picture of Si can be represented as :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 16
From the orbital picture, silicon has two unpaired electrons.
(c) Chromium (Cr) : Atomic number = 24
The electronic configuration of Cr is : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5
The orbital picture of chromium is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 17
From the orbital picture, chromium has six unpaired electrons.
(d) Iron (Fe) : Atomic number = 26

The electronic configuration of Fe is : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6
The orbital picture of Fe is:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 18
From the orbital picture, iron has four unpaired electrons.
(e) Krypton (Kr) : Atomic number = 36
The electronic configuration of Kr is : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6
The orbital picture of krypton is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 2 Structure of Atom 19
Since all orbitals are fully occupied, there are no unpaired electrons in krypton.

Question 67.
(a) How many sub-shells are associated with n = 4? (b) How many electrons will be present in the sub-shells having ms value of \(\) 1/2 for n – 4?
Answer:
(a) n = 4 (Given)
For a given value of ‘rt, V can have values from zero to n -1.
l = 0, 1, 2, 3
Thus, four sub-shells are associated with n = 4, which are s, p, d and f
(b) Number of orbitals in the nth shell = n2
For n = 4
Number of orbitals = 16
If each orbital is taken fully, then it will have 1 electron with ms value of \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
Number of electrons with ms value of (\(-\frac{1}{2}\)) is 16.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion formal charge on the oxygen atom of P—O bond is
Answer:
In \(\mathrm{PO}_{4}^{3-}\) ion, formal charge on each O-atom of P—O bond
= \(\frac{\text { total charge }}{\text { Number of O-atoms }}=-\frac{3}{4}\) = -0.75

Question 2.
Which of the following molecules show super octet?
CO2, CIF3, SO2, IF5
Answer:
ClF3 and IF5 are super octet molecules.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 3.
Which of the following has highest lattice energy and why?
CsF, CsCl, CsBr, Csl
Answer:
CsF has highest lattice energy because ‘F’ is smallest in size and is more electronegative, therefore, it has maximum ionic character and maximum force of attraction, hence, highest lattice energy.

Question 4.
Account for the following:
The experimentally determined N—F bond length in NF3 is greater than the sum of the single covalent radii of N and F.
Answer:
This is because both N and F are small and hence, have high electron density. So, they repel the bond pairs thereby making the N—F bond length larger.

Question 5.
What is valence bond approach for the formation of covalent * bond?
Answer:
A covalent bond is formed by the overlapping of half-filled atomic orbitals.

Question 6.
Why axial bonds of PCI5 are longer than equatorial bonds?
Answer:
This is due to greater repulsion on the axial bond pairs by the equatorial bond pairs of electrons.

Question 7.
Which type of atomic orbitals can overlap to form molecular orbitals?
Answer:
Atomic orbitals with comparable energies and proper orientation can overlap to form molecular orbitals.

Question 8.
Why KHF2 exists but KHCl2 does not?
Answer:
Due to H-bonding in HF, we have
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

This can dissociate to give \(\mathrm{HF}_{2}^{-}\) ion and hence, KHF2 exists but there is no H-bonding in H-Cl. So, \(\mathrm{HCl}_{2}^{-}\) ion does not exist and hence, KHCl2 also does not exist.

Question 9.
How many nodal planes are present in n(2px) and n(2px) molecular orbitals?
Answer:
One and two respectively.

Question 10.
What is the magnetic character of the anion of K02?
Answer:
Anion of KO2 is \(\mathrm{O}_{2}^{-}\) (superoxide ion) which has one unpaired electron and hence is paramagnetic.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the change in hybridisation (if any) of the Al-atom in
the following reaction:
AlCl3 + Cl → \(\mathrm{AlCl}_{\mathbf{4}}^{-}\)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of Al in ground state,
13Al = 1s2, 2s2,2p6,3s2,3p1x
In excited state = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, 3p1x, 3p1y
In the formation of AlCl3, Al undergoes sp2 hybridisation and it is trigonal
planar in shape. While in the formation of AlCl4, Al undergoes sp3
hybridisation.
It means empty 3Pz orbital also involved in hybridisation.
Thus, the shape of AlCl4 ion is tetrahedral.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in order of decreasing bond angle, with appropriate reason
\(\mathrm{NO}_{2}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\)
Answer:
\(\mathrm{NO}_{2}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}, \mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\). This is because \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}\) has no lone pair of electrons
(i.e., has only bond pairs on two sides) and hence it is linear.

NO2 has one unshared electron while \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\) has one unshared electron pair. There are greater repulsion on N—O bonds in case of \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{-}\) than in case of NO2

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 2

Question 3.
Among the molecules, \(\mathbf{O}_{2}^{-}, \mathbf{N}_{2}^{+}, \mathrm{CN}^{-}\) and \(\mathbf{O}_{2}^{+}\) identify the species which is isoelectronic with CO.
Answer:
Isoelectronics species are those species which have the same number of electrons. CO in total has 14 electrons (6 from carbon and 8 from oxygen). Out of the given ions CN is the ion which has 14 electrons (6 from carbon 7 from Nitrogen and 1 from the negative charge). Thus CN ion is isoelectronic with CO.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 4.
Which is more polar : COa or N20? Give reason.
Answer:
N2Ois more polar than CO2. This is because CO2 is linear and symmetrical.
Its net dipole moment is zero im
on the other hand, is linear but unsymmetrical. It is considered as a resonance hybrid of the following two structures

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 3

It.has a net dipole moment of 0.116 D.

Question 5.
Aluminium forms the ion Al3+, but not Al4+ why?
Answer:
Aluminium [Ne]3s2 3p1 can achieve the electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas (Ne) by losing only three electrons. : Al3+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6.
Aluminium will not form Al4+ ion because an extremely high amount of energy would be required to remove an electron from the stable noble gas configuration.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
On the basis of VSEPR theory, predict the shapes of the following
(i) \(\mathbf{N H}_{2}^{-}\) (ii) O3
Answer:
(i) Shape of \(\mathbf{N H}_{2}^{-}\)
Number of valence electrons on central N atom = 5 + 1 (due to one unit negative charge) = 6
Number of atoms linked to it = 2
∴ Total number of electron pairs around N
= \(\frac{6+2}{2}\) = 4 and number of bond pairs = 2
∴ Number of lone pairs = 4 —2 = 2. Thus, the ion is of the type AB2E2
Hence, it has bent shape (V-shape).

(ii) Shape of O3
While predicting geometry of molecules containing the double (or multiple) bond is considered as one electron pair, e.g., in case of ozone, its two resonating structures are

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 4

Thus, the central O-atom is considered to have two bond pairs and one lone pair, i.e., it is of the type AB2E. Hence, it is a bent molecule. Thus, the two resonating structures will be

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 5

Question 2.
In each of the following pairs of compounds, which one is more covalent and why?
(i) AgCl, Agl
(ii) BeCl2,MgCl2
(iii) SnCl2, SnCl4
(iv) CuO, CuS
Answer:
Applying Fajans’ rules, the result can be obtained in each case as follows :
(i) Agl is more covalent than AgCl. This is because I ion is larger in size than Cl ion and hence, is more polarised than Cl ion.
(ii) BeCl2 is more covalent thanMgCl2. This is because Be2+ ion is smaller in size than Mg2 ion and hence has the greater polarising power.
(iii) SnCl4 is more covalent than SnCl2. This is because Sn4+ ion has greater charge and smaller size than Sn2+ ion and hence has greater polarising power.
(iv) CuS is more covalent than CuO. This is because S2- ion has larger size
than O2- ion and hence is more polarised than O2- ion.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 States of Matter

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide States of Matter InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 500 dm3 of air at 1 bar to 200 dm3 at 30° C?
Answer:
Given,
Initial pressure, P1 =1 bar
Initial volume, V1 = 500 dm3
Final volume, V2 = 200 dm3
Final pressure, P2 = ?
Sipce the temperature remains constant at30°C.
According to Boyle’s law,
P1V1 = P2V2
⇒ P2 = \(\frac{p_{1} V_{1}}{V_{2}}=\frac{1 \times 500}{200}\) bar = 2.5 bar
Therefore, the minimum pressure required is 2.5 bar.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 2.
A vessel of 120 mL capacity contains a certain amount of gas at 35°C and 1.2 bar pressure. The gas is transferred to another vessel of volume 180 mL at 35°C. What would be its pressure?
Answer:
Given,
Initial pressure, P1 =1.2 bar
Initial volume, V1 = 120 mL
Final volume, V2 = 180 mL
Final pressure, P2 = ?
Since the temperature remains constant at 35°C.
According to Boyle’s law,
⇒ P2 = \(\frac{p_{1} V_{1}}{V_{2}}=\frac{1.2 \times 120}{180}\) bar = 0.8 bar
Therefore, the pressure would be 0.8 bar.

Question 3.
Using the equation of state pV = nRT; show that at a given temperature density of a gas is proportional to gas pressure p.
Answer:
The equation of state is given by
pV = nRT
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter 1
or d = \(\frac{p M}{R T}\)
If T constant, then d ∝ p.

Question 4.
At 0°C, the density of a certain oxide of a gas at 2 bar is same as that of dinitrogen at 5 bar. What is the molecular mass of the oxide?
Answer:
Density (d) of the substance at temperature (T)
d = \(\frac{p M}{R T}\)
When T and d are same and R is constant then
p1M1 = p2M2
Given, P1 = 2 bar
p2 = 5 bar
Molecular mass of nitrogen, M2 = 28g/mol
Now, M1 = \(\frac{M_{2} p_{2}^{2}}{p_{1}}=\frac{28 \times 5}{2}\) = 70 g/mol
Hence, the molecular mass of the oxide is 70 g/ mol.

Question 5.
Pressure of 1 g of an ideal gas A at 27°C is found to be 2 bar. When 2 g of another ideal gas B is introduced in the same flask at same temperature the pressure becomes 3 bar. Find a relationship between their molecular masses.
Answer:
For ideal gas A, the ideal gas equation is given by
pAV – nART …(i)
Where, pA and nA represent the pressure and number of moles of gas A. For ideal gas B, the ideal gas equation is given by
pBV = nBRT …(ii)
Where, pB and nB represent the pressure and number of moles of gas B.
Number of moles of A gas, nA = \(\frac{1}{M_{A}}\) [MA = molar mass of gas A]
Number of moles of B gas, nB = \(\frac{2}{M_{B}}\) [MB = molar mass of gas B]
Pressure of gas A, pA = 2 bar
Total pressure Ptotal = pA + pB = 3 bar
Pressure of gas B, pB = ptotal – pA = 3 – 2 = 1 bar
V, R and T are same for both the gases.
Hence from eqs. (i) and (ii)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter 2

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 6.
The drain cleaner, Drainex contains small hits of aluminum which react with caustic soda to produce dihydrogen. What volume of dihydrogen at 20°C and one bar will be released when 0.15g of aluminum reacts?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter 3

Question 7.
What will be the pressure exerted by a mixture of 3.2 g of methane and 4.4g of carbon dioxide contained in a 9 dm3 flask at 27°C?
Answer:
Mass of CH4 = \(\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{CH}_{4}}{\text { Molar mass of } \mathrm{CH}_{4}}\)
[Molar mass of CH4 = 12 + 4 x 1 = 16]
= \(\frac{3.2}{16}\) = 0.2 mol
Mass of CO2 = \(\frac{4.4}{44}\) = 0.1 mol
[Molar mass of CO2 = 12 + 2 x 16 = 44]
Total moles = 0.2 + 0.1 = 0.3 mol
Pressure P = \(\frac{n R T}{V}=\frac{0.3 \times 8.314 \times 300}{9 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 8.314 x 104 Pa

Question 8.
What will be the pressure of the gaseous mixture when o.5L of H2 at 0.8 bar and 2.0 L of dioxygen at 0.7 bar are introduced in a 1L vessel at 27°C?
Answer:
To calculate the partial pressure of H2, Le., pH2
V1 = 0.5L, V2 = 1L, p1 = 0.8 bar, p2 = ?
Temperature remaining constant, applying Boyl&s Law
p1V1=p2V2
0.8 x 0.5= p2 x 1
or P2 = 0.4 bar
To calculate the partial pressure of O2 i.e., PO2
V1 = 2.0L, V2 = 1L, p1 = 0.7 bar, P2 = ?
Applying Boyle’s Law
p1V1 = p2V2
0.7 x 2.0 = 1 x p2
or p2 = 1.4 bar.
If p is final pressure of the gas mixture, then according to Dalton’s Law of partial pressures
p = pH2 + pO2 = (0.4 +1.4)
= 1.8 bar

Question 9.
Density of a gas is found to be 5.46 g/dm3 at 27°C at 2 bar pressure. What will be its density at STP?
Answer:
Given,
d1 = 5.46 g/dm3
p1 = 2 bar
T1 = 27°C = (27 + 273)K = 300 K
P2 = 1 bar
T2 = °C = 273 K
d2 = ?
Density a = \(\frac{M p}{R T}\)
For same gas at different temperatures and pressures
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter 4

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 10.
34.05 ml. of phosphorus vapour weighs 0.0625g at 546°C and 0.1 bar pressure. What is the molar mass of phosphorus?
Answer:
Given,
p= 0.1 bar
V= 34.05 mL = 34.05 x 10-3L
R = 0.083 bar dm3K-1 mol-1
T = 546°C = (546 + 273) K = 819 K
Mass, M = 0.0625 g
Now, pV = nRT
n = \(\frac{p V}{R T}=\frac{0.1 \times 34.05 \times 10^{-3}}{0.083 \times 819}\)= 5.0 x 10-5 mol-1
∴ Molar mass of phosphorus = \(\frac{0.0625}{5.0 \times 10^{-5}}\) = 1250 g mol-1
Hence, the molar mass of phosphorus is = 1250 g mol-1

Question 11.
A student forgot to add the reaction nixture to the round bottomed flask at 27°C but instead he/she placed the flask on the flame. After a lapse of time, he realized his mistake, and using a pyrometer he found the temperature of the flask was 477°C. What fraction of air would have been expelled out?
Answer:
Let the volume of the round bottomed flask = V cm3 at 27°C = 300 K
V1 = V, T1 = (27 + 273)K = 300K, V2 =?,
T2 = 477° C = (477 + 273)K
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac{V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{V_{2}}{T_{2}}\)
V2 = \(\frac{V_{1} T_{2}}{T_{1}}=\frac{750 \mathrm{~V}}{300}\) = 2.5V
Therefore, volume of air expelled out = 2.5 V – V = 1.5 V
Hence, fraction of air expelled out = \(\frac{1.5 \mathrm{~V}}{2.5 \mathrm{~V}}\) = 0.6

Question 12.
Calculate the temperature of 4.0 mol of a gas occupying 5 dm3 at 3.32 bar. (R = 0.083 bar dm3K-1 mol-1).
Answer:
Given,
n = 4.0 mol, V = 5 dm3, p = 3.32 bar, R = 0.083 bar dm3K-1mol-1
Applying ideal gas equation ‘
pV = nRT
T = \(\frac{p V}{n R}=\frac{3.32 \times 5}{4 \times 0.083}\) = 50K
Hence, the required temperature is 50 K.

Question 13.
Calculate the total number of electrons present in 1.4g of dinitrogen gas.
Answer:
Molar mass of dinitrogen (N2) = 28 g mol-1 Mass
Moles = \(\frac{Mass}{Molar mass}\)
nN2 = \(\frac{1.4}{28}\) = 0.05 mol
1 mol = 6.022 x 1023 molecules
0.05 mol = 0.05 x 6.022 x 1023 molecules
= 0.3011 x 1023 molecules
Now, 1 molecule of N2 contains = 14 electrons.
Therefore, 0.3011 x 1023 molecules will contain = 14 x 0.3011 x 1023
= 4.214 x 1023 electrons

Question 14.
How much time would it take to distribute one Avogadro number of wheat grains, if 1010 grains are distributed each second?
Answer:
Avogadro number, NA = 6.022 x 1023
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter 5
Hence, the time taken would be 1.909 x 106 years.

Question 15.
Calculate the total pressure in a mixture of 8 g of dioxygen and 4 g of dihydrogen confined in a vessel of 1 dm3 at 27°C.
R 0.083 bar dm3 K-1 mol-1
Answer:
Moles of O2 = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Molar weight }}=\frac{8}{32}\) = 0.25 mol
Moles of H2 = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2 mol
Therefore, total number of moles in the mixture = 0.25 + 2- 2.25 mol
Given, V = 1 dm3
n = 2.25 mol
R = 0.083 bar dm3K-1mol-1
T = 27°C = 300K
pV= nRT
⇒ Pressure, p = \(\frac{n R T}{V}=\frac{2.25 \times 0.083 \times 300}{1}\) = 56.025 bar.
Hence, the total pressure of the mixture is 56.025 bar.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 16.
Pay load is defined as the difference between the mass of displaced air and the mass of the balloon. Calculate the pay load when a balloon of radius 10m, mass 100kg is filled with helium at 1.66 bar at 27°C.(Density of air = 1.2 kg m-3 and R = 0.083 bar dm3K-1 mol-1)
Answer:
Given,
Radius of the balloon, r = 10m
∴ Volume of the balloon = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}=\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\) x 103 = 4190.5 m3(approx)
∴ Mass of displaced air = Vdisplaced air x density of air
= 4190.5 x 1.2 kg = 5028.6 kg
Now, mass of helium (m) filled in balloon
\(m_{\mathrm{He}}=\frac{M p V}{R T}\)
Here, M = 4 x 10-3 kg mol-1
p= 1.66 bar
V = Volume of the balloon = 4190.5 x 103 dm3
R = 0.083 bar dm3K-1mol-1
T = 27°C = 300 K
Then mHe = \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-3} \times 1.66 \times 4190.5 \times 10^{3}}{0.083 \times 300}\) = 1117.5kg(approx)
Now, total mass of the balloon filled with helium
= (100 +1117.5)kg = 1217.5kg
Hence, pay load = mass of displaced air – mass of balloon
= (5028.6 -1217.5) kg = 3811.1 kg
Hence, the pay load of the balloon is 3811.1 kg

Question 17.
Calculate the volume occupied by 8.8g of CO2 at 31.1°C and 1 bar pressure. (R = 0.083 bar LK-1 mol-1).
Answer:
We know that,
pV = nRT m
pV = \(\frac{m}{M} R T\)
V = \(\frac{m R T}{M p}\)
Here, m = 8.8 g
R = 0.083 bar LK-1mol-1
T = 31.1°C = 304.1 K
M = 44 g mol-1
p = 1 bar
Then, volume V = \(\frac{8.8 \times 0.083 \times 304.1}{44 \times 1}\) = 5.048 L
Hence, the volume occupied is 5.048 L.

Question 18.
2.9 g of a gas at 95°C occupied the same volume as 0.184 g of dihydrogen at 17°C, at the same pressure. What is the molar mass of the gas?
Answer:
Applying the ideal gas equation pV = nRT
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter 6
Hence, the molar mass of the gas is 40 g mol-1 .

Question 19.
A mixture of dihydrogen and dioxygen at one bar pressure contains 20% by weight of dihydrogen. Calculate the partial pressure of dihydrogen.
Answer:
Let the weight of dihydrogen be 20 g and the weight of dioxygen be 80g.
Moles of dihydrogen,
nH2 = 20/2 = 10 mol
Moles of dioxygen,
nO2 = 80/32 = 2.5 mol
Given,
Total pressure of the mixture, ptotal = 1 bar
Then, partial pressure of dihydrogen,
pH2 = \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}}{n_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}+n_{\mathrm{O}_{2}}} \times p_{\text {total }}=\frac{10}{10+2.5} \times 1\) = 0.8 bar
Hence, the partial pressure of dihydrogen is 0.8 bar.

Question 20.
What would be the SI unit for the quantity pV2 T2 / n?
Answer:
The SI unit of \(\frac{p V^{2} T^{2}}{n}\) is given by
= \(\frac{\left(\mathrm{Nm}^{-2}\right)\left(\mathrm{m}^{3}\right)^{2}(\mathrm{~K})^{2}}{\mathrm{~mol}}\) = Nm4K2mol-1

Question 21.
In terms of Charles’ law explain why -273°C is the lowest possible temperature.
Answer:
According to Charles’ law,
Vt = V0 [1 + \(\frac{t}{273}\) ]
At t = -273° C
Vt = V0 = [1 – \(\frac{273}{273}\) ] = 0
Thus, at -273° C, volume of a gas becomes zero and below this temperature the volume becomes negative, which is meaningless.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 States of Matter

Question 22.
Critical temperature for carbon dioxide and methane are 31.1° C and -81.9°C respectively. Which of these has stronger intermolecular forces and why?
Answer:
Higher is the critical temperature of a gas, easier is its liquefaction. This means that the intermolecular forces of attraction between the molecules of a gas are directly proportional to its critical temperature. Hence, intermolecular forces of attraction are stronger in the case of C02.

Question 23.
Explain the physical significance of van der Waals parameters.
Answer:
Significance of constant ‘a’ : The value of constant ‘a’ is a measure of the magnitude of intermolecular forces between the molecules of the gas. Its units are atm L mol-2 . Larger the value of ‘a’ larger will be the intermolecular forces among the gas molecules.
Significance of constant ‘b’ : The constant ‘b’ is called co-volume or excluded volume per mol of a gas. Its units are litre mol-1.The volume of V is four times the actual volume of the molecules. It is measure of effective size of the gas molecules.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide Thermodynamics InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer. A thermodynamic state function is a quantity
(i) used to determine heat changes
(ii) whose value is independent of path
(iii) used to determine pressure volume work
(iv) whose value depends on temperature only.
Answer:
(ii) A thermodynamic state function is a quantity whose value is independent of path. Functions like p, V, T etc., depend only on the state of a system and not on the path.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 2.
For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is:
(i) ΔT = 0 (ii) Δp = 0
(iii) q = 0 (iv) w = 0
Answer:
(iii) A system is said to be under adiabatic conditions if there is no exchange of heat between the system and its surroundings. Hence, under adiabatic conditions, q = 0.

Question 3.
The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are:
(i) unity
(ii) zero
(iii) < 0
(iv) different for each element
Answer:
(ii) The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are zero.

Question 4.
\(\Delta \boldsymbol{U}^{\ominus}\) of combustion of methane is – X kJ mol-1. The value of \(\Delta \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) is
(i) = ΔU
(ii) > ΔU
(iii) \(\Delta \boldsymbol{U}^{\ominus}\)
(iv) = 0
Answer:
(iii) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) > CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
Δng = np-nr = 1 – 3 =-2
Hence,\(\Delta \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = \(\Delta \boldsymbol{U}^{\ominus}\) + Δ ngRT
\(\Delta \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = – X – 2RT
Hence, \(\Delta \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) < \(\Delta \boldsymbol{U}^{\ominus}\)

Question 5.
The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K are, -890.3 kJ mol-1 – 393.5 kJ mol-1 and -285.8 kJ mol-1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of CH4(g) will be
(i) -748kJmol-1
(ii) -52.27kJ mol-1
(iii) +748kJ mol-1
(iv) +52.26kJ mol-1
Answer:
According to the equation
(i) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); ΔH = -890.3 kJ mol-1

(ii) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ΔH = – 393.5 kJ mol-1

(iii) H2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → H2O(l); ΔH = -285.8 kJ mol-1
Multiplying equation (iii) by 2, we get equation (iv).

(iv) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l); ΔH = – 571.6 kJ mol-1
Adding eqs. (ii) and (iv), we get

(v) (C(s) +2H2(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); ΔH = – 965.1 kJ mol-1
Reversing eqs. (i)

(vi) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) → CH4(g) + 2O2(g); ΔH = +890.3 kJ mol-1
Adding eqs. (v) and (vi), we get
C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g); ΔH = – 74.8 kJ mol-1
Hence, option (i) is correct.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 6.
A reaction, A + B → C + D +q is found to have a positive entropy change. The reaction will be
(i) possible at high temperature
(ii) possible only at low temperature
(iii) not possible at any temperature
(iv) possible at any temperature
Answer:
(iv) For a reaction to be spontaneous, AG should be negative.
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
According to the question, for the given reaction,
ΔS = positive
ΔH = negative (since heat is evolved)
=> ΔG = negative
Therefore, the reaction is spontaneous at any temperature.
Hence, option (iv) is correct.

Question 7.
In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the system. What is the change in internal energy for the process?
Answer:
According to the first law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = q + W …(i)
Given,
q = +701 J (heat is absorbed here, q is positive)
W=- 394 J
(work is done by the system hence W is negative)
Substituting the values in expression (i), we get
ΔU= +701 J + (-394 J)
ΔH = 307 J
Hence, the change in internal energy for the given process is 307 J.

Question 8.
The reaction of cyanamide, NH2CN(s) with dioxygen was carried out in a bomb calorimeter, and ΔU was found to be – 742.7 kJ mol-1 at 298K. Calculate enthalpy change for the reaction at 298 K.
NH2CN(s) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Answer:
The given reaction is
NH2CN(s) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Difference of moles of gaseous products and reactants,
Δng = np – nr = 2 – \(\frac{3}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 mol
Given, ΔU=- 742.7kJ mol-1
Enthalpy change ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT
= – 742.7 + (0.5 x 8.314 x 10-3 x 298)
= – 742.7 +1238.786 x 10-3
= – 741.46 kJ mol-1

Question 9.
Calculate the number of kJ of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 60.0 g of aluminium from 35°C to 55°C. Molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol-1K-1.
Answer:
Given, mass of Al = 60.0 g
ΔT= 55 – 35 = 20°C
No.of moles of Al = \(\frac{60.0}{27}\) mol
Molar heat capacity of Al
= 24 J mol-1K-1
Heat, q = n.C . ΔT
= [ \(\frac{60}{27}\) mol )(24 J mol-1K-1)(20 K)
q= 1066.7 J
q = 1.07 kJ

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 10.
Calculate the enthalpy change on freezing of 1.0 mol of water at 10.0°C to ice at – 10.0°C. ΔfusH = 6.03 kJ mol-1 at 0°C.
Cp[H2O(l)] – 75.3 J mol-1K-1
Cp[H2O(s)] = 36.8J mol-1K-1
Answer:
(i) Heat change required to lower the temperature of water from 10.0°Cto0°C
ΔH1= n x Cp x ΔT= 1.0 x 75.3 x (-10) = – 753 J mol-1
(ii) Heat change required to convert 1 mol of H2O(l) at 0°C to H2O(s) at 0°C
ΔH2 = ΔHfusion = – 6.03 kJ mol-1 as heat is given out
(iii) Heat change required to change 1 mole of ice from 0°C to -10.0° C
ΔH3 = – 36.8 x 10 x 1 = – 368 J mol-1
Total heat change
= ΔH1 + ΔH2 + ΔH3 = (- 0.753 – 6.03 – 0.368) kJ mol-1
∴ Total enthalpy change = – 7.151 kJ mol-1
As in each step, heat is evolved, each step will have a negative sign with ΔH

Question 11.
Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO2 is -393,5 kJ mol-1. Calculate the heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and dioxygen gas.
Answer:
The reaction for the combustion of carbon into CO2 is
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ΔH = – 393.5 kJ mol-1 (1 mole CO2 – 44g)
Heat released in the formation of 44 g CO2 = 393.5 kJ
∴ Heat released in the formation of 35.2 g CO2
\(\frac{393.5 \mathrm{~kJ}}{44 \mathrm{~g}}\) x 5.2g = 314.8 kJ mol-1

Question 12.
Enthalpies of formation of CO(g), CO(2)(g), N2O(g) and N2O4(g) are -110, -393, 81and 9.7 kJ mol-1 respectively. Find the value of ΔrH for the reaction:
N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g)
Answer:
ΔfH (CO) = -110 kJ mol-1
ΔHf(CO2) = -393 kJ mol-1
ΔfH (N2O)= 81 kJ mol-1
ΔfH (N2O4) = 9.7 kJ mol-1
The given reaction is
N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g); ΔrH = ?
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics 1
= [81 + 3 (-393)] – [9.7 + 3 (-110)] kJ = [81 -1179]-[9.7-330] kJ
ΔrH = – 777.8 kJ.

Question 13.
Given : N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{r}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = -92.4kJ mol-1.
What is the standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 gas?
Answer:
Given, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); ΔrH = – 92.4 kJ mol-1
Chemical reaction for the enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is as follows :
\(\frac{1}{2}\)N2(g) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)H2(g) → NH3(g)
∴ Standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(\Delta H^{\theta}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-92.4 kJ mol-1) = -46.2 kJ mol-1

Question 14.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the following data:
CH3OH(l) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{r}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = -726 kJ mol-1
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g); \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{c}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = – 393 kJ mol-1
H2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → H2O(l); \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{f}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = – 286 kJ mol-1
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics 2
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics 3

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 15.
Calculate the enthalpy change for the process
CCl4(g) → C(g) + 4Cl(g)
and calculate bond enthalpy of C—Cl in CCl4(g).
\(\Delta_{\mathbf{v a p}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\)(CCl4) = 30.5kJ mol-1. \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{f}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\)(CCl4) = – 135.5kJ mol-1.
\(\Delta_{a} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}(\mathbf{C})\) = 715.0kJ mol-1, \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{a}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\left(\mathbf{C l}_{\mathbf{2}}\right)\)(Cl2) = 242 kJ mol-1; where \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{a}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) is enthalpy of atomisation.
Answer:
Given,
(i) CCl4(Z) → CCl4(g); \(\Delta_{\mathrm{vap}} H^{\ominus}\) = +30.5 kJ mol-1
(ii) C(s) → C(g); \(\Delta_{a} H^{\ominus}\) = 715.0 kJ mol-1
(iii) Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g); \(\Delta_{a} H^{\ominus}\) = 242 kJ mol-1
(iv) C(s) + 2Cl2(g) → CCl4 a); \(\Delta_{f} H^{\ominus}\) = – 135.5KJ mol-1

Enthalpy change for the given process
CCl4(g) → C(g) + 4Cl(g); \(\Delta_{r} H^{\ominus}\) = ?

Add (i) and (iv) and subtract (ii) and (iii) x 2
CCl4(l) + C(s) + 2Cl2(g) – C(s) – 2Cl2 (g) → CCl4(g) + CCl4(g) – C(g) – 4Cl(g)
or \(\Delta_{r} H^{\ominus}\) = 30.5 -135.5 – 715 – 484 = -1304 kJ
0 = CCl4(g) – C(g) + 4Cl(g); \(\Delta_{r} H^{\ominus}\) = -1304kJ
CCl4(g) → C (g) + 4Cl(g); \(\Delta_{r} H^{\ominus}\) = 1304 kJ
There are four bonds of C—Cl in CCl4.
Bond enthalpy of C—Cl bond
= \(\frac{1304}{4}\) mol-1
= 326 kJmol-1

Question 16.
For an isolated system, ΔU = 0, what will be ΔS ?
Ans. For an isolated system, ΔU = 0 and for a spontaneous process, total entropy change must be positive. For example, consider the diffusion of two gases A and B into each other in a closed container which is isolated from the surroundings.

The two gases A and B are separated by a movable partition. When partition is removed, the gases begin to diffuse into each other and the system becomes more disordered. It shows that ΔS > 0 and ΔU = 0 for this process.
Moreover, ΔS =\(=\frac{q_{\mathrm{rev}}}{T}=\frac{\Delta H}{T}=\frac{\Delta U+p \Delta V}{T}=\frac{p \Delta V}{T}\) (∴ ΔU = 0)
i.e., TΔS or ΔS > 0

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 17.
For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B > C
ΔH = 400kJ mol-1 and ΔS = 0.2kJK-1mol-1 At what temperature will the reaction become spontaneous considering ΔH and ΔS to be constant over the temperature range?
Answer:
Given, ΔH = 400 kJ mol-1, ΔS = 0.2 kJ K-1mol-1
Gibbs free energy, ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
0 = 400 kJ mol-1 – T x 0.2 kJ K-1mol-1
(ΔG = 0 at equilibrium)
T = \(\frac{400 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{0.2 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)
T = 2000 K
For the reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG must be negative. Hence, for the given reaction to be spontaneous, T should be greater than 2000 K.

Question 18.
For the reaction,
2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), what are the signs of ΔH and ΔS?
Answer:
ΔH and ΔS are negative.
The given reaction represents the formation of chlorine molecule from chlorine atoms. Here, bond formation is taking place. Therefore, energy is being released. Hence, ΔH is negative.
Also, two moles of atoms have more randomness than one mole of a molecule. Since spontaneity is decreased, ΔS is negative for the given reaction.

Question 19.
For the reaction : 2A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g)
\(\Delta \boldsymbol{U}^{\ominus}\) = – 10.5 kJ and ΔS = – 441 JK-1.
Calculate \(\Delta \boldsymbol{G}^{\ominus}\) for the reaction, and predict whether the reaction may occur spontaneously.
Answer:
For the given reaction,
2A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g)
Δng = 2 – 3 = -1 mol
Substituting the value of \(\Delta \boldsymbol{U}^{\ominus}\) in the expression ofΔH
\(\Delta H^{\ominus}=\Delta U^{\ominus}+\Delta n_{g} R T\)
= (-10.5 kJ) + (-1) x (8.314 x 10-3kJK-1 mol-1) x (298 K)
= -10.5 kJ-2.48 kJ
\(\Delta H^{\ominus}\) = -12.98 kJ
We know that,
\(\Delta G^{\ominus}=\Delta H^{\ominus}-T \Delta S^{\ominus}\)
= -12.98 kJ – (298K) x ( – 44.1 JK-1)
= -12.98 kJ + 13.14kJ
\(\Delta G^{\ominus}\) = +0.16 kJ
Since, \(\Delta G^{\ominus}\) is positive, the reaction will not occur spontaneously.

Question 20.
The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. What will be the value of \(\Delta G^{\ominus}\)? R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1, T = 300 K.
Answer:
\(\Delta G^{\ominus}\) = – 2303RT log Kc
Given, Kc = 10, T = 300 K, R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1
\(\Delta G^{\ominus}\) = (- 2.303) (8.314 JK-1mol-1) (300K) (loglO) (∵ log 10 = 1)
= – 5744.14 Jmol-1 = – 5.744 kJmol-1

Question 21.
Comment on the thermodynamic stability of NO(g), given
\(\frac{1}{2}\)N2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → NO(g); \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{r}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = 90 kJ mol-1
NO(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → NO2(g); \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{r}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = – 74 kJ mol-1
Answer:
NO(g) is unstable because formation of NO is endothermic (energy is absorbed) but NO2(g) is formed because its formation is exothermic (energy is released).
Hence, unstable NO(g) changes to stable NO2(g).

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 22.
Calculate the entropy change in surroundings when 1.00 mol of H2O(Z) is formed under standard conditions. \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{f}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = – 286
kJ mol-1.
Answer:
Enthalpy change for the formation of 1 mol of H2O(Z)
H2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → H2O(l); \(\Delta_{f} H^{\mathrm{s}}\) = -286 kJ mol-1
Energy released in the above reaction is absorbed by the surroundings. * It means,
qsurr = + 286 kJ mol-1
Entropy change ΔSsurr = \(=\frac{q_{\mathrm{surr}}}{T}=\frac{286 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{298 \mathrm{~K}}\)
ΔSsurr = 0.95973 kJ K-1 mol-1 = 959.73 J mol-1K-1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide Equilibrium InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour in a sealed container at a fixed temperature. The volume of the container is suddenly increased.
(a) What is the initial effect of the change on vapour pressure?
(b) How do rates of evaporation and condensation change initially?
(c) What happens when equilibrium is restored finally and what will be the final vapour pressure?
Answer:
(a) If the volume of the container is suddenly increa50sed, then the vapour pressure would decrease initially. This is because the amount of vapour remains the same, but the volume increases suddenly. As a result, the same amount of vapour is distributed in a larger volume.
(b) Since the temperature is constant, the rate of evaporation also remains constant. When the volume of the container is increased, the density of the vapour phase decreases. As a result, the rate of collisions of the vapour particles also decreases. Hence, the rate of condensation decreases initially.
(c) When equilibrium is restored finally, the rate of evaporation becomes equal to the rate of condensation. In this case, only the volume changes while the temperature remains constant. The vapour pressure depends on temperature and not on volume. Hence, the final vapour pressure will be equal to the original vapour pressure of the system.

Question 2.
What is Kc for the following equilibrium when the equilibrium concentration of each substance is: [SO2] = 0.60M,[O2] = 0.82M and [SO3] = 1.90 M?
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2SO3(g)
Answer:
The given reaction is
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2SO3(g)
Equilibrium constant
Kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{2}\right]^{2}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}=\frac{(1.90 \mathrm{M})^{2}}{(0.60 \mathrm{M})^{2}(0.82 \mathrm{M})}\)
= 12.238 M-1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 3.
At a certain temperature and total pressure of 105 Pa, iodine vapour contains 40% by volume of I atoms I2(g) ⇌ 2I(g)
Calculate Kp for the equilibrium.
Answer:
Given, I2(g) ⇌ 2I(g)
I atoms in iodine vapours = 40% by volume
So, iodine vapours of I2 molecules = 60% by volume
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 1

Question 4.
Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc for each of the following reactions:
(i) 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + Cl2(g)
(ii) 2CU(NO3)2(S) ⇌ 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
(iii) CH3COOC2H5(oq) + H2O(l) ⇌ CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(ag)
(iv) Fe3+(aq) + 3OH(aq) ⇌ Fe(OH)3(s)
(v) I2(s) + 5F2 ⇌ 2IF5
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 2

Question 5.
Find out the value of Kc for each of the following equilibria from the value of Kp.
(i) 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g); Kp = 1.8 x 10-2 at 500 K
(ii) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g); Kp = 167 at 1073 K
Answer:
The relation between Kp and Kc is given as
Kp = Kc(RT)Δn
(i) 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g); Kp = 1.8 x 10-2 at 500 K.
Δn = 3 – 2 = 1
R = 0.0831 bar L mol-1K-1
T = 500 K
Kp =1.8 x 10-2
Kp = Kc( RT)Δn
1.8 x 10-2 = Kc(0.0831 x 500)1
Kc = \(\frac{1.8 \times 10^{-2}}{0.0831 \times 500}\) = 4.33 x 10-4

(ii) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g); Kp = 167 at 1073 K
Δn = 2 -1 = 1
R = 0.0831 bar L mol-1K-1
T = 1073 K
Kp =167
Now, Kp = Kc(RT)Δn
⇒ 167 = Kc(0.0831 x 1073)1
⇒ Kc = \(\frac{167}{0.0831 \times 1073}\) = 1.87

Question 6.
For the following equilibriuih, Kc = 6.3 x 1014 at 1000 K
NO(g) + O3(g) ⇌ NO2(g) + O2(g)
Both the forward and reverse reactions in the equilibrium are elementary bimolecular reactions. What is Kc, for the reverse reaction?
Answer:
It is given that Kc for the forward reaction is 6.3 x 1014 at 1000 K.
Then, Kc for the reverse reaction will be,
NO2(g) + O3(g) ⇌ NO(g) + O3(g)
Kc = \(\frac{1}{K_{c}}=\frac{1}{6.3 \times 10^{14}}\) = 1.59 x 10-15

Question 7.
Explain why pure liquids and solids can be ignored while writing the equilibrium constant expression?
Answer:
For a pure substance (both solids and liquids),
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 3
Now, the molecular mass and density (at a particular temperature) of a pure substance is always fixed and is accounted for in the equilibrium constant. Therefore, the values of pure substances are not mentioned in the equilibrium constant expression.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 8.
Reaction between N2 and O2 takes place as follows:
2N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2N2O(g)
If a mixture of 0.482 mol of N2 and 0.933 mol of O2 is placed in a 10 L reaction vessel and allowed to form N2O at a temperature for which Kc = 2.0 x 10-37 , determine the composition of equilibrium mixture.
Answer:
Let the concentration of N2O at equilibrium be x.
The given reaction is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 4

The value of equilibrium constant i.e., Kc = 2.0 x 10-37 is very small which means negligible amounts of N2 and O2 react.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 5

Question 9.
Nitric oxide reacts with Br2 and gives nitrosyl bromide as per reaction given below:
2NO(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2NOBr(g)
When 0.087 mol of NO and 0.0437 mol of Br2 are mixed in a closed container at constant temperature, 0.0518 mol of NOBr is obtained at equilibrium. Calculate equilibrium amount of NO andBr2.
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation is
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 6
Given, 2x = 0.0518
x = 0.0259 mol
Moles of NO at equilibrium = 0.087 – 2x
= 0.087-0.0518
= 0.0352 mol
Moles of Br2 at equilibrium = 0.0437 – x
= 0.0437 – 0.0259
= 0.0178 mol

Question 10.
At 450 K, Kp = 2.0 x 1010/bar for the given reaction at equilibrium.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)
What is Kc at this temperature?
Answer:
The given reaction is
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3Cg)
Δn = 2 – 3 = -1
T = 450 K
R = 0.0831 bar L K-1 mol-1
Kp = 2.0 x 1010 bar-1
We know that,
Kp = Kc(RT)Δn
=> 2.0 x 1010 bar-1 = kc(0.0831 L bar K-1 mol-1 x 450 K)-1
\(K_{c}=\frac{2.0 \times 10^{10} \mathrm{bar}^{-1}}{\left(0.0831 \mathrm{~L} \mathrm{barK} \mathrm{K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \times 450 \mathrm{~K}\right)^{-1}}\)
Kc = (2.0 x 1010 bar-1) (0.0831 L bar K-1mol-1450 K)
= 74.79 x 1010 L mol-1 = 7.48 x 1011 L mol-1

Question 11.
A sample of HI(g) is placed in flask at a pressure of 0.2 atm. At equilibrium the partial pressure of HI(g) is 0.04 atm. What is Kp for the given equilibrium?
2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g)
Answer:
The given reaction is
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 6 1
∵ Decrease is pressure of HI = 0.2 – 0.04 = 0.16 atm;
So equilibrium pressure of H2 is \(\frac{0.16}{2}\) = 0.08 atm and for I2 is \(\frac{0.16}{2}\) = 0.08 atm
as two moles of HI on dissociation gives 1 mol of H2 and 1 mol of I2.
Therefore,
Kp = \(\frac{p_{\mathrm{H}_{2}} \times p_{\mathrm{I}_{2}}}{\left(p_{\mathrm{HI}}\right)^{2}}=\frac{0.08 \times 0.08}{(0.04)^{2}}=\frac{0.0064}{0.0016}\) = 4.0
Hence, the value of Kp is 4.0.

Question 12.
A mixture of 1.57 mol of N2,1.92 mol of H2 and 8.13 mol of NH3 is introduced into a 20 L reaction vessel at 500 K. At this temperature, the equilibrium constant, Kc for the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) is 1. 7 x 102.
Is the reaction mixture at equilibrium? If not, what is the direction of the net reaction?
Answer:
The given reaction is :
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Given, [N2] = \(\frac{1.57}{20}\) = 0.0785 M
[H2] = \(\frac{1.92}{20}\) = 0.096 M
[NH3] = \(\frac{8.13}{20}\) = 0.4065 M
Now, reaction quotient Qc. is :
Qc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{3}}=\frac{(0.4065)^{2}}{(0.0785)(0.096)^{3}}\) = 2.4 x 103M-2
Since Qc ≠ Kc the reaction mixture is not in equilibrium.
Again Qc > Kc. Hence, the reaction will proceed in the reverse direction.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 13.
The equilibrium constant expression for a gas reaction is, Kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]^{4}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]^{5}}{\left[\mathrm{NO}^{4}\left[\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right]^{6}\right.}\)
Write the balanced chemical equation corresponding to this expression.
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation corresponding to the given expression can be written as :
4NO(g) + 6H2O(l) ⇌ 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)

Question 14.
One mole of H2O and one mole of CO are taken in 10 L vessel and heated to 725 K. At equilibrium 40% of water (by mass) reacts with CO according to the equation,
H2O(g) + CO(g) ⇌ H2(g) + CO2(g)
Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
Answer:
The given reaction is
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 7
H2O reacted = 40% of 1 mol of H2O = 0.4 mol
x = 0.4 mol 1 – x = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6 mol
Therefore, the equilibrium constant for the reaction,
Kc = \(\) = 0.444

Question 15.
At 700 K, equilibrium constant for the reaction
H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
is 54.8. If 0.5 mol L-1 of Hl(g) is present at equilibrium at 700 K, what are the concentration of H2(g) and I2(g) assuming that we initially started with HI(g) and allowed it to reach equilibrium at 700 K?
Answer:
The given reaction is
H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g); Kc = 54.8
Or the reaction
2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g); Kc‘ = \(\)
Given, [HI] = 0.5 mol L-1
According to equation
[H2] = [I2] = x mol L-1
Therefore,
\(\frac{\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{I}_{2}\right]}{[\mathrm{HI}]^{2}}=K_{c}^{\prime}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x \times x}{(0.5)^{2}}=\frac{1}{54.8}\)
⇒ x2 = \(\frac{0.25}{54.8}\)
⇒ x = 0.06754
x = 0.068 mol L-1
Hence, at equilibrium, [H2] = [I2] = x = 0.068 mol L-1

Question 16.
What is the equilibrium concentration of each of the substances in the equilibrium when the initial concentration of IC1 was 0.78 M?
2ICl(g) ⇌ I2(g) + Cl2(g); Kc = 0.14
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 8

Question 17.
Kp = 0.04 atm at9 K for the equilibrium shown below. What is the equilibrium concentration of C2H6 when it is placed in a flask at 4.0 atm pressure and allowed to come to equilibrium?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 9

Question 18.
Ethyl acetate is formed by the reaction between ethanol acid and acetic acid and the equilibrium is represented as :
CH3COOH(l) + C2H5OH (l) ⇌ CH3COOC2H5(Z) + H2O(l)
(i) Write the concentration ratio (reaction quotient), Qc, for this reaction (note: water is not in excess and is not a solvent in this reaction)
(ii) At 293 K, if one starts with 1.00 mol of acetic acid and 0.18 mol of ethanol, there is 0.171 mol of ethyl acetate in the final equilibrium mixture. Calculate the equilibrium constant.
(iii) Starting with 0.5 mol of ethanol and 1.0 mol of acetic acid and maintaining it at 293 K, 0.214 mol of ethyl acetate is found after sometime. Has equilibrium been reached?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 10

Question 19.
A sample of pure PCl5 was introduced into an evacuated vessel at 473K. After equilibrium was attained, concentration of PCl5 was found to be 0.5 x 10-1 mol L-1. If value of K is 8.3 x 10-3, what are the concentrations of PCl3 and Cl2 at equilibrium?
PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
Answer:
The given reaction is
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 11
It is given that the value of equilibrium constant, K = 8.3 x 10-3.
Kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{PCl}_{3}\right]\left[\mathrm{Cl}_{2}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{PCl}_{5}\right]}\)
[Given, [PCl5]equili = 0.5 x 10-1 mol L-1]
\(\frac{x \times x}{0.5 \times 10^{-1}}\) = 8.3 x 10-3
⇒ x2 = 4.15 x10-4
⇒ x = 2.04 x 10-2 = 0.0204 mol L-1 = 0.02 mol L-1
Therefore, at equilibrium,
[Pcl3] = [Cl2] = 0.02 mol L-1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 20.
One of the reaction that takes place in producing steel from iron ore is the reduction of iron (H) oxide by carbon monoxide to give iron metal and CO2.
FeO(s) + CO(g) ⇌ Fe(s) + CO2 (g); Kp = 0.265 atm at 1050 K. What are the equilibrium partial pressures of CO and 2 at 1050 K if the initial partial pressures are PCo = 1.4 atm and pCO2 = 0.80 atm?
Answer:
(i) The given reaction is
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 12
Since Qp > Kp, the reaction will proceed in the backward direction.
Therefore, we can say that the pressure of CO will increase while the pressure of CO2 will decrease.
Now,let the increase in pressure of CO = decrease in pressure of CO2 be p.
Hence pCO2 = 0.80 – p and PCO = 1.4 + p
and Kp = \(\frac{p_{\mathrm{CO}_{2}}}{p_{\mathrm{CO}}}\)
0.265 = \(\frac{0.80-p}{1.4+p}\)
0.371 + 0.265p = 0.80 — p= 1.265p= 0.429
p = 0.339atm
Hence, at equilibrium
PCO2 = 0.80 – 0.339 = 0.461 atm
And, equilibrium partial pressure of
PCO = 1.4 + 0.339 = 1.739 atm.

Question 21.
Equilibrium constant, Kc for the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) at 500 K is 0.06 1.
At a particular time, the analysis shows that composition of the
reaction mixture is 3.0 mol L-1 N2,2.0 mol L-1 H2 and 0.5 mol L-1 NH3 Is the reaction at equilibrium? if not in which direction
does the reaction tend to proceed to reach equilibrium?
Answer:
The given reaction is
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g);Kc = 0.061 at 500K
Given, [N2] = 3.0mol L-1, [H2] = 2.0 mol L-1, [NH3] = 0.5 mol L-1
So, Q = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{3}}=\frac{(0.5)^{2}}{(3.0)(2.0)^{3}}\) = 0.0104
It is given that Kc = 0.06 1
Since Qc ≠ Kc, the reaction is not at equilibrium.
Since Qc < Kc, the reaction will proceed in the forward direction to reach equilibrium.

Question 22.
Bromine monochloride, BrCl decomposes into bromine and chlorine and reaches the equilibrium:
2BrCl(g) ⇌ Br2(g) + Cl2(g)
for which Kc = 32 at 500 K. If initially pure BrCl is present at a concentration of 3.3 x 10-3 mol L-1, what is its molar concentration in the mixture at equilibrium?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 13
x = 11.312(3.30 x 10-3 – x)
x = 0.03732 – 11.312x
x + 11.312x = 0.03732
x = \(\frac{0.03732}{12.312}\)= 3.0321 x 10-3 mol L-1
[BrCl]equili = (3.30 x 10-3 – 3.032 x 10-3) mol L-1
= 2.68 x 10-4 mol L-1

Question 23.
At 1127 K and 1 atm pressure, a gaseous mixture of CO and CO2 in equilibrium with solid carbon has 90.55% CO by mass
C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)
Calculate Kc for this reaction at the above temperature.
Answer:
Let the total mass of the gaseous mixture be 100g.
Mass of CO = 90.55 g
and, mass of CO2 = (100 – 90.55) = 9.45 g
Now, number of moles of CO,
nCO = \(\frac{90.55}{28}\) = 3.234 mol
(Molar mass of CO = 28 g mol-1 )
Now, number of moles of CO2,
nCO = \(\)
(Molar mass of CO2 = 44 g mol-1 )
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 14 1
For the given reaction, Δn = 2 -1 = 1
We know that,
Kp = Kc(RT)Δn
⇒ 14.19 = Kc(0.0831 x 1127)1
⇒ Kc = 0.154 (approximately)

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 24.
Calculate (a) \(\Delta \boldsymbol{G}^{\ominus}\) and (b) the equilibrium constant for the formation of N02 from NO and Oa at 298K
NO(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) ⇌ NO2(g)
where \(\Delta_{f} \boldsymbol{G}^{\ominus}\) (N02)= 52.0 kJ/mol; \(\Delta_{f} \boldsymbol{G}^{\ominus}\) (NO) = 87.0kJ/mol;
\(\Delta_{f} \boldsymbol{G}^{\ominus}\) (O2) = 0 kJ/mol
Answer:
(a) The given reaction is
N0(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) ⇌ NO2(g)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 14
= (52.0 – 87.0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 0 )kJ mol-1 = -35.0 kJ mol-1

(b) \(\Delta_{r} G^{\ominus}\) = – 2.303 RT logKc
-35.0 = – 2.303 x 0.0831 x 298 log Kc
∴ log Kc= \(\frac{35}{5.7058}\)= 6.134
∴ Kc = antilog 6.134 = 1.361 x 106.

Question 25.
Does the number of moles of reaction products increase, decrease or remain same when each of the following equilibria is subjected to a decrease in pressure by increasing the volume?
(a) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) +Cl2(g)
(b) CaO (s) + CO2 (g) ⇌ CaCO3 (s)
(c) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) ⇌ Fe3O4 (s) + 4H5(g)
Answer:
(a)The number of moles of reaction products will increase. According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, if pressure is decreased, then the equilibrium shifts in the direction in which the number of moles of gases is more. In the given reaction, the number of moles of gaseous products is more than that of gaseous reactants. Thus, the reaction will proceed in the forward direction. As a result, the number of moles of reaction products will increase.
(b) The number of moles of reaction products will decrease.
(c) The number of moles of reaction products remains the same

Question 26.
Which of the following reactions will get affected hy increasing the pressure?
Also, mention whether change will cause the reaction to go into forward or backward direction.
(i) COCl2(g) ⇌ CO(g) +Cl2(g)
(ii) CH4(g) + 2S2(g) ⇌ CS2(g) + 2H2S(g)
(iii) CO2(g) + C(S) ⇌ 2CO(g)
(iv) 2H2(g) +CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
(v) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(vi) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ⇌ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
Answer:
In all the above reactions, the reaction no. (ii) proceeds with the same no. of moles on both sides
i.e., np = nr = 3 .
∴ This reaction will not be affected by the increase in pressure i. e., the direction of equilibrium will not be affected by the increase in pressure. All other reactions will be affected by the increase in pressure.
(i) COCl2(g) ⇌ CO(g) +Cl2(g)
np > nr , np = 2; nr = 1
∴ Equilibrium will shift to the left increasing pressure.
(iii) CO2(g) + C(S) ⇌ 2CO(g)
Here, nr – 1; np = 2, therefore np > nr
∴ Equilibrium will go to left on increase of pressure.
(iv) 2H2(g) +CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
Here, nr = 3; np = 1 therefore np < nr
∴ Equilibrium will shift to the right on increasing pressure.
(v) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Here nr = 0; np = 1, therefore np > nr
∴ Equilibrium will shift backwards (left) on increasing the pressure.
(vi) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ⇌ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
Here nr = 9; np = 10, therefore np > nr
∴ Equilibrium will shift backwards on increasing the pressure.

Question 27.
The equilibrium constant for the following reaction is 1.6 x 105 at 1024 K.
H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2HBr(g)
Find the equilibrium pressure of all gases if 10.0 bar of HBr is introduced into a sealed container at 1024K.
Answer:
Given reaction is H2(g) + Br2(g)⇌ 2HBr(g); Kp = 1.6 x 105 at 1024 K
Therefore, for the reaction 2HBr(g) ⇌ H2(g)+Br2(g), the equilibrium constant will be,
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 15
p = 2.5 x 1-2(5.0 x 10-3)p
p+(5.0 x 10-3)p = 2.5 x 10-2
(1005 x 10-3)p = 2.5 x 10-2
p = 2.49 x 10-2 bar = 2.5 x 10-2 bar
rherefore, at equilibrium,
[H2] = [Br2] = 2.49 x 10-2 bar
[HBr] =10 — 2 x (2.49 x 10-2) bar
= 9.95 bar = 10 bar

Question 28.
Dihydrogen gas is obtained from natural gas by partial oxidation with steam as per following endothermic reaction:
CH4(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3H2(g)
(a) Write an expression for Kp for the above reaction.
(b) How will the values of kp and composition of equilibrium mixture be affected by
(i) increasing the pressure
(ii) increasing the temperature
(iii) Using a catalyst?
Answer:
(a) The given reaction is
CH4(g) + H4O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3H2(g)
\(K_{p}=\frac{p_{\mathrm{CO}} \times p_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}^{3}}{p_{\mathrm{CH}_{4}} \times p_{\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}}}\)
(b) (1) According to LeChatelier’s principle, the equilibrium will shift in the backward direction.
(ii) According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, as the reaction is endothermic, the equilibrium will shift in the forward direction.
(iii) The equilibrium of the reaction is not affected by the presence of a catalyst. A catalyst only increases the rate of a reaction. Thus, equilibrium will be attained quickly.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 29.
Describe the effect of:
(a) addition of H2
(b) addition of CH3OH
(e) removal of CO (d) removal of CH3OH
on the equilibrium of the reaction:
2H2(g) + CO (g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
Answer:
2H2(g) + CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
According to Le Chatelier’s principle,
(a) Addition of H2 (increase in concentration of reactants) shifts the equilibrium in forward direction (more product is formed).
(b) Addition of CH3OH (increase in concentration of product) shifts the equilibrium in backward direction.
(c) Removal of CO also shifts the equilibrium in backward direction.
(d) Removal of CH3OH shifts the equilibrium in forward direction.

Question 30.
At 473K, equilibrium constant Kc for decomposition of phosphorus pentachloride, PCl5 is 8.3 x 10-3. If decomposition is depicted as,
PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g); \(\Delta_{\boldsymbol{r}} \boldsymbol{H}^{\ominus}\) = 1240 kJ mol-1
(a) Write an expression for Kc for the reaction.
(b) What is the value of Kc for the reverse reaction at the same temperature?
(c) What would be the effect on Kc if
(i) more PCl5 is added
(ii) pressure is increased?
(iii) the temperature is increased?
Answer:
PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g); Kc = 8.3 x 10-3
(a) Kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{PCl}_{3}\right]\left[\mathrm{Cl}_{2}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{PCl}_{5}\right]}\)
(b) Value of Kc for the reverse reaction at the same temperature is
K’c = \(\frac{1}{K_{c}}=\frac{1}{8.3 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 1.2048 x 102 = 120.48
(c) (i) Addition pf PCl5 have no effect on Kc because Kc is constant at constant temperature.
(ii) Kc does not change with pressure.
(iii) The given reaction is endothermic, hence on increasing the temperature, Kc will increase.

Question 31.
Dihydrogen gas used in Haber’s process is produced by reacting methane from natural gas with high temperature steam. The first stage of two stage reaction involves the formation of CO and H2. In second stage, CO formed in first stage is reacted with more steam in water gas shift reaction,
CO(g) +H2O (g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)
If a reaction vessel at 400° C is charged with an equimolar mixture of CO and steam such that pCO = PH2O = 4.0 bar, what will be the partial pressure of H2 at equilibrium? KP = 10.1 at 400°C
Answer:
The given reaction is
CO(g) + H20(g) ⇌ C02(g) + H2(g)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 16
p = 12.71 – 3.17p
4.17 p = 12.71
p = \(\frac{12.71}{4.17}\) = 3.04 bar
Hence PH2 = 3.04 bar

Question 32.
Predict which of the following reaction will have appreciable concentration of reactants and products:
(a) Cl2(g) ⇌ 2Cl(g);Kc = 5 x 10-39
(b) Cl2(g) + 2NO(g) ⇌ 2NOCl(g); Kc = 3.7 x 108
(c) Cl2(g) + 2NO2(g) ⇌ 2NO2Cl(g); Kc = 1.8
Answer:
Following conclusions can be drawn from the values of Kc:
(a) Since the value of Kc is very small, this means that the molar concentration of the products is very small as compared to that of the reactants.
(b) Since the value of Kc is quite large, this means that the molar concentration of the products is very large as compared to that of the reactants.
(c) Since the value of Kc is 1.8, this means that both the products and reactants have appreciable concentration.

Question 33.
The value of Kc for the reaction
3O2(g) ⇌ 2O3(g)
is 2.0 x 10-50 at 25°C. If the equilibrium concentration of O2 in air at 25°C is 1.6 x 10-2, what is the concentration of O3?
Answer:
The given reaction is
3O2(g) ⇌ 2O3(g)
Then K
It is given that Kc = 2.0 x 10-50 and [02(g)] = 1.6 x 10-2
Then, we have,
\(2.0 \times 10^{-50}=\frac{\left[\mathrm{O}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[1.6 \times 10^{-2}\right]^{3}}\)
⇒ [O3]2 = 2.0 x 10-50 x (1.6 x 10-2)3
⇒ [O3]2 = 8.192 x 10-56
⇒ [O3] = 2.86 x 10-28 M
Hence, the concentration of O3 is 2.86 x 10-28 M.

Question 34.
The reaction, CO(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + H2O(g) is at equilibrium at 1300 K in a 1L flask. It also contain 0.30 mol of CO, 0.10 mol of H2 and 0.02 mol of H20 and an unknown amount of CH4 in the flask. Determine the concentration of CH4 in the mixture. The equilibrium constant, Kc for the reaction at the given temperature is 3.90.
Answer:
The given equation is
CO(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + H2O(g)
Therefore,
\(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CH}_{4}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right]}{[\mathrm{CO}]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{3}}=K_{c}\)
Given, Kc = 3.90, [CO] = 0.30 mol, [H2] = 0.10 mol and [H2O] \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CH}_{4}\right] \times 0.02}{0.3 \times(0.1)^{3}}\) = 3.90
[CH4] = \(\frac{3.90 \times 0.3 \times(0.1)^{3}}{0.02}=\frac{0.00117}{0.02}\)
= 0.0585 M= 5.85 x 10-2M
Hence, the concentration of CH4 at equilibrium is 5.85 x 10-2 M.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 35.
What is meant by the conjugate acid-base pair? Find the conjugate acid/base for the following species :
\(\mathrm{HNO}_{2}, \mathrm{CN}^{-}, \mathrm{HClO}_{4}, \mathrm{~F}^{-}, \mathrm{OH}^{-}, \mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2-} \text { and } \mathrm{S}^{2-}\)
Answe:
A conjugate acid-base pair is a pair that differs only by one proton.
The conjugate acid-base for the given species is mentioned in the table below:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 17

Question 36.
Which of the followings are Lewis acids
\(\mathbf{H}_{2} \mathbf{O}, \mathbf{B F}_{3}, \mathrm{H}^{+} \text {and } \mathrm{NH}_{4}^{+}\)
Answer:
Lewis acids are those acids which can accept a pair of electrons. For example, BF3, H+ and \(\mathrm{NH}_{4}^{+}\) are Lewis acids.

Question 37.
What will be the conjugate bases for the Bronsted acids : HF, H2SO4 and \(\mathrm{HCO}_{3}^{-}\)?
Answer:
The table below lists the conjugate bases for the given Bronsted acids :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 18

Question 38.
Write the conjugate acids for the following Bronsted bases: \(\mathbf{N H}_{2}^{-}\), NH3 andHCOC.
Answer:
The table below lists the conjugate acids for the given Bronsted bases : Bronsted base Conjugate acid
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 19

Question 39.
The species : H2O, HCO3, HSO4 and NH3 can act both as Bronsted acids and bases. For each case give the corresponding conjugate acid and base.
Answer:
The table below lists the conjugate acids and conjugate bases for the given species :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 20

Question 40.
Classify the following species into Lewis acids and Lewis bases and show how these act as Lewis acid/base: (a) OH (b)F (c)H+ (d) BCl3
OH and F are electron rich species and can donate electron pair. Hence, these act as Lewis base.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 21

H+ and BCl3 are electron deficient species and can accept electron pair. Hence, these act as Lewis acid.
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 22

Question 41.
The concentration of hydrogen ion in a sample of soft drink is 3.8 x 10-3 M. What is its pH?
Answer:
Given,
[H+] = 3.8 x 10-3 M
∴ pH value of soft drink = – log[H+] = – log(3.8 x 10-3)
= – log3.8 – log10-3 = – log3.8 + 3 log10
= – log3.8 + 3
= -0.58 + 3
= 2.42

Question 42.
The pH of a sample of vinegar is 3.76. Calculate the concentration of hydrogen ion in it.
Answer:
Given, pH = 3.76
We know that,
pH = – log[H+]
⇒ log[H+] = -pH
⇒ [H+] = antilog (-pH)
= antilog (-3.76) -1 +1 = antilog \(\overline{4} .24\) = 1.74 x 10-4 M Hence, the concentration of hydrogen ion in the given sample of vinegar is 1.74 x 10-4 M.

Question 43.
The ionization constant of HF, HCOOH and HCN at 298 K are 6.8 x 10-4, 1.8 x 10-4 and 4 8 x 10-9 respectively. Calculate the ionization constants of the corresponding conjugate base.
Answer:
If Ka is the ionization constant of a weak acid and Kb is the ionization constant of its conjugate base then Ka.Kb = Kw
or Kb = \(\frac{K_{w}}{K_{a}}\)
Given, Ka of HF = 6.8 x 10-4
Hence, Kb of its conjugate base F
= \(\frac{K_{w}}{K_{a}}=\frac{1 \times 10^{-14}}{6.8 \times 10^{-4}}\)= 1.5 x 10-11
(Kw = ionic product of water =1 x 10-14 at 298 K)
Given, Ka of HCOOH = 1.8 x 10-4
= \(\frac{K_{w}}{K_{a}}=\frac{1 \times 10^{-14}}{1.8 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 5.6 x 10-11
Hence, Kb of its coagulate base CN
Given, Ka of HCN = 4.8 x 10-9
Hence, Kb of its coagulate base HCOO
= \(\frac{K_{w}}{K_{a}}=\frac{1 \times 10^{-14}}{4.8 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 2.08 x 10-6

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 44.
The ionization constant of phenol is 1.0 x 10-10. What is the concentration of phenolate ion in 0.05 M solution of phenol? What will be its degree of ionization if the solution is also 0.01 M in sodium phenolate?
Answer:
Ionization of phenol :
C6H5OH + H2O ⇌ C6H5O + H3O+
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 23

Question 45.
The first ionization constant of H2S is 9.1 x 10-8. (i) Calculate the concentration of HS ion in its 0.1 M solution. (ii) How will this concentration be affected if the solution is 0.1 M in HCI also? (ifi) If the second dissociation constant of H2S is 1.2 x 10-13, calculate the concentration of S2- under both conditions.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 24
Hence, concentration of [HS] is decreased in the presence of 0.1 M
HCI due to common-ion effect.
(iii) For second dissociation constant,
HS + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + S2- (In absence of HCl)
[HS] = 9.54 x 10-5 M
\(K_{a_{2}}=\frac{\left[\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}^{+}\right]\left[\mathrm{S}^{2-}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{HS}^{-}\right]}\)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 25

Question 46.
The ionization constant of acetic acid is 1.74 x 10-5. Calculate the degree of dissociation of acetic acid in its 0.05 M solution. Calculate the concentration of acetate ion in the solution and its pH.
Answer:
CH3COOH CH3COO + H+
Ka for CH3COOH = 1.74 x 10-5
[CH3COOH] = c = 0.05 M
CH3COOH CH3COO + H+ [where α = degree of dissociation and c = molar concentration]
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 26
[CH3COO] = 0.933 x 10-3 = 9.33 x 10-4 M
pH = – log[H+] = – log (9.33 x 10-4)
= – (-4) – log9.3 = 4 – 0.9 = 3.03

Question 47.
It has been found that the pH of a 0.01M solution of an organic acid is 4.15. Calculate the concentration of the anion, the ionization constant of the acid and its pKa.
Answer:
Let the organic acid be HA.
⇒ HA ⇌ H+ + A
Concentration of HA = 0.01 M
pH = 4.15
-log[H+] = pH= 4.15
log[H+] = – 4.15
log[H+] = 5.85
[H+] = antilog \(\overline{5} .85\)
= 7.080 x 10-5
Ka = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{H}^{+}\right]\left[\mathrm{A}^{-}\right]}{[\mathrm{HA}]}\)
Now, [H+] = [A] = 7.08 x 10-5 M
Then Ka = \(
Ka = 5.01 x 10-7
PKa = – logKa = – log(5.01 x 10-7)
pKa = 7 – 0.699 = 6.301

Question 48.
Assuming complete dissociation, calculate the pH of the following solutions:
(a) 0.003 M HCl
(b) 0.005 M NaOH
(c) 0.002 M HBr
(d) 0.002 M KOH
Answer:
(a) HCl (aq) ⇌ H+ (aq) + Cl(aq)
[HCl]= 0.003 M
As HC1 is completely dissociated into H+ ions
∴ [H+] = [HCl] = 0.003 M
pH = – log[H+] = – log [3 x 10-3]
= 3 + (-0.4771) = 2.523
(b) NaOH(aq) ⇌ Na+(aq) + OH (aq)
[NaOH] = 0.005 = 5 x 10-3 M
[OH] = [NaOH] = 5 x 10-3 M
∴ [latex]\left[\mathrm{H}^{+}\right]=\frac{K_{w}}{\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]}=\frac{1.0 \times 10^{-14}}{5.0 \times 10^{-3}}\)
[H+]= 2.0 x 10-12
∴ pH = – log(2 x 10-12) = – (-12) – log2
= 12 – 0.30 = 11.70
[log2 = 0.30]

(c)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 27
[HBr] = 0.002 M
[H+]= [HBr] = 0.002 M= 2.0 x 10-3 M
pH = – log[H+] = – log[2 x 10-3]
=- (-3) – log2
= 3 – log2
= 3 – 0.3 = 2.70

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

(d)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 28
[OH] = 0.002 M
[H+] = \(\frac{K_{w}}{\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]}=\frac{1.0 \times 10^{-14}}{0.002}\) = 2 x 10-12
pH = – log[H+] = -(-12) – log 5 = 12 – 0.70 = 11.30

Question 49.
Calculate the pH of the following solutions:
(a) 2 g of TIOH dissolved in water to give 2 litre of solution.
(b) 0.3 g of Ca(OH)2 dissolved in water to give 500 niL of solution.
(c) 0.3 g of NaOH dissolved in water to give 200 mL of solution.
(d) 1 mL of 13.6 M HC1 is diluted with water to give 1 litre of solution.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 29

(d) 1 mL of 13.6 M HC1 is diluted with water to give 1 litre of solution HC1 is completely dissociated to give H+ ions
[HCl] = ?
M1V1 = M2V2
1 mL of 13.6 M HCl = 1000 mL of M2
M2 = \(\frac{1 \times 13.6}{1000}\) = 0.0136 M
[HC1] = [H+] = 0.0136 M pH = – log[H+] = – log(1.36 x 10-2)
= – (-2) – log 1.36 = 2 – 0.13 = 1.87

Question 50.
The degree of ionization of a 0.1 M bromoacetic acid solution is 0.132. Calculate the pH of the solution and the pKa of bromoacetic acid.
Answer:
α (Degree of ionization) = 0.132
c (molar cone.) = 0.1 M
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 29 1
∴ H+ = c x α = 0.1 x 0.132 = 0.0132
pH = – logH+ = – log(1.32 x 10-2)
= – (-2) – log 1.32 = 2 – 0.12 = 1.88
pKa = -logKa
Now, Ka = cα2
Ka = 0.1 x (0.132)2 = 1.74 x 10-3
∴ pKa = – log (1.74 x 10-3) = – (-3) – log1.74 = 3 – 0.24 = 2.76

Question 51.
The pH of 0.005 M codeine (C18H21NO3) solution is 9.95.
Calculate its ionization constant and pKb.
Answer:
Molar cone, of codeine, c = 0.005 = 5 x 10-3
pH = 9.95
pOH = 14 – 9.95 = 4.05 (∵ pH + pOH = 14)
pOH = – log [OH]
log[OH] = -4.05= \(\overline{5} .95\)
[OH] = antilog \(\overline{5} .95\)
= 8.91 x 10-5
kb = \(\left(\frac{8.91 \times 10^{-5}}{5 \times 10^{-3}}\right)^{2}\) = 1.588 x 10-6
pKb = – logKb = – log(1.588 x 10-6)
= 6 + (-0.2009) = 5.7991 = 5.80

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 52.
What is the pH of 0.001 M aniline solution? The ionization constant of aniline can be taken from table 7.7 (427 x 10-10). Calculate the degree of ionization of aniline in the solution. Also calculate the ionization constant of the conjugate acid of aniline.
Answer:
Given, Kb = 4.27 x 10-10, c = 0.001 M
\(\mathrm{C}_{6} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{NH}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{C}_{6} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{NH}_{3}^{+}+\mathrm{OH}^{-}\)
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 30
[0H] = 6.534 x 10-7
pOH = — log(6.534 x 10-7)
= 7+ (-0.8152)= 6.18
pH + pOH =14
pH 14—6.18=7.82
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 31
Thus, the ionization constant of the conjugate acid of aniline is 2.34 x 10-5.

Question 53.
Calculate the degree of ionization of 0.05 M acetic acid if its pKa value is 4.74.
How is the degree of dissociation affected when its solution also contains (a) 0.01 M (b) 0.1 M in HCl?
Answer:
PKa = – log Ka,
4.74 =-logKa
log Ka = -4.74 = \(\overline{5} .26\)
Ka = antilog \(\overline{5} .26\) = 1.82 x 10-5
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 32
[CH3COOH is a weak acid and HC1 is a strong acid, so we can assume
that (cα + 0.01) 0.01]
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 33
In the presence of strong acid, dissociation of weak acid i.e., CH3COOH decreases due to common ion effect.

Q.54. The Ionization constant of dimethylanilne is 54 x 10.
Calculate Its degree of ionization in its 0.02 M solution. What
percentage of dimethylamine is ionized if the solution is also
0.1MInNaOH?
Ans. Given, Kb = 5.4 x 10
c=0.02M
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 34
It means that in the presence of 0.1 M NaOH, 0.54% of dimethylamine will get dissociated.

Question 55.
Calculate the hydrogen ion concentration in the following biological fluids whose pH are given below :
(a) Human muscle-fluid, 6.83 (b) Human stomach fluid, 1.2
(c) Human blood, 7.38 (d) Human saliva, 6.4.
Answer:
(a) pH of Human muscle fluid = 6.83
pH = – log[H+] log[H+] = -6.83 = \(\overline{7} .17\)
[H+] = antilog \(\overline{7} .17\)
[H+] = 1.48 x 10-7 M

(b) pH of Human stomach fluid =1.2
log[H+] = -1.2 = \(\overline{2} .80\)
[H+] = antilog \(\overline{2} .80\)
.-. [H+] = 6.3 x 10-2 M

(c) pH of Human blood = 7.38
log[H+] = – 7.38 = \(\overline{8} .62\)
.-. [H+] = antilog \(\overline{8} .62\) = 4.17 x 10-8 M

(d) pH of Human saliva = 6.4
log[H+] =-6.4 = \(\overline{7} .60\)
[H+] = antilog \(\overline{7} .60\) = 3.98 x 10-7 M

Question 56.
The pH of milk, black coffee, tomato juice, lemon juice and egg white are 6.8, 5.0, 4.2, 2.2 and 7.8 respectively. Calculate corresponding hydrogen ion concentration in each.
Answer:
The hydrogen ion concentration in the given substances can be calculated by using the given relation: pH = – log[H+]
(i) pH of milk = 6.8
Since, pH = -log[H+]
6.8 = -log[H+] log[H+] = -6.8 = \(\overline{7} .20\)
[H+] = antilog (\(\overline{7} .20\)) = 1.5 x 10~7 M

(ii) pH of black coffee = 5.0
Since, pH = – log[H+]
5.0 = – log[H+] log[H+] = – 5.0
[H+] = antilog (-5.00) = 10-5 M

(iii) pH of tomato juice = 4.2
Since, pH = – log[H+]
4.2 = – log[H+]
log[H+] = – 4.2 = \(\overline{5} .80\)
[H+] = antilog (\(\overline{5} .80\)) = 6.31 x 10-5M

(iv) pH of lemon juice = 2.2
Since, pH = – log[H+]
2.2 = – log[H+]
log[H+] = -2.2 = \(\overline{3} .8\)
[H+] – antilog (\(\overline{3} .8\)) = 6.31 x 10-3 M

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

(v) pH of egg white = 7.8
Since, pH = -log[H+]
7.8 = – log[H+]
log[H+]= -7.8 = \(\overline{8} .20\)
[H+] = antilog (\(\overline{8} .20\)) = 1.58 x 10-8 M

Question 57.
0.561 g of KOH is dissolved in water to give 200 mL of solution at 298 K. Calculate the concentrations of potassium, hydrogen and hydroxyl ions. What is its pH?
Answer:
Molar cone, of KOH = \(\frac{0.561 \times 1000}{56.1 \times 200}\) = 0.05M
56.1 x 200
KOH being a strong electrolyte, is completely ionized in aqueous solution.
KOH(aq) ⇌ K+(aq) + OH(aq)
[OH] = 0.05 M = [K+]
[H+][OH] = kw
[H+] = \(\) = 2 x 10-13
pH = – log[H+] = – log[2 x 10-13]
= – (-13) – log2 = 13 – 0.03
∴ pH = 12.70

Question 58.
The solubility of Sr(OH)2 at 298 K is 19.23 g/L of solution. Calculate the concentrations of strontium and hydroxyl ions and the pH of the solution.
Answer:
Solubility of Sr(OH)2 = 19.23 g/L
Then, concentration of Sr(OH)2 = \(\frac{19.23}{121.63 \times 1}\) M = 0.1581 M
Sr(OH)2(aq) Sr2+(aq) + 2(OH)(aq)
∴ [Sr2+] = 0.1581 M
[OH] – 2 x 0.1581 M = 0.3162 M
Now
Kw = [OH] [H+]
\(\frac{1 \times 10^{-14}}{0.3162}\) = [H+]
[H+] = 3.16 x 10-14
pH = – log[H+]
pH = 14 – 0.4997 = 13.5003 ≈ 13.5

Question 60.
The pH of 0.1 M solution of cyanic acid (HCNO) is 2.34. Calculate the ionization constant of the acid and its degree of ionization in the solution.
Answer:
Given, pH = 2.34
Molar cone, (c) = 0.1 M
HCNO H+ + CNO
pH = – log[H+]
2.34 = -log[H+]
log[H+] =-2.34 = \(\overline{3} .66\)
.-. [H+] = antilog \(\overline{3} .66\) = 4.57 x 10-3 M
[H+] = \(\sqrt{K_{a}^{c}}\)
4.57 x 10-3 = \(\sqrt{K_{a}^{c}}\)
Ionization constant,
Ka = 2.088 x 10-4
Degree of ionization α = \(\sqrt{\frac{K_{a}}{c}}=\sqrt{\frac{2.088 \times 10^{-14}}{0.1}}\)
α = 0.0457

Question 61.
The ionization constant of nitrous acid is 45 x 104. Calculate the pH of 0.04 M sodium nitrite solution and also its degree of hydrolysis.
Answer:
Hydrolysis constant Kh = \(\frac{K_{w}}{K_{a}}\)
where Kw = Ionic product of water, Ka = Ionisation constant of the acid
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 35
pOH = -log(9.42 x 10-7)= 7-0.97= 6.03
∴ pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 6.03 = 7.97

Question 62.
A 0.02 M solution of pyridinium hydrochloride has pH = 3.44. Calculate the ionization constant of pyridine.
Answer:
Given, pH = 3.44
We know that,
PH = – log[H+]
.-. [H+]= 3.63 x 10-4
Then Kh = \(\frac{\left(3.63 \times 10^{-4}\right)^{2}}{0.02}\) (Concentration = 0.02M)
=> Kh = 6.6 x 10-6
Now, Kh = \(\frac{K_{w}}{K_{a}}\)
Ka = \(\frac{K_{w}}{K_{h}}=\frac{1 \times 10^{-14}}{6.6 \times 10^{6}}\)
= 1.51 x 10-9

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 63.
Predict if the solutions of the following salts are neutral, acidic or basic:
NaCl, KBr, NaCN, NH4NO3, NaNO2 and KF
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 36
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 37

Question 64.
The ionization constant of chloroacetic acid is 1.35 x 10-3 . What will be the pH of 0.1 M acid and its 0.1 M sodium salt solution?
Answer:
Given that Ka = 1.35 x 10-3.
=> Ka = cα2
α = \(\sqrt{\frac{K_{a}}{c}}=\sqrt{\frac{1.35 \times 10^{-3}}{0.1}}\)
(∵ Concentration of acid = 0.1 M)
= \(\sqrt{1.35 \times 10^{-2}}\) =0.116
.-. [H+]= cα = 0.1 x 0.116 = 0.0116
=> pH = – log[H+] = – log[0.0116] = 1.94
To find pH of 0.1 M sodium salt, we use the formula
pH = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)[log Cw + log Ka – log c]
= –\(\frac{1}{2}\)[log1 x 10-14 + log(1.35 x 10-3) – log(0.1)]
= –\(\frac{1}{2}\)[-14 + (-3 + 0.1303) – (-1)]
= – \(\frac{1}{2}\) [-15.8697] = 7.93485 ≈ 7.94

Question 65.
Ionic product of water at 310 K is 2.7 x 10-14. What is the pH of neutral water at this temperature?
Answer:
Ionic product,
Kw = [H3O+] [OH]
= 2.7 x 10-14 at 310 K
H2O + H2O *=* [H30+][OH]
[H30+]= [OH]
Therefore, [H30+] = \(\sqrt{2.7 \times 10^{-14}}\)
⇒ = 1.64 x 10-7 M
⇒ [H30+] = 1.64 x 10-7
⇒ pH = – log[H30+] = – log[1.64 x 10-7 = 6.78
Hence, the pH of neutral water is 6.78.

Question 66.
Calculate the pH of the resultant mixtures :
(a) 10 mL of 0.2 M Ca(OH)2 + 25 mL of 0.1 M HC1
(b) 10 mL of 0.01 M H2SO4 + 10 mL of 0.01 M Ca(OH)2
(c) 10 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 + 10 mL of 0.1 M KOH
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 38

Question 67.
Determine the solubilities of silver chromate, barium chromate, ferric hydroxide, lead chloride and mercurous iodide at 298 K from their solubility product constants.
[Ksp(Ag2CrO4) = 1.1 x 10-12, Ksp(BaCrO4) = 1.2 x 10-10,
Ksp[Fe(OH)3] = 1.0 x 10-38, Ksp(PbCl2) = 1.6 x 10-5
Ksp(Hg2I2) = 4.5 x 10-29]
Determine also the molarities of individual ions.
Answer:
(i) Silver chromate : Ag2CrO4⇌ 2Ag+ + CrO42-, Ksp = 1.1 x 10-12
Then, Ksp = [Ag+]2[CrO42-]
Let the solubility of Ag2CrO4 be s.
⇒ [Ag+] = 2s and [CrO42-] = s
Then, Ksp = (2s)2 s – 4s3
⇒ 1.1 x 10-12 = 4s3
0.275 x 10-12 = s3
s = 0.65 x 10-4 M
Molarity of Ag+ = 2s = 2 x 0.65 x 10-4
= 1.30 x 10-4 M
Molarity of CrO42- = s = 0.65 x 10-4 M

(ii) Barium chromate : BaCrO4 ⇌ Ba2+ + \(\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\); Ksp = 1.2 x 10-10
Then, Ksp = [Ba2+] [latex]\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}[/latex]
Let s be the solubility of BaCrO4.
⇒ [Ba2+] = s and [latex]\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}[/latex] = s
⇒ Ksp = s2
⇒ 1.2 x 10-10 = s2
⇒ s = 1.09 x 10-5 M
Molarity of [Ba2+] = Molarity of [latex]\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}[/latex] = s = 1.09 x 10-5 M

(iii) Ferric hydroxide: Fe(OH)3 ⇌ Fe2+ + 3OH; Ksp = 1.0.x 10-38

Ksp = [Fe2+][OH]3
Let s be the solubility of Fe(OH)3
⇒ [Fe3+] = s and [OH] = 3s
⇒ Ksp = s. (3s)3 = s x 27x3
Ksp = 27x4
1.0 x 10-38 = 27x4
0.037 x 10-38 = s4
0.00037 x 10-36 = s4
s = 1.39 x 10-10 M
Molarity of [Fe3+] = s = 1.39 x 10-10 M
Molarity of [OH] = 3s = 4.17 x 10-10 M

(iv) Lead chloride : PbCl2 ⇌ Pb2+ + 2Cl; Ksp = 1.6 x 10-5
Ksp = [Pb2+][Cl]2
Let s be the solubility of PbCl2.
⇒ [Pb2+] = s and [Cl] = 2s
Thus, Ksp = s. (2s)2 = 4s3
⇒ 1.6 x 10-5 = 4s3
⇒ 0.4 x 10-5 = s3
4 x 10-6 = s3
⇒ s = 1.59 x 10-2 M
Molarity of [Pb2+] = s = 1.59 x 10-2 M
Molarity of [Cl] = 2s = 3.18 x 10-2 M

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

(v) Mercurous iodide : Hg2I2 ⇌ \(\mathrm{Hg}_{2}^{2+}\) + = 4.5 x 10-29
Ksp = [\(\mathrm{Hg}_{2}^{2+}\) ] []I]
Let s be the solubility of [Hg2I2]
⇒ [Hg2] = s and [I] = 2s
Ksp = (s).(2s)2 = 4s3
⇒ 4s3 = 4.5 x 10-29
⇒ s3 = 1.125 x 10-29
s = 2.24 x 10-10 M
Molarity of [ \(\mathrm{Hg}_{2}^{2+}\) ] = s = 2.24 x 10-10 M
Molarity of [I] = 2s = 4.48 x 10-10 M.

Question 68.
The solubility product constant of Ag2CrO4 and AgBr are
1.1 x 10-12 and 5.0 x 10-13 respectively. Calculate the ratio of the molarities of their saturated solutions.
Answer:
Let s be the solubility of Ag2CrO4
Thus, Ag2CrO4 ⇌ 2Ag2+ + \(\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{-}\); Ksp = 1.1 x 10-12
Ksp = [Ag2+]2. [latex]\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{-}[/latex]
=> [Ag2+] = (2s)2 and [latex]\mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{-}[/latex] = s
Ksp = (2s)2. s= 4s3
1.1 x 10-12 = 4s3
s = 6.5 x 10-5 M

Let s be the solubility of AgBr.
AgBr(s) ⇌ Ag+ + Br; Ksp = 5.0 x 10-13
Ksp = s2 = 5.0 x 10-13
s = \(\sqrt{5.0 \times 10^{-13}}\)
∴ s = 7.07 x 10-7 M

Therefore, the ratio of the molarities of their saturated solution is
\(\frac{s\left(\mathrm{Ag}_{2} \mathrm{CrO}_{4}\right)}{s(\mathrm{AgBr})}=\frac{6.5 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{M}}{7.07 \times 10^{-7} \mathrm{M}}\) = 9.19

Question 69.
Equal volumes of 0.002 M solutions of sodium iodate and cupric chlorate are mixed together. Will it lead to precipitation of copper iodate? (For cupric iodate, Ksp = 7.4 x 10-8).
Ans. 2NaIO3 + Cu(ClO3)3 → 2NaClO3 + Cu(IO3)2
Molar cone, of both solutions before mixing = 0.002 M
Molar cone, of both solution after mixing
\(\left[\mathrm{IO}_{3}^{-}\right]=\left[\mathrm{Cu}^{2+}\right]=\frac{0.002}{2}\)= 0.001 M
Cu(IO3)2 ⇌ Cu2+ + \(2 \mathrm{IO}_{3}^{-}\)
[Cu2+] = 0.001 M
\(\) = 0.001 M
Ionic product = [Cu2+]\(\left[\mathrm{IO}_{3}^{-}\right]^{2}\)
– 1 x 10-3 x [1 x 10-3]2 = 1 x 10-9
Ksp = 7.4 x 10-8
Cu(IO3)2 is precipitated if [Cu2+] .\(\left[\mathrm{IO}_{3}^{-}\right]^{2}\) > Ksp
Since, the ionic product is less than the solubility product. Hence there will be no precipitation.

Question 70.
The ionization constant of benzoic acid is 6.46 x 10-5 and Ksp for silver benzoate is 2.5 x 10 . How many times is silver benzoate
more soluble in a buffer of pH 3.19 compared to its solubility in pure water?
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 39

where s is the solubility of C6H5COOAg
pH = 3.19
pH = -log[H+]
log[H+] = – pH = -3.19 = \(\overline{4} .81\)
[H+] = antilog \(\overline{4} .81\) = 6.46 x 10-4
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 40
C6H5COOAg is 3.2 times more soluble in buffer than in pure water.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A tank is full of water. Water is coming in as well as going out at same rate. What will happen to level of water in a tank? What is name given to such state?
Answer:
It will remain the same because rate of inflow is equal to rate of outflow. This state is called state of ‘equilibrium’.

Question 2.
The ionization of hydrogen chloride in water is given t
HCl(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ H3O++(aq) + Cl(aq)
Label two conjugate acid-base pairs in this ionization.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 3.
Why solution of sugar in water does not conduct electricity whereas that of common salt in water does?
Answer:
Common salt (NaCl) is an electrolyte which gives Na+ and Cl ions in the aqueous solution. Hence, it conducts electricity. Sugar is sucrose (C12H22O11) which is a non-electrolyte and does not give ions in the solution. Hence, it does not conduct electricity.

Question 4.
Why is ammonia termed as a base though it does not contain OH ions?
Answer:
Ammonia is termed as a base due to its tendency to donate electron pair. Therefore it is a Lewis base.

Question 5.
Kb for NH4O, H is 1.8 x 10-5 and for CH3NH2 is 44 x 10-4. Which of them is strongest base and why?
Answer:
CH3NH2 is strongest base because it has high value of base dissociation constant.

Question 6.
pKa value of acids A, B, C, D are 1.5, 3.5, 2.0 and 5.0. Which of them is strongest acid?
Answer:
Acid A with pKa = 1.5 is strongest acid, lower the value of pKa stronger will be the acid.

Question 7.
What will be the pH of 1M Na2SO4 solution?
Answer:
Na2SO4 is salt of strong acid and strong base, thus its aqueous solution will be neutral. Therefore, its pH will be 7.

Question 8.
Is it possible to get precipitate of Fe(OH)3 at pH = 2? Give reason.
Answer:
No, because Fe(OH)3 will dissolve in strongly acidic medium.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 9.
What happens to ionic product of water if some acid is added to it?
Answer:
Ionic product will remain unchanged.

Question 10.
How does common ion affect the solubility of electrolyte?
Answer:
Solubility of electrolyte decreases due to common ion effect.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A certain buffer is made by mixing sodium form ate and formic acid in water. With the help of equations explain how this buffer neutralises addition of a small amount of an acid or a base?
Answer:
HCOONa → HCOO + Na+
HCOOH ⇌ HCOO + H+

HCOO is common ion in the above acidic buffer. When small amount of H+ ions is added, these H+ ions combine with HCOO which are in excess to form HCOOH back and [H+] remains practically same, so pH remains constant. When small amount of OH ions are added, OH ions will take up H+ and association of HCOOH will increase so as to maintain concentration of H+ ions. So, pH would not be affected.

Question 2.
How much volume of 0.1 M CH3COOH should he added to 50 ml of 0.2 M CH3COONa solution to prepare a buffer solution of pH 4.91. (pAa of AcH is 4.76).
According to Henderson’s equation
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 2
Required volume of 0.1 M acetic acid = 70.92 mL

Question 3.
Some processes are given below. What happens to the process if it is subjected to a change given in the brackets?
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium 3
(ii) Dissolution of NaOH in water (Temperature is increased)
(iii) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) -180.7 kJ (Pressure is increased and temperature is decreased.)
Answer:
(i) Equilibrium will shift in the forward direction, i.e., more ice will melt.
(ii) Solubility will decrease because it is an exothermic process.
(iii) Pressure has no effect. Decrease of temperature will shift the equilibrium in the backward direction.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

Question 4.
50.0 g of CaCO3 are heated to 1073 K in a 5 L vessel. What percent of the CaCO3 would decompose at equilibrium? Kp for the reaction CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g) is 1.15 atm at 1073 K.
Answer:
The reaction is : CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Kp = PCo2 = 1.15 atm, pV = nRT
\(\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{CO}_{2}}=\frac{p_{\mathrm{CO}_{2}} \mathrm{~V}}{R T}=\frac{1.15 \times 5}{0.082 \times 1073}\) = 0.065 mol

1 mole of CO2 is obtained by decomposition of 1 mole CaCO3. Therefore, moles of CaCO3 decomposed is equal to the moles of CO2 = 0.065 mol.
Mole of CaCO3 initially present = \(\frac{50}{100}\) = 0.5 mol
[Molecular mass of CaCO3 = 100]
Per cent of CaCO3 decomposed = \(\frac{0.065}{0.5}\) x 100 = 13%

Question 5.
Arrange the following in increasing order of pH.
KNO3(aqr), CH3COONa(aq), NH4Cl(aq), C6H5COONH4(aq)
Answer:
(i) KNO3 is a salt of strong acid-strong base, hence its aqueous solution is neutral; pH = 7
(ii) CH3COONa is a salt of weak acid and strong base, hence, its aqueous solution is basic; pH < 7.
(iii) NH4Cl is a salt of strong acid and weak base, hence its aqueous solution is acidic; pH < 7.
(iv) C6H5COONH4 is a salt of weak acid, C6H5COOH and weak base, NH4OH. ButNH4OH is slightly stronger than C6H5COOH. Hence, pH is slightly greater than 7.
Therefore, increasing order of pH of the given salts is,
NH4Cl < KNO3 < C6H5COONH4 < CH3COONa

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Calculate the pH of a buffer which is 0.1 M in acetic acid and 0.15 M in sodium acetate. Given that the ionisation constants of acetic acid is 1.75 x 10-5. Also calculate the change in pH of the buffer if the following adds in 1 L of the buffer (i) 1 cc of 1 M NaOH. (ii) 1 cc of 1 M HC1. Assume that the charge in volume is negligible, (iii) What will be the buffer index of the above buffer?
Answer:
pH = pKa + log\(\frac{Salt}{Acid}\) = – log(1.75 x 10-5) + log
\(\frac{0.15}{0.10}\)
= (5 – 0.2430) + 0.1761 = 4.757 + 0.1761 = 4.933.

(i) 1 cc of 1M NaOH contains NaOH = 10-3 mol. This will convert 10-3 mol of acetic acid into the salt so that salt formed = 10-3 mol.
[Acid] = 0.10 – 0.001 = 0.099 M
[Salt] = 0.15 + 0.001 = 0.151 M
pH =. 4.757 + log \(\frac{0.151}{0.099}\)
= 4.757 + 0.183 = 4.940
∴ Increase in pH = 4.940 – 4.933 = 0.007 which is negligible.

(ii) 1 cc of 1 M HC1 contains HCl = 1CF3 mol. This will convert 10-3 mol CH3COONa into CH3COOH.
Now, [Acid] = 0.10 + 0.001 = 0.101 M
[Salt] = 0.15 – 0.001 = 0.149 M 0.149
∴ pH = 4.757 + log\(\frac{0.149}{0.101}\) = 4.757 + 0.169 = 4.925
∴ Decrease in pH = 4.933 = 0.007 which is again negligible.

(iii) Calculation of buffer index No. of moles of HC1 or NaOH added = 0.001 mol
Change in pH = 0.007
Hence, buffer index = \(\frac{\Delta n}{\Delta \mathrm{pH}}=\frac{0.001}{0.007}=\frac{1}{7}\)= 0.143

Question 2.
On the basis of Le-Chatelier’s principle, explain how temperature and pressure can be adjusted to increase the yield of ammonia in the following reaction?
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
What will be the effect of addition of argon to the above reaction mixture at constant volume?
Answer:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g); ΔH = -92.38 kJ mol-1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Equilibrium

It is an exothermic process. According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, low temperature is favourable for high yield of ammonia, but practically very low temperatures slow down the reaction. So, optimum temperature, 700 K is favourable in attainment of equilibrium.

Similarly, high pressure about 200 atm is favourable for high yield of ammonia. On increasing pressure, reaction goes in the forward direction because the number of moles decreases in the forward direction.

At constant volume, addition of argon does not affect the equilibrium because it does not change the partial pressures of the reactants or products involved in the reaction and the equilibrium remains undisturbed.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Book Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

PSEB Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Guide Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the formation of a chemical bond.
Answer:
A chemical bond is defined as an attractive force that holds the constituents (atoms, ions etc.) together in a chemical species.
Various theories have been suggested for the formation of chemical bonds such as the electronic theory, valence shell electron pair repulsion theory, valence bond theory, and molecular orbital theory.

A chemical bond formation is attributed to the tendency of a system to attain stability. It was observed that the inertness of noble gases was because of their fully filled outermost orbitals. Hence, it was postulated that the elements having incomplete outermost shells are unstable (reactive). Atoms, therefore, combine with each other and complete their respective octets or duplets to attain the stable configuration of the nearest noble gases. This combination can occur either by sharing of electrons or by transferring one or more electrons from one atom to another. The chemical bond formed as a result of sharing of electrons between atoms is called a covalent bond. An ionic bond is formed as a result of the transference of electrons from one atom to another.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 2.
Write Lewis dot symbols for atoms of the following elements: Mg, Na, B, O, N, Br.
Answer:
Mg : There are two valence electrons in Mg atom (2, 8, 2). Hence, the Lewis dot symbol of Mg is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 1
Na : There is only one valence electron in an atom of sodium (2, 8,1). Hence, the Lewis dot Symbol is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 2
B : There are three valence electrons in Boron atom (2, 3). Hence, the Lewis dot symbol is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 3
0 : There are six valence electrons in an atom of oxygen (2, 6). Hence, the Lewis dot symbol is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 4
N: There are five valence electrons in an atom of nitrogen (2,5). Hence, the Lewis dot symbol is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 5
Br : There are seven valence electrons in bromine (2, 8, 18, 7). Hence, the
Lewis dot symbol is :
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 6

Question 3.
Write Lewis symbols for the following atoms and ions: S and S2-; Al and Al3+; H and H
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 7
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 8

Question 4.
Draw the Lewis structure for the following molecules and ions :
H2S, SiCl4, BeF2, \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2-}\), HCOOH
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 9

Question 5.
Define octet rule. Write its significance and limitations.
Answer:
Octet rule : Atoms can combine either by transfer of valence electrons from one atom to another (gaining or losing) or by sharing of valence electrons in order to have an octet in their valence shell.
Significance of octet rule : It help to explain why different atom combine with each other to form ionic or covalent compounds. Limitations of the Octet Rule
Although octet rule can explain the formation of a large number of compounds but it has many exceptions also, which are discussed below :

(i) Electron deficient molecules : There are some molecules in which the central atom is surrounded by less than eight electrons, i.e., their octet is incomplete. Elements having less than four valence electrons generally form molecules of this category.
e.g., BeCl2, BF3, AlCl3, LiCl, BeH2 etc.

(ii) Odd electron molecules : Molecules like NO, NO2, O2 etc., are examples of such molecules in which bonded atoms have odd number of electron (usually 3) in between them. That’s why these are called odd electron molecules.
In case of these molecules, the octet rule is not satisfied for all the atoms, e.g.,

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 10

Species with one unpaired electron are called free radicals. These are paramagnetic and most of them are generally unstable.

(iii) Electron rich molecules : Elements of the third and higher periods of the periodic table, because of the availability of d orbitals can expand their covalency and -can accommodate more than eight valence electrons around the central atom. This is referred as expanded octet. Here, also the octet rule is not applicable, e.g., PF5 (10 electrons around P atom), SF6 (12 electrons around S atom), H2SO4 (12 electron around S atom).
Compounds having expanded octet are also termed as hypervalent compounds.

(iv) Other drawbacks : Other drawbacks of this theory are as follows:
1. Octet rule is based on the inertness of noble gases but some noble gases like xenon and krypton form several compounds with oxygen and fluorine like. XeF2, XeF4, XeF6, XeOF4, XeO2F2, KrF2 etc.
2. It does not tell anything about the shapes of molecules and their relative stabilities.
3. It fails to explain the paramagnetic behaviour of oxygen. (Which should be diamagnetic according to this rule but it is infact paramagnetic in nature).

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 6.
Write the favourable factors for the formation of ionic bond.
Answer:
The favourable factors for ionic bond formation are as follows :

(i) Low ionization enthalpy of element forming cation.
(ii) More negative electron gain enthalpy of element forming anion.
(iii) High lattice energy of the compound formed.

Question 7.
Discuss the shape of the following molecules using the VSEPR model:
BeCl2, BCl3, SiCl4, ASF5, H2S, PH3
Answer:
According to VSEPR theory, the shape of a molecule depends upon the number of valence shell electron pairs (bonded or non-bonded) around the central atom. Pairs of electrons in the valence shell repel each other. The order of their repulsion is as follows :
Ip -Ip > Ip -bp > bp – bp
(i) BeCl2 or
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 11
The central atom Be has only 2 valence electrons which are bonded to Cl, so there are only 2 bond pairs and no lone pairs. It is of the type AB2 and hence, the shape is linear.

(ii) BCl3:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 12

The central atom B has only 3 valence electrons which are bonded with three Cl atoms, so it contains only 3 bond pairs and no lone pair. It is of the type AB3 and hence, the shape is trigonal planar.

(iii) SiCl4 :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 13

Similarly, the central atom Si has only 4 bond pairs and no lone pair. It is of the type AB4 and hence, the shape is tetrahedral.

(iv) AsF5:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 14

The central atom As has only 5 bond pairs and no lone pair. It is of the type AB5 and hence, the shape is trigonal bipyramidal.

(v) H2S:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 15

The central atom S has 6 valence electrons. Out of these only two are used in bond formation with two H-atoms while four (two pairs) remains as non-bonding electrons (i.e., lone pairs). So, it contains 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs. It is of the type AB2E2 and hence, the shape
is bent or V-shaped.

(vi) PH3

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 16

The central atom P has 5 valence electrons. Out of which three are utilised in bonding with H atoms and one pair remains as lone pair. So, it contains 3 bond pairs and one lone pair. It is of the type AB3E and hence the shape is pyramidal.

Question 8.
Although geometries of NH3 and H2O molecules are distorted
tetrahedral, bond angle in water is less than that of ammonia.
Discuss.
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 17

In H2O molecule there, is lone pair-lone pair repulsion due to the presence of two lone pairs of electrons while in NH3 molecule there are only lone pair-bond pair repulsion. According to VSEPR theory the former one is more stronger and hence the bond angle in water is less than that of ammonia.

Question 9.
How do you express the bond strength in terms of bond order?
Answer:
Bond strength represents the extent of bonding between two atoms forming a molecule. The larger the bond energy, the stronger is the bond and the greater is the bond order.

Question 10.
Define the bond length.
Answer:
Bond length is defined as the equilibrium distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms in a molecule.
Bond lengths are expressed in terms of Angstrom (10-10 m) or picometer (10-12 m) and are measured by spectroscopic X-ray diffractions and |
electron-diffraction techniques.

Question 11.
Explain the important aspects of resonance with reference to \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2-}\) the ion.
Answer:
According to experimental findings, all carbon to oxygen bonds in \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2-}\) are equivalent. Hence, it is inadequate to represent \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2-}\) ion by a single Lewis structure having two single bonds and one double bond.
The \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2-}\) ion is best described as a resonance hybrid of the canonical forms I, II and III.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 18

All canonical forms have similar energy, same positions of atoms and same number of bonded and non-bonded pairs of electrons.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 12.
H3PO3 can be represented by structures 1 and 2 shown below. Can these two structures be taken as the canonical forms of the resonance hybrid representing H3PO3? If not, give reasons for the same.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 19
Answer:
The given structures cannot be taken as the canonical forms of the resonance hybrid of H3PO3, because the positions of the atoms have been changed.

Question 13.
Write the resonance structures for SO3, NO2 and \(\mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-}\)
Answer:
The resonance structures are :
(a) SO3:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 20

(b) NO2:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 21

(c) \(\mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-}\)

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 22

Question 14.
Use Lewis symbols to show electron transfer between the following atoms to form cations and anions: (a) K and S (b) Ca and O (c) Al and N.
Answer:
(a) K and S :
The electronic configurations of K and S are as follows :
K : 2, 8, 8, 1
S : 2, 8, 6
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 23

Sulphur (S) requires 2 more electrons to complete its octet. Potassium (K) requires one electron more than the nearest noble gas i.e., Argon. Hence, the electron transfer can be shown as:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 24

(b) Ca and O :
The electronic configurations of Ca and O are as follows :
Ca : 2, 8, 8, 2
O : 2, 6
Oxygen requires two electrons more to complete its octet, whereas calcium has two electrons more than the nearest noble gas i.e., Argon. Hence, the electron transfer takes place as :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 25

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

(c) Al and N :
The electronic configurations of Al and N are as follows :
A1: 2, 8, 3
N : 2, 5
Nitrogen is three electrons short of the nearest noble gas (Neon), whereas aluminium has three electrons more than neon. Hence, the electron transference can be shown as :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 26

Question 15.
Although both CO2 and H2O are triatomic molecules, the shape of H2O molecule is bent while that of CO2 is linear. Explain this on the basis of dipole moment.
Answer:
According to experimental results, the dipole moment of carbon dioxide is zero. This is possible only if the molecule is linear so that the dipole moments of C—O bonds are equal and opposite to nullify each other.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 27

Resultant µ = 0 D
On the other hand, H2O molecule is found to have a net dipole moment value of 1.84 D (thoughit is a triatomic molecule as CO2). The value of the dipole moment suggests that the structure of H20 molecule is bent where the dipole moment of O—H bonds are unequal.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 28

Question 16.
Write the significance/applications of dipole moment.
Answer:
The applications of dipole moment are as follows :
1. In determining the polarity of bonds : As µ = e x d, obviously greater is the magnitude of dipole moment, higher will be the polarity of the bond. This is applicable to molecules containing only one polar bond like HC1, HBr etc. In non-polar molecules like, H2, O2, N2 the dipole moment is zero. It is because there is no charge separations in these molecules [e = 0]. Thus, dipole moment can also be used to distinguish between polar and non-polar molecules.

2. In the calculation of percentage ionic character :
Take the example of HCl. Its µ = 1.03 D
If HCl is 100% ionic, each end would carry charge of one unit
i.e., 4.8 x 10-10 e.s.u.
d (bond length) in H—Cl = 1.275Å
∴ for 100% ionic character, dipole moment will be
µionic = e x d
= 4.8 x 10-10 e.s.u x 1.275 x 10-8 cm
= 6.12 x 10-18 e.s.u cm = 6.12 D
∴ Percentage of ionic character =
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 29
= \(\frac{1.03}{6.12}\) x 100 = 16.83.

3. In determining the symmetry (or shape) of the molecules : Dipole moment is an important property in determining the shape of molecules containing 3 or more atoms. For instant if any molecule possesses two or more polar bonds, it will not be symmetric if it possesses some net molecular dipole moment as in case of water (\(\mu_{\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}}\) = 1-84 D) and ammonia (\(\mu_{\mathrm{NH}_{3}}\) = 1.49 D). But if a molecule contains a number of similar atoms linked to a central atom the overall dipole moment of the molecule is found out to be zero, this will imply that the molecule is symmetrical as in the case of CO2, BF3, CH4,CCl4,etc.

Question 17.
Define electronegativity. How does it differ from electron gain enthalpy?
Answer:
Electronegativity is the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract a bond pair of electrons towards itself. Electronegativity of any given element is not constant. It varies according to the element to which it is bound. It is not a measurable quantity. It is only a relative number.

On the other hand, electron gain enthalpy is the enthalpy change that takes place when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom to form an anion. It can be negative or positive depending upon whether the electron is added or removed. An element has a constant value of the electron gain enthalpy that can be measured experimentally.

Question 18.
Explain polar covalent bond with the help of suitable example.
Answer:
When two dissimilar atoms having different electronegativities combine to form a covalent bond, the bond pair of electrons is not shared equally. The bond pair shifts towards the nucleus of the atom having greater electronegativity. As a result, electron distribution gets distorted and the electron cloud is displaced towards the electronegative atom.

As a result, the electronegative atom becomes slightly negatively charged while the other atom becomes slightly positively charged. Thus, opposite poles are developed in the molecule and this type of a bond is called a polar covalent bond.

For example-In HF, the electron pair is attracted more towards F atom due to its higher electronegativity. HF may be written as

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 30

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 19.
Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic character in the molecules : LiF, K2O, N2, SO2 and ClF3.
Answer:
More the difference of electronegativity, more the ionic character of the molecules
N2 < SO2 < ClF2 < K2O < LiF.

Question 20.
The skeletal structure of CH3COOH as shown below is correct, but some of the bonds are shown incorrectly. Write the correct Lewis structure for acetic acid.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 31
Answer:
The correct Lewis structure for acetic acid is given below :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 32

Question 21.
Apart from tetrahedral geometry, another; possible geometry for CH4 is square planar with the four H atoms at the comers of the square and the C atom at its centre. Explain why CH4 is not square planar?
Answer:
Electronic configuration of carbon atom :
6C : 1s2 2s2 2p2
In the excited state, the orbital picture of carbon can be represented as:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 33

Hence, carbon atom undergoes sp3 hybridization in CH4 molecule and takes a tetrahedral shape.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 34

For a square planar shape, the hybridization of the central atom has to be dsp. However, an atom of carbon does not have d-orbitals to undergo dsp2 hybridization. Hence, the structure of CH4 cannot be square planar. Moreover, with a bond angle of 90° in square planar, the stability of CH4 will be very less because of the repulsion existing between the bond pairs. Hence, VSEPR theory also supports a tetrahedral structure for CH4.

Question 22.
Explain why BeH2 molecule has a zero dipole moment although the Be—H bonds are polar.
Answer:
BeH2 molecule is linear. The two equal bond dipoles point in opposite
directions and cancel the effect of each other.
That is why its dipole moment is zero.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 35

Question 23.
Which out of NH3 and NF3 has higher dipole moment and why?
Answer:
In both molecules i.e., NH3 and NF3, the central atom (N) has a lone pair electron and there are three bond pairs. Hence, both molecules have a pyramidal shape. Since fluorine is more electronegative than hydrogen, it is expected that the net dipole moment of NF3 is greater than NH3. However, the net dipole moment of NH3 (1.46 D) is greater than that of NF3 (0.24 D).
This can be explained on the basis of the directions of the dipole moments of each individual bond in NF3 and NH3. These directions can be shown as :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 36

Thus, the resultant moment of the N—H bonds add up to the bond moment of the lone pair (the two being in the same direction), whereas that of the three N—F bonds partly cancels the moment of the lone pair.
Hence, the net dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3.

Question 24.
What is meant by hybridisation of atomic orbitals? Describe the shapes of sp, sp2 , sp3 hybrid orbitals.
Answer:
Hybridisation : It is defined as the mixing of the atomic orbitals belonging to the same atom but having slightly different energies so that a redistribution of energy takes place between them resulting in the formation of new orbitals of equal energies and identical shapes. The new orbitals thus formed are known as Hybrid Orbitals. sp Hybridisation : Here one s and one p orbitals of same atom mix up to
give two sp hybrid orbitals with \(\frac{1}{2}\)s and \(\frac{1}{2}\)p character and linear shape with
bond angle of 180° between them. For example, in BeH2, BeF2 and C2H2, Be and C are sp-hybridised.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 37

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

sp hybridization is also called diagonal hybridization.

sp2 Hybridisation : Here one s and two p-orbitals of same atom mix up to form three sp2hybrid orbitals with \(\frac{1}{3}\)s and \(\frac{2}{3}\)p character. They form Trigonal Planar shapes with an angle of 120° with themselves. For example, in BH3 and BF3, boron is sp2 hybridised and in C2H4, carbon is sp2 hybridised.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 38

sp3 Hybridisation : Here one s and three p orbitals of same atom mix up to give four sp3 hybrid orbitals with \(\frac{1}{4}\) s character and \(\frac{3}{4}\)p character. They form tetrahedral shapes with angles of 109°, 28′ with themselves. For example, in methane (CH4), ethane (C2H6) and all compounds of carbon containing C—C single bonds, carbon is sp3 hybridised.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 39

Question 25.
Describe the change in hybridisation (if any) of the A1 atom in the following reaction.
AlCl3 + Cl → \(\mathbf{A l C l}_{\mathbf{4}}^{-}\)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of A1 in ground state is \(1 s^{2}, 2 s^{2}, 2 p^{6}, 3 s^{2}, 3 p^{\prime}{ }_{x}\) and it is \(1 s^{2}, 2 s^{2}, 2 p^{6}, 3 s^{\prime}, 3 p_{x}^{\prime}, 3 p^{\prime} y\) in excited state.

In the formation of AlCl3 Al undergoes sp2-hybridisation and it is trigonal planar in shape. While in the formation of \(\mathrm{AlCl}_{4}^{-} \), Al undergoes sp3-hybridisation. It means empty 3pz-orbital also involved in hybridisation. Thus, the shape of \(\mathrm{AlCl}_{4}^{-} \) ion is tetrahedral.

Question 26.
Is there any change in the hybridisation of B and N atoms as a result of the following reaction?
BF3 + NH3 → F3B . NH3
Answer:
In BF3, B is sp2 hybridised and in NH3, N is sp3 hybridised. After the reaction hybridisation of B changes to sp3 but that of N remains unchanged.

Question 27.
Draw diagrams showing the formation of a double bond and a triple bond between carbon atoms in C2H4 and C2H2 molecules.
Answer:
Formation of C2H4 (ethylene)

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 40

Formation of C2H2 (acetylene)

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 41

Question 28.
What is the total number of sigma and pi bonds in the following molecules?
(a) C2H2 (b) C2H4
Answer:
(a) The structure of C2H2 can be represented as:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 42

Hence, there are three sigma and two pi-bonds in C2H2.

(b) The structure of C2H4 can be represented as:

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 43

Hence, there are five sigma bonds and one pi-bond in C2H4.

Question 29.
Considering x-axis as the intemuclear axis which out of the following will not form a sigma bond and why?
(a) 1s and 1s (b) 1s and 2px, (c) 2py and 2py (d) Is and 2s.
Answer:
(c) 2py and 2py orbitals will not a form a sigma bond. Taking x-axis as
the intemuclear axis, 2py and 2py orbitals will undergo lateral overlapping, thereby forming a pair bond.

Question 30.
Which hybrid orbitals are used by carbon atoms in the following molecules?
(a) CH3— CH3; (b) CH3—CH = CH2; (c) CH3—CH2—OH;
(d) CH3—CHO; (e) CH3COOH
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 44

Question 31.
What do you understand by bond pan’s and lone pah’s of electrons? Illustrate by giving one example of each type.
Ans. When two atoms combine by sharing their one or more valence electrons, a covalent bond is formed between them. The shared pairs of electrons present between the bonded atoms are called bond pairs. All valence electrons may not participate in bonding. The electron pairs that do not participate in bonding are called lone pairs of electrons.
For example, in C2H6 (ethane), there are seven bond pairs but no lone pair present.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 45

In H2O, there are two bond pairs and two lone pairs on the central atom (oxygen).

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 46

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 32.
Distinguish between a sigma and a pi bond.
Answer:
The following are the differences between sigma and pi-bonds :

Sigma (σ) Bond Pi (π) Bond
(a) It is formed by the end to end over lapping (axial over lapping) of atomic orbitals. It is formed by the lateral overlapping (sideway overlapping) of atomic orbitals.
(b) The orbitals involved in the overlapping are s—s, s—p or p—p. These bonds are formed by the overlapping of p—p orbitals only.
(c) It is a strong bond. It is a weak bond.
(d) The electron cloud is symmetrical about the line joining the two nuclei. The electron cloud is not symmetrical.
(e) It consists of one electron cloud, which is symmetrical about the internuclear axis. There are two electron clouds lying above and below the plane of the atomic nuclei.
(f) Free rotation about σ bonds is possible. Rotation is restricted in case of pi-bonds.

Question 33.
Explain the formation of H2 molecule on the basis of valence bond theory.
Answer:
Consider two hydrogen atoms A and B are approaching each other. Their nuclei are NA and NB and electrons present in them are represented by eA and eB. When the two atoms are far apart, there is no interaction between them but as these approach each other, some new ‘ attractive and repulsive force begin to operate.
Attractive forces generated between

(i) nucleus of one atom and its own electron i.e., NA – eA and NB – eB.
(ii) nucleus of one atom and electron of other atom i.e., NA – eB and NB-eA.
Similarly, repulsive forces originated in between
1. electrons of two atoms i.e., eA – eB
2. nuclei of two atoms NA – NB.
Attractive forces tend to bring the combining atoms close to each other “ whereas repulsive forces tend to push them apart as shown in the figure

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 47

The magnitude of the attractive forces is more than that of the repulsive forces. Hence, the two atoms approach each other. As a result, the potential energy decreases. Finally, a state is reached when the attractive forces balance the repulsive forces and the system acquires minimum energy. This leads to the formation of a dihydrogen molecule.

Question 34.
Write the important conditions required for the linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals.
Answer:
Conditions required for the Combination of Atomic Orbitals
The linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals is possible only when they satisfied the following conditions :
(i) Similar energy of combining atomic orbitals : The combining atomic orbitals must possess the same or nearly the same energy. It means that Is orbital can combine with another Is orbital but not with 2s orbital because the energy of 2s orbitals is appreciable higher than that of Is orbital. However, it is not true in case of very different atoms.
(ii) Similar symmetry of combining atomic orbitals : The combining atomic orbitals must possess the same symmetry about the molecular axis along with the same energy. If the orbitals have same energy but their symmetry is not same, they will not combine e.g., 2pz orbital of one atom can combine with 2pz orbital or 2s orbital of the other atom but not with the 2px or 2py orbitals as their symmetries are different.
(iii) Maximum overlap : The combining atomic orbitals must overlap to the maximum extent. Higher the extent of overlapping, more will be the electron-density between the nuclei of a molecular orbital.

Question 35.
Use molecular orbital theory to explain why the Be2 molecule does not exist.
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Beryllium is 1s2 2s2
The electronic configuration of Be2 molecule (4 + 4 = 8),
σ1s2, σ* 1s2, σ2s2s2, σ* 2s2
Hence, the bond order of Be2 is -(Nb – Na).
where,
Nb = Number of electrons in bonding orbitals.
Na – Number of electrons in anti-bonding orbitals.
∴ Bond order of Be2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (4 – 4) = 0
A negative or zero bond order means that the molecule is unstable. Hence, Be2 molecule does not exist.

Question 36.
Compare the relative stability of the following species and indicate their magnetic properties ; \(\mathbf{O}_{2}, \mathbf{O}_{2}^{+}, \mathbf{O}_{2}^{-}\)(superoxide), \(\mathrm{O}_{2}^{2-}\) (peroxide)
Answer:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 48 PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 49

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Question 37.
Write the significance of a plus and a minus sign shown in representing the orbitals.
Answer:
Molecular orbitals are represented by wave function. A plus sign in an orbital indicates a positive wave function while a minus sign in an orbital represents a negative wave function. Combination of two wave functions having similar sign gave bonding molecular orbital while that having opposite sign gave antibonding molecular orbital.

Question 38.
Describe the hybridisation in case of PCl5. Why are the axial bonds longer as compared to equatorial bonds?
Answer:
The ground state and excited state outer electronic configurations of phosphorus (Z = 15) are as follows :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 50

Phosphorus atom is sp3 d hybridised in the excited state. These orbitals are filled by the electron pairs donated by five Cl atoms as :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 51

The five sp3d hybrid orbitals are directed towards the five corners of the trigonal bipyramidals. Hence, the geometry of PCl5 can be represented as :

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 52

There are five P—Cl sigma bonds in PCl5. Three P—Cl bonds lie in one plane and make an angle of 120° with each other. These bonds are called equatorial bonds.
The remaining two P—Cl bonds lie above and below the equatorial plane and make an angle of 90° with the plane. These bonds are called axial bonds.

As the axial bond pairs suffer more repulsion from the equatorial bond pairs, axial bonds are slightly longer than equatorial bonds.

Question 39.
Define hydrogen bond. Is it weaker or stronger than the van der Waals forces?
Answer:
A hydrogen bond is defined as an attractive force between the hydrogen attached to an electronegative atom of one molecule and an electronegative atom of a different molecule (may be of the same kind). Due to a difference between electronegativities, the bond pair between hydrogen and the electronegative atom gets drifted far away from the hydrogen atom. As a result, a hydrogen atom becomes electropositive with respect to the other atom and acquires a positive charge.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 53

The magnitude of H-bonding is maximum in the solid state and minimum in the gaseous state.
There are two types of H-bonds:
(i) Intermolecular H-bonds e.g., HF, H2O etc
(ii) Intramolecular H-bonds e.g., o-nitrophenol
Hydrogen bonds are stronger than Van der Waals forces since hydrogen bonds are regarded as an extreme form of dipole-dipole interaction.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 54

Question 40.
What is meant by the term bond order? Calculate the bond order of: \(\mathrm{N}_{2}, \mathrm{O}_{2}, \mathrm{O}_{2}^{+}\) and \(\mathbf{O}_{2}^{-}\).
Answer:
Bond order is defined as half of the difference between the number of electrons present in the bonding and anti-bonding orbitals of a molecule.
Bond order = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (Nb – Na)
If Nb > Na, then the molecule is said be stable. However, if Nb ≤ Na, then the molecule is considered to be unstable.
Bond order values 1, 2 or 3 correspond to single, double or triple bonds respectively.

Calculation of the bond order of \(\mathrm{N}_{2}, \mathrm{O}_{2}, \mathrm{O}_{2}^{+}\) and \(\mathbf{O}_{2}^{-}\).
Electronic configuration of N2

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 55
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 56

PSEB 11th Class Maths Book Solutions Guide in Punjabi English Medium

zxPunjab State Board Syllabus PSEB 11th Class Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf in English Medium and Punjabi Medium are part of PSEB Solutions for Class 11.

PSEB 11th Class Maths Guide | Maths Guide for Class 11 PSEB in English Medium

PSEB 11 Class Math Book Pdf Chapter 1 Sets

Punjab Board Maths Book Class 11 Solutions Chapter 2 Relations and Function

11th Class Math Book PSEB Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions

PSEB Class 11 Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Principle of Mathematical Induction

PSEB Class 11 Maths Book Pdf Download Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations

PSEB Class 11 Maths Syllabus Chapter 6 Linear Inequalities

PSEB 11th Class Math Book Pdf Chapter 7 Permutations and Combinations

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PSEB Class 11 Maths Book Pdf Download Chapter 12 Introduction to three Dimensional Geometry

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PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Punjab State Board PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Important Questions and Answers.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which properties of the elements depend on’ the electronic configuration of the atoms and which do not?
Answer:
Chemical and many physical properties of the elements depends on the electronic configuration of the atoms, whereas the nuclear properties do not.

Question 2.
Write the number designation of a group that has 2 electrons beyond a noble gas configuration.
Answer:
The number designation of a group that has 2 electrons beyond a noble gas configuration will be 2 which means it will belong to group 2 of periodic table.

Question 3.
Why is it more logical to call the atomic radius as the effective atomic radius?
Answer:
This is because the size of atom is very small and it has no sharp boundaries.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Question 4.
A boy has reported the radii of Cu, Cu+ and Cu2+ as 0.096 nm, 0.122 nm and Question072 nm respectively. However, it has been noticed that he interchanged the values by mistake. Assign the correct values to different species.
Answer:
Cu [0.122 nm], Cu+ [0.096 nm], Cu2+ [0.072 nm].
∵ Size ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { positive charge }}\)

Question 5.
Atomic radii of fluorine is 72 pm where as atomic radii of neon is 160 pm. Why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Atomic radius of F is expressed in terms of covalent radius while, atomic radius of neon is usually expressed in terms of van der Waals’ radius, van der Waals’ radius of an element is always larger than its covalent radius.
Therefore, atomic radius of F is smaller than atomic radius of Ne (F = 72 pm, Ne = 160 pm)

Question 6.
Arrange the following elements in order of decreasing electron gain enthalpy : B, C, N, O.
Answer:
N has positive electron gain enthalpy while all others have negative electron gain enthalpies. Since size decreases on moving from B → C → O, therefore, electron gain enthalpies become more and more negative from B → C → O. Thus, the overall decreasing order of electron gain enthalpies is N, B, C, O.

Question 7.
Which of the following atoms would most likely form an anion (i) Be, (ii) Al, (iii) Ga, (iv) I ?
Answer:
I, because of high electron gain enthalpy, it can accept an electron readily to form an anion F < Cl < Br > I.

Question 8.
Explain why chlorine can be converted into chloride ion more easily as compared to fluoride ion from fluorine.
Answer:
Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is more negative than that of F.

Question 9.
Among alkali metals which element do you expect to be least electronegative and why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
On moving down the group, electronegativity decreases because atomic size increases. Fr has the largest size, therefore it is least electronegative.

Question 10.
Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of non-metallic character. B, C, Si, N, F
Answer:
The given non-metals are arranged in the increasing order of non-metallic character as follows:
PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 1

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What would be IUPAC names and symbols for elements with atomic numbers 122, 127, 135, 149 and 150? .
Answer:
The roots 2, 7, 5, 9 and 0 are referred as bi, sept, pent, enn and nil respectively. Therefore, their names and symbol are

Z (Atomic number) Name Symbol
122 Unbibium Ubb
127 Unbiseptium Ubs
135 Untripentium Dtp
149 Unquadennium Uqe
150 Unpentnilium Upn

Question2.
All transition elements are d-block elements, but all d-block elements are not transition elements. Explain.
Answer:
Elements in which the last electron enters in the d-orbitals, are called d-block elements or transition elements. These elements have the general outer electronic configuration (n – 1)d1-10ns0-2 Zn, Cd and Hg having the electronic configuration, (n – l1)d10ns2 do not show most of the properties of transition elements. The d-orbitals in these elements are completely filled in the ground state as well as in their common oxidation states. Therefore, they are not regarded as transition elements. Thus, on the basis of properties, all transition elements are d-block elements but on the basis of electronic configuration, all d-block elements are not transition elements.

Question 3.
Arrange the elements N, P, O and S in the order of
(i) increasing first ionisation enthalpy.
(ii) increasing non-metallic character.
Give reason for the arrangement assigned.
Answer:

Group 15 Group 16
2nd period N 0
3rd period P S

(i) Ionisation enthalpy of nitrogen (7N = 1s2, 2s2, 2p3) is greater than oxygen (8O = 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p4 ) due to extra stable half-filled 2p-orbitals. Similarly, ionisation enthalpy of phosphorus (15P = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3) is greater than sulphur (16S = 1s2, 2x2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p4).
On moving down the group, ionisation enthalpy decreases with increasing atomic size. So, the increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is S < P < O < N.

(ii) Non-metallic character across a period (left to right) increases but on moving down the group it decreases. So, the increasing order of non-metallic character is P < S < N < 0.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Question 4.
What do you understand by exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction? Give one example of each type.
Answer:
Exothermic reactions : Reactions which are accompanied by evolution of heat are called exothermic reactions. The quantity of heat produced is shown either along with the products with a ‘+’ sign or in terms if ΔH with a sign, e.g.,

C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 393.5 kJ
H2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → H2O(l) ΔH = -285.8 kJ mol-1

Endothermic reactions : Reactions which proceed with absorption of heat are called endothermic reactions. The quantity of heat absorbed is shown either alongwith the products with a sign or in terms of ΔH with a ‘-‘ sign, e.g.,

C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g) -131.4 kJ
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); ΔH = +92.4 kJ mol-1

Question5.
How does the metallic and non-metallic character vary on moving from left to right in a period?
Answer:
As we move from left to right in a period, the number of valence electrons increases by one at each succeeding element but the number of shells remains same. Due to this, effective nuclear charge increases.

More is the effective nuclear charge, more is the attraction between nuclei and electron.
Hence, the tendency of the element to lose electrons decreases, this results in decrease in metallic character.
Furthermore, the tendency of an element to gain electrons increases with increase in effective nuclear charge, so non-metallic character increases on moving from left to right in a period.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the drawbacks in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table that led to its modification.
Answer:
The main drawbacks of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table are:
(i) Some elements having similar properties were placed in different groups whereas some elements having dissimilar properties were placed in the same group. For example alkali metals such as Li, Na, K, etc., (I A group) are grouped together with coinage metals such as Cu, Ag, Au (I B group) though their properties are quite different. Chemically similar elements such as Cu (I B group) and Hg (II B group) have been placed in different groups.

(ii) Some elements with higher atomic weights are placed before the elements with lower atomic weights in order to maintain the similar chemical nature of elements. For example,

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 2

(iii) Isotopes did not find any place in the Periodic Table. However, according to Mendeleev’s classification, these should be placed at different places in the Periodic Table.
(All the above three defects were however removed when modern periodic law based on atomic number was given.)

(iv) Position of hydrogen in the Periodic Table is not fixed but is
controversial. ,
(v) Position of elements of group VIII could not be made clear which have been arranged in three triads without any justification.
(vi) It could not explain the even and odd series in IV, V and VI long periods.
(vii) Lanthanides and actinides which were discovered later on, have not been given proper positions in the main frame of Periodic Table.

Question 2.
p-block elements form acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides. Explain each property by giving two examples and also write the reactions of these oxides with water.
Answer:
In p-block, when we move from left to right in a period, the acidic character of the oxides increases due to increase in electronegativity, e.g.,

(i) 2nd period
B2O3 < CO2 < N2O3 acidic character increases.

(ii) 3rd period
Al2O3 < SiO2 < P4O10 < SO3 < Cl2O7 acidic character increases.
On moving down the group, acidic character decreases and basic character increases, e.g.,

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

(a) Nature of oxides of 13 group elements

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 3

(b) Nature of oxides of 15 group elements

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Among the oxides of same element, higher the oxidation state of the element, stronger is the acid. e.g., SO3 is a stronger acid than SO2. B2O3 is weakly acidic and on dissolution in water, it forms orthoboric acid. Orthoboric acid does not act as a protonic acid (it does not ionise) but acts as a weak Lewis acid.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 5

Al2O3 is amphoteric in nature. It is insoluble in water but dissolves in alkalies and react with acids.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 6

Tl2O is as basic as NaOH due to its lower oxidation state (+1).
Tl2O + 2HCl → 2TlCl + H2O

P4O10 on reaction with water gives orthophosporic acid.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 7

Cl2O7 is strongly acidic in nature and on dissolution in water, it gives perchloric acid.

PSEB 11th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 8